14 Aeronautics and Space 1 2025-01-01 false 2025-01-01 FEDERAL AVIATION ADMINISTRATION, DEPARTMENT OF TRANSPORTATION Aeronautics and Space

Code of Federal Regulations / Title 14 - Aeronautics and Space / Vol. 1 / 2025-01-013

CHAPTER I—FEDERAL AVIATION ADMINISTRATION, DEPARTMENT OF TRANSPORTATION Part Page 1 Definitions and abbreviations 5

3 General requirements 21

5 Safety management systems 24

11 General rulemaking procedures 32

13 Investigative and enforcement procedures 42

14 Rules implementing the Equal Access to Justice Act of 1980 87

15 Administrative claims under Federal Tort Claims Act 94

16 Rules of practice for Federally-assisted airport enforcement proceedings. 98

17 Procedures for protests and contract disputes 119

21 Certification procedures for products and articles 136

23 Airworthiness standards: Normal category airplanes 181

25 Airworthiness standards: Transport category airplanes 201

26 Continued airworthiness and safety improvements for transport category airplanes 481

27 Airworthiness standards: Normal category rotorcraft 496

29 Airworthiness standards: Transport category rotorcraft 582

31 Airworthiness standards: Manned free balloons 701

33 Airworthiness standards: Aircraft engines 708

34 Fuel venting and exhaust emission requirements for turbine engine powered airplanes 755

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35 Airworthiness standards: Propellers 771

36 Noise standards: Aircraft type and airworthiness certification 780

38 Airplane fuel efficiency certification 858

39 Airworthiness directives 869

43 Maintenance, preventive maintenance, rebuilding, and alteration 871

45 Identification and registration marking 887

47 Aircraft registration 894

48 Registration and marking requirements for small unmanned aircraft 908

49 Recording of aircraft titles and security documents 912

50-59 [Reserved]

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SUBCHAPTER A—DEFINITIONS AND GENERAL REQUIREMENTS Pt. 1 PART 1—DEFINITIONS AND ABBREVIATIONS Sec. 1.1 General definitions. 1.2 Abbreviations and symbols. 1.3 Rules of construction. Authority: 49 U.S.C. 106(f), 40113, 44701. § 1.1 General definitions. As used in Subchapters A through K of this chapter, unless the context requires otherwise: Administrator means the Federal Aviation Administrator or any person to whom he has delegated his authority in the matter concerned. Aerodynamic coefficients means non-dimensional coefficients for aerodynamic forces and moments. Air carrier means a person who undertakes directly by lease, or other arrangement, to engage in air transportation. Air commerce means interstate, overseas, or foreign air commerce or the transportation of mail by aircraft or any operation or navigation of aircraft within the limits of any Federal airway or any operation or navigation of aircraft which directly affects, or which may endanger safety in, interstate, overseas, or foreign air commerce. Aircraft means a device that is used or intended to be used for flight in the air. Aircraft engine means an engine that is used or intended to be used for propelling aircraft. It includes turbosuperchargers, appurtenances, and accessories necessary for its functioning, but does not include propellers. Airframe means the fuselage, booms, nacelles, cowlings, fairings, airfoil surfaces (including rotors but excluding propellers and rotating airfoils of engines), and landing gear of an aircraft and their accessories and controls. Airplane means an engine-driven fixed-wing aircraft heavier than air, that is supported in flight by the dynamic reaction of the air against its wings. Airport means an area of land or water that is used or intended to be used for the landing and takeoff of aircraft, and includes its buildings and facilities, if any. Airship means an engine-driven lighter-than-air aircraft that can be steered. Air traffic means aircraft operating in the air or on an airport surface, exclusive of loading ramps and parking areas. Air traffic clearance means an authorization by air traffic control, for the purpose of preventing collision between known aircraft, for an aircraft to proceed under specified traffic conditions within controlled airspace. Air traffic control means a service operated by appropriate authority to promote the safe, orderly, and expeditious flow of air traffic. Air Traffic Service (ATS) route is a specified route designated for channeling the flow of traffic as necessary for the provision of air traffic services. The term “ATS route” refers to a variety of airways, including jet routes, area navigation (RNAV) routes, and arrival and departure routes. An ATS route is defined by route specifications, which may include: (1) An ATS route designator; (2) The path to or from significant points; (3) Distance between significant points; (4) Reporting requirements; and (5) The lowest safe altitude determined by the appropriate authority. Air transportation means interstate, overseas, or foreign air transportation or the transportation of mail by aircraft. Alert Area. An alert area is established to inform pilots of a specific area wherein a high volume of pilot training or an unusual type of aeronautical activity is conducted. Alternate airport means an airport at which an aircraft may land if a landing at the intended airport becomes inadvisable. Altitude engine means a reciprocating aircraft engine having a rated takeoff power that is producible from sea level to an established higher altitude.

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Amateur rocket means an unmanned rocket that: (1) Is propelled by a motor or motors having a combined total impulse of 889,600 Newton-seconds (200,000 pound-seconds) or less; and (2) Cannot reach an altitude greater than 150 kilometers (93.2 statute miles) above the earth's surface. Appliance means any instrument, mechanism, equipment, part, apparatus, appurtenance, or accessory, including communications equipment, that is used or intended to be used in operating or controlling an aircraft in flight, is installed in or attached to the aircraft, and is not part of an airframe, engine, or propeller. Approved , unless used with reference to another person, means approved by the FAA or any person to whom the FAA has delegated its authority in the matter concerned, or approved under the provisions of a bilateral agreement between the United States and a foreign country or jurisdiction. Area navigation (RNAV) is a method of navigation that permits aircraft operations on any desired flight path. Area navigation (RNAV) route is an ATS route based on RNAV that can be used by suitably equipped aircraft. Armed Forces means the Army, Navy, Air Force, Marine Corps, and Coast Guard, including their regular and reserve components and members serving without component status. Autorotation means a rotorcraft flight condition in which the lifting rotor is driven entirely by action of the air when the rotorcraft is in motion. Auxiliary rotor means a rotor that serves either to counteract the effect of the main rotor torque on a rotorcraft or to maneuver the rotorcraft about one or more of its three principal axes. Balloon means a lighter-than-air aircraft that is not engine driven, and that sustains flight through the use of either gas buoyancy or an airborne heater. Brake horsepower means the power delivered at the propeller shaft (main drive or main output) of an aircraft engine. Calibrated airspeed means the indicated airspeed of an aircraft, corrected for position and instrument error. Calibrated airspeed is equal to true airspeed in standard atmosphere at sea level. Canard means the forward wing of a canard configuration and may be a fixed, movable, or variable geometry surface, with or without control surfaces. Canard configuration means a configuration in which the span of the forward wing is substantially less than that of the main wing. Category: (1) As used with respect to the certification, ratings, privileges, and limitations of airmen, means a broad classification of aircraft. Examples include: airplane; rotorcraft; glider; and lighter-than-air; and (2) As used with respect to the certification of aircraft, means a grouping of aircraft based upon intended use or operating limitations. Examples include: transport, normal, utility, acrobatic, limited, restricted, and provisional. Category A, with respect to transport category rotorcraft, means multiengine rotorcraft designed with engine and system isolation features specified in Part 29 and utilizing scheduled takeoff and landing operations under a critical engine failure concept which assures adequate designated surface area and adequate performance capability for continued safe flight in the event of engine failure. Category B, with respect to transport category rotorcraft, means single-engine or multiengine rotorcraft which do not fully meet all Category A standards. Category B rotorcraft have no guaranteed stay-up ability in the event of engine failure and unscheduled landing is assumed. Category II operations, with respect to the operation of aircraft, means a straight-in ILS approach to the runway of an airport under a Category II ILS instrument approach procedure issued by the Administrator or other appropriate authority. Category III operations, with respect to the operation of aircraft, means an ILS approach to, and landing on, the runway of an airport using a Category III ILS instrument approach procedure issued by the Administrator or other appropriate authority.

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Ceiling means the height above the earth's surface of the lowest layer of clouds or obscuring phenomena that is reported as “broken”, “overcast”, or “obscuration”, and not classified as “thin” or “partial”. Civil aircraft means aircraft other than public aircraft. Class: (1) As used with respect to the certification, ratings, privileges, and limitations of airmen, means a classification of aircraft within a category having similar operating characteristics. Examples include: single engine; multiengine; land; water; gyroplane; helicopter; airship; and free balloon; and (2) As used with respect to the certification of aircraft, means a broad grouping of aircraft having similar characteristics of propulsion, flight, or landing. Examples include: airplane; rotorcraft; glider; balloon; landplane; and seaplane. Clearway means: (1) For turbine engine powered airplanes certificated after August 29, 1959, an area beyond the runway, not less than 500 feet wide, centrally located about the extended centerline of the runway, and under the control of the airport authorities. The clearway is expressed in terms of a clearway plane, extending from the end of the runway with an upward slope not exceeding 1.25 percent, above which no object nor any terrain protrudes. However, threshold lights may protrude above the plane if their height above the end of the runway is 26 inches or less and if they are located to each side of the runway. (2) For turbine engine powered airplanes certificated after September 30, 1958, but before August 30, 1959, an area beyond the takeoff runway extending no less than 300 feet on either side of the extended centerline of the runway, at an elevation no higher than the elevation of the end of the runway, clear of all fixed obstacles, and under the control of the airport authorities. Climbout speed, with respect to rotorcraft, means a referenced airspeed which results in a flight path clear of the height-velocity envelope during initial climbout. Commercial operator means a person who, for compensation or hire, engages in the carriage by aircraft in air commerce of persons or property, other than as an air carrier or foreign air carrier or under the authority of Part 375 of this title. Where it is doubtful that an operation is for “compensation or hire”, the test applied is whether the carriage by air is merely incidental to the person's other business or is, in itself, a major enterprise for profit. Configuration, Maintenance, and Procedures (CMP) document means a document approved by the FAA that contains minimum configuration, operating, and maintenance requirements, hardware life-limits, and Master Minimum Equipment List (MMEL) constraints necessary for an airplane-engine combination to meet ETOPS type design approval requirements. Consensus standard means, for the purpose of certificating light-sport aircraft, an industry-developed consensus standard that applies to aircraft design, production, and airworthiness. It includes, but is not limited to, standards for aircraft design and performance, required equipment, manufacturer quality assurance systems, production acceptance test procedures, operating instructions, maintenance and inspection procedures, identification and recording of major repairs and major alterations, and continued airworthiness. Controlled airspace means an airspace of defined dimensions within which air traffic control service is provided to IFR flights and to VFR flights in accordance with the airspace classification. Note: Controlled airspace is a generic term that covers Class A, Class B, Class C, Class D, and Class E airspace.

Controlled Firing Area. A controlled firing area is established to contain activities, which if not conducted in a controlled environment, would be hazardous to nonparticipating aircraft. Crewmember means a person assigned to perform duty in an aircraft during flight time. Critical altitude means the maximum altitude at which, in standard atmosphere, it is possible to maintain, at a specified rotational speed, a specified power or a specified manifold pressure. Unless otherwise stated, the critical altitude is the maximum altitude at which it is possible to maintain, at the maximum continuous rotational speed, one of the following:

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(1) The maximum continuous power, in the case of engines for which this power rating is the same at sea level and at the rated altitude. (2) The maximum continuous rated manifold pressure, in the case of engines, the maximum continuous power of which is governed by a constant manifold pressure. Critical engine means the engine whose failure would most adversely affect the performance or handling qualities of an aircraft. Decision altitude (DA) is a specified altitude in an instrument approach procedure at which the pilot must decide whether to initiate an immediate missed approach if the pilot does not see the required visual reference, or to continue the approach. Decision altitude is expressed in feet above mean sea level. Decision height (DH) is a specified height above the ground in an instrument approach procedure at which the pilot must decide whether to initiate an immediate missed approach if the pilot does not see the required visual reference, or to continue the approach. Decision height is expressed in feet above ground level. Early ETOPS means ETOPS type design approval obtained without gaining non-ETOPS service experience on the candidate airplane-engine combination certified for ETOPS. EFVS operation means an operation in which visibility conditions require an EFVS to be used in lieu of natural vision to perform an approach or landing, determine enhanced flight visibility, identify required visual references, or conduct a rollout. Enhanced flight visibility (EFV) means the average forward horizontal distance, from the cockpit of an aircraft in flight, at which prominent topographical objects may be clearly distinguished and identified by day or night by a pilot using an enhanced flight vision system. Enhanced flight vision system (EFVS) means an installed aircraft system which uses an electronic means to provide a display of the forward external scene topography (the natural or manmade features of a place or region especially in a way to show their relative positions and elevation) through the use of imaging sensors, including but not limited to forward-looking infrared, millimeter wave radiometry, millimeter wave radar, or low-light level image intensification. An EFVS includes the display element, sensors, computers and power supplies, indications, and controls. Equivalent airspeed means the calibrated airspeed of an aircraft corrected for adiabatic compressible flow for the particular altitude. Equivalent airspeed is equal to calibrated airspeed in standard atmosphere at sea level. ETOPS Significant System means an airplane system, including the propulsion system, the failure or malfunctioning of which could adversely affect the safety of an ETOPS flight, or the continued safe flight and landing of an airplane during an ETOPS diversion. Each ETOPS significant system is either an ETOPS group 1 significant system or an ETOPS group 2 significant system. (1) An ETOPS group 1 Significant System— (i) Has fail-safe characteristics directly linked to the degree of redundancy provided by the number of engines on the airplane. (ii) Is a system, the failure or malfunction of which could result in an IFSD, loss of thrust control, or other power loss. (iii) Contributes significantly to the safety of an ETOPS diversion by providing additional redundancy for any system power source lost as a result of an inoperative engine. (iv) Is essential for prolonged operation of an airplane at engine inoperative altitudes. (2) An ETOPS group 2 significant system is an ETOPS significant system that is not an ETOPS group 1 significant system. Extended Operations (ETOPS) means an airplane flight operation, other than an all-cargo operation in an airplane with more than two engines, during which a portion of the flight is conducted beyond a time threshold identified in part 121 or part 135 of this chapter that is determined using an approved one-engine-inoperative cruise speed under standard atmospheric conditions in still air.

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Extended over-water operation means— (1) With respect to aircraft other than helicopters, an operation over water at a horizontal distance of more than 50 nautical miles from the nearest shoreline; and (2) With respect to helicopters, an operation over water at a horizontal distance of more than 50 nautical miles from the nearest shoreline and more than 50 nautical miles from an off-shore heliport structure. External load means a load that is carried, or extends, outside of the aircraft fuselage. External-load attaching means means the structural components used to attach an external load to an aircraft, including external-load containers, the backup structure at the attachment points, and any quick-release device used to jettison the external load. Final approach fix (FAF) defines the beginning of the final approach segment and the point where final segment descent may begin. Final takeoff speed means the speed of the airplane that exists at the end of the takeoff path in the en route configuration with one engine inoperative. Fireproof — (1) With respect to materials and parts used to confine fire in a designated fire zone, means the capacity to withstand at least as well as steel in dimensions appropriate for the purpose for which they are used, the heat produced when there is a severe fire of extended duration in that zone; and (2) With respect to other materials and parts, means the capacity to withstand the heat associated with fire at least as well as steel in dimensions appropriate for the purpose for which they are used. Fire resistant — (1) With respect to sheet or structural members means the capacity to withstand the heat associated with fire at least as well as aluminum alloy in dimensions appropriate for the purpose for which they are used; and (2) With respect to fluid-carrying lines, fluid system parts, wiring, air ducts, fittings, and powerplant controls, means the capacity to perform the intended functions under the heat and other conditions likely to occur when there is a fire at the place concerned. Flame resistant means not susceptible to combustion to the point of propagating a flame, beyond safe limits, after the ignition source is removed. Flammable, with respect to a fluid or gas, means susceptible to igniting readily or to exploding. Flap extended speed means the highest speed permissible with wing flaps in a prescribed extended position. Flash resistant means not susceptible to burning violently when ignited. Flightcrew member means a pilot, flight engineer, or flight navigator assigned to duty in an aircraft during flight time. Flight level means a level of constant atmospheric pressure related to a reference datum of 29.92 inches of mercury. Each is stated in three digits that represent hundreds of feet. For example, flight level 250 represents a barometric altimeter indication of 25,000 feet; flight level 255, an indication of 25,500 feet. Flight plan means specified information, relating to the intended flight of an aircraft, that is filed orally or in writing with air traffic control. Flight simulation training device (FSTD) means a full flight simulator or a flight training device. Flight time means: (1) Pilot time that commences when an aircraft moves under its own power for the purpose of flight and ends when the aircraft comes to rest after landing; or (2) For a glider without self-launch capability, pilot time that commences when the glider is towed for the purpose of flight and ends when the glider comes to rest after landing. Flight training device (FTD) means a replica of aircraft instruments, equipment, panels, and controls in an open flight deck area or an enclosed aircraft cockpit replica. It includes the equipment and computer programs necessary to represent aircraft (or set of aircraft) operations in ground and flight conditions having the full range of capabilities of the systems installed in the device as described in part 60 of this chapter and the qualification performance standard (QPS) for a specific FTD qualification level.

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Flight visibility means the average forward horizontal distance, from the cockpit of an aircraft in flight, at which prominent unlighted objects may be seen and identified by day and prominent lighted objects may be seen and identified by night. Foreign air carrier means any person other than a citizen of the United States, who undertakes directly, by lease or other arrangement, to engage in air transportation. Foreign air commerce means the carriage by aircraft of persons or property for compensation or hire, or the carriage of mail by aircraft, or the operation or navigation of aircraft in the conduct or furtherance of a business or vocation, in commerce between a place in the United States and any place outside thereof; whether such commerce moves wholly by aircraft or partly by aircraft and partly by other forms of transportation. Foreign air transportation means the carriage by aircraft of persons or property as a common carrier for compensation or hire, or the carriage of mail by aircraft, in commerce between a place in the United States and any place outside of the United States, whether that commerce moves wholly by aircraft or partly by aircraft and partly by other forms of transportation. Forward wing means a forward lifting surface of a canard configuration or tandem-wing configuration airplane. The surface may be a fixed, movable, or variable geometry surface, with or without control surfaces. Full flight simulator (FFS) means a replica of a specific type; or make, model, and series aircraft cockpit. It includes the assemblage of equipment and computer programs necessary to represent aircraft operations in ground and flight conditions, a visual system providing an out-of-the-cockpit view, a system that provides cues at least equivalent to those of a three-degree-of-freedom motion system, and has the full range of capabilities of the systems installed in the device as described in part 60 of this chapter and the qualification performance standards (QPS) for a specific FFS qualification level. Glider means a heavier-than-air aircraft, that is supported in flight by the dynamic reaction of the air against its lifting surfaces and whose free flight does not depend principally on an engine. Ground visibility means prevailing horizontal visibility near the earth's surface as reported by the United States National Weather Service or an accredited observer. Go-around power or thrust setting means the maximum allowable in-flight power or thrust setting identified in the performance data. Gyrodyne means a rotorcraft whose rotors are normally engine-driven for takeoff, hovering, and landing, and for forward flight through part of its speed range, and whose means of propulsion, consisting usually of conventional propellers, is independent of the rotor system. Gyroplane means a rotorcraft whose rotors are not engine-driven, except for initial starting, but are made to rotate by action of the air when the rotorcraft is moving; and whose means of propulsion, consisting usually of conventional propellers, is independent of the rotor system. Helicopter means a rotorcraft that, for its horizontal motion, depends principally on its engine-driven rotors. Heliport means an area of land, water, or structure used or intended to be used for the landing and takeoff of helicopters. Idle thrust means the jet thrust obtained with the engine power control level set at the stop for the least thrust position at which it can be placed. IFR conditions means weather conditions below the minimum for flight under visual flight rules. IFR over-the-top, with respect to the operation of aircraft, means the operation of an aircraft over-the-top on an IFR flight plan when cleared by air traffic control to maintain “VFR conditions” or “VFR conditions on top”. Indicated airspeed means the speed of an aircraft as shown on its pitot static airspeed indicator calibrated to reflect standard atmosphere adiabatic compressible flow at sea level uncorrected for airspeed system errors.

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In-flight shutdown (IFSD) means, for ETOPS only, when an engine ceases to function (when the airplane is airborne) and is shutdown, whether self induced, flightcrew initiated or caused by an external influence. The FAA considers IFSD for all causes: for example, flameout, internal failure, flightcrew initiated shutdown, foreign object ingestion, icing, inability to obtain or control desired thrust or power, and cycling of the start control, however briefly, even if the engine operates normally for the remainder of the flight. This definition excludes the airborne cessation of the functioning of an engine when immediately followed by an automatic engine relight and when an engine does not achieve desired thrust or power but is not shutdown. Instrument means a device using an internal mechanism to show visually or aurally the attitude, altitude, or operation of an aircraft or aircraft part. It includes electronic devices for automatically controlling an aircraft in flight. Instrument approach procedure (IAP) is a series of predetermined maneuvers by reference to flight instruments with specified protection from obstacles and assurance of navigation signal reception capability. It begins from the initial approach fix, or where applicable, from the beginning of a defined arrival route to a point: (1) From which a landing can be completed; or (2) If a landing is not completed, to a position at which holding or en route obstacle clearance criteria apply. Interstate air commerce means the carriage by aircraft of persons or property for compensation or hire, or the carriage of mail by aircraft, or the operation or navigation of aircraft in the conduct or furtherance of a business or vocation, in commerce between a place in any State of the United States, or the District of Columbia, and a place in any other State of the United States, or the District of Columbia; or between places in the same State of the United States through the airspace over any place outside thereof; or between places in the same territory or possession of the United States, or the District of Columbia. Interstate air transportation means the carriage by aircraft of persons or property as a common carrier for compensation or hire, or the carriage of mail by aircraft in commerce: (1) Between a place in a State or the District of Columbia and another place in another State or the District of Columbia; (2) Between places in the same State through the airspace over any place outside that State; or (3) Between places in the same possession of the United States; Whether that commerce moves wholly by aircraft of partly by aircraft and partly by other forms of transportation. Intrastate air transportation means the carriage of persons or property as a common carrier for compensation or hire, by turbojet-powered aircraft capable of carrying thirty or more persons, wholly within the same State of the United States. Kite means a framework, covered with paper, cloth, metal, or other material, intended to be flown at the end of a rope or cable, and having as its only support the force of the wind moving past its surfaces. Landing gear extended speed means the maximum speed at which an aircraft can be safely flown with the landing gear extended. Landing gear operating speed means the maximum speed at which the landing gear can be safely extended or retracted. Large aircraft means aircraft of more than 12,500 pounds, maximum certificated takeoff weight. Light-sport aircraft means an aircraft, other than a helicopter or powered-lift that, since its original certification, has continued to meet the following: (1) A maximum takeoff weight of not more than— (i) 1,320 pounds (600 kilograms) for aircraft not intended for operation on water; or (ii) 1,430 pounds (650 kilograms) for an aircraft intended for operation on water. (2) A maximum airspeed in level flight with maximum continuous power (V H ) of not more than 120 knots CAS under standard atmospheric conditions at sea level.

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(3) A maximum never-exceed speed (V NE ) of not more than 120 knots CAS for a glider. (4) A maximum stalling speed or minimum steady flight speed without the use of lift-enhancing devices (V S1 ) of not more than 45 knots CAS at the aircraft's maximum certificated takeoff weight and most critical center of gravity. (5) A maximum seating capacity of no more than two persons, including the pilot. (6) A single, reciprocating engine, if powered. (7) A fixed or ground-adjustable propeller if a powered aircraft other than a powered glider. (8) A fixed or feathering propeller system if a powered glider. (9) A fixed-pitch, semi-rigid, teetering, two-blade rotor system, if a gyroplane. (10) A nonpressurized cabin, if equipped with a cabin. (11) Fixed landing gear, except for an aircraft intended for operation on water or a glider. (12) Fixed or retractable landing gear, or a hull, for an aircraft intended for operation on water. (13) Fixed or retractable landing gear for a glider. Lighter-than-air aircraft means aircraft that can rise and remain suspended by using contained gas weighing less than the air that is displaced by the gas. Load factor means the ratio of a specified load to the total weight of the aircraft. The specified load is expressed in terms of any of the following: aerodynamic forces, inertia forces, or ground or water reactions. Long-range communication system (LRCS). A system that uses satellite relay, data link, high frequency, or another approved communication system which extends beyond line of sight. Long-range navigation system (LRNS). An electronic navigation unit that is approved for use under instrument flight rules as a primary means of navigation, and has at least one source of navigational input, such as inertial navigation system or global positioning system. Mach number means the ratio of true airspeed to the speed of sound. Main rotor means the rotor that supplies the principal lift to a rotorcraft. Maintenance means inspection, overhaul, repair, preservation, and the replacement of parts, but excludes preventive maintenance. Major alteration means an alteration not listed in the aircraft, aircraft engine, or propeller specifications— (1) That might appreciably affect weight, balance, structural strength, performance, powerplant operation, flight characteristics, or other qualities affecting airworthiness; or (2) That is not done according to accepted practices or cannot be done by elementary operations. Major repair means a repair: (1) That, if improperly done, might appreciably affect weight, balance, structural strength, performance, powerplant operation, flight characteristics, or other qualities affecting airworthiness; or (2) That is not done according to accepted practices or cannot be done by elementary operations. Manifold pressure means absolute pressure as measured at the appropriate point in the induction system and usually expressed in inches of mercury. Maximum engine overtorque , as it applies to turbopropeller and turboshaft engines incorporating free power turbines for all ratings except one engine inoperative (OEI) ratings of two minutes or less, means the maximum torque of the free power turbine rotor assembly, the inadvertent occurrence of which, for periods of up to 20 seconds, will not require rejection of the engine from service, or any maintenance action other than to correct the cause. Maximum speed for stability characteristics, V FC /M FC means a speed that may not be less than a speed midway between maximum operating limit speed (V MO /M MO ) and demonstrated flight diving speed (V DF /M DF ), except that, for altitudes where the Mach number is the limiting factor, M FC need not exceed the Mach number at which effective speed warning occurs.

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Medical certificate means acceptable evidence of physical fitness on a form prescribed by the Administrator. Military operations area. A military operations area (MOA) is airspace established outside Class A airspace to separate or segregate certain nonhazardous military activities from IFR Traffic and to identify for VFR traffic where theses activities are conducted. Minimum descent altitude (MDA) is the lowest altitude specified in an instrument approach procedure, expressed in feet above mean sea level, to which descent is authorized on final approach or during circle-to-land maneuvering until the pilot sees the required visual references for the heliport or runway of intended landing. Minor alteration means an alteration other than a major alteration. Minor repair means a repair other than a major repair. National defense airspace means airspace established by a regulation prescribed, or an order issued under, 49 U.S.C. 40103(b)(3). Navigable airspace means airspace at and above the minimum flight altitudes prescribed by or under this chapter, including airspace needed for safe takeoff and landing. Night means the time between the end of evening civil twilight and the beginning of morning civil twilight, as published in the Air Almanac, converted to local time. Nonprecision approach procedure means a standard instrument approach procedure in which no electronic glide slope is provided. Operate, with respect to aircraft, means use, cause to use or authorize to use aircraft, for the purpose (except as provided in § 91.13 of this chapter) of air navigation including the piloting of aircraft, with or without the right of legal control (as owner, lessee, or otherwise). Operational control, with respect to a flight, means the exercise of authority over initiating, conducting or terminating a flight. Overseas air commerce means the carriage by aircraft of persons or property for compensation or hire, or the carriage of mail by aircraft, or the operation or navigation of aircraft in the conduct or furtherance of a business or vocation, in commerce between a place in any State of the United States, or the District of Columbia, and any place in a territory or possession of the United States; or between a place in a territory or possession of the United States, and a place in any other territory or possession of the United States. Overseas air transportation means the carriage by aircraft of persons or property as a common carrier for compensation or hire, or the carriage of mail by aircraft, in commerce: (1) Between a place in a State or the District of Columbia and a place in a possession of the United States; or (2) Between a place in a possession of the United States and a place in another possession of the United States; whether that commerce moves wholly by aircraft or partly by aircraft and partly by other forms of transportation. Over-the-top means above the layer of clouds or other obscuring phenomena forming the ceiling. Parachute means a device used or intended to be used to retard the fall of a body or object through the air. Person means an individual, firm, partnership, corporation, company, association, joint-stock association, or governmental entity. It includes a trustee, receiver, assignee, or similar representative of any of them. Pilotage means navigation by visual reference to landmarks. Pilot in command means the person who: (1) Has final authority and responsibility for the operation and safety of the flight; (2) Has been designated as pilot in command before or during the flight; and (3) Holds the appropriate category, class, and type rating, if appropriate, for the conduct of the flight. Pitch setting means the propeller blade setting as determined by the blade angle measured in a manner, and at a radius, specified by the instruction manual for the propeller. Portable oxygen concentrator means a medical device that separates oxygen from other gasses in ambient air and dispenses this concentrated oxygen to the user.

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Positive control means control of all air traffic, within designated airspace, by air traffic control. Powered parachute means a powered aircraft comprised of a flexible or semi-rigid wing connected to a fuselage so that the wing is not in position for flight until the aircraft is in motion. The fuselage of a powered parachute contains the aircraft engine, a seat for each occupant and is attached to the aircraft's landing gear. Powered-lift means a heavier-than-air aircraft capable of vertical takeoff, vertical landing, and low speed flight that depends principally on engine-driven lift devices or engine thrust for lift during these flight regimes and on nonrotating airfoil(s) for lift during horizontal flight. Precision approach procedure means a standard instrument approach procedure in which an electronic glide slope is provided, such as ILS and PAR. Preventive maintenance means simple or minor preservation operations and the replacement of small standard parts not involving complex assembly operations. Prohibited area. A prohibited area is airspace designated under part 73 within which no person may operate an aircraft without the permission of the using agency. Propeller means a device for propelling an aircraft that has blades on an engine-driven shaft and that, when rotated, produces by its action on the air, a thrust approximately perpendicular to its plane of rotation. It includes control components normally supplied by its manufacturer, but does not include main and auxiliary rotors or rotating airfoils of engines. Public aircraft means any of the following aircraft when not being used for a commercial purpose or to carry an individual other than a crewmember or qualified non-crewmenber: (1) An aircraft used only for the United States Government; an aircraft owned by the Government and operated by any person for purposes related to crew training, equipment development, or demonstration; an aircraft owned and operated by the government of a State, the District of Columbia, or a territory or possession of the United States or a political subdivision of one of these governments; or an aircraft exclusively leased for at least 90 continuous days by the government of a State, the District of Columbia, or a territory or possession of the United States or a political subdivision of one of these governments. (i) For the sole purpose of determining public aircraft status, commercial purposes means the transportation of persons or property for compensation or hire, but does not include the operation of an aircraft by the armed forces for reimbursement when that reimbursement is required by any Federal statute, regulation, or directive, in effect on November 1, 1999, or by one government on behalf of another government under a cost reimbursement agreement if the government on whose behalf the operation is conducted certifies to the Administrator of the Federal Aviation Administration that the operation is necessary to respond to a significant and imminent threat to life or property (including natural resources) and that no service by a private operator is reasonably available to meet the threat. (ii) For the sole purpose of determining public aircraft status, governmental function means an activity undertaken by a government, such as national defense, intelligence missions, firefighting, search and rescue, law enforcement (including transport of prisoners, detainees, and illegal aliens), aeronautical research, biological or geological resource management (including data collection on civil aviation systems undergoing research, development, test, or evaluation at a test range (as such term is defined in 49 U.S.C. 44801)), infrastructure inspections, or any other activity undertaken by a governmental entity that the Administrator determines is inherently governmental. (iii) For the sole purpose of determining public aircraft status, qualified non-crewmember means an individual, other than a member of the crew, aboard an aircraft operated by the armed forces or an intelligence agency of the United States Government, or whose presence is required to perform, or is associated with the performance of, a governmental function.

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(2) An aircraft owned or operated by the armed forces or chartered to provide transportation to the armed forces if— (i) The aircraft is operated in accordance with title 10 of the United States Code; (ii) The aircraft is operated in the performance of a governmental function under title 14, 31, 32, or 50 of the United States Code and the aircraft is not used for commercial purposes; or (iii) The aircraft is chartered to provide transportation to the armed forces and the Secretary of Defense (or the Secretary of the department in which the Coast Guard is operating) designates the operation of the aircraft as being required in the national interest. (3) An aircraft owned or operated by the National Guard of a State, the District of Columbia, or any territory or possession of the United States, and that meets the criteria of paragraph (2) of this definition, qualifies as a public aircraft only to the extent that it is operated under the direct control of the Department of Defense. Rated 30-second OEI Power , with respect to rotorcraft turbine engines, means the approved brake horsepower developed under static conditions at specified altitudes and temperatures within the operating limitations established for the engine under part 33 of this chapter, for continuation of one flight operation after the failure or shutdown of one engine in multiengine rotorcraft, for up to three periods of use no longer than 30 seconds each in any one flight, and followed by mandatory inspection and prescribed maintenance action. Rated 2-minute OEI Power , with respect to rotorcraft turbine engines, means the approved brake horsepower developed under static conditions at specified altitudes and temperatures within the operating limitations established for the engine under part 33 of this chapter, for continuation of one flight operation after the failure or shutdown of one engine in multiengine rotorcraft, for up to three periods of use no longer than 2 minutes each in any one flight, and followed by mandatory inspection and prescribed maintenance action. Rated continuous OEI power , with respect to rotorcraft turbine engines, means the approved brake horsepower developed under static conditions at specified altitudes and temperatures within the operating limitations established for the engine under part 33 of this chapter, and limited in use to the time required to complete the flight after the failure or shutdown of one engine of a multiengine rotorcraft. Rated maximum continuous augmented thrust, with respect to turbojet engine type certification, means the approved jet thrust that is developed statically or in flight, in standard atmosphere at a specified altitude, with fluid injection or with the burning of fuel in a separate combustion chamber, within the engine operating limitations established under Part 33 of this chapter, and approved for unrestricted periods of use. Rated maximum continuous power, with respect to reciprocating, turbopropeller, and turboshaft engines, means the approved brake horsepower that is developed statically or in flight, in standard atmosphere at a specified altitude, within the engine operating limitations established under part 33, and approved for unrestricted periods of use. Rated maximum continuous thrust, with respect to turbojet engine type certification, means the approved jet thrust that is developed statically or in flight, in standard atmosphere at a specified altitude, without fluid injection and without the burning of fuel in a separate combustion chamber, within the engine operating limitations established under part 33 of this chapter, and approved for unrestricted periods of use. Rated takeoff augmented thrust, with respect to turbojet engine type certification, means the approved jet thrust that is developed statically under standard sea level conditions, with fluid injection or with the burning of fuel in a separate combustion chamber, within the engine operating limitations established under part 33 of this chapter, and limited in use to periods of not over 5 minutes for takeoff operation.

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Rated takeoff power, with respect to reciprocating, turbopropeller, and turboshaft engine type certification, means the approved brake horsepower that is developed statically under standard sea level conditions, within the engine operating limitations established under part 33, and limited in use to periods of not over 5 minutes for takeoff operation. Rated takeoff thrust, with respect to turbojet engine type certification, means the approved jet thrust that is developed statically under standard sea level conditions, without fluid injection and without the burning of fuel in a separate combustion chamber, within the engine operating limitations established under part 33 of this chapter, and limited in use to periods of not over 5 minutes for takeoff operation. Rated 30-minute OEI power , with respect to rotorcraft turbine engines, means the approved brake horsepower developed under static conditions at specified altitudes and temperatures within the operating limitations established for the engine under part 33 of this chapter, and limited in use to one period of use no longer than 30 minutes after the failure or shutdown of one engine of a multiengine rotorcraft. Rated 2 1/2 -minute OEI power , with respect to rotorcraft turbine engines, means the approved brake horsepower developed under static conditions at specified altitudes and temperatures within the operating limitations established for the engine under part 33 of this chapter for periods of use no longer than 2 1/2 minutes each after the failure or shutdown of one engine of a multiengine rotorcraft. Rating means a statement that, as a part of a certificate, sets forth special conditions, privileges, or limitations. Reference landing speed means the speed of the airplane, in a specified landing configuration, at the point where it descends through the 50 foot height in the determination of the landing distance. Reporting point means a geographical location in relation to which the position of an aircraft is reported. Restricted area. A restricted area is airspace designated under Part 73 within which the flight of aircraft, while not wholly prohibited, is subject to restriction. Rocket means an aircraft propelled by ejected expanding gases generated in the engine from self-contained propellants and not dependent on the intake of outside substances. It includes any part which becomes separated during the operation. Rotorcraft means a heavier-than-air aircraft that depends principally for its support in flight on the lift generated by one or more rotors. Rotorcraft-load combination means the combination of a rotorcraft and an external-load, including the external-load attaching means. Rotorcraft-load combinations are designated as Class A, Class B, Class C, and Class D, as follows: (1) Class A rotorcraft-load combination means one in which the external load cannot move freely, cannot be jettisoned, and does not extend below the landing gear. (2) Class B rotorcraft-load combination means one in which the external load is jettisonable and is lifted free of land or water during the rotorcraft operation. (3) Class C rotorcraft-load combination means one in which the external load is jettisonable and remains in contact with land or water during the rotorcraft operation. (4) Class D rotorcraft-load combination means one in which the external-load is other than a Class A, B, or C and has been specifically approved by the Administrator for that operation. Route segment is a portion of a route bounded on each end by a fix or navigation aid (NAVAID). Sea level engine means a reciprocating aircraft engine having a rated takeoff power that is producible only at sea level. Second in command means a pilot who is designated to be second in command of an aircraft during flight time. Show, unless the context otherwise requires, means to show to the satisfaction of the Administrator. Small aircraft means aircraft of 12,500 pounds or less, maximum certificated takeoff weight. Small unmanned aircraft means an unmanned aircraft weighing less than 55 pounds on takeoff, including everything that is on board or otherwise attached to the aircraft.

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Small unmanned aircraft system (small UAS) means a small unmanned aircraft and its associated elements (including communication links and the components that control the small unmanned aircraft) that are required for the safe and efficient operation of the small unmanned aircraft in the national airspace system. Special VFR conditions mean meteorological conditions that are less than those required for basic VFR flight in controlled airspace and in which some aircraft are permitted flight under visual flight rules. Special VFR operations means aircraft operating in accordance with clearances within controlled airspace in meteorological conditions less than the basic VFR weather minima. Such operations must be requested by the pilot and approved by ATC. Standard atmosphere means the atmosphere defined in U.S. Standard Atmosphere, 1962 (Geopotential altitude tables). Stopway means an area beyond the takeoff runway, no less wide than the runway and centered upon the extended centerline of the runway, able to support the airplane during an aborted takeoff, without causing structural damage to the airplane, and designated by the airport authorities for use in decelerating the airplane during an aborted takeoff. Suitable RNAV system is an RNAV system that meets the required performance established for a type of operation, e.g. IFR; and is suitable for operation over the route to be flown in terms of any performance criteria (including accuracy) established by the air navigation service provider for certain routes (e.g. oceanic, ATS routes, and IAPs). An RNAV system's suitability is dependent upon the availability of ground and/or satellite navigation aids that are needed to meet any route performance criteria that may be prescribed in route specifications to navigate the aircraft along the route to be flown. Information on suitable RNAV systems is published in FAA guidance material. Supplemental restraint system means any device that is not installed on the aircraft pursuant to an FAA approval, used to secure an individual inside an aircraft when that person is not properly secured by an FAA-approved safety belt and, if installed, shoulder harness, or an approved child restraint system. It consists of a harness secured around the torso of the individual using the supplemental restraint system and a lanyard that connects the harness to an FAA-approved airframe attachment point inside the aircraft. Synthetic vision means a computer-generated image of the external scene topography from the perspective of the flight deck that is derived from aircraft attitude, high-precision navigation solution, and database of terrain, obstacles and relevant cultural features. Synthetic vision system means an electronic means to display a synthetic vision image of the external scene topography to the flight crew. Takeoff power: (1) With respect to reciprocating engines, means the brake horsepower that is developed under standard sea level conditions, and under the maximum conditions of crankshaft rotational speed and engine manifold pressure approved for the normal takeoff, and limited in continuous use to the period of time shown in the approved engine specification; and (2) With respect to turbine engines, means the brake horsepower that is developed under static conditions at a specified altitude and atmospheric temperature, and under the maximum conditions of rotor shaft rotational speed and gas temperature approved for the normal takeoff, and limited in continuous use to the period of time shown in the approved engine specification. Takeoff safety speed means a referenced airspeed obtained after lift-off at which the required one-engine-inoperative climb performance can be achieved. Takeoff thrust, with respect to turbine engines, means the jet thrust that is developed under static conditions at a specific altitude and atmospheric temperature under the maximum conditions of rotorshaft rotational speed and gas temperature approved for the normal takeoff, and limited in continuous use to the period of time shown in the approved engine specification.

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Tandem wing configuration means a configuration having two wings of similar span, mounted in tandem. TCAS I means a TCAS that utilizes interrogations of, and replies from, airborne radar beacon transponders and provides traffic advisories to the pilot. TCAS II means a TCAS that utilizes interrogations of, and replies from airborne radar beacon transponders and provides traffic advisories and resolution advisories in the vertical plane. TCAS III means a TCAS that utilizes interrogation of, and replies from, airborne radar beacon transponders and provides traffic advisories and resolution advisories in the vertical and horizontal planes to the pilot. Time in service, with respect to maintenance time records, means the time from the moment an aircraft leaves the surface of the earth until it touches it at the next point of landing. Traffic pattern means the traffic flow that is prescribed for aircraft landing at, taxiing on, or taking off from, an airport. True airspeed means the airspeed of an aircraft relative to undisturbed air. True airspeed is equal to equivalent airspeed multiplied by (ρ0/ρ) 1/2 . Type: (1) As used with respect to the certification, ratings, privileges, and limitations of airmen, means a specific make and basic model of aircraft, including modifications thereto that do not change its handling or flight characteristics. Examples include: DC-7, 1049, and F-27; and (2) As used with respect to the certification of aircraft, means those aircraft which are similar in design. Examples include: DC-7 and DC-7C; 1049G and 1049H; and F-27 and F-27F. (3) As used with respect to the certification of aircraft engines means those engines which are similar in design. For example, JT8D and JT8D-7 are engines of the same type, and JT9D-3A and JT9D-7 are engines of the same type. United States, in a geographical sense, means (1) the States, the District of Columbia, Puerto Rico, and the possessions, including the territorial waters, and (2) the airspace of those areas. United States air carrier means a citizen of the United States who undertakes directly by lease, or other arrangement, to engage in air transportation. Unmanned aircraft means an aircraft operated without the possibility of direct human intervention from within or on the aircraft. Unmanned aircraft system means an unmanned aircraft and its associated elements (including communication links and the components that control the unmanned aircraft) that are required for the safe and efficient operation of the unmanned aircraft in the airspace of the United States. VFR over-the-top, with respect to the operation of aircraft, means the operation of an aircraft over-the-top under VFR when it is not being operated on an IFR flight plan. Warning area. A warning area is airspace of defined dimensions, extending from 3 nautical miles outward from the coast of the United States, that contains activity that may be hazardous to nonparticipating aircraft. The purpose of such warning areas is to warn nonparticipating pilots of the potential danger. A warning area may be located over domestic or international waters or both. Weight-shift-control aircraft means a powered aircraft with a framed pivoting wing and a fuselage controllable only in pitch and roll by the pilot's ability to change the aircraft's center of gravity with respect to the wing. Flight control of the aircraft depends on the wing's ability to flexibly deform rather than the use of control surfaces. Winglet or tip fin means an out-of-plane surface extending from a lifting surface. The surface may or may not have control surfaces. [Doc. No. 1150, 27 FR 4588, May 15, 1962] Editorial Note: For Federal Register citations affecting § 1.1, see the List of CFR Sections Affected, which appears in the Finding Aids section of the printed volume and at www.govinfo.gov.

§ 1.1, Nt. Effective Date Note: At 89 FR 92483, Nov. 21, 2024, § 1.1 was amended by revising the introductory text and the definition of “Autorotation”, effective Jan. 21, 2025. For the convenience of the user, the revised text is set forth as follows:

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§ 1.1 General definitions. As used in this chapter, unless the context requires otherwise: Autorotation means a rotorcraft or powered-lift flight condition in which the lifting rotor is driven entirely by action of the air when the rotorcraft or powered-lift is in motion. § 1.2 Abbreviations and symbols. In Subchapters A through K of this chapter: AFM means airplane flight manual. AGL means above ground level. ALS means approach light system. APU means auxiliary power unit. ASR means airport surveillance radar. ATC means air traffic control. ATS means Air Traffic Service. CAMP means continuous airworthiness maintenance program. CAS means calibrated airspeed. CAT II means Category II. CMP means configuration, maintenance, and procedures. DH means decision height. DME means distance measuring equipment compatible with TACAN. EAS means equivalent airspeed. EFVS means enhanced flight vision system. Equi-Time Point means a point on the route of flight where the flight time, considering wind, to each of two selected airports is equal. ETOPS means extended operations. EWIS , as defined by § 25.1701 of this chapter, means electrical wiring interconnection system. FAA means Federal Aviation Administration. FFS means full flight simulator. FM means fan marker. FSTD means flight simulation training device. FTD means flight training device. GS means glide slope. HIRL means high-intensity runway light system. IAS means indicated airspeed. ICAO means International Civil Aviation Organization. IFR means instrument flight rules. IFSD means in-flight shutdown. ILS means instrument landing system. IM means ILS inner marker. INT means intersection. LDA means localizer-type directional aid. LFR means low-frequency radio range. LMM means compass locator at middle marker. LOC means ILS localizer. LOM means compass locator at outer marker. M means mach number. MAA means maximum authorized IFR altitude. MALS means medium intensity approach light system. MALSR means medium intensity approach light system with runway alignment indicator lights. MCA means minimum crossing altitude. MDA means minimum descent altitude. MEA means minimum en route IFR altitude. MEL means minimum equipment list. MM means ILS middle marker. MOCA means minimum obstruction clearance altitude. MRA means minimum reception altitude. MSL means mean sea level. NDB (ADF) means nondirectional beacon (automatic direction finder). NM means nautical mile. NOPAC means North Pacific area of operation. NOPT means no procedure turn required. OEI means one engine inoperative. OM means ILS outer marker. OPSPECS means operations specifications. PACOTS means Pacific Organized Track System. PAR means precision approach radar. PMA means parts manufacturer approval. POC means portable oxygen concentrator. PTRS means Performance Tracking and Reporting System. RAIL means runway alignment indicator light system.

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RBN means radio beacon. RCLM means runway centerline marking. RCLS means runway centerline light system. REIL means runway end identification lights. RFFS means rescue and firefighting services. RNAV means area navigation. RR means low or medium frequency radio range station. RVR means runway visual range as measured in the touchdown zone area. SALS means short approach light system. SATCOM means satellite communications. SSALS means simplified short approach light system. SSALSR means simplified short approach light system with runway alignment indicator lights. TACAN means ultra-high frequency tactical air navigational aid. TAS means true airspeed. TCAS means a traffic alert and collision avoidance system. TDZL means touchdown zone lights. TSO means technical standard order. TVOR means very high frequency terminal omnirange station. V A  means design maneuvering speed. V B  means design speed for maximum gust intensity. V C  means design cruising speed. V D  means design diving speed. V DF / M DF  means demonstrated flight diving speed. V EF  means the speed at which the critical engine is assumed to fail during takeoff. V F  means design flap speed. V FC / M FC  means maximum speed for stability characteristics. V FE  means maximum flap extended speed. V FTO  means final takeoff speed. V H  means maximum speed in level flight with maximum continuous power. V LE  means maximum landing gear extended speed. V LO  means maximum landing gear operating speed. V LOF  means lift-off speed. V MC  means minimum control speed with the critical engine inoperative. V MO / M MO  means maximum operating limit speed. V MU  means minimum unstick speed. V NE  means never-exceed speed. V NO  means maximum structural cruising speed. V R  means rotation speed. V REF  means reference landing speed. V S  means the stalling speed or the minimum steady flight speed at which the airplane is controllable. V S 0  means the stalling speed or the minimum steady flight speed in the landing configuration. V S 1  means the stalling speed or the minimum steady flight speed obtained in a specific configuration. V SR  means reference stall speed. V SR O  means reference stall speed in the landing configuration. V SR 1  means reference stall speed in a specific configuration. V SW  means speed at which onset of natural or artificial stall warning occurs. V TOSS  means takeoff safety speed for Category A rotorcraft. V X  means speed for best angle of climb. V Y  means speed for best rate of climb. V 1  means the maximum speed in the takeoff at which the pilot must take the first action (e.g., apply brakes, reduce thrust, deploy speed brakes) to stop the airplane within the accelerate-stop distance. V 1  also means the minimum speed in the takeoff, following a failure of the critical engine at V EF , at which the pilot can continue the takeoff and achieve the required height above the takeoff surface within the takeoff distance. V 2  means takeoff safety speed. V 2min  means minimum takeoff safety speed. VFR  means visual flight rules. VGSI means visual glide slope indicator. VHF  means very high frequency. VOR  means very high frequency omnirange station. VORTAC  means collocated VOR and TACAN. [Doc. No. 1150, 27 FR 4590, May 15, 1962] Editorial Note: For Federal Register citations affecting § 1.2, see the List of CFR Sections Affected, which appears in the Finding Aids section of the printed volume and at www.govinfo.gov.

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§ 1.2, Nt. Effective Date Note: At 89 FR 92483, Nov. 21, 2024, § 1.2 was amended by revising the introductory text, effective Jan. 21, 2025. For the convenience of the user, the revised text is set forth as follows: § 1.2 Abbreviations and symbols. In this chapter: § 1.3 Rules of construction. (a) In Subchapters A through K of this chapter, unless the context requires otherwise: (1) Words importing the singular include the plural; (2) Words importing the plural include the singular; and (3) Words importing the masculine gender include the feminine. (b) In Subchapters A through K of this chapter, the word: (1) Shall is used in an imperative sense; (2) May is used in a permissive sense to state authority or permission to do the act prescribed, and the words “no person may * * *” or “a person may not * * *” mean that no person is required, authorized, or permitted to do the act prescribed; and (3) Includes means “includes but is not limited to”. [Doc. No. 1150, 27 FR 4590, May 15, 1962, as amended by Amdt. 1-10, 31 FR 5055, Mar. 29, 1966] § 1.3, Nt. Effective Date Note: At 89 FR 92483, Nov. 21, 2024, § 1.3 was amended by revising paragraphs (a) introductory text and (b) introductory text, effective Jan. 21, 2025. For the convenience of the user, the revised text is set forth as follows: § 1.3 Rules of construction. (a) In this chapter, unless the context requires otherwise: (b) In this chapter, the word:

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SUBCHAPTER C—AIRCRAFT Pt. 21 PART 21—CERTIFICATION PROCEDURES FOR PRODUCTS AND ARTICLES Special Federal Aviation Regulation No. 88 Subpart A—General Sec. 21.1 Applicability and definitions. 21.2 Falsification of applications, reports, or records. 21.3 Reporting of failures, malfunctions, and defects. 21.4 ETOPS reporting requirements. 21.5 Airplane or Rotorcraft Flight Manual. 21.6 Manufacture of new aircraft, aircraft engines, and propellers. 21.7 Continued airworthiness and safety improvements for transport category airplanes. 21.8 Approval of articles. 21.9 Replacement and modification articles. Subpart B—Type Certificates 21.11 Applicability. 21.13 Eligibility. 21.15 Application for type certificate. 21.16 Special conditions. 21.17 Designation of applicable regulations. 21.19 Changes requiring a new type certificate. 21.20 Compliance with applicable requirements. 21.21 Issue of type certificate: normal, utility, acrobatic, commuter, and transport category aircraft; manned free balloons; special classes of aircraft; aircraft engines; propellers. 21.23 [Reserved] 21.24 Issuance of type certificate: primary category aircraft. 21.25 Issue of type certificate: Restricted category aircraft. 21.27 Issue of type certificate: surplus aircraft of the Armed Forces. 21.29 Issue of type certificate: import products. 21.31 Type design. 21.33 Inspection and tests. 21.35 Flight tests. 21.37 Flight test pilot. 21.39 Flight test instrument calibration and correction report. 21.41 Type certificate. 21.43 Location of manufacturing facilities. 21.45 Privileges. 21.47 Transferability. 21.49 Availability. 21.50 Instructions for continued airworthiness and manufacturer's maintenance manuals having airworthiness limitations sections. 21.51 Duration. 21.53 Statement of conformity. 21.55 Responsibilities of type certificate holders who license the type certificate. Subpart C—Provisional Type Certificates 21.71 Applicability. 21.73 Eligibility. 21.75 Application. 21.77 Duration. 21.79 Transferability. 21.81 Requirements for issue and amendment of Class I provisional type certificates. 21.83 Requirements for issue and amendment of Class II provisional type certificates. 21.85 Provisional amendments to type certificates. Subpart D—Changes to Type Certificates 21.91 Applicability. 21.93 Classification of changes in type design. 21.95 Approval of minor changes in type design. 21.97 Approval of major changes in type design. 21.99 Required design changes. 21.101 Designation of applicable regulations. Subpart E—Supplemental Type Certificates 21.111 Applicability. 21.113 Requirement for supplemental type certificate. 21.115 Applicable requirements. 21.117 Issue of supplemental type certificates. 21.119 Privileges. 21.120 Responsibility of supplemental type certificate holders to provide written permission for alterations. Subpart F—Production Under Type Certificate 21.121 Applicability. 21.122 Location of or change to manufacturing facilities. 21.123 Production under type certificate. 21.125 [Reserved] 21.127 Tests: aircraft. 21.128 Tests: aircraft engines. 21.129 Tests: propellers. 21.130 Statement of conformity.

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Subpart G—Production Certificates 21.131 Applicability. 21.132 Eligibility. 21.133 Application. 21.135 Organization. 21.137 Quality system. 21.138 Quality manual. 21.139 Location of or change to manufacturing facilities. 21.140 Inspections and tests. 21.141 Issuance. 21.142 Production limitation record. 21.143 Duration. 21.144 Transferability. 21.145 Privileges. 21.146 Responsibility of holder. 21.147 Amendment of production certificates. 21.150 Changes in quality system. Subpart H—Airworthiness Certificates 21.171 Applicability. 21.173 Eligibility. 21.175 Airworthiness certificates: classification. 21.177 Amendment or modification. 21.179 Transferability. 21.181 Duration. 21.182 Aircraft identification. 21.183 Issue of standard airworthiness certificates for normal, utility, acrobatic, commuter, and transport category aircraft; manned free balloons; and special classes of aircraft. 21.184 Issue of special airworthiness certificates for primary category aircraft. 21.185 Issue of airworthiness certificates for restricted category aircraft. 21.187 Issue of multiple airworthiness certification. 21.189 Issue of airworthiness certificate for limited category aircraft. 21.190 Issue of a special airworthiness certificate for a light-sport category aircraft. 21.191 Experimental certificates. 21.193 Experimental certificates: general. 21.195 Experimental certificates: Aircraft to be used for market surveys, sales demonstrations, and customer crew training. 21.197 Special flight permits. 21.199 Issue of special flight permits. Subpart I—Provisional Airworthiness Certificates 21.211 Applicability. 21.213 Eligibility. 21.215 Application. 21.217 Duration. 21.219 Transferability. 21.221 Class I provisional airworthiness certificates. 21.223 Class II provisional airworthiness certificates. 21.225 Provisional airworthiness certificates corresponding with provisional amendments to type certificates. Subpart J [Reserved] Subpart K—Parts Manufacturer Approvals 21.301 Applicability. 21.303 Application. 21.305 Organization. 21.307 Quality system. 21.308 Quality manual. 21.309 Location of or change to manufacturing facilities. 21.310 Inspections and tests. 21.311 Issuance. 21.313 Duration. 21.314 Transferability. 21.316 Responsibility of holder. 21.319 Design changes. 21.320 Changes in quality system. Subpart L—Export Airworthiness Approvals 21.321 Applicability. 21.325 Export airworthiness approvals. 21.327 Application. 21.329 Issuance of export certificates of airworthiness. 21.331 Issuance of export airworthiness approvals for aircraft engines, propellers, and articles. 21.335 Responsibilities of exporters. Subpart M [Reserved] Subpart N—Acceptance of Aircraft Engines, Propellers, and Articles for Import 21.500 Acceptance of aircraft engines and propellers. 21.502 Acceptance of articles. Subpart O—Technical Standard Order Approvals 21.601 Applicability and definitions. 21.603 Application. 21.605 Organization. 21.607 Quality system. 21.608 Quality manual. 21.609 Location of or change to manufacturing facilities. 21.610 Inspections and tests. 21.611 Issuance. 21.613 Duration. 21.614 Transferability. 21.616 Responsibility of holder. 21.618 Approval for deviation. 21.619 Design changes. 21.620 Changes in quality system. 21.621 Issue of letters of TSO design approval: Import articles.

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Subpart P—Special Federal Aviation Regulations 21.700 SFAR No. 111—Lavatory oxygen systems. Authority: 42 U.S.C. 7572; 49 U.S.C. 106(f), 106(g), 40105, 40113, 44701-44702, 44704, 44707, 44709, 44711, 44713, 44715, 45303; Sec. 102, Pub. L. 116-260, 134 Stat. 2309. Editorial Notes: 1. For miscellaneous amendments to cross references in this 21 see Amdt. 21-10, 31 FR 9211, July 6, 1966.

2. Nomenclature changes to part 21 appear at 74 FR 53384, Oct. 16, 2009. Pt. 21, SFAR No. 88 Special Federal Aviation Regulation No. 88—Fuel Tank System Fault Tolerance Evaluation Requirements 1. Applicability. This SFAR applies to the holders of type certificates, and supplemental type certificates that may affect the airplane fuel tank system, for turbine-powered transport category airplanes, provided the type certificate was issued after January 1, 1958, and the airplane has either a maximum type certificated passenger capacity of 30 or more, or a maximum type certificated payload capacity of 7,500 pounds or more. This SFAR also applies to applicants for type certificates, amendments to a type certificate, and supplemental type certificates affecting the fuel tank systems for those airplanes identified above, if the application was filed before June 6, 2001, the effective date of this SFAR, and the certificate was not issued before June 6, 2001.

2. Compliance: Each type certificate holder, and each supplemental type certificate holder of a modification affecting the airplane fuel tank system, must accomplish the following within the compliance times specified in paragraph (e) of this section: (a) Conduct a safety review of the airplane fuel tank system to determine that the design meets the requirements of §§ 25.901 and 25.981(a) and (b) of this chapter. If the current design does not meet these requirements, develop all design changes to the fuel tank system that are necessary to meet these requirements. The responsible Aircraft Certification Service office for the affected airplane may grant an extension of the 18-month compliance time for development of design changes if: (1) The safety review is completed within the compliance time; (2) Necessary design changes are identified within the compliance time; and (3) Additional time can be justified, based on the holder's demonstrated aggressiveness in performing the safety review, the complexity of the necessary design changes, the availability of interim actions to provide an acceptable level of safety, and the resulting level of safety. (b) Develop all maintenance and inspection instructions necessary to maintain the design features required to preclude the existence or development of an ignition source within the fuel tank system of the airplane. (c) Submit a report for approval to the responsible Aircraft Certification Service office for the affected airplane, that: (1) Provides substantiation that the airplane fuel tank system design, including all necessary design changes, meets the requirements of §§ 25.901 and 25.981(a) and (b) of this chapter; and (2) Contains all maintenance and inspection instructions necessary to maintain the design features required to preclude the existence or development of an ignition source within the fuel tank system throughout the operational life of the airplane. (d) The responsible Aircraft Certification Service office for the affected airplane, may approve a report submitted in accordance with paragraph 2(c) if it determines that any provisions of this SFAR not complied with are compensated for by factors that provide an equivalent level of safety. (e) Each type certificate holder must comply no later than December 6, 2002, or within 18 months after the issuance of a type certificate for which application was filed before June 6, 2001, whichever is later; and each supplemental type certificate holder of a modification affecting the airplane fuel tank system must comply no later than June 6, 2003, or within 18 months after the issuance of a supplemental type certificate for which application was filed before June 6, 2001, whichever is later. [Doc. No. 1999-6411, 66 FR 23129, May 7, 2001, as amended by Amdt. 21-82, 67 FR 57493, Sept. 10, 2002; 67 FR 70809, Nov. 26, 2002; Amdt. 21-83, 67 FR 72833, Dec. 9, 2002; Doc. No. FAA-2018-0119, Amdt. 21-101, 83 FR 9169, Mar. 5, 2018] Subpart A—General § 21.1 Applicability and definitions. (a) This part prescribes— (1) Procedural requirements for issuing and changing— (i) Design approvals; (ii) Production approvals; (iii) Airworthiness certificates; and (iv) Airworthiness approvals; (2) Rules governing applicants for, and holders of, any approval or certificate specified in paragraph (a)(1) of this section; and (3) Procedural requirements for the approval of articles. (b) For the purposes of this part—

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(1) Airworthiness approval means a document, issued by the FAA for an aircraft, aircraft engine, propeller, or article, which certifies that the aircraft, aircraft engine, propeller, or article conforms to its approved design and is in a condition for safe operation, unless otherwise specified; (2) Article means a material, part, component, process, or appliance; (3) Commercial part means an article that is listed on an FAA-approved Commercial Parts List included in a design approval holder's Instructions for Continued Airworthiness required by § 21.50; (4) Design approval means a type certificate (including amended and supplemental type certificates) or the approved design under a PMA, TSO authorization, letter of TSO design approval, or other approved design; (5) Interface component means an article that serves as a functional interface between an aircraft and an aircraft engine, an aircraft engine and a propeller, or an aircraft and a propeller. An interface component is designated by the holder of the type certificate or the supplemental type certificate who controls the approved design data for that article; (6) Product means an aircraft, aircraft engine, or propeller; (7) Production approval means a document issued by the FAA to a person that allows the production of a product or article in accordance with its approved design and approved quality system, and can take the form of a production certificate, a PMA, or a TSO authorization; (8) State of Design means the country or jurisdiction having regulatory authority over the organization responsible for the design and continued airworthiness of a civil aeronautical product or article; (9) State of Manufacture means the country or jurisdiction having regulatory authority over the organization responsible for the production and airworthiness of a civil aeronautical product or article. (10) Supplier means a person at any tier in the supply chain who provides a product, article, or service that is used or consumed in the design or manufacture of, or installed on, a product or article. [Doc. No. FAA-2006-25877, Amdt. 21-92, 74 FR 53384, Oct. 16, 2009; Doc. No. FAA-2013-0933, Amdt. 21-98, 80 FR 59031, Oct. 1, 2015; Amdt. 21-98A, 80 FR 59031, Dec. 17, 2015; Docket FAA-2015-0150, Amdt. 21-99, 81 FR 42207, June 28, 2016; Docket FAA-2018-1087, Amdt. 21-105, 86 FR 4381, Jan. 15, 2021] § 21.2 Falsification of applications, reports, or records. (a) A person may not make or cause to be made— (1) Any fraudulent, intentionally false, or misleading statement on any application for a certificate or approval under this part; (2) Any fraudulent, intentionally false, or misleading statement in any record or report that is kept, made, or used to show compliance with any requirement of this part; (3) Any reproduction for a fraudulent purpose of any certificate or approval issued under this part. (4) Any alteration of any certificate or approval issued under this part. (b) The commission by any person of an act prohibited under paragraph (a) of this section is a basis for— (1) Denying issuance of any certificate or approval under this part; and (2) Suspending or revoking any certificate or approval issued under this part and held by that person. [Doc. No. 23345, 57 FR 41367, Sept. 9, 1992, as amended by Amdt. 21-92, 74 FR 53384, Oct. 16, 2009; Amdt. 21-92A, 75 FR 9095, Mar. 1, 2010] § 21.3 Reporting of failures, malfunctions, and defects. (a) The holder of a type certificate (including amended or supplemental type certificates), a PMA, or a TSO authorization, or the licensee of a type certificate must report any failure, malfunction, or defect in any product or article manufactured by it that it determines has resulted in any of the occurrences listed in paragraph (c) of this section. (b) The holder of a type certificate (including amended or supplemental type certificates), a PMA, or a TSO authorization, or the licensee of a type certificate must report any defect in any product or article manufactured by it that has left its quality system and that it determines could result in any of the occurrences listed in paragraph (c) of this section.

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(c) The following occurrences must be reported as provided in paragraphs (a) and (b) of this section: (1) Fires caused by a system or equipment failure, malfunction, or defect. (2) An engine exhaust system failure, malfunction, or defect which causes damage to the engine, adjacent aircraft structure, equipment, or components. (3) The accumulation or circulation of toxic or noxious gases in the crew compartment or passenger cabin. (4) A malfunction, failure, or defect of a propeller control system. (5) A propeller or rotorcraft hub or blade structural failure. (6) Flammable fluid leakage in areas where an ignition source normally exists. (7) A brake system failure caused by structural or material failure during operation. (8) A significant aircraft primary structural defect or failure caused by any autogenous condition (fatigue, understrength, corrosion, etc.). (9) Any abnormal vibration or buffeting caused by a structural or system malfunction, defect, or failure. (10) An engine failure. (11) Any structural or flight control system malfunction, defect, or failure which causes an interference with normal control of the aircraft for which derogates the flying qualities. (12) A complete loss of more than one electrical power generating system or hydraulic power system during a given operation of the aircraft. (13) A failure or malfunction of more than one attitude, airspeed, or altitude instrument during a given operation of the aircraft. (d) The requirements of paragraph (a) of this section do not apply to— (1) Failures, malfunctions, or defects that the holder of a type certificate (including amended or supplemental type certificates), PMA, TSO authorization, or the licensee of a type certificate determines— (i) Were caused by improper maintenance or use; (ii) Were reported to the FAA by another person under this chapter; or (iii) Were reported under the accident reporting provisions of 49 CFR part 830 of the regulations of the National Transportation Safety Board. (2) Failures, malfunctions, or defects in products or articles— (i) Manufactured by a foreign manufacturer under a U.S. type certificate issued under § 21.29 or under an approval issued under § 21.621; or (ii) Exported to the United States under § 21.502. (e) Each report required by this section— (1) Must be made to the FAA within 24 hours after it has determined that the failure, malfunction, or defect required to be reported has occurred. However, a report that is due on a Saturday or a Sunday may be delivered on the following Monday and one that is due on a holiday may be delivered on the next workday; (2) Must be transmitted in a manner and form acceptable to the FAA and by the most expeditious method available; and (3) Must include as much of the following information as is available and applicable: (i) The applicable product and article identification information required by part 45 of this chapter; (ii) Identification of the system involved; and (iii) Nature of the failure, malfunction, or defect. (f) If an accident investigation or service difficulty report shows that a product or article manufactured under this part is unsafe because of a manufacturing or design data defect, the holder of the production approval for that product or article must, upon request of the FAA, report to the FAA the results of its investigation and any action taken or proposed by the holder of that production approval to correct that defect. If action is required to correct the defect in an existing product or article, the holder of that production approval must send the data necessary for issuing an appropriate airworthiness directive to the FAA.

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[Amdt. 21-36, 35 FR 18187, Nov. 28, 1970, as amended by Amdt. 21-37, 35 FR 18450, Dec. 4, 1970; Amdt. 21-50, 45 FR 38346, June 9, 1980; Amdt. 21-67, 54 FR 39291, Sept. 25, 1989; Amdt. 21-92, 74 FR 53385, Oct. 16, 2009; Doc. No. FAA-2018-0119, Amdt. 21-101, 83 FR 9169, Mar. 5, 2018] § 21.4 ETOPS reporting requirements. (a) Early ETOPS: reporting, tracking, and resolving problems. The holder of a type certificate for an airplane-engine combination approved using the Early ETOPS method specified in part 25, Appendix K, of this chapter must use a system for reporting, tracking, and resolving each problem resulting in one of the occurrences specified in paragraph (a)(6) of this section. (1) The system must identify how the type certificate holder will promptly identify problems, report them to the responsible Aircraft Certification Service office, and propose a solution to the FAA to resolve each problem. A proposed solution must consist of— (i) A change in the airplane or engine type design; (ii) A change in a manufacturing process; (iii) A change in an operating or maintenance procedure; or (iv) Any other solution acceptable to the FAA. (2) For an airplane with more than two engines, the system must be in place for the first 250,000 world fleet engine-hours for the approved airplane-engine combination. (3) For two-engine airplanes, the system must be in place for the first 250,000 world fleet engine-hours for the approved airplane-engine combination and after that until— (i) The world fleet 12-month rolling average IFSD rate is at or below the rate required by paragraph (b)(2) of this section; and (ii) The FAA determines that the rate is stable. (4) For an airplane-engine combination that is a derivative of an airplane-engine combination previously approved for ETOPS, the system need only address those problems specified in the following table, provided the type certificate holder obtains prior authorization from the FAA:

If the change does not require a new airplane type certificate and . . .	Then the Problem Tracking and Resolution System must address . . .
(i) Requires a new engine type certificate	All problems applicable to the new engine installation, and for the remainder of the airplane, problems in changed systems only.
(ii) Does not require a new engine type certificate	Problems in changed systems only.

(5) The type certificate holder must identify the sources and content of data that it will use for its system. The data must be adequate to evaluate the specific cause of any in-service problem reportable under this section or § 21.3(c) that could affect the safety of ETOPS. (6) In implementing this system, the type certificate holder must report the following occurrences: (i) IFSDs, except planned IFSDs performed for flight training. (ii) For two-engine airplanes, IFSD rates. (iii) Inability to control an engine or obtain desired thrust or power. (iv) Precautionary thrust or power reductions. (v) Degraded ability to start an engine in flight. (vi) Inadvertent fuel loss or unavailability, or uncorrectable fuel imbalance in flight. (vii) Turn backs or diversions for failures, malfunctions, or defects associated with an ETOPS group 1 significant system. (viii) Loss of any power source for an ETOPS group 1 significant system, including any power source designed to provide backup power for that system. (ix) Any event that would jeopardize the safe flight and landing of the airplane on an ETOPS flight. (x) Any unscheduled engine removal for a condition that could result in one of the reportable occurrences listed in this paragraph.

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(b) Reliability of two-engine airplanes —(1) Reporting of two-engine airplane in-service reliability. The holder of a type certificate for an airplane approved for ETOPS and the holder of a type certificate for an engine installed on an airplane approved for ETOPS must report monthly to their respective Aircraft Certification Service office on the reliability of the world fleet of those airplanes and engines. The report provided by both the airplane and engine type certificate holders must address each airplane-engine combination approved for ETOPS. The FAA may approve quarterly reporting if the airplane-engine combination demonstrates an IFSD rate at or below those specified in paragraph (b)(2) of this section for a period acceptable to the FAA. This reporting may be combined with the reporting required by § 21.3. The responsible type certificate holder must investigate any cause of an IFSD resulting from an occurrence attributable to the design of its product and report the results of that investigation to its responsible Aircraft Certification Service office. Reporting must include: (i) Engine IFSDs, except planned IFSDs performed for flight training. (ii) The world fleet 12-month rolling average IFSD rates for all causes, except planned IFSDs performed for flight training. (iii) ETOPS fleet utilization, including a list of operators, their ETOPS diversion time authority, flight hours, and cycles. (2) World fleet IFSD rate for two-engine airplanes. The holder of a type certificate for an airplane approved for ETOPS and the holder of a type certificate for an engine installed on an airplane approved for ETOPS must issue service information to the operators of those airplanes and engines, as appropriate, to maintain the world fleet 12-month rolling average IFSD rate at or below the following levels: (i) A rate of 0.05 per 1,000 world-fleet engine-hours for an airplane-engine combination approved for up to and including 120-minute ETOPS. When all ETOPS operators have complied with the corrective actions required in the configuration, maintenance and procedures (CMP) document as a condition for ETOPS approval, the rate to be maintained is at or below 0.02 per 1,000 world-fleet engine-hours. (ii) A rate of 0.02 per 1,000 world-fleet engine-hours for an airplane-engine combination approved for up to and including 180-minute ETOPS, including airplane-engine combinations approved for 207-minute ETOPS in the North Pacific operating area under appendix P, section I, paragraph (h), of part 121 of this chapter. (iii) A rate of 0.01 per 1,000 world-fleet engine-hours for an airplane-engine combination approved for ETOPS beyond 180 minutes, excluding airplane-engine combinations approved for 207-minute ETOPS in the North Pacific operating area under appendix P, section I, paragraph (h), of part 121 of this chapter. [Doc. No. FAA-2002-6717, 72 FR 1872, Jan. 16, 2007, as amended by Doc. No. FAA-2018-0119, Amdt. 21-101, 83 FR 9169, Mar. 5, 2018] § 21.5 Airplane or Rotorcraft Flight Manual. (a) With each airplane or rotorcraft not type certificated with an Airplane or Rotorcraft Flight Manual and having no flight time before March 1, 1979, the holder of a type certificate (including amended or supplemental type certificates) or the licensee of a type certificate must make available to the owner at the time of delivery of the aircraft a current approved Airplane or Rotorcraft Flight Manual. (b) The Airplane or Rotorcraft Flight Manual required by paragraph (a) of this section must contain the following information: (1) The operating limitations and information required to be furnished in an Airplane or Rotorcraft Flight Manual or in manual material, markings, and placards, by the applicable regulations under which the airplane or rotorcraft was type certificated. (2) The maximum ambient atmospheric temperature for which engine cooling was demonstrated must be stated in the performance information section of the Flight Manual, if the applicable regulations under which the aircraft was type certificated do not require ambient temperature on engine cooling operating limitations in the Flight Manual.

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(3) Documentation of compliance with part 38 of this chapter, in an FAA-approved section of any approved airplane flight manual. Such material must include the fuel efficiency metric value as calculated under § 38.11 of this chapter, and the specific paragraph of § 38.17 of this chapter with which compliance has been shown for that airplane. [Amdt. 21-46, 43 FR 2316, Jan. 16, 1978, as amended by Amdt. 21-92, 74 FR 53385, Oct. 16, 2009; Admt. 21-107, 89 FR 12653, Feb. 16, 2024] § 21.6 Manufacture of new aircraft, aircraft engines, and propellers. (a) Except as specified in paragraphs (b) and (c) of this section, no person may manufacture a new aircraft, aircraft engine, or propeller based on a type certificate unless the person— (1) Is the holder of the type certificate or has a licensing agreement from the holder of the type certificate to manufacture the product; and (2) Meets the requirements of subpart F or G of this part. (b) A person may manufacture one new aircraft based on a type certificate without meeting the requirements of paragraph (a) of this section if that person can provide evidence acceptable to the FAA that the manufacture of the aircraft by that person began before August 5, 2004. (c) The requirements of this section do not apply to— (1) New aircraft imported under the provisions of §§ 21.183(c), 21.184(b), or 21.185(c); and (2) New aircraft engines or propellers imported under the provisions of § 21.500. [Doc. No. FAA-2003-14825, 71 FR 52258, Sept. 1, 2006] § 21.7 Continued airworthiness and safety improvements for transport category airplanes. (a) On or after December 10, 2007, the holder of a design approval and an applicant for a design approval must comply with the applicable continued airworthiness and safety improvement requirements of part 26 of this subchapter. (b) For new transport category airplanes manufactured under the authority of the FAA, the holder or licensee of a type certificate must meet the applicable continued airworthiness and safety improvement requirements specified in part 26 of this subchapter for new production airplanes. Those requirements only apply if the FAA has jurisdiction over the organization responsible for final assembly of the airplane. [Doc. No. FAA-2004-18379, Amdt. 21-90, 72 FR 63404, Nov. 8, 2007] § 21.8 Approval of articles. If an article is required to be approved under this chapter, it may be approved— (a) Under a PMA; (b) Under a TSO; (c) In conjunction with type certification procedures for a product; or (d) In any other manner approved by the FAA. [Doc. No. FAA-2006-5877, Amdt. 21-92, 74 FR 53385, Oct. 16, 2009] § 21.9 Replacement and modification articles. (a) If a person knows, or should know, that a replacement or modification article is reasonably likely to be installed on a type-certificated product, the person may not produce that article unless it is— (1) Produced under a type certificate; (2) Produced under an FAA production approval; (3) A standard part (such as a nut or bolt) manufactured in compliance with a government or established industry specification; (4) A commercial part as defined in § 21.1 of this part; (5) Produced by an owner or operator for maintaining or altering that owner or operator's product; (6) Fabricated by an appropriately rated certificate holder with a quality system, and consumed in the repair or alteration of a product or article in accordance with part 43 of this chapter; or (7) Produced in any other manner approved by the FAA. (b) Except as provided in paragraphs (a)(1) through (a)(2) of this section, a person who produces a replacement or modification article for sale may not represent that part as suitable for installation on a type-certificated product.

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(c) Except as provided in paragraphs (a)(1) through (a)(2) of this section, a person may not sell or represent an article as suitable for installation on an aircraft type-certificated under §§ 21.25(a)(2) or 21.27 unless that article— (1) Was declared surplus by the U.S. Armed Forces, and (2) Was intended for use on that aircraft model by the U.S. Armed Forces. [Doc. No. FAA-2006-25877, Amdt. 21-92, 74 FR 53385, Oct. 16, 2009; Amdt. 21-92A, 75 FR 9095, Mar. 1, 2010; Doc. No. FAA-2015-1621, Amdt. 21-100, 81 FR 96688, Dec. 30, 2016] Subpart B—Type Certificates Source: Docket No. 5085, 29 FR 14564, Oct. 24, 1964, unless otherwise noted. § 21.11 Applicability. This subpart prescribes— (a) Procedural requirements for the issue of type certificates for aircraft, aircraft engines, and propellers; and (b) Rules governing the holders of those certificates. § 21.13 Eligibility. Any interested person may apply for a type certificate. [Amdt. 21-25, 34 FR 14068, Sept. 5, 1969] § 21.15 Application for type certificate. (a) An application for a type certificate is made on a form and in a manner prescribed by the FAA. (b) An application for an aircraft type certificate must be accompanied by a three-view drawing of that aircraft and available preliminary basic data. (c) An application for an aircraft engine type certificate must be accompanied by a description of the engine design features, the engine operating characteristics, and the proposed engine operating limitations. [Doc. No. 5085, 29 FR 14564, Oct. 24, 1964, as amended by Amdt. 21-40, 39 FR 35459, Oct. 1, 1974; Amdt. 21-67, 54 FR 39291, Sept. 25, 1989; Amdt. 21-92, 74 FR 53385, Oct. 16, 2009; Doc. No. FAA-2018-0119, Amdt. 21-101, 83 FR 9169, Mar. 5, 2018] § 21.16 Special conditions. If the FAA finds that the airworthiness regulations of this subchapter do not contain adequate or appropriate safety standards for an aircraft, aircraft engine, or propeller because of a novel or unusual design feature of the aircraft, aircraft engine or propeller, he prescribes special conditions and amendments thereto for the product. The special conditions are issued in accordance with Part 11 of this chapter and contain such safety standards for the aircraft, aircraft engine or propeller as the FAA finds necessary to establish a level of safety equivalent to that established in the regulations. [Amdt. 21-19, 32 FR 17851, Dec. 13, 1967, as amended by Amdt. 21-51, 45 FR 60170, Sept. 11, 1980] § 21.17 Designation of applicable regulations. (a) Except as provided in §§ 25.2, 27.2, and 29.2 of this subchapter, and in parts 26, 34, 36, and 38 of this subchapter, an applicant for a type certificate must show that the aircraft, aircraft engine, or propeller concerned meets— (1) The applicable requirements of this subchapter that are effective on the date of application for that certificate unless— (i) Otherwise specified by the FAA; or (ii) Compliance with later effective amendments is elected or required under this section; and (2) Any special conditions prescribed by the FAA. (b) For special classes of aircraft, including the engines and propellers installed thereon (e.g., gliders, airships, and other nonconventional aircraft), for which airworthiness standards have not been issued under this subchapter, the applicable requirements will be the portions of those other airworthiness requirements contained in Parts 23, 25, 27, 29, 31, 33, and 35 found by the FAA to be appropriate for the aircraft and applicable to a specific type design, or such airworthiness criteria as the FAA may find provide an equivalent level of safety to those parts.

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(c) An application for type certification of a transport category aircraft is effective for 5 years and an application for any other type certificate is effective for 3 years, unless an applicant shows at the time of application that his product requires a longer period of time for design, development, and testing, and the FAA approves a longer period. (d) In a case where a type certificate has not been issued, or it is clear that a type certificate will not be issued, within the time limit established under paragraph (c) of this section, the applicant may— (1) File a new application for a type certificate and comply with all the provisions of paragraph (a) of this section applicable to an original application; or (2) File for an extension of the original application and comply with the applicable airworthiness requirements of this subchapter that were effective on a date, to be selected by the applicant, not earlier than the date which precedes the date of issue of the type certificate by the time limit established under paragraph (c) of this section for the original application. (e) If an applicant elects to comply with an amendment to this subchapter that is effective after the filing of the application for a type certificate, he must also comply with any other amendment that the FAA finds is directly related. (f) For primary category aircraft, the requirements are: (1) The applicable airworthiness requirements contained in parts 23, 27, 31, 33, and 35 of this subchapter, or such other airworthiness criteria as the FAA may find appropriate and applicable to the specific design and intended use and provide a level of safety acceptable to the FAA. (2) The noise standards of part 36 applicable to primary category aircraft. [Doc. No. 5085, 29 FR 14564, Oct. 24, 1964, as amended by Amdt. 21-19, 32 FR 17851, Dec. 13, 1967; Amdt. 21-24, 34 FR 364, Jan. 10, 1969; Amdt. 21-42, 40 FR 1033, Jan. 6, 1975; Amdt. 21-58, 50 FR 46877, Nov. 13, 1985; Amdt. 21-60, 52 FR 8042, Mar. 13, 1987; Amdt. 21-68, 55 FR 32860, Aug. 10, 1990; Amdt. 21-69, 56 FR 41051, Aug. 16, 1991; Amdt. 21-70, 57 FR 41367, Sept. 9, 1992; Amdt. 21-90, 72 FR 63404, Nov. 8, 2007; Doc. No. FAA-2015-1621, Amdt. 21-100, 81 FR 96688, Dec. 30, 2016; Amdt. No. 21-107, 89 FR 12653, Feb. 16, 2024] § 21.19 Changes requiring a new type certificate. Each person who proposes to change a product must apply for a new type certificate if the FAA finds that the proposed change in design, power, thrust, or weight is so extensive that a substantially complete investigation of compliance with the applicable regulations is required. [Doc. No. 28903, 65 FR 36265, June 7, 2000] § 21.20 Compliance with applicable requirements. The applicant for a type certificate, including an amended or supplemental type certificate, must— (a) Show compliance with all applicable requirements and must provide the FAA the means by which such compliance has been shown; and (b) Provide a statement certifying that the applicant has complied with the applicable requirements. [Doc. No. FAA-2006-25877, Amdt. 21-92, 74 FR 53385, Oct. 16, 2009] § 21.21 Issue of type certificate: normal, utility, acrobatic, commuter, and transport category aircraft; manned free balloons; special classes of aircraft; aircraft engines; propellers. An applicant is entitled to a type certificate for an aircraft in the normal, utility, acrobatic, commuter, or transport category, or for a manned free balloon, special class of aircraft, or an aircraft engine or propeller, if— (a) The product qualifies under § 21.27; or (b) The applicant submits the type design, test reports, and computations necessary to show that the product to be certificated meets the applicable airworthiness, aircraft noise, fuel venting, exhaust emission, and fuel efficiency requirements of this subchapter and any special conditions prescribed by the FAA, and the FAA finds—

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(1) Upon examination of the type design, and after completing all tests and inspections, that the type design and the product meet the applicable noise, fuel venting, emissions, and fuel efficiency requirements of this subchapter, and further finds that they meet the applicable airworthiness requirements of this subchapter or that any airworthiness provisions not complied with are compensated for by factors that provide an equivalent level of safety; and (2) For an aircraft, that no feature or characteristic makes it unsafe for the category in which certification is requested. [Doc. No. 5085, 29 FR 14564, Oct. 24, 1964, as amended by Amdt. 21-15, 32 FR 3735, Mar. 4, 1967; Amdt. 21-27, 34 FR 18368, Nov. 18, 1969; Amdt. 21-60, 52 FR 8042, Mar. 13, 1987; Amdt. 21-68, 55 FR 32860, Aug. 10, 1990; Amdt. 21-92, 74 FR 53385, Oct. 16, 2009; Amdt. No. 21-107, 89 FR 12653, Feb. 16, 2024] § 21.23 [Reserved]
§ 21.24 Issuance of type certificate: primary category aircraft. (a) The applicant is entitled to a type certificate for an aircraft in the primary category if— (1) The aircraft— (i) Is unpowered; is an airplane powered by a single, naturally aspirated engine with a 61-knot or less V so stall speed as determined under part 23 of this chapter; or is a rotorcraft with a 6-pound per square foot main rotor disc loading limitation, under sea level standard day conditions; (ii) Weighs not more than 2,700 pounds; or, for seaplanes, not more than 3,375 pounds; (iii) Has a maximum seating capacity of not more than four persons, including the pilot; and (iv) Has an unpressurized cabin. (2) The applicant has submitted— (i) Except as provided by paragraph (c) of this section, a statement, in a form and manner acceptable to the FAA, certifying that: the applicant has completed the engineering analysis necessary to demonstrate compliance with the applicable airworthiness requirements; the applicant has conducted appropriate flight, structural, propulsion, and systems tests necessary to show that the aircraft, its components, and its equipment are reliable and function properly; the type design complies with the airworthiness standards and noise requirements established for the aircraft under § 21.17(f); and no feature or characteristic makes it unsafe for its intended use; (ii) The flight manual required by § 21.5(b), including any information required to be furnished by the applicable airworthiness standards; (iii) Instructions for continued airworthiness in accordance with § 21.50(b); and (iv) A report that: summarizes how compliance with each provision of the type certification basis was determined; lists the specific documents in which the type certification data information is provided; lists all necessary drawings and documents used to define the type design; and lists all the engineering reports on tests and computations that the applicant must retain and make available under § 21.49 to substantiate compliance with the applicable airworthiness standards. (3) The FAA finds that— (i) The aircraft complies with those applicable airworthiness requirements approved under § 21.17(f) of this part; and (ii) The aircraft has no feature or characteristic that makes it unsafe for its intended use. (b) An applicant may include a special inspection and preventive maintenance program as part of the aircraft's type design or supplemental type design. (c) For aircraft manufactured outside of the United States in a country with which the United States has a bilateral airworthiness agreement for the acceptance of these aircraft, and from which the aircraft is to be imported into the United States— (1) The statement required by paragraph (a)(2)(i) of this section must be made by the civil airworthiness authority of the exporting country; and (2) The required manuals, placards, listings, instrument markings, and documents required by paragraphs (a) and (b) of this section must be submitted in English.

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[Doc. No. 23345, 57 FR 41367, Sept. 9, 1992, as amended by Amdt. 21-75, 62 FR 62808, Nov. 25, 1997; Doc. No. FAA-2015-1621, Amdt. 21-100, 81 FR 96689, Dec. 30, 2016] § 21.25 Issue of type certificate: Restricted category aircraft. (a) An applicant is entitled to a type certificate for an aircraft in the restricted category for special purpose operations if he shows compliance with the applicable noise requirements of Part 36 of this chapter, and if he shows that no feature or characteristic of the aircraft makes it unsafe when it is operated under the limitations prescribed for its intended use, and that the aircraft— (1) Meets the airworthiness requirements of an aircraft category except those requirements that the FAA finds inappropriate for the special purpose for which the aircraft is to be used; or (2) Is of a type that has been manufactured in accordance with the requirements of and accepted for use by, an Armed Force of the United States and has been later modified for a special purpose. (b) For the purposes of this section, “special purpose operations” includes— (1) Agricultural (spraying, dusting, and seeding, and livestock and predatory animal control); (2) Forest and wildlife conservation; (3) Aerial surveying (photography, mapping, and oil and mineral exploration); (4) Patrolling (pipelines, power lines, and canals); (5) Weather control (cloud seeding); (6) Aerial advertising (skywriting, banner towing, airborne signs and public address systems); and (7) Any other operation specified by the FAA. [Doc. No. 5085, 29 FR 14564, Oct. 24, 1964, as amended by Amdt. 21-42, 40 FR 1033, Jan. 6, 1975] § 21.27 Issue of type certificate: surplus aircraft of the Armed Forces. (a) Except as provided in paragraph (b) of this section an applicant is entitled to a type certificate for an aircraft in the normal, utility, acrobatic, commuter, or transport category that was designed and constructed in the United States, accepted for operational use, and declared surplus by, an Armed Force of the United States, and that is shown to comply with the applicable certification requirements in paragraph (f) of this section. (b) An applicant is entitled to a type certificate for a surplus aircraft of the Armed Forces of the United States that is a counterpart of a previously type certificated civil aircraft, if he shows compliance with the regulations governing the original civil aircraft type certificate. (c) Aircraft engines, propellers, and their related accessories installed in surplus Armed Forces aircraft, for which a type certificate is sought under this section, will be approved for use on those aircraft if the applicant shows that on the basis of the previous military qualifications, acceptance, and service record, the product provides substantially the same level of airworthiness as would be provided if the engines or propellers were type certificated under Part 33 or 35 of this subchapter. (d) The FAA may relieve an applicant from strict compliance with a specific provision of the applicable requirements in paragraph (f) of this section, if the FAA finds that the method of compliance proposed by the applicant provides substantially the same level of airworthiness and that strict compliance with those regulations would impose a severe burden on the applicant. The FAA may use experience that was satisfactory to an Armed Force of the United States in making such a determination. (e) The FAA may require an applicant to comply with special conditions and later requirements than those in paragraphs (c) and (f) of this section, if the FAA finds that compliance with the listed regulations would not ensure an adequate level of airworthiness for the aircraft. (f) Except as provided in paragraphs (b) through (e) of this section, an applicant for a type certificate under this section must comply with the appropriate regulations listed in the following table:

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Type of aircraft	Date accepted for operational use by the Armed Forces of the United States	Regulations that apply  1
Small reciprocating-engine powered airplanes	Before May 16, 1956 After May 15, 1956	CAR Part 3, as effective May 15, 1956. CAR Part 3, or 14 CFR Part 23.
Small turbine engine-powered airplanes	Before Oct. 2, 1959 After Oct. 1, 1959	CAR Part 3, as effective Oct. 1, 1959. CAR Part 3 or 14 CFR Part 23.
Commuter category airplanes	After (Feb. 17, 1987) FAR Part 23 as of (Feb. 17, 1987).
Large reciprocating-engine powered airplanes	Before Aug. 26, 1955 After Aug. 25, 1955	CAR Part 4b, as effective Aug. 25, 1955. CAR Part 4b or 14 CFR Part 25.
Large turbine engine-powered airplanes	Before Oct. 2, 1959 After Oct. 1, 1959	CAR Part 4b, as effective Oct. 1, 1959. CAR Part 4b or 14 CFR Part 25.
Rotorcraft with maximum certificated takeoff weight of:
6,000 pounds or less	Before Oct. 2, 1959 After Oct. 1, 1959	CAR Part 6, as effective Oct. 1, 1959. CAR Part 6, or 14 CFR Part 27.
Over 6,000 pounds	Before Oct. 2, 1959 After Oct. 1, 1959	CAR Part 7, as effective Oct. 1, 1959. CAR Part 7, or 14 CFR Part 29.
1  Where no specific date is listed, the applicable regulations are those in effect on the date that the first aircraft of the particular model was accepted for operational use by the Armed Forces.

[Doc. No. 5085, 29 FR 14564, Oct. 24, 1964, as amended by Amdt. 21-59, 52 FR 1835, Jan. 15, 1987; 52 FR 7262, Mar. 9, 1987; 70 FR 2325, Jan. 13, 2005; Amdt. 21-92, 74 FR 53386, Oct. 16, 2009] § 21.29 Issue of type certificate: import products. (a) The FAA may issue a type certificate for a product that is manufactured in a foreign country or jurisdiction with which the United States has an agreement for the acceptance of these products for export and import and that is to be imported into the United States if— (1) The applicable State of Design certifies that the product has been examined, tested, and found to meet— (i) The applicable aircraft noise, fuel venting, exhaust emissions, and fuel efficiency requirements of this subchapter as designated in § 21.17, or the applicable aircraft noise, fuel venting, exhaust emissions, and fuel efficiency requirements of the State of Design, and any other requirements the FAA may prescribe to provide noise, fuel venting, exhaust emission, and fuel efficiency levels no greater than those provided by the applicable aircraft noise, fuel venting, exhaust emissions, and fuel efficiency requirements of this subchapter as designated in § 21.17; and (ii) The applicable airworthiness requirements of this subchapter as designated in § 21.17, or the applicable airworthiness requirements of the State of Design and any other requirements the FAA may prescribe to provide a level of safety equivalent to that provided by the applicable airworthiness requirements of this subchapter as designated in § 21.17; (2) The applicant has provided technical data to show the product meets the requirements of paragraph (a)(1) of this section; and (3) The manuals, placards, listings, and instrument markings required by the applicable airworthiness (and noise, where applicable) requirements are presented in the English language. (b) A product type certificated under this section is determined to be compliant with the fuel venting and exhaust emission standards of part 34 of this subchapter, the noise standards of part 36 of this subchapter, and the fuel efficiency requirements of part 38 of this subchapter. Compliance with parts 34, 36, and 38 of this subchapter is certified under paragraph (a)(1)(i) of this section, and the applicable airworthiness standards of this subchapter, or an equivalent level of safety, with which compliance is certified under paragraph (a)(1)(ii) of this section. [Amdt. 21-92, 74 FR 53386, Oct. 16, 2009, as amended by Amdt. No. 21-107, 89 FR 12653, Feb. 16, 2024] § 21.31 Type design. The type design consists of— (a) The drawings and specifications, and a listing of those drawings and specifications, necessary to define the configuration and the design features of the product shown to comply with the requirements of that part of this subchapter applicable to the product;

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(b) Information on dimensions, materials, and processes necessary to define the structural strength of the product; (c) The Airworthiness Limitations section of the Instructions for Continued Airworthiness as required by parts 23, 25, 26, 27, 29, 31, 33 and 35 of this subchapter, or as otherwise required by the FAA; and as specified in the applicable airworthiness criteria for special classes of aircraft defined in § 21.17(b); and (d) For primary category aircraft, if desired, a special inspection and preventive maintenance program designed to be accomplished by an appropriately rated and trained pilot-owner. (e) Any other data necessary to allow, by comparison, the determination of the airworthiness, noise characteristics, fuel efficiency, fuel venting, and exhaust emissions (where applicable) of later products of the same type. [Doc. No. 5085, 29 FR 14564, Oct. 24, 1964, as amended by Amdt. 21-27, 34 FR 18363, Nov. 18, 1969; Amdt. 21-51, 45 FR 60170, Sept. 11, 1980; Amdt. 21-60, 52 FR 8042, Mar. 13, 1987; Amdt. 21-68, 55 FR 32860, Aug. 10, 1990; Amdt. 21-70, 57 FR 41368, Sept. 9, 1992; Amdt. 21-90, 72 FR 63404, Nov. 8, 2007; Amdt. No. 21-107, 89 FR 12653, Feb. 16, 2024] § 21.33 Inspection and tests. (a) Each applicant must allow the FAA to make any inspection and any flight and ground test necessary to determine compliance with the applicable requirements of this subchapter. However, unless otherwise authorized by the FAA— (1) No aircraft, aircraft engine, propeller, or part thereof may be presented to the FAA for test unless compliance with paragraphs (b)(2) through (b)(4) of this section has been shown for that aircraft, aircraft engine, propeller, or part thereof; and (2) No change may be made to an aircraft, aircraft engine, propeller, or part thereof between the time that compliance with paragraphs (b)(2) through (b)(4) of this section is shown for that aircraft, aircraft engine, propeller, or part thereof and the time that it is presented to the FAA for test. (b) Each applicant must make all inspections and tests necessary to determine— (1) Compliance with the applicable airworthiness, aircraft noise, fuel venting, and exhaust emission requirements; (2) That materials and products conform to the specifications in the type design; (3) That parts of the products conform to the drawings in the type design; and (4) That the manufacturing processes, construction and assembly conform to those specified in the type design. [Doc. No. 5085, 29 FR 14564, Oct. 24, 1964, as amended by Amdt. 21-17, 32 FR 14926, Oct. 28, 1967; Amdt. 21-27, 34 FR 18363, Nov. 18, 1969; Amdt. 21-44, 41 FR 55463, Dec. 20, 1976; Amdt. 21-68, 55 FR 32860, Aug. 10, 1990; Amdt. 21-68, 55 FR 32860, Aug. 10, 1990; Amdt. 21-92, 74 FR 53386, Oct. 16, 2009] § 21.35 Flight tests. (a) Each applicant for an aircraft type certificate (other than under §§ 21.24 through 21.29) must make the tests listed in paragraph (b) of this section. Before making the tests the applicant must show— (1) Compliance with the applicable structural requirements of this subchapter; (2) Completion of necessary ground inspections and tests; (3) That the aircraft conforms with the type design; and (4) That the FAA received a flight test report from the applicant (signed, in the case of aircraft to be certificated under Part 25 [New] of this chapter, by the applicant's test pilot) containing the results of his tests. (b) Upon showing compliance with paragraph (a) of this section, the applicant must make all flight tests that the FAA finds necessary— (1) To determine compliance with the applicable requirements of this subchapter; and (2) For aircraft to be certificated under this subchapter, except gliders and low-speed, certification level 1 or 2 airplanes, as defined in part 23 of this chapter, to determine whether there is reasonable assurance that the aircraft, its components, and its equipment are reliable and function properly.

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(c) Each applicant must, if practicable, make the tests prescribed in paragraph (b)(2) of this section upon the aircraft that was used to show compliance with— (1) Paragraph (b)(1) of this section; and (2) For rotorcraft, the rotor drive endurance tests prescribed in § 27.923 or § 29.923 of this chapter, as applicable. (d) Each applicant must show for each flight test (except in a glider or a manned free balloon) that adequate provision is made for the flight test crew for emergency egress and the use of parachutes. (e) Except in gliders and manned free balloons, an applicant must discontinue flight tests under this section until he shows that corrective action has been taken, whenever— (1) The applicant's test pilot is unable or unwilling to make any of the required flight tests; or (2) Items of noncompliance with requirements are found that may make additional test data meaningless or that would make further testing unduly hazardous. (f) The flight tests prescribed in paragraph (b)(2) of this section must include— (1) For aircraft incorporating turbine engines of a type not previously used in a type certificated aircraft, at least 300 hours of operation with a full complement of engines that conform to a type certificate; and (2) For all other aircraft, at least 150 hours of operation. [Doc. No. 5085, 29 FR 14564, Oct. 24, 1964, as amended by Amdt. 21-40, 39 FR 35459, Oct. 1, 1974; Amdt. 21-51, 45 FR 60170, Sept. 11, 1980; Amdt. 21-70, 57 FR 41368, Sept. 9, 1992; Amdt. 21-95, 76 FR 64233, Oct. 18, 2011; Doc. No. FAA-2015-1621, Amdt. 21-100, 81 FR 96689, Dec. 30, 2016] § 21.37 Flight test pilot. Each applicant for a normal, utility, acrobatic, commuter, or transport category aircraft type certificate must provide a person holding an appropriate pilot certificate to make the flight tests required by this part. [Doc. No. 5085, 29 FR 14564, Oct. 24, 1964, as amended by Amdt. 21-59, 52 FR 1835, Jan. 15, 1987] § 21.39 Flight test instrument calibration and correction report. (a) Each applicant for a normal, utility, acrobatic, commuter, or transport category aircraft type certificate must submit a report to the FAA showing the computations and tests required in connection with the calibration of instruments used for test purposes and in the correction of test results to standard atmospheric conditions. (b) Each applicant must allow the FAA to conduct any flight tests that he finds necessary to check the accuracy of the report submitted under paragraph (a) of this section. [Doc. No. 5085, 29 FR 14564, Oct. 24, 1964, as amended by Amdt. 21-59, 52 FR 1835, Jan. 15, 1987] § 21.41 Type certificate. Each type certificate is considered to include the type design, the operating limitations, the certificate data sheet, the applicable regulations of this subchapter with which the FAA records compliance, and any other conditions or limitations prescribed for the product in this subchapter. § 21.43 Location of manufacturing facilities. Except as provided in § 21.29, the FAA does not issue a type certificate if the manufacturing facilities for the product are located outside of the United States, unless the FAA finds that the location of the manufacturer's facilities places no undue burden on the FAA in administering applicable airworthiness requirements. § 21.45 Privileges. The holder or licensee of a type certificate for a product may— (a) In the case of aircraft, upon compliance with §§ 21.173 through 21.189, obtain airworthiness certificates; (b) In the case of aircraft engines or propellers, obtain approval for installation on certificated aircraft; (c) In the case of any product, upon compliance with subpart G of this part, obtain a production certificate for the type certificated product;

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(d) Obtain approval of replacement parts for that product. [Doc. No. 5085, 29 FR 14564, Oct. 24, 1964, as amended by Amdt. 21-92, 74 FR 53386, Oct. 16, 2009] § 21.47 Transferability. (a) A holder of a type certificate may transfer it or make it available to other persons by licensing agreements. (b) For a type certificate transfer in which the State of Design will remain the same, each transferor must, before such a transfer, notify the FAA in writing. This notification must include the applicable type certificate number, the name and address of the transferee, and the anticipated date of the transfer. (c) For a type certificate transfer in which the State of Design is changing, a type certificate may only be transferred to or from a person subject to the authority of another State of Design if the United States has an agreement with that State of Design for the acceptance of the affected product for export and import. Each transferor must notify the FAA before such a transfer in a form and manner acceptable to the FAA. This notification must include the applicable type certificate number; the name, address, and country of residence of the transferee; and the anticipated date of the transfer. (d) Before executing or terminating a licensing agreement that makes a type certificate available to another person, the type certificate holder must notify the FAA in writing. This notification must include the type certificate number addressed by the licensing agreement, the name and address of the licensee, the extent of authority granted the licensee, and the anticipated date of the agreement. [Doc. No. FAA-2006-25877, Amdt. 21-92, 74 FR 53386, Oct. 16, 2009; Doc. No. FAA-2018-0119, Amdt. 21-101, 83 FR 9169, Mar. 5, 2018] § 21.49 Availability. The holder of a type certificate must make the certificate available for examination upon the request of the FAA or the National Transportation Safety Board. [Doc. No. 5085, 29 FR 14564, Oct. 24, 1964, as amended by Doc. No. 8084, 32 FR 5769, Apr. 11, 1967] § 21.50 Instructions for continued airworthiness and manufacturer's maintenance manuals having airworthiness limitations sections. (a) The holder of a type certificate for a rotorcraft for which a Rotorcraft Maintenance Manual containing an “Airworthiness Limitations” section has been issued under § 27.1529 (a)(2) or § 29.1529 (a)(2) of this chapter, and who obtains approval of changes to any replacement time, inspection interval, or related procedure in that section of the manual, must make those changes available upon request to any operator of the same type of rotorcraft. (b) The holder of a design approval, including either a type certificate or supplemental type certificate for an aircraft, aircraft engine, or propeller for which application was made after January 28, 1981, must furnish at least one set of complete Instructions for Continued Airworthiness to the owner of each type aircraft, aircraft engine, or propeller upon its delivery, or upon issuance of the first standard airworthiness certificate for the affected aircraft, whichever occurs later. The Instructions for Continued Airworthiness must be prepared in accordance with §§ 23.1529, 25.1529, 25.1729, 27.1529, 29.1529, 31.82, 33.4, 35.4, or part 26 of this subchapter, or as specified in the applicable airworthiness criteria for special classes of aircraft defined in § 21.17(b), as applicable. If the holder of a design approval chooses to designate parts as commercial, it must include in the Instructions for Continued Airworthiness a list of commercial parts submitted in accordance with the provisions of paragraph (c) of this section. Thereafter, the holder of a design approval must make those instructions available to any other person required by this chapter to comply with any of the terms of those instructions. In addition, changes to the Instructions for Continued Airworthiness shall be made available to any person required by this chapter to comply with any of those instructions.

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(c) To designate commercial parts, the holder of a design approval, in a manner acceptable to the FAA, must submit: (1) A Commercial Parts List; (2) Data for each part on the List showing that: (i) The failure of the commercial part, as installed in the product, would not degrade the level of safety of the product; and (ii) The part is produced only under the commercial part manufacturer's specification and marked only with the commercial part manufacturer's markings; and (3) Any other data necessary for the FAA to approve the List. [Amdt. 21-23, 33 FR 14105, Sept. 18, 1968, as amended by Amdt. 21-51, 45 FR 60170, Sept. 11, 1980; Amdt. 21-60, 52 FR 8042, Mar. 13, 1987; Amdt. 21-90, 72 FR 63404, Nov. 8, 2007; Amdt. 21-92, 74 FR 53386, Oct. 16, 2009; Doc. No. FAA-2015-1621, Amdt. 21-100, 81 FR 96689, Dec. 30, 2016] § 21.51 Duration. A type certificate is effective until surrendered, suspended, revoked, or a termination date is otherwise established by the FAA. § 21.53 Statement of conformity. (a) Each applicant must provide, in a form and manner acceptable to the FAA, a statement that each aircraft engine or propeller presented for type certification conforms to its type design. (b) Each applicant must submit a statement of conformity to the FAA for each aircraft or part thereof presented to the FAA for tests. This statement of conformity must include a statement that the applicant has complied with § 21.33(a) (unless otherwise authorized under that paragraph). [Amdt. 21-17, 32 FR 14926, Oct. 28, 1967, as amended by Amdt. 21-92, 74 FR 53386, Oct. 16, 2009] § 21.55 Responsibilities of type certificate holders who license the type certificate. A type certificate holder who allows a person to use the type certificate to manufacture a new aircraft, aircraft engine, or propeller must meet the applicable requirements of part 5 of this chapter and provide that person with a written licensing agreement acceptable to the FAA. [Docket No. FAA-2021-0419, Amdt. No. 21-108, 89 FR 33108, Apr. 26, 2024] Subpart C—Provisional Type Certificates Source: Docket No. 5085, 29 FR 14566, Oct. 24, 1964, unless otherwise noted. § 21.71 Applicability. This subpart prescribes— (a) Procedural requirements for the issue of provisional type certificates, amendments to provisional type certificates, and provisional amendments to type certificates; and (b) Rules governing the holders of those certificates. § 21.73 Eligibility. (a) Any manufacturer of aircraft manufactured within the United States who is a United States citizen may apply for Class I or Class II provisional type certificates, for amendments to provisional type certificates held by him, and for provisional amendments to type certificates held by him. (b) Any manufacturer of aircraft in a State of Manufacture subject to the provisions of an agreement with the United States for the acceptance of those aircraft for export and import may apply for a Class II provisional type certificate, for amendments to provisional type certificates held by him, and for provisional amendments to type certificates held by him. (c) An aircraft engine manufacturer who is a United States citizen and who has altered a type certificated aircraft by installing different type certificated aircraft engines manufactured by him within the United States may apply for a Class I provisional type certificate for the aircraft, and for amendments to Class I provisional type certificates held by him, if the basic aircraft, before alteration, was type certificated in the normal, utility, acrobatic, commuter, or transport category. [Doc. No. 5085, 29 FR 14566, Oct. 24, 1964, as amended by Amdt. 21-12, 31 FR 13380, Oct. 15, 1966; Amdt. 21-59, 52 FR 1836, Jan. 15, 1987; Amdt. 21-92, 74 FR 53387, Oct. 16, 2009]

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§ 21.75 Application. Each applicant for a provisional type certificate, for an amendment thereto, or for a provisional amendment to a type certificate must apply to the FAA and provide the information required by this subpart. [Doc. No. FAA-2006-25877, Amdt. 21-92, 74 FR 53387, Oct. 16, 2009; Doc. No. FAA-2018-0119, Amdt. 21-101, 83 FR 9169, Mar. 5, 2018] § 21.77 Duration. (a) Unless sooner surrendered, superseded, revoked, or otherwise terminated, provisional type certificates and amendments thereto are effective for the periods specified in this section. (b) A Class I provisional type certificate is effective for 24 months after the date of issue. (c) A Class II provisional type certificate is effective for twelve months after the date of issue. (d) An amendment to a Class I or Class II provisional type certificate is effective for the duration of the amended certificate. (e) A provisional amendment to a type certificate is effective for six months after its approval or until the amendment of the type certificate is approved, whichever is first. [Doc. No. 5085, 29 FR 14566, Oct. 24, 1964, as amended by Amdt. 21-7, 30 FR 14311, Nov. 16, 1965] § 21.79 Transferability. Provisional type certificates are not transferable. § 21.81 Requirements for issue and amendment of Class I provisional type certificates. (a) An applicant is entitled to the issue or amendment of a Class I provisional type certificate if he shows compliance with this section and the FAA finds that there is no feature, characteristic, or condition that would make the aircraft unsafe when operated in accordance with the limitations established in paragraph (e) of this section and in § 91.317 of this chapter. (b) The applicant must apply for the issue of a type or supplemental type certificate for the aircraft. (c) The applicant must certify that— (1) The aircraft has been designed and constructed in accordance with the airworthiness requirements applicable to the issue of the type or supplemental type certificate applied for; (2) The aircraft substantially meets the applicable flight characteristic requirements for the type or supplemental type certificate applied for; and (3) The aircraft can be operated safely under the appropriate operating limitations specified in paragraph (a) of this section. (d) The applicant must submit a report showing that the aircraft had been flown in all maneuvers necessary to show compliance with the flight requirements for the issue of the type or supplemental type certificate applied for, and to establish that the aircraft can be operated safely in accordance with the limitations contained in this subchapter. (e) The applicant must establish all limitations required for the issue of the type or supplemental type certificate applied for, including limitations on weights, speeds, flight maneuvers, loading, and operation of controls and equipment unless, for each limitation not so established, appropriate operating restrictions are established for the aircraft. (f) The applicant must establish an inspection and maintenance program for the continued airworthiness of the aircraft. (g) The applicant must show that a prototype aircraft has been flown for at least 50 hours under an experimental certificate issued under §§ 21.191 through 21.195, or under the auspices of an Armed Force of the United States. However, in the case of an amendment to a provisional type certificate, the FAA may reduce the number of required flight hours. [Doc. No. 5085, 29 FR 14566, Oct. 24, 1964, as amended by Amdt. 21-66, 54 FR 34329, Aug. 18, 1989] § 21.83 Requirements for issue and amendment of Class II provisional type certificates. (a) An applicant who manufactures aircraft within the United States is entitled to the issue or amendment of a Class II provisional type certificate if he shows compliance with this section and the FAA finds that there is no feature, characteristic, or condition that would make the aircraft unsafe when operated in accordance with the limitations in paragraph (h) of this section, and §§ 91.317 and 121.207 of this chapter.

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(b) An applicant who manufactures aircraft in a country with which the United States has an agreement for the acceptance of those aircraft for export and import is entitled to the issue or amendment of a Class II provisional type certificate if the country in which the aircraft was manufactured certifies that the applicant has shown compliance with this section, that the aircraft meets the requirements of paragraph (f) of this section and that there is no feature, characteristic, or condition that would make the aircraft unsafe when operated in accordance with the limitations in paragraph (h) of this section and §§ 91.317 and 121.207 of this chapter. (c) The applicant must apply for a type certificate, in the transport category, for the aircraft. (d) The applicant must hold a U.S. type certificate for at least one other aircraft in the same transport category as the subject aircraft. (e) The FAA's official flight test program or the flight test program conducted by the authorities of the country in which the aircraft was manufactured, with respect to the issue of a type certificate for that aircraft, must be in progress. (f) The applicant or, in the case of a foreign manufactured aircraft, the country in which the aircraft was manufactured, must certify that— (1) The aircraft has been designed and constructed in accordance with the airworthiness requirements applicable to the issue of the type certificate applied for; (2) The aircraft substantially complies with the applicable flight characteristic requirements for the type certificate applied for; and (3) The aircraft can be operated safely under the appropriate operating limitations in this subchapter. (g) The applicant must submit a report showing that the aircraft has been flown in all maneuvers necessary to show compliance with the flight requirements for the issue of the type certificate and to establish that the aircraft can be operated safely in accordance with the limitations in this subchapter. (h) The applicant must prepare a provisional aircraft flight manual containing all limitations required for the issue of the type certificate applied for, including limitations on weights, speeds, flight maneuvers, loading, and operation of controls and equipment unless, for each limitation not so established, appropriate operating restrictions are established for the aircraft. (i) The applicant must establish an inspection and maintenance program for the continued airworthiness of the aircraft. (j) The applicant must show that a prototype aircraft has been flown for at least 100 hours. In the case of an amendment to a provisional type certificate, the FAA may reduce the number of required flight hours. [Amdt. 21-12, 31 FR 13386, Oct. 15, 1966, as amended by Amdt. 21-66, 54 FR 34329, Aug. 18, 1989] § 21.85 Provisional amendments to type certificates. (a) An applicant who manufactures aircraft within the United States is entitled to a provisional amendment to a type certificate if he shows compliance with this section and the FAA finds that there is no feature, characteristic, or condition that would make the aircraft unsafe when operated under the appropriate limitations contained in this subchapter. (b) An applicant who manufactures aircraft in a foreign country with which the United States has an agreement for the acceptance of those aircraft for export and import is entitled to a provisional amendment to a type certificate if the country in which the aircraft was manufactured certifies that the applicant has shown compliance with this section, that the aircraft meets the requirements of paragraph (e) of this section and that there is no feature, characteristic, or condition that would make the aircraft unsafe when operated under the appropriate limitations contained in this subchapter.

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(c) The applicant must apply for an amendment to the type certificate. (d) The FAA's official flight test program or the flight test program conducted by the authorities of the country in which the aircraft was manufactured, with respect to the amendment of the type certificate, must be in progress. (e) The applicant or, in the case of foreign manufactured aircraft, the country in which the aircraft was manufactured, must certify that— (1) The modification involved in the amendment to the type certificate has been designed and constructed in accordance with the airworthiness requirements applicable to the issue of the type certificate for the aircraft; (2) The aircraft substantially complies with the applicable flight characteristic requirements for the type certificate; and (3) The aircraft can be operated safely under the appropriate operating limitations in this subchapter. (f) The applicant must submit a report showing that the aircraft incorporating the modifications involved has been flown in all maneuvers necessary to show compliance with the flight requirements applicable to those modifications and to establish that the aircraft can be operated safely in accordance with the limitations specified in §§ 91.317 and 121.207 of this chapter. (g) The applicant must establish and publish, in a provisional aircraft flight manual or other document and on appropriate placards, all limitations required for the issue of the type certificate applied for, including weight, speed, flight maneuvers, loading, and operation of controls and equipment, unless, for each limitation not so established, appropriate operating restrictions are established for the aircraft. (h) The applicant must establish an inspection and maintenance program for the continued airworthiness of the aircraft. (i) The applicant must operate a prototype aircraft modified in accordance with the corresponding amendment to the type certificate for the number of hours found necessary by the FAA. [Amdt. 21-12, 31 FR 13388, Oct. 15, 1966, as amended by Amdt. 21-66, 54 FR 34329, Aug. 18, 1989] Subpart D—Changes to Type Certificates Source: Docket No. 5085, 29 FR 14567, Oct. 24, 1964, unless otherwise noted. § 21.91 Applicability. This subpart prescribes procedural requirements for the approval of changes to type certificates. § 21.93 Classification of changes in type design. (a) In addition to changes in type design specified in paragraph (b) of this section, changes in type design are classified as minor and major. A “minor change” is one that has no appreciable effect on the weight, balance, structural strength, reliability, operational characteristics, or other characteristics affecting the airworthiness of the product. All other changes are “major changes” (except as provided in paragraph (b) of this section). (b) For the purpose of complying with Part 36 of this chapter, and except as provided in paragraphs (b)(2), (b)(3), and (b)(4) of this section, any voluntary change in the type design of an aircraft that may increase the noise levels of that aircraft is an “acoustical change” (in addition to being a minor or major change as classified in paragraph (a) of this section) for the following aircraft: (1) Transport category large airplanes. (2) Jet (Turbojet powered) airplanes (regardless of category). For airplanes to which this paragraph applies, “acoustical changes” do not include changes in type design that are limited to one of the following— (i) Gear down flight with one or more retractable landing gear down during the entire flight, or (ii) Spare engine and nacelle carriage external to the skin of the airplane (and return of the pylon or other external mount), or (iii) Time-limited engine and/or nacelle changes, where the change in type design specifies that the airplane may not be operated for a period of more than 90 days unless compliance with the applicable acoustical change provisions of Part 36 of this chapter is shown for that change in type design.

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(3) Propeller driven commuter category and small airplanes in the primary, normal, utility, acrobatic, transport, and restricted categories, except for airplanes that are: (i) Designated for “agricultural aircraft operations” (as defined in § 137.3 of this chapter, effective January 1, 1966) to which § 36.1583 of this chapter does not apply, or (ii) Designated for dispensing fire fighting materials to which § 36.1583 of this chapter does not apply, or (iii) U.S. registered, and that had flight time prior to January 1, 1955 or (iv) Land configured aircraft reconfigured with floats or skis. This reconfiguration does not permit further exception from the requirements of this section upon any acoustical change not enumerated in § 21.93(b). (4) Helicopters except: (i) Those helicopters that are designated exclusively: (A) For “agricultural aircraft operations”, as defined in § 137.3 of this chapter, as effective on January 1, 1966; (B) For dispensing fire fighting materials; or (C) For carrying external loads, as defined in § 133.1(b) of this chapter, as effective on December 20, 1976. (ii) Those helicopters modified by installation or removal of external equipment. For purposes of this paragraph, “external equipment” means any instrument, mechanism, part, apparatus, appurtenance, or accessory that is attached to, or extends from, the helicopter exterior but is not used nor is intended to be used in operating or controlling a helicopter in flight and is not part of an airframe or engine. An “acoustical change” does not include: (A) Addition or removal of external equipment; (B) Changes in the airframe made to accommodate the addition or removal of external equipment, to provide for an external load attaching means, to facilitate the use of external equipment or external loads, or to facilitate the safe operation of the helicopter with external equipment mounted to, or external loads carried by, the helicopter; (C) Reconfiguration of the helicopter by the addition or removal of floats and skis; (D) Flight with one or more doors and/or windows removed or in an open position; or (E) Any changes in the operational limitations placed on the helicopter as a consequence of the addition or removal of external equipment, floats, and skis, or flight operations with doors and/or windows removed or in an open position. (5) Tiltrotors. (c) For purposes of complying with part 34 of this chapter, any voluntary change in the type design of the airplane or engine which may increase fuel venting or exhaust emissions is an “emissions change.” (d) For the purpose of maintaining compliance with part 38 of this chapter, any voluntary change in the type design of an airplane that may increase the fuel efficiency metric value or the MTOM of that airplane is a “fuel efficiency change”, in addition to being a minor or major change as classified in paragraph (a) of this section. [Amdt. 21-27, 34 FR 18363, Nov. 18, 1969] Editorial Note: For Federal Register citations affecting § 21.93, see the List of CFR Sections Affected, which appears in the Finding Aids section of the printed volume and at www.govinfo.gov.

§ 21.95 Approval of minor changes in type design. Minor changes in a type design may be approved under a method acceptable to the FAA before submitting to the FAA any substantiating or descriptive data. § 21.97 Approval of major changes in type design. (a) An applicant for approval of a major change in type design must— (1) Provide substantiating data and necessary descriptive data for inclusion in the type design; (2) Show that the change and areas affected by the change comply with the applicable requirements of this subchapter, and provide the FAA the means by which such compliance has been shown; and

(3) Provide a statement certifying that the applicant has complied with the applicable requirements. (b) Approval of a major change in the type design of an aircraft engine is limited to the specific engine configuration upon which the change is made unless the applicant identifies in the necessary descriptive data for inclusion in the type design the other configurations of the same engine type for which approval is requested and shows that the change is compatible with the other configurations. [Amdt. 21-40, 39 FR 35459, Oct. 1, 1974, as amended by Amdt. 21-92, 74 FR 53387, Oct. 16, 2009; Amdt. 21-96, 77 FR 71695, Dec. 4, 2012] § 21.99 Required design changes. (a) When an Airworthiness Directive is issued under Part 39 the holder of the type certificate for the product concerned must— (1) If the FAA finds that design changes are necessary to correct the unsafe condition of the product, and upon his request, submit appropriate design changes for approval; and (2) Upon approval of the design changes, make available the descriptive data covering the changes to all operators of products previously certificated under the type certificate. (b) In a case where there are no current unsafe conditions, but the FAA or the holder of the type certificate finds through service experience that changes in type design will contribute to the safety of the product, the holder of the type certificate may submit appropriate design changes for approval. Upon approval of the changes, the manufacturer must make information on the design changes available to all operators of the same type of product. [Doc. No. 5085, 29 FR 14567, Oct. 24, 1964, as amended by Amdt. 21-3, 30 FR 8826, July 24, 1965] § 21.101 Designation of applicable regulations. (a) An applicant for a change to a type certificate must show that the change and areas affected by the change comply with the airworthiness requirements applicable to the category of the product in effect on the date of the application for the change and with parts 34, 36, and 38 of this chapter. Exceptions are detailed in paragraphs (b) and (c) of this section. (b) Except as provided in paragraph (g) of this section, if paragraphs (b)(1), (2), or (3) of this section apply, an applicant may show that the change and areas affected by the change comply with an earlier amendment of a regulation required by paragraph (a) of this section, and of any other regulation the FAA finds is directly related. However, the earlier amended regulation may not precede either the corresponding regulation included by reference in the type certificate, or any regulation in §§ 25.2, 27.2, or 29.2 of this chapter that is related to the change. The applicant may show compliance with an earlier amendment of a regulation for any of the following: (1) A change that the FAA finds not to be significant. In determining whether a specific change is significant, the FAA considers the change in context with all previous relevant design changes and all related revisions to the applicable regulations incorporated in the type certificate for the product. Changes that meet one of the following criteria are automatically considered significant: (i) The general configuration or the principles of construction are not retained. (ii) The assumptions used for certification of the product to be changed do not remain valid. (2) Each area, system, component, equipment, or appliance that the FAA finds is not affected by the change. (3) Each area, system, component, equipment, or appliance that is affected by the change, for which the FAA finds that compliance with a regulation described in paragraph (a) of this section would not contribute materially to the level of safety of the product or would be impractical. (c) An applicant for a change to an aircraft (other than a rotorcraft) of 6,000 pounds or less maximum weight, to a non-turbine rotorcraft of 3,000 pounds or less maximum weight, to a level 1 low-speed airplane, or to a level 2 low-speed airplane may show that the change and areas affected by the change comply with the regulations included in the type certificate. However, if the FAA finds that the change is significant in an area, the FAA may designate compliance with an amendment to the regulation incorporated by reference in the type certificate that applies to the change and any regulation that the FAA finds is directly related, unless the FAA also finds that compliance with that amendment or regulation would not contribute materially to the level of safety of the product or would be impractical.

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(d) If the FAA finds that the regulations in effect on the date of the application for the change do not provide adequate standards with respect to the proposed change because of a novel or unusual design feature, the applicant must also comply with special conditions, and amendments to those special conditions, prescribed under the provisions of § 21.16, to provide a level of safety equal to that established by the regulations in effect on the date of the application for the change. (e) An application for a change to a type certificate for a transport category aircraft is effective for 5 years, and an application for a change to any other type certificate is effective for 3 years. If the change has not been approved, or if it is clear that it will not be approved under the time limit established under this paragraph, the applicant may do either of the following: (1) File a new application for a change to the type certificate and comply with all the provisions of paragraph (a) of this section applicable to an original application for a change. (2) File for an extension of the original application and comply with the provisions of paragraph (a) of this section. The applicant must then select a new application date. The new application date may not precede the date the change is approved by more than the time period established under this paragraph (e). (f) For aircraft certificated under §§ 21.17(b), 21.24, 21.25, and 21.27 the airworthiness requirements applicable to the category of the product in effect on the date of the application for the change include each airworthiness requirement that the FAA finds to be appropriate for the type certification of the aircraft in accordance with those sections. (g) Notwithstanding paragraph (b) of this section, for transport category airplanes, the applicant must show compliance with each applicable provision of part 26 of this chapter, unless the applicant has elected or was required to comply with a corresponding amendment to part 25 of this chapter that was issued on or after the date of the applicable part 26 provision. [Doc. No. 28903, 65 FR 36266, June 7, 2000, as amended by Amdt. 21-90, 72 FR 63404, Nov. 8, 2007; Amdt. 21-96, 77 FR 71695, Dec. 4, 2012; Doc. No. FAA-2015-1621, Amdt. 21-100, 81 FR 96689, Dec. 30, 2016; Doc. No. FAA-2022-0241, Amdt. No. 21-107, 89 FR 12653, Feb. 16, 2024] Subpart E—Supplemental Type Certificates Source: Docket No. 5085, 29 FR 14568, Oct. 24, 1964, unless otherwise noted. § 21.111 Applicability. This subpart prescribes procedural requirements for the issue of supplemental type certificates. § 21.113 Requirement for supplemental type certificate. (a) If a person holds the TC for a product and alters that product by introducing a major change in type design that does not require an application for a new TC under § 21.19, that person must apply to the FAA either for an STC, or to amend the original type certificate under subpart D of this part. (b) If a person does not hold the TC for a product and alters that product by introducing a major change in type design that does not require an application for a new TC under § 21.19, that person must apply to the FAA for an STC. (c) The application for an STC must be made in the form and manner prescribed by the FAA. [Doc. No. FAA-2006-25877, Amdt. 21-92, 74 FR 53387, Oct. 16, 2009; Doc. No. FAA-2018-0119, Amdt. 21-101, 83 FR 9169, Mar. 5, 2018]

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§ 21.115 Applicable requirements. (a) Each applicant for a supplemental type certificate must show that the altered product meets applicable requirements specified in § 21.101 and— (1) In the case of an acoustical change described in § 21.93(b), show compliance with the applicable noise requirements of part 36 of this chapter; (2) In the case of an emissions change described in § 21.93(c), show compliance with the applicable fuel venting and exhaust emissions requirements of part 34 of this chapter; and (3) In the case of a fuel efficiency change described in § 21.93(d), show compliance with the applicable fuel efficiency requirements of part 38 of this chapter. (b) Each applicant for a supplemental type certificate must meet §§ 21.33 and 21.53 with respect to each change in the type design. [Amdt. 21-17, 32 FR 14927, Oct. 28, 1967, as amended by Amdt. 21-42, 40 FR 1033, Jan. 6, 1975; Amdt. 21-52A, 45 FR 79009, Nov. 28, 1980; Amdt. 21-61, 53 FR 3540, Feb. 5, 1988; Amdt. 21-68, 55 FR 32860, Aug. 10, 1990; Amdt. 21-71, 57 FR 42854, Sept. 16, 1992; Amdt. 21-77, 65 FR 36266, June 7, 2000; Amdt. No. 21-107, 89 FR 12653, Feb. 16, 2024] § 21.117 Issue of supplemental type certificates. (a) An applicant is entitled to a supplemental type certificate if the FAA finds that the applicant meets the requirements of §§ 21.113 and 21.115. (b) A supplemental type certificate consists of— (1) The approval by the FAA of a change in the type design of the product; and (2) The type certificate previously issued for the product. [Doc. No. 5085, 29 FR 14568, Oct. 24, 1964, as amended by Amdt. 21-92, 74 FR 53387, Oct. 16, 2009] § 21.119 Privileges. The holder of a supplemental type certificate may— (a) In the case of aircraft, obtain airworthiness certificates; (b) In the case of other products, obtain approval for installation on certificated aircraft; and (c) Obtain a production certificate in accordance with the requirements of subpart G of this part for the change in the type design approved by the supplemental type certificate. [Doc. No. 5085, 29 FR 14568, Oct. 24, 1964, as amended by Amdt. 21-92, 74 FR 53387, Oct. 16, 2009] § 21.120 Responsibility of supplemental type certificate holders to provide written permission for alterations. A supplemental type certificate holder who allows a person to use the supplemental type certificate to alter an aircraft, aircraft engine, or propeller must provide that person with written permission acceptable to the FAA. [Doc. No. FAA-2003-14825, 71 FR 52258, Sept. 1, 2006] Subpart F—Production Under Type Certificate Source: Docket No. 5085, 29 FR 14568, Oct. 24, 1964, unless otherwise noted. § 21.121 Applicability. This subpart prescribes rules for production under a type certificate. § 21.122 Location of or change to manufacturing facilities. (a) A type certificate holder may utilize manufacturing facilities located outside of the United States if the FAA finds no undue burden in administering the applicable requirements of Title 49 U.S.C. and this subchapter. (b) The type certificate holder must obtain FAA approval before making any changes to the location of any of its manufacturing facilities. (c) The type certificate holder must immediately notify the FAA, in writing, of any change to the manufacturing facilities that may affect the inspection, conformity, or airworthiness of its product or article. [Doc. No. FAA-2006-25877, Amdt. 21-92, 74 FR 53387, Oct. 16, 2009; Amdt. 21-92A, 75 FR 9095, Mar. 1, 2010] § 21.123 Production under type certificate. Each manufacturer of a product being manufactured under a type certificate must—

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(a) Maintain at the place of manufacture all information and data specified in §§ 21.31 and 21.41; (b) Make each product and article thereof available for inspection by the FAA; (c) Maintain records of the completion of all inspections and tests required by §§ 21.127, 21.128, and 21.129 for at least 5 years for the products and articles thereof manufactured under the approval and at least 10 years for critical components identified under § 45.15(c) of this chapter; (d) Allow the FAA to make any inspection or test, including any inspection or test at a supplier facility, necessary to determine compliance with this subchapter; (e) Mark the product in accordance with part 45 of this chapter, including any critical parts; (f) Identify any portion of that product ( e.g., sub-assemblies, component parts, or replacement articles) that leave the manufacturer's facility as FAA approved with the manufacturer's part number and name, trademark, symbol, or other FAA-approved manufacturer's identification; and (g) Except as otherwise authorized by the FAA, obtain a production certificate for that product in accordance with subpart G of this part within 6 months after the date of issuance of the type certificate. [Doc. No. FAA-2006-25877, Amdt. 21-92, 74 FR 53387, Oct. 16, 2009] § 21.125 [Reserved]
§ 21.127 Tests: aircraft. (a) Each person manufacturing aircraft under a type certificate must establish an approved production flight test procedure and flight check-off form, and in accordance with that form, flight test each aircraft produced. (b) Each production flight test procedure must include the following: (1) An operational check of the trim, controllability, or other flight characteristics to establish that the production aircraft has the same range and degree of control as the prototype aircraft. (2) An operational check of each part or system operated by the crew while in flight to establish that, during flight, instrument readings are within normal range. (3) A determination that all instruments are properly marked, and that all placards and required flight manuals are installed after flight test. (4) A check of the operational characteristics of the aircraft on the ground. (5) A check on any other items peculiar to the aircraft being tested that can best be done during the ground or flight operation of the aircraft. § 21.128 Tests: aircraft engines. (a) Each person manufacturing aircraft engines under a type certificate must subject each engine (except rocket engines for which the manufacturer must establish a sampling technique) to an acceptable test run that includes the following: (1) Break-in runs that include a determination of fuel and oil consumption and a determination of power characteristics at rated maximum continuous power or thrust and, if applicable, at rated takeoff power or thrust. (2) At least five hours of operation at rated maximum continuous power or thrust. For engines having a rated takeoff power or thrust higher than rated maximum continuous power or thrust, the five-hour run must include 30 minutes at rated takeoff power or thrust. (b) The test runs required by paragraph (a) of this section may be made with the engine appropriately mounted and using current types of power and thrust measuring equipment. [Doc. No. 5085, 29 FR 14568, Oct. 24, 1964, as amended by Amdt. 21-5, 32 FR 3735, Mar. 4, 1967] § 21.129 Tests: propellers. Each person manufacturing propellers under a type certificate must give each variable pitch propeller an acceptable functional test to determine if it operates properly throughout the normal range of operation. § 21.130 Statement of conformity. Each holder or licensee of a type certificate who manufactures a product under this subpart must provide, in a form and manner acceptable to the FAA, a statement that the product for which the type certificate has been issued conforms to its type certificate and is in a condition for safe operation.

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[Doc. No. FAA-2006-25877, Amdt. 21-92, 74 FR 53387, Oct. 16, 2009] Subpart G—Production Certificates Source: Docket No. FAA-2006-25877, Amdt. 21-92, 74 FR 53387, Oct. 16, 2009, unless otherwise noted. § 21.131 Applicability. This subpart prescribes— (a) Procedural requirements for issuing production certificates; and (b) Rules governing holders of those certificates. § 21.132 Eligibility. Any person may apply for a production certificate if that person holds, for the product concerned— (a) A current type certificate, (b) A supplemental type certificate, or (c) Rights to the benefits of that type certificate or supplemental type certificate under a licensing agreement. § 21.133 Application. Each applicant must apply for a production certificate in a form and manner prescribed by the FAA. § 21.135 Organization. (a) Each applicant for or holder of a production certificate must provide the FAA with a document— (1) Describing how its organization will ensure compliance with the provisions of this subpart; (2) Describing assigned responsibilities, delegated authorities, and the functional relationship of those responsible for quality to management and other organizational components; and (3) Identifying an accountable manager. (b) The accountable manager specified in paragraph (a) of this section must be responsible within the applicant's or production approval holder's organization for, and have authority over, all production operations conducted under this part. The accountable manager must confirm that the procedures described in the quality manual required by § 21.138 are in place and that the production approval holder satisfies the requirements of the applicable regulations of subchapter C, Aircraft. The accountable manager must serve as the primary contact with the FAA. (c) Each applicant for or holder of a production certificate, except those based only on a supplemental type certificate or on the rights to the benefits of a supplemental type certificate under a licensing agreement, must meet the applicable requirements of part 5 of this chapter. [Doc. No. FAA-2013-0933, Amdt. 21-98, 80 FR 59031, Oct. 1, 2015, as amended by Docket No. FAA-2021-0419, Amdt. No. 21-108, 89 FR 33108, Apr. 26, 2024] § 21.137 Quality system. Each applicant for or holder of a production certificate must establish and describe in writing a quality system that ensures that each product and article conforms to its approved design and is in a condition for safe operation. This quality system must include: (a) Design data control. Procedures for controlling design data and subsequent changes to ensure that only current, correct, and approved data is used. (b) Document control. Procedures for controlling quality system documents and data and subsequent changes to ensure that only current, correct, and approved documents and data are used. (c) Supplier control. Procedures that— (1) Ensure that each supplier-provided product, article, or service conforms to the production approval holder's requirements; and (2) Establish a supplier-reporting process for products, articles, or services that have been released from or provided by the supplier and subsequently found not to conform to the production approval holder's requirements. (d) Manufacturing process control. Procedures for controlling manufacturing processes to ensure that each product and article conforms to its approved design. (e) Inspecting and testing. Procedures for inspections and tests used to ensure that each product and article conforms to its approved design. These procedures must include the following, as applicable:

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(1) A flight test of each aircraft produced unless that aircraft will be exported as an unassembled aircraft. (2) A functional test of each aircraft engine and each propeller produced. (f) Inspection, measuring, and test equipment control. Procedures to ensure calibration and control of all inspection, measuring, and test equipment used in determining conformity of each product and article to its approved design. Each calibration standard must be traceable to a standard acceptable to the FAA. (g) Inspection and test status. Procedures for documenting the inspection and test status of products and articles supplied or manufactured to the approved design. (h) Nonconforming product and article control. (1) Procedures to ensure that only products or articles that conform to their approved design are installed on a type-certificated product. These procedures must provide for the identification, documentation, evaluation, segregation, and disposition of nonconforming products and articles. Only authorized individuals may make disposition determinations. (2) Procedures to ensure that discarded articles are rendered unusable. (i) Corrective and preventive actions. Procedures for implementing corrective and preventive actions to eliminate the causes of an actual or potential nonconformity to the approved design or noncompliance with the approved quality system. (j) Handling and storage. Procedures to prevent damage and deterioration of each product and article during handling, storage, preservation, and packaging. (k) Control of quality records. Procedures for identifying, storing, protecting, retrieving, and retaining quality records. A production approval holder must retain these records for at least 5 years for the products and articles manufactured under the approval and at least 10 years for critical components identified under § 45.15(c) of this chapter. (l) Internal audits. Procedures for planning, conducting, and documenting internal audits to ensure compliance with the approved quality system. The procedures must include reporting results of internal audits to the manager responsible for implementing corrective and preventive actions. (m) In-service feedback. Procedures for receiving and processing feedback on in-service failures, malfunctions, and defects. These procedures must include a process for assisting the design approval holder to— (1) Address any in-service problem involving design changes; and (2) Determine if any changes to the Instructions for Continued Airworthiness are necessary. (n) Quality escapes. Procedures for identifying, analyzing, and initiating appropriate corrective action for products or articles that have been released from the quality system and that do not conform to the applicable design data or quality system requirements. (o) Issuing authorized release documents. Procedures for issuing authorized release documents for aircraft engines, propellers, and articles if the production approval holder intends to issue those documents. These procedures must provide for the selection, appointment, training, management, and removal of individuals authorized by the production approval holder to issue authorized release documents. Authorized release documents may be issued for new aircraft engines, propellers, and articles manufactured by the production approval holder; and for used aircraft engines, propellers, and articles when rebuilt, or altered, in accordance with § 43.3(j) of this chapter. When a production approval holder issues an authorized release document for the purpose of export, the production approval holder must comply with the procedures applicable to the export of new and used aircraft engines, propellers, and articles specified in § 21.331 and the responsibilities of exporters specified in § 21.335. [Docket No. FAA-2006-25877, Amdt. 21-92, 74 FR 53387, Oct. 16, 2009, as amended by Doc. No. FAA-2013-0933, Amdt. 21-98, 80 FR 59031, Oct. 1, 2015; Amdt. 21-98A, 80 FR 59031, Dec. 17, 2015]

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§ 21.138 Quality manual. Each applicant for or holder of a production certificate must provide a manual describing its quality system to the FAA for approval. The manual must be in the English language and retrievable in a form acceptable to the FAA. § 21.139 Location of or change to manufacturing facilities. (a) An applicant may obtain a production certificate for manufacturing facilities located outside of the United States if the FAA finds no undue burden in administering the applicable requirements of Title 49 U.S.C. and this subchapter. (b) The production certificate holder must obtain FAA approval before making any changes to the location of any of its manufacturing facilities. (c) The production certificate holder must immediately notify the FAA, in writing, of any change to the manufacturing facilities that may affect the inspection, conformity, or airworthiness of its product or article. § 21.140 Inspections and tests. Each applicant for or holder of a production certificate must allow the FAA to inspect its quality system, facilities, technical data, and any manufactured products or articles and witness any tests, including any inspections or tests at a supplier facility, necessary to determine compliance with this subchapter. § 21.141 Issuance. The FAA issues a production certificate after finding that the applicant complies with the requirements of this subpart. § 21.142 Production limitation record. The FAA issues a production limitation record as part of a production certificate. The record lists the type certificate number and model of every product that the production certificate holder is authorized to manufacture, and identifies every interface component that the production certificate holder is authorized to manufacture and install under this part. [Doc. No. FAA-2013-0933, Amdt. 21-98, 80 FR 59031, Oct. 1, 2015, as amended by Amdt. 21-98A, 80 FR 59031, Dec. 17, 2015] § 21.143 Duration. A production certificate is effective until surrendered, suspended, revoked, or the FAA otherwise establishes a termination date. § 21.144 Transferability. The holder of a production certificate may not transfer the production certificate. § 21.145 Privileges. (a) The holder of a production certificate may— (1) Obtain an aircraft airworthiness certificate without further showing, except that the FAA may inspect the aircraft for conformity with the type design; or (2) In the case of other products, obtain approval from the FAA for installation on type-certificated aircraft. (b) Notwithstanding the provisions of § 147.3 of this chapter, the holder of a production certificate for a primary category aircraft, or for a normal, utility, or acrobatic category aircraft of a type design that is eligible for a special airworthiness certificate in the primary category under § 21.184(c), may— (1) Conduct training for persons in the performance of a special inspection and preventive maintenance program approved as a part of the aircraft's type design under § 21.24(b), provided a person holding a mechanic certificate with appropriate airframe and powerplant ratings issued under part 65 of this chapter gives the training; and (2) Issue a certificate of competency to persons successfully completing the approved training program, provided the certificate specifies the aircraft make and model to which the certificate applies. § 21.146 Responsibility of holder. The holder of a production certificate must— (a) Amend the document required by § 21.135 as necessary to reflect changes in the organization and provide these amendments to the FAA.

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(b) Maintain the quality system in compliance with the data and procedures approved for the production certificate; (c) Ensure that each completed product or article for which a production certificate has been issued, including primary category aircraft assembled under a production certificate by another person from a kit provided by the holder of the production certificate, presented for airworthiness certification or approval conforms to its approved design and is in a condition for safe operation; (d) Mark the product or article for which a certificate or approval has been issued. Marking must be in accordance with part 45 of this chapter, including any critical parts; (e) Identify any portion of the product or article (e.g., sub-assemblies, component parts, or replacement articles) that leave the manufacturer's facility as FAA approved with the manufacturer's part number and name, trademark, symbol, or other FAA approved manufacturer's identification; (f) Have access to type design data necessary to determine conformity and airworthiness for each product and article produced under the production certificate; (g) Retain its production certificate and make it available to the FAA upon request; and (h) Make available to the FAA information regarding all delegation of authority to suppliers. § 21.147 Amendment of production certificates. (a) A holder of a production certificate must apply for an amendment to a production certificate in a form and manner prescribed by the FAA. (b) An applicant for an amendment to a production certificate to add a type certificate or model, or both, must comply with §§ 21.135(c), 21.137, 21.138, and 21.150. (c) An applicant may apply to amend its production limitation record to allow the manufacture and installation of an interface component, provided— (1) The applicant owns or has a license to use the design and installation data for the interface component and makes that data available to the FAA upon request; (2) The applicant manufactures the interface component; (3) The applicant's product conforms to its approved type design and the interface component conforms to its approved type design; (4) The assembled product with the installed interface component is in a condition for safe operation; and (5) The applicant complies with any other conditions and limitations the FAA considers necessary. [Doc. No. FAA-2013-0933, Amdt. 21-98, 80 FR 59031, Oct. 1, 2015, as amended by Amdt. 21-98A, 80 FR 59031, Dec. 17, 2015; Amdt. 21-108, 89 FR 33108, Apr. 26, 2024] § 21.150 Changes in quality system. After the issuance of a production certificate— (a) Each change to the quality system is subject to review by the FAA; and (b) The holder of a production certificate must immediately notify the FAA, in writing, of any change that may affect the inspection, conformity, or airworthiness of its product or article. Subpart H—Airworthiness Certificates Source: Docket No. 5085, 29 FR 14569, Oct. 24, 1964, unless otherwise noted. § 21.171 Applicability. This subpart prescribes procedural requirements for the issue of airworthiness certificates. § 21.173 Eligibility. Any registered owner of a U.S.-registered aircraft (or the agent of the owner) may apply for an airworthiness certificate for that aircraft. An application for an airworthiness certificate must be made in a form and manner acceptable to the FAA, and may be submitted to any FAA office. [Amdt. 21-26, 34 FR 15244, Sept. 30, 1969] § 21.175 Airworthiness certificates: classification. (a) Standard airworthiness certificates are airworthiness certificates issued for aircraft type certificated in the normal, utility, acrobatic, commuter, or transport category, and for manned free balloons, and for aircraft designated by the FAA as special classes of aircraft.

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(b) Special airworthiness certificates are primary, restricted, limited, light-sport, and provisional airworthiness certificates, special flight permits, and experimental certificates. [Amdt. 21-21, 33 FR 6858, May 7, 1968, as amended by Amdt. 21-60, 52 FR 8043, Mar. 13, 1987; Amdt. 21-70, 57 FR 41368, Sept. 9, 1992; Amdt. 21-85, 69 FR 44861, July 27, 2004] § 21.177 Amendment or modification. An airworthiness certificate may be amended or modified only upon application to the FAA. § 21.179 Transferability. An airworthiness certificate is transferred with the aircraft. § 21.181 Duration. (a) Unless sooner surrendered, suspended, revoked, or a termination date is otherwise established by the FAA, airworthiness certificates are effective as follows: (1) Standard airworthiness certificates, special airworthiness certificates—primary category, and airworthiness certificates issued for restricted or limited category aircraft are effective as long as the maintenance, preventive maintenance, and alterations are performed in accordance with Parts 43 and 91 of this chapter and the aircraft are registered in the United States. (2) A special flight permit is effective for the period of time specified in the permit. (3) A special airworthiness certificate in the light-sport category is effective as long as— (i) The aircraft meets the definition of a light-sport aircraft; (ii) The aircraft conforms to its original configuration, except for those alterations performed in accordance with an applicable consensus standard and authorized by the aircraft's manufacturer or a person acceptable to the FAA; (iii) The aircraft has no unsafe condition and is not likely to develop an unsafe condition; and (iv) The aircraft is registered in the United States. (4) An experimental certificate for research and development, showing compliance with regulations, crew training, or market surveys is effective for 1 year after the date of issue or renewal unless the FAA prescribes a shorter period. The duration of an experimental certificate issued for operating amateur-built aircraft, exhibition, air-racing, operating primary kit-built aircraft, or operating light-sport aircraft is unlimited, unless the FAA establishes a specific period for good cause. (b) The owner, operator, or bailee of the aircraft must, upon request, make it available for inspection by the FAA. (c) Upon suspension, revocation, or termination by order of the FAA of an airworthiness certificate, the owner, operator, or bailee of an aircraft must, upon request, surrender the certificate to the FAA. [Amdt. 21-21, 33 FR 6858, May 7, 1968, as amended by Amdt. 21-49, 44 FR 46781, Aug. 9, 1979; Amdt. 21-70, 57 FR 41368, Sept. 9, 1992; Amdt. 21-85, 69 FR 44861, July 27, 2004] § 21.182 Aircraft identification. (a) Except as provided in paragraph (b) of this section, each applicant for an airworthiness certificate under this subpart must show that his aircraft is identified as prescribed in § 45.11. (b) Paragraph (a) of this section does not apply to applicants for the following: (1) A special flight permit. (2) An experimental certificate for an aircraft not issued for the purpose of operating amateur-built aircraft, operating primary kit-built aircraft, or operating light-sport aircraft. (3) A change from one airworthiness classification to another, for an aircraft already identified as prescribed in § 45.11. [Amdt. 21-13, 32 FR 188, Jan. 10, 1967, as amended by Amdt. 21-51, 45 FR 60170, Sept. 11, 1980; Amdt. 21-70, 57 FR 41368, Sept. 9, 1992; Amdt. 21-85, 69 FR 44862, July 27, 2004]

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§ 21.183 Issue of standard airworthiness certificates for normal, utility, acrobatic, commuter, and transport category aircraft; manned free balloons; and special classes of aircraft. (a) New aircraft manufactured under a production certificate. An applicant for a standard airworthiness certificate for a new aircraft manufactured under a production certificate is entitled to a standard airworthiness certificate without further showing, except that the FAA may inspect the aircraft to determine conformity to the type design and condition for safe operation. (b) New aircraft manufactured under type certificate. An applicant for a standard airworthiness certificate for a new aircraft manufactured under a type certificate is entitled to a standard airworthiness certificate upon presentation, by the holder or licensee of the type certificate, of the statement of conformity prescribed in § 21.130 if the FAA finds after inspection that the aircraft conforms to the type design and is in condition for safe operation. (c) Import aircraft. An applicant for a standard airworthiness certificate for an import aircraft is entitled to that certificate if— (1) The aircraft is type certificated in accordance with § 21.21 or § 21.29 and produced under the authority of another State of Manufacture; (2) The State of Manufacture certifies, in accordance with the export provisions of an agreement with the United States for import of that aircraft, that the aircraft conforms to the type design and is in condition for safe operation; and (3) The FAA finds that the aircraft conforms to the type design and is in condition for safe operation. (d) Used aircraft and surplus aircraft of the U.S. Armed Forces. An applicant for a standard airworthiness certificate for a used aircraft or surplus aircraft of the U.S. Armed Forces is entitled to a standard airworthiness certificate if— (1) The applicant presents evidence to the FAA that the aircraft conforms to a type design approved under a type certificate or a supplemental type certificate and to applicable Airworthiness Directives; (2) The aircraft (except an experimentally certificated aircraft that previously had been issued a different airworthiness certificate under this section) has been inspected in accordance with the performance rules for 100-hour inspections set forth in § 43.15 of this chapter, or an equivalent performance standard acceptable to the FAA, and found airworthy by— (i) The manufacturer; (ii) The holder of a repair station certificate as provided in Part 145 of this chapter; (iii) The holder of a mechanic certificate as authorized in Part 65 of this chapter; or (iv) The holder of a certificate issued under part 121 of this chapter, and having a maintenance and inspection organization appropriate to the aircraft type; and (3) The FAA finds after inspection, that the aircraft conforms to the type design, and is in condition for safe operation. (e) Noise requirements. Notwithstanding all other provisions of this section, the following must be complied with for the original issuance of a standard airworthiness certificate: (1) For transport category large airplanes and jet (turbojet powered) airplanes that have not had any flight time before the dates specified in § 36.1(d), no standard airworthiness certificate is originally issued under this section unless the FAA finds that the type design complies with the noise requirements in § 36.1(d) in addition to the applicable airworthiness requirements in this section. For import airplanes, compliance with this paragraph is shown if the country in which the airplane was manufactured certifies, and the FAA finds, that § 36.1(d) (or the applicable airplane noise requirements of the country in which the airplane was manufactured and any other requirements the FAA may prescribe to provide noise levels no greater than those provided by compliance with § 36.1(d)) and paragraph (c) of this section are complied with. (2) For normal, utility, acrobatic, commuter, or transport category propeller driven small airplanes (except for those airplanes that are designed for “agricultural aircraft operations” (as defined in § 137.3 of this chapter, as effective on January 1, 1966) or for dispensing fire fighting materials to which § 36.1583 of this chapter does not apply) that have not had any flight time before the applicable date specified in part 36 of this chapter, no standard airworthiness certificate is originally issued under this section unless the applicant shows that the type design complies with the applicable noise requirements of part 36 of this chapter in addition to the applicable airworthiness requirements in this section. For import airplanes, compliance with this paragraph is shown if the country in which the airplane was manufactured certifies, and the FAA finds, that the applicable requirements of part of this chapter (or the applicable airplane noise requirements of the country in which the airplane was manufactured and any other requirements the FAA may prescribe to provide noise levels no greater than those provided by compliance with the applicable requirements of part 36 of this chapter) and paragraph (c) of this section are complied with.

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(f) Passenger emergency exit requirements. Notwithstanding all other provisions of this section, each applicant for issuance of a standard airworthiness certificate for a transport category airplane manufactured after October 16, 1987, must show that the airplane meets the requirements of § 25.807(c)(7) in effect on July 24, 1989. For the purposes of this paragraph, the date of manufacture of an airplane is the date the inspection acceptance records reflect that the airplane is complete and meets the FAA-approved type design data. (g) Fuel venting and exhaust emission requirements. Notwithstanding all other provisions of this section, and irrespective of the date of application, no airworthiness certificate is issued, on and after the dates specified in part 34 for the airplanes specified therein, unless the airplane complies with the applicable requirements of that part. (h) New aircraft manufactured under the provisions of § 21.6(b). An applicant for a standard airworthiness certificate for a new aircraft manufactured under the provisions of § 21.6(b) is entitled to a standard airworthiness certificate if— (1) The applicant presents evidence to the FAA that the aircraft conforms to a type design approved under a type certificate or supplemental type certificate and to applicable Airworthiness Directives; (2) The aircraft has been inspected in accordance with the performance rules for a 100-hour inspections set forth in § 43.15 of this chapter and found airworthy by a person specified in paragraph (d)(2) of this section; and (3) The FAA finds after inspection, that the aircraft conforms to the type design, and is in condition for safe operation. (i) [Reserved] (j) Fuel efficiency requirements. No original standard airworthiness certificate may be issued under this section unless the applicant has demonstrated that the type design complies with the applicable fuel efficiency requirements of part 38 of this chapter. [Amdt. 21-17, 32 FR 14927, Oct. 28, 1967] Editorial Note: For Federal Register citations affecting § 21.183, see the List of CFR Sections Affected, which appears in the Finding Aids section of the printed volume and at www.govinfo.gov.

§ 21.184 Issue of special airworthiness certificates for primary category aircraft. (a) New primary category aircraft manufactured under a production certificate. An applicant for an original, special airworthiness certificate-primary category for a new aircraft that meets the criteria of § 21.24(a)(1), manufactured under a production certificate, including aircraft assembled by another person from a kit provided by the holder of the production certificate and under the supervision and quality control of that holder, is entitled to a special airworthiness certificate without further showing, except that the FAA may inspect the aircraft to determine conformity to the type design and condition for safe operation. (b) Imported aircraft. An applicant for a special airworthiness certificate-primary category for an imported aircraft type certificated under § 21.29 is entitled to a special airworthiness certificate if the civil airworthiness authority of the country in which the aircraft was manufactured certifies, and the FAA finds after inspection, that the aircraft conforms to an approved type design that meets the criteria of § 21.24(a)(1) and is in a condition for safe operation.

(c) Aircraft having a current standard airworthiness certificate. An applicant for a special airworthiness certificate-primary category, for an aircraft having a current standard airworthiness certificate that meets the criteria of § 21.24(a)(1), may obtain the primary category certificate in exchange for its standard airworthiness certificate through the supplemental type certification process. For the purposes of this paragraph, a current standard airworthiness certificate means that the aircraft conforms to its approved normal, utility, or acrobatic type design, complies with all applicable airworthiness directives, has been inspected and found airworthy within the last 12 calendar months in accordance with § 91.409(a)(1) of this chapter, and is found to be in a condition for safe operation by the FAA. (d) Other aircraft. An applicant for a special airworthiness certificate-primary category for an aircraft that meets the criteria of § 21.24(a)(1), and is not covered by paragraph (a), (b), or (c) of this section, is entitled to a special airworthiness certificate if— (1) The applicant presents evidence to the FAA that the aircraft conforms to an approved primary, normal, utility, or acrobatic type design, including compliance with all applicable airworthiness directives; (2) The aircraft has been inspected and found airworthy within the past 12 calendar months in accordance with § 91.409(a)(1) of this chapter and; (3) The aircraft is found by the FAA to conform to an approved type design and to be in a condition for safe operation. (e) Multiple-category airworthiness certificates in the primary category and any other category will not be issued; a primary category aircraft may hold only one airworthiness certificate. [Doc. No. 23345, 57 FR 41368, Sept. 9, 1992, as amended by Amdt. 21-70, 57 FR 43776, Sept. 22, 1992] § 21.185 Issue of airworthiness certificates for restricted category aircraft. (a) Aircraft manufactured under a production certificate or type certificate. An applicant for the original issue of a restricted category airworthiness certificate for an aircraft type certificated in the restricted category, that was not previously type certificated in any other category, must comply with the appropriate provisions of § 21.183. (b) Other aircraft. An applicant for a restricted category airworthiness certificate for an aircraft type certificated in the restricted category, that was either a surplus aircraft of the Armed Forces or previously type certificated in another category, is entitled to an airworthiness certificate if the aircraft has been inspected by the FAA and found by him to be in a good state of preservation and repair and in a condition for safe operation. (c) Import aircraft. An applicant for the original issue of a special airworthiness certificate for a restricted category import aircraft is entitled to that certificate if— (1) The aircraft is type-certificated in accordance with § 21.25 or § 21.29 and produced under the authority of another State of Manufacture; (2) The State of Manufacture certifies, in accordance with the export provisions of an agreement with the United States for import of that aircraft that the aircraft conforms to the type design and is in condition for safe operation; and (3) The FAA finds that the aircraft conforms to the type design and is in condition for safe operation. (d) Noise requirements. For propeller-driven small airplanes (except airplanes designed for “agricultural aircraft operations,” as defined in § 137.3 of this chapter, as effective on January 1, 1966, or for dispensing fire fighting materials) that have not had any flight time before the applicable date specified in Part 36 of this chapter, and notwithstanding the other provisions of this section, no original restricted category airworthiness certificate is issued under this section unless the FAA finds that the type design complies with the applicable noise requirements of Part 36 of this chapter in addition to the applicable airworthiness requirements of this section. For import airplanes, compliance with this paragraph is shown if the country in which the airplane was manufactured certifies, and the FAA finds, that the applicable requirements of Part 36 of this chapter (or the applicable airplane noise requirements of the country in which the airplane was manufactured and any other requirements the FAA may prescribe to provide noise levels no greater than those provided by compliance with the applicable requirements of Part 36 of this chapter) and paragraph (c) of this section are complied with.

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[Amdt. 21-10, 31 FR 9211, July 6, 1966, as amended by Amdt. 21-32, 35 FR 10202, June 23, 1970; Amdt. 21-42, 40 FR 1034, Jan. 6, 1975; Amdt. 21-92, 74 FR 53389, Oct. 16, 2009; Amdt. 21-92, 74 FR 53389, Oct. 16, 2009; Amdt. 21-92A, 75 FR 9095, Mar. 1, 2010] § 21.187 Issue of multiple airworthiness certification. (a) An applicant for an airworthiness certificate in the restricted category, and in one or more other categories except primary category, is entitled to the certificate, if— (1) The applicant shows compliance with the requirements for each category, when the aircraft is in the configuration for that category; (2) The applicant shows that the aircraft can be converted from one category to another by removing or adding equipment by simple mechanical means; (3) The aircraft complies with the applicable requirements of part 34 of this subchapter; and (4) The airplane complies with the applicable requirements of part 38 of this subchapter. (b) The operator of an aircraft certificated under this section must have the aircraft inspected by the FAA, or by a certificated mechanic with an appropriate airframe rating, to determine airworthiness each time the aircraft is converted from the restricted category to another category for the carriage of passengers for compensation or hire, unless the FAA finds this unnecessary for safety in a particular case. (c) The aircraft complies with the applicable requirements of part 34. [Doc. No. 5085, 29 FR 14569, Oct. 24, 1964, as amended by Amdt. 21-68, 55 FR 32860, Aug. 10, 1990; Amdt. 21-70, 57 FR 41369, Sept. 9, 1992; Amdt. No. 21-107, 89 FR 12654, Feb. 16, 2024] § 21.189 Issue of airworthiness certificate for limited category aircraft. (a) An applicant for an airworthiness certificate for an aircraft in the limited category is entitled to the certificate when— (1) He shows that the aircraft has been previously issued a limited category type certificate and that the aircraft conforms to that type certificate; and (2) The FAA finds, after inspection (including a flight check by the applicant), that the aircraft is in a good state of preservation and repair and is in a condition for safe operation. (b) The FAA prescribes limitations and conditions necessary for safe operation. [Doc. No. 5085, 29 FR 14570, Oct. 24, 1964, as amended by Amdt. 21-4, 30 FR 9437, July 29, 1965] § 21.190 Issue of a special airworthiness certificate for a light-sport category aircraft. (a) Purpose. The FAA issues a special airworthiness certificate in the light-sport category to operate a light-sport aircraft, other than a gyroplane. (b) Eligibility. To be eligible for a special airworthiness certificate in the light-sport category: (1) An applicant must provide the FAA with— (i) The aircraft's operating instructions; (ii) The aircraft's maintenance and inspection procedures; (iii) The manufacturer's statement of compliance as described in paragraph (c) of this section; and (iv) The aircraft's flight training supplement. (2) The aircraft must not have been previously issued a standard, primary, restricted, limited, or provisional airworthiness certificate, or an equivalent airworthiness certificate issued by a foreign civil aviation authority.

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(3) The aircraft must be inspected by the FAA and found to be in a condition for safe operation. (c) Manufacturer's statement of compliance for light-sport category aircraft. The manufacturer's statement of compliance required in paragraph (b)(1)(iii) of this section must— (1) Identify the aircraft by make and model, serial number, class, date of manufacture, and consensus standard used; (2) State that the aircraft meets the provisions of the identified consensus standard; (3) State that the aircraft conforms to the manufacturer's design data, using the manufacturer's quality assurance system that meets the identified consensus standard; (4) State that the manufacturer will make available to any interested person the following documents that meet the identified consensus standard: (i) The aircraft's operating instructions. (ii) The aircraft's maintenance and inspection procedures. (iii) The aircraft's flight training supplement. (5) State that the manufacturer will monitor and correct safety-of-flight issues through the issuance of safety directives and a continued airworthiness system that meets the identified consensus standard; (6) State that at the request of the FAA, the manufacturer will provide unrestricted access to its facilities; and (7) State that the manufacturer, in accordance with a production acceptance test procedure that meets an applicable consensus standard has— (i) Ground and flight tested the aircraft; (ii) Found the aircraft performance acceptable; and (iii) Determined that the aircraft is in a condition for safe operation. (d) Light-sport aircraft manufactured outside the United States. For aircraft manufactured outside of the United States to be eligible for a special airworthiness certificate in the light-sport category, an applicant must meet the requirements of paragraph (b) of this section and provide to the FAA evidence that— (1) The aircraft was manufactured in a country with which the United States has a Bilateral Airworthiness Agreement concerning airplanes or Bilateral Aviation Safety Agreement with associated Implementation Procedures for Airworthiness concerning airplanes, or an equivalent airworthiness agreement; and (2) The aircraft is eligible for an airworthiness certificate, flight authorization, or other similar certification in its country of manufacture. [Amdt. 21-85, 69 FR 44862, July 27, 2004] § 21.191 Experimental certificates. Experimental certificates are issued for the following purposes: (a) Research and development. Testing new aircraft design concepts, new aircraft equipment, new aircraft installations, new aircraft operating techniques, or new uses for aircraft. (b) Showing compliance with regulations. Conducting flight tests and other operations to show compliance with the airworthiness regulations including flights to show compliance for issuance of type and supplemental type certificates, flights to substantiate major design changes, and flights to show compliance with the function and reliability requirements of the regulations. (c) Crew training. Training of the applicant's flight crews. (d) Exhibition. Exhibiting the aircraft's flight capabilities, performance, or unusual characteristics at air shows, motion picture, television, and similar productions, and the maintenance of exhibition flight proficiency, including (for persons exhibiting aircraft) flying to and from such air shows and productions. (e) Air racing. Participating in air races, including (for such participants) practicing for such air races and flying to and from racing events. (f) Market surveys. Use of aircraft for purposes of conducting market surveys, sales demonstrations, and customer crew training only as provided in § 21.195. (g) Operating amateur-built aircraft. Operating an aircraft the major portion of which has been fabricated and assembled by persons who undertook the construction project solely for their own education or recreation.

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(h) Operating primary kit-built aircraft. Operating a primary category aircraft that meets the criteria of § 21.24(a)(1) that was assembled by a person from a kit manufactured by the holder of a production certificate for that kit, without the supervision and quality control of the production certificate holder under § 21.184(a). (i) Operating light-sport aircraft. Operating a light-sport aircraft that— (1) Has not been issued a U.S. or foreign airworthiness certificate and does not meet the provisions of § 103.1 of this chapter. An experimental certificate will not be issued under this paragraph for these aircraft after January 31, 2008; (2) Has been assembled— (i) From an aircraft kit for which the applicant can provide the information required by § 21.193(e); and (ii) In accordance with manufacturer's assembly instructions that meet an applicable consensus standard; or (3) Has been previously issued a special airworthiness certificate in the light-sport category under § 21.190. [Amdt. 21-21, 38 FR 6858, May 7, 1968, as amended by Amdt. 21-57, 49 FR 39651, Oct. 9, 1984; Amdt. 21-70, 57 FR 41369, Sept. 9, 1992; Amdt. 21-85, 69 FR 44862, July 27, 2004; Amdt. 21-85, 69 FR 53336, Sept. 1, 2004] § 21.193 Experimental certificates: general. An applicant for an experimental certificate must submit the following information: (a) A statement, in a form and manner prescribed by the FAA setting forth the purpose for which the aircraft is to be used. (b) Enough data (such as photographs) to identify the aircraft. (c) Upon inspection of the aircraft, any pertinent information found necessary by the FAA to safeguard the general public. (d) In the case of an aircraft to be used for experimental purposes— (1) The purpose of the experiment; (2) The estimated time or number of flights required for the experiment; (3) The areas over which the experiment will be conducted; and (4) Except for aircraft converted from a previously certificated type without appreciable change in the external configuration, three-view drawings or three-view dimensioned photographs of the aircraft. (e) In the case of a light-sport aircraft assembled from a kit to be certificated in accordance with § 21.191(i)(2), an applicant must provide the following: (1) Evidence that an aircraft of the same make and model was manufactured and assembled by the aircraft kit manufacturer and issued a special airworthiness certificate in the light-sport category. (2) The aircraft's operating instructions. (3) The aircraft's maintenance and inspection procedures. (4) The manufacturer's statement of compliance for the aircraft kit used in the aircraft assembly that meets § 21.190(c), except that instead of meeting § 21.190(c)(7), the statement must identify assembly instructions for the aircraft that meet an applicable consensus standard. (5) The aircraft's flight training supplement. (6) In addition to paragraphs (e)(1) through (e)(5) of this section, for an aircraft kit manufactured outside of the United States, evidence that the aircraft kit was manufactured in a country with which the United States has a Bilateral Airworthiness Agreement concerning airplanes or a Bilateral Aviation Safety Agreement with associated Implementation Procedures for Airworthiness concerning airplanes, or an equivalent airworthiness agreement. [Doc. No. 5085, 29 FR 14569, Oct. 24, 1964, as amended by Amdt. 21-85, 69 FR 44862, July 27, 2004] § 21.195 Experimental certificates: Aircraft to be used for market surveys, sales demonstrations, and customer crew training. (a) A manufacturer of aircraft manufactured within the United States may apply for an experimental certificate for an aircraft that is to be used for market surveys, sales demonstrations, or customer crew training.

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(b) A manufacturer of aircraft engines who has altered a type certificated aircraft by installing different engines, manufactured by him within the United States, may apply for an experimental certificate for that aircraft to be used for market surveys, sales demonstrations, or customer crew training, if the basic aircraft, before alteration, was type certificated in the normal, acrobatic, commuter, or transport category. (c) A person who has altered the design of a type certificated aircraft may apply for an experimental certificate for the altered aircraft to be used for market surveys, sales demonstrations, or customer crew training if the basic aircraft, before alteration, was type certificated in the normal, utility, acrobatic, or transport category. (d) An applicant for an experimental certificate under this section is entitled to that certificate if, in addition to meeting the requirements of § 21.193— (1) He has established an inspection and maintenance program for the continued airworthiness of the aircraft; and (2) The applicant shows that the aircraft has been flown for at least 50 hours, or for at least 5 hours if it is a type certificated aircraft which has been modified. The FAA may reduce these operational requirements if the applicant provides adequate justification. [Amdt. 21-21, 33 FR 6858, May 7, 1968, as amended by Amdt. 21-28, 35 FR 2818, Feb. 11, 1970; Amdt. 21-57, 49 FR 39651, Oct. 9, 1984; Amdt. 21-59, 52 FR 1836, Jan. 15, 1987; Amdt. 21-92, 74 FR 53389, Oct. 16, 2009] § 21.197 Special flight permits. (a) A special flight permit may be issued for an aircraft that may not currently meet applicable airworthiness requirements but is capable of safe flight, for the following purposes: (1) Flying the aircraft to a base where repairs, alterations, or maintenance are to be performed, or to a point of storage. (2) Delivering or exporting the aircraft. (3) Production flight testing new production aircraft. (4) Evacuating aircraft from areas of impending danger. (5) Conducting customer demonstration flights in new production aircraft that have satisfactorily completed production flight tests. (b) A special flight permit may also be issued to authorize the operation of an aircraft at a weight in excess of its maximum certificated takeoff weight for flight beyond the normal range over water, or over land areas where adequate landing facilities or appropriate fuel is not available. The excess weight that may be authorized under this paragraph is limited to the additional fuel, fuel-carrying facilities, and navigation equipment necessary for the flight. (c) Upon application, as prescribed in §§ 91.1017 or 119.51 of this chapter, a special flight permit with a continuing authorization may be issued for aircraft that may not meet applicable airworthiness requirements, but are capable of safe flight for the purpose of flying aircraft to a base where maintenance or alterations are to be performed. The permit issued under this paragraph is an authorization, including conditions and limitations for flight, which is set forth in the certificate holder's operations specifications. The permit issued under this paragraph may be issued to— (1) Certificate holders authorized to conduct operations under part 119 of this chapter, that have an approved program for continuing flight authorization; or (2) Management specification holders authorized to conduct operations under part 91, subpart K of this chapter for those aircraft they operate and maintain under a continuous airworthiness maintenance program prescribed by § 91.1411 of this chapter. [Doc. No. 5085, 29 FR 14570, Oct. 24, 1964, as amended by Amdt. 21-21, 33 FR 6859, May 7, 1968; Amdt. 21-51, 45 FR 60170, Sept. 11, 1980; Amdt. 21-54, 46 FR 37878, July 23, 1981; Amdt. 21-79, 66 FR 21066, Apr. 27, 2001; Amdt. 21-84, 68 FR 54559, Sept. 17, 2003; Amdt. 21-87, 71 FR 536, Jan. 4, 2006; Amdt. 21-92, 74 FR 53389, Oct. 16, 2009] § 21.199 Issue of special flight permits. (a) Except as provided in § 21.197(c), an applicant for a special flight permit must submit a statement in a form and manner prescribed by the FAA, indicating—

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(1) The purpose of the flight. (2) The proposed itinerary. (3) The crew required to operate the aircraft and its equipment, e.g., pilot, co-pilot, navigator, etc. (4) The ways, if any, in which the aircraft does not comply with the applicable airworthiness requirements. (5) Any restriction the applicant considers necessary for safe operation of the aircraft. (6) Any other information considered necessary by the FAA for the purpose of prescribing operating limitations. (b) The FAA may make, or require the applicant to make appropriate inspections or tests necessary for safety. [Doc. No. 5085, 29 FR 14570, Oct. 24, 1964, as amended by Amdt. 21-21, 33 FR 6859, May 7, 1968; Amdt. 21-22, 33 FR 11901, Aug. 22, 1968] Subpart I—Provisional Airworthiness Certificates Source: Docket No. 5085, 29 FR 14571, Oct. 24, 1964, unless otherwise noted. § 21.211 Applicability. This subpart prescribes procedural requirements for the issue of provisional airworthiness certificates. § 21.213 Eligibility. (a) A manufacturer who is a United States citizen may apply for a Class I or Class II provisional airworthiness certificate for aircraft manufactured by him within the U.S. (b) Any holder of an air carrier operating certificate under Part 121 of this chapter who is a United States citizen may apply for a Class II provisional airworthiness certificate for transport category aircraft that meet either of the following: (1) The aircraft has a current Class II provisional type certificate or an amendment thereto. (2) The aircraft has a current provisional amendment to a type certificate that was preceded by a corresponding Class II provisional type certificate. (c) An aircraft engine manufacturer who is a United States citizen and who has altered a type certificated aircraft by installing different type certificated engines, manufactured by him within the United States, may apply for a Class I provisional airworthiness certificate for that aircraft, if the basic aircraft, before alteration, was type certificated in the normal, utility, acrobatic, commuter, or transport category. [Doc. No. 5085, 29 FR 14571, Oct. 24, 1964, as amended by Amdt. 21-59, 52 FR 1836, Jan. 15, 1987; Amdt. 21-79, 66 FR 21066, Apr. 27, 2001] § 21.215 Application. Applications for provisional airworthiness certificates must be submitted to the FAA. The application must be accompanied by the pertinent information specified in this subpart. [Amdt. 21-67, 54 FR 39291, Sept. 25, 1989; 54 FR 52872, Dec. 22, 1989; Doc. No. FAA-2018-0119, Amdt. 21-101, 83 FR 9169, Mar. 5, 2018] § 21.217 Duration. Unless sooner surrendered, superseded, revoked, or otherwise terminated, provisional airworthiness certificates are effective for the duration of the corresponding provisional type certificate, amendment to a provisional type certificate, or provisional amendment to the type certificate. § 21.219 Transferability. Class I provisional airworthiness certificates are not transferable. Class II provisional airworthiness certificates may be transferred to an air carrier eligible to apply for a certificate under § 21.213(b). § 21.221 Class I provisional airworthiness certificates. (a) Except as provided in § 21.225, an applicant is entitled to a Class I provisional airworthiness certificate for an aircraft for which a Class I provisional type certificate has been issued if— (1) He meets the eligibility requirements of § 21.213 and he complies with this section; and (2) The FAA finds that there is no feature, characteristic or condition of the aircraft that would make the aircraft unsafe when operated in accordance with the limitations established in §§ 21.81(e) and 91.317 of this subchapter.

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(b) The manufacturer must hold a provisional type certificate for the aircraft. (c) The manufacturer must submit a statement that the aircraft conforms to the type design corresponding to the provisional type certificate and has been found by him to be in safe operating condition under all applicable limitations. (d) The aircraft must be flown at least five hours by the manufacturer. (e) The aircraft must be supplied with a provisional aircraft flight manual or other document and appropriate placards containing the limitations established by §§ 21.81(e) and 91.317. [Doc. No. 5085, 29 FR 14571, Oct. 24, 1964, as amended by Amdt. 21-66, 54 FR 34329, Aug. 18, 1989] § 21.223 Class II provisional airworthiness certificates. (a) Except as provided in § 21.225, an applicant is entitled to a Class II provisional airworthiness certificate for an aircraft for which a Class II provisional type certificate has been issued if— (1) He meets the eligibility requirements of § 21.213 and he complies with this section; and (2) The FAA finds that there is no feature, characteristic, or condition of the aircraft that would make the aircraft unsafe when operated in accordance with the limitations established in §§ 21.83(h), 91.317, and 121.207 of this chapter. (b) The applicant must show that a Class II provisional type certificate for the aircraft has been issued to the manufacturer. (c) The applicant must submit a statement by the manufacturer that the aircraft has been manufactured under a quality system adequate to ensure that the aircraft conforms to the type design corresponding with the provisional type certificate. (d) The applicant must submit a statement that the aircraft has been found by him to be in a safe operating condition under the applicable limitations. (e) The aircraft must be flown at least five hours by the manufacturer. (f) The aircraft must be supplied with a provisional aircraft flight manual containing the limitations established by §§ 21.83(h), 91.317, and 121.207 of this chapter. [Doc. No. 5085, 29 FR 14571, Oct. 24, 1964, as amended by Amdt. 21-12, 31 FR 13389, Oct. 15, 1966; Amdt. 21-66, 54 FR 34329, Aug. 18, 1989; Amdt. 21-92, 74 FR 53390, Oct. 16, 2009] § 21.225 Provisional airworthiness certificates corresponding with provisional amendments to type certificates. (a) An applicant is entitled to a Class I or a Class II provisional airworthiness certificate, for an aircraft, for which a provisional amendment to the type certificate has been issued, if— (1) He meets the eligibility requirements of § 21.213 and he complies with this section; and (2) The FAA finds that there is no feature, characteristic, or condition of the aircraft, as modified in accordance with the provisionally amended type certificate, that would make the aircraft unsafe when operated in accordance with the applicable limitations established in §§ 21.85(g), 91.317, and 121.207 of this chapter. (b) The applicant must show that the modification was made under a quality system adequate to ensure that the modification conforms to the provisionally amended type certificate. (c) The applicant must submit a statement that the aircraft has been found by him to be in a safe operating condition under the applicable limitations. (d) The aircraft must be flown at least five hours by the manufacturer. (e) The aircraft must be supplied with a provisional aircraft flight manual or other document and appropriate placards containing the limitations required by §§ 21.85(g), 91.317, and 121.207 of this chapter. [Doc. No. 5085, 29 FR 14571, Oct. 24, 1964, as amended by Amdt. 21-12, 31 FR 13389, Oct. 15, 1966; Amdt. 21-66, 54 FR 34329, Aug. 18, 1989; Amdt. 21-92, 74 FR 53390, Oct. 16, 2009] Subpart J [Reserved] Subpart K—Parts Manufacturer Approvals Source: Docket No. FAA-2006-25877, Amdt. 21-92, 74 FR 53390, Oct. 16, 2009, unless otherwise noted.

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§ 21.301 Applicability. This subpart prescribes— (a) Procedural requirements for issuing PMAs; and (b) Rules governing holders of PMAs. § 21.303 Application. (a) The applicant for a PMA must apply in a form and manner prescribed by the FAA, and include the following: (1) The identity of the product on which the article is to be installed. (2) The name and address of the manufacturing facilities at which these articles are to be manufactured. (3) The design of the article, which consists of— (i) Drawings and specifications necessary to show the configuration of the article; and (ii) Information on dimensions, materials, and processes necessary to define the structural strength of the article. (4) Test reports and computations necessary to show that the design of the article meets the airworthiness requirements of this subchapter. The test reports and computations must be applicable to the product on which the article is to be installed, unless the applicant shows that the design of the article is identical to the design of a article that is covered under a type certificate. If the design of the article was obtained by a licensing agreement, the applicant must provide evidence of that agreement. (5) An applicant for a PMA based on test reports and computations must provide a statement certifying that the applicant has complied with the airworthiness requirements of this subchapter. (b) Each applicant for a PMA must make all inspections and tests necessary to determine— (1) Compliance with the applicable airworthiness requirements; (2) That materials conform to the specifications in the design; (3) That the article conforms to its approved design; and (4) That the manufacturing processes, construction, and assembly conform to those specified in the design. § 21.305 Organization. (a) Each applicant for or holder of a PMA must provide the FAA with a document— (1) Describing how its organization will ensure compliance with the provisions of this subpart; (2) Describing assigned responsibilities, delegated authorities, and the functional relationship of those responsible for quality to management and other organizational components; and (3) Identifying an accountable manager. (b) The accountable manager specified in paragraph (a) of this section must be responsible within the applicant's or production approval holder's organization for, and have authority over, all production operations conducted under this part. The accountable manager must confirm that the procedures described in the quality manual required by § 21.308 are in place and that the production approval holder satisfies the requirements of the applicable regulations of subchapter C, Aircraft. The accountable manager must serve as the primary contact with the FAA. [Doc. No. FAA-2013-0933, Amdt. 21-98, 80 FR 59031, Oct. 1, 2015] § 21.307 Quality system. Each applicant for or holder of a PMA must establish a quality system that meets the requirements of § 21.137. § 21.308 Quality manual. Each applicant for or holder of a PMA must provide a manual describing its quality system to the FAA for approval. The manual must be in the English language and retrievable in a form acceptable to the FAA. § 21.309 Location of or change to manufacturing facilities. (a) An applicant may obtain a PMA for manufacturing facilities located outside of the United States if the FAA finds no undue burden in administering the applicable requirements of Title 49 U.S.C. and this subchapter. (b) The PMA holder must obtain FAA approval before making any changes to the location of any of its manufacturing facilities.

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(c) The PMA holder must immediately notify the FAA, in writing, of any change to the manufacturing facilities that may affect the inspection, conformity, or airworthiness of its PMA article. § 21.310 Inspections and tests. (a) Each applicant for or holder of a PMA must allow the FAA to inspect its quality system, facilities, technical data, and any manufactured articles and witness any tests, including any inspections or tests at a supplier facility, necessary to determine compliance with this subchapter. (b) Unless otherwise authorized by the FAA, the applicant or holder— (1) May not present any article to the FAA for an inspection or test unless compliance with § 21.303(b)(2) through (4) has been shown for that article; and (2) May not make any change to an article between the time that compliance with § 21.303(b)(2) through (4) is shown for that article and the time that the article is presented to the FAA for the inspection or test. § 21.311 Issuance. The FAA issues a PMA after finding that the applicant complies with the requirements of this subpart and the design complies with the requirements of this chapter applicable to the product on which the article is to be installed. § 21.313 Duration. A PMA is effective until surrendered, withdrawn, or the FAA otherwise terminates it. § 21.314 Transferability. The holder of a PMA may not transfer the PMA. § 21.316 Responsibility of holder. Each holder of a PMA must— (a) Amend the document required by § 21.305 as necessary to reflect changes in the organization and provide these amendments to the FAA; (b) Maintain the quality system in compliance with the data and procedures approved for the PMA; (c) Ensure that each PMA article conforms to its approved design and is in a condition for safe operation; (d) Mark the PMA article for which an approval has been issued. Marking must be in accordance with part 45 of this chapter, including any critical parts; (e) Identify any portion of the PMA article ( e.g., sub-assemblies, component parts, or replacement articles) that leave the manufacturer's facility as FAA approved with the manufacturer's part number and name, trademark, symbol, or other FAA approved manufacturer's identification; (f) Have access to design data necessary to determine conformity and airworthiness for each article produced under the PMA; (g) Retain each document granting PMA and make it available to the FAA upon request; and (h) Make available to the FAA information regarding all delegation of authority to suppliers. § 21.319 Design changes. (a) Classification of design changes. (1) A “minor change” to the design of an article produced under a PMA is one that has no appreciable effect on the approval basis. (2) A “major change” to the design of an article produced under a PMA is any change that is not minor. (b) Approval of design changes. (1) Minor changes to the basic design of a PMA may be approved using a method acceptable to the FAA. (2) The PMA holder must obtain FAA approval of any major change before including it in the design of an article produced under a PMA. § 21.320 Changes in quality system. After the issuance of a PMA— (a) Each change to the quality system is subject to review by the FAA; and (b) The holder of the PMA must immediately notify the FAA, in writing, of any change that may affect the inspection, conformity, or airworthiness of its article. Subpart L—Export Airworthiness Approvals Source: Docket No. FAA-2006-25877, Amdt. 21-92, 74 FR 53391, Oct. 16, 2009, unless otherwise noted.

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§ 21.321 Applicability. This subpart prescribes— (a) Procedural requirements for issuing export airworthiness approvals; and (b) Rules governing the holders of those approvals. § 21.325 Export airworthiness approvals. (a) An export airworthiness approval for an aircraft is issued in the form of an export certificate of airworthiness. This certificate does not authorize operation of that aircraft. (b) The FAA prescribes the form and manner in which an export airworthiness approval for an aircraft engine, propeller, or article is issued. (c) If the FAA finds no undue burden in administering the applicable requirements of Title 49 U.S.C. and this subchapter, an export airworthiness approval may be issued for a product or article located outside of the United States. § 21.327 Application. Any person may apply for an export airworthiness approval. Each applicant must apply in a form and manner prescribed by the FAA. § 21.329 Issuance of export certificates of airworthiness. (a) A person may obtain from the FAA an export certificate of airworthiness for an aircraft if— (1) A new or used aircraft manufactured under subpart F or G of this part meets the airworthiness requirements under subpart H of this part for a— (i) Standard airworthiness certificate; or (ii) Special airworthiness certificate in either the “primary” or the “restricted” category; or (2) A new or used aircraft not manufactured under subpart F or G of this part has a valid— (i) Standard airworthiness certificate; or (ii) Special airworthiness certificate in either the “primary” or the “restricted” category. (b) An aircraft need not meet a requirement specified in paragraph (a) of this section, as applicable, if— (1) The importing country or jurisdiction accepts, in a form and manner acceptable to the FAA, a deviation from that requirement; and (2) The export certificate of airworthiness lists as an exception any difference between the aircraft to be exported and its type design. § 21.331 Issuance of export airworthiness approvals for aircraft engines, propellers, and articles. (a) A person may obtain from the FAA an export airworthiness approval to export a new aircraft engine, propeller, or article that is manufactured under this part if it conforms to its approved design and is in a condition for safe operation. (b) A new aircraft engine, propeller, or article need not meet a requirement of paragraph (a) of this section if— (1) The importing country or jurisdiction accepts, in a form and manner acceptable to the FAA, a deviation from that requirement; and (2) The export airworthiness approval lists as an exception any difference between the aircraft engine, propeller, or article to be exported and its approved design. (c) A person may obtain from the FAA an export airworthiness approval to export a used aircraft engine, propeller, or article if it conforms to its approved design and is in a condition for safe operation. (d) A used aircraft engine or propeller need not meet a requirement of paragraph (c) of this section if— (1) The importing country or jurisdiction accepts, in a form and manner acceptable to the FAA, a deviation from that requirement; and (2) The export airworthiness approval lists as an exception any difference between the used aircraft engine or propeller to be exported and its approved design. § 21.335 Responsibilities of exporters. Unless otherwise agreed to by the importing country or jurisdiction, each exporter must— (a) Forward to the importing country or jurisdiction all documents specified by that country or jurisdiction; (b) Preserve and package products and articles as necessary to protect them against corrosion and damage during transit or storage and state the duration of effectiveness of such preservation and packaging;

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(c) Remove or cause to be removed any temporary installation incorporated on an aircraft for the purpose of export delivery and restore the aircraft to the approved configuration upon completion of the delivery flight; (d) Secure all proper foreign entry clearances from all the countries or jurisdictions involved when conducting sales demonstrations or delivery flights; and (e) When title to an aircraft passes or has passed to a foreign purchaser— (1) Request cancellation of the U.S. registration and airworthiness certificates from the FAA, giving the date of transfer of title, and the name and address of the foreign owner; (2) Return the Registration and Airworthiness Certificates to the FAA; and (3) Provide a statement to the FAA certifying that the U.S. identification and registration numbers have been removed from the aircraft in compliance with § 45.33. Subpart M [Reserved] Subpart N—Acceptance of Aircraft Engines, Propellers, and Articles for Import Source: Docket No. FAA-2006-25877, 74 FR 53392, Amdt. 21-92, Oct. 16, 2009, unless otherwise noted. § 21.500 Acceptance of aircraft engines and propellers. An aircraft engine or propeller manufactured in a foreign country or jurisdiction meets the requirements for acceptance under this subchapter if— (a) That country or jurisdiction is subject to the provisions of an agreement with the United States for the acceptance of that product; (b) That product is marked in accordance with part 45 of this chapter; and (c) The holder or licensee of a U.S. type certificate for that product furnishes with each such aircraft engine or propeller imported into the United States, an export airworthiness approval issued in accordance with the provisions of that agreement certifying that the individual aircraft engine or propeller— (1) Conforms to its U.S. type certificate and is in condition for safe operation; and (2) Has been subjected by the manufacturer to a final operational check. § 21.502 Acceptance of articles. An article (including an article produced under a letter of TSO design approval) manufactured in a foreign country or jurisdiction meets the requirements for acceptance under this subchapter if— (a) That country or jurisdiction is subject to the provisions of an agreement with the United States for the acceptance of that article; (b) That article is marked in accordance with part 45 of this chapter; and (c) An export airworthiness approval has been issued in accordance with the provisions of that agreement for that article for import into the United States. Subpart O—Technical Standard Order Approvals Source: Docket No. FAA-2006-25877, Amdt. 21-92, 74 FR 53392, Oct. 16, 2009, unless otherwise noted. § 21.601 Applicability and definitions. (a) This subpart prescribes— (1) Procedural requirements for issuing TSO authorizations; (2) Rules governing the holders of TSO authorizations; and (3) Procedural requirements for issuing letters of TSO design approval. (b) For the purposes of this subpart— (1) A TSO issued by the FAA is a minimum performance standard for specified articles used on civil aircraft; (2) A TSO authorization is an FAA design and production approval issued to the manufacturer of an article that has been found to meet a specific TSO; (3) A letter of TSO design approval is an FAA design approval for an article that has been found to meet a specific TSO in accordance with the procedures of § 21.621; (4) An article manufactured under a TSO authorization, an FAA letter of acceptance as described in § 21.613(b), or an article manufactured under a letter of TSO design approval described in § 21.621 is an approved article for the purpose of meeting the regulations of this chapter that require the article to be approved; and

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(5) An article manufacturer is the person who controls the design and quality of the article produced (or to be produced, in the case of an application), including any related parts, processes, or services procured from an outside source. § 21.603 Application. (a) An applicant for a TSO authorization must apply in the form and manner prescribed by the FAA. The applicant must include the following documents in the application: (1) A statement of conformance certifying that the applicant has met the requirements of this subpart and that the article concerned meets the applicable TSO that is effective on the date of application for that article. (2) One copy of the technical data required in the applicable TSO. (b) If the applicant anticipates a series of minor changes in accordance with § 21.619, the applicant may set forth in its application the basic model number of the article and the part number of the components with open brackets after it to denote that suffix change letters or numbers (or combinations of them) will be added from time to time. (c) If the application is deficient, the applicant must, when requested by the FAA, provide any additional information necessary to show compliance with this part. If the applicant fails to provide the additional information within 30 days after the FAA's request, the FAA denies the application and notifies the applicant. [Docket No. FAA-2006-25877, Amdt. 21-92, 74 FR 53392, Oct. 16, 2009, as amended by Doc. No. FAA-2018-0119, Amdt. 21-101, 83 FR 9169, Mar. 5, 2018] § 21.605 Organization. (a) Each applicant for or holder of a TSO authorization must provide the FAA with a document— (1) Describing how its organization will ensure compliance with the provisions of this subpart; (2) Describing assigned responsibilities, delegated authorities, and the functional relationship of those responsible for quality to management and other organizational components; and (3) Identifying an accountable manager. (b) The accountable manager specified in paragraph (a) of this section must be responsible within the applicant's or production approval holder's organization for, and have authority over, all production operations conducted under this part. The accountable manager must confirm that the procedures described in the quality manual required by § 21.608 are in place and that the production approval holder satisfies the requirements of the applicable regulations of subchapter C, Aircraft. The accountable manager must serve as the primary contact with the FAA. [Doc. No. FAA-2013-0933, Amdt. 21-98, 80 FR 59032, Oct. 1, 2015] § 21.607 Quality system. Each applicant for or holder of a TSO authorization must establish a quality system that meets the requirements of § 21.137. § 21.608 Quality manual. Each applicant for or holder of a TSO authorization must provide a manual describing its quality system to the FAA for approval. The manual must be in the English language and retrievable in a form acceptable to the FAA. § 21.609 Location of or change to manufacturing facilities. (a) An applicant may obtain a TSO authorization for manufacturing facilities located outside of the United States if the FAA finds no undue burden in administering the applicable requirements of Title 49 U.S.C. and this subchapter. (b) The TSO authorization holder must obtain FAA approval before making any changes to the location of any of its manufacturing facilities. (c) The TSO authorization holder must immediately notify the FAA, in writing, of any change to the manufacturing facilities that may affect the inspection, conformity, or airworthiness of its product or article.

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§ 21.610 Inspections and tests. Each applicant for or holder of a TSO authorization must allow the FAA to inspect its quality system, facilities, technical data, and any manufactured articles and witness any tests, including any inspections or tests at a supplier facility, necessary to determine compliance with this subchapter. § 21.611 Issuance. If the FAA finds that the applicant complies with the requirements of this subchapter, the FAA issues a TSO authorization to the applicant (including all TSO deviations granted to the applicant). § 21.613 Duration. (a) A TSO authorization or letter of TSO design approval is effective until surrendered, withdrawn, or otherwise terminated by the FAA. (b) If a TSO is revised or canceled, the holder of an affected FAA letter of acceptance of a statement of conformance, TSO authorization, or letter of TSO design approval may continue to manufacture articles that meet the original TSO without obtaining a new acceptance, authorization, or approval but must comply with the requirements of this chapter. § 21.614 Transferability. The holder of a TSO authorization or letter of TSO design approval may not transfer the TSO authorization or letter of TSO design approval. § 21.616 Responsibility of holder. Each holder of a TSO authorization must— (a) Amend the document required by § 21.605 as necessary to reflect changes in the organization and provide these amendments to the FAA. (b) Maintain a quality system in compliance with the data and procedures approved for the TSO authorization; (c) Ensure that each manufactured article conforms to its approved design, is in a condition for safe operation, and meets the applicable TSO; (d) Mark the TSO article for which an approval has been issued. Marking must be in accordance with part 45 of this chapter, including any critical parts; (e) Identify any portion of the TSO article (e.g., sub-assemblies, component parts, or replacement articles) that leave the manufacturer's facility as FAA approved with the manufacturer's part number and name, trademark, symbol, or other FAA approved manufacturer's identification; (f) Have access to design data necessary to determine conformity and airworthiness for each article produced under the TSO authorization. The manufacturer must retain this data until it no longer manufactures the article. At that time, copies of the data must be sent to the FAA; (g) Retain its TSO authorization and make it available to the FAA upon request; and (h) Make available to the FAA information regarding all delegation of authority to suppliers. § 21.618 Approval for deviation. (a) Each manufacturer who requests approval to deviate from any performance standard of a TSO must show that factors or design features providing an equivalent level of safety compensate for the standards from which a deviation is requested. (b) The manufacturer must send requests for approval to deviate, together with all pertinent data, to the FAA. If the article is manufactured under the authority of a foreign country or jurisdiction, the manufacturer must send requests for approval to deviate, together with all pertinent data, through the civil aviation authority of that country or jurisdiction to the FAA. [Docket No. FAA-2006-25877, Amdt. 21-92, 74 FR 53392, Oct. 16, 2009, as amended by Doc. No. FAA-2018-0119, Amdt. 21-101, 83 FR 9169, Mar. 5, 2018] § 21.619 Design changes. (a) Minor changes by the manufacturer holding a TSO authorization. The manufacturer of an article under an authorization issued under this part may make minor design changes (any change other than a major change) without further approval by the FAA. In this case, the changed article keeps the original model number (part numbers may be used to identify minor changes) and the manufacturer must forward to the FAA, any revised data that are necessary for compliance with § 21.603(a).

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(b) Major changes by the manufacturer holding a TSO authorization. Any design change by the manufacturer extensive enough to require a substantially complete investigation to determine compliance with a TSO is a major change. Before making a major change, the manufacturer must assign a new type or model designation to the article and apply for an authorization under § 21.603. (c) Changes by persons other than the manufacturer. No design change by any person (other than the manufacturer who provided the statement of conformance for the article) is eligible for approval under this part unless the person seeking the approval is a manufacturer and applies under § 21.603(a) for a separate TSO authorization. Persons other than a manufacturer may obtain approval for design changes under part 43 or under the applicable airworthiness regulations of this chapter. [Docket No. FAA-2006-25877, Amdt. 21-92, 74 FR 53392, Oct. 16, 2009, as amended by Doc. No. FAA-2018-0119, Amdt. 21-101, 83 FR 9169, Mar. 5, 2018; Doc. No. FAA-2022-1355, Amdt. 21-106, 87 FR 75710, Dec. 9, 2022] § 21.620 Changes in quality system. After the issuance of a TSO authorization— (a) Each change to the quality system is subject to review by the FAA; and (b) The holder of the TSO authorization must immediately notify the FAA, in writing, of any change that may affect the inspection, conformity, or airworthiness of its article. § 21.621 Issue of letters of TSO design approval: Import articles. (a) The FAA may issue a letter of TSO design approval for an article— (1) Designed and manufactured in a foreign country or jurisdiction subject to the export provisions of an agreement with the United States for the acceptance of these articles for import; and (2) For import into the United States if— (i) The State of Design certifies that the article has been examined, tested, and found to meet the applicable TSO or the applicable performance standards of the State of Design and any other performance standards the FAA may prescribe to provide a level of safety equivalent to that provided by the TSO; and (ii) The manufacturer has provided to the FAA one copy of the technical data required in the applicable performance standard through its State of Design. (b) The FAA issues the letter of TSO design approval that lists any deviation granted under § 21.618. [Doc. No. FAA-2006-25877, Amdt. 21-92, 74 FR 53392, Oct. 16, 2009, as amended by Amdt. 21-92A, 75 FR 9095, Mar. 1, 2010] Subpart P—Special Federal Aviation Regulations Source: Docket No. FAA-2011-0186, Amdt. 21-92, 76 FR 12555, Mar. 8, 2011, unless otherwise noted. § 21.700 SFAR No. 111—Lavatory Oxygen Systems. The requirements of § 121.1500 of this chapter also apply to this part. Pt. 39 PART 39—AIRWORTHINESS DIRECTIVES Sec. 39.1 Purpose of this regulation. 39.3 Definition of airworthiness directives. 39.5 When does FAA issue airworthiness directives? 39.7 What is the legal effect of failing to comply with an airworthiness directive? 39.9 What if I operate an aircraft or use a product that does not meet the requirements of an airworthiness directive? 39.11 What actions do airworthiness directives require? 39.13 Are airworthiness directives part of the Code of Federal Regulations? 39.15 Does an airworthiness directive apply if the product has been changed? 39.17 What must I do if a change in a product affects my ability to accomplish the actions required in an airworthiness directive? 39.19 May I address the unsafe condition in a way other than that set out in the airworthiness directive? 39.21 Where can I get information about FAA-approved alternative methods of compliance? 39.23 May I fly my aircraft to a repair facility to do the work required by an airworthiness directive? 39.25 How do I get a special flight permit? 39.27 What do I do if the airworthiness directive conflicts with the service document on which it is based? Authority: 49 U.S.C. 106(g), 40113, 44701. Source: Docket No. FAA-2000-8460, 67 FR 48003, July 22, 2002, unless otherwise noted. § 39.1 Purpose of this regulation. The regulations in this part provide a legal framework for FAA's system of Airworthiness Directives. § 39.3 Definition of airworthiness directives. FAA's airworthiness directives are legally enforceable rules that apply to the following products: aircraft, aircraft engines, propellers, and appliances. § 39.5 When does FAA issue airworthiness directives? FAA issues an airworthiness directive addressing a product when we find that: (a) An unsafe condition exists in the product; and (b) The condition is likely to exist or develop in other products of the same type design. § 39.7 What is the legal effect of failing to comply with an airworthiness directive? Anyone who operates a product that does not meet the requirements of an applicable airworthiness directive is in violation of this section.

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§ 39.9 What if I operate an aircraft or use a product that does not meet the requirements of an airworthiness directive? If the requirements of an airworthiness directive have not been met, you violate § 39.7 each time you operate the aircraft or use the product. § 39.11 What actions do airworthiness directives require? Airworthiness directives specify inspections you must carry out, conditions and limitations you must comply with, and any actions you must take to resolve an unsafe condition. § 39.13 Are airworthiness directives part of the Code of Federal Regulations? Yes, airworthiness directives are part of the Code of Federal Regulations, but they are not codified in the annual edition. FAA publishes airworthiness directives in full in the Federal Register as amendments to § 39.13. Editorial Note: For a complete list of citations to airworthiness directives published in the Federal Register, consult the following publications: For airworthiness directives published in the Federal Register since 2001, see the entries for 14 CFR 39.13 in the List of CFR Sections Affected, which appears in the “Finding Aids” section of the printed volume and at www.govinfo.gov. For citations to prior amendments, see the entries for 14 CFR 39.13 in the separate publications List of CFR Sections Affected, 1973-1985, List of CFR Sections Affected, 1964-1972, and List of CFR Sections Affected, 1986-2000, and the entries for 14 CFR 507.10 in the List of Sections Affected, 1949-1963. See also the annual editions of the Federal Register Index for subject matter references and citations to FAA airworthiness directives.

§ 39.15 Does an airworthiness directive apply if the product has been changed? Yes, an airworthiness directive applies to each product identified in the airworthiness directive, even if an individual product has been changed by modifying, altering, or repairing it in the area addressed by the airworthiness directive. § 39.17 What must I do if a change in a product affects my ability to accomplish the actions required in an airworthiness directive? If a change in a product affects your ability to accomplish the actions required by the airworthiness directive in any way, you must request FAA approval of an alternative method of compliance. Unless you can show the change eliminated the unsafe condition, your request should include the specific actions that you propose to address the unsafe condition. Submit your request in the manner described in § 39.19. § 39.19 May I address the unsafe condition in a way other than that set out in the airworthiness directive? Yes, anyone may propose to FAA an alternative method of compliance or a change in the compliance time, if the proposal provides an acceptable level of safety. Unless FAA authorizes otherwise, send your proposal to your principal inspector. Include the specific actions you are proposing to address the unsafe condition. The principal inspector may add comments and will send your request to the manager of the office identified in the airworthiness directive (manager). You may send a copy to the manager at the same time you send it to the principal inspector. If you do not have a principal inspector send your proposal directly to the manager. You may use the alternative you propose only if the manager approves it. § 39.21 Where can I get information about FAA-approved alternative methods of compliance? Each airworthiness directive identifies the office responsible for approving alternative methods of compliance. That office can provide information about alternatives it has already approved. § 39.23 May I fly my aircraft to a repair facility to do the work required by an airworthiness directive? Yes, the operations specifications giving some operators authority to operate include a provision that allow them to fly their aircraft to a repair facility to do the work required by an airworthiness directive. If you do not have this authority, the local Flight Standards District Office of FAA may issue you a special flight permit unless the airworthiness directive states otherwise. To ensure aviation safety, FAA may add special requirements for operating your aircraft to a place where the repairs or modifications can be accomplished. FAA may also decline to issue a special flight permit in particular cases if we determine you cannot move the aircraft safely.

§ 39.25 How do I get a special flight permit? Apply to FAA for a special flight permit following the procedures in 14 CFR 21.199. § 39.27 What do I do if the airworthiness directive conflicts with the service document on which it is based? In some cases an airworthiness directive incorporates by reference a manufacturer's service document. In these cases, the service document becomes part of the airworthiness directive. In some cases the directions in the service document may be modified by the airworthiness directive. If there is a conflict between the service document and the airworthiness directive, you must follow the requirements of the airworthiness directive. Pt. 43 PART 43—MAINTENANCE, PREVENTIVE MAINTENANCE, REBUILDING, AND ALTERATION Sec. 43.1 Applicability. 43.2 Records of overhaul and rebuilding. 43.3 Persons authorized to perform maintenance, preventive maintenance, rebuilding, and alterations. 43.5 Approval for return to service after maintenance, preventive maintenance, rebuilding, or alteration. 43.7 Persons authorized to approve aircraft, airframes, aircraft engines, propellers, appliances, or component parts for return to service after maintenance, preventive maintenance, rebuilding, or alteration. 43.9 Content, form, and disposition of maintenance, preventive maintenance, rebuilding, and alteration records (except inspections performed in accordance with part 91, part 123, part 125, § 135.411(a)(1), and § 135.419 of this chapter). 43.10 Disposition of life-limited aircraft parts. 43.11 Content, form, and disposition of records for inspections conducted under parts 91 and 125 and §§ 135.411(a)(1) and 135.419 of this chapter. 43.12 Maintenance records: Falsification, reproduction, or alteration. 43.13 Performance rules (general). 43.15 Additional performance rules for inspections. 43.16 Airworthiness Limitations. 43.17 Maintenance, preventive maintenance, and alterations performed on U.S. aeronautical products by certain Canadian persons. Appendix A to Part 43—Major Alterations, Major Repairs, and Preventive Maintenance Appendix B to Part 43—Recording of Major Repairs and Major Alterations Appendix C to Part 43 [Reserved] Appendix D to Part 43—Scope and Detail of Items (as Applicable to the Particular Aircraft) To Be Included in Annual and 100-Hour Inspections Appendix E to Part 43—Altimeter System Test and Inspection Appendix F to Part 43—ATC Transponder Tests and Inspections Authority: 42 U.S.C. 7572; 49 U.S.C. 106(f), 106(g), 40105, 40113, 44701-44702, 44704, 44707, 44709, 44711, 44713, 44715, 45303. Source: Docket No. 1993, 29 FR 5451, Apr. 23, 1964, unless otherwise noted. Editorial Note: For miscellaneous technical amendments to this part 43, see Amdt. 43-3, 31 FR 3336, Mar. 3, 1966, and Amdt. 43-6, 31 FR 9211, July 6, 1966.

§ 43.1 Applicability. (a) Except as provided in paragraphs (b) and (d) of this section, this part prescribes rules governing the maintenance, preventive maintenance, rebuilding, and alteration of any— (1) Aircraft having a U.S. airworthiness certificate; (2) Foreign-registered civil aircraft used in common carriage or carriage of mail under the provisions of Part 121 or 135 of this chapter; and (3) Airframe, aircraft engines, propellers, appliances, and component parts of such aircraft. (b) This part does not apply to— (1) Any aircraft for which the FAA has issued an experimental certificate, unless the FAA has previously issued a different kind of airworthiness certificate for that aircraft;

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(2) Any aircraft for which the FAA has issued an experimental certificate under the provisions of § 21.191(i)(3) of this chapter, and the aircraft was previously issued a special airworthiness certificate in the light-sport category under the provisions of § 21.190 of this chapter; or (3) Any aircraft that is operated under part 107 of this chapter, except as described in § 107.140(d). (c) This part applies to all life-limited parts that are removed from a type certificated product, segregated, or controlled as provided in § 43.10. (d) This part applies to any aircraft issued a special airworthiness certificate in the light-sport category except: (1) The repair or alteration form specified in §§ 43.5(b) and 43.9(d) is not required to be completed for products not produced under an FAA approval; (2) Major repairs and major alterations for products not produced under an FAA approval are not required to be recorded in accordance with appendix B of this part; and (3) The listing of major alterations and major repairs specified in paragraphs (a) and (b) of appendix A of this part is not applicable to products not produced under an FAA approval. [Doc. No. 1993, 29 FR 5451, Apr. 23, 1964, as amended by Amdt. 43-23, 47 FR 41084, Sept. 16, 1982; Amdt. 43-37, 66 FR 21066, Apr. 27, 2001; Amdt. 43-38, 67 FR 2109, Jan. 15, 2002; Amdt. 43-39, 69 FR 44863, July 27, 2004; Amdt. 43-44, 75 FR 5219, Feb. 1, 2010; Docket FAA-2015-0150, Amdt. 43-48, 81 FR 42208, June 28, 2016; Docket FAA-2018-1087, Amdt. 43-51, 86 FR 4381, Jan. 15, 2021] § 43.1, Nt. Effective Date Note: At 89 FR 92483, Nov. 21, 2024, § 43.1 was amended by adding paragraph (e), effective Jan. 21, 2025. For the convenience of the user, the added text is set forth as follows: § 43.1 Applicability. (e) Additional applicability of maintenance provisions for powered-lift is set forth in part 194 of this chapter. § 43.2 Records of overhaul and rebuilding. (a) No person may describe in any required maintenance entry or form an aircraft, airframe, aircraft engine, propeller, appliance, or component part as being overhauled unless— (1) Using methods, techniques, and practices acceptable to the Administrator, it has been disassembled, cleaned, inspected, repaired as necessary, and reassembled; and (2) It has been tested in accordance with approved standards and technical data, or in accordance with current standards and technical data acceptable to the Administrator, which have been developed and documented by the holder of the type certificate, supplemental type certificate, or a material, part, process, or appliance approval under part 21 of this chapter. (b) No person may describe in any required maintenance entry or form an aircraft, airframe, aircraft engine, propeller, appliance, or component part as being rebuilt unless it has been disassembled, cleaned, inspected, repaired as necessary, reassembled, and tested to the same tolerances and limits as a new item, using either new parts or used parts that either conform to new part tolerances and limits or to approved oversized or undersized dimensions. [Amdt. 43-23, 47 FR 41084, Sept. 16, 1982, as amended by Amdt. 43-43, 74 FR 53394, Oct. 16, 2009] § 43.3 Persons authorized to perform maintenance, preventive maintenance, rebuilding, and alterations. (a) Except as provided in this section and § 43.17, no person may maintain, rebuild, alter, or perform preventive maintenance on an aircraft, airframe, aircraft engine, propeller, appliance, or component part to which this part applies. Those items, the performance of which is a major alteration, a major repair, or preventive maintenance, are listed in appendix A. (b) The holder of a mechanic certificate may perform maintenance, preventive maintenance, and alterations as provided in Part 65 of this chapter. (c) The holder of a repairman certificate may perform maintenance, preventive maintenance, and alterations as provided in part 65 of this chapter. (d) A person working under the supervision of a holder of a mechanic or repairman certificate may perform the maintenance, preventive maintenance, and alterations that his supervisor is authorized to perform, if the supervisor personally observes the work being done to the extent necessary to ensure that it is being done properly and if the supervisor is readily available, in person, for consultation. However, this paragraph does not authorize the performance of any inspection required by Part 91 or Part 125 of this chapter or any inspection performed after a major repair or alteration.

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(e) The holder of a repair station certificate may perform maintenance, preventive maintenance, and alterations as provided in Part 145 of this chapter. (f) The holder of an air carrier operating certificate or an operating certificate issued under Part 121 or 135, may perform maintenance, preventive maintenance, and alterations as provided in Part 121 or 135. (g) Except for holders of a sport pilot certificate, the holder of a pilot certificate issued under part 61 may perform preventive maintenance on any aircraft owned or operated by that pilot which is not used under part 121, 129, or 135 of this chapter. The holder of a sport pilot certificate may perform preventive maintenance on an aircraft owned or operated by that pilot and issued a special airworthiness certificate in the light-sport category. (h) Notwithstanding the provisions of paragraph (g) of this section, the Administrator may approve a certificate holder under Part 135 of this chapter, operating rotorcraft in a remote area, to allow a pilot to perform specific preventive maintenance items provided— (1) The items of preventive maintenance are a result of a known or suspected mechanical difficulty or malfunction that occurred en route to or in a remote area; (2) The pilot has satisfactorily completed an approved training program and is authorized in writing by the certificate holder for each item of preventive maintenance that the pilot is authorized to perform; (3) There is no certificated mechanic available to perform preventive maintenance; (4) The certificate holder has procedures to evaluate the accomplishment of a preventive maintenance item that requires a decision concerning the airworthiness of the rotorcraft; and (5) The items of preventive maintenance authorized by this section are those listed in paragraph (c) of appendix A of this part. (i) Notwithstanding the provisions of paragraph (g) of this section, in accordance with an approval issued to the holder of a certificate issued under part 135 of this chapter, a pilot of an aircraft type-certificated for 9 or fewer passenger seats, excluding any pilot seat, may perform the removal and reinstallation of approved aircraft cabin seats, approved cabin-mounted stretchers, and when no tools are required, approved cabin-mounted medical oxygen bottles, provided— (1) The pilot has satisfactorily completed an approved training program and is authorized in writing by the certificate holder to perform each task; and (2) The certificate holder has written procedures available to the pilot to evaluate the accomplishment of the task. (j) A manufacturer may— (1) Rebuild or alter any aircraft, aircraft engine, propeller, or appliance manufactured by him under a type or production certificate; (2) Rebuild or alter any appliance or part of aircraft, aircraft engines, propellers, or appliances manufactured by him under a Technical Standard Order Authorization, an FAA-Parts Manufacturer Approval, or Product and Process Specification issued by the Administrator; and (3) Perform any inspection required by part 91 or part 125 of this chapter on aircraft it manufactured under a type certificate, or currently manufactures under a production certificate. (k) Updates of databases in installed avionics meeting the conditions of this paragraph are not considered maintenance and may be performed by pilots provided: (1) The database upload is: (i) Initiated from the flight deck; (ii) Performed without disassembling the avionics unit; and (iii) Performed without the use of tools and/or special equipment.

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(2) The pilot must comply with the certificate holder's procedures or the manufacturer's instructions. (3) The holder of operating certificates must make available written procedures consistent with manufacturer's instructions to the pilot that describe how to: (i) Perform the database update; and (ii) Determine the status of the data upload. [Doc. No. 1993, 29 FR 5451, Apr. 23, 1964, as amended by Amdt. 43-4, 31 FR 5249, Apr. 1, 1966; Amdt. 43-23, 47 FR 41084, Sept. 16, 1982; Amdt. 43-25, 51 FR 40702, Nov. 7, 1986; Amdt. 43-36, 61 FR 19501, May 1, 1996; Amdt. 43-37, 66 FR 21066, Apr. 27, 2001; Amdt. 43-39, 69 FR 44863, July 27, 2004; Amdt. 43-43, 74 FR 53394, Oct. 16, 2009; Amdt. 43-45, 77 FR 71096, Nov. 29, 2012] § 43.5 Approval for return to service after maintenance, preventive maintenance, rebuilding, or alteration. No person may approve for return to service any aircraft, airframe, aircraft engine, propeller, or appliance, that has undergone maintenance, preventive maintenance, rebuilding, or alteration unless— (a) The maintenance record entry required by § 43.9 or § 43.11, as appropriate, has been made; (b) The repair or alteration form authorized by or furnished by the Administrator has been executed in a manner prescribed by the Administrator; and (c) If a repair or an alteration results in any change in the aircraft operating limitations or flight data contained in the approved aircraft flight manual, those operating limitations or flight data are appropriately revised and set forth as prescribed in § 91.9 of this chapter. [Doc. No. 1993, 29 FR 5451, Apr. 23, 1964, as amended by Amdt. 43-23, 47 FR 41084, Sept. 16, 1982; Amdt. 43-31, 54 FR 34330, Aug. 18, 1989] § 43.7 Persons authorized to approve aircraft, airframes, aircraft engines, propellers, appliances, or component parts for return to service after maintenance, preventive maintenance, rebuilding, or alteration. (a) Except as provided in this section and § 43.17, no person, other than the Administrator, may approve an aircraft, airframe, aircraft engine, propeller, appliance, or component part for return to service after it has undergone maintenance, preventive maintenance, rebuilding, or alteration. (b) The holder of a mechanic certificate or an inspection authorization may approve an aircraft, airframe, aircraft engine, propeller, appliance, or component part for return to service as provided in Part 65 of this chapter. (c) The holder of a repair station certificate may approve an aircraft, airframe, aircraft engine, propeller, appliance, or component part for return to service as provided in Part 145 of this chapter. (d) A manufacturer may approve for return to service any aircraft, airframe, aircraft engine, propeller, appliance, or component part which that manufacturer has worked on under § 43.3(j). However, except for minor alterations, the work must have been done in accordance with technical data approved by the Administrator. (e) The holder of an air carrier operating certificate or an operating certificate issued under Part 121 or 135, may approve an aircraft, airframe, aircraft engine, propeller, appliance, or component part for return to service as provided in Part 121 or 135 of this chapter, as applicable. (f) A person holding at least a private pilot certificate may approve an aircraft for return to service after performing preventive maintenance under the provisions of § 43.3(g). (g) The holder of a repairman certificate (light-sport aircraft) with a maintenance rating may approve an aircraft issued a special airworthiness certificate in light-sport category for return to service, as provided in part 65 of this chapter. (h) The holder of at least a sport pilot certificate may approve an aircraft owned or operated by that pilot and issued a special airworthiness certificate in the light-sport category for return to service after performing preventive maintenance under the provisions of § 43.3(g). [Amdt. 43-23, 47 FR 41084, Sept. 16, 1982, as amended by Amdt. 43-36, 61 FR 19501, May 1, 1996; Amdt. 43-37, 66 FR 21066, Apr. 27, 2001; Amdt. 43-39, 69 FR 44863, July 27, 2004]

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§ 43.9 Content, form, and disposition of maintenance, preventive maintenance, rebuilding, and alteration records (except inspections performed in accordance with part 91, part 125, § 135.411(a)(1), and § 135.419 of this chapter). (a) Maintenance record entries. Except as provided in paragraphs (b) and (c) of this section, each person who maintains, performs preventive maintenance, rebuilds, or alters an aircraft, airframe, aircraft engine, propeller, appliance, or component part shall make an entry in the maintenance record of that equipment containing the following information: (1) A description (or reference to data acceptable to the Administrator) of work performed. (2) The date of completion of the work performed. (3) The name of the person performing the work if other than the person specified in paragraph (a)(4) of this section. (4) If the work performed on the aircraft, airframe, aircraft engine, propeller, appliance, or component part has been performed satisfactorily, the signature, certificate number, and kind of certificate held by the person approving the work. The signature constitutes the approval for return to service only for the work performed. (b) Each holder of an air carrier operating certificate or an operating certificate issued under Part 121 or 135, that is required by its approved operations specifications to provide for a continuous airworthiness maintenance program, shall make a record of the maintenance, preventive maintenance, rebuilding, and alteration, on aircraft, airframes, aircraft engines, propellers, appliances, or component parts which it operates in accordance with the applicable provisions of Part 121 or 135 of this chapter, as appropriate. (c) This section does not apply to persons performing inspections in accordance with Part 91, 125, § 135.411(a)(1), or § 135.419 of this chapter. (d) In addition to the entry required by paragraph (a) of this section, major repairs and major alterations shall be entered on a form, and the form disposed of, in the manner prescribed in appendix B, by the person performing the work. [Amdt. 43-23, 47 FR 41085, Sept. 16, 1982, as amended by Amdt. 43-37, 66 FR 21066, Apr. 27, 2001; Amdt. 43-39, 69 FR 44863, July 27, 2004] § 43.10 Disposition of life-limited aircraft parts. (a) Definitions used in this section. For the purposes of this section the following definitions apply. Life-limited part means any part for which a mandatory replacement limit is specified in the type design, the Instructions for Continued Airworthiness, or the maintenance manual. Life status means the accumulated cycles, hours, or any other mandatory replacement limit of a life-limited part. (b) Temporary removal of parts from type-certificated products. When a life-limited part is temporarily removed and reinstalled for the purpose of performing maintenance, no disposition under paragraph (c) of this section is required if— (1) The life status of the part has not changed; (2) The removal and reinstallation is performed on the same serial numbered product; and (3) That product does not accumulate time in service while the part is removed. (c) Disposition of parts removed from type-certificated products. Except as provided in paragraph (b) of this section, after April 15, 2002 each person who removes a life-limited part from a type-certificated product must ensure that the part is controlled using one of the methods in this paragraph. The method must deter the installation of the part after it has reached its life limit. Acceptable methods include: (1) Record keeping system. The part may be controlled using a record keeping system that substantiates the part number, serial number, and current life status of the part. Each time the part is removed from a type certificated product, the record must be updated with the current life status. This system may include electronic, paper, or other means of record keeping. (2) Tag or record attached to part. A tag or other record may be attached to the part. The tag or record must include the part number, serial number, and current life status of the part. Each time the part is removed from a type certificated product, either a new tag or record must be created, or the existing tag or record must be updated with the current life status.

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(3) Non-permanent marking. The part may be legibly marked using a non-permanent method showing its current life status. The life status must be updated each time the part is removed from a type certificated product, or if the mark is removed, another method in this section may be used. The mark must be accomplished in accordance with the instructions under § 45.16 of this chapter in order to maintain the integrity of the part. (4) Permanent marking. The part may be legibly marked using a permanent method showing its current life status. The life status must be updated each time the part is removed from a type certificated product. Unless the part is permanently removed from use on type certificated products, this permanent mark must be accomplished in accordance with the instructions under § 45.16 of this chapter in order to maintain the integrity of the part. (5) Segregation. The part may be segregated using methods that deter its installation on a type-certificated product. These methods must include, at least— (i) Maintaining a record of the part number, serial number, and current life status, and (ii) Ensuring the part is physically stored separately from parts that are currently eligible for installation. (6) Mutilation. The part may be mutilated to deter its installation in a type certificated product. The mutilation must render the part beyond repair and incapable of being reworked to appear to be airworthy. (7) Other methods. Any other method approved or accepted by the FAA. (d) Transfer of life-limited parts. Each person who removes a life-limited part from a type certificated product and later sells or otherwise transfers that part must transfer with the part the mark, tag, or other record used to comply with this section, unless the part is mutilated before it is sold or transferred. [Doc. No. FAA-2000-8017, 67 FR 2110, Jan. 15, 2002, as amended by Amdt. 43-38A, 79 FR 67055, Nov. 12, 2014] § 43.11 Content, form, and disposition of records for inspections conducted under parts 91 and 125 and §§ 135.411(a)(1) and 135.419 of this chapter. (a) Maintenance record entries. The person approving or disapproving for return to service an aircraft, airframe, aircraft engine, propeller, appliance, or component part after any inspection performed in accordance with part 91, 125, § 135.411(a)(1), or § 135.419 shall make an entry in the maintenance record of that equipment containing the following information: (1) The type of inspection and a brief description of the extent of the inspection. (2) The date of the inspection and aircraft total time in service. (3) The signature, the certificate number, and kind of certificate held by the person approving or disapproving for return to service the aircraft, airframe, aircraft engine, propeller, appliance, component part, or portions thereof. (4) Except for progressive inspections, if the aircraft is found to be airworthy and approved for return to service, the following or a similarly worded statement—“I certify that this aircraft has been inspected in accordance with (insert type) inspection and was determined to be in airworthy condition.” (5) Except for progressive inspections, if the aircraft is not approved for return to service because of needed maintenance, noncompliance with applicable specifications, airworthiness directives, or other approved data, the following or a similarly worded statement—“I certify that this aircraft has been inspected in accordance with (insert type) inspection and a list of discrepancies and unairworthy items dated (date) has been provided for the aircraft owner or operator.” (6) For progressive inspections, the following or a similarly worded statement—“I certify that in accordance with a progressive inspection program, a routine inspection of (identify whether aircraft or components) and a detailed inspection of (identify components) were performed and the (aircraft or components) are (approved or disapproved) for return to service.” If disapproved, the entry will further state “and a list of discrepancies and unairworthy items dated (date) has been provided to the aircraft owner or operator.”

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(7) If an inspection is conducted under an inspection program provided for in part 91, 125, or § 135.411(a)(1), the entry must identify the inspection program, that part of the inspection program accomplished, and contain a statement that the inspection was performed in accordance with the inspections and procedures for that particular program. (b) Listing of discrepancies and placards. If the person performing any inspection required by part 91 or 125 or § 135.411(a)(1) of this chapter finds that the aircraft is unairworthy or does not meet the applicable type certificate data, airworthiness directives, or other approved data upon which its airworthiness depends, that persons must give the owner or lessee a signed and dated list of those discrepancies. For those items permitted to be inoperative under § 91.213(d)(2) of this chapter, that person shall place a placard, that meets the aircraft's airworthiness certification regulations, on each inoperative instrument and the cockpit control of each item of inoperative equipment, marking it “Inoperative,” and shall add the items to the signed and dated list of discrepancies given to the owner or lessee. [Amdt. 43-23, 47 FR 41085, Sept. 16, 1982, as amended by Amdt. 43-30, 53 FR 50195, Dec. 13, 1988; Amdt. 43-36, 61 FR 19501, May 1, 1996; 71 FR 44188, Aug. 4, 2006] § 43.12 Maintenance records: Falsification, reproduction, or alteration. (a) No person may make or cause to be made: (1) Any fraudulent or intentionally false entry in any record or report that is required to be made, kept, or used to show compliance with any requirement under this part; (2) Any reproduction, for fraudulent purpose, of any record or report under this part; or (3) Any alteration, for fraudulent purpose, of any record or report under this part. (b) The commission by any person of an act prohibited under paragraph (a) of this section is a basis for suspending or revoking the applicable airman, operator, or production certificate, Technical Standard Order Authorization, FAA-Parts Manufacturer Approval, or Product and Process Specification issued by the Administrator and held by that person. [Amdt. 43-19, 43 FR 22639, May 25, 1978, as amended by Amdt. 43-23, 47 FR 41085, Sept. 16, 1982] § 43.13 Performance rules (general). (a) Each person performing maintenance, alteration, or preventive maintenance on an aircraft, engine, propeller, or appliance shall use the methods, techniques, and practices prescribed in the current manufacturer's maintenance manual or Instructions for Continued Airworthiness prepared by its manufacturer, or other methods, techniques, and practices acceptable to the Administrator, except as noted in § 43.16. He shall use the tools, equipment, and test apparatus necessary to assure completion of the work in accordance with accepted industry practices. If special equipment or test apparatus is recommended by the manufacturer involved, he must use that equipment or apparatus or its equivalent acceptable to the Administrator. (b) Each person maintaining or altering, or performing preventive maintenance, shall do that work in such a manner and use materials of such a quality, that the condition of the aircraft, airframe, aircraft engine, propeller, or appliance worked on will be at least equal to its original or properly altered condition (with regard to aerodynamic function, structural strength, resistance to vibration and deterioration, and other qualities affecting airworthiness). (c) Special provisions for holders of air carrier operating certificates and operating certificates issued under the provisions of Part 121 or 135 and Part 129 operators holding operations specifications. Unless otherwise notified by the administrator, the methods, techniques, and practices contained in the maintenance manual or the maintenance part of the manual of the holder of an air carrier operating certificate or an operating certificate under Part 121 or 135 and Part 129 operators holding operations specifications (that is required by its operating specifications to provide a continuous airworthiness maintenance and inspection program) constitute acceptable means of compliance with this section.

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[Doc. No. 1993, 29 FR 5451, Apr. 23, 1964, as amended by Amdt. 43-20, 45 FR 60182, Sept. 11, 1980; Amdt. 43-23, 47 FR 41085, Sept. 16, 1982; Amdt. 43-28, 52 FR 20028, June 16, 1987; Amdt. 43-37, 66 FR 21066, Apr. 27, 2001] § 43.15 Additional performance rules for inspections. (a) General. Each person performing an inspection required by part 91, 125, or 135 of this chapter, shall— (1) Perform the inspection so as to determine whether the aircraft, or portion(s) thereof under inspection, meets all applicable airworthiness requirements; and (2) If the inspection is one provided for in part 125, 135, or § 91.409(e) of this chapter, perform the inspection in accordance with the instructions and procedures set forth in the inspection program for the aircraft being inspected. (b) Rotorcraft. Each person performing an inspection required by Part 91 on a rotorcraft shall inspect the following systems in accordance with the maintenance manual or Instructions for Continued Airworthiness of the manufacturer concerned: (1) The drive shafts or similar systems. (2) The main rotor transmission gear box for obvious defects. (3) The main rotor and center section (or the equivalent area). (4) The auxiliary rotor on helicopters. (c) Annual and 100-hour inspections. (1) Each person performing an annual or 100-hour inspection shall use a checklist while performing the inspection. The checklist may be of the person's own design, one provided by the manufacturer of the equipment being inspected or one obtained from another source. This checklist must include the scope and detail of the items contained in appendix D to this part and paragraph (b) of this section. (2) Each person approving a reciprocating-engine-powered aircraft for return to service after an annual or 100-hour inspection shall, before that approval, run the aircraft engine or engines to determine satisfactory performance in accordance with the manufacturer's recommendations of— (i) Power output (static and idle r.p.m.); (ii) Magnetos; (iii) Fuel and oil pressure; and (iv) Cylinder and oil temperature. (3) Each person approving a turbine-engine-powered aircraft for return to service after an annual, 100-hour, or progressive inspection shall, before that approval, run the aircraft engine or engines to determine satisfactory performance in accordance with the manufacturer's recommendations. (d) Progressive inspection. (1) Each person performing a progressive inspection shall, at the start of a progressive inspection system, inspect the aircraft completely. After this initial inspection, routine and detailed inspections must be conducted as prescribed in the progressive inspection schedule. Routine inspections consist of visual examination or check of the appliances, the aircraft, and its components and systems, insofar as practicable without disassembly. Detailed inspections consist of a thorough examination of the appliances, the aircraft, and its components and systems, with such disassembly as is necessary. For the purposes of this subparagraph, the overhaul of a component or system is considered to be a detailed inspection. (2) If the aircraft is away from the station where inspections are normally conducted, an appropriately rated mechanic, a certificated repair station, or the manufacturer of the aircraft may perform inspections in accordance with the procedures and using the forms of the person who would otherwise perform the inspection. [Doc. No. 1993, 29 FR 5451, Apr. 23, 1964, as amended by Amdt. 43-23, 47 FR 41086, Sept. 16, 1982; Amdt. 43-25, 51 FR 40702, Nov. 7, 1986; Amdt. 43-31, 54 FR 34330, Aug. 18, 1989; 71 FR 44188, Aug. 4, 2006]

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§ 43.16 Airworthiness limitations. Each person performing an inspection or other maintenance specified in an Airworthiness Limitations section of a manufacturer's maintenance manual or Instructions for Continued Airworthiness shall perform the inspection or other maintenance in accordance with that section, or in accordance with operations specifications approved by the Administrator under part 121 or 135, or an inspection program approved under § 91.409(e). [71 FR 44188, Aug. 4, 2006] § 43.17 Maintenance, preventive maintenance, and alterations performed on U.S. aeronautical products by certain Canadian persons. (a) Definitions. For purposes of this section: Aeronautical product means any civil aircraft or airframe, aircraft engine, propeller, appliance, component, or part to be installed thereon. Canadian aeronautical product means any aeronautical product under airworthiness regulation by Transport Canada Civil Aviation. U.S. aeronautical product means any aeronautical product under airworthiness regulation by the FAA. (b) Applicability. This section does not apply to any U.S. aeronautical products maintained or altered under any bilateral agreement made between Canada and any country other than the United States. (c) Authorized persons. (1) A person holding a valid Transport Canada Civil Aviation Maintenance Engineer license and appropriate ratings may, with respect to a U.S.-registered aircraft located in Canada, perform maintenance, preventive maintenance, and alterations in accordance with the requirements of paragraph (d) of this section and approve the affected aircraft for return to service in accordance with the requirements of paragraph (e) of this section. (2) A Transport Canada Civil Aviation Approved Maintenance Organization (AMO) holding appropriate ratings may, with respect to a U.S.-registered aircraft or other U.S. aeronautical products located in Canada, perform maintenance, preventive maintenance, and alterations in accordance with the requirements of paragraph (d) of this section and approve the affected products for return to service in accordance with the requirements of paragraph (e) of this section. (d) Performance requirements. A person authorized in paragraph (c) of this section may perform maintenance (including any inspection required by Sec. 91.409 of this chapter, except an annual inspection), preventive maintenance, and alterations, provided— (1) The person performing the work is authorized by Transport Canada Civil Aviation to perform the same type of work with respect to Canadian aeronautical products; (2) The maintenance, preventive maintenance, or alteration is performed in accordance with a Bilateral Aviation Safety Agreement between the United States and Canada and associated Maintenance Implementation Procedures that provide a level of safety equivalent to that provided by the provisions of this chapter; (3) The maintenance, preventive maintenance, or alteration is performed such that the affected product complies with the applicable requirements of part 36 of this chapter; and (4) The maintenance, preventive maintenance, or alteration is recorded in accordance with a Bilateral Aviation Safety Agreement between the United States and Canada and associated Maintenance Implementation Procedures that provide a level of safety equivalent to that provided by the provisions of this chapter. (e) Approval requirements. (1) To return an affected product to service, a person authorized in paragraph (c) of this section must approve (certify) maintenance, preventive maintenance, and alterations performed under this section, except that an Aircraft Maintenance Engineer may not approve a major repair or major alteration. (2) An AMO whose system of quality control for the maintenance, preventive maintenance, alteration, and inspection of aeronautical products has been approved by Transport Canada Civil Aviation, or an authorized employee performing work for such an AMO, may approve (certify) a major repair or major alteration performed under this section if the work was performed in accordance with technical data approved by the FAA.

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(f) No person may operate in air commerce an aircraft, airframe, aircraft engine, propeller, or appliance on which maintenance, preventive maintenance, or alteration has been performed under this section unless it has been approved for return to service by a person authorized in this section. [Amdt. 43-33, 56 FR 57571, Nov. 12, 1991, as amended by Amdt. 43-40, 71 FR 40877, July 14, 2005] Pt. 43, App. A Appendix A to Part 43—Major Alterations, Major Repairs, and Preventive Maintenance (a) Major alterations —(1) Airframe major alterations. Alterations of the following parts and alterations of the following types, when not listed in the aircraft specifications issued by the FAA, are airframe major alterations:

(i) Wings. (ii) Tail surfaces. (iii) Fuselage. (iv) Engine mounts. (v) Control system. (vi) Landing gear. (vii) Hull or floats. (viii) Elements of an airframe including spars, ribs, fittings, shock absorbers, bracing, cowling, fairings, and balance weights. (ix) Hydraulic and electrical actuating system of components. (x) Rotor blades. (xi) Changes to the empty weight or empty balance which result in an increase in the maximum certificated weight or center of gravity limits of the aircraft. (xii) Changes to the basic design of the fuel, oil, cooling, heating, cabin pressurization, electrical, hydraulic, de-icing, or exhaust systems. (xiii) Changes to the wing or to fixed or movable control surfaces which affect flutter and vibration characteristics. (2) Powerplant major alterations. The following alterations of a powerplant when not listed in the engine specifications issued by the FAA, are powerplant major alterations. (i) Conversion of an aircraft engine from one approved model to another, involving any changes in compression ratio, propeller reduction gear, impeller gear ratios or the substitution of major engine parts which requires extensive rework and testing of the engine. (ii) Changes to the engine by replacing aircraft engine structural parts with parts not supplied by the original manufacturer or parts not specifically approved by the Administrator. (iii) Installation of an accessory which is not approved for the engine. (iv) Removal of accessories that are listed as required equipment on the aircraft or engine specification. (v) Installation of structural parts other than the type of parts approved for the installation. (vi) Conversions of any sort for the purpose of using fuel of a rating or grade other than that listed in the engine specifications. (3) Propeller major alterations. The following alterations of a propeller when not authorized in the propeller specifications issued by the FAA are propeller major alterations: (i) Changes in blade design. (ii) Changes in hub design. (iii) Changes in the governor or control design. (iv) Installation of a propeller governor or feathering system. (v) Installation of propeller de-icing system. (vi) Installation of parts not approved for the propeller. (4) Appliance major alterations. Alterations of the basic design not made in accordance with recommendations of the appliance manufacturer or in accordance with an FAA Airworthiness Directive are appliance major alterations. In addition, changes in the basic design of radio communication and navigation equipment approved under type certification or a Technical Standard Order that have an effect on frequency stability, noise level, sensitivity, selectivity, distortion, spurious radiation, AVC characteristics, or ability to meet environmental test conditions and other changes that have an effect on the performance of the equipment are also major alterations. (b) Major repairs —(1) Airframe major repairs. Repairs to the following parts of an airframe and repairs of the following types, involving the strengthening, reinforcing, splicing, and manufacturing of primary structural members or their replacement, when replacement is by fabrication such as riveting or welding, are airframe major repairs. (i) Box beams. (ii) Monocoque or semimonocoque wings or control surfaces. (iii) Wing stringers or chord members. (iv) Spars. (v) Spar flanges. (vi) Members of truss-type beams. (vii) Thin sheet webs of beams. (viii) Keel and chine members of boat hulls or floats. (ix) Corrugated sheet compression members which act as flange material of wings or tail surfaces. (x) Wing main ribs and compression members. (xi) Wing or tail surface brace struts. (xii) Engine mounts. (xiii) Fuselage longerons.

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(xiv) Members of the side truss, horizontal truss, or bulkheads. (xv) Main seat support braces and brackets. (xvi) Landing gear brace struts. (xvii) Axles. (xviii) Wheels. (xix) Skis, and ski pedestals. (xx) Parts of the control system such as control columns, pedals, shafts, brackets, or horns. (xxi) Repairs involving the substitution of material. (xxii) The repair of damaged areas in metal or plywood stressed covering exceeding six inches in any direction. (xxiii) The repair of portions of skin sheets by making additional seams. (xxiv) The splicing of skin sheets. (xxv) The repair of three or more adjacent wing or control surface ribs or the leading edge of wings and control surfaces, between such adjacent ribs. (xxvi) Repair of fabric covering involving an area greater than that required to repair two adjacent ribs. (xxvii) Replacement of fabric on fabric covered parts such as wings, fuselages, stabilizers, and control surfaces. (xxviii) Repairing, including rebottoming, of removable or integral fuel tanks and oil tanks. (2) Powerplant major repairs. Repairs of the following parts of an engine and repairs of the following types, are powerplant major repairs: (i) Separation or disassembly of a crankcase or crankshaft of a reciprocating engine equipped with an integral supercharger. (ii) Separation or disassembly of a crankcase or crankshaft of a reciprocating engine equipped with other than spur-type propeller reduction gearing. (iii) Special repairs to structural engine parts by welding, plating, metalizing, or other methods. (3) Propeller major repairs. Repairs of the following types to a propeller are propeller major repairs: (i) Any repairs to, or straightening of steel blades. (ii) Repairing or machining of steel hubs. (iii) Shortening of blades. (iv) Retipping of wood propellers. (v) Replacement of outer laminations on fixed pitch wood propellers. (vi) Repairing elongated bolt holes in the hub of fixed pitch wood propellers. (vii) Inlay work on wood blades. (viii) Repairs to composition blades. (ix) Replacement of tip fabric. (x) Replacement of plastic covering. (xi) Repair of propeller governors. (xii) Overhaul of controllable pitch propellers. (xiii) Repairs to deep dents, cuts, scars, nicks, etc., and straightening of aluminum blades. (xiv) The repair or replacement of internal elements of blades. (4) Appliance major repairs. Repairs of the following types to appliances are appliance major repairs: (i) Calibration and repair of instruments. (ii) Calibration of radio equipment. (iii) Rewinding the field coil of an electrical accessory. (iv) Complete disassembly of complex hydraulic power valves. (v) Overhaul of pressure type carburetors, and pressure type fuel, oil and hydraulic pumps. (c) Preventive maintenance. Preventive maintenance is limited to the following work, provided it does not involve complex assembly operations: (1) Removal, installation, and repair of landing gear tires. (2) Replacing elastic shock absorber cords on landing gear. (3) Servicing landing gear shock struts by adding oil, air, or both. (4) Servicing landing gear wheel bearings, such as cleaning and greasing. (5) Replacing defective safety wiring or cotter keys. (6) Lubrication not requiring disassembly other than removal of nonstructural items such as cover plates, cowlings, and fairings. (7) Making simple fabric patches not requiring rib stitching or the removal of structural parts or control surfaces. In the case of balloons, the making of small fabric repairs to envelopes (as defined in, and in accordance with, the balloon manufacturers' instructions) not requiring load tape repair or replacement. (8) Replenishing hydraulic fluid in the hydraulic reservoir. (9) Refinishing decorative coating of fuselage, balloon baskets, wings tail group surfaces (excluding balanced control surfaces), fairings, cowlings, landing gear, cabin, or cockpit interior when removal or disassembly of any primary structure or operating system is not required. (10) Applying preservative or protective material to components where no disassembly of any primary structure or operating system is involved and where such coating is not prohibited or is not contrary to good practices. (11) Repairing upholstery and decorative furnishings of the cabin, cockpit, or balloon basket interior when the repairing does not require disassembly of any primary structure or operating system or interfere with an operating system or affect the primary structure of the aircraft. (12) Making small simple repairs to fairings, nonstructural cover plates, cowlings, and small patches and reinforcements not changing the contour so as to interfere with proper air flow.

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(13) Replacing side windows where that work does not interfere with the structure or any operating system such as controls, electrical equipment, etc. (14) Replacing safety belts. (15) Replacing seats or seat parts with replacement parts approved for the aircraft, not involving disassembly of any primary structure or operating system. (16) Trouble shooting and repairing broken circuits in landing light wiring circuits. (17) Replacing bulbs, reflectors, and lenses of position and landing lights. (18) Replacing wheels and skis where no weight and balance computation is involved. (19) Replacing any cowling not requiring removal of the propeller or disconnection of flight controls. (20) Replacing or cleaning spark plugs and setting of spark plug gap clearance. (21) Replacing any hose connection except hydraulic connections. (22) Replacing prefabricated fuel lines. (23) Cleaning or replacing fuel and oil strainers or filter elements. (24) Replacing and servicing batteries. (25) Cleaning of balloon burner pilot and main nozzles in accordance with the balloon manufacturer's instructions. (26) Replacement or adjustment of nonstructural standard fasteners incidental to operations. (27) The interchange of balloon baskets and burners on envelopes when the basket or burner is designated as interchangeable in the balloon type certificate data and the baskets and burners are specifically designed for quick removal and installation. (28) The installations of anti-misfueling devices to reduce the diameter of fuel tank filler openings provided the specific device has been made a part of the aircraft type certificiate data by the aircraft manufacturer, the aircraft manufacturer has provided FAA-approved instructions for installation of the specific device, and installation does not involve the disassembly of the existing tank filler opening. (29) Removing, checking, and replacing magnetic chip detectors. (30) The inspection and maintenance tasks prescribed and specifically identified as preventive maintenance in a primary category aircraft type certificate or supplemental type certificate holder's approved special inspection and preventive maintenance program when accomplished on a primary category aircraft provided: (i) They are performed by the holder of at least a private pilot certificate issued under part 61 of this chapter who is the registered owner (including co-owners) of the affected aircraft and who holds a certificate of competency for the affected aircraft (1) issued by the holder of the production certificate for that primary category aircraft that has a special training program approved under § 21.24 of this subchapter; or (2) issued by another entity that has a course approved by the Administrator; and (ii) The inspections and maintenance tasks are performed in accordance with instructions contained by the special inspection and preventive maintenance program approved as part of the aircraft's type design or supplemental type design. (31) Removing and replacing self-contained, front instrument panel-mounted navigation and communication devices that employ tray-mounted connectors that connect the unit when the unit is installed into the instrument panel, (excluding automatic flight control systems, transponders, and microwave frequency distance measuring equipment (DME)). The approved unit must be designed to be readily and repeatedly removed and replaced, and pertinent instructions must be provided. Prior to the unit's intended use, and operational check must be performed in accordance with the applicable sections of part 91 of this chapter. (Secs. 313, 601 through 610, and 1102, Federal Aviation Act of 1958 as amended (49 U.S.C. 1354, 1421 through 1430 and 1502); (49 U.S.C. 106(g) (Revised Pub. L. 97-449, Jan. 21, 1983); and 14 CFR 11.45) [Doc. No. 1993, 29 FR 5451, Apr. 23, 1964, as amended by Amdt. 43-14, 37 FR 14291, June 19, 1972; Amdt. 43-23, 47 FR 41086, Sept. 16, 1982; Amdt. 43-24, 49 FR 44602, Nov. 7, 1984; Amdt. 43-25, 51 FR 40703, Nov. 7, 1986; Amdt. 43-27, 52 FR 17277, May 6, 1987; Amdt. 43-34, 57 FR 41369, Sept. 9, 1992; Amdt. 43-36, 61 FR 19501, May 1, 1996; Amdt. 43-45, 77 FR 71096, Nov. 29, 2012; Docket No. FAA-2021-0237, Amdt. No. 43-52, 87 FR 31414, May 24, 2022] Pt. 43, App. B Appendix B to Part 43—Recording of Major Repairs and Major Alterations (a) Except as provided in paragraphs (b), (c), and (d) of this appendix, each person performing a major repair or major alteration shall—

(1) Execute FAA Form 337 at least in duplicate; (2) Give a signed copy of that form to the aircraft owner; and (3) Forward a copy of that form to the FAA Aircraft Registration Branch in Oklahoma City, Oklahoma, within 48 hours after the aircraft, airframe, aircraft engine, propeller, or appliance is approved for return to service. (b) For major repairs made in accordance with a manual or specifications acceptable to the Administrator, a certificated repair station may, in place of the requirements of paragraph (a)—

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(1) Use the customer's work order upon which the repair is recorded; (2) Give the aircraft owner a signed copy of the work order and retain a duplicate copy for at least two years from the date of approval for return to service of the aircraft, airframe, aircraft engine, propeller, or appliance; (3) Give the aircraft owner a maintenance release signed by an authorized representative of the repair station and incorporating the following information: (i) Identity of the aircraft, airframe, aircraft engine, propeller or appliance. (ii) If an aircraft, the make, model, serial number, nationality and registration marks, and location of the repaired area. (iii) If an airframe, aircraft engine, propeller, or appliance, give the manufacturer's name, name of the part, model, and serial numbers (if any); and (4) Include the following or a similarly worded statement— “The aircraft, airframe, aircraft engine, propeller, or appliance identified above was repaired and inspected in accordance with current Regulations of the Federal Aviation Agency and is approved for return to service. Pertinent details of the repair are on file at this repair station under Order No. ___, Date Signed For signature of authorized representative) Repair station name)   (Certificate No.) ____________.” (Address) (c) Except as provided in paragraph (d) of this appendix, for a major repair or major alteration made by a person authorized in § 43.17, the person who performs the major repair or major alteration and the person authorized by § 43.17 to approve that work shall execute an FAA Form 337 at least in duplicate. A completed copy of that form shall be— (1) Given to the aircraft owner; and (2) Forwarded to the Federal Aviation Administration, Aircraft Registration Branch, Post Office Box 25504, Oklahoma City, OK 73125, within 48 hours after the work is inspected. (d) For extended-range fuel tanks installed within the passenger compartment or a baggage compartment, the person who performs the work and the person authorized to approve the work by § 43.7 shall execute an FAA Form 337 in at least triplicate. A completed copy of that form shall be— (1) Placed on board the aircraft as specified in § 91.417 of this chapter; (2) Given to the aircraft owner; and (3) Forwarded to the Federal Aviation Administration, Aircraft Registration Branch, , Post Office Box 25724, Oklahoma City, OK 73125, within 48 hours after the work is inspected. (Secs. 101, 610, 72 Stat. 737, 780, 49 U.S.C. 1301, 1430) [Doc. No. 1993, 29 FR 5451, Apr. 23, 1964, as amended by Amdt. 43-10, 33 FR 15989, Oct. 31, 1968; Amdt. 43-29, 52 FR 34101, Sept. 9, 1987; Amdt. 43-31, 54 FR 34330, Aug. 18, 1989; 71 FR 58495, Oct. 4, 2006; Amdt. 43-41, 72 FR 53680, Sept. 20, 2007; Doc. No. FAA-2018-0119, Amdt. 43-50, 83 FR 9170, Mar. 5, 2018] Appendix C to Part 43 [Reserved]
Pt. 43, App. D Appendix D to Part 43—Scope and Detail of Items (as Applicable to the Particular Aircraft) To Be Included in Annual and 100-Hour Inspections (a) Each person performing an annual or 100-hour inspection shall, before that inspection, remove or open all necessary inspection plates, access doors, fairing, and cowling. He shall thoroughly clean the aircraft and aircraft engine.

(b) Each person performing an annual or 100-hour inspection shall inspect (where applicable) the following components of the fuselage and hull group: (1) Fabric and skin—for deterioration, distortion, other evidence of failure, and defective or insecure attachment of fittings. (2) Systems and components—for improper installation, apparent defects, and unsatisfactory operation. (3) Envelope, gas bags, ballast tanks, and related parts—for poor condition. (c) Each person performing an annual or 100-hour inspection shall inspect (where applicable) the following components of the cabin and cockpit group: (1) Generally—for uncleanliness and loose equipment that might foul the controls. (2) Seats and safety belts—for poor condition and apparent defects. (3) Windows and windshields—for deterioration and breakage. (4) Instruments—for poor condition, mounting, marking, and (where practicable) improper operation. (5) Flight and engine controls—for improper installation and improper operation. (6) Batteries—for improper installation and improper charge. (7) All systems—for improper installation, poor general condition, apparent and obvious defects, and insecurity of attachment. (d) Each person performing an annual or 100-hour inspection shall inspect (where applicable) components of the engine and nacelle group as follows: (1) Engine section—for visual evidence of excessive oil, fuel, or hydraulic leaks, and sources of such leaks.

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(2) Studs and nuts—for improper torquing and obvious defects. (3) Internal engine—for cylinder compression and for metal particles or foreign matter on screens and sump drain plugs. If there is weak cylinder compression, for improper internal condition and improper internal tolerances. (4) Engine mount—for cracks, looseness of mounting, and looseness of engine to mount. (5) Flexible vibration dampeners—for poor condition and deterioration. (6) Engine controls—for defects, improper travel, and improper safetying. (7) Lines, hoses, and clamps—for leaks, improper condition and looseness. (8) Exhaust stacks—for cracks, defects, and improper attachment. (9) Accessories—for apparent defects in security of mounting. (10) All systems—for improper installation, poor general condition, defects, and insecure attachment. (11) Cowling—for cracks, and defects. (e) Each person performing an annual or 100-hour inspection shall inspect (where applicable) the following components of the landing gear group: (1) All units—for poor condition and insecurity of attachment. (2) Shock absorbing devices—for improper oleo fluid level. (3) Linkages, trusses, and members—for undue or excessive wear fatigue, and distortion. (4) Retracting and locking mechanism—for improper operation. (5) Hydraulic lines—for leakage. (6) Electrical system—for chafing and improper operation of switches. (7) Wheels—for cracks, defects, and condition of bearings. (8) Tires—for wear and cuts. (9) Brakes—for improper adjustment. (10) Floats and skis—for insecure attachment and obvious or apparent defects. (f) Each person performing an annual or 100-hour inspection shall inspect (where applicable) all components of the wing and center section assembly for poor general condition, fabric or skin deterioration, distortion, evidence of failure, and insecurity of attachment. (g) Each person performing an annual or 100-hour inspection shall inspect (where applicable) all components and systems that make up the complete empennage assembly for poor general condition, fabric or skin deterioration, distortion, evidence of failure, insecure attachment, improper component installation, and improper component operation. (h) Each person performing an annual or 100-hour inspection shall inspect (where applicable) the following components of the propeller group: (1) Propeller assembly—for cracks, nicks, binds, and oil leakage. (2) Bolts—for improper torquing and lack of safetying. (3) Anti-icing devices—for improper operations and obvious defects. (4) Control mechanisms—for improper operation, insecure mounting, and restricted travel. (i) Each person performing an annual or 100-hour inspection shall inspect (where applicable) the following components of the radio group: (1) Radio and electronic equipment—for improper installation and insecure mounting. (2) Wiring and conduits—for improper routing, insecure mounting, and obvious defects. (3) Bonding and shielding—for improper installation and poor condition. (4) Antenna including trailing antenna—for poor condition, insecure mounting, and improper operation. (j) Each person performing an annual or 100-hour inspection shall inspect (where applicable) each installed miscellaneous item that is not otherwise covered by this listing for improper installation and improper operation. Pt. 43, App. E Appendix E to Part 43—Altimeter System Test and Inspection Each person performing the altimeter system tests and inspections required by § 91.411 of this chapter must comply with the following:

(a) Static pressure system: (1) Ensure freedom from entrapped moisture and restrictions. (2) Perform a proof test to demonstrate the integrity of the static pressure system in a manner acceptable to the Administrator. For airplanes certificated under part 25 of this chapter, determine that leakage is within the tolerances established by § 25.1325. (3) Determine that the static port heater, if installed, is operative. (4) Ensure that no alterations or deformations of the airframe surface have been made that would affect the relationship between air pressure in the static pressure system and true ambient static air pressure for any flight condition. (b) Altimeter: (1) Test by an appropriately rated repair facility in accordance with the following subparagraphs. Unless otherwise specified, each test for performance may be conducted with the instrument subjected to vibration. When tests are conducted with the temperature substantially different from ambient temperature of approximately 25 degrees C., allowance shall be made for the variation from the specified condition.

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(i) Scale error. With the barometric pressure scale at 29.92 inches of mercury, the altimeter shall be subjected successively to pressures corresponding to the altitude specified in Table I up to the maximum normally expected operating altitude of the airplane in which the altimeter is to be installed. The reduction in pressure shall be made at a rate not in excess of 20,000 feet per minute to within approximately 2,000 feet of the test point. The test point shall be approached at a rate compatible with the test equipment. The altimeter shall be kept at the pressure corresponding to each test point for at least 1 minute, but not more than 10 minutes, before a reading is taken. The error at all test points must not exceed the tolerances specified in Table I. (ii) Hysteresis. The hysteresis test shall begin not more than 15 minutes after the altimeter's initial exposure to the pressure corresponding to the upper limit of the scale error test prescribed in subparagraph (i); and while the altimeter is at this pressure, the hysteresis test shall commence. Pressure shall be increased at a rate simulating a descent in altitude at the rate of 5,000 to 20,000 feet per minute until within 3,000 feet of the first test point (50 percent of maximum altitude). The test point shall then be approached at a rate of approximately 3,000 feet per minute. The altimeter shall be kept at this pressure for at least 5 minutes, but not more than 15 minutes, before the test reading is taken. After the reading has been taken, the pressure shall be increased further, in the same manner as before, until the pressure corresponding to the second test point (40 percent of maximum altitude) is reached. The altimeter shall be kept at this pressure for at least 1 minute, but not more than 10 minutes, before the test reading is taken. After the reading has been taken, the pressure shall be increased further, in the same manner as before, until atmospheric pressure is reached. The reading of the altimeter at either of the two test points shall not differ by more than the tolerance specified in Table II from the reading of the altimeter for the corresponding altitude recorded during the scale error test prescribed in paragraph (b)(i). (iii) After effect. Not more than 5 minutes after the completion of the hysteresis test prescribed in paragraph (b)(ii), the reading of the altimeter (corrected for any change in atmospheric pressure) shall not differ from the original atmospheric pressure reading by more than the tolerance specified in Table II. (iv) Friction. The altimeter shall be subjected to a steady rate of decrease of pressure approximating 750 feet per minute. At each altitude listed in Table III, the change in reading of the pointers after vibration shall not exceed the corresponding tolerance listed in Table III. (v) Case leak. The leakage of the altimeter case, when the pressure within it corresponds to an altitude of 18,000 feet, shall not change the altimeter reading by more than the tolerance shown in Table II during an interval of 1 minute. (vi) Barometric scale error. At constant atmospheric pressure, the barometric pressure scale shall be set at each of the pressures (falling within its range of adjustment) that are listed in Table IV, and shall cause the pointer to indicate the equivalent altitude difference shown in Table IV with a tolerance of 25 feet. (2) Altimeters which are the air data computer type with associated computing systems, or which incorporate air data correction internally, may be tested in a manner and to specifications developed by the manufacturer which are acceptable to the Administrator. (c) Automatic Pressure Altitude Reporting Equipment and ATC Transponder System Integration Test. The test must be conducted by an appropriately rated person under the conditions specified in paragraph (a). Measure the automatic pressure altitude at the output of the installed ATC transponder when interrogated on Mode C at a sufficient number of test points to ensure that the altitude reporting equipment, altimeters, and ATC transponders perform their intended functions as installed in the aircraft. The difference between the automatic reporting output and the altitude displayed at the altimeter shall not exceed 125 feet. (d) Records: Comply with the provisions of § 43.9 of this chapter as to content, form, and disposition of the records. The person performing the altimeter tests shall record on the altimeter the date and maximum altitude to which the altimeter has been tested and the persons approving the airplane for return to service shall enter that data in the airplane log or other permanent record. Table I

Altitude	Equivalent pressure (inches of mercury)	Tolerance ±(feet)
−1,000	31.018	20
0	29.921	20
500	29.385	20
1,000	28.856	20
1,500	28.335	25
2,000	27.821	30
3,000	26.817	30
4,000	25.842	35
6,000	23.978	40
8,000	22.225	60
10,000	20.577	80
12,000	19.029	90
14,000	17.577	100
16,000	16.216	110
18,000	14.942	120
20,000	13.750	130
22,000	12.636	140
25,000	11.104	155
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30,000	8.885	180
35,000	7.041	205
40,000	5.538	230
45,000	4.355	255
50,000	3.425	280

Table II—Test Tolerances

Test	Tolerance (feet)
Case Leak Test	±100
Hysteresis Test:
First Test Point (50 percent of maximum altitude)	75
Second Test Point (40 percent of maximum altitude)	75
After Effect Test	30

Table III—Friction

Altitude (feet)	Tolerance (feet)
1,000	±70
2,000	70
3,000	70
5,000	70
10,000	80
15,000	90
20,000	100
25,000	120
30,000	140
35,000	160
40,000	180
50,000	250

Table IV—Pressure-Altitude Difference

Pressure (inches of Hg)	Altitude difference (feet)
28.10	−1,727
28.50	−1,340
29.00	−863
29.50	−392
29.92	0
30.50	+ 531
30.90	+ 893
30.99	+ 974

(Secs. 313, 314, and 601 through 610 of the Federal Aviation Act of 1958 (49 U.S.C. 1354, 1355, and 1421 through 1430) and sec. 6(c), Dept. of Transportation Act (49 U.S.C. 1655(c))) [Amdt. 43-2, 30 FR 8262, June 29, 1965, as amended by Amdt. 43-7, 32 FR 7587, May 24, 1967; Amdt. 43-19, 43 FR 22639, May 25, 1978; Amdt. 43-23, 47 FR 41086, Sept. 16, 1982; Amdt. 43-31, 54 FR 34330, Aug. 18, 1989; Doc. No. FAA-2015-1621, Amdt. 43-49, 81 FR 96700, Dec. 30, 2016] Pt. 43, App. F Appendix F to Part 43—ATC Transponder Tests and Inspections The ATC transponder tests required by § 91.413 of this chapter may be conducted using a bench check or portable test equipment and must meet the requirements prescribed in paragraphs (a) through (j) of this appendix. If portable test equipment with appropriate coupling to the aircraft antenna system is used, operate the test equipment for ATCRBS transponders at a nominal rate of 235 interrogations per second to avoid possible ATCRBS interference. Operate the test equipment at a nominal rate of 50 Mode S interrogations per second for Mode S. An additional 3 dB loss is allowed to compensate for antenna coupling errors during receiver sensitivity measurements conducted in accordance with paragraph (c)(1) when using portable test equipment.

(a) Radio Reply Frequency: (1) For all classes of ATCRBS transponders, interrogate the transponder and verify that the reply frequency is 1090 ±3 Megahertz (MHz). (2) For classes 1B, 2B, and 3B Mode S transponders, interrogate the transponder and verify that the reply frequency is 1090 ±3 MHz. (3) For classes 1B, 2B, and 3B Mode S transponders that incorporate the optional 1090 ±1 MHz reply frequency, interrogate the transponder and verify that the reply frequency is correct. (4) For classes 1A, 2A, 3A, and 4 Mode S transponders, interrogate the transponder and verify that the reply frequency is 1090 ±1 MHz. (b) Suppression: When Classes 1B and 2B ATCRBS Transponders, or Classes 1B, 2B, and 3B Mode S transponders are interrogated Mode 3/A at an interrogation rate between 230 and 1,000 interrogations per second; or when Classes 1A and 2A ATCRBS Transponders, or Classes 1B, 2A, 3A, and 4 Mode S transponders are interrogated at a rate between 230 and 1,200 Mode 3/A interrogations per second: (1) Verify that the transponder does not respond to more than 1 percent of ATCRBS interrogations when the amplitude of P 2 pulse is equal to the P 1 pulse. (2) Verify that the transponder replies to at least 90 percent of ATCRBS interrogations when the amplitude of the P 2 pulse is 9 dB less than the P 1 pulse. If the test is conducted with a radiated test signal, the interrogation rate shall be 235 ±5 interrogations per second unless a higher rate has been approved for the test equipment used at that location. (c) Receiver Sensitivity: (1) Verify that for any class of ATCRBS Transponder, the receiver minimum triggering level (MTL) of the system is −73 ±4 dbm, or that for any class of Mode S transponder the receiver MTL for Mode S format (P6 type) interrogations is −74 ±3 dbm by use of a test set either:

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(i) Connected to the antenna end of the transmission line; (ii) Connected to the antenna terminal of the transponder with a correction for transmission line loss; or (iii) Utilized radiated signal. (2) Verify that the difference in Mode 3/A and Mode C receiver sensitivity does not exceed 1 db for either any class of ATCRBS transponder or any class of Mode S transponder. (d) Radio Frequency (RF) Peak Output Power: (1) Verify that the transponder RF output power is within specifications for the class of transponder. Use the same conditions as described in (c)(1)(i), (ii), and (iii) above. (i) For Class 1A and 2A ATCRBS transponders, verify that the minimum RF peak output power is at least 21.0 dbw (125 watts). (ii) For Class 1B and 2B ATCRBS Transponders, verify that the minimum RF peak output power is at least 18.5 dbw (70 watts). (iii) For Class 1A, 2A, 3A, and 4 and those Class 1B, 2B, and 3B Mode S transponders that include the optional high RF peak output power, verify that the minimum RF peak output power is at least 21.0 dbw (125 watts). (iv) For Classes 1B, 2B, and 3B Mode S transponders, verify that the minimum RF peak output power is at least 18.5 dbw (70 watts). (v) For any class of ATCRBS or any class of Mode S transponders, verify that the maximum RF peak output power does not exceed 27.0 dbw (500 watts). Note: The tests in (e) through (j) apply only to Mode S transponders.

(e) Mode S Diversity Transmission Channel Isolation: For any class of Mode S transponder that incorporates diversity operation, verify that the RF peak output power transmitted from the selected antenna exceeds the power transmitted from the nonselected antenna by at least 20 db. (f) Mode S Address: Interrogate the Mode S transponder and verify that it replies only to its assigned address. Use the correct address and at least two incorrect addresses. The interrogations should be made at a nominal rate of 50 interrogations per second. (g) Mode S Formats: Interrogate the Mode S transponder with uplink formats (UF) for which it is equipped and verify that the replies are made in the correct format. Use the surveillance formats UF = 4 and 5. Verify that the altitude reported in the replies to UF = 4 are the same as that reported in a valid ATCRBS Mode C reply. Verify that the identity reported in the replies to UF = 5 are the same as that reported in a valid ATCRBS Mode 3/A reply. If the transponder is so equipped, use the communication formats UF = 20, 21, and 24. (h) Mode S All-Call Interrogations: Interrogate the Mode S transponder with the Mode S-only all-call format UF = 11 and verify that the correct address and capability are reported in the replies (downlink format DF = 11). (i) ATCRBS-Only All-Call Interrogation: Interrogate the Mode S transponder with the ATCRBS-only all-call interrogation (0.8 microsecond P 4 pulse) and verify that no reply is generated. (j) Squitter: Verify that the Mode S transponder generates a correct acquisition squitter approximately once per second. (k) Records: Comply with the provisions of § 43.9 of this chapter as to content, form, and disposition of the records. [Amdt. 43-26, 52 FR 3390, Feb. 3, 1987; 52 FR 6651, Mar. 4, 1987, as amended by Amdt. 43-31, 54 FR 34330, Aug. 18, 1989; Amdt. 43-53, 88 FR 71476, Oct. 17, 2023] Pt. 45 PART 45—IDENTIFICATION AND REGISTRATION MARKING Subpart A—General Sec. 45.1 Applicability. Subpart B—Marking of Products and Articles 45.10 Marking. 45.11 Marking of products. 45.13 Identification data. 45.15 Marking requirements for PMA articles, TSO articles, and Critical parts. 45.16 Marking of life-limited parts. Subpart C—Nationality and Registration Marks 45.21 General. 45.22 Exhibition, antique, and other aircraft: Special rules. 45.23 Display of marks; general. 45.25 Location of marks on fixed-wing aircraft. 45.27 Location of marks; nonfixed-wing aircraft. 45.29 Size of marks. 45.31 Marking of export aircraft. 45.33 Sale of aircraft; removal of marks. Authority: 49 U.S.C. 106(f), 106(g), 40103, 40113-40114, 44101-44105, 44107-44111, 44504, 44701, 44708-44709, 44711-44713, 44725, 45302-45303, 46104, 46304, 46306, 47122. Source: Docket No. 2047, 29 FR 3223, Mar. 11, 1964, unless otherwise noted. Editorial Note: Nomenclature changes to part 45 appear at 74 FR 53394, Oct. 16, 2009.

Subpart A—General § 45.1 Applicability. This part prescribes the requirements for— (a) Marking products and articles manufactured under— (1) A type certificate; (2) A production approval as defined under part 21 of this chapter; and (3) The provisions of an agreement between the United States and another country or jurisdiction for the acceptance of products and articles; and (b) Nationality and registration marking of aircraft registered in the United States in accordance with part 47. [Doc. No. 2047, 29 FR 3223, Mar. 11, 1964, as amended by Amdt. 45-3, 32 FR 188, Jan. 10, 1967; Amdt. 45-26, 74 FR 53394, Oct. 16, 2009; Doc. No. FAA-2015-7396, Amdt. 45-30, 80 FR 78645, Dec. 16, 2015] Subpart B—Marking of Products and Articles § 45.10 Marking. No person may mark a product or article in accordance with this subpart unless— (a) That person produced the product or article — (1) Under part 21, subpart F, G, K, or O of this chapter; or (2) For export to the United States under the provisions of an agreement between the United States and another country or jurisdiction for the acceptance of products and articles; and (b) That product or article conforms to its approved design, and is in a condition for safe operation; and, for a TSO article; that TSO article meets the applicable performance standards. [Doc. No. FAA-2006-25877, Amdt. 45-26, 74 FR 53394, Oct. 16, 2009] § 45.11 Marking of products. (a) Aircraft. A manufacturer of aircraft covered under § 21.182 of this chapter must mark each aircraft by attaching a fireproof identification plate that— (1) Includes the information specified in § 45.13 using an approved method of fireproof marking; (2) Must be secured in such a manner that it will not likely be defaced or removed during normal service, or lost or destroyed in an accident; and (3) Except as provided in paragraphs (d) through (h) of this section, must be secured to the aircraft fuselage exterior so that it is legible to a person on the ground, and must be either adjacent to and aft of the rear-most entrance door or on the fuselage surface near the tail surfaces. (b) Aircraft engines. A manufacturer of an aircraft engine produced under a type certificate or production certificate must mark each engine by attaching a fireproof identification plate. Such plate— (1) Must include the information specified in § 45.13 using an approved method of fireproof marking; (2) Must be affixed to the engine at an accessible location; and (3) Must be secured in such a manner that it will not likely be defaced or removed during normal service, or lost or destroyed in an accident. (c) Propellers and propeller blades and hubs. Each person who produces a propeller, propeller blade, or propeller hub under a type certificate or production certificate must mark each product or part. Except for a fixed-pitch wooden propeller, the marking must be accomplished using an approved fireproof method. The marking must— (1) Be placed on a non-critical surface; (2) Contain the information specified in § 45.13; (3) Not likely be defaced or removed during normal service; and (4) Not likely be lost or destroyed in an accident. (d) Manned free balloons. A manufacturer of manned free balloons must mark each balloon by attaching the identification plate described in paragraph (a) of this section. The plate must be secured to the balloon envelope and must be located, if practicable, where it is legible to the operator when the balloon is inflated. In addition, the basket and heater assembly must be permanently and legibly marked with the manufacturer's name, part number (or equivalent), and serial number (or equivalent).

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(e) Aircraft manufactured before March 7, 1988. The owner or operator of an aircraft manufactured before March 7, 1988 must mark the aircraft by attaching the identification plate required by paragraph (a) of this section. The plate must be secured at an accessible exterior or interior location near an entrance, if the model designation and builder's serial number are also displayed on the exterior of the aircraft fuselage. The model designation and builder's serial number must be— (1) Legible to a person on the ground, (2) Located either adjacent to and aft of the rear-most entrance door or on the fuselage near the tail surfaces, and (3) Displayed in such a manner that they are not likely to be defaced or removed during normal service. (f) For powered parachutes and weight-shift-control aircraft, the identification plate required by paragraph (a) of this section must be secured to the exterior of the aircraft fuselage so that it is legible to a person on the ground. (g) The identification plate described in paragraph (a) of this section may be secured to the aircraft at an accessible location near an entrance for— (1) Aircraft produced for— (i) Operations under part 121 of this chapter, (ii) Commuter operations (as defined in § 110.2 of this chapter), or (iii) Export. (2) Aircraft operating under part 121 of this chapter and under an FAA-approved continuous airworthiness maintenance program; or (3) Aircraft operating in commuter air carrier operations (as defined in § 110.2 of this chapter) under an FAA-approved continuous airworthiness maintenance program. (h) Gliders. Paragraphs (a)(3) and (e) of this section do not apply to gliders. [Amdt. 45-26, 74 FR 53394, Oct. 16, 2009, as amended by Amdt. 45-27, 76 FR 7486, Feb. 10, 2011; Doc. No. FAA-2013-0933, Amdt. 21-98, 80 FR 59031, Oct. 1, 2015, as amended by Amdt. 21-98A, 80 FR 59031, Dec. 17, 2015] § 45.13 Identification data. (a) The identification required by § 45.11 (a) through (c) must include the following information: (1) Builder's name. (2) Model designation. (3) Builder's serial number. (4) Type certificate number, if any. (5) Production certificate number, if any. (6) For aircraft engines, the established rating. (7) On or after January 1, 1984, for aircraft engines specified in part 34 of this chapter, the date of manufacture as defined in § 34.1 of this chapter, and a designation, approved by the FAA, that indicates compliance with the applicable exhaust emission provisions of part 34 of this chapter and 40 CFR part 87. Approved designations include COMPLY, EXEMPT, and NON-US, as appropriate. After December 31, 2012, approved designations also include EXEMPT NEW, and EXCEPTED SPARE, as appropriate. (i) The designation COMPLY indicates that the engine is in compliance with all of the applicable exhaust emissions provisions of part 34. For any engine with a rated thrust in excess of 26.7 kilonewtons (6000 pounds) which is not used or intended for use in commercial operations and which is in compliance with the applicable provisions of part 34, but does not comply with the hydrocarbon emissions standard of § 34.21(d), the statement “May not be used as a commercial aircraft engine” must be noted in the permanent powerplant record that accompanies the engine at the time of manufacture of the engine. (ii) The designation EXEMPT indicates that the engine has been granted an exemption pursuant to the applicable provision of § 34.7 (a)(1), (a)(4), (b), (c), or (d), and an indication of the type of exemption and the reason for the grant must be noted in the permanent powerplant record that accompanies the engine from the time of manufacture of the engine. (iii) The designation NON-US indicates that the engine has been granted an exemption pursuant to § 34.7(a)(1), and the notation “This aircraft may not be operated within the United States”, or an equivalent notation approved by the FAA, must be inserted in the aircraft logbook, or alternate equivalent document, at the time of installation of the engine.

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(iv) The designation EXEMPT NEW indicates that the engine has been granted an exemption pursuant to the applicable provision of § 34.7(h) of this chapter; the designation must be noted in the permanent powerplant record that accompanies the engine from the time of its manufacture. (v) The designation EXCEPTED SPARE indicates that the engine has been excepted pursuant to the applicable provision of § 34.9(b) of this chapter; the designation must be noted in the permanent powerplant record that accompanies the engine from the time of its manufacture. (8) Any other information the FAA finds appropriate. (b) Except as provided in paragraph (d)(1) of this section, no person may remove, change, or place identification information required by paragraph (a) of this section, on any aircraft, aircraft engine, propeller, propeller blade, or propeller hub, without the approval of the FAA. (c) Except as provided in paragraph (d)(2) of this section, no person may remove or install any identification plate required by § 45.11, without the approval of the FAA. (d) Persons performing work under the provisions of Part 43 of this chapter may, in accordance with methods, techniques, and practices acceptable to the FAA— (1) Remove, change, or place the identification information required by paragraph (a) of this section on any aircraft, aircraft engine, propeller, propeller blade, or propeller hub; or (2) Remove an identification plate required by § 45.11 when necessary during maintenance operations. (e) No person may install an identification plate removed in accordance with paragraph (d)(2) of this section on any aircraft, aircraft engine, propeller, propeller blade, or propeller hub other than the one from which it was removed. [Amdt. 45-3, 32 FR 188, Jan. 10, 1967, as amended by Amdt. 45-10, 44 FR 45379, Aug. 2, 1979; Amdt. 45-12, 45 FR 60183, Sept. 11, 1980; Amdt. 45-20, 55 FR 32861, Aug. 10, 1990; 55 FR 37287, Sept. 10, 1990; Amdt. 45-26, 74 FR 53395, Oct. 16, 2009; Amdt. 45-28, 77 FR 76854, Dec. 31, 2012] § 45.15 Marking requirements for PMA articles, TSO articles, and Critical parts. (a) PMA articles. The manufacturer of a PMA article must permanently and legibly mark— (1) Each PMA article, with the PMA holder's name, trademark, symbol, or other FAA approved identification and part number; and (2) The letters “FAA-PMA”. (b) TSO articles. The manufacturer of a TSO article must permanently and legibly mark — (1) Each TSO article with the TSO holder's name, trademark, symbol, or other FAA approved identification and part number; and (2) Each TSO article, unless otherwise specified in the applicable TSO, with the TSO number and letter of designation, all markings specifically required by the applicable TSO, and the serial number or the date of manufacture of the article or both. (c) Critical parts. Each person who manufactures a part for which a replacement time, inspection interval, or related procedure is specified in the Airworthiness Limitations section of a manufacturer's maintenance manual or Instructions for Continued Airworthiness must permanently and legibly mark that part with a serial number (or equivalent) unique to that part in addition to the other applicable requirements of this section. (d) If the FAA finds a part or article is too small or otherwise impractical to mark with any of the information required by this part, the manufacturer must attach that information to the part or its container. [Doc. No. FAA-2006-25877, 74 FR 53395, Oct. 16, 2009] § 45.16 Marking of life-limited parts. When requested by a person required to comply with § 43.10 of this chapter, the holder of a type certificate or design approval for a life-limited part must provide marking instructions, or must state that the part cannot be practicably marked without compromising its integrity. [Doc. No. FAA-200-8017, 67 FR 2110, Jan. 15, 2002, as amended by Amdt. 45-26, 74 FR 53395, Oct. 16, 2009]

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Subpart C—Nationality and Registration Marks § 45.21 General. (a) Except as provided in § 45.22, no person may operate a U.S.-registered aircraft unless that aircraft displays nationality and registration marks in accordance with the requirements of this section and §§ 45.23 through 45.33. (b) Unless otherwise authorized by the FAA, no person may place on any aircraft a design, mark, or symbol that modifies or confuses the nationality and registration marks. (c) Aircraft nationality and registration marks must— (1) Except as provided in paragraph (d) of this section, be painted on the aircraft or affixed by any other means insuring a similar degree of permanence; (2) Have no ornamentation; (3) Contrast in color with the background; and (4) Be legible. (d) The aircraft nationality and registration marks may be affixed to an aircraft with readily removable material if— (1) It is intended for immediate delivery to a foreign purchaser; (2) It is bearing a temporary registration number; or (3) It is marked temporarily to meet the requirements of § 45.22(c)(1) or § 45.29(h) of this part, or both. [Doc. No. 8093, Amdt. 45-5, 33 FR 450, Jan. 12, 1968, as amended by Amdt. 45-17, 52 FR 34102, Sept. 9, 1987] § 45.22 Exhibition, antique, and other aircraft: Special rules. (a) When display of aircraft nationality and registration marks in accordance with §§ 45.21 and 45.23 through 45.33 would be inconsistent with exhibition of that aircraft, a U.S.-registered aircraft may be operated without displaying those marks anywhere on the aircraft if: (1) It is operated for the purpose of exhibition, including a motion picture or television production, or an airshow; (2) Except for practice and test fights necessary for exhibition purposes, it is operated only at the location of the exhibition, between the exhibition locations, and between those locations and the base of operations of the aircraft; and (3) For each flight in the United States: (i) It is operated with the prior approval of the responsible Flight Standards office, in the case of a flight within the lateral boundaries of the surface areas of Class B, Class C, Class D, or Class E airspace designated for the takeoff airport, or within 4.4 nautical miles of that airport if it is within Class G airspace; or (ii) It is operated under a flight plan filed under either § 91.153 or § 91.169 of this chapter describing the marks it displays, in the case of any other flight. (b) A small U.S.-registered aircraft built at least 30 years ago or a U.S.-registered aircraft for which an experimental certificate has been issued under § 21.191(d) or 21.191(g) for operation as an exhibition aircraft or as an amateur-built aircraft and which has the same external configuration as an aircraft built at least 30 years ago may be operated without displaying marks in accordance with §§ 45.21 and 45.23 through 45.33 if: (1) It displays in accordance with § 45.21(c) marks at least 2 inches high on each side of the fuselage or vertical tail surface consisting of the Roman capital letter “N” followed by: (i) The U.S. registration number of the aircraft; or (ii) The symbol appropriate to the airworthiness certificate of the aircraft (“C”, standard; “R”, restricted; “L”, limited; or “X”, experimental) followed by the U.S. registration number of the aircraft; and (2) It displays no other mark that begins with the letter “N” anywhere on the aircraft, unless it is the same mark that is displayed under paragraph (b)(1) of this section. (c) No person may operate an aircraft under paragraph (a) or (b) of this section— (1) In an ADIZ or DEWIZ described in Part 99 of this chapter unless it temporarily bears marks in accordance with §§ 45.21 and 45.23 through 45.33; (2) In a foreign country unless that country consents to that operation; or (3) In any operation conducted under Part 121, 133, 135, or 137 of this chapter.

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(d) If, due to the configuration of an aircraft, it is impossible for a person to mark it in accordance with §§ 45.21 and 45.23 through 45.33, he may apply to the FAA for a different marking procedure. [Doc. No. 8093, Amdt. 45-5, 33 FR 450, Jan. 12, 1968, as amended by Amdt. 45-13, 46 FR 48603, Oct. 1, 1981; Amdt. 45-19, 54 FR 39291, Sept. 25, 1989; Amdt. 45-18, 54 FR 34330, Aug. 18, 1989; Amdt. 45-21, 56 FR 65653, Dec. 17, 1991; Amdt. 45-22, 66 FR 21066, Apr. 27, 2001; Doc. No. FAA-2018-0119, Amdt. 45-31, 83 FR 9170, Mar. 5, 2018] § 45.23 Display of marks; general. (a) Each operator of an aircraft must display on that aircraft marks consisting of the Roman capital letter “N” (denoting United States registration) followed by the registration number of the aircraft. Each suffix letter used in the marks displayed must also be a Roman capital letter. (b) When marks include only the Roman capital letter “N” and the registration number is displayed on limited, restricted or light-sport category aircraft or experimental or provisionally certificated aircraft, the operator must also display on that aircraft near each entrance to the cabin, cockpit, or pilot station, in letters not less than 2 inches nor more than 6 inches high, the words “limited,” “restricted,” “light-sport,” “experimental,” or “provisional,” as applicable. [Doc. No. 8093, Amdt. 45-5, 33 FR 450, Jan. 12, 1968, as amended by Amdt. 45-9, 42 FR 41102, Aug. 15, 1977; Amdt. 45-24, 69 FR 44863, July 27, 2004] § 45.25 Location of marks on fixed-wing aircraft. (a) The operator of a fixed-wing aircraft must display the required marks on either the vertical tail surfaces or the sides of the fuselage, except as provided in § 45.29(f). (b) The marks required by paragraph (a) of this section must be displayed as follows: (1) If displayed on the vertical tail surfaces, horizontally on both surfaces, horizontally on both surfaces of a single vertical tail or on the outer surfaces of a multivertical tail. However, on aircraft on which marks at least 3 inches high may be displayed in accordance with § 45.29(b)(1), the marks may be displayed vertically on the vertical tail surfaces. (2) If displayed on the fuselage surfaces, horizontally on both sides of the fuselage between the trailing edge of the wing and the leading edge of the horizontal stabilizer. However, if engine pods or other appurtenances are located in this area and are an integral part of the fuselage side surfaces, the operator may place the marks on those pods or appurtenances. [Amdt. 45-9, 42 FR 41102, Aug. 15, 1977] § 45.27 Location of marks; nonfixed-wing aircraft. (a) Rotorcraft. Each operator of a rotorcraft must display on that rotorcraft horizontally on both surfaces of the cabin, fuselage, boom, or tail the marks required by § 45.23. (b) Airships. Each operator of an airship must display on that airship the marks required by § 45.23, horizontally on— (1) The upper surface of the right horizontal stabilizer and on the under surface of the left horizontal stabilizer with the top of the marks toward the leading edge of each stabilizer; and (2) Each side of the bottom half of the vertical stabilizer. (c) Spherical balloons. Each operator of a spherical balloon must display the marks required by § 45.23 in two places diametrically opposite and near the maximum horizontal circumference of that balloon. (d) Nonspherical balloons. Each operator of a nonspherical balloon must display the marks required by § 45.23 on each side of the balloon near its maximum cross section and immediately above either the rigging band or the points of attachment of the basket or cabin suspension cables. (e) Powered parachutes and weight-shift-control aircraft. Each operator of a powered parachute or a weight-shift-control aircraft must display the marks required by §§ 45.23 and 45.29(b)(2) of this part. The marks must be displayed in two diametrically opposite positions on the fuselage, a structural member, or a component of the aircraft and must be visible from the side of the aircraft.

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[Doc. No. 2047, 29 FR 3223, Mar. 11, 1964, as amended by Amdt. 45-15, 48 FR 11392, Mar. 17, 1983; Amdt. 45-24, 69 FR 44863, July 27, 2004; Amdt. 45-25, 72 FR 52469, Sept. 14, 2007] § 45.29 Size of marks. (a) Except as provided in paragraph (f) of this section, each operator of an aircraft must display marks on the aircraft meeting the size requirements of this section. (b) Height. Except as provided in paragraph (h) of this part, the nationality and registration marks must be of equal height and on— (1) Fixed-wing aircraft, must be at least 12 inches high, except that: (i) An aircraft displaying marks at least 2 inches high before November 1, 1981 and an aircraft manufactured after November 2, 1981, but before January 1, 1983, may display those marks until the aircraft is repainted or the marks are repainted, restored, or changed; (ii) Marks at least 3 inches high may be displayed on a glider; (iii) Marks at least 3 inches high may be displayed on an aircraft for which the FAA has issued an experimental certificate under § 21.191 (d), § 21.191 (g), or § 21.191 (i) of this chapter to operate as an exhibition aircraft, an amateur-built aircraft, or a light-sport aircraft when the maximum cruising speed of the aircraft does not exceed 180 knots CAS; and (iv) Marks may be displayed on an exhibition, antique, or other aircraft in accordance with § 45.22. (2) Airships, spherical balloons, nonspherical balloons, powered parachutes, and weight-shift-control aircraft must be at least 3 inches high; and (3) Rotorcraft, must be at least 12 inches high, except that rotorcraft displaying before April 18, 1983, marks required by § 45.29(b)(3) in effect on April 17, 1983, and rotorcraft manufactured on or after April 18, 1983, but before December 31, 1983, may display those marks until the aircraft is repainted or the marks are repainted, restored, or changed. (c) Width. Characters must be two-thirds as wide as they are high, except the number “1”, which must be one-sixth as wide as it is high, and the letters “M” and “W” which may be as wide as they are high. (d) Thickness. Characters must be formed by solid lines one-sixth as thick as the character is high. (e) Spacing. The space between each character may not be less than one-fourth of the character width. (f) If either one of the surfaces authorized for displaying required marks under § 45.25 is large enough for display of marks meeting the size requirements of this section and the other is not, full size marks must be placed on the larger surface. If neither surface is large enough for full-size marks, marks as large as practicable must be displayed on the larger of the two surfaces. If no surface authorized to be marked by § 45.27 is large enough for full-size marks, marks as large as practicable must be placed on the largest of the authorized surfaces. However, powered parachutes and weight-shift-control aircraft must display marks at least 3 inches high. (g) Uniformity. The marks required by this part for fixed-wing aircraft must have the same height, width, thickness, and spacing on both sides of the aircraft. (h) After March 7, 1988, each operator of an aircraft penetrating an ADIZ or DEWIZ must display on that aircraft temporary or permanent nationality and registration marks at least 12 inches high. [Doc. No. 2047, 29 FR 3223, Mar. 11, 1964, as amended by Amdt. 45-2, 31 FR 9863, July 21, 1966; Amdt. 45-9, 42 FR 41102, Aug. 15, 1977; Amdt. 45-13, 46 FR 48604, Oct. 1, 1981; Amdt. 45-15, 48 FR 11392, Mar. 17, 1983; Amdt. 45-17, 52 FR 34102, Sept. 9, 1987; 52 FR 36566, Sept. 30, 1987; Amdt. 45-24, 69 FR 44863, July 27, 2004; Amdt. 45-25, 72 FR 52469, Sept. 14, 2007] § 45.31 Marking of export aircraft. A person who manufactures an aircraft in the United States for delivery outside thereof may display on that aircraft any marks required by the State of registry of the aircraft. However, no person may operate an aircraft so marked within the United States, except for test and demonstration flights for a limited period of time, or while in necessary transit to the purchaser.

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§ 45.33 Sale of aircraft; removal of marks. When an aircraft that is registered in the United States is sold, the holder of the Certificate of Aircraft Registration must remove, before its delivery to the purchaser, all United States marks from the aircraft, unless the purchaser is— (a) A citizen of the United States; (b) An individual citizen of a foreign country who is lawfully admitted for permanent residence in the United States; or (c) When the aircraft is to be based and primarily used in the United States, a corporation (other than a corporation which is a citizen of the United States) lawfully organized and doing business under the laws of the United States or any State thereof. [Amdt. 45-11, 44 FR 61938, Oct. 29, 1979] Pt. 47 PART 47—AIRCRAFT REGISTRATION Subpart A—General Sec. 47.1 Applicability. 47.2 Definitions. 47.3 Registration required. 47.5 Applicants. 47.7 United States citizens and resident aliens. 47.8 Voting trusts. 47.9 Corporations not U.S. citizens. 47.11 Evidence of ownership. 47.13 Signatures and instruments made by representatives. 47.14 Serial numbers for unmanned aircraft. 47.15 Registration number. 47.16 Temporary registration numbers. 47.17 Fees. 47.19 Registry. Subpart B—Certificates of Aircraft Registration 47.31 Application. 47.33 Aircraft not previously registered anywhere. 47.35 Aircraft last previously registered in the United States. 47.37 Aircraft last previously registered in a foreign country. 47.39 Effective date of registration. 47.40 Registration expiration and renewal. 47.41 Duration and return of Certificate. 47.43 Invalid registration. 47.45 Change of address. 47.47 Cancellation of Certificate for export purpose. 47.49 Replacement of Certificate. 47.51 [Reserved] Subpart C—Dealers' Aircraft Registration Certificate 47.61 Dealer's Aircraft Registration Certificates. 47.63 Application. 47.65 Eligibility. 47.67 Evidence of ownership. 47.69 Limitations. 47.71 Duration of Certificate; change of status. Authority: 4 U.S.T. 1830; Pub. L. 115-254, Pub. L. 108-297, 118 Stat. 1095 (49 U.S.C. 40101 note, 49 U.S.C. 44101 note); 49 U.S.C. 106(f), 106(g), 40113-40114, 44101-44108, 44110-44113, 44703-44704, 44713, 45302, 46104, 46301. Source: Docket No. 7190, 31 FR 4495, Mar. 17, 1966, unless otherwise noted. Editorial Note: Nomenclature changes to part 47 appear at 75 FR 41979, July 20, 2010.

Subpart A—General § 47.1 Applicability. This part prescribes the requirements for registering aircraft under 49 U.S.C. 44101-44104. Subpart B applies to each applicant for, and holder of, a Certificate of Aircraft Registration, AC Form8050-3. Subpart C applies to each applicant for, and holder of, a Dealer's Aircraft Registration Certificate, AC Form 8050-6. [Amdt. 47-29, 75 FR 41979, July 20, 2010] § 47.2 Definitions. The following are definitions of terms used in this part: Citizen of the United States or U.S. citizen means one of the following: (1) An individual who is a citizen of the United States or one of its possessions. (2) A partnership each of whose partners is an individual who is a citizen of the United States. (3) A corporation or association organized under the laws of the United States or a State, the District of Columbia, or a territory or possession of the United States, of which the president and at least two-thirds of the board of directors and other managing officers are citizens of the United States, which is under the actual control of citizens of the United States, and in which at least 75 percent of the voting interest is owned or controlled by persons that are citizens of the United States.

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Registry means the FAA, Civil Aviation Registry, Aircraft Registration Branch. Resident alien means an individual citizen of a foreign country lawfully admitted for permanent residence in the United States as an immigrant in conformity with the regulations of the Department of Homeland Security (8 CFR Chapter 1). [Doc. No. FAA-2015-7396; Amdt. 47-30, 80 FR 78645, Dec. 16, 2015] § 47.3 Registration required. (a) An aircraft may be registered under 49 U.S.C. 44103 only when the aircraft is not registered under the laws of a foreign country and is— (1) Owned by a citizen of the United States; (2) Owned by an individual citizen of a foreign country lawfully admitted for permanent residence in the United States; (3) Owned by a corporation not a citizen of the United States when the corporation is organized and doing business under the laws of the United States or a State within the United States, and the aircraft is based and primarily used in the United States; or (4) An aircraft of— (i) The United States Government; or (ii) A State, the District of Columbia, a territory or possession of the United States, or a political subdivision of a State, territory, or possession. (b) No person may operate an aircraft that is eligible for registration under 49 U.S.C. 44101-44104, unless the aircraft— (1) Has been registered by its owner; (2) Is carrying aboard the temporary authorization required by § 47.31(c); or (3) Is an aircraft of the Armed Forces of the United States. (c) Governmental units are those named in paragraph (a) of this section and Puerto Rico. [Doc. No. 7190, 31 FR 4495, Mar. 17, 1966, as amended by Amdt. 47-20, 44 FR 61939, Oct. 29, 1979; Amdt. 47-27, 70 FR 244, Jan. 3, 2005; Amdt. 47-29, 75 FR 41979, July 20, 2010; Doc. No. FAA-2015-7396; Amdt. 47-30, 80 FR 78645, Dec. 16, 2015] § 47.5 Applicants. (a) A person who wishes to register an aircraft in the United States must submit an Aircraft Registration Application, AC Form 8050-1 under this part. (b) An aircraft may be registered only by and in the legal name of its owner. (c) 49 U.S.C. 44103(c), provides that registration is not evidence of ownership of aircraft in any proceeding in which ownership by a particular person is in issue. The FAA does not issue any certificate of ownership or endorse any information with respect to ownership on a Certificate of Aircraft Registration, AC Form 8050-3. The FAA issues a Certificate of Aircraft Registration, AC Form 8050-3 to the person who appears to be the owner on the basis of the evidence of ownership submitted pursuant to § 47.11 with the Aircraft Registration Application, or recorded at the Registry. (d) In this part, “owner” includes a buyer in possession, a bailee, or a lessee of an aircraft under a contract of conditional sale, and the assignee of that person. [Amdt. 47-20, 44 FR 61939, Oct. 29, 1979, as amended by Amdt. 47-27, 70 FR 244, Jan. 3, 2005; Amdt. 47-29, 75 FR 41979, July 20, 2010] § 47.7 United States citizens and resident aliens. (a) U.S. citizens. An applicant for aircraft registration under this part who is a U.S. citizen must certify to this in the Aircraft Registration Application, AC Form 8050-1. (b) Resident aliens. An applicant for aircraft registration under 49 U.S.C. 44102 who is a resident alien must furnish a representation of permanent residence and the applicant's alien registration number issued by the Department of Homeland Security. (c) Trustees. An applicant for aircraft registration under 49 U.S.C. 44102 that holds legal title to an aircraft in trust must comply with the following requirements: (1) Each trustee must be either a U.S. citizen or a resident alien. (2) The applicant must submit with the Aircraft Registration Application— (i) A copy of each document legally affecting a relationship under the trust;

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(ii) If each beneficiary under the trust, including each person whose security interest in the aircraft is incorporated in the trust, is either a U.S. citizen or a resident alien, an affidavit by the applicant to that effect; and (iii) If any beneficiary under the trust, including any person whose security interest in the aircraft is incorporated in the trust, is not a U.S. citizen or resident alien, an affidavit from each trustee stating that the trustee is not aware of any reason, situation, or relationship (involving beneficiaries or other persons who are not U.S. citizens or resident aliens) as a result of which those persons together would have more than 25 percent of the aggregate power to influence or limit the exercise of the trustee's authority. (3) If persons who are neither U.S. citizens nor resident aliens have the power to direct or remove a trustee, either directly or indirectly through the control of another person, the trust instrument must provide that those persons together may not have more than 25 percent of the aggregate power to direct or remove a trustee. Nothing in this paragraph prevents those persons from having more than 25 percent of the beneficial interest in the trust. (d) Partnerships. A partnership may apply for a Certificate of Aircraft Registration, AC Form 8050-3, under 49 U.S.C. 44102 only if each partner, whether a general or limited partner, is an individual who is a citizen of the United States. Nothing in this section makes ineligible for registration an aircraft which is not owned as a partnership asset but is co-owned by— (1) Resident aliens; or (2) One or more resident aliens and one or more U.S. citizens. [Amdt. 47-20, 44 FR 61939, Oct. 29, 1979, as amended by Amdt. 47-27, 70 FR 244, Jan. 3, 2005; Amdt. 47-29, 75 FR 41980, July 20, 2010; Doc. No. FAA-2015-7396; Amdt. 47-30, 80 FR 78645, Dec. 16, 2015] § 47.8 Voting trusts. (a) If a voting trust is used to qualify a domestic corporation as a U.S. citizen, the corporate applicant must submit to the Registry— (1) A true copy of the fully executed voting trust agreement, which must identify each voting interest of the applicant, and which must be binding upon each voting trustee, the applicant corporation, all foreign stockholders, and each other party to the transaction; and (2) An affidavit executed by each person designated as voting trustee in the voting trust agreement, in which each affiant represents— (i) That each voting trustee is a citizen of the United States within the meaning of 49 U.S.C. 40102(a)(15). (ii) That each voting trustee is not a past, present, or prospective director, officer, employee, attorney, or agent of any other party to the trust agreement; (iii) That each voting trustee is not a present or prospective beneficiary, creditor, debtor, supplier or contractor of any other party to the trust agreement; (iv) That each voting trustee is not aware of any reason, situation, or relationship under which any other party to the agreement might influence the exercise of the voting trustee's totally independent judgment under the voting trust agreement. (b) Each voting trust agreement submitted under paragraph (a)(1) of this section must provide for the succession of a voting trustee in the event of death, disability, resignation, termination of citizenship, or any other event leading to the replacement of any voting trustee. Upon succession, the replacement voting trustee shall immediately submit to the Registry the affidavit required by paragraph (a)(2) of this section. (c) If the voting trust terminates or is modified, and the result is less than 75 percent control of the voting interest in the corporation by citizens of the United States, a loss of citizenship of the holder of the Certificate of Aircraft Registration, AC Form 8050-3 occurs, and § 47.41(a)(3) of this part applies. (d) A voting trust agreement may not empower a trustee to act through a proxy. [Amdt. 47-20, 44 FR 61939, Oct. 29, 1979, as amended by Amdt. 47-27, 70 FR 245, Jan. 3, 2005; Amdt. 47-29, 75 FR 41980, July 20, 2010] § 47.9 Corporations not U.S. citizens. (a) Each corporation applying for registration of an aircraft under 49 U.S.C. 44102 must submit to the Registry with the Aircraft Registration Application, AC Form 8050-1—

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(1) A certified copy of its certificate of incorporation; (2) A certification that it is lawfully qualified to do business in one or more States; (3) A certification that the aircraft will be based and primarily used in the United States; and (4) The location where the records required by paragraph (e) of this section will be maintained. (b) For the purposes of registration, an aircraft is based and primarily used in the United States if the flight hours accumulated within the United States amount to at least 60 percent of the total flight hours of the aircraft during the period consisting in the remainder of the registration month and the succeeding 6 calendar months and each 6 calendar month period thereafter. (c) For the purpose of this section, only those flight hours accumulated during non-stop (except for stops in emergencies or for purposes of refueling) flight between two points in the United States, even if the aircraft is outside of the United States during part of the flight, are considered flight hours accumulated within the United States. (d) In determining compliance with this section, any periods during which the aircraft is not validly registered in the United States are disregarded. (e) The corporation that registers an aircraft pursuant to 49 U.S.C. 44102 shall maintain, and make available for inspection by the FAA upon request, records containing the total flight hours in the United States of the aircraft for three calendar years after the year in which the flight hours were accumulated. (f) The corporation that registers an aircraft pursuant to 49 U.S.C. 44102 shall send to the Registry, at the end of each period of time described in paragraphs (b)(1) and (2) of this section, either— (1) A signed report containing— (i) The total time in service of the airframe as provided in § 91.417(a)(2)(i), accumulated during that period; and (ii) The total flight hours in the United States of the aircraft accumulated during that period; or (2) A signed statement that the total flight hours of the aircraft, while registered in the United States during that period, have been exclusively within the United States. [Amdt. 47-20, 44 FR 61940, Oct. 29, 1979, as amended by Amdt. 47-24, 54 FR 34330, Aug. 18, 1989; Amdt. 47-27, 70 FR 245, Jan. 3, 2005; Amdt. 47-29, 75 FR 41979, July 20, 2010; Amdt. No. 47-34, 87 FR 75711, Dec. 9, 2022; 88 FR 2813, Jan. 18, 2023] § 47.11 Evidence of ownership. Except as provided in §§ 47.33 and 47.35, each person that submits an Aircraft Registration Application, AC Form 8050-1 under this part must also submit the required evidence of ownership, recordable under §§ 49.13 and 49.17 of this chapter, as follows: (a) The buyer in possession, the bailee, or the lessee of an aircraft under a contract of conditional sale must submit the contract. The assignee under a contract of conditional sale must submit both the contract (unless it is already recorded at the Registry), and his assignment from the original buyer, bailee, lessee, or prior assignee. (b) The repossessor of an aircraft must submit— (1) A Certificate of Repossession of Encumbered Aircraft, FAA Form 8050-4, or its equivalent, signed by the applicant and stating that the aircraft was repossessed or otherwise seized under the security agreement involved and applicable local law; (2) The security agreement (unless it is already recorded at the Registry), or a copy thereof certified as true under § 49.21 of this chapter; and (3) When repossession was through foreclosure proceedings resulting in sale, a bill of sale signed by the sheriff, auctioneer, or other authorized person who conducted the sale, and stating that the sale was made under applicable local law. (c) The buyer of an aircraft at a judicial sale, or at a sale to satisfy a lien or charge, must submit a bill of sale signed by the sheriff, auctioneer, or other authorized person who conducted the sale, and stating that the sale was made under applicable local law.

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(d) The owner of an aircraft, the title to which has been in controversy and has been determined by a court, must submit a certified copy of the decision of the court. (e) The executor or administrator of the estate of the deceased former owner of an aircraft must submit a certified copy of the letters testimentary or letters of administration appointing him executor or administrator. The Certificate of Aircraft Registration, AC Form 8050-3 is issued to the applicant as executor or administrator. (f) The buyer of an aircraft from the estate of a deceased former owner must submit both a bill of sale, signed for the estate by the executor or administrator, and a certified copy of the letters testimentary or letters of administration. When no executor or administrator has been or is to be appointed, the applicant must submit both a bill of sale, signed by the heir-at-law of the deceased former owner, and an affidavit of the heir-at-law stating that no application for appointment of an executor or administrator has been made, that so far as he can determine none will be made, and that he is the person entitled to, or having the right to dispose of, the aircraft under applicable local law. (g) The guardian of another person's property that includes an aircraft must submit a certified copy of the order of the court appointing him guardian. The Certificate of Aircraft Registration is issued to the applicant as guardian. (h) The trustee of property that includes an aircraft, as described in § 47.7(c), must submit either a certified copy of the order of the court appointing the trustee, or a complete and true copy of the instrument creating the trust. If there is more than one trustee, each trustee must sign the Aircraft Registration Application. The Certificate of Aircraft Registration is issued to a single applicant as trustee, or to several trustees jointly as co-trustees. [Doc. No. 7190, 31 FR 4495, Mar. 17, 1966, as amended by Amdt. 47-20, 44 FR 61940, Oct. 29, 1979; Amdt. 47-23, 53 FR 1915, Jan. 25, 1988; Amdt. 47-29, 75 FR 41980, July 20, 2010] § 47.13 Signatures and instruments made by representatives. (a) Each person signing an Aircraft Registration Application, AC Form 8050-1, or a document submitted as supporting evidence under this part, must sign in ink or by other means acceptable to the FAA. If signed in ink, the Aircraft Registration Application must also have the typed or legibly printed name of each signer in the signature block. (b) When one or more persons doing business under a trade name submits an Aircraft Registration Application, a document submitted as supporting evidence under this part, or a request for cancellation of a Certificate of Aircraft Registration, AC Form 8050-3, the application, document, or request must be signed by, or on behalf of, each person who shares title to the aircraft. (c) When an agent submits an Aircraft Registration Application, a document submitted as supporting evidence under this part, or a request for cancellation of a Certificate of Aircraft Registration, on behalf of the owner, that agent must— (1) State the name of the owner on the application, document, or request; (2) Sign as agent or attorney-in-fact on the application, document, or request; and (3) Submit a signed power of attorney, or a true copy thereof certified under § 49.21 of this chapter, with the application, document, or request. (d) When a corporation submits an Aircraft Registration Application, a document submitted as supporting evidence under this part, or a request for cancellation of a Certificate of Aircraft Registration, it must— (1) Have an authorized person sign, by means acceptable to the FAA, the application, document, or request; (2) Show the title of the signer's office on the application, document, or request; and (3) Submit a copy of the authorization from the board of directors to sign for the corporation, certified as true under § 49.21 of this chapter by a corporate officer or other person in a managerial position therein, with the application, document, or request, unless— (i) The signer of the application, document, or request is a corporate officer or other person in a managerial position in the corporation and the title of his office is stated in connection with his signature; or

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(ii) A valid authorization to sign is on file at the Registry. (4) The provisions of paragraph (d)(3) of this section do not apply to an irrevocable deregistration and export request authorization when an irrevocable deregistration and export request authorization under the Cape Town Treaty is signed by a corporate officer and is filed with the Registry. (e) When a partnership submits an Aircraft Registration Application, a document submitted as supporting evidence under this part, or a request for cancellation of a Certificate of Aircraft Registration, it must— (1) State the full name of the partnership on the application, document, or request; (2) State the name of each general partner on the application, document, or request; and (3) Have a general partner sign the application, document, or request. (f) When co-owners, who are not engaged in business as partners, submit an Aircraft Registration Application, a document submitted as supporting evidence under this part, or a request for cancellation of a Certificate of Aircraft Registration, each person who shares title to the aircraft under the arrangement must sign the application, document, or request. (g) A power of attorney or other evidence of a person's authority to sign for another, submitted under this part, is valid for the purposes of this section, unless sooner revoked, until— (1) Its expiration date stated therein; or (2) If an expiration date is not stated therein, for not more than 3 years after the date— (i) It is signed; or (ii) The grantor (a corporate officer or other person in a managerial position therein, where the grantor is a corporation) certifies in writing that the authority to sign shown by the power of attorney or other evidence is still in effect. [Doc. No. 7190, 31 FR 4495, Mar. 17, 1966, as amended by Amdt. 47-2, 31 FR 15349, Dec. 8, 1966; Amdt. 47-3, 32 FR 6554, Apr. 28, 1967; Amdt. 47-12, 36 FR 8661, May 11, 1971; Amdt. 47-27, 70 FR 245, Jan. 3, 2005; Amdt. 47-29, 75 FR 41980, July 20, 2010] § 47.14 Serial numbers for unmanned aircraft. (a) The unmanned aircraft serial number provided as part of any application for aircraft registration of any standard remote identification unmanned aircraft must be the serial number issued by the manufacturer of the unmanned aircraft in accordance with the design and production requirements of part 89 of this chapter. The serial number provided in this application must not be listed on more than one Certificate of Aircraft Registration at the same time. (b) The unmanned aircraft serial number provided as part of any application for registration of any unmanned aircraft with a remote identification broadcast module must be the serial number issued by the manufacturer of the remote identification broadcast module in accordance with the design and production requirements of part 89 of this chapter. The serial number provided in this application must not be listed on more than one Certificate of Aircraft Registration at the same time. [Docket No. FAA-2019-1100, Amdt. 47-31, 86 FR 4503, Jan. 15, 2021] § 47.15 Registration number. (a) Number required. An applicant for aircraft registration must place a U.S. registration number (registration mark) on the Aircraft Registration Application, AC Form 8050-1, and on any evidence submitted with the application. There is no charge for the assignment of numbers provided in this paragraph. This paragraph does not apply to an aircraft manufacturer who applies for a group of U.S. registration numbers under paragraph (c) of this section; a person who applies for a special registration number under paragraphs (d) through (f) of this section; or a holder of a Dealer's Aircraft Registration Certificate, AC Form 8050-6, who applies for a temporary registration number under § 47.16.

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(1) Aircraft not previously registered anywhere. The applicant must obtain the U.S. registration number from the Registry by request in writing describing the aircraft by make, type, model, and serial number (or, if it is amateur-built, as provided in § 47.33(b)) and stating that the aircraft has not previously been registered anywhere. If the aircraft was brought into the United States from a foreign country, the applicant must submit evidence that the aircraft has never been registered in a foreign country. (2) Aircraft last previously registered in the United States. Unless the applicant applies for a different number under paragraphs (d) through (f) of this section, the applicant must place the U.S. registration number that is already assigned to the aircraft on the Aircraft Registration Application, and the supporting evidence. If there is no number assigned, the applicant must obtain a U.S. registration number from the Registry by making a written request that describes the aircraft by make, model, and serial number. (3) Aircraft last previously registered in a foreign country. Whether or not the foreign registration has ended, the applicant must obtain a U.S. registration number from the Registry for an aircraft last previously registered in a foreign country, by request in writing describing the aircraft by make, model, and serial number, accompanied by— (i) Evidence of termination of foreign registration in accordance with § 47.37(b) or the applicant's affidavit showing that foreign registration has ended; or (ii) If foreign registration has not ended, the applicant's affidavit stating that the number will not be placed on the aircraft until foreign registration has ended. (4) Duration of a U.S. registration number assignment. Authority to use the registration number obtained under paragraph (a)(1), (2), or (3) of this section expires 90 days after the date it is issued unless the applicant submits an Aircraft Registration Application and complies with § 47.33 or § 47.37, as applicable, within that period of time. However, the applicant may obtain an extension of this 90-day period from the Registry if the applicant shows that the delay in complying with that section is due to circumstances beyond the applicant's control. (b) A U.S. registration number may not exceed five symbols in addition to the prefix letter “N”. These symbols may be all numbers (N10000), one to four numbers and one suffix letter (N 1000A), or one to three numbers and two suffix letters (N 100AB). The letters “I” and “O” may not be used. The first zero in a number must always be preceded by at least one of the numbers 1 through 9. (c) An aircraft manufacturer may apply to the Registry for enough U.S. registration numbers to supply estimated production for the next 18 months. There is no charge for this allocation of numbers. (d) Any available, unassigned U.S. registration number may be assigned as a special registration number. An applicant who wants a special registration number or wants to change the registration number of his aircraft may apply for it to the Registry. The fee required by § 47.17 must accompany the application. (e) [Reserved] (f) The Registry authorizes a special registration number change on the Assignment of Special Registration Numbers, AC Form 8050-64. The authorization expires one year from the date the Registry issues an Assignment of Special Registration Numbers unless the special registration number is permanently placed on the aircraft. Within five days after the special registration number is placed on the aircraft, the owner must complete and sign the Assignment of Special Registration Numbers, state the date the number was placed on the aircraft, and return the original form to the Registry. The duplicate of the Assignment of Special Registration Numbers and the present Certificate of Aircraft Registration, AC Form 8050-3, must be carried in the aircraft as temporary authority to operate it. This temporary authority is valid until the date the owner receives the revised Certificate of Aircraft Registration showing the new registration number, but in no case is it valid for more than 120 days from the date the number is placed on the aircraft.

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(g) [Reserved] (h) A special registration number may be reserved for no more than 1 year. If a person wishes to renew his reservation from year to year, he must apply to the Registry for renewal and submit the fee required by § 47.17 for a special registration number. (i) When aircraft registration has ended, as described in § 47.41(a), the assignment of a registration number to an aircraft is no longer authorized for use except as provided in § 47.31(c) and will be cancelled: (1) Following the expiration date shown on the Certificate of Aircraft Registration for any aircraft whose registration has not been renewed under § 47.40(c); (2) Following the expiration date shown on the Dealer's Aircraft Registration Certificate, AC Form 8050-6, for any aircraft registered under Subpart C of this part, when the certificate has not been renewed, and the owner has not applied for registration in accordance with § 47.31; or (3) When ownership has transferred— (i) Six months after first receipt of notice of aircraft sale or evidence of ownership from the last registered owner or successive owners, and an Aircraft Registration Application has not been received. (ii) Six months after evidence of ownership authorized under § 47.67 has been submitted, and the applicant has not met the requirements of this part. (iii) Twelve months after a new owner has submitted evidence of ownership and an Aircraft Registration Application under § 47.31, and the applicant or a successive applicant has not met the requirements of this part. (j) At the time an assignment of registration number is cancelled, the number may be reserved for one year in the name of the last owner of record if a request has been submitted with the fee required by § 47.17. If the request for reservation and fee are not submitted prior to cancellation, the registration number is unavailable for assignment for a period of five years. [Doc. No. 7190, 31 FR 4495, Mar. 17, 1966, as amended by Amdt. 47-1, 31 FR 13314, Oct. 14, 1966; Amdt. 47-5, 32 FR 13505, Sept. 27, 1967; Amdt. 47-7, 34 FR 2480, Feb. 21, 1969; Amdt. 47-13, 36 FR 16187, Aug. 20, 1971; Amdt. 47-15, 37 FR 21528, Oct. 12, 1972; Amdt. 47-16, 37 FR 25487, Dec. 1, 1972; Amdt. 47-17, 39 FR 1353, Jan. 8, 1974; Amdt. 47-22, 47 FR 12153, Mar. 22, 1982; Amdt. 47-29, 75 FR 41980, July 20, 2010; Amdt. No. 47-33, 87 FR 71217, Nov. 22, 2022] § 47.16 Temporary registration numbers. (a) Temporary registration numbers are issued by the FAA to manufacturers, distributors, and dealers who are holders of Dealer's Aircraft Registration Certificates, AC Form 8050-6, for temporary display on aircraft during flight allowed under Subpart C of this part. (b) The holder of a Dealer's Aircraft Registration Certificate may apply to the Registry for as many temporary registration numbers as are necessary for his business. The application must be in writing and include— (1) Sufficient information to justify the need for the temporary registration numbers requested; and (2) The number of each Dealer's Aircraft Registration Certificate held by the applicant. There is no charge for these numbers. (c) The use of temporary registration numbers is subject to the following conditions: (1) The numbers may be used and reused— (i) Only in connection with the holder's Dealer's Aircraft Registration Certificate; (ii) Within the limitations of § 47.69 where applicable, including the requirements of § 47.67; and (iii) On aircraft not registered under Subpart B of this part or in a foreign country, and not displaying any other identification markings. (2) A temporary registration number may not be used on more than one aircraft in flight at the same time. (3) Temporary registration numbers may not be used to fly aircraft into the United States for the purpose of importation. (d) The assignment of any temporary registration number to any person lapses upon the expiration of all of his Dealer's Aircraft Registration Certificates. When a temporary registration number is used on a flight outside the United States for delivery purposes, the holder shall record the assignment of that number to the aircraft and shall keep that record for at least 1 year after the removal of the number from that aircraft. Whenever the owner of an aircraft bearing a temporary registration number applies for an airworthiness certificate under Part 21 of this chapter he shall furnish that number in the application. The temporary registration number must be removed from the aircraft not later than the date on which either title or possession passes to another person.

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[Amdt. 47-4, 32 FR 12556, Aug. 30, 1967, as amended by Amdt. 47-29, 75 FR 41981, July 20, 2010] § 47.17 Fees. (a) The fees for applications under this part are as follows:

(1) Certificate of Aircraft Registration (each aircraft)	$5.00
(2) Dealer's Aircraft Registration Certificate	10.00
(3) Additional Dealer's Aircraft Registration Certificate (issued to same dealer)	2.00
(4) Special registration number (each number)	10.00
(5) To change, reassign, or reserve a registration number	10.00
(6) Replacement Certificate of Aircraft Registration	2.00
(7) Renewal Certificate of Aircraft Registration	5.00

(b) Each application must be accompanied by the proper fee, that may be paid by check or money order to the Federal Aviation Administration. [Doc. No. 7190, 31 FR 4495, Mar. 17, 1966; 31 FR 5483, Apr. 7, 1966, as amended by Doc. No. 8084, 32 FR 5769, Apr. 11, 1967; Amdt. 47-29, 75 FR 41981, July 20, 2010; Amdt. No. 47-33, 87 FR 71217, Nov. 22, 2022] § 47.19 Registry. Each application, request, notification, or other communication sent to the FAA under this part must be delivered to the Registry by a means acceptable to the Administrator. [Amdt. 47-27, 70 FR 245, Jan. 3, 2005, as amended by Amdt. No. 47-34, 87 FR 75711, Dec. 9, 2022; 88 FR 2813, Jan. 18, 2023] Subpart B—Certificates of Aircraft Registration § 47.31 Application. (a) Each applicant for a Certificate of Aircraft Registration, AC Form 8050-3 must submit the following to the Registry— (1) An Aircraft Registration Application, AC Form 8050-1, signed by the applicant in the manner prescribed by § 47.13; (2) The original Aircraft Bill of Sale, AC Form 8050-2, or other evidence of ownership authorized by § 47.33, § 47.35, or § 47.37 (unless already recorded at the Registry); and (3) The fee required by § 47.17. (b) The FAA rejects an application when— (1) Any form is not completed; (2) The name and signature of the applicant are not the same throughout; or (3) The applicant does not provide a legibly printed or typed name with the signature in the signature block. (c) After compliance with paragraph (a) of this section, the applicant for registration of an aircraft last previously registered in the United States must carry the second copy of the Aircraft Registration Application in the aircraft as temporary authority to operate without registration. (1) This temporary authority is valid for operation within the United States until the date the applicant receives the Certificate of Aircraft Registration or until the date the FAA denies the application, or as provided by paragraph (c)(2) of this section. (2) This temporary authority is not available in connection with any Aircraft Registration Application received when 12 months have passed since the receipt of the first application following transfer of ownership by the last registered owner. (3) If there is no registration number assigned at the time application for registration is made, the second copy of the Aircraft Registration Application may not be used as temporary authority to operate the aircraft.

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[Doc. No. 7190, 31 FR 4495, Mar. 17, 1966; 31 FR 5483, Apr. 7, 1966, as amended by Amdt. 47-6, 33 FR 11, Jan. 3, 1968; Amdt. 47-15, 37 FR 21528, Oct. 12, 1972; Amdt. 47-16, 37 FR 25487, Dec. 1, 1972; Amdt. 47-28, 73 FR 10667, Feb. 28, 2008; Amdt. 47-29, 75 FR 41981, July 20, 2010; Amdt. No. 47-33, 87 FR 71217, Nov. 22, 2022; Amdt. No. 47-33A, 88 FR 2814, Jan. 18, 2023] § 47.33 Aircraft not previously registered anywhere. (a) A person who is the owner of an aircraft that has not been registered under 49 U.S.C. 44101-44104, under other law of the United States, or under foreign law, may register it under this part if he— (1) Complies with §§ 47.3, 47.7, 47.8, 47.9, 47.11, 47.13, 47.15, and 47.17, as applicable; and (2) Submits with his Aircraft Registration Application, AC Form 8050-1, an Aircraft Bill of Sale, AC Form 8050-2, signed by the seller, an equivalent bill of sale, or other evidence of ownership authorized by § 47.11. (b) If, for good reason, the applicant cannot produce the evidence of ownership required by paragraph (a) of this section, he must submit other evidence that is satisfactory to the FAA. This other evidence may be an affidavit stating why he cannot produce the required evidence, accompanied by whatever further evidence is available to prove the transaction. (c) The owner of an amateur-built aircraft who applies for registration under paragraphs (a) and (b) of this section must describe the aircraft by class (airplane, rotorcraft, glider, or balloon), serial number, number of seats, type of engine installed, (reciprocating, turbopropeller, turbojet, or other), number of engines installed, and make, model, and serial number of each engine installed; and must state whether the aircraft is built for land or water operation. Also, he must submit as evidence of ownership an affidavit giving the U.S. registration number, and stating that the aircraft was built from parts and that he is the owner. If he built the aircraft from a kit, the applicant must also submit a bill of sale from the manufacturer of the kit. (d) The owner, other than the holder of the type certificate, of an aircraft that he assembles from parts to conform to the approved type design, must describe the aircraft and engine in the manner required by paragraph (c) of this section, and also submit evidence of ownership satisfactory to the FAA, such as bills of sale, for all major components of the aircraft. [Doc. No. 7190, 31 FR 4495, Mar. 17, 1966; 31 FR 5483, Apr. 7, 1966, as amended by Amdt. 47-16, 37 FR 25487, Dec. 1, 1972; Amdt. 47-20, 44 FR 61940, Oct. 29, 1979; Amdt. 47-27, 70 FR 245, Jan. 3, 2005; Amdt. 47-29, 75 FR 41979, July 20, 2010] § 47.35 Aircraft last previously registered in the United States. (a) A person who is the owner of an aircraft last previously registered under 49 U.S.C. Sections 44101-44104, or under other law of the United States, may register it under this part if he complies with §§ 47.3, 47.7, 47.8, 47.9, 47.11, 47.13, 47.15, and 47.17, as applicable and submits with his Aircraft Registration Application, AC Form 8050-1 an Aircraft Bill of Sale, AC Form 8050-2, signed by the seller or an equivalent conveyance, or other evidence of ownership authorized by § 47.11. (1) If the applicant bought the aircraft from the last registered owner, the conveyance must be from that owner to the applicant. (2) If the applicant did not buy the aircraft from the last registered owner, he must submit conveyances or other instruments showing consecutive transactions from the last registered owner through each intervening owner to the applicant. (b) If, for good reason, the applicant cannot produce the evidence of ownership required by paragraph (a) of this section, he must submit other evidence that is satisfactory to the FAA. This other evidence may be an affidavit stating why he cannot produce the required evidence, accompanied by whatever further evidence is available to prove the transaction. [Doc. No. 7190, 31 FR 4495, Mar. 17, 1966, as amended by Amdt. 47-16, 37 FR 25487, Dec. 1, 1972; Amdt. 47-20, 44 FR 61940, Oct. 29, 1979; Amdt. 47-27, 70 FR 245, Jan. 3, 2005; 73 FR 55722, Sept. 26, 2008; Amdt. 47-29, 75 FR 41979, July 20, 2010]

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§ 47.37 Aircraft last previously registered in a foreign country. (a) A person who is the owner of an aircraft last previously registered under the law of a foreign country may register it under this part if the owner— (1) Complies with §§ 47.3, 47.7, 47.8, 47.9, 47.11, 47.13, 47.15, and 47.17, as applicable; (2) Submits with his Aircraft Registration Application, AC Form 8050-1 a bill of sale from the foreign seller or other evidence satisfactory to the FAA that he owns the aircraft; and (3) Submits evidence satisfactory to the FAA that— (i) If the country in which the aircraft was registered has not ratified the Convention on the International Recognition of Rights in Aircraft (4 U.S.T. 1830), (the Geneva Convention), or the Convention on International Interests in Mobile Equipment, as modified by the Protocol to the Convention on International Interests in Mobile Equipment on Matters Specific to Aircraft Equipment (the Cape Town Treaty), the foreign registration has ended or is invalid; or (ii) If that country has ratified the Geneva Convention, but has not ratified the Cape Town Treaty, the foreign registration has ended or is invalid, and each holder of a recorded right against the aircraft has been satisfied or has consented to the transfer, or ownership in the country of export has been ended by a sale in execution under the terms of the Geneva Convention; or (iii) If that country has ratified the Cape Town Treaty and the aircraft is subject to the Treaty, that the foreign registration has ended or is invalid, and that all interests ranking in priority have been discharged or that the holders of such interests have consented to the deregistration and export of the aircraft. (iv) Nothing under (a)(3)(iii) affects rights established prior to the Treaty entering into force with respect to the country in which the aircraft was registered. (b) For the purposes of paragraph (a)(3) of this section, satisfactory evidence of termination of the foreign registration may be— (1) A statement, by the official having jurisdiction over the national aircraft registry of the foreign country, that the registration has ended or is invalid, and showing the official's name and title and describing the aircraft by make, model, and serial number; or (2) A final judgment or decree of a court of competent jurisdiction of the foreign country, determining that, under the laws of that country, the registration has become invalid. [Doc. No. 7190, 31 FR 4495, Mar. 17, 1966, as amended by Amdt. 47-20, 44 FR 61940, Oct. 29, 1979; Amdt. 47-26, 68 FR 10317, Mar. 4, 2003; Amdt. 47-27, 70 FR 245, Jan. 3, 2005] § 47.39 Effective date of registration. An aircraft is registered on the date the Registry determines that the submissions meet the requirements of this part. The effective date of registration is shown by a date stamp on the Aircraft Registration Application, AC Form 8050-1, and as the date of issue on the Certificate of Aircraft Registration, AC Form 8050-3. [Amdt. 47-29, 75 FR 41981, July 20, 2010] § 47.40 Registration expiration and renewal. (a) Initial Registration. A Certificate of Aircraft Registration issued in accordance with § 47.31 expires seven years after the last day of the month in which it is issued. (b) Renewal. Each holder of a Certificate of Aircraft Registration, AC Form 8050-3, containing an expiration date may apply for renewal of a Certificate of Aircraft Registration by submitting an Aircraft Registration Renewal Application, AC Form 8050-1B, and the fee required by § 47.17 during the six months preceding the expiration date for the Certificate of Aircraft Registration. (1) A Certificate of Aircraft Registration issued under this paragraph after January 23, 2023 expires seven years after the last day of the month in which it was issued. (2) A Certificate of Aircraft Registration that is in effect on January 23, 2023 expires seven years after the last day of the month in which it is issued, notwithstanding the expiration date on the valid Certificate of Aircraft Registration.

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(c) Inaccurate Information. The Administrator may require the owner of a registered aircraft to submit a complete Aircraft Registration Application, AC Form 8050-1, and fee prior to the expiration date if the Administrator finds that the Certificate of Aircraft Registration contains inaccurate information. [Amdt. 47-33, 87 FR 71218, Nov. 22, 2022] § 47.41 Duration and return of Certificate. (a) Each Certificate of Aircraft Registration, AC Form 8050-3, issued by the FAA under this subpart is effective, unless registration has ended by reason of having been revoked, canceled, expired, or the ownership is transferred, until the date upon which one of the following events occurs: (1) Subject to the Convention on the International Recognition of Rights in Aircraft when applicable, the aircraft is registered under the laws of a foreign country. (2) The aircraft is totally destroyed or scrapped. (3) The holder of the certificate loses his U.S. citizenship. (4) 30 days have elapsed since the death of the holder of the certificate. (5) The owner, if an individual who is not a citizen of the United States, loses status as a resident alien, unless that person becomes a citizen of the United States at the same time. (6) If the owner is a corporation other than a corporation which is a citizen of the United States— (i) The corporation ceases to be lawfully organized and doing business under the laws of the United States or any State thereof; or (ii) A period described in § 47.9(b) ends and the aircraft was not based and primarily used in the United States during that period. (7) If the trustee in whose name the aircraft is registered— (i) Loses U.S. citizenship; (ii) Loses status as a resident alien and does not become a citizen of the United States at the same time; or (iii) In any manner ceases to act as trustee and is not immediately replaced by another who meets the requirements of § 47.7(c). (b) The Certificate of Aircraft Registration, with the reverse side completed, must be returned to the Registry— (1) Within 21 days in the case of registration under the laws of a foreign country, by the person who was the owner of the aircraft before foreign registration; (2) Within 60 days after the death of the holder of the certificate, by the administrator or executor of his estate, or by his heir-at-law if no administrator or executor has been or is to be appointed; or (3) Within 21 days of the termination of the registration, by the holder of the Certificate of Aircraft Registration in all other cases mentioned in paragraph (a) of this section, except in the case of expired certificates, the holder must destroy the expired certificate. (4) If the certificate is not available for return, as directed in paragraph (b) of this section, a statement describing the aircraft and stating the reason the certificate is not available must be submitted to the Registry within the time required by paragraph (b) of this section. [Doc. No. 7190, 31 FR 4495, Mar. 17, 1966; 31 FR 5483, Apr. 7, 1966, as amended by Amdt. 47-20, 44 FR 61940, Oct. 29, 1979; Amdt. 47-28, 73 FR 10667, Feb. 28, 2008; Amdt. 47-29, 75 FR 41982, July 20, 2010] § 47.43 Invalid registration. (a) The registration of an aircraft is invalid if, at the time it is made— (1) The aircraft is registered in a foreign country; (2) The applicant is not the owner; (3) The applicant is not qualified to submit an application under this part; or (4) The interest of the applicant in the aircraft was created by a transaction that was not entered into in good faith, but rather was made to avoid (with or without the owner's knowledge) compliance with 49 U.S.C. 44101-44104. (b) If the registration of an aircraft is invalid under paragraph (a) of this section, the holder of the invalid Certificate of Aircraft Registration, AC Form 8050-3, must return it as soon as possible to the Registry.

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[Doc. No. 7190, 31 FR 4495, Mar. 17, 1966; 31 FR 5483, Apr. 7, 1966, as amended by Amdt. 47-20, 44 FR 61940, Oct. 29, 1979; Amdt. 47-27, 70 FR 245, Jan. 3, 2005; Amdt. 47-29, 75 FR 41982, July 20, 2010] § 47.45 Change of address. Within 30 days after any change in a registered owner's mailing address, the registered owner must notify the Registry in writing of the change of address. If a post office box or mailing drop is used for mailing purposes, the registered owner also must provide that owner's physical address or location. Upon acceptance, the Registry will issue, without charge, a revised Certificate of Aircraft Registration, AC Form 8050-3, reflecting the new mailing address. When a post office box or mailing drop is used for mailing purposes, and the registered owner's physical address or location changes, the registered owner must notify the Registry in writing of the new address or location within 30 days. [Amdt. 47-29, 75 FR 41982, July 20, 2010] § 47.47 Cancellation of Certificate for export purpose. (a) The holder of a Certificate of Aircraft Registration, AC Form 8050-3, or the holder of an irrevocable deregistration and export request authorization recognized under the Cape Town Treaty and filed with the FAA, who wishes to cancel the Certificate of Aircraft Registration for the purpose of export must submit to the Registry— (1) A written request for cancellation of the Certificate of Aircraft Registration describing the aircraft by make, model, and serial number, and stating the U.S. registration number and the country to which the aircraft will be exported; (2)(i) For an aircraft not subject to the Cape Town Treaty, evidence satisfactory to the FAA that each holder of a recorded right has been satisfied or has consented to the transfer; or (ii) For an aircraft subject to the Cape Town Treaty, evidence satisfactory to the FAA that each holder of a recorded right established prior to the date the Treaty entered into force with respect to the United States has been satisfied or has consented to the transfer; and (3) A written certification that all registered interests ranking in priority to that of the requestor have been discharged or that the holders of such interests have consented to the cancellation for export purposes. (b) If the aircraft is subject to the Cape Town Treaty and an irrevocable deregistration and export request authorization has been filed with the Registry, the Registry will honor a request for cancellation only if an authorized party makes the request. (c) The Registry notifies the country to which the aircraft is to be exported of the cancellation. [Amdt. 47-27, 70 FR 245, Jan. 3, 2005, as amended by Amdt. 47-29, 75 FR 41982, July 20, 2010] § 47.49 Replacement of Certificate. (a) If the original Certificate of Aircraft Registration, AC Form 8050-3, is lost, stolen, or mutilated, the registered owner may submit to the Registry a written request that states the reason a replacement certificate is needed and the fee required by § 47.17. The Registry will send a replacement certificate to the registered owner's mailing address or to another mailing address if requested in writing by the registered owner. (b) The registered owner may request a temporary Certificate of Aircraft Registration pending receipt of a replacement certificate. The Registry issues a temporary Certificate of Aircraft Registration in the form of a fax that must be carried in the aircraft until receipt of the replacement certificate. [Amdt. 47-29, 75 FR 41982, July 20, 2010] § 47.51 [Reserved]
Subpart C—Dealers' Aircraft Registration Certificate § 47.61 Dealer's Aircraft Registration Certificates. (a) The FAA issues a Dealer's Aircraft Registration Certificate, AC Form 8050-6, to U.S. manufacturers and dealers to—

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(1) Allow manufacturers to make any required flight tests of aircraft. (2) Facilitate operating, demonstrating, and merchandising aircraft by the manufacturer or dealer without the burden of obtaining a Certificate of Aircraft Registration, AC Form 8050-3, for each aircraft with each transfer of ownership, under subpart B of this part. (b) A Dealer's Aircraft Registration Certificate is an alternative for the Certificate of Aircraft Registration issued under subpart B of this part. A dealer may, under this subpart, obtain one or more Dealer's Aircraft Registration Certificates in addition to his original certificate, and he may use a Dealer's Aircraft Registration Certificate for any aircraft he owns. (c) If a Dealer's Aircraft Registration Certificate for an aircraft registered under this subpart expires in accordance with § 47.71, the aircraft owner must submit an application for aircraft registration in accordance with § 47.31 or the assignment of registration number will be canceled in accordance with § 47.15(i)(2). [Doc. No. 7190, 31 FR 4495, Mar. 17, 1966, as amended by Amdt. 47-9, 35 FR 802, Jan. 21, 1970; Amdt. 47-16, 37 FR 25487, Dec. 1, 1972; Amdt. 47-29, 75 FR 41982, July 20, 2010; Amdt. 47-33, 87 FR 71218, Nov. 22, 2022] § 47.63 Application. A manufacturer or dealer that wishes to obtain a Dealer's Aircraft Registration Certificate, AC Form 8050-6, must submit— (a) A Dealer's Aircraft Registration Certificate Application, AC Form 8050-5; and (b) The fee required by § 47.17. [Doc. No. 7190, 31 FR 4495, Mar. 17, 1966, as amended by Amdt. 47-16, 37 FR 25487, Dec. 1, 1972; Amdt. 47-29, 75 FR 41982, July 20, 2010] § 47.65 Eligibility. To be eligible for a Dealer's Aircraft Registration Certificate, AC Form 8050-6, the applicant must have an established place of business in the United States, must be substantially engaged in manufacturing or selling aircraft, and must be a citizen of the United States, as defined by 49 U.S.C. 40102 (a)(15). [Amdt. 47-29, 75 FR 41983, July 20, 2010] § 47.67 Evidence of ownership. Before using a Dealer's Aircraft Registration Certificate, AC Form 8050-6, for operating the aircraft, the holder of the certificate (other than a manufacturer) must send to the Registry evidence of ownership under § 47.11. An Aircraft Bill of Sale, AC Form 8050-2, or its equivalent, may be used as evidence of ownership. There is no recording fee. [Amdt. 47-29, 75 FR 41983, July 20, 2010] § 47.69 Limitations. A Dealer's Aircraft Registration Certificate, AC Form 8050-6 is valid only in connection with use of aircraft— (a) By the owner of the aircraft to whom it was issued, his agent or employee, or a prospective buyer, and in the case of a dealer other than a manufacturer, only after he has complied with § 47.67; (b) Within the United States, except when used to deliver to a foreign purchaser an aircraft displaying a temporary registration number and carrying an airworthiness certificate on which that number is written; (c) While a certificate is carried within the aircraft; and (d) On a flight that is— (1) For required flight testing of aircraft; or (2) Necessary for, or incident to, sale of the aircraft. However, a prospective buyer may operate an aircraft for demonstration purposes only while he is under the direct supervision of the holder of the Dealer's Aircraft Registration Certificate or his agent. [Doc. No. 7190, 31 FR 4495, Mar. 17, 1966; 31 FR 5483, Apr. 7, 1966, as amended by Amdt. 47-4, 32 FR 12556, Aug. 30, 1967; Amdt. 47-29, 75 FR 41983, July 20, 2010] § 47.71 Duration of Certificate; change of status. (a) A Dealer's Aircraft Registration Certificate, AC Form 8050-6, expires 1 year after the date it is issued. Each additional certificate expires on the date the original certificate expires.

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(b) The holder of a Dealer's Aircraft Registration Certificate must immediately notify the Registry of any of the following— (1) A change of name; (2) A change of address; (3) A change that affects status as a citizen of the United States; or (4) The discontinuance of business. [31 FR 4495, Mar. 17, 1966, as amended by Amdt. 47-29, 75 FR 41983, July 20, 2010] 14 Aeronautics and Space 2 2025-01-01 false 2025-01-01 FEDERAL AVIATION ADMINISTRATION, DEPARTMENT OF TRANSPORTATION (CONTINUED) Aeronautics and Space

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CHAPTER I—FEDERAL AVIATION ADMINISTRATION, DEPARTMENT OF TRANSPORTATION (CONTINUED) Part Page 60 Flight simulation training device initial and continuing qualification and use 5

61 Certification: Pilots, flight instructors, and ground instructors 459

63 Certification: Flight crewmembers other than pilots 595

65 Certification: Airmen other than flight crewmembers 614

67 Medical standards and certification 637

68 Requirements for operating certain small aircraft without a medical certificate 650

71 Designation of class A, B, C, D, and E airspace areas; air traffic service routes; and reporting points 654

73 Special use airspace 659

75 [Reserved]
77 Safe, efficient use, and preservation of the navigable airspace 661

89 Remote identification of unmanned aircraft 671

91 General operating and flight rules 684

93 Special air traffic rules 851

95 IFR altitudes 885

97 Standard instrument procedures 893

99 Security control of air traffic 896

101 Moored balloons, kites, amateur rockets, and unmanned free balloons 899

103 Ultralight vehicles 905

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105 Parachute operations 907

106 [Reserved]
107 Small unmanned aircraft systems 913

108-109 [Reserved]

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SUBCHAPTER D—AIRMEN  

Pt. 60 PART 60—FLIGHT SIMULATION TRAINING DEVICE INITIAL AND CONTINUING QUALIFICATION AND USE Sec. 60.1 Applicability. 60.2 Applicability of sponsor rules to persons who are not sponsors and who are engaged in certain unauthorized activities. 60.3 Definitions. 60.4 Qualification Performance Standards. 60.5 Quality management system. 60.7 Sponsor qualification requirements. 60.9 Additional responsibilities of the sponsor. 60.11 FSTD use. 60.13 FSTD objective data requirements. 60.14 Special equipment and personnel requirements for qualification of the FSTD. 60.15 Initial qualification requirements. 60.16 Additional qualifications for a currently qualified FSTD. 60.17 Previously qualified FSTDs. 60.19 Inspection, continuing qualification evaluation, and maintenance requirements. 60.20 Logging FSTD discrepancies. 60.21 Interim qualification of FSTDs for new aircraft types or models. 60.23 Modifications to FSTDs. 60.25 Operation with missing, malfunctioning, or inoperative components. 60.27 Automatic loss of qualification and procedures for restoration of qualification. 60.29 Other losses of qualification and procedures for restoration of qualification. 60.31 Recordkeeping and reporting. 60.33 Applications, logbooks, reports, and records: Fraud, falsification, or incorrect statements. 60.35 Specific full flight simulator compliance requirements. 60.37 FSTD qualification on the basis of a Bilateral Aviation Safety Agreement (BASA). Appendix A to Part 60—Qualification Performance Standards for Airplane Full Flight Simulators Appendix B to Part 60—Qualification Performance Standards for Airplane Flight Training Devices Appendix C to Part 60—Qualification Performance Standards for Helicopter Full Flight Simulators Appendix D to Part 60—Qualification Performance Standards for Helicopter Flight Training Devices Appendix E to Part 60—Qualification Performance Standards for Quality Management Systems for Flight Simulation Training Devices Appendix F to Part 60—Definitions and Abbreviations for Flight Simulation Training Devices Authority: 49 U.S.C. 106(f), 106(g), 40113, and 44701; Pub. L. 111-216, 124 Stat. 2348 (49 U.S.C. 44701 note) Source: Docket FAA-2002-12461, 71 FR 63426, Oct. 30, 2006, unless otherwise noted. § 60.1 Applicability. (a) This part prescribes the rules governing the initial and continuing qualification and use of all aircraft flight simulation training devices (FSTD) used for meeting training, evaluation, or flight experience requirements of this chapter for flight crewmember certification or qualification. (b) The rules of this part apply to each person using or applying to use an FSTD to meet any requirement of this chapter. (c) The requirements of § 60.33 regarding falsification of applications, records, or reports also apply to each person who uses an FSTD for training, evaluation, or obtaining flight experience required for flight crewmember certification or qualification under this chapter. Effective Date Note: Amendments to § 60.1 were published by Docket FAA-2023-1275, Amdt. 60-8, 89 FR 92483, Nov. 21, 2024, effective Jan. 21, 2025. § 60.2 Applicability of sponsor rules to persons who are not sponsors and who are engaged in certain unauthorized activities. (a) The rules of this part that are directed to a sponsor of an FSTD also apply to any person who uses or causes the use of an FSTD when— (1) That person knows that the FSTD does not have an FAA-approved sponsor; and (2) The use of the FSTD by that person is nonetheless claimed for purposes of meeting any requirement of this chapter or that person knows or should have known that the person's acts or omissions would cause another person to mistakenly credit use of the FSTD for purposes of meeting any requirement of this chapter.

(b) A situation in which paragraph (a) of this section would not apply to a person would be when each of the following conditions are met: (1) The person sold or leased the FSTD and merely represented to the purchaser or lessee that the FSTD is in a condition in which it should be able to obtain FAA approval and qualification under this part; (2) The person does not falsely claim to be the FAA-approved sponsor for the FSTD; (3) The person does not falsely make representations that someone else is the FAA-approved sponsor of the FSTD at a time when that other person is not the FAA-approved sponsor of the FSTD; and (4) The person's acts or omissions do not cause another person to detrimentally rely on such acts or omissions for the mistaken conclusion that the FSTD is FAA-approved and qualified under this part at the time the FSTD is sold or leased. § 60.3 Definitions. In addition to the definitions in part 1 of this chapter, other terms and definitions applicable to this part are found in appendix F of this part. § 60.4 Qualification Performance Standards. The Qualification Performance Standards (QPS) are published in appendices to this part as follows: (a) Appendix A contains the QPS for Airplane Flight Simulators. (b) Appendix B contains the QPS for Airplane Flight Training Devices. (c) Appendix C contains the QPS for Helicopter Flight Simulators. (d) Appendix D contains the QPS for Helicopter Flight Training Devices. (e) Appendix E contains the QPS for Quality Management Systems for FSTDs. (f) Appendix F contains the QPS for Definitions and Abbreviations for FSTDs. § 60.5 Quality management system. (a) After May 30, 2010, no sponsor may use or allow the use of or offer the use of an FSTD for flight crewmember training or evaluation or for obtaining flight experience to meet any requirement of this chapter unless the sponsor has established and follows a quality management system (QMS), currently approved by the responsible Flight Standards office, for the continuing surveillance and analysis of the sponsor's performance and effectiveness in providing a satisfactory FSTD for use on a regular basis as described in QPS appendix E of this part. (b) The QMS program must provide a process for identifying deficiencies in the program and for documenting how the program will be changed to address these deficiencies. (c) Whenever the responsible Flight Standards office finds that the QMS program does not adequately address the procedures necessary to meet the requirements of this part, the sponsor must, after notification by the responsible Flight Standards office, change the program so the procedures meet the requirements of this part. Each such change must be approved by the responsible Flight Standards office prior to implementation. (d) Within 30 days after the sponsor receives a notice described in paragraph (c) of this section, the sponsor may file a petition with the Executive Director of Flight Standards Service (the Executive Director) for reconsideration of the responsible Flight Standards office finding. The sponsor must address its petition to the Executive Director, Flight Standards Service, Federal Aviation Administration, 800 Independence Ave., SW., Washington, DC 20591. The filing of such a petition to reconsider stays the notice pending a decision by the Executive Director. However, if the Executive Director finds that there is a situation that requires immediate action in the interest of safety in air commerce, he may, upon a statement of the reasons, require a change effective without stay. [Docket FAA-2002-12461, 71 FR 63426, Oct. 30, 2006; Amdt. 60-2, 72 FR 59599, Oct. 22, 2007, as amended by Docket FAA-2018-0119, Amdt. 60-5, 83 FR 9170, Mar. 5, 2018; Docket FAA-2022-1355, Amdt. 60-7, 87 FR 75711, Dec. 9, 2022]

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§ 60.7 Sponsor qualification requirements. (a) A person is eligible to apply to be a sponsor of an FSTD if the following conditions are met: (1) The person holds, or is an applicant for, a certificate under part 119, 141, or 142 of this chapter; or holds, or is an applicant for, an approved flight engineer course in accordance with part 63 of this chapter. (2) The FSTD will be used, or will be offered for use, in the sponsor's FAA-approved flight training program for the aircraft being simulated as evidenced in a request for evaluation submitted to the responsible Flight Standards office. (b) A person is a sponsor if the following conditions are met: (1) The person is a certificate holder under part 119, 141, or 142 of this chapter or has an approved flight engineer course in accordance with part 63 of this chapter. (2) The person has— (i) Operations specifications authorizing the use of the specific aircraft or set of aircraft and has an FAA-approved training program under which at least one FSTD, simulating the aircraft or set of aircraft and for which the person is the sponsor, is used by the sponsor as described in paragraphs (b)(5) or (b)(6) of this section; or (ii) Training specifications or an FAA-approved course of training under which at least one FSTD, simulating that aircraft or set of aircraft and for which the person is the sponsor, is used by the sponsor as described in paragraphs (b)(5) or (b)(6) of this section. (3) The person has a quality management system currently approved by the responsible Flight Standards office in accordance with § 60.5. (4) The responsible Flight Standards office has accepted the person as the sponsor of the FSTD and that acceptance has not been withdrawn by the FAA. (5) At least one FSTD (as referenced in paragraph (b)(2)(i) or (b)(2)(ii) of this section) that is initially qualified on or after May 30, 2008, is used within the sponsor's FAA-approved flight training program for the aircraft or set of aircraft at least once within the 12-month period following the initial/upgrade evaluation, and at least once within each subsequent 12-month period thereafter. (6) At least one FSTD (as referenced in paragraph (b)(2)(i) or (b)(2)(ii) of this section) that was qualified before May 30, 2008, is used within the sponsor's FAA-approved flight training program for the aircraft or set of aircraft at least once within the 12-month period following the first continuing qualification evaluation conducted by the responsible Flight Standards office after May 30, 2008 and at least once within each subsequent 12-month period thereafter. (c) If the use requirements of paragraphs (b)(2) and either (b)(5) or (b)(6) of this section are not met, the person will forfeit the right to sponsor that FSTD and that person will not be eligible to apply to sponsor that FSTD for at least 12 calendar months following the expiration of the qualification status. (d) In addition to the FSTD described in paragraph (b) of this section, an FSTD sponsor may sponsor any number of other FSTDs regardless of specific aircraft or set of aircraft provided either— (1) During the preceding 12-month period, all of the other FSTDs are used within the sponsor's or another certificate holder's FAA-approved flight training program for the aircraft or set of aircraft simulated; or (2) The sponsor obtains a written statement at least annually from a qualified pilot who has flown the aircraft or set of aircraft (as appropriate) during the preceding 12-month period stating that the subject FSTD's performance and handling qualities, within the normal operating envelope, represent the aircraft or set of aircraft described in the FAA Type Certificate and the type data sheet, if appropriate. The sponsor must retain the two most current written statements for review by the responsible Flight Standards office. [Docket FAA-2002-12461, 71 FR 63426, Oct. 30, 2006; Amdt. 60-2, 72 FR 59599, Oct. 22, 2007, as amended by Docket FAA-2022-1355, Amdt. 60-7, 87 FR 75711, Dec. 9, 2022]

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§ 60.9 Additional responsibilities of the sponsor. (a) The sponsor must allow the responsible Flight Standards office upon request to inspect the FSTD as soon as practicable. This inspection may include all records and documents relating to the FSTD, to determine its compliance with this part. (b) The sponsor must do the following for each FSTD: (1) Establish a mechanism to receive written comments regarding the FSTD and its operation in accordance with the QPS appendix E of this part. (2) Post in or adjacent to the FSTD the Statement of Qualification issued by the responsible Flight Standards office. An electronic copy of the Statement of Qualification that may be accessed by an appropriate terminal or display in or adjacent to the FSTD is satisfactory. (c) Each sponsor of an FSTD must identify to the responsible Flight Standards office by name, one individual to be the management representative (MR). (1) One person may serve as an MR for more than one FSTD, but one FSTD must not have more than one person serving in this capacity. (2) Each MR must be an employee of the sponsor with the responsibility and authority to— (i) Monitor the on-going qualification of assigned FSTDs to ensure that all matters regarding FSTD qualification are being carried out as provided for in this part; (ii) Ensure that the QMS is properly established, implemented, and maintained by overseeing the structure (and modifying where necessary) of the QMS policies, practices, and procedures; and (iii) Regularly brief sponsor's management on the status of the on-going FSTD qualification program and the effectiveness and efficiency of the QMS. (3) The MR serves as the primary contact point for all matters between the sponsor and the responsible Flight Standards office regarding the qualification of that FSTD as provided for in this part. (4) The MR may delegate the duties described in paragraph (c)(2) and (c)(3) of this section to an individual at each of the sponsor's locations. [Docket FAA-2002-12461, 71 FR 63426, Oct. 30, 2006, as amended by Docket FAA-2022-1355, Amdt. 60-7, 87 FR 75711, Dec. 9, 2022] § 60.11 FSTD use. No person may use or allow the use of or offer the use of an FSTD for flight crewmember training or evaluation or for obtaining flight experience to meet any of the requirements under this chapter unless, in accordance with the QPS for the specific device, the FSTD meets all of the following: (a) Has a single sponsor who is qualified under § 60.7. The sponsor may arrange with another person for services of document preparation and presentation, as well as FSTD inspection, maintenance, repair, and servicing; however, the sponsor remains responsible for ensuring that these functions are conducted in a manner and with a result of continually meeting the requirements of this part. (b) Is qualified as described in the Statement of Qualification. (c) Remains qualified, through satisfactory inspection, continuing qualification evaluations, appropriate maintenance, and use requirements in accordance with this part and the applicable QPS. (d) Functions during day-to-day training, evaluation, or flight experience activities with the software and hardware that was evaluated as satisfactory by the responsible Flight Standards office and, if modified, modified only in accordance with the provisions of this part. However, this section does not apply to routine software or hardware changes that do not fall under the requirements of § 60.23. (e) Is operated in accordance with the provisions and limitations of § 60.25. [Docket FAA-2002-12461, 71 FR 63426, Oct. 30, 2006, as amended by Docket FAA-2022-1355, Amdt. 60-7, 87 FR 75711, Dec. 9, 2022] § 60.13 FSTD objective data requirements. (a) Except as provided in paragraph (b) and (c) of this section, for the purposes of validating FSTD performance and handling qualities during evaluation for qualification, the data made available to the responsible Flight Standards office (the validation data package) must include the aircraft manufacturer's flight test data and all relevant data developed after the type certificate was issued ( e.g. , data developed in response to an airworthiness directive) if such data results from a change in performance, handling qualities, functions, or other characteristics of the aircraft that must be considered for flight crewmember training, evaluation, or for meeting experience requirements of this chapter.

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(b) The validation data package may contain flight test data from a source in addition to or independent of the aircraft manufacturer's data in support of an FSTD qualification, but only if this data is gathered and developed by that source in accordance with flight test methods, including a flight test plan, as described in the applicable QPS. (c) The validation data package may also contain predicted data, engineering simulation data, data from pilot owner or pilot operating manuals, or data from public domain sources, provided this data is acceptable to the responsible Flight Standards office. If found acceptable the data may then be used in particular applications for FSTD qualification. (d) Data or other material or elements must be submitted in a form and manner acceptable to the responsible Flight Standards office. (e) The responsible Flight Standards office may require additional objective data, which may include flight testing if necessary, if the validation data package does not support FSTD qualification requirements as described in this part and the applicable QPS appendix. (f) When an FSTD sponsor learns, or is advised by an aircraft manufacturer or other data provider, that an addition to, an amendment to, or a revision of data that may relate to FSTD performance or handling characteristics is available, the sponsor must notify the responsible Flight Standards office as described in the applicable QPS. [Docket FAA-2002-12461, 71 FR 63426, Oct. 30, 2006, as amended by Docket FAA-2022-1355, Amdt. 60-7, 87 FR 75711, Dec. 9, 2022] § 60.14 Special equipment and personnel requirements for qualification of the FSTD. When notified by the responsible Flight Standards office, the sponsor must make available all special equipment and qualified personnel needed to accomplish or assist in the accomplishment of tests during initial qualification, continuing qualification, or special evaluations. [Docket FAA-2002-12461, 71 FR 63426, Oct. 30, 2006, as amended by Docket FAA-2022-1355, Amdt. 60-7, 87 FR 75711, Dec. 9, 2022] § 60.15 Initial qualification requirements. (a) For each FSTD, the sponsor must submit a request to the responsible Flight Standards office to evaluate the FSTD for initial qualification at a specific level and simultaneously request the Training Program Approval Authority (TPAA) forward a concurring letter to the responsible Flight Standards office. The request must be submitted in the form and manner described in the applicable QPS. (b) The management representative described in § 60.9(c) must sign a statement (electronic signature is acceptable for electronic transmissions) after confirming the following: (1) The performance and handling qualities of the FSTD represent those of the aircraft or set of aircraft within the normal operating envelope. This determination must be made by a pilot(s) meeting the requirements of paragraph (d) of this section after having flown all of the Operations Tasks listed in the applicable QPS appendix relevant to the qualification level of the FSTD. Exceptions, if any, must be noted. The name of the person(s) making this determination must be available to the responsible Flight Standards office upon request. (2) The FSTD systems and sub-systems (including the simulated aircraft systems) functionally represent those in the aircraft or set of aircraft. This determination must be made by the pilot(s) described in paragraph (b)(1) of this section, or by a person(s) trained on simulator systems/sub-systems and trained on the operation of the simulated aircraft systems, after having exercised the operation of the FSTD and the pertinent functions available through the Instructor Operating Station(s). Exceptions, if any, must be noted. The name of the person(s) making this determination must be available to the responsible Flight Standards office upon request.

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(3) The cockpit represents the configuration of the specific type; or aircraft make, model, and series aircraft being simulated, as appropriate. This determination must be made by the pilot(s) described in paragraph (b)(1) of this section, or by a person(s) trained on the configuration and operation of the aircraft simulated. Exceptions, if any, must be noted. The name of the person(s) making this determination must be available to the responsible Flight Standards office upon request. (c) Except for those FSTDs previously qualified and described in § 60.17, each FSTD evaluated for initial qualification must meet the standard that is in effect at the time of the evaluation. However— (1) If the FAA publishes a change to the existing standard or publishes a new standard for the evaluation for initial qualification, a sponsor may request that the responsible Flight Standards office apply the standard that was in effect when an FSTD was ordered for delivery if the sponsor— (i) Within 30 days of the publication of the change to the existing standard or publication of the new standard, notifies the responsible Flight Standards office that an FSTD has been ordered; (ii) Within 90 days of the responsible Flight Standards office notification described in paragraph (c)(1)(i) of this section, requests that the standard in effect at the time the order was placed be used for the evaluation for initial qualification; and (iii) The evaluation is conducted within 24 months following the publication of the change to the existing standard or publication of the new standard. (2) This notification must include a description of the FSTD; the anticipated qualification level of the FSTD; the make, model, and series of aircraft simulated; and any other pertinent information. (3) Any tests, tolerances, or other requirements that are current at the time of the evaluation may be used during the initial evaluation, at the request of the sponsor, if the sponsor provides acceptable updates to the required qualification test guide. (4) The standards used for the evaluation for initial qualification will be used for all subsequent evaluations of the FSTD. (5) An FSTD sponsor or FSTD manufacturer may submit a request to the Administrator for approval of a deviation from the QPS requirements as defined in Appendix A through Appendix D of this part. (i) Requests for deviation must be submitted in a form and manner acceptable to the Administrator and must provide sufficient justification that the deviation meets or exceeds the testing requirements and tolerances as specified in the part 60 QPS or will otherwise not adversely affect the fidelity and capability of the FSTDs evaluated and qualified under the deviation. (ii) The Administrator may consider deviation from the minimum requirements tables, the objective testing tables, the functions and subjective testing tables, and other supporting tables and requirements in the part 60 QPS. (iii) Deviations may be issued to an FSTD manufacturer for the initial qualification of multiple FSTDs, subject to terms and limitations as determined by Administrator. Approved deviations will become a part of the permanent qualification basis of the individual FSTD and will be noted in the FSTD's Statement of Qualification. (iv) If the FAA publishes a change to the existing part 60 standards as described in paragraph (c)(1) of this section or issues an FSTD Directive as described in § 60.23(b), which conflicts with or supersedes an approved deviation, the Administrator may terminate or revise a grant of deviation authority issued under this paragraph. (d) The pilot(s) who contributes to the confirmation statement required by paragraph (b) of this section must— (1) Be designated by the sponsor; and (2) Be qualified in— (i) The aircraft or set of aircraft being simulated; or (ii) For aircraft not yet issued a type certificate, or aircraft not previously operated by the sponsor or not having previous FAA-approved training programs conducted by the sponsor, an aircraft similar in size and configuration.

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(e) The subjective tests that form the basis for the statements described in paragraph (b) of this section and the objective tests referenced in paragraph (f) of this section must be accomplished at the sponsor's training facility or other sponsor designated location where training will take place, except as provided for in the applicable QPS. (f) The person seeking to qualify the FSTD must provide the responsible Flight Standards office access to the FSTD for the length of time necessary for the responsible Flight Standards office to complete the required evaluation of the FSTD for initial qualification, which includes the conduct and evaluation of objective and subjective tests, including general FSTD requirements, as described in the applicable QPS, to determine that the FSTD meets the standards in that QPS. (g) When the FSTD passes an evaluation for initial qualification, the responsible Flight Standards office issues a Statement of Qualification that includes all of the following: (1) Identification of the sponsor. (2) Identification of the make, model, and series of the aircraft or set of aircraft being simulated. (3) Identification of the configuration of the aircraft or set of aircraft being simulated ( e.g. , engine model or models, flight instruments, or navigation or other systems). (4) A statement that the FSTD is qualified as either a full flight simulator or a flight training device. (5) Identification of the qualification level of the FSTD. (6) A statement that (with the exception of the noted exclusions for which the FSTD has not been subjectively tested by the sponsor or the responsible Flight Standards office and for which qualification is not sought) the qualification of the FSTD includes the tasks set out in the applicable QPS appendix relevant to the qualification level of the FSTD. (7) A statement referencing any deviations that have been granted and included in the permanent qualification basis of the FSTD. (h) After the responsible Flight Standards office completes the evaluation for initial qualification, the sponsor must update the Qualification Test Guide (QTG), with the results of the FAA-witnessed tests together with the results of all the objective tests described in the applicable QPS. (i) Upon issuance of the Statement of Qualification the updated QTG becomes the Master Qualification Test Guide (MQTG). The MQTG must be made available to the responsible Flight Standards office upon request. [Docket FAA-2002-12461, 71 FR 63426, Oct. 30, 2006, as amended by Docket FAA-2014-0391, Amdt. 60-4, 81 FR 18217, Mar. 30, 2016; Docket FAA-2022-1355, Amdt. 60-7, 87 FR 75711, Dec. 9, 2022] § 60.16 Additional qualifications for a currently qualified FSTD. (a) A currently qualified FSTD is required to undergo an additional qualification process if a user intends to use the FSTD for meeting training, evaluation, or flight experience requirements of this chapter beyond the qualification issued for that FSTD. This process consists of the following: (1) The sponsor: (i) Must submit to the responsible Flight Standards office all modifications to the MQTG that are required to support the additional qualification. (ii) Must describe to the responsible Flight Standards office all modifications to the FSTD that are required to support the additional qualification. (iii) Must submit to the responsible Flight Standards office a confirmation statement as described in § 60.15(c) that a pilot, designated by the sponsor in accordance with § 60.15(d), has subjectively evaluated the FSTD in those areas not previously evaluated. (2) The FSTD must successfully pass an evaluation— (i) Consisting of all the elements of an initial evaluation for qualification in those circumstances where the responsible Flight Standards office has determined that all the elements of an initial evaluation for qualification is necessary; or (ii) Consisting of those elements of an initial evaluation for qualification designated as necessary by the responsible Flight Standards office.

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(b) In making the determinations described in paragraph (a)(2) of this section, the responsible Flight Standards office considers factors including the existing qualification of the FSTD, any modifications to the FSTD hardware or software that are involved, and any additions or modifications to the MQTG. (c) The FSTD is qualified for the additional uses when the responsible Flight Standards office issues an amended Statement of Qualification in accordance with § 60.15(h). (d) The sponsor may not modify the FSTD except as described in § 60.23. [Docket FAA-2002-12461, 71 FR 63426, Oct. 30, 2006, as amended by Docket FAA-2022-1355, Amdt. 60-7, 87 FR 75711, Dec. 9, 2022] § 60.17 Previously qualified FSTDs. (a) Unless otherwise specified by an FSTD Directive, further referenced in the applicable QPS, or as specified in paragraph (e) of this section, an FSTD qualified before May 31, 2016 will retain its qualification basis as long as it continues to meet the standards, including the objective test results recorded in the MQTG and subjective tests, under which it was originally evaluated, regardless of sponsor. The sponsor of such an FSTD must comply with the other applicable provisions of this part. (b) For each FSTD qualified before May 30, 2008, no sponsor may use or allow the use of or offer the use of such an FSTD after May 30, 2014 for flight crewmember training, evaluation or flight experience to meet any of the requirements of this chapter, unless that FSTD has been issued a Statement of Qualification, including the Configuration List and the List of Qualified Tasks in accordance with the procedures set out in the applicable QPS. (c) If the FSTD qualification is lost under § 60.27 and— (i) Restored under § 60.27 in less than (2) years, then the qualification basis (in terms of objective tests and subjective tests) for the re-qualification will be those against which the FSTD was originally evaluated and qualified. (ii) Not restored under § 60.27 for two (2) years or more, then the qualification basis (in terms of objective tests and subjective tests) for the re-qualification will be those standards in effect and current at the time of re-qualification application. (d) Except as provided in paragraph (e) of this section, any change in FSTD qualification level initiated on or after May 30, 2008 requires an evaluation for initial qualification in accordance with this part. (e) A sponsor may request that an FSTD be permanently downgraded. In such a case, the responsible Flight Standards office may downgrade a qualified FSTD without requiring and without conducting an initial evaluation for the new qualification level. Subsequent continuing qualification evaluations will use the existing MQTG, modified as necessary to reflect the new qualification level. (f) When the sponsor has appropriate validation data available and receives approval from the responsible Flight Standards office, the sponsor may adopt tests and associated tolerances described in the current qualification standards as the tests and tolerances applicable for the continuing qualification of a previously qualified FSTD. The updated test(s) and tolerance(s) must be made a permanent part of the MQTG. [Docket FAA-2002-12461, 71 FR 63426, Oct. 30, 2006; Amdt. 60-2, 72 FR 59599, Oct. 22, 2007, as amended by Docket FAA-2014-0391, Amdt. 60-4, 81 FR 18218, Mar. 30, 2016; Docket FAA-2022-1355, Amdt. 60-7, 87 FR 75711, Dec. 9, 2022] § 60.19 Inspection, continuing qualification evaluation, and maintenance requirements. (a) Inspection. No sponsor may use or allow the use of or offer the use of an FSTD for flight crewmember training, evaluation, or flight experience to meet any of the requirements of this chapter unless the sponsor does the following: (1) Accomplishes all appropriate objective tests each year as specified in the applicable QPS. (2) Completes a functional preflight check within the preceding 24 hours. (b) Continuing qualification evaluation. (1) This evaluation consists of objective tests, and subjective tests, including general FSTD requirements, as described in the applicable QPS or as may be amended by an FSTD Directive.

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(2) The sponsor must contact the responsible Flight Standards office to schedule the FSTD for continuing qualification evaluations not later than 60 days before the evaluation is due. (3) The sponsor must provide the responsible Flight Standards office responsible Flight Standards office access to the objective test results in the MQTG and access to the FSTD for the length of time necessary for the responsible Flight Standards office to complete the required continuing qualification evaluations. (4) The frequency of the responsible Flight Standards office-conducted continuing qualification evaluations for each FSTD will be established by the responsible Flight Standards office and specified in the Statement of Qualification. (5) Continuing qualification evaluations conducted in the 3 calendar months before or after the calendar month in which these continuing qualification evaluations are required will be considered to have been conducted in the calendar month in which they were required. (6) No sponsor may use or allow the use of or offer the use of an FSTD for flight crewmember training or evaluation or for obtaining flight experience for the flight crewmember to meet any requirement of this chapter unless the FSTD has passed a responsible Flight Standards office-conducted continuing qualification evaluation within the time frame specified in the Statement of Qualification or within the grace period as described in paragraph (b)(5) of this section. (c) Maintenance. The sponsor is responsible for continuing corrective and preventive maintenance on the FSTD to ensure that it continues to meet the requirements of this part and the applicable QPS appendix. No sponsor may use or allow the use of or offer the use of an FSTD for flight crewmember training, evaluation, or flight experience to meet any of the requirements of this chapter unless the sponsor does the following: (1) Maintains a discrepancy log. (2) Ensures that, when a discrepancy is discovered, the following requirements are met: (i) A description of each discrepancy is entered in the log and remains in the log until the discrepancy is corrected as specified in § 60.25(b). (ii) A description of the corrective action taken for each discrepancy, the identity of the individual taking the action, and the date that action is taken is entered in the log. (iii) The discrepancy log is kept in a form and manner acceptable to the Administrator and is kept in or adjacent to the FSTD. An electronic log that may be accessed by an appropriate terminal or display in or adjacent to the FSTD is satisfactory. [Docket FAA-2002-12461, 71 FR 63426, Oct. 30, 2006, as amended by Docket FAA-2014-0391, Amdt. 60-4, 81 FR 18218, Mar. 30, 2016; Docket FAA-2022-1355, Amdt. 60-7, 87 FR 75711, Dec. 9, 2022] § 60.20 Logging FSTD discrepancies. Each instructor, check airman, or representative of the Administrator conducting training, evaluation, or flight experience, and each person conducting the preflight inspection who discovers a discrepancy, including any missing, malfunctioning, or inoperative components in the FSTD, must write or cause to be written a description of that discrepancy into the discrepancy log at the end of the FSTD preflight or FSTD use session. § 60.21 Interim qualification of FSTDs for new aircraft types or models. (a) A sponsor may apply for and the responsible Flight Standards office may issue an interim qualification level for an FSTD for a new type or model of aircraft, even though the aircraft manufacturer's aircraft data package is preliminary, if the sponsor provides the following to the satisfaction of the responsible Flight Standards office— (1) The aircraft manufacturer's data, which consists of at least predicted data, validated by a limited set of flight test data; (2) The aircraft manufacturer's description of the prediction methodology used to develop the predicted data; and

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(3) The QTG test results. (b) An FSTD that has been issued interim qualification is deemed to have been issued initial qualification unless the responsible Flight Standards office rescinds the qualification. Interim qualification terminates two years after its issuance, unless the responsible Flight Standards office determines that specific conditions warrant otherwise. (c) Within twelve months of the release of the final aircraft data package by the aircraft manufacturer, but no later than two years after the issuance of the interim qualification status, the sponsor must apply for initial qualification in accordance with § 60.15 based on the final aircraft data package approved by the aircraft manufacturer, unless the responsible Flight Standards office determines that specific conditions warrant otherwise. (d) An FSTD with interim qualification may be modified only in accordance with § 60.23. [Docket FAA-2002-12461, 71 FR 63426, Oct. 30, 2006, as amended by Docket FAA-2022-1355, Amdt. 60-7, 87 FR 75711, Dec. 9, 2022] § 60.23 Modifications to FSTDs. (a) Description of a modification. For the purposes of this part, an FSTD is said to have been modified when: (1) Equipment or devices intended to simulate aircraft appliances are added to or removed from FSTD, which change the Statement of Qualification or the MQTG; or (2) Changes are made to either software or hardware that are intended to impact flight or ground dynamics; changes are made that impact performance or handling characteristics of the FSTD (including motion, visual, control loading, or sound systems for those FSTD levels requiring sound tests and measurements); or changes are made to the MQTG. Changes to the MQTG which do not affect required objective testing results or validation data approved during the initial evaluation of the FSTD are not considered modifications under this section. (b) FSTD Directive. When the FAA determines that FSTD modification is necessary for safety of flight reasons, the sponsor of each affected FSTD must ensure that the FSTD is modified according to the FSTD Directive regardless of the original qualification standards applicable to any specific FSTD. (c) Using the modified FSTD. The sponsor may not use, or allow the use of, or offer the use of, the FSTD with the proposed modification for flight crewmember training or evaluation or for obtaining flight experience for the flight crewmember to meet any requirement of this chapter unless: (1) The sponsor has notified the responsible Flight Standards office and the TPAA of their intent to incorporate the proposed modification, and one of the following has occurred; (i) Twenty-one days have passed since the sponsor notified the responsible Flight Standards office and the TPAA of the proposed modification and the sponsor has not received any response from either the responsible Flight Standards office or the TPAA; (ii) Twenty-one days have passed since the sponsor notified the responsible Flight Standards office and the TPAA of the proposed modification and one has approved the proposed modification and the other has not responded; (iii) Fewer than twenty-one days have passed since the sponsor notified the responsible Flight Standards office and the TPAA of the proposed modification and the responsible Flight Standards office and TPAA both approve the proposed modification; (iv) The sponsor has successfully completed any evaluation the responsible Flight Standards office may require in accordance with the standards for an evaluation for initial qualification or any part thereof before the modified FSTD is placed in service. (2) The notification is submitted with the content as, and in a form and manner as, specified in the applicable QPS. (d) User notification. When a modification is made to an FSTD that affects the Statement of Qualification, the sponsor must post an addendum to the Statement of Qualification until such time as a permanent, updated statement is posted. (e) MQTG update. The MQTG must be updated with current objective test results in accordance with § 60.15(h) and (i) and appropriate objective data in accordance with § 60.13, each time an FSTD is modified and an objective test or other MQTG section is affected by the modification. If an FSTD Directive is the cause of this update, the direction to make the modification and the record of the modification completion must be filed in the MQTG.

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[Docket FAA-2002-12461, 71 FR 63426, Oct. 30, 2006, as amended by Docket FAA-2014-0391, Amdt. 60-4, 81 FR 18218, Mar. 30, 2016; Docket FAA-2022-1355, Amdt. 60-7, 87 FR 75711, Dec. 9, 2022] § 60.25 Operation with missing, malfunctioning, or inoperative components. (a) No person may knowingly use or allow the use of or misrepresent the capability of an FSTD for any maneuver, procedure, or task that is to be accomplished to meet training, evaluation, or flight experience requirements of this chapter for flight crewmember certification or qualification when there is a missing, malfunctioning, or inoperative (MMI) component that is required to be present and correctly operate for the satisfactory completion of that maneuver, procedure, or task. (b) Each MMI component as described in paragraph (a) of this section, or any MMI component installed and required to operate correctly to meet the current Statement of Qualification, must be repaired or replaced within 30 calendar days, unless otherwise required or authorized by the responsible Flight Standards office. (c) A list of the current MMI components must be readily available in or adjacent to the FSTD for review by users of the device. Electronic access to this list via an appropriate terminal or display in or adjacent to the FSTD is satisfactory. The discrepancy log may be used to satisfy this requirement provided each currently MMI component is listed in the discrepancy log. [Docket FAA-2002-12461, 71 FR 63426, Oct. 30, 2006, as amended by Docket FAA-2022-1355, Amdt. 60-7, 87 FR 75711, Dec. 9, 2022] § 60.27 Automatic loss of qualification and procedures for restoration of qualification. (a) An FSTD qualification is automatically lost when any of the following occurs: (1) The FSTD is not used in the sponsor's FAA-approved flight training program in accordance with § 60.7(b)(5) or (b)(6) and the sponsor does not obtain and maintain the written statement as described in § 60.7(d)(2). (2) The FSTD is not inspected in accordance with § 60.19. (3) The FSTD is physically moved from one location and installed in a different location, regardless of distance. (4) The MQTG is missing or otherwise not available and a replacement is not made within 30 days. (b) If FSTD qualification is lost under paragraph (a) of this section, qualification is restored when either of the following provisions is met: (1) The FSTD successfully passes an evaluation: (i) For initial qualification, in accordance with §§ 60.15 and 60.17(c) in those circumstances where the responsible Flight Standards office has determined that a full evaluation for initial qualification is necessary; or (ii) For those elements of an evaluation for initial qualification, in accordance with §§ 60.15 and 60.17(c), as determined to be necessary by the responsible Flight Standards office. (2) The responsible Flight Standards office advises the sponsor that an evaluation is not necessary. (c) In making the determinations described in paragraph (b) of this section, the responsible Flight Standards office considers factors including the number of continuing qualification evaluations missed, the number of sponsor-conducted quarterly inspections missed, and the care that had been taken of the device since the last evaluation. [Docket FAA-2002-12461, 71 FR 63426, Oct. 30, 2006, as amended by Docket FAA-2022-1355, Amdt. 60-7, 87 FR 75711, Dec. 9, 2022] § 60.29 Other losses of qualification and procedures for restoration of qualification. (a) Except as provided in paragraph (c) of this section, when the responsible Flight Standards office determines that the FSTD no longer meets qualification standards, the following procedure applies:

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(1) The responsible Flight Standards office notifies the sponsor in writing that the FSTD no longer meets some or all of its qualification standards. (2) The responsible Flight Standards office sets a reasonable period (but not less than 7 days) within which the sponsor may submit written information, views, and arguments on the FSTD qualification. (3) After considering all material presented, the responsible Flight Standards office notifies the sponsor about the determination with regard to the qualification of the FSTD. (4) When the responsible Flight Standards office notifies the sponsor that some or all of the FSTD is no longer qualified, the action described in the notification becomes effective not less than 30 days after the sponsor receives that notice unless— (i) The responsible Flight Standards office finds under paragraph (c) of this section that there is an emergency requiring immediate action with respect to safety in air commerce; or (ii) The sponsor petitions the Executive Director of Flight Standards Service for reconsideration of the responsible Flight Standards office finding under paragraph (b) of this section. (b) When a sponsor seeks reconsideration of a decision from the responsible Flight Standards office concerning the FSTD qualification, the following procedure applies: (1) The sponsor must petition for reconsideration of that decision within 30 days of the date that the sponsor receives a notice that some or all of the FSTD is no longer qualified. (2) The sponsor must address its petition to the Executive Director, Flight Standards Service, Federal Aviation Administration, 800 Independence Ave., SW., Washington, DC 20591. (3) A petition for reconsideration, if filed within the 30-day period, suspends the effectiveness of the determination by the responsible Flight Standards office that the FSTD is no longer qualified unless the responsible Flight Standards office has found, under paragraph (c) of this section, that an emergency exists requiring immediate action with respect to safety in air commerce. (c) If the responsible Flight Standards office find that an emergency exists requiring immediate action with respect to safety in air commerce that makes the procedures set out in this section impracticable or contrary to the public interest: (1) The responsible Flight Standards office withdraws qualification of some or all of the FSTD and makes the withdrawal of qualification effective on the day the sponsor receives notice of it. (2) In the notice to the sponsor, the responsible Flight Standards office articulates the reasons for its finding that an emergency exists requiring immediate action with respect to safety in air transportation or air commerce or that makes it impracticable or contrary to the public interest to stay the effectiveness of the finding. (d) FSTD qualification lost under paragraph (a) or (c) of this section may be restored when either of the following provisions are met: (1) The FSTD successfully passes an evaluation for initial qualification, in accordance with §§ 60.15 and 60.17(c) in those circumstances where the responsible Flight Standards office has determined that a full evaluation for initial qualification is necessary; or (2) The FSTD successfully passes an evaluation for those elements of an initial qualification evaluation, in accordance with §§ 60.15 and 60.17(c), as determined to be necessary by the responsible Flight Standards office. (e) In making the determinations described in paragraph (d) of this section, the responsible Flight Standards office considers factors including the reason for the loss of qualification, any repairs or replacements that may have to have been completed, the number of continuing qualification evaluations missed, the number of sponsor-conducted quarterly inspections missed, and the care that had been taken of the device since the loss of qualification. [Docket FAA-2002-12461, 71 FR 63426, Oct. 30, 2006, as amended by Docket FAA-2018-0119, Amdt. 60-5, 83 FR 9170, Mar. 5, 2018; Docket FAA-2022-1355, Amdt. 60-7, 87 FR 75711, Dec. 9, 2022]

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§ 60.31 Recordkeeping and reporting. (a) The FSTD sponsor must maintain the following records for each FSTD it sponsors: (1) The MQTG and each amendment thereto. (2) A record of all FSTD modifications affected under § 60.23 since the issuance of the original Statement of Qualification. (3) A copy of all of the following: (i) Results of the qualification evaluations (initial and each upgrade) since the issuance of the original Statement of Qualification. (ii) Results of the objective tests conducted in accordance with § 60.19(a) for a period of 2 years. (iii) Results of the previous three continuing qualification evaluations, or the continuing qualification evaluations from the previous 2 years, whichever covers a longer period. (iv) Comments obtained in accordance with § 60.9(b) for a period of at least 90 days. (4) A record of all discrepancies entered in the discrepancy log over the previous 2 years, including the following: (i) A list of the components or equipment that were or are missing, malfunctioning, or inoperative. (ii) The action taken to correct the discrepancy. (iii) The date the corrective action was taken. (iv) The identity of the person determining that the discrepancy has been corrected. (b) The records specified in this section must be maintained in plain language form or in coded form if the coded form provides for the preservation and retrieval of information in a manner acceptable to the responsible Flight Standards office. [Docket FAA-2002-12461, 71 FR 63426, Oct. 30, 2006, as amended by Docket FAA-2022-1355, Amdt. 60-7, 87 FR 75711, Dec. 9, 2022] § 60.33 Applications, logbooks, reports, and records: Fraud, falsification, or incorrect statements. (a) No person may make, or cause to be made, any of the following: (1) A fraudulent or intentionally false statement in any application or any amendment thereto, or any other report or test result required by this part. (2) A fraudulent or intentionally false statement in or a known omission from any record or report that is kept, made, or used to show compliance with this part, or to exercise any privileges under this chapter. (3) Any reproduction or alteration, for fraudulent purpose, of any report, record, or test result required under this part. (b) The commission by any person of any act prohibited under paragraph (a) of this section is a basis for any one or any combination of the following: (1) A civil penalty. (2) Suspension or revocation of any certificate held by that person that was issued under this chapter. (3) The removal of FSTD qualification and approval for use in a training program. (c) The following may serve as a basis for removal of qualification of an FSTD including the withdrawal of approval for use of an FSTD; or denying an application for a qualification: (1) An incorrect statement, upon which the FAA relied or could have relied, made in support of an application for a qualification or a request for approval for use. (2) An incorrect entry, upon which the FAA relied or could have relied, made in any logbook, record, or report that is kept, made, or used to show compliance with any requirement for an FSTD qualification or an approval for use. § 60.35 Specific full flight simulator compliance requirements. (a) No device will be eligible for initial or upgrade qualification to a FFS at Level C or Level D under this part unless it includes the equipment and appliances installed and operating to the extent necessary for the issuance of an airman certificate or rating. (b) No device will be eligible for initial or upgrade qualification to a FFS at Level A or Level B under this part unless it includes the equipment and appliances installed and operating to the extent necessary for the training, testing, and/or checking that comprise the simulation portion of the requirements for issuance of an airman certificate or rating.

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§ 60.37 FSTD qualification on the basis of a Bilateral Aviation Safety Agreement (BASA). (a) The evaluation and qualification of an FSTD by a contracting State to the Convention on International Civil Aviation for the sponsor of an FSTD located in that contracting State may be used as the basis for issuing a U.S. statement of qualification (see applicable QPS, attachment 4, figure 4) by the responsible Flight Standards office to the sponsor of that FSTD in accordance with— (1) A BASA between the United States and the Contracting State that issued the original qualification; and (2) A Simulator Implementation Procedure (SIP) established under the BASA. (b) The SIP must contain any conditions and limitations on validation and issuance of such qualification by the U.S. [Docket FAA-2002-12461, 71 FR 63426, Oct. 30, 2006, as amended by Docket FAA-2022-1355, Amdt. 60-7, 87 FR 75711, Dec. 9, 2022]   Pt. 60, App. A Appendix A to Part 60—Qualification Performance Standards for Airplane Full Flight Simulators Begin Information This appendix establishes the standards for Airplane FFS evaluation and qualification. The Flight Standards Service is responsible for the development, application, and implementation of the standards contained within this appendix. The procedures and criteria specified in this appendix will be used by the responsible Flight Standards office, when conducting airplane FFS evaluations. Table of Contents 1. Introduction. 2. Applicability (§§ 60.1 and 60.2). 3. Definitions (§ 60.3). 4. Qualification Performance Standards (§ 60.4). 5. Quality Management System (§ 60.5). 6. Sponsor Qualification Requirements (§ 60.7). 7. Additional Responsibilities of the Sponsor (§ 60.9). 8. FFS Use (§ 60.11). 9. FFS Objective Data Requirements (§ 60.13). 10. Special Equipment and Personnel Requirements for Qualification of the FFS (§ 60.14). 11. Initial (and Upgrade) Qualification Requirements (§ 60.15). 12. Additional Qualifications for a Currently Qualified FFS (§ 60.16). 13. Previously Qualified FFSs (§ 60.17). 14. Inspection, Continuing Qualification Evaluation, and Maintenance Requirements (§ 60.19). 15. Logging FFS Discrepancies (§ 60.20). 16. Interim Qualification of FFSs for New Airplane Types or Models (§ 60.21). 17. Modifications to FFSs (§ 60.23). 18. Operations With Missing, Malfunctioning, or Inoperative Components (§ 60.25). 19. Automatic Loss of Qualification and Procedures for Restoration of Qualification (§ 60.27). 20. Other Losses of Qualification and Procedures for Restoration of Qualification (§ 60.29). 21. Record Keeping and Reporting (§ 60.31). 22. Applications, Logbooks, Reports, and Records: Fraud, Falsification, or Incorrect Statements (§ 60.33). 23. Specific FFS Compliance Requirements (§ 60.35). 24. [Reserved] 25. FFS Qualification on the Basis of a Bilateral Aviation Safety Agreement (BASA) (§ 60.37). Attachment 1 to Appendix A to Part 60—General Simulator Requirements. Attachment 2 to Appendix A to Part 60—FFS Objective Tests. Attachment 3 to Appendix A to Part 60—Simulator Subjective Evaluation. Attachment 4 to Appendix A to Part 60—Sample Documents. Attachment 5 to Appendix A to Part 60—Simulator Qualification Requirements for Windshear Training Program Use. Attachment 6 to Appendix A to Part 60—FSTD Directives Applicable to Airplane Flight Simulators. End Information 1. Introduction Begin Information a. This appendix contains background information as well as regulatory and informative material as described later in this section. To assist the reader in determining what areas are required and what areas are permissive, the text in this appendix is divided into two sections: “QPS Requirements” and “Information.” The QPS Requirements sections contain details regarding compliance with the part 60 rule language. These details are regulatory, but are found only in this appendix. The Information sections contain material that is advisory in nature, and designed to give the user general information about the regulation.

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b. [Reserved] c. The responsible Flight Standards office encourages the use of electronic media for all communication, including any record, report, request, test, or statement required by this appendix. The electronic media used must have adequate security provisions and be acceptable to the responsible Flight Standards office. d. Related Reading References. (1) 14 CFR part 60. (2) 14 CFR part 61. (3) 14 CFR part 63. (4) 14 CFR part 119. (5) 14 CFR part 121. (6) 14 CFR part 125. (7) 14 CFR part 135. (8) 14 CFR part 141. (9) 14 CFR part 142. (10) AC 120-28, as amended, Criteria for Approval of Category III Landing Weather Minima. (11) AC 120-29, as amended, Criteria for Approving Category I and Category II Landing Minima for part 121 operators. (12) AC 120-35, as amended, Flightcrew Member, Line Operational Simulations: Line-Oriented Flight Training, Special Purpose Operational Training, Line Operational Evaluation. (13) AC 120-40, as amended, Airplane Simulator Qualification. (14) AC 120-41, as amended, Criteria for Operational Approval of Airborne Wind Shear Alerting and Flight Guidance Systems. (15) AC 120-57, as amended, Surface Movement Guidance and Control System (SMGCS). (16) AC 150/5300-13, as amended, Airport Design. (17) AC 150/5340-1, as amended, Standards for Airport Markings. (18) AC 150/5340-4, as amended, Installation Details for Runway Centerline Touchdown Zone Lighting Systems. (19) AC 150/5340-19, as amended, Taxiway Centerline Lighting System. (20) AC 150/5340-24, as amended, Runway and Taxiway Edge Lighting System. (21) AC 150/5345-28, as amended, Precision Approach Path Indicator (PAPI) Systems. (22) International Air Transport Association document, “Flight Simulation Training Device Design and Performance Data Requirements,” as amended. (23) AC 25-7, as amended, Flight Test Guide for Certification of Transport Category Airplanes. (24) AC 23-8, as amended, Flight Test Guide for Certification of Part 23 Airplanes. (25) International Civil Aviation Organization (ICAO) Manual of Criteria for the Qualification of Flight Simulation Training Devices, as amended. (26) Aeroplane Flight Simulation Training Device Evaluation Handbook, Volume I, as amended and Volume II, as amended, The Royal Aeronautical Society, London, UK. (27) FAA Airman Certification Standards and Practical Test Standards for Airline Transport Pilot, Type Ratings, Commercial Pilot, and Instrument Ratings (28) The FAA Aeronautical Information Manual (AIM). An electronic version of the AIM is on the Internet at http://www.faa.gov/atpubs. (29) Aeronautical Radio, Inc. (ARINC) document number 436, titled Guidelines For Electronic Qualification Test Guide (as amended). (30) Aeronautical Radio, Inc. (ARINC) document 610, Guidance for Design and Integration of Aircraft Avionics Equipment in Simulators (as amended). End Information 2. Applicability (§§ 60.1 and 60.2) Begin Information No additional regulatory or informational material applies to § 60.1, Applicability, or to § 60.2, Applicability of sponsor rules to persons who are not sponsors and who are engaged in certain unauthorized activities. End Information 3. Definitions (§ 60.3) Begin Information See Appendix F of this part for a list of definitions and abbreviations from part 1 and part 60, including the appropriate appendices of part 60. End Information 4. Qualification Performance Standards (§ 60.4) Begin Information No additional regulatory or informational material applies to § 60.4, Qualification Performance Standards.

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End Information 5. Quality Management System (§ 60.5) Begin Information See Appendix E of this part for additional regulatory and informational material regarding Quality Management Systems. End Information 6. Sponsor Qualification Requirements (§ 60.7) Begin Information a. The intent of the language in § 60.7(b) is to have a specific FFS, identified by the sponsor, used at least once in an FAA-approved flight training program for the airplane simulated during the 12-month period described. The identification of the specific FFS may change from one 12-month period to the next 12-month period as long as the sponsor sponsors and uses at least one FFS at least once during the prescribed period. No minimum number of hours or minimum FFS periods are required. b. The following examples describe acceptable operational practices: (1) Example One. (a) A sponsor is sponsoring a single, specific FFS for its own use, in its own facility or elsewhere—this single FFS forms the basis for the sponsorship. The sponsor uses that FFS at least once in each 12-month period in the sponsor's FAA-approved flight training program for the airplane simulated. This 12-month period is established according to the following schedule: (i) If the FFS was qualified prior to May 30, 2008, the 12-month period begins on the date of the first continuing qualification evaluation conducted in accordance with § 60.19 after May 30, 2008, and continues for each subsequent 12-month period; (ii) A device qualified on or after May 30, 2008, will be required to undergo an initial or upgrade evaluation in accordance with § 60.15. Once the initial or upgrade evaluation is complete, the first continuing qualification evaluation will be conducted within 6 months. The 12-month continuing qualification evaluation cycle begins on that date and continues for each subsequent 12-month period. (b) There is no minimum number of hours of FFS use required. (c) The identification of the specific FFS may change from one 12-month period to the next 12-month period as long as the sponsor sponsors and uses at least one FFS at least once during the prescribed period. (2) Example Two. (a) A sponsor sponsors an additional number of FFSs, in its facility or elsewhere. Each additionally sponsored FFS must be— (i) Used by the sponsor in the sponsor's FAA-approved flight training program for the airplane simulated (as described in § 60.7(d)(1));   OR (ii) Used by another FAA certificate holder in that other certificate holder's FAA-approved flight training program for the airplane simulated (as described in § 60.7(d)(1)). This 12-month period is established in the same manner as in example one;   OR (iii) Provided a statement each year from a qualified pilot (after having flown the airplane, not the subject FFS or another FFS, during the preceding 12-month period), stating that the subject FFS's performance and handling qualities represent the airplane (as described in § 60.7(d)(2)). This statement is provided at least once in each 12-month period established in the same manner as in example one. (b) No minimum number of hours of FFS use is required. (3) Example Three. (a) A sponsor in New York (in this example, a Part 142 certificate holder) establishes “satellite” training centers in Chicago and Moscow. (b) The satellite function means that the Chicago and Moscow centers must operate under the New York center's certificate (in accordance with all of the New York center's practices, procedures, and policies; e.g., instructor and/or technician training/checking requirements, record keeping, QMS program). (c) All of the FFSs in the Chicago and Moscow centers could be dry-leased (i.e., the certificate holder does not have and use FAA-approved flight training programs for the FFSs in the Chicago and Moscow centers) because— (i) Each FFS in the Chicago center and each FFS in the Moscow center is used at least once each 12-month period by another FAA certificate holder in that other certificate holder's FAA-approved flight training program for the airplane (as described in § 60.7(d)(1));   OR (ii) A statement is obtained from a qualified pilot (having flown the airplane, not the subject FFS or another FFS, during the preceding 12-month period) stating that the performance and handling qualities of each FFS in the Chicago and Moscow centers represents the airplane (as described in § 60.7(d)(2)).

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End Information 7. Additional Responsibilities of the Sponsor (§ 60.9) Begin Information The phrase “as soon as practicable” in § 60.9(a) means without unnecessarily disrupting or delaying beyond a reasonable time the training, evaluation, or experience being conducted in the FFS. End Information 8. FFS Use (§ 60.11) Begin Information No additional regulatory or informational material applies to § 60.11, Simulator Use. End Information 9. FFS Objective Data Requirements (§ 60.13) Begin QPS Requirements a. Flight test data used to validate FFS performance and handling qualities must have been gathered in accordance with a flight test program containing the following: (1) A flight test plan consisting of: (a) The maneuvers and procedures required for aircraft certification and simulation programming and validation. (b) For each maneuver or procedure— (i) The procedures and control input the flight test pilot and/or engineer used. (ii) The atmospheric and environmental conditions. (iii) The initial flight conditions. (iv) The airplane configuration, including weight and center of gravity. (v) The data to be gathered. (vi) All other information necessary to recreate the flight test conditions in the FFS. (2) Appropriately qualified flight test personnel. (3) An understanding of the accuracy of the data to be gathered using appropriate alternative data sources, procedures, and instrumentation that is traceable to a recognized standard as described in Attachment 2, Table A2E of this appendix. (4) Appropriate and sufficient data acquisition equipment or system(s), including appropriate data reduction and analysis methods and techniques, as would be acceptable to the FAA's Aircraft Certification Service. b. The data, regardless of source, must be presented as follows: (1) In a format that supports the FFS validation process. (2) In a manner that is clearly readable and annotated correctly and completely. (3) With resolution sufficient to determine compliance with the tolerances set forth in Attachment 2, Table A2A of this appendix. (4) With any necessary instructions or other details provided, such as yaw damper or throttle position. (5) Without alteration, adjustments, or bias. Data may be corrected to address known data calibration errors provided that an explanation of the methods used to correct the errors appears in the QTG. The corrected data may be re-scaled, digitized, or otherwise manipulated to fit the desired presentation. c. After completion of any additional flight test, a flight test report must be submitted in support of the validation data. The report must contain sufficient data and rationale to support qualification of the FFS at the level requested. d. As required by § 60.13(f), the sponsor must notify the responsible Flight Standards office when it becomes aware that an addition to, an amendment to, or a revision of data that may relate to FFS performance or handling characteristics is available. The data referred to in this paragraph is data used to validate the performance, handling qualities, or other characteristics of the aircraft, including data related to any relevant changes occurring after the type certificate was issued. The sponsor must— (1) Within 10 calendar days, notify the responsible Flight Standards office of the existence of this data; and (2) Within 45 calendar days, notify the responsible Flight Standards office of— (a) The schedule to incorporate this data into the FFS; or (b) The reason for not incorporating this data into the FFS. e. In those cases where the objective test results authorize a “snapshot test” or a “series of snapshot tests” results in lieu of a time-history result, the sponsor or other data provider must ensure that a steady state condition exists at the instant of time captured by the “snapshot.” The steady state condition must exist from 4 seconds prior to, through 1 second following, the instant of time captured by the snapshot. End QPS Requirements Begin Information f. The FFS sponsor is encouraged to maintain a liaison with the manufacturer of the aircraft being simulated (or with the holder of the aircraft type certificate for the aircraft being simulated if the manufacturer is no longer in business), and, if appropriate, with the person having supplied the aircraft data package for the FFS in order to facilitate the notification required by § 60.13(f).

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g. It is the intent of the responsible Flight Standards office that for new aircraft entering service, at a point well in advance of preparation of the Qualification Test Guide (QTG), the sponsor should submit to the responsible Flight Standards office for approval, a descriptive document (see Table A2C, Sample Validation Data Roadmap for Airplanes) containing the plan for acquiring the validation data, including data sources. This document should clearly identify sources of data for all required tests, a description of the validity of these data for a specific engine type and thrust rating configuration, and the revision levels of all avionics affecting the performance or flying qualities of the aircraft. Additionally, this document should provide other information, such as the rationale or explanation for cases where data or data parameters are missing, instances where engineering simulation data are used or where flight test methods require further explanations. It should also provide a brief narrative describing the cause and effect of any deviation from data requirements. The aircraft manufacturer may provide this document. h. There is no requirement for any flight test data supplier to submit a flight test plan or program prior to gathering flight test data. However, the responsible Flight Standards office notes that inexperienced data gatherers often provide data that is irrelevant, improperly marked, or lacking adequate justification for selection. Other problems include inadequate information regarding initial conditions or test maneuvers. The responsible Flight Standards office has been forced to refuse these data submissions as validation data for an FFS evaluation. It is for this reason that the responsible Flight Standards office recommends that any data supplier not previously experienced in this area review the data necessary for programming and for validating the performance of the FFS, and discuss the flight test plan anticipated for acquiring such data with the responsible Flight Standards office well in advance of commencing the flight tests. i. The responsible Flight Standards office will consider, on a case-by-case basis, whether to approve supplemental validation data derived from flight data recording systems, such as a Quick Access Recorder or Flight Data Recorder. End Information 10. Special Equipment and Personnel Requirements for Qualification of the FFSs (§ 60.14) Begin Information a. In the event that the responsible Flight Standards office determines that special equipment or specifically qualified persons will be required to conduct an evaluation, the responsible Flight Standards office will make every attempt to notify the sponsor at least one (1) week, but in no case less than 72 hours, in advance of the evaluation. Examples of special equipment include spot photometers, flight control measurement devices, and sound analyzers. Examples of specially qualified personnel include individuals specifically qualified to install or use any special equipment when its use is required. b. Examples of a special evaluation include an evaluation conducted after an FFS is moved, at the request of the TPAA, or as a result of comments received from users of the FFS that raise questions about the continued qualification or use of the FFS. End Information 11. Initial (and Upgrade) Qualification Requirements (§ 60.15) Begin QPS Requirements a. In order to be qualified at a particular qualification level, the FFS must: (1) Meet the general requirements listed in Attachment 1 of this appendix; (2) Meet the objective testing requirements listed in Attachment 2 of this appendix; and (3) Satisfactorily accomplish the subjective tests listed in Attachment 3 of this appendix. b. The request described in § 60.15(a) must include all of the following: (1) A statement that the FFS meets all of the applicable provisions of this part and all applicable provisions of the QPS. (2) Unless otherwise authorized through prior coordination with the responsible Flight Standards office, a confirmation that the sponsor will forward to the responsible Flight Standards office the statement described in § 60.15(b) in such time as to be received no later than 5 business days prior to the scheduled evaluation and may be forwarded to the responsible Flight Standards office via traditional or electronic means. (3) A QTG, acceptable to the responsible Flight Standards office, that includes all of the following: (a) Objective data obtained from traditional aircraft testing or another approved source.

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(b) Correlating objective test results obtained from the performance of the FFS as prescribed in the appropriate QPS. (c) The result of FFS subjective tests prescribed in the appropriate QPS. (d) A description of the equipment necessary to perform the evaluation for initial qualification and the continuing qualification evaluations. c. The QTG described in paragraph (a)(3) of this section, must provide the documented proof of compliance with the simulator objective tests in Attachment 2, Table A2A of this appendix. d. The QTG is prepared and submitted by the sponsor, or the sponsor's agent on behalf of the sponsor, to the responsible Flight Standards office for review and approval, and must include, for each objective test: (1) Parameters, tolerances, and flight conditions; (2) Pertinent and complete instructions for the conduct of automatic and manual tests; (3) A means of comparing the FFS test results to the objective data; (4) Any other information as necessary, to assist in the evaluation of the test results; (5) Other information appropriate to the qualification level of the FFS. e. The QTG described in paragraphs (a)(3) and (b) of this section, must include the following: (1) A QTG cover page with sponsor and FAA approval signature blocks (see Attachment 4, Figure A4C, of this appendix for a sample QTG cover page). (2) [Reserved] (3) An FFS information page that provides the information listed in this paragraph (see Attachment 4, Figure A4B, of this appendix for a sample FFS information page). For convertible FFSs, the sponsor must submit a separate page for each configuration of the FFS. (a) The sponsor's FFS identification number or code. (b) The airplane model and series being simulated. (c) The aerodynamic data revision number or reference. (d) The source of the basic aerodynamic model and the aerodynamic coefficient data used to modify the basic model. (e) The engine model(s) and its data revision number or reference. (f) The flight control data revision number or reference. (g) The flight management system identification and revision level. (h) The FFS model and manufacturer. (i) The date of FFS manufacture. (j) The FFS computer identification. (k) The visual system model and manufacturer, including display type. (l) The motion system type and manufacturer, including degrees of freedom. (4) A Table of Contents. (5) A log of revisions and a list of effective pages. (6) A list of all relevant data references. (7) A glossary of terms and symbols used (including sign conventions and units). (8) Statements of Compliance and Capability (SOCs) with certain requirements. (9) Recording procedures or equipment required to accomplish the objective tests. (10) The following information for each objective test designated in Attachment 2, Table A2A, of this appendix as applicable to the qualification level sought: (a) Name of the test. (b) Objective of the test. (c) Initial conditions. (d) Manual test procedures. (e) Automatic test procedures (if applicable). (f) Method for evaluating FFS objective test results. (g) List of all relevant parameters driven or constrained during the automatically conducted test(s). (h) List of all relevant parameters driven or constrained during the manually conducted test(s). (i) Tolerances for relevant parameters. (j) Source of Validation Data (document and page number). (k) Copy of the Validation Data (if located in a separate binder, a cross reference for the identification and page number for pertinent data location must be provided). (l) Simulator Objective Test Results as obtained by the sponsor. Each test result must reflect the date completed and must be clearly labeled as a product of the device being tested. f. A convertible FFS is addressed as a separate FFS for each model and series airplane to which it will be converted and for the FAA qualification level sought. If a sponsor seeks qualification for two or more models of an airplane type using a convertible FFS, the sponsor must submit a QTG for each airplane model, or a QTG for the first airplane model and a supplement to that QTG for each additional airplane model. The responsible Flight Standards office will conduct evaluations for each airplane model. g. Form and manner of presentation of objective test results in the QTG: (1) The sponsor's FFS test results must be recorded in a manner acceptable to the responsible Flight Standards office, that allows easy comparison of the FFS test results to the validation data (e.g., use of a multi-channel recorder, line printer, cross plotting, overlays, transparencies). (2) FFS results must be labeled using terminology common to airplane parameters as opposed to computer software identifications. (3) Validation data documents included in a QTG may be photographically reduced only if such reduction will not alter the graphic scaling or cause difficulties in scale interpretation or resolution.

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(4) Scaling on graphical presentations must provide the resolution necessary to evaluate the parameters shown in Attachment 2, Table A2A of this appendix. (5) Tests involving time histories, data sheets (or transparencies thereof) and FFS test results must be clearly marked with appropriate reference points to ensure an accurate comparison between the FFS and the airplane with respect to time. Time histories recorded via a line printer are to be clearly identified for cross plotting on the airplane data. Over-plots must not obscure the reference data. h. The sponsor may elect to complete the QTG objective and subjective tests at the manufacturer's facility or at the sponsor's training facility (or other sponsor designated location where training will take place). If the tests are conducted at the manufacturer's facility, the sponsor must repeat at least one-third of the tests at the sponsor's training facility in order to substantiate FFS performance. The QTG must be clearly annotated to indicate when and where each test was accomplished. Tests conducted at the manufacturer's facility and at the sponsor's designated training facility must be conducted after the FFS is assembled with systems and sub-systems functional and operating in an interactive manner. The test results must be submitted to the responsible Flight Standards office. i. The sponsor must maintain a copy of the MQTG at the FFS location. j. All FFSs for which the initial qualification is conducted after May 30, 2014, must have an electronic MQTG (eMQTG) including all objective data obtained from airplane testing, or another approved source (reformatted or digitized), together with correlating objective test results obtained from the performance of the FFS (reformatted or digitized) as prescribed in this appendix. The eMQTG must also contain the general FFS performance or demonstration results (reformatted or digitized) prescribed in this appendix, and a description of the equipment necessary to perform the initial qualification evaluation and the continuing qualification evaluations. The eMQTG must include the original validation data used to validate FFS performance and handling qualities in either the original digitized format from the data supplier or an electronic scan of the original time-history plots that were provided by the data supplier. A copy of the eMQTG must be provided to the responsible Flight Standards office. k. All other FFSs not covered in subparagraph “j” must have an electronic copy of the MQTG by May 30, 2014. An electronic copy of the MQTG must be provided to the responsible Flight Standards office. This may be provided by an electronic scan presented in a Portable Document File (PDF), or similar format acceptable to the responsible Flight Standards office. l. During the initial (or upgrade) qualification evaluation conducted by the responsible Flight Standards office, the sponsor must also provide a person who is a user of the device (e.g., a qualified pilot or instructor pilot with flight time experience in that aircraft) and knowledgeable about the operation of the aircraft and the operation of the FFS. End QPS Requirements Begin Information m. Only those FFSs that are sponsored by a certificate holder as defined in Appendix F of this part will be evaluated by the responsible Flight Standards office. However, other FFS evaluations may be conducted on a case-by-case basis as the Administrator deems appropriate, but only in accordance with applicable agreements. n. The responsible Flight Standards office will conduct an evaluation for each configuration, and each FFS must be evaluated as completely as possible. To ensure a thorough and uniform evaluation, each FFS is subjected to the general simulator requirements in Attachment 1 of this appendix, the objective tests listed in Attachment 2 of this appendix, and the subjective tests listed in Attachment 3 of this appendix. The evaluations described herein will include, but not necessarily be limited to the following: (1) Airplane responses, including longitudinal and lateral-directional control responses (see Attachment 2 of this appendix); (2) Performance in authorized portions of the simulated airplane's operating envelope, to include tasks evaluated by the responsible Flight Standards office in the areas of surface operations, takeoff, climb, cruise, descent, approach, and landing as well as abnormal and emergency operations (see Attachment 2 of this appendix); (3) Control checks (see Attachment 1 and Attachment 2 of this appendix); (4) Flight deck configuration (see Attachment 1 of this appendix); (5) Pilot, flight engineer, and instructor station functions checks (see Attachment 1 and Attachment 3 of this appendix); (6) Airplane systems and sub-systems (as appropriate) as compared to the airplane simulated (see Attachment 1 and Attachment 3 of this appendix); (7) FFS systems and sub-systems, including force cueing (motion), visual, and aural (sound) systems, as appropriate (see Attachment 1 and Attachment 2 of this appendix); and (8) Certain additional requirements, depending upon the qualification level sought, including equipment or circumstances that may become hazardous to the occupants. The sponsor may be subject to Occupational Safety and Health Administration requirements.

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o. The responsible Flight Standards office administers the objective and subjective tests, which includes an examination of functions. The tests include a qualitative assessment of the FFS by a pilot from the responsible Flight Standards office. The evaluation team leader may assign other qualified personnel to assist in accomplishing the functions examination and/or the objective and subjective tests performed during an evaluation when required. (1) Objective tests provide a basis for measuring and evaluating FFS performance and determining compliance with the requirements of this part. (2) Subjective tests provide a basis for: (a) Evaluating the capability of the FFS to perform over a typical utilization period; (b) Determining that the FFS satisfactorily simulates each required task; (c) Verifying correct operation of the FFS controls, instruments, and systems; and (d) Demonstrating compliance with the requirements of this part. p. The tolerances for the test parameters listed in Attachment 2 of this appendix reflect the range of tolerances acceptable to the responsible Flight Standards office for FFS validation and are not to be confused with design tolerances specified for FFS manufacture. In making decisions regarding tests and test results, the responsible Flight Standards office relies on the use of operational and engineering judgment in the application of data (including consideration of the way in which the flight test was flown and the way the data was gathered and applied), data presentations, and the applicable tolerances for each test. q. In addition to the scheduled continuing qualification evaluation, each FFS is subject to evaluations conducted by the responsible Flight Standards office at any time without prior notification to the sponsor. Such evaluations would be accomplished in a normal manner (i.e., requiring exclusive use of the FFS for the conduct of objective and subjective tests and an examination of functions) if the FFS is not being used for flight crewmember training, testing, or checking. However, if the FFS were being used, the evaluation would be conducted in a non-exclusive manner. This non-exclusive evaluation will be conducted by the FFS evaluator accompanying the check airman, instructor, Aircrew Program Designee (APD), or FAA inspector aboard the FFS along with the student(s) and observing the operation of the FFS during the training, testing, or checking activities. r. Problems with objective test results are handled as follows: (1) If a problem with an objective test result is detected by the evaluation team during an evaluation, the test may be repeated or the QTG may be amended. (2) If it is determined that the results of an objective test do not support the level requested but do support a lower level, the responsible Flight Standards office may qualify the FFS at that lower level. For example, if a Level D evaluation is requested and the FFS fails to meet sound test tolerances, it could be qualified at Level C. s. After an FFS is successfully evaluated, the responsible Flight Standards office issues a Statement of Qualification (SOQ) to the sponsor. The responsible Flight Standards office recommends the FFS to the TPAA, who will approve the FFS for use in a flight training program. The SOQ will be issued at the satisfactory conclusion of the initial or continuing qualification evaluation and will list the tasks for which the FFS is qualified, referencing the tasks described in Table A1B in Attachment 1 of this appendix. However, it is the sponsor's responsibility to obtain TPAA approval prior to using the FFS in an FAA-approved flight training program. t. Under normal circumstances, the responsible Flight Standards office establishes a date for the initial or upgrade evaluation within ten (10) working days after determining that a complete QTG is acceptable. Unusual circumstances may warrant establishing an evaluation date before this determination is made. A sponsor may schedule an evaluation date as early as 6 months in advance. However, there may be a delay of 45 days or more in rescheduling and completing the evaluation if the sponsor is unable to meet the scheduled date. See Attachment 4 of this appendix, Figure A4A, Sample Request for Initial, Upgrade, or Reinstatement Evaluation. u. The numbering system used for objective test results in the QTG should closely follow the numbering system set out in Attachment 2 of this appendix, FFS Objective Tests, Table A2A. v. Contact the responsible Flight Standards office for additional information regarding the preferred qualifications of pilots used to meet the requirements of § 60.15(d). w. Examples of the exclusions for which the FFS might not have been subjectively tested by the sponsor or the responsible Flight Standards office and for which qualification might not be sought or granted, as described in § 60.15(g)(6), include windshear training and circling approaches. End Information

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12. Additional Qualifications for a Currently Qualified FFS (§ 60.16) Begin Information No additional regulatory or informational material applies to § 60.16, Additional Qualifications for a Currently Qualified FFS. End Information 13. Previously Qualified FFSs (§ 60.17) Begin QPS Requirements a. In instances where a sponsor plans to remove an FFS from active status for a period of less than two years, the following procedures apply: (1) The responsible Flight Standards office must be notified in writing and the notification must include an estimate of the period that the FFS will be inactive; (2) Continuing Qualification evaluations will not be scheduled during the inactive period; (3) The responsible Flight Standards office will remove the FFS from the list of qualified FSTDs on a mutually established date not later than the date on which the first missed continuing qualification evaluation would have been scheduled; (4) Before the FFS is restored to qualified status, it must be evaluated by the responsible Flight Standards office. The evaluation content and the time required to accomplish the evaluation is based on the number of continuing qualification evaluations and sponsor-conducted quarterly inspections missed during the period of inactivity. (5) The sponsor must notify the responsible Flight Standards office of any changes to the original scheduled time out of service; b. Simulators qualified prior to May 31, 2016, are not required to meet the general simulation requirements, the objective test requirements or the subjective test requirements of attachments 1, 2, and 3 of this appendix as long as the simulator continues to meet the test requirements contained in the MQTG developed under the original qualification basis. c. After May 30, 2009, each visual scene or airport model beyond the minimum required for the FFS qualification level that is installed in and available for use in a qualified FFS must meet the requirements described in attachment 3 of this appendix. d. Simulators qualified prior to May 31, 2016, may be updated. If an evaluation is deemed appropriate or necessary by the responsible Flight Standards office after such an update, the evaluation will not require an evaluation to standards beyond those against which the simulator was originally qualified. e. Other certificate holders or persons desiring to use an FFS may contract with FFS sponsors to use FFSs previously qualified at a particular level for an airplane type and approved for use within an FAA-approved flight training program. Such FFSs are not required to undergo an additional qualification process, except as described in § 60.16. f. Each FFS user must obtain approval from the appropriate TPAA to use any FFS in an FAA-approved flight training program. g. The intent of the requirement listed in § 60.17(b), for each FFS to have a SOQ within 6 years, is to have the availability of that statement (including the configuration list and the limitations to authorizations) to provide a complete picture of the FFS inventory regulated by the FAA. The issuance of the statement will not require any additional evaluation or require any adjustment to the evaluation basis for the FFS. h. Downgrading of an FFS is a permanent change in qualification level and will necessitate the issuance of a revised SOQ to reflect the revised qualification level, as appropriate. If a temporary restriction is placed on an FFS because of a missing, malfunctioning, or inoperative component or on-going repairs, the restriction is not a permanent change in qualification level. Instead, the restriction is temporary and is removed when the reason for the restriction has been resolved. i. The responsible Flight Standards office will determine the evaluation criteria for an FFS that has been removed from active status. The criteria will be based on the number of continuing qualification evaluations and quarterly inspections missed during the period of inactivity. For example, if the FFS were out of service for a 1 year period, it would be necessary to complete the entire QTG, since all of the quarterly evaluations would have been missed. The responsible Flight Standards office will also consider how the FFS was stored, whether parts were removed from the FFS and whether the FFS was disassembled. j. The FFS will normally be requalified using the FAA-approved MQTG and the criteria that was in effect prior to its removal from qualification. However, inactive periods of 2 years or more will require requalification under the standards in effect and current at the time of requalification. End Information 14. Inspection, Continuing Qualification Evaluation, and Maintenance Requirements (§ 60.19)

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Begin QPS Requirements a. The sponsor must conduct a minimum of four evenly spaced inspections throughout the year. The objective test sequence and content of each inspection must be developed by the sponsor and must be acceptable to the responsible Flight Standards office. b. The description of the functional preflight check must be contained in the sponsor's QMS. c. Record “functional preflight” in the FFS discrepancy log book or other acceptable location, including any item found to be missing, malfunctioning, or inoperative. d. During the continuing qualification evaluation conducted by the responsible Flight Standards office, the sponsor must also provide a person knowledgeable about the operation of the aircraft and the operation of the FFS. e. The responsible Flight Standards office will conduct continuing qualification evaluations every 12 months unless: (1) The responsible Flight Standards office becomes aware of discrepancies or performance problems with the device that warrants more frequent evaluations; or (2) The sponsor implements a QMS that justifies less frequent evaluations. However, in no case shall the frequency of a continuing qualification evaluation exceed 36 months. End QPS Requirements Begin Information f. The sponsor's test sequence and the content of each quarterly inspection required in § 60.19(a)(1) should include a balance and a mix from the objective test requirement areas listed as follows: (1) Performance. (2) Handling qualities. (3) Motion system (where appropriate). (4) Visual system (where appropriate). (5) Sound system (where appropriate). (6) Other FFS systems. g. If the evaluator plans to accomplish specific tests during a normal continuing qualification evaluation that requires the use of special equipment or technicians, the sponsor will be notified as far in advance of the evaluation as practical; but not less than 72 hours. Examples of such tests include latencies, control dynamics, sounds and vibrations, motion, and/or some visual system tests. h. The continuing qualification evaluations, described in § 60.19(b), will normally require 4 hours of FFS time. However, flexibility is necessary to address abnormal situations or situations involving aircraft with additional levels of complexity (e.g., computer controlled aircraft). The sponsor should anticipate that some tests may require additional time. The continuing qualification evaluations will consist of the following: (1) Review of the results of the quarterly inspections conducted by the sponsor since the last scheduled continuing qualification evaluation. (2) A selection of approximately 8 to 15 objective tests from the MQTG that provide an adequate opportunity to evaluate the performance of the FFS. The tests chosen will be performed either automatically or manually and should be able to be conducted within approximately one-third ( 1/3 ) of the allotted FFS time. (3) A subjective evaluation of the FFS to perform a representative sampling of the tasks set out in attachment 3 of this appendix. This portion of the evaluation should take approximately two-thirds ( 2/3 ) of the allotted FFS time. (4) An examination of the functions of the FFS may include the motion system, visual system, sound system, instructor operating station, and the normal functions and simulated malfunctions of the airplane systems. This examination is normally accomplished simultaneously with the subjective evaluation requirements. End Information 15. Logging FFS Discrepancies (§ 60.20) Begin Information No additional regulatory or informational material applies to § 60.20. Logging FFS Discrepancies. End Information 16. Interim Qualification of FFSs for New Airplane Types or Models (§ 60.21) Begin Information No additional regulatory or informational material applies to § 60.21, Interim Qualification of FFSs for New Airplane Types or Models. End Information 17. Modifications to FFSs (§ 60.23) Begin QPS Requirements a. The notification described in § 60.23(c)(2) must include a complete description of the planned modification, with a description of the operational and engineering effect the proposed modification will have on the operation of the FFS and the results that are expected with the modification incorporated.

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b. Prior to using the modified FFS: (1) All the applicable objective tests completed with the modification incorporated, including any necessary updates to the MQTG (e.g., accomplishment of FSTD Directives) must be acceptable to the responsible Flight Standards office; and (2) The sponsor must provide the responsible Flight Standards office with a statement signed by the MR that the factors listed in § 60.15(b) are addressed by the appropriate personnel as described in that section. End QPS Requirements Begin Information FSTD Directives are considered modifications of an FFS. See Attachment 4 of this appendix for a sample index of effective FSTD Directives. See Attachment 6 of this appendix for a list of all effective FSTD Directives applicable to Airplane FFSs. End Information 18. Operation with Missing, Malfunctioning, or Inoperative Components (§ 60.25) Begin Information a. The sponsor's responsibility with respect to § 60.25(a) is satisfied when the sponsor fairly and accurately advises the user of the current status of an FFS, including any missing, malfunctioning, or inoperative (MMI) component(s). b. It is the responsibility of the instructor, check airman, or representative of the administrator conducting training, testing, or checking to exercise reasonable and prudent judgment to determine if any MMI component is necessary for the satisfactory completion of a specific maneuver, procedure, or task. c. If the 29th or 30th day of the 30-day period described in § 60.25(b) is on a Saturday, a Sunday, or a holiday, the FAA will extend the deadline until the next business day. d. In accordance with the authorization described in § 60.25(b), the sponsor may develop a discrepancy prioritizing system to accomplish repairs based on the level of impact on the capability of the FFS. Repairs having a larger impact on FFS capability to provide the required training, evaluation, or flight experience will have a higher priority for repair or replacement. End Information 19. Automatic Loss of Qualification and Procedures for Restoration of Qualification (§ 60.27) Begin Information If the sponsor provides a plan for how the FFS will be maintained during its out-of-service period (e.g., periodic exercise of mechanical, hydraulic, and electrical systems; routine replacement of hydraulic fluid; control of the environmental factors in which the FFS is to be maintained) there is a greater likelihood that the responsible Flight Standards office will be able to determine the amount of testing required for requalification. End Information 20. Other Losses of Qualification and Procedures for Restoration of Qualification (§ 60.29) Begin Information If the sponsor provides a plan for how the FFS will be maintained during its out-of-service period (e.g., periodic exercise of mechanical, hydraulic, and electrical systems; routine replacement of hydraulic fluid; control of the environmental factors in which the FFS is to be maintained) there is a greater likelihood that the responsible Flight Standards office will be able to determine the amount of testing required for requalification. End Information 21. Recordkeeping and Reporting (§ 60.31) Begin QPS Requirements a. FFS modifications can include hardware or software changes. For FFS modifications involving software programming changes, the record required by § 60.31(a)(2) must consist of the name of the aircraft system software, aerodynamic model, or engine model change, the date of the change, a summary of the change, and the reason for the change. b. If a coded form for record keeping is used, it must provide for the preservation and retrieval of information with appropriate security or controls to prevent the inappropriate alteration of such records after the fact. End QPS Requirements

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22. Applications, Logbooks, Reports, and Records: Fraud, Falsification, or Incorrect Statements (§ 60.33) Begin Information No additional regulatory or informational material applies to § 60.33, Applications, Logbooks, Reports, and Records: Fraud, Falsification, or Incorrect Statements. 23. Specific FFS Compliance Requirements (§ 60.35) No additional regulatory or informational material applies to § 60.35, Specific FFS Compliance Requirements. 24. [Reserved] 25. FFS Qualification on the Basis of a Bilateral Aviation Safety Agreement (BASA) (§ 60.37) No additional regulatory or informational material applies to § 60.37, FFS Qualification on the Basis of a Bilateral Aviation Safety Agreement (BASA). End Information Attachment 1 to Appendix A to Part 60—General Simulator Requirements Begin QPS Requirements 1. Requirements a. Certain requirements included in this appendix must be supported with an SOC as defined in Appendix F, which may include objective and subjective tests. The requirements for SOCs are indicated in the “General Simulator Requirements” column in Table A1A of this appendix. b. Table A1A describes the requirements for the indicated level of FFS. Many devices include operational systems or functions that exceed the requirements outlined in this section. However, all systems will be tested and evaluated in accordance with this appendix to ensure proper operation. End QPS Requirements Begin Information 2. Discussion a. This attachment describes the general simulator requirements for qualifying an airplane FFS. The sponsor should also consult the objective tests in Attachment 2 of this appendix and the examination of functions and subjective tests listed in Attachment 3 of this appendix to determine the complete requirements for a specific level simulator. b. The material contained in this attachment is divided into the following categories: (1) General flight deck configuration. (2) Simulator programming. (3) Equipment operation. (4) Equipment and facilities for instructor/evaluator functions. (5) Motion system. (6) Visual system. (7) Sound system. c. Table A1A provides the standards for the General Simulator Requirements. d. Table A1B provides the tasks that the sponsor will examine to determine whether the FFS satisfactorily meets the requirements for flight crew training, testing, and experience, and provides the tasks for which the simulator may be qualified. e. Table A1C provides the functions that an instructor/check airman must be able to control in the simulator. f. It is not required that all of the tasks that appear on the List of Qualified Tasks (part of the SOQ) be accomplished during the initial or continuing qualification evaluation. End Information

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Table A1B—Table of Tasks vs. Simulator Level

QPS requirements	Entry No.	Subjective requirements In order to be qualified at the simulator qualification level indicated, the simulator must be able to perform at least the tasks associated with that level of qualification.	Simulator levels	A	B	C	D	Information	Notes
1. Preflight Procedures
1.a.	Preflight Inspection (flight deck only)	X	X	X	X
1.b.	Engine Start	X	X	X	X
1.c.	Taxiing		R	X	X
1.d.	Pre-takeoff Checks	X	X	X	X
2. Takeoff and Departure Phase
2.a.	Normal and Crosswind Takeoff		R	X	X
2.b.	Instrument Takeoff	X	X	X	X
2.c.	Engine Failure During Takeoff	A	X	X	X
2.d.	Rejected Takeoff	X	X	X	X
2.e.	Departure Procedure	X	X	X	X
3. Inflight Maneuvers
3.a.	Steep Turns	X	X	X	X
3.b. High Angle of Attack Maneuvers
3.b.1	Approaches to Stall	X	X	X	X
3.b.2	Full Stall			X	X	Stall maneuvers at angles of attack above the activation of the stall warning system.
						Required only for FSTDs qualified to conduct full stall training tasks as indicated on the Statement of Qualification.
3.c.	Engine Failure—Multiengine Airplane	X	X	X	X
3.d.	Engine Failure—Single-Engine Airplane	X	X	X	X
3.e.	Specific Flight Characteristics incorporated into the user's FAA approved flight training program	A	A	A	A
3.f.	Recovery From Unusual Attitudes	X	X	X	X	Within the normal flight envelope supported by applicable simulation validation data.
3.g.	Upset Prevention and Recovery Training (UPRT)			X	X	Upset recovery or unusual attitude training maneuvers within the FSTD's validation envelope that are intended to exceed pitch attitudes greater than 25 degrees nose up; pitch attitudes greater than 10 degrees nose down, and bank angles greater than 45 degrees.
4. Instrument Procedures
4.a.	Standard Terminal Arrival/Flight Management System Arrivals Procedures	X	X	X	X
4.b.	Holding	X	X	X	X
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4.c.	Precision Instrument
4.c.1.	All Engines Operating	X	X	X	X	e.g., Autopilot, Manual (Flt. Dir. Assisted), Manual (Raw Data).
4.c.2.	One Engine Inoperative	X	X	X	X	e.g., Manual (Flt. Dir. Assisted), Manual (Raw Data).
4.d.	Non-Precision Instrument Approach	X	X	X	X	e.g., NDB, VOR, VOR/DME, VOR/TAC, RNAV, LOC, LOC/BC, ADF, and SDF.
4.e.	Circling Approach	X	X	X	X	Specific authorization required.
4.f.	Missed Approach
4.f.1.	Normal	X	X	X	X
4.f.2.	One Engine Inoperative	X	X	X	X
5. Landings and Approaches to Landings
5.a.	Normal and Crosswind Approaches and Landings		R	X	X
5.b.	Landing From a Precision/Non-Precision Approach		R	X	X
5.c.	Approach and Landing with (Simulated) Engine Failure—Multiengine Airplane		R	X	X
5.d.	Landing From Circling Approach		R	X	X
5.e.	Rejected Landing	X	X	X	X
5.f.	Landing From a No Flap or a Nonstandard Flap Configuration Approach		R	X	X
6. Normal and Abnormal Procedures
6.a.	Engine (including shutdown and restart)	X	X	X	X
6.b.	Fuel System	X	X	X	X
6.c.	Electrical System	X	X	X	X
6.d.	Hydraulic System	X	X	X	X
6.e.	Environmental and Pressurization Systems	X	X	X	X
6.f.	Fire Detection and Extinguisher Systems	X	X	X	X
6.g.	Navigation and Avionics Systems	X	X	X	X
6.h.	Automatic Flight Control System, Electronic Flight Instrument System, and Related Subsystems	X	X	X	X
6.i.	Flight Control Systems	X	X	X	X
6.j.	Anti-ice and Deice Systems	X	X	X	X
6.k.	Aircraft and Personal Emergency Equipment	X	X	X	X
7. Emergency Procedures
7.a.	Emergency Descent (Max. Rate)	X	X	X	X
7.b.	Inflight Fire and Smoke Removal	X	X	X	X
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7.c.	Rapid Decompression	X	X	X	X
7.d.	Emergency Evacuation	X	X	X	X
8. Postflight Procedures
8.a.	After-Landing Procedures	X	X	X	X
8.b.	Parking and Securing	X	X	X	X
“A”—indicates that the system, task, or procedure may be examined if the appropriate aircraft system or control is simulated in the FSTD and is working properly.
“R”—indicates that the simulator may be qualified for this task for continuing qualification training.
“X”—indicates that the simulator must be able to perform this task for this level of qualification.

Table A1C—Table of Simulator System Tasks

QPS requirements	Entry No.	Subjective requirements In order to be qualified at the simulator qualification level indicated, the simulator must be able to perform at least the tasks associated with that level of qualification.	Simulator levels	A	B	C	D	Information	Notes
1. Instructor Operating Station (IOS), as appropriate
1.a.	Power switch(es)	X	X	X	X
1.b.	Airplane conditions	X	X	X	X	e.g., GW, CG, Fuel loading and Systems.
1.c.	Airports/Runways	X	X	X	X	e.g., Selection, Surface, Presets, Lighting controls.
1.d.	Environmental controls	X	X	X	X	e.g., Clouds, Visibility, RVR, Temp, Wind, Ice, Snow, Rain, and Windshear.
1.e.	Airplane system malfunctions (Insertion/deletion)	X	X	X	X
1.f.	Locks, Freezes, and Repositioning	X	X	X	X
2. Sound Controls
2.a.	On/off/adjustment	X	X	X	X
3. Motion/Control Loading System
3.a.	On/off/emergency stop	X	X	X	X
4. Observer Seats/Stations
4.a.	Position/Adjustment/Positive restraint system	X	X	X	X

Attachment 2 to Appendix A to Part 60—FFS Objective Tests Table of Contents

Paragraph No.	Title
1.	Introduction.
2.	Test Requirements.
	Table A2A, Objective Tests.
3.	General.
4.	Control Dynamics.
5.	Ground Effect.
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6.	Motion System.
7.	Sound System.
8.	Additional Information About Flight Simulator Qualification for New or Derivative Airplanes.
9.	Engineering Simulator—Validation Data.
10.	[Reserved]
11.	Validation Test Tolerances.
12.	Validation Data Roadmap.
13.	Acceptance Guidelines for Alternative Engines Data.
14.	Acceptance Guidelines for Alternative Avionics (Flight-Related Computers and Controllers).
15.	Transport Delay Testing.
16.	Continuing Qualification Evaluations—Validation Test Data Presentation.
17.	Alternative Data Sources, Procedures, and Instrumentation: Level A and Level B Simulators Only.

Begin Information 1. Introduction a. For the purposes of this attachment, the flight conditions specified in the Flight Conditions Column of Table A2A of this appendix, are defined as follows: (1) Ground—on ground, independent of airplane configuration; (2) Take-off—gear down with flaps/slats in any certified takeoff position; (3) First segment climb—gear down with flaps/slats in any certified takeoff position (normally not above 50 ft AGL); (4) Second segment climb—gear up with flaps/slats in any certified takeoff position (normally between 50 ft and 400 ft AGL); (5) Clean—flaps/slats retracted and gear up; (6) Cruise—clean configuration at cruise altitude and airspeed; (7) Approach—gear up or down with flaps/slats at any normal approach position as recommended by the airplane manufacturer; and (8) Landing—gear down with flaps/slats in any certified landing position. b. The format for numbering the objective tests in Appendix A, Attachment 2, Table A2A, and the objective tests in Appendix B, Attachment 2, Table B2A, is identical. However, each test required for FFSs is not necessarily required for FTDs. Also, each test required for FTDs is not necessarily required for FFSs. Therefore, when a test number (or series of numbers) is not required, the term “Reserved” is used in the table at that location. Following this numbering format provides a degree of commonality between the two tables and substantially reduces the potential for confusion when referring to objective test numbers for either FFSs or FTDs. c. The reader is encouraged to review the Airplane Flight Simulator Evaluation Handbook, Volumes I and II, published by the Royal Aeronautical Society, London, UK, and AC 25-7, as amended, Flight Test Guide for Certification of Transport Category Airplanes, and AC 23-8, as amended, Flight Test Guide for Certification of Part 23 Airplanes, for references and examples regarding flight testing requirements and techniques. d. If relevant winds are present in the objective data, the wind vector should be clearly noted as part of the data presentation, expressed in conventional terminology, and related to the runway being used for the test. End Information Begin QPS Requirements 2. Test Requirements a. The ground and flight tests required for qualification are listed in Table A2A, FFS Objective Tests. Computer generated simulator test results must be provided for each test except where an alternative test is specifically authorized by the responsible Flight Standards office. If a flight condition or operating condition is required for the test but does not apply to the airplane being simulated or to the qualification level sought, it may be disregarded (e.g., an engine out missed approach for a single-engine airplane or a maneuver using reverse thrust for an airplane without reverse thrust capability). Each test result is compared against the validation data described in § 60.13 and in this appendix. Although use of a driver program designed to automatically accomplish the tests is encouraged for all simulators and required for Level C and Level D simulators, it must be possible to conduct each test manually while recording all appropriate parameters. The results must be produced on an appropriate recording device acceptable to the responsible Flight Standards office and must include simulator number, date, time, conditions, tolerances, and appropriate dependent variables portrayed in comparison to the validation data. Time histories are required unless otherwise indicated in Table A2A. All results must be labeled using the tolerances and units given. b. Table A2A in this attachment sets out the test results required, including the parameters, tolerances, and flight conditions for simulator validation. Tolerances are provided for the listed tests because mathematical modeling and acquisition and development of reference data are often inexact. All tolerances listed in the following tables are applied to simulator performance. When two tolerance values are given for a parameter, the less restrictive may be used unless otherwise indicated. In those cases where a tolerance is expressed only as a percentage, the tolerance percentage applies to the maximum value of that parameter within its normal operating range as measured from the neutral or zero position unless otherwise indicated.

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c. Certain tests included in this attachment must be supported with an SOC. In Table A2A, requirements for SOCs are indicated in the “Test Details” column. d. When operational or engineering judgment is used in making assessments for flight test data applications for simulator validity, such judgment must not be limited to a single parameter. For example, data that exhibit rapid variations of the measured parameters may require interpolations or a “best fit” data selection. All relevant parameters related to a given maneuver or flight condition must be provided to allow overall interpretation. When it is difficult or impossible to match simulator to airplane data throughout a time history, differences must be justified by providing a comparison of other related variables for the condition being assessed. e. It is not acceptable to program the FFS so that the mathematical modeling is correct only at the validation test points. Unless otherwise noted, simulator tests must represent airplane performance and handling qualities at operating weights and centers of gravity (CG) typical of normal operation. Simulator tests at extreme weight or CG conditions may be acceptable where required for concurrent aircraft certification testing. Tests of handling qualities must include validation of augmentation devices. f. When comparing the parameters listed to those of the airplane, sufficient data must also be provided to verify the correct flight condition and airplane configuration changes. For example, to show that control force is within the parameters for a static stability test, data to show the correct airspeed, power, thrust or torque, airplane configuration, altitude, and other appropriate datum identification parameters must also be given. If comparing short period dynamics, normal acceleration may be used to establish a match to the airplane, but airspeed, altitude, control input, airplane configuration, and other appropriate data must also be given. If comparing landing gear change dynamics, pitch, airspeed, and altitude may be used to establish a match to the airplane, but landing gear position must also be provided. All airspeed values must be properly annotated (e.g., indicated versus calibrated). In addition, the same variables must be used for comparison (e.g., compare inches to inches rather than inches to centimeters). g. The QTG provided by the sponsor must clearly describe how the simulator will be set up and operated for each test. Each simulator subsystem may be tested independently, but overall integrated testing of the simulator must be accomplished to assure that the total simulator system meets the prescribed standards. A manual test procedure with explicit and detailed steps for completing each test must also be provided. h. For previously qualified simulators, the tests and tolerances of this attachment may be used in subsequent continuing qualification evaluations for any given test if the sponsor has submitted a proposed MQTG revision to the responsible Flight Standards office and has received responsible Flight Standards office approval. i. Simulators are evaluated and qualified with an engine model simulating the airplane data supplier's flight test engine. For qualification of alternative engine models (either variations of the flight test engines or other manufacturer's engines) additional tests with the alternative engine models may be required. This attachment contains guidelines for alternative engines. j. For testing Computer Controlled Aircraft (CCA) simulators, or other highly augmented airplane simulators, flight test data is required for the Normal (N) and/or Non-normal (NN) control states, as indicated in this attachment. Where test results are independent of control state, Normal or Non-normal control data may be used. All tests in Table A2A require test results in the Normal control state unless specifically noted otherwise in the Test Details section following the CCA designation. The responsible Flight Standards office will determine what tests are appropriate for airplane simulation data. When making this determination, the responsible Flight Standards office may require other levels of control state degradation for specific airplane tests. Where Non-normal control states are required, test data must be provided for one or more Non-normal control states, and must include the least augmented state. Where applicable, flight test data must record Normal and Non-normal states for: (1) Pilot controller deflections or electronically generated inputs, including location of input; and (2) Flight control surface positions unless test results are not affected by, or are independent of, surface positions. k. Tests of handling qualities must include validation of augmentation devices. FFSs for highly augmented airplanes will be validated both in the unaugmented configuration (or failure state with the maximum permitted degradation in handling qualities) and the augmented configuration. Where various levels of handling qualities result from failure states, validation of the effect of the failure is necessary. Requirements for testing will be mutually agreed to between the sponsor and the responsible Flight Standards office on a case-by-case basis.

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l. Some tests will not be required for airplanes using airplane hardware in the simulator flight deck (e.g., “side stick controller”). These exceptions are noted in Section 2 “Handling Qualities” in Table A2A of this attachment. However, in these cases, the sponsor must provide a statement that the airplane hardware meets the appropriate manufacturer's specifications and the sponsor must have supporting information to that fact available for responsible Flight Standards office review. m. For objective test purposes, see Appendix F of this part for the definitions of “Near maximum,” “Light,” and “Medium” gross weight. End QPS Requirements Begin Information n. In those cases where the objective test results authorize a “snapshot test” or a “series of snapshot tests” results in lieu of a time-history result, the sponsor or other data provider must ensure that a steady state condition exists at the instant of time captured by the “snapshot.” The steady state condition should exist from 4 seconds prior to, through 1 second following, the instant of time captured by the snap shot. o. For references on basic operating weight, see AC 120-27, “Aircraft Weight and Balance;” and FAA-H-8083-1, “Aircraft Weight and Balance Handbook.” End Information

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[Please see PDF for image: ER09DE22.050] Begin Information 3. General a. If relevant winds are present in the objective data, the wind vector should be clearly noted as part of the data presentation, expressed in conventional terminology, and related to the runway being used for test near the ground. b. The reader is encouraged to review the Airplane Flight Simulator Evaluation Handbook, Volumes I and II, published by the Royal Aeronautical Society, London, UK, and AC 25-7, as amended, Flight Test Guide for Certification of Transport Category Airplanes, and AC 23-8, as amended, Flight Test Guide for Certification of Part 23 Airplanes, for references and examples regarding flight testing requirements and techniques.

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4. Control Dynamics a. General. The characteristics of an airplane flight control system have a major effect on handling qualities. A significant consideration in pilot acceptability of an airplane is the “feel” provided through the flight controls. Considerable effort is expended on airplane feel system design so that pilots will be comfortable and will consider the airplane desirable to fly. In order for an FFS to be representative, it should “feel” like the airplane being simulated. Compliance with this requirement is determined by comparing a recording of the control feel dynamics of the FFS to actual airplane measurements in the takeoff, cruise and landing configurations. (1) Recordings such as free response to an impulse or step function are classically used to estimate the dynamic properties of electromechanical systems. In any case, it is only possible to estimate the dynamic properties as a result of being able to estimate true inputs and responses. Therefore, it is imperative that the best possible data be collected since close matching of the FFS control loading system to the airplane system is essential. The required dynamic control tests are described in Table A2A of this attachment. (2) For initial and upgrade evaluations, the QPS requires that control dynamics characteristics be measured and recorded directly from the flight controls (Handling Qualities—Table A2A). This procedure is usually accomplished by measuring the free response of the controls using a step or impulse input to excite the system. The procedure should be accomplished in the takeoff, cruise and landing flight conditions and configurations. (3) For airplanes with irreversible control systems, measurements may be obtained on the ground if proper pitot-static inputs are provided to represent airspeeds typical of those encountered in flight. Likewise, it may be shown that for some airplanes, takeoff, cruise, and landing configurations have like effects. Thus, one may suffice for another. In either case, engineering validation or airplane manufacturer rationale should be submitted as justification for ground tests or for eliminating a configuration. For FFSs requiring static and dynamic tests at the controls, special test fixtures will not be required during initial and upgrade evaluations if the QTG shows both test fixture results and the results of an alternate approach (e.g., computer plots that were produced concurrently and show satisfactory agreement). Repeat of the alternate method during the initial evaluation satisfies this test requirement. b. Control Dynamics Evaluation. The dynamic properties of control systems are often stated in terms of frequency, damping and a number of other classical measurements. In order to establish a consistent means of validating test results for FFS control loading, criteria are needed that will clearly define the measurement interpretation and the applied tolerances. Criteria are needed for underdamped, critically damped and overdamped systems. In the case of an underdamped system with very light damping, the system may be quantified in terms of frequency and damping. In critically damped or overdamped systems, the frequency and damping are not readily measured from a response time history. Therefore, the following suggested measurements may be used: (1) For Level C and D simulators. Tests to verify that control feel dynamics represent the airplane should show that the dynamic damping cycles (free response of the controls) match those of the airplane within specified tolerances. The Flight Standards Service recognizes that several different testing methods may be used to verify the control feel dynamic response. The responsible Flight Standards office will consider the merits of testing methods based on reliability and consistency. One acceptable method of evaluating the response and the tolerance to be applied is described below for the underdamped and critically damped cases. A sponsor using this method to comply with the QPS requirements should perform the tests as follows: (a) Underdamped response. Two measurements are required for the period, the time to first zero crossing (in case a rate limit is present) and the subsequent frequency of oscillation. It is necessary to measure cycles on an individual basis in case there are non-uniform periods in the response. Each period will be independently compared to the respective period of the airplane control system and, consequently, will enjoy the full tolerance specified for that period. The damping tolerance will be applied to overshoots on an individual basis. Care should be taken when applying the tolerance to small overshoots since the significance of such overshoots becomes questionable. Only those overshoots larger than 5 per cent of the total initial displacement should be considered. The residual band, labeled T(A d ) on Figure A2A is ±5 percent of the initial displacement amplitude A d from the steady state value of the oscillation. Only oscillations outside the residual band are considered significant. When comparing FFS data to airplane data, the process should begin by overlaying or aligning the FFS and airplane steady state values and then comparing amplitudes of oscillation peaks, the time of the first zero crossing and individual periods of oscillation. The FFS should show the same number of significant overshoots to within one when compared against the airplane data. The procedure for evaluating the response is illustrated in Figure A2A.

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(b) Critically damped and overdamped response. Due to the nature of critically damped and overdamped responses (no overshoots), the time to reach 90 percent of the steady state (neutral point) value should be the same as the airplane within ±10 percent. Figure A2B illustrates the procedure. (c) Special considerations. Control systems that exhibit characteristics other than classical overdamped or underdamped responses should meet specified tolerances. In addition, special consideration should be given to ensure that significant trends are maintained. (2) Tolerances. (a) The following table summarizes the tolerances, T, for underdamped systems, and “n” is the sequential period of a full cycle of oscillation. See Figure A2A of this attachment for an illustration of the referenced measurements.

T(P 0 )	±10% of P 0 .
T(P 1 )	±20% of P 1 .
T(P 2 )	±30% of P 2 .
T(P n )	±10(n + 1)% of P n .
T(A n )	±10% of A 1 .
T(A d )	±5% of A d = residual band.

Significant overshoots, First overshoot and ±1 subsequent overshoots. (b) The following tolerance applies to critically damped and overdamped systems only. See Figure A2B for an illustration of the reference measurements:

T(P 0 )

±10% of P 0

End Information Begin QPS Requirement c. Alternative method for control dynamics evaluation. (1) An alternative means for validating control dynamics for aircraft with hydraulically powered flight controls and artificial feel systems is by the measurement of control force and rate of movement. For each axis of pitch, roll, and yaw, the control must be forced to its maximum extreme position for the following distinct rates. These tests are conducted under normal flight and ground conditions. (a) Static test—Slowly move the control so that a full sweep is achieved within 95 to 105 seconds. A full sweep is defined as movement of the controller from neutral to the stop, usually aft or right stop, then to the opposite stop, then to the neutral position. (b) Slow dynamic test—Achieve a full sweep within 8-12 seconds. (c) Fast dynamic test—Achieve a full sweep within 3-5 seconds. Note: Dynamic sweeps may be limited to forces not exceeding 100 lbs. (44.5 daN).

(d) Tolerances (i) Static test; see Table A2A, FFS Objective Tests, Entries 2.a.1., 2.a.2., and 2.a.3. (ii) Dynamic test—±2 lbs (0.9 daN) or ±10% on dynamic increment above static test. End QPS Requirement Begin Information d. The FAA is open to alternative means such as the one described above. The alternatives should be justified and appropriate to the application. For example, the method described here may not apply to all manufacturers' systems and certainly not to aircraft with reversible control systems. Each case is considered on its own merit on an ad hoc basis. If the FAA finds that alternative methods do not result in satisfactory performance, more conventionally accepted methods will have to be used.

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[Please see PDF for image: ER09MY08.001] 5. Ground Effect a. For an FFS to be used for take-off and landing (not applicable to Level A simulators in that the landing maneuver may not be credited in a Level A simulator) it should reproduce the aerodynamic changes that occur in ground effect. The parameters chosen for FFS validation should indicate these changes. (1) A dedicated test should be provided that will validate the aerodynamic ground effect characteristics. (2) The organization performing the flight tests may select appropriate test methods and procedures to validate ground effect. However, the flight tests should be performed with enough duration near the ground to sufficiently validate the ground-effect model. b. The responsible Flight Standards office will consider the merits of testing methods based on reliability and consistency. Acceptable methods of validating ground effect are described below. If other methods are proposed, rationale should be provided to conclude that the tests performed validate the ground-effect model. A sponsor using the methods described below to comply with the QPS requirements should perform the tests as follows: (1) Level fly-bys. The level fly-bys should be conducted at a minimum of three altitudes within the ground effect, including one at no more than 10% of the wingspan above the ground, one each at approximately 30% and 50% of the wingspan where height refers to main gear tire above the ground. In addition, one level-flight trim condition should be conducted out of ground effect (e.g., at 150% of wingspan). (2) Shallow approach landing. The shallow approach landing should be performed at a glide slope of approximately one degree with negligible pilot activity until flare. c. The lateral-directional characteristics are also altered by ground effect. For example, because of changes in lift, roll damping is affected. The change in roll damping will affect other dynamic modes usually evaluated for FFS validation. In fact, Dutch roll dynamics, spiral stability, and roll-rate for a given lateral control input are altered by ground effect. Steady heading sideslips will also be affected. These effects should be accounted for in the FFS modeling. Several tests such as crosswind landing, one engine inoperative landing, and engine failure on take-off serve to validate lateral-directional ground effect since portions of these tests are accomplished as the aircraft is descending through heights above the runway at which ground effect is an important factor.

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6. Motion System a. General. (1) Pilots use continuous information signals to regulate the state of the airplane. In concert with the instruments and outside-world visual information, whole-body motion feedback is essential in assisting the pilot to control the airplane dynamics, particularly in the presence of external disturbances. The motion system should meet basic objective performance criteria, and should be subjectively tuned at the pilot's seat position to represent the linear and angular accelerations of the airplane during a prescribed minimum set of maneuvers and conditions. The response of the motion cueing system should also be repeatable. (2) The Motion System tests in Section 3 of Table A2A are intended to qualify the FFS motion cueing system from a mechanical performance standpoint. Additionally, the list of motion effects provides a representative sample of dynamic conditions that should be present in the flight simulator. An additional list of representative, training-critical maneuvers, selected from Section 1 (Performance tests), and Section 2 (Handling Qualities tests), in Table A2A, that should be recorded during initial qualification (but without tolerance) to indicate the flight simulator motion cueing performance signature have been identified (reference Section 3.e). These tests are intended to help improve the overall standard of FFS motion cueing. b. Motion System Checks. The intent of test 3a, Frequency Response, and test 3b, Turn-Around Check, as described in the Table of Objective Tests, are to demonstrate the performance of the motion system hardware, and to check the integrity of the motion set-up with regard to calibration and wear. These tests are independent of the motion cueing software and should be considered robotic tests. c. Motion System Repeatability. The intent of this test is to ensure that the motion system software and motion system hardware have not degraded or changed over time. This diagnostic test should be completed during continuing qualification checks in lieu of the robotic tests. This will allow an improved ability to determine changes in the software or determine degradation in the hardware. The following information delineates the methodology that should be used for this test. (1) Input: The inputs should be such that rotational accelerations, rotational rates, and linear accelerations are inserted before the transfer from airplane center of gravity to pilot reference point with a minimum amplitude of 5 deg/sec/sec, 10 deg/sec and 0.3 g, respectively, to provide adequate analysis of the output. (2) Recommended output: (a) Actual platform linear accelerations; the output will comprise accelerations due to both the linear and rotational motion acceleration; (b) Motion actuators position. d. Objective Motion Cueing Test—Frequency Domain (1) Background. This test quantifies the response of the motion cueing system from the output of the flight model to the motion platform response. Other motion tests, such as the motion system frequency response, concentrate on the mechanical performance of the motion system hardware alone. The intent of this test is to provide quantitative frequency response records of the entire motion system for specified degree-of-freedom transfer relationships over a range of frequencies. This range should be representative of the manual control range for that particular aircraft type and the simulator as set up during qualification. The measurements of this test should include the combined influence of the motion cueing algorithm, the motion platform dynamics, and the transport delay associated with the motion cueing and control system implementation. Specified frequency responses describing the ability of the FSTD to reproduce aircraft translations and rotations, as well as the cross-coupling relations, are required as part of these measurements. When simulating forward aircraft acceleration, the simulator is accelerated momentarily in the forward direction to provide the onset cueing. This is considered the direct transfer relation. The simulator is simultaneously tilted nose-up due to the low-pass filter in order to generate a sustained specific force. The tilt associated with the generation of the sustained specific force, and the angular rates and angular accelerations associated with the initiation of the sustained specific force, are considered cross-coupling relations. The specific force is required for the perception of the aircraft sustained specific force, while the angular rates and accelerations do not occur in the aircraft and should be minimized. (2) Frequency response test. This test requires the frequency response to be measured for the motion cueing system. Reference sinusoidal signals are inserted at the pilot reference position prior to the motion cueing computations. The response of the motion platform in the corresponding degree-of-freedom (the direct transfer relations), as well as the motions resulting from cross-coupling (the cross-coupling relations), are recorded. These are the tests that are important to pilot motion cueing and are general tests applicable to all types of airplanes.

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(3) This test is only required to be run once for the initial qualification of the FSTD and will not be required for continuing qualification purposes. The FAA will accept test results provided by the FSTD manufacturer as part of a Statement of Compliance confirming that the objective motion cueing tests were used to assist in the tuning of the FSTD's motion cueing algorithms. e. Motion Vibrations. (1) Presentation of results. The characteristic motion vibrations may be used to verify that the flight simulator can reproduce the frequency content of the airplane when flown in specific conditions. The test results should be presented as a Power Spectral Density (PSD) plot with frequencies on the horizontal axis and amplitude on the vertical axis. The airplane data and flight simulator data should be presented in the same format with the same scaling. The algorithms used for generating the flight simulator data should be the same as those used for the airplane data. If they are not the same then the algorithms used for the flight simulator data should be proven to be sufficiently comparable. As a minimum, the results along the dominant axes should be presented and a rationale for not presenting the other axes should be provided. (2) Interpretation of results. The overall trend of the PSD plot should be considered while focusing on the dominant frequencies. Less emphasis should be placed on the differences at the high frequency and low amplitude portions of the PSD plot. During the analysis, certain structural components of the flight simulator have resonant frequencies that are filtered and may not appear in the PSD plot. If filtering is required, the notch filter bandwidth should be limited to 1 Hz to ensure that the buffet feel is not adversely affected. In addition, a rationale should be provided to explain that the characteristic motion vibration is not being adversely affected by the filtering. The amplitude should match airplane data as described below. However, if the PSD plot was altered for subjective reasons, a rationale should be provided to justify the change. If the plot is on a logarithmic scale, it may be difficult to interpret the amplitude of the buffet in terms of acceleration. For example, a 1 × 10 −3 g-rms 2 /Hz would describe a heavy buffet and may be seen in the deep stall regime. Alternatively, a 1 × 10 −6 g-rms 2 /Hz buffet is almost not perceivable; but may represent a flap buffet at low speed. The previous two examples differ in magnitude by 1000. On a PSD plot this represents three decades (one decade is a change in order of magnitude of 10; and two decades is a change in order of magnitude of 100). Note: In the example, “g-rms 2 is the mathematical expression for “g's root mean squared.”

7. Sound System a. General. The total sound environment in the airplane is very complex, and changes with atmospheric conditions, airplane configuration, airspeed, altitude, and power settings. Flight deck sounds are an important component of the flight deck operational environment and provide valuable information to the flight crew. These aural cues can either assist the crew (as an indication of an abnormal situation), or hinder the crew (as a distraction or nuisance). For effective training, the flight simulator should provide flight deck sounds that are perceptible to the pilot during normal and abnormal operations, and comparable to those of the airplane. The flight simulator operator should carefully evaluate background noises in the location where the device will be installed. To demonstrate compliance with the sound requirements, the objective or validation tests in this attachment were selected to provide a representative sample of normal static conditions typically experienced by a pilot. b. Alternate propulsion. For FFS with multiple propulsion configurations, any condition listed in Table A2A of this attachment should be presented for evaluation as part of the QTG if identified by the airplane manufacturer or other data supplier as significantly different due to a change in propulsion system (engine or propeller). c. Data and Data Collection System. (1) Information provided to the flight simulator manufacturer should be presented in the format suggested by the International Air Transport Association (IATA) “Flight Simulator Design and Performance Data Requirements,” as amended. This information should contain calibration and frequency response data. (2) The system used to perform the tests listed in Table A2A should comply with the following standards: (a) The specifications for octave, half octave, and third octave band filter sets may be found in American National Standards Institute (ANSI) S1.11-1986; (b) Measurement microphones should be type WS2 or better, as described in International Electrotechnical Commission (IEC) 1094-4-1995. (3) Headsets. If headsets are used during normal operation of the airplane they should also be used during the flight simulator evaluation. (4) Playback equipment. Playback equipment and recordings of the QTG conditions should be provided during initial evaluations. (5) Background noise.

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(a) Background noise is the noise in the flight simulator that is not associated with the airplane, but is caused by the flight simulator's cooling and hydraulic systems and extraneous noise from other locations in the building. Background noise can seriously impact the correct simulation of airplane sounds and should be kept below the airplane sounds. In some cases, the sound level of the simulation can be increased to compensate for the background noise. However, this approach is limited by the specified tolerances and by the subjective acceptability of the sound environment to the evaluation pilot. (b) The acceptability of the background noise levels is dependent upon the normal sound levels in the airplane being represented. Background noise levels that fall below the lines defined by the following points, may be acceptable: (i) 70 dB @ 50 Hz; (ii) 55 dB @ 1000 Hz; (iii) 30 dB @ 16 kHz ( Note: These limits are for unweighted 1/3 octave band sound levels. Meeting these limits for background noise does not ensure an acceptable flight simulator. Airplane sounds that fall below this limit require careful review and may require lower limits on background noise.) (6) Validation testing. Deficiencies in airplane recordings should be considered when applying the specified tolerances to ensure that the simulation is representative of the airplane. Examples of typical deficiencies are: (a) Variation of data between tail numbers; (b) Frequency response of microphones; (c) Repeatability of the measurements. Table A2B—Example of Continuing Qualification Frequency Response Test Tolerance

Band center frequency	Initial results (dBSPL)	Continuing qualification results (dBSPL)	Absolute difference
50	75.0	73.8	1.2
63	75.9	75.6	0.3
80	77.1	76.5	0.6
100	78.0	78.3	0.3
125	81.9	81.3	0.6
160	79.8	80.1	0.3
200	83.1	84.9	1.8
250	78.6	78.9	0.3
315	79.5	78.3	1.2
400	80.1	79.5	0.6
500	80.7	79.8	0.9
630	81.9	80.4	1.5
800	73.2	74.1	0.9
1000	79.2	80.1	0.9
1250	80.7	82.8	2.1
1600	81.6	78.6	3.0
2000	76.2	74.4	1.8
2500	79.5	80.7	1.2
3150	80.1	77.1	3.0
4000	78.9	78.6	0.3
5000	80.1	77.1	3.0
6300	80.7	80.4	0.3
8000	84.3	85.5	1.2
10000	81.3	79.8	1.5
12500	80.7	80.1	0.6
16000	71.1	71.1	0.0
Average			1.1

8. Additional Information About Flight Simulator Qualification for New or Derivative Airplanes a. Typically, an airplane manufacturer's approved final data for performance, handling qualities, systems or avionics is not available until well after a new or derivative airplane has entered service. However, flight crew training and certification often begins several months prior to the entry of the first airplane into service. Consequently, it may be necessary to use preliminary data provided by the airplane manufacturer for interim qualification of flight simulators. b. In these cases, the responsible Flight Standards office may accept certain partially validated preliminary airplane and systems data, and early release (“red label”) avionics data in order to permit the necessary program schedule for training, certification, and service introduction. c. Simulator sponsors seeking qualification based on preliminary data should consult the responsible Flight Standards office to make special arrangements for using preliminary data for flight simulator qualification. The sponsor should also consult the airplane and flight simulator manufacturers to develop a data plan and flight simulator qualification plan. d. The procedure to be followed to gain the responsible Flight Standards office acceptance of preliminary data will vary from case to case and between airplane manufacturers. Each airplane manufacturer's new airplane development and test program is designed to suit the needs of the particular project and may not contain the same events or sequence of events as another manufacturer's program, or even the same manufacturer's program for a different airplane. Therefore, there cannot be a prescribed invariable procedure for acceptance of preliminary data, but instead there should be a statement describing the final sequence of events, data sources, and validation procedures agreed by the simulator sponsor, the airplane manufacturer, the flight simulator manufacturer, and the responsible Flight Standards office.

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Note: A description of airplane manufacturer-provided data needed for flight simulator modeling and validation is to be found in the IATA Document “Flight Simulator Design and Performance Data Requirements,” as amended.

e. The preliminary data should be the manufacturer's best representation of the airplane, with assurance that the final data will not significantly deviate from the preliminary estimates. Data derived from these predictive or preliminary techniques should be validated against available sources including, at least, the following: (1) Manufacturer's engineering report. The report should explain the predictive method used and illustrate past success of the method on similar projects. For example, the manufacturer could show the application of the method to an earlier airplane model or predict the characteristics of an earlier model and compare the results to final data for that model. (2) Early flight test results. This data is often derived from airplane certification tests, and should be used to maximum advantage for early flight simulator validation. Certain critical tests that would normally be done early in the airplane certification program should be included to validate essential pilot training and certification maneuvers. These include cases where a pilot is expected to cope with an airplane failure mode or an engine failure. Flight test data that will be available early in the flight test program will depend on the airplane manufacturer's flight test program design and may not be the same in each case. The flight test program of the airplane manufacturer should include provisions for generation of very early flight test results for flight simulator validation. f. The use of preliminary data is not indefinite. The airplane manufacturer's final data should be available within 12 months after the airplane's first entry into service or as agreed by the responsible Flight Standards office, the simulator sponsor, and the airplane manufacturer. When applying for interim qualification using preliminary data, the simulator sponsor and the responsible Flight Standards office should agree on the update program. This includes specifying that the final data update will be installed in the flight simulator within a period of 12 months following the final data release, unless special conditions exist and a different schedule is acceptable. The flight simulator performance and handling validation would then be based on data derived from flight tests or from other approved sources. Initial airplane systems data should be updated after engineering tests. Final airplane systems data should also be used for flight simulator programming and validation. g. Flight simulator avionics should stay essentially in step with airplane avionics (hardware and software) updates. The permitted time lapse between airplane and flight simulator updates should be minimal. It may depend on the magnitude of the update and whether the QTG and pilot training and certification are affected. Differences in airplane and flight simulator avionics versions and the resulting effects on flight simulator qualification should be agreed between the simulator sponsor and the responsible Flight Standards office. Consultation with the flight simulator manufacturer is desirable throughout the qualification process. h. The following describes an example of the design data and sources that might be used in the development of an interim qualification plan. (1) The plan should consist of the development of a QTG based upon a mix of flight test and engineering simulation data. For data collected from specific airplane flight tests or other flights, the required design model or data changes necessary to support an acceptable Proof of Match (POM) should be generated by the airplane manufacturer. (2) For proper validation of the two sets of data, the airplane manufacturer should compare their simulation model responses against the flight test data, when driven by the same control inputs and subjected to the same atmospheric conditions as recorded in the flight test. The model responses should result from a simulation where the following systems are run in an integrated fashion and are consistent with the design data released to the flight simulator manufacturer: (a) Propulsion; (b) Aerodynamics; (c) Mass properties; (d) Flight controls; (e) Stability augmentation; and (f) Brakes/landing gear. i. A qualified test pilot should be used to assess handling qualities and performance evaluations for the qualification of flight simulators of new airplane types. End Information Begin QPS Requirement 9. Engineering Simulator—Validation Data a. When a fully validated simulation (i.e., validated with flight test results) is modified due to changes to the simulated airplane configuration, the airplane manufacturer or other acceptable data supplier must coordinate with the responsible Flight Standards office if they propose to supply validation data from an “audited” engineering simulator/simulation to selectively supplement flight test data. The responsible Flight Standards office must be provided an opportunity to audit the engineering simulation or the engineering simulator used to generate the validation data. Validation data from an audited engineering simulation may be used for changes that are incremental in nature. Manufacturers or other data suppliers must be able to demonstrate that the predicted changes in aircraft performance are based on acceptable aeronautical principles with proven success history and valid outcomes. This must include comparisons of predicted and flight test validated data.

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b. Airplane manufacturers or other acceptable data suppliers seeking to use an engineering simulator for simulation validation data as an alternative to flight-test derived validation data, must contact the responsible Flight Standards office and provide the following: (1) A description of the proposed aircraft changes, a description of the proposed simulation model changes, and the use of an integral configuration management process, including a description of the actual simulation model modifications that includes a step-by-step description leading from the original model(s) to the current model(s). (2) A schedule for review by the responsible Flight Standards office of the proposed plan and the subsequent validation data to establish acceptability of the proposal. (3) Validation data from an audited engineering simulator/simulation to supplement specific segments of the flight test data. c. To be qualified to supply engineering simulator validation data, for aerodynamic, engine, flight control, or ground handling models, an airplane manufacturer or other acceptable data supplier must: (1) Be able to verify their ability able to: (a) Develop and implement high fidelity simulation models; and (b) Predict the handling and performance characteristics of an airplane with sufficient accuracy to avoid additional flight test activities for those handling and performance characteristics. (2) Have an engineering simulator that: (a) Is a physical entity, complete with a flight deck representative of the simulated class of airplane; (b) Has controls sufficient for manual flight; (c) Has models that run in an integrated manner; (d) Has fully flight-test validated simulation models as the original or baseline simulation models; (e) Has an out-of-the-flight deck visual system; (f) Has actual avionics boxes interchangeable with the equivalent software simulations to support validation of released software; (g) Uses the same models as released to the training community (which are also used to produce stand-alone proof-of-match and checkout documents); (h) Is used to support airplane development and certification; and (i) Has been found to be a high fidelity representation of the airplane by the manufacturer's pilots (or other acceptable data supplier), certificate holders, and the responsible Flight Standards office. (3) Use the engineering simulator/simulation to produce a representative set of integrated proof-of-match cases. (4) Use a configuration control system covering hardware and software for the operating components of the engineering simulator/simulation. (5) Demonstrate that the predicted effects of the change(s) are within the provisions of sub-paragraph “a” of this section, and confirm that additional flight test data are not required. d. Additional Requirements for Validation Data (1) When used to provide validation data, an engineering simulator must meet the simulator standards currently applicable to training simulators except for the data package. (2) The data package used must be: (a) Comprised of the engineering predictions derived from the airplane design, development, or certification process; (b) Based on acceptable aeronautical principles with proven success history and valid outcomes for aerodynamics, engine operations, avionics operations, flight control applications, or ground handling; (c) Verified with existing flight-test data; and (d) Applicable to the configuration of a production airplane, as opposed to a flight-test airplane. (3) Where engineering simulator data are used as part of a QTG, an essential match must exist between the training simulator and the validation data. (4) Training flight simulator(s) using these baseline and modified simulation models must be qualified to at least internationally recognized standards, such as contained in the ICAO Document 9625, the “Manual of Criteria for the Qualification of Flight Simulators.” End QPS Requirement 10. [Reserved] 11. Validation Test Tolerances Begin Information a. Non-Flight-Test Tolerances (1) If engineering simulator data or other non-flight-test data are used as an allowable form of reference validation data for the objective tests listed in Table A2A of this attachment, the data provider must supply a well-documented mathematical model and testing procedure that enables a replication of the engineering simulation results within 40% of the corresponding flight test tolerances.

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b. Background (1) The tolerances listed in Table A2A of this attachment are designed to measure the quality of the match using flight-test data as a reference. (2) Good engineering judgment should be applied to all tolerances in any test. A test is failed when the results clearly fall outside of the prescribed tolerance(s). (3) Engineering simulator data are acceptable because the same simulation models used to produce the reference data are also used to test the flight training simulator (i.e., the two sets of results should be “essentially” similar). (4) The results from the two sources may differ for the following reasons: (a) Hardware (avionics units and flight controls); (b) Iteration rates; (c) Execution order; (d) Integration methods; (e) Processor architecture; (f) Digital drift, including: (i) Interpolation methods; (ii) Data handling differences; and (iii) Auto-test trim tolerances. (5) The tolerance limit between the reference data and the flight simulator results is generally 40 percent of the corresponding `flight-test' tolerances. However, there may be cases where the simulator models used are of higher fidelity, or the manner in which they are cascaded in the integrated testing loop have the effect of a higher fidelity, than those supplied by the data provider. Under these circumstances, it is possible that an error greater than 40 percent may be generated. An error greater than 40 percent may be acceptable if simulator sponsor can provide an adequate explanation. (6) Guidelines are needed for the application of tolerances to engineering-simulator-generated validation data because: (a) Flight-test data are often not available due to technical reasons; (b) Alternative technical solutions are being advanced; and (c) High costs. 12. Validation Data Roadmap a. Airplane manufacturers or other data suppliers should supply a validation data roadmap (VDR) document as part of the data package. A VDR document contains guidance material from the airplane validation data supplier recommending the best possible sources of data to be used as validation data in the QTG. A VDR is of special value when requesting interim qualification, qualification of simulators for airplanes certificated prior to 1992, and qualification of alternate engine or avionics fits. A sponsor seeking to have a device qualified in accordance with the standards contained in this QPS appendix should submit a VDR to the responsible Flight Standards office as early as possible in the planning stages. The responsible Flight Standards office is the final authority to approve the data to be used as validation material for the QTG. b. The VDR should identify (in matrix format) sources of data for all required tests. It should also provide guidance regarding the validity of these data for a specific engine type, thrust rating configuration, and the revision levels of all avionics affecting airplane handling qualities and performance. The VDR should include rationale or explanation in cases where data or parameters are missing, engineering simulation data are to be used, flight test methods require explanation, or there is any deviation from data requirements. Additionally, the document should refer to other appropriate sources of validation data (e.g., sound and vibration data documents). c. The Sample Validation Data Roadmap (VDR) for airplanes, shown in Table A2C, depicts a generic roadmap matrix identifying sources of validation data for an abbreviated list of tests. This document is merely a sample and does not provide actual data. A complete matrix should address all test conditions and provide actual data and data sources. d. Two examples of rationale pages are presented in Appendix F of the IATA “Flight Simulator Design and Performance Data Requirements.” These illustrate the type of airplane and avionics configuration information and descriptive engineering rationale used to describe data anomalies or provide an acceptable basis for using alternative data for QTG validation requirements. End Information

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Begin Information 13. Acceptance Guidelines for Alternative Engines Data. a. Background (1) For a new airplane type, the majority of flight validation data are collected on the first airplane configuration with a “baseline” engine type. These data are then used to validate all flight simulators representing that airplane type. (2) Additional flight test validation data may be needed for flight simulators representing an airplane with engines of a different type than the baseline, or for engines with thrust rating that is different from previously validated configurations. (3) When a flight simulator with alternate engines is to be qualified, the QTG should contain tests against flight test validation data for selected cases where engine differences are expected to be significant. b. Approval Guidelines For Validating Alternate Engine Applications (1) The following guidelines apply to flight simulators representing airplanes with alternate engine applications or with more than one engine type or thrust rating. (2) Validation tests can be segmented into two groups, those that are dependent on engine type or thrust rating and those that are not. (3) For tests that are independent of engine type or thrust rating, the QTG can be based on validation data from any engine application. Tests in this category should be designated as independent of engine type or thrust rating. (4) For tests that are affected by engine type, the QTG should contain selected engine-specific flight test data sufficient to validate that particular airplane-engine configuration. These effects may be due to engine dynamic characteristics, thrust levels or engine-related airplane configuration changes. This category is primarily characterized by variations between different engine manufacturers' products, but also includes differences due to significant engine design changes from a previously flight-validated configuration within a single engine type. See Table A2D, Alternate Engine Validation Flight Tests in this section for a list of acceptable tests. (5) Alternate engine validation data should be based on flight test data, except as noted in sub-paragraphs 13.c.(1) and (2), or where other data are specifically allowed (e.g., engineering simulator/simulation data). If certification of the flight characteristics of the airplane with a new thrust rating (regardless of percentage change) does require certification flight testing with a comprehensive stability and control flight instrumentation package, then the conditions described in Table A2D in this section should be obtained from flight testing and presented in the QTG. Flight test data, other than throttle calibration data, are not required if the new thrust rating is certified on the airplane without need for a comprehensive stability and control flight instrumentation package. (6) As a supplement to the engine-specific flight tests listed in Table A2D and baseline engine-independent tests, additional engine-specific engineering validation data should be provided in the QTG, as appropriate, to facilitate running the entire QTG with the alternate engine configuration. The sponsor and the responsible Flight Standards office should agree in advance on the specific validation tests to be supported by engineering simulation data. (7) A matrix or VDR should be provided with the QTG indicating the appropriate validation data source for each test. (8) The flight test conditions in Table A2D are appropriate and should be sufficient to validate implementation of alternate engines in a flight simulator. End Information Begin QPS Requirement c. Test Requirements (1) The QTG must contain selected engine-specific flight test data sufficient to validate the alternative thrust level when: (a) the engine type is the same, but the thrust rating exceeds that of a previously flight-test validated configuration by five percent (5%) or more; or (b) the engine type is the same, but the thrust rating is less than the lowest previously flight-test validated rating by fifteen percent (15%) or more. See Table A2D for a list of acceptable tests. (2) Flight test data is not required if the thrust increase is greater than 5%, but flight tests have confirmed that the thrust increase does not change the airplane's flight characteristics. (3) Throttle calibration data (i.e., commanded power setting parameter versus throttle position) must be provided to validate all alternate engine types and engine thrust ratings that are higher or lower than a previously validated engine. Data from a test airplane or engineering test bench with the correct engine controller (both hardware and software) are required. End QPS Requirement Begin QPS Requirement

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Table A2D—Alternative Engine Validation Flight Tests

Entry No.	Test description		Alternative engine type	Alternative thrust rating  2
1.b.1., 1.b.4.	Normal take-off/ground acceleration time and distance	X	X
1.b.2.	V mcg , if performed for airplane certification	X	X
1.b.5. 1.b.8.	Engine-out take-off Dynamic engine failure after take-off.	Either test may be performed	X
1.b.7.	Rejected take-off if performed for airplane certification	X
1.d.1.	Cruise performance	X
1.f.1., 1.f.2.	Engine acceleration and deceleration	X	X
2.a.7.	Throttle calibration  1	X	X
2.c.1.	Power change dynamics (acceleration)	X	X
2.d.1.	V mca if performed for airplane certification	X	X
2.d.5.	Engine inoperative trim	X	X
2.e.1.	Normal landing	X
1  Must be provided for all changes in engine type or thrust rating; see paragraph 13.c.(3).
2  See paragraphs 13.c.(1) through 13.c.(3), for a definition of applicable thrust ratings.

End QPS Requirement Begin Information 14. Acceptance Guidelines for Alternative Avionics (Flight-Related Computers and Controllers) a. Background (1) For a new airplane type, the majority of flight validation data are collected on the first airplane configuration with a “baseline” flight-related avionics ship-set; (see subparagraph b.(2) of this section). These data are then used to validate all flight simulators representing that airplane type. (2) Additional validation data may be required for flight simulators representing an airplane with avionics of a different hardware design than the baseline, or a different software revision than previously validated configurations. (3) When a flight simulator with additional or alternate avionics configurations is to be qualified, the QTG should contain tests against validation data for selected cases where avionics differences are expected to be significant. b. Approval Guidelines for Validating Alternate Avionics (1) The following guidelines apply to flight simulators representing airplanes with a revised avionics configuration, or more than one avionics configuration. (2) The baseline validation data should be based on flight test data, except where other data are specifically allowed (e.g., engineering flight simulator data). (3) The airplane avionics can be segmented into two groups, systems or components whose functional behavior contributes to the aircraft response presented in the QTG results, and systems that do not. The following avionics are examples of contributory systems for which hardware design changes or software revisions may lead to significant differences in the aircraft response relative to the baseline avionics configuration: Flight control computers and controllers for engines, autopilot, braking system, nosewheel steering system, and high lift system. Related avionics such as stall warning and augmentation systems should also be considered. (4) The acceptability of validation data used in the QTG for an alternative avionics fit should be determined as follows: (a) For changes to an avionics system or component that do not affect QTG validation test response, the QTG test can be based on validation data from the previously validated avionics configuration. (b) For an avionics change to a contributory system, where a specific test is not affected by the change (e.g., the avionics change is a Built In Test Equipment (BITE) update or a modification in a different flight phase), the QTG test can be based on validation data from the previously-validated avionics configuration. The QTG should include authoritative justification (e.g., from the airplane manufacturer or system supplier) that this avionics change does not affect the test. (c) For an avionics change to a contributory system, the QTG may be based on validation data from the previously-validated avionics configuration if no new functionality is added and the impact of the avionics change on the airplane response is small and based on acceptable aeronautical principles with proven success history and valid outcomes. This should be supplemented with avionics-specific validation data from the airplane manufacturer's engineering simulation, generated with the revised avionics configuration. The QTG should also include an explanation of the nature of the change and its effect on the airplane response.

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(d) For an avionics change to a contributory system that significantly affects some tests in the QTG or where new functionality is added, the QTG should be based on validation data from the previously validated avionics configuration and supplemental avionics-specific flight test data sufficient to validate the alternate avionics revision. Additional flight test validation data may not be needed if the avionics changes were certified without the need for testing with a comprehensive flight instrumentation package. The airplane manufacturer should coordinate flight simulator data requirements, in advance with the responsible Flight Standards office. (5) A matrix or “roadmap” should be provided with the QTG indicating the appropriate validation data source for each test. The roadmap should include identification of the revision state of those contributory avionics systems that could affect specific test responses if changed. 15. Transport Delay Testing a. This paragraph explains how to determine the introduced transport delay through the flight simulator system so that it does not exceed a specific time delay. The transport delay should be measured from control inputs through the interface, through each of the host computer modules and back through the interface to motion, flight instrument, and visual systems. The transport delay should not exceed the maximum allowable interval. b. Four specific examples of transport delay are: (1) Simulation of classic non-computer controlled aircraft; (2) Simulation of computer controlled aircraft using real airplane black boxes; (3) Simulation of computer controlled aircraft using software emulation of airplane boxes; (4) Simulation using software avionics or re-hosted instruments. c. Figure A2C illustrates the total transport delay for a non-computer-controlled airplane or the classic transport delay test. Since there are no airplane-induced delays for this case, the total transport delay is equivalent to the introduced delay. d. Figure A2D illustrates the transport delay testing method using the real airplane controller system. e. To obtain the induced transport delay for the motion, instrument and visual signal, the delay induced by the airplane controller should be subtracted from the total transport delay. This difference represents the introduced delay and should not exceed the standards prescribed in Table A1A. f. Introduced transport delay is measured from the flight deck control input to the reaction of the instruments and motion and visual systems (See Figure A2C). g. The control input may also be introduced after the airplane controller system and the introduced transport delay measured directly from the control input to the reaction of the instruments, and simulator motion and visual systems (See Figure A2D). h. Figure A2E illustrates the transport delay testing method used on a flight simulator that uses a software emulated airplane controller system. i. It is not possible to measure the introduced transport delay using the simulated airplane controller system architecture for the pitch, roll and yaw axes. Therefore, the signal should be measured directly from the pilot controller. The flight simulator manufacturer should measure the total transport delay and subtract the inherent delay of the actual airplane components because the real airplane controller system has an inherent delay provided by the airplane manufacturer. The flight simulator manufacturer should ensure that the introduced delay does not exceed the standards prescribed in Table A1A. j. Special measurements for instrument signals for flight simulators using a real airplane instrument display system instead of a simulated or re-hosted display. For flight instrument systems, the total transport delay should be measured and the inherent delay of the actual airplane components subtracted to ensure that the introduced delay does not exceed the standards prescribed in Table A1A. (1) Figure A2FA illustrates the transport delay procedure without airplane display simulation. The introduced delay consists of the delay between the control movement and the instrument change on the data bus. (2) Figure A2FB illustrates the modified testing method required to measure introduced delay due to software avionics or re-hosted instruments. The total simulated instrument transport delay is measured and the airplane delay should be subtracted from this total. This difference represents the introduced delay and should not exceed the standards prescribed in Table A1A. The inherent delay of the airplane between the data bus and the displays is indicated in figure A2FA. The display manufacturer should provide this delay time. k. Recorded signals. The signals recorded to conduct the transport delay calculations should be explained on a schematic block diagram. The flight simulator manufacturer should also provide an explanation of why each signal was selected and how they relate to the above descriptions. l. Interpretation of results. Flight simulator results vary over time from test to test due to “sampling uncertainty.” All flight simulators run at a specific rate where all modules are executed sequentially in the host computer. The flight controls input can occur at any time in the iteration, but these data will not be processed before the start of the new iteration. For example, a flight simulator running at 60 Hz may have a difference of as much as 16.67 msec between test results. This does not mean that the test has failed. Instead, the difference is attributed to variations in input processing. In some conditions, the host simulator and the visual system do not run at the same iteration rate, so the output of the host computer to the visual system will not always be synchronized.

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m. The transport delay test should account for both daylight and night modes of operation of the visual system. In both cases, the tolerances prescribed in Table A1A must be met and the motion response should occur before the end of the first video scan containing new information.

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[Please see PDF for image: ER09MY08.003]

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[Please see PDF for image: ER09MY08.004] Begin Information 16. Continuing Qualification Evaluations—Validation Test Data Presentation a. Background (1) The MQTG is created during the initial evaluation of a flight simulator. This is the master document, as amended, to which flight simulator continuing qualification evaluation test results are compared. (2) The currently accepted method of presenting continuing qualification evaluation test results is to provide flight simulator results over-plotted with reference data. Test results are carefully reviewed to determine if the test is within the specified tolerances. This can be a time consuming process, particularly when reference data exhibits rapid variations or an apparent anomaly requiring engineering judgment in the application of the tolerances. In these cases, the solution is to compare the results to the MQTG. The continuing qualification results are compared to the results in the MQTG for acceptance. The flight simulator operator and the responsible Flight Standards office should look for any change in the flight simulator performance since initial qualification. b. Continuing Qualification Evaluation Test Results Presentation (1) Flight simulator operators are encouraged to over-plot continuing qualification validation test results with MQTG flight simulator results recorded during the initial evaluation and as amended. Any change in a validation test will be readily apparent. In addition to plotting continuing qualification validation test and MQTG results, operators may elect to plot reference data as well. (2) There are no suggested tolerances between flight simulator continuing qualification and MQTG validation test results. Investigation of any discrepancy between the MQTG and continuing qualification flight simulator performance is left to the discretion of the flight simulator operator and the responsible Flight Standards office.

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(3) Differences between the two sets of results, other than variations attributable to repeatability issues that cannot be explained, should be investigated. (4) The flight simulator should retain the ability to over-plot both automatic and manual validation test results with reference data. End Information Begin QPS Requirements 17. Alternative Data Sources, Procedures, and Instrumentation: Level A and Level B Simulators Only a. Sponsors are not required to use the alternative data sources, procedures, and instrumentation. However, a sponsor may choose to use one or more of the alternative sources, procedures, and instrumentation described in Table A2E. End QPS Requirements Begin Information b. It has become standard practice for experienced simulator manufacturers to use modeling techniques to establish data bases for new simulator configurations while awaiting the availability of actual flight test data. The data generated from the aerodynamic modeling techniques is then compared to the flight test data when it becomes available. The results of such comparisons have become increasingly consistent, indicating that these techniques, applied with the appropriate experience, are dependable and accurate for the development of aerodynamic models for use in Level A and Level B simulators. c. Based on this history of successful comparisons, the responsible Flight Standards office has concluded that those who are experienced in the development of aerodynamic models may use modeling techniques to alter the method for acquiring flight test data for Level A or Level B simulators. d. The information in Table A2E (Alternative Data Sources, Procedures, and Instrumentation) is presented to describe an acceptable alternative to data sources for simulator modeling and validation and an acceptable alternative to the procedures and instrumentation traditionally used to gather such modeling and validation data. (1) Alternative data sources that may be used for part or all of a data requirement are the Airplane Maintenance Manual, the Airplane Flight Manual (AFM), Airplane Design Data, the Type Inspection Report (TIR), Certification Data or acceptable supplemental flight test data. (2) The sponsor should coordinate with the responsible Flight Standards office prior to using alternative data sources in a flight test or data gathering effort. e. The responsible Flight Standards office position regarding the use of these alternative data sources, procedures, and instrumentation is based on the following presumptions: (1) Data gathered through the alternative means does not require angle of attack (AOA) measurements or control surface position measurements for any flight test. However, AOA can be sufficiently derived if the flight test program ensures the collection of acceptable level, unaccelerated, trimmed flight data. All of the simulator time history tests that begin in level, unaccelerated, and trimmed flight, including the three basic trim tests and “fly-by” trims, can be a successful validation of angle of attack by comparison with flight test pitch angle. (Note: Due to the criticality of angle of attack in the development of the ground effects model, particularly critical for normal landings and landings involving cross-control input applicable to Level B simulators, stable “fly-by” trim data will be the acceptable norm for normal and cross-control input landing objective data for these applications.) (2) The use of a rigorously defined and fully mature simulation controls system model that includes accurate gearing and cable stretch characteristics (where applicable), determined from actual aircraft measurements. Such a model does not require control surface position measurements in the flight test objective data in these limited applications. f. The sponsor is urged to contact the responsible Flight Standards office for clarification of any issue regarding airplanes with reversible control systems. Table A2E is not applicable to Computer Controlled Aircraft FFSs. g. Utilization of these alternate data sources, procedures, and instrumentation (Table A2E) does not relieve the sponsor from compliance with the balance of the information contained in this document relative to Level A or Level B FFSs. h. The term “inertial measurement system” is used in the following table to include the use of a functional global positioning system (GPS). i. Synchronized video for the use of alternative data sources, procedures, and instrumentation should have: (1) Sufficient resolution to allow magnification of the display to make appropriate measurement and comparisons; and (2) Sufficient size and incremental marking to allow similar measurement and comparison. The detail provided by the video should provide sufficient clarity and accuracy to measure the necessary parameter(s) to at least 1/2 of the tolerance authorized for the specific test being conducted and allow an integration of the parameter(s) in question to obtain a rate of change.

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End Information Table A2E—Alternative Data Sources, Procedures, and Instrumentation

QPS REQUIREMENTS The standards in this table are required if the data gathering methods described in paragraph 9 of Appendix A are not used.	Table of objective tests	Test entry number and title	Sim level	A	B	Alternative data sources, procedures, and instrumentation	Information	Notes
1.a.1. Performance. Taxi. Minimum Radius turn	X	X	TIR, AFM, or Design data may be used
1.a.2. Performance. Taxi Rate of Turn vs. Nosewheel Steering Angle		X	Data may be acquired by using a constant tiller position, measured with a protractor or full rudder pedal application for steady state turn, and synchronized video of heading indicator. If less than full rudder pedal is used, pedal position must be recorded.	A single procedure may not be adequate for all airplane steering systems, therefore appropriate measurement procedures must be devised and proposed for the responsible Flight Standards office concurrence.
1.b.1. Performance. Takeoff. Ground Acceleration Time and Distance	X	X	Preliminary certification data may be used. Data may be acquired by using a stop watch, calibrated airspeed, and runway markers during a takeoff with power set before brake release. Power settings may be hand recorded. If an inertial measurement system is installed, speed and distance may be derived from acceleration measurements
1.b.2. Performance. Takeoff. Minimum Control Speed—ground (V mcg ) using aerodynamic controls only (per applicable airworthiness standard) or low speed, engine inoperative ground control characteristics	X	X	Data may be acquired by using an inertial measurement system and a synchronized video of calibrated airplane instruments and force/position measurements of flight deck controls	Rapid throttle reductions at speeds near V mcg may be used while recording appropriate parameters. The nosewheel must be free to caster, or equivalently freed of sideforce generation.
1.b.3. Performance. Takeoff. Minimum Unstick Speed (V mu ) or equivalent test to demonstrate early rotation takeoff characteristics	X	X	Data may be acquired by using an inertial measurement system and a synchronized video of calibrated airplane instruments and the force/position measurements of flight deck controls
1.b.4. Performance. Takeoff. Normal Takeoff	X	X	Data may be acquired by using an inertial measurement system and a synchronized video of calibrated airplane instruments and force/position measurements of flight deck controls. AOA can be calculated from pitch attitude and flight path
1.b.5. Performance. Takeoff. Critical Engine Failure during Takeoff	X	X	Data may be acquired by using an inertial measurement system and a synchronized video of calibrated airplane instruments and force/position measurements of flight deck controls	Record airplane dynamic response to engine failure and control inputs required to correct flight path.
1.b.6. Performance. Takeoff. Crosswind Takeoff	X	X	Data may be acquired by using an inertial measurement system and a synchronized video of calibrated airplane instruments and force/position measurements of flight deck controls	The “1:7 law” to 100 feet (30 meters) is an acceptable wind profile.
1.b.7. Performance. Takeoff. Rejected Takeoff	X	X	Data may be acquired with a synchronized video of calibrated airplane instruments, thrust lever position, engine parameters, and distance (e.g., runway markers). A stop watch is required.
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1.c. 1. Performance. Climb. Normal Climb all engines operating.	X	X	Data may be acquired with a synchronized video of calibrated airplane instruments and engine power throughout the climb range
1.c.2. Performance. Climb. One engine Inoperative Climb	X	X	Data may be acquired with a synchronized video of calibrated airplane instruments and engine power throughout the climb range
1.c.4. Performance. Climb. One Engine Inoperative Approach Climb (if operations in icing conditions are authorized)	X	X	Data may be acquired with a synchronized video of calibrated airplane instruments and engine power throughout the climb range
1.d.1. Cruise/Descent. Level flight acceleration.	X	X	Data may be acquired with a synchronized video of calibrated airplane instruments, thrust lever position, engine parameters, and elapsed time
1.d.2. Cruise/Descent. Level flight deceleration.	X	X	Data may be acquired with a synchronized video of calibrated airplane instruments, thrust lever position, engine parameters, and elapsed time
1.d.4. Cruise/Descent. Idle descent	X	X	Data may be acquired with a synchronized video of calibrated airplane instruments, thrust lever position, engine parameters, and elapsed time
1.d.5. Cruise/Descent. Emergency Descent	X	X	Data may be acquired with a synchronized video of calibrated airplane instruments, thrust lever position, engine parameters, and elapsed time
1.e.1. Performance. Stopping. Deceleration time and distance, using manual application of wheel brakes and no reverse thrust on a dry runway	X	X	Data may be acquired during landing tests using a stop watch, runway markers, and a synchronized video of calibrated airplane instruments, thrust lever position and the pertinent parameters of engine power
1.e.2. Performance. Ground. Deceleration Time and Distance, using reverse thrust and no wheel brakes	X	X	Data may be acquired during landing tests using a stop watch, runway markers, and a synchronized video of calibrated airplane instruments, thrust lever position and pertinent parameters of engine power
1.f.1. Performance. Engines. Acceleration	X	X	Data may be acquired with a synchronized video recording of engine instruments and throttle position
1.f.2. Performance. Engines. Deceleration	X	X	Data may be acquired with a synchronized video recording of engine instruments and throttle position
2.a.1.a. Handling Qualities. Static Control Checks. Pitch Controller Position vs. Force and Surface Position Calibration	X	X	Surface position data may be acquired from flight data recorder (FDR) sensor or, if no FDR sensor, at selected, significant column positions (encompassing significant column position data points), acceptable to the responsible Flight Standards office, using a control surface protractor on the ground. Force data may be acquired by using a hand held force gauge at the same column position data points.	For airplanes with reversible control systems, surface position data acquisition should be accomplished with winds less than 5 kts.
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2.a.2.a. Handling Qualities. Static Control Checks. Roll Controller Position vs. Force and Surface Position Calibration	X	X	Surface position data may be acquired from flight data recorder (FDR) sensor or, if no FDR sensor, at selected, significant wheel positions (encompassing significant wheel position data points), acceptable to the responsible Flight Standards office, using a control surface protractor on the ground. Force data may be acquired by using a hand held force gauge at the same wheel position data points.	For airplanes with reversible control systems, surface position data acquisition should be accomplished with winds less than 5 kts.
2.a.3.a. Handling Qualities. Static Control Checks. Rudder Pedal Position vs. Force and Surface Position Calibration	X	X	Surface position data may be acquired from flight data recorder (FDR) sensor or, if no FDR sensor, at selected, significant rudder pedal positions (encompassing significant rudder pedal position data points), acceptable to the responsible Flight Standards office, using a control surface protractor on the ground. Force data may be acquired by using a hand held force gauge at the same rudder pedal position data points.	For airplanes with reversible control systems, surface position data acquisition should be accomplished with winds less than 5 kts.
2.a.4. Handling Qualities. Static Control Checks. Nosewheel Steering Controller Force and Position	X	X	Breakout data may be acquired with a hand held force gauge. The remainder of the force to the stops may be calculated if the force gauge and a protractor are used to measure force after breakout for at least 25% of the total displacement capability
2.a.5. Handling Qualities. Static Control Checks. Rudder Pedal Steering Calibration	X	X	Data may be acquired through the use of force pads on the rudder pedals and a pedal position measurement device, together with design data for nosewheel position
2.a.6. Handling Qualities. Static Control Checks. Pitch Trim Indicator vs. Surface Position Calibration	X	X	Data may be acquired through calculations
2.a.7. Handling qualities. Static control tests. Pitch trim rate	X	X	Data may be acquired by using a synchronized video of pitch trim indication and elapsed time through range of trim indication
2.a.8. Handling Qualities. Static Control tests. Alignment of Flight deck Throttle Lever Angle vs. Selected engine parameter	X	X	Data may be acquired through the use of a temporary throttle quadrant scale to document throttle position. Use a synchronized video to record steady state instrument readings or hand-record steady state engine performance readings
2.a.9. Handling qualities. Static control tests. Brake pedal position vs. force and brake system pressure calibration	X	X	Use of design or predicted data is acceptable. Data may be acquired by measuring deflection at “zero” and “maximum” and calculating deflections between the extremes using the airplane design data curve
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2.c.1. Handling qualities. Longitudinal control tests. Power change dynamics	X	X	Data may be acquired by using an inertial measurement system and a synchronized video of calibrated airplane instruments and throttle position
2.c.2. Handling qualities. Longitudinal control tests. Flap/slat change dynamics	X	X	Data may be acquired by using an inertial measurement system and a synchronized video of calibrated airplane instruments and flap/slat position
2.c.3. Handling qualities. Longitudinal control tests. Spoiler/speedbrake change dynamics	X	X	Data may be acquired by using an inertial measurement system and a synchronized video of calibrated airplane instruments and spoiler/speedbrake position
2.c.4. Handling qualities. Longitudinal control tests. Gear change dynamics	X	X	Data may be acquired by using an inertial measurement system and a synchronized video of calibrated airplane instruments and gear position
2.c.5. Handling qualities. Longitudinal control tests. Longitudinal trim	X	X	Data may be acquired through use of an inertial measurement system and a synchronized video of flight deck controls position (previously calibrated to show related surface position) and the engine instrument readings
2.c.6. Handling qualities. Longitudinal control tests. Longitudinal maneuvering stability (stick force/g)	X	X	Data may be acquired through the use of an inertial measurement system and a synchronized video of calibrated airplane instruments; a temporary, high resolution bank angle scale affixed to the attitude indicator; and a wheel and column force measurement indication
2.c.7. Handling qualities. Longitudinal control tests. Longitudinal static stability	X	X	Data may be acquired through the use of a synchronized video of airplane flight instruments and a hand held force gauge
2.c.8. Handling qualities. Longitudinal control tests. Stall characteristics	X	X	Data may be acquired through a synchronized video recording of a stop watch and calibrated airplane airspeed indicator. Hand-record the flight conditions and airplane configuration	Airspeeds may be cross checked with those in the TIR and AFM.
2.c.9. Handling qualities. Longitudinal control tests. Phugoid dynamics	X	X	Data may be acquired by using an inertial measurement system and a synchronized video of calibrated airplane instruments and force/position measurements of flight deck controls
2.c.10. Handling qualities. Longitudinal control tests. Short period dynamics		X	Data may be acquired by using an inertial measurement system and a synchronized video of calibrated airplane instruments and force/position measurements of flight deck controls
2.d.1. Handling qualities. Lateral directional tests. Minimum control speed, air (V mca or V mci ), per applicable airworthiness standard or Low speed engine inoperative handling characteristics in the air	X	X	Data may be acquired by using an inertial measurement system and a synchronized video of calibrated airplane instruments and force/position measurements of flight deck controls
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2.d.2. Handling qualities. Lateral directional tests. Roll response (rate)	X	X	Data may be acquired by using an inertial measurement system and a synchronized video of calibrated airplane instruments and force/position measurements of flight deck lateral controls	May be combined with step input of flight deck roll controller test, 2.d.3.
2.d.3. Handling qualities. Lateral directional tests. Roll response to flight deck roll controller step input	X	X	Data may be acquired by using an inertial measurement system and a synchronized video of calibrated airplane instruments and force/position measurements of flight deck lateral controls
2.d.4. Handling qualities. Lateral directional tests. Spiral stability	X	X	Data may be acquired by using an inertial measurement system and a synchronized video of calibrated airplane instruments; force/position measurements of flight deck controls; and a stop watch
2.d.5. Handling qualities. Lateral directional tests. Engine inoperative trim	X	X	Data may be hand recorded in-flight using high resolution scales affixed to trim controls that have been calibrated on the ground using protractors on the control/trim surfaces with winds less than 5 kts.OR Data may be acquired during second segment climb (with proper pilot control input for an engine-out condition) by using a synchronized video of calibrated airplane instruments and force/position measurements of flight deck controls	Trimming during second segment climb is not a certification task and should not be conducted until a safe altitude is reached.
2.d.6. Handling qualities. Lateral directional tests. Rudder response	X	X	Data may be acquired by using an inertial measurement system and a synchronized video of calibrated airplane instruments and force/position measurements of rudder pedals
2.d.7. Handling qualities. Lateral directional tests. Dutch roll, (yaw damper OFF)	X	X	Data may be acquired by using an inertial measurement system and a synchronized video of calibrated airplane instruments and force/position measurements of flight deck controls
2.d.8. Handling qualities. Lateral directional tests. Steady state sideslip	X	X	Data may be acquired by using an inertial measurement system and a synchronized video of calibrated airplane instruments and force/position measurements of flight deck controls Ground track and wind corrected heading may be used for sideslip angle.
2.e.1. Handling qualities. Landings. Normal landing		X	Data may be acquired by using an inertial measurement system and a synchronized video of calibrated airplane instruments and force/position measurements of flight deck controls
2.e.3. Handling qualities. Landings. Crosswind landing		X	Data may be acquired by using an inertial measurement system and a synchronized video of calibrated airplane instruments and force/position measurements of flight deck controls
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2.e.4. Handling qualities. Landings. One engine inoperative landing		X	Data may be acquired by using an inertial measurement system and a synchronized video of calibrated airplane instruments and the force/position measurements of flight deck controls. Normal and lateral accelerations may be recorded in lieu of AOA and sideslip
2.e.5. Handling qualities. Landings. Autopilot landing (if applicable)		X	Data may be acquired by using an inertial measurement system and a synchronized video of calibrated airplane instruments and force/position measurements of flight deck controls.Normal and lateral accelerations may be recorded in lieu of AOA and sideslip
2.e.6. Handling qualities. Landings. All engines operating, autopilot, go around		X	Data may be acquired by using an inertial measurement system and a synchronized video of calibrated airplane instruments and force/position measurements of flight deck controls. Normal and lateral accelerations may be recorded in lieu of AOA and sideslip
2.e.7. Handling qualities. Landings. One engine inoperative go around		X	Data may be acquired by using an inertial measurement system and a synchronized video of calibrated airplane instruments and force/position measurements of flight deck controls. Normal and lateral accelerations may be recorded in lieu of AOA and sideslip
2.e.8. Handling qualities. Landings. Directional control (rudder effectiveness with symmetric thrust)		X	Data may be acquired by using an inertial measurement system and a synchronized video of calibrated airplane instruments and force/position measurements of flight deck controls. Normal and lateral accelerations may be recorded in lieu of AOA and sideslip
2.e.9. Handling qualities. Landings. Directional control (rudder effectiveness with asymmetric reverse thrust)		X	Data may be acquired by using an inertial measurement system and a synchronized video of calibrated airplane instruments and force/position measurements of flight deck controls. Normal and lateral accelerations may be recorded in lieu of AOA and sideslip
2.f. Handling qualities. Ground effect. Test to demonstrate ground effect		X	Data may be acquired by using calibrated airplane instruments, an inertial measurement system, and a synchronized video of calibrated airplane instruments and force/position measurements of flight deck controls

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End Information Attachment 3 to Appendix A to Part 60—Simulator Subjective Evaluation Begin QPS Requirements 1. Requirements a. Except for special use airport models, described as Class III, all airport models required by this part must be representations of real-world, operational airports or representations of fictional airports and must meet the requirements set out in Tables A3B or A3C of this attachment, as appropriate. b. If fictional airports are used, the sponsor must ensure that navigational aids and all appropriate maps, charts, and other navigational reference material for the fictional airports (and surrounding areas as necessary) are compatible, complete, and accurate with respect to the visual presentation of the airport model of this fictional airport. An SOC must be submitted that addresses navigation aid installation and performance and other criteria (including obstruction clearance protection) for all instrument approaches to the fictional airports that are available in the simulator. The SOC must reference and account for information in the terminal instrument procedures manual and the construction and availability of the required maps, charts, and other navigational material. This material must be clearly marked “for training purposes only.” c. When the simulator is being used by an instructor or evaluator for purposes of training, checking, or testing under this chapter, only airport models classified as Class I, Class II, or Class III may be used by the instructor or evaluator. Detailed descriptions/definitions of these classifications are found in Appendix F of this part. d. When a person sponsors an FFS maintained by a person other than a U.S. certificate holder, the sponsor is accountable for that FFS originally meeting, and continuing to meet, the criteria under which it was originally qualified and the appropriate Part 60 criteria, including the airport models that may be used by instructors or evaluators for purposes of training, checking, or testing under this chapter. e. Neither Class II nor Class III airport visual models are required to appear on the SOQ, and the method used for keeping instructors and evaluators apprised of the airport models that meet Class II or Class III requirements on any given simulator is at the option of the sponsor, but the method used must be available for review by the TPAA. f. When an airport model represents a real world airport and a permanent change is made to that real world airport (e.g., a new runway, an extended taxiway, a new lighting system, a runway closure) without a written extension grant from the responsible Flight Standards office (described in paragraph 1.g. of this section), an update to that airport model must be made in accordance with the following time limits: (1) For a new airport runway, a runway extension, a new airport taxiway, a taxiway extension, or a runway/taxiway closure—within 90 days of the opening for use of the new airport runway, runway extension, new airport taxiway, or taxiway extension; or within 90 days of the closure of the runway or taxiway. (2) For a new or modified approach light system—within 45 days of the activation of the new or modified approach light system. (3) For other facility or structural changes on the airport (e.g., new terminal, relocation of Air Traffic Control Tower)—within 180 days of the opening of the new or changed facility or structure. g. If a sponsor desires an extension to the time limit for an update to a visual scene or airport model or has an objection to what must be updated in the specific airport model requirement, the sponsor must provide a written extension request to the responsible Flight Standards office stating the reason for the update delay and a proposed completion date, or explain why the update is not necessary (i.e., why the identified airport change will not have an impact on flight training, testing, or checking). A copy of this request or objection must also be sent to the POI/TCPM. The responsible Flight Standards office will send the official response to the sponsor and a copy to the POI/TCPM. If there is an objection, after consultation with the appropriate POI/TCPM regarding the training, testing, or checking impact, the responsible Flight Standards office will send the official response to the sponsor and a copy to the POI/TCPM. End QPS Requirements Begin Information 2. Discussion a. The subjective tests provide a basis for evaluating the capability of the simulator to perform over a typical utilization period; determining that the simulator accurately simulates each required maneuver, procedure, or task; and verifying correct operation of the simulator controls, instruments, and systems. The items listed in the following Tables are for simulator evaluation purposes only. They may not be used to limit or exceed the authorizations for use of a given level of simulator, as described on the SOQ, or as approved by the TPAA.

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b. The tests in Table A3A, Operations Tasks, in this attachment, address pilot functions, including maneuvers and procedures (called flight tasks), and are divided by flight phases. The performance of these tasks by the responsible Flight Standards office includes an operational examination of the visual system and special effects. There are flight tasks included to address some features of advanced technology airplanes and innovative training programs. For example, “high angle-of-attack maneuvering” is included to provide a required alternative to “approach to stalls” for airplanes employing flight envelope protection functions. c. The tests in Table A3A, Operations Tasks, and Table A3G, Instructor Operating Station of this attachment, address the overall function and control of the simulator including the various simulated environmental conditions; simulated airplane system operations (normal, abnormal, and emergency); visual system displays; and special effects necessary to meet flight crew training, evaluation, or flight experience requirements. d. All simulated airplane systems functions will be assessed for normal and, where appropriate, alternate operations. Normal, abnormal, and emergency operations associated with a flight phase will be assessed during the evaluation of flight tasks or events within that flight phase. Simulated airplane systems are listed separately under “Any Flight Phase” to ensure appropriate attention to systems checks. Operational navigation systems (including inertial navigation systems, global positioning systems, or other long-range systems) and the associated electronic display systems will be evaluated if installed. The pilot will include in his report to the TPAA, the effect of the system operation and any system limitation. e. Simulators demonstrating a satisfactory circling approach will be qualified for the circling approach maneuver and may be approved for such use by the TPAA in the sponsor's FAA-approved flight training program. To be considered satisfactory, the circling approach will be flown at maximum gross weight for landing, with minimum visibility for the airplane approach category, and must allow proper alignment with a landing runway at least 90° different from the instrument approach course while allowing the pilot to keep an identifiable portion of the airport in sight throughout the maneuver (reference—14 CFR 91.175(e)). f. At the request of the TPAA, the responsible Flight Standards office may assess a device to determine if it is capable of simulating certain training activities in a sponsor's training program, such as a portion of a Line Oriented Flight Training (LOFT) scenario. Unless directly related to a requirement for the qualification level, the results of such an evaluation would not affect the qualification level of the simulator. However, if the responsible Flight Standards office determines that the simulator does not accurately simulate that training activity, the simulator would not be approved for that training activity. g. The FAA intends to allow the use of Class III airport models when the sponsor provides the TPAA (or other regulatory authority) an appropriate analysis of the skills, knowledge, and abilities (SKAs) necessary for competent performance of the tasks in which this particular media element is used. The analysis should describe the ability of the FFS/visual media to provide an adequate environment in which the required SKAs are satisfactorily performed and learned. The analysis should also include the specific media element, such as the airport model. h. The TPAA may accept Class III airport models without individual observation provided the sponsor provides the TPAA with an acceptable description of the process for determining the acceptability of a specific airport model, outlines the conditions under which such an airport model may be used, and adequately describes what restrictions will be applied to each resulting airport or landing area model. Examples of situations that may warrant Class_III model designation by the TPAA include the following: (a) Training, testing, or checking on very low visibility operations, including SMGCS operations. (b) Instrument operations training (including instrument takeoff, departure, arrival, approach, and missed approach training, testing, or checking) using— (i) A specific model that has been geographically “moved” to a different location and aligned with an instrument procedure for another airport. (ii) A model that does not match changes made at the real-world airport (or landing area for helicopters) being modeled. (iii) A model generated with an “off-board” or an “on-board” model development tool (by providing proper latitude/longitude reference; correct runway or landing area orientation, length, width, marking, and lighting information; and appropriate adjacent taxiway location) to generate a facsimile of a real world airport or landing area. i. Previously qualified simulators with certain early generation Computer Generated Image (CGI) visual systems, are limited by the capability of the Image Generator or the display system used. These systems are: (1) Early CGI visual systems that are excepted from the requirement of including runway numbers as a part of the specific runway marking requirements are: (a) Link NVS and DNVS. (b) Novoview 2500 and 6000. (c) FlightSafety VITAL series up to, and including, VITAL III, but not beyond. (d) Redifusion SP1, SP1T, and SP2.

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(2) Early CGI visual systems are excepted from the requirement of including runway numbers unless the runways are used for LOFT training sessions. These LOFT airport models require runway numbers but only for the specific runway end (one direction) used in the LOFT session. The systems required to display runway numbers only for LOFT scenes are: (a) FlightSafety VITAL IV. (b) Redifusion SP3 and SP3T. (c) Link-Miles Image II. (3) The following list of previously qualified CGI and display systems are incapable of generating blue lights. These systems are not required to have accurate taxi-way edge lighting: (a) Redifusion SP1. (b) FlightSafety Vital IV. (c) Link-Miles Image II and Image IIT (d) XKD displays (even though the XKD image generator is capable of generating blue colored lights, the display cannot accommodate that color). End Information

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Table A3C—Functions and Subjective Tests

QPS requirements	Entry No.	Additional airport models beyond minimum required for qualification—Class II airport models	Simulator level	A	B	C	D
This table specifies the minimum airport model content and functionality necessary to add airport models to a simulator's model library, beyond those necessary for qualification at the stated level, without the necessity of further involvement of the responsible Flight Standards office or TPAA.
Begin QPS Requirements
1.	Airport model management. The following is the minimum airport model management requirements for simulators at Levels A, B, C, and D.
1.a.	The direction of strobe lights, approach lights, runway edge lights, visual landing aids, runway centerline lights, threshold lights, and touchdown zone lights on the “in-use” runway must be replicated	X	X	X	X
2.	Visual feature recognition. The following are the minimum distances at which runway features must be visible for simulators at Levels A, B, C, and D. Distances are measured from runway threshold to an airplane aligned with the runway on an extended 3° glide-slope in simulated meteorological conditions that recreate the minimum distances for visibility. For circling approaches, all requirements of this section apply to the runway used for the initial approach and to the runway of intended landing.
2.a.	Runway definition, strobe lights, approach lights, and runway edge white lights from 5 sm (8 km) from the runway threshold	X	X	X	X
2.b.	Visual Approach Aid lights (VASI or PAPI) from 5 sm (8 km) from the runway threshold			X	X
2.c.	Visual Approach Aid lights (VASI or PAPI) from 3 sm (5 km) from the runway threshold	X	X
2.d.	Runway centerline lights and taxiway definition from 3 sm (5 km) from the runway threshold	X	X	X	X
2.e.	Threshold lights and touchdown zone lights from 2 sm (3 km) from the runway threshold	X	X	X	X
2.f.	Runway markings within range of landing lights for night scenes and as required by the surface resolution requirements on day scenes	X	X	X	X
2.g.	For circling approaches, the runway of intended landing and associated lighting must fade into view in a non-distracting manner	X	X	X	X
3.	Airport model content. The following prescribes the minimum requirements for what must be provided in an airport model and identifies other aspects of the airport environment that must correspond with that model for simulators at Levels A, B, C, and D. The detail must be developed using airport pictures, construction drawings and maps, or other similar data, or developed in accordance with published regulatory material; however, this does not require that airport models contain details that are beyond the designed capability of the currently qualified visual system. For circling approaches, all requirements of this section apply to the runway used for the initial approach and to the runway of intended landing. Only one “primary” taxi route from parking to the runway end will be required for each “in-use” runway.
3.a.	The surface and markings for each “in-use” runway:
3.a.1.	Threshold markings	X	X	X	X
3.a.2.	Runway numbers	X	X	X	X
3.a.3.	Touchdown zone markings	X	X	X	X
3.a.4.	Fixed distance markings	X	X	X	X
3.a.5.	Edge markings	X	X	X	X
3.a.6.	Centerline stripes	X	X	X	X
3.b.	The lighting for each “in-use” runway
3.b.1.	Threshold lights	X	X	X	X
3.b.2.	Edge lights	X	X	X	X
3.b.3.	End lights	X	X	X	X
3.b.4.	Centerline lights	X	X	X	X
3.b.5.	Touchdown zone lights, if appropriate	X	X	X	X
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3.b.6.	Leadoff lights, if appropriate	X	X	X	X
3.b.7.	Appropriate visual landing aid(s) for that runway	X	X	X	X
3.b.8.	Appropriate approach lighting system for that runway	X	X	X	X
3.c.	The taxiway surface and markings associated with each “in-use” runway:
3.c.1.	Edge	X	X	X	X
3.c.2.	Centerline	X	X	X	X
3.c.3.	Runway hold lines	X	X	X	X
3.c.4.	ILS critical area markings	X	X	X	X
3.d.	The taxiway lighting associated with each “in-use” runway:
3.d.1.	Edge			X	X
3.d.2.	Centerline	X	X	X	X
3.d.3.	Runway hold and ILS critical area lights	X	X	X	X
4.	Required model correlation with other aspects of the airport environment simulation The following are the minimum model correlation tests that must be conducted for simulators at Levels A, B, C, and D.
4.a.	The airport model must be properly aligned with the navigational aids that are associated with operations at the “in-use” runway	X	X	X	X
4.b.	Slopes in runways, taxiways, and ramp areas, if depicted in the visual scene, must not cause distracting or unrealistic effects	X	X	X	X
5.	Correlation with airplane and associated equipment. The following are the minimum correlation comparisons that must be made for simulators at Levels A, B, C, and D.
5.a.	Visual system compatibility with aerodynamic programming	X	X	X	X
5.b.	Accurate portrayal of environment relating to flight simulator attitudes	X	X	X	X
5.c.	Visual cues to assess sink rate and depth perception during landings		X	X	X
5.d.	Visual effects for each visible, own-ship, airplane external light(s)		X	X	X
6.	Scene quality. The following are the minimum scene quality tests that must be conducted for simulators at Levels A, B, C, and D.
6.a.	Surfaces and textural cues must be free of apparent and distracting quantization (aliasing)			X	X
6.b.	Correct color and realistic textural cues			X	X
6.c.	Light points free from distracting jitter, smearing or streaking	X	X	X	X
7.	Instructor controls of the following: The following are the minimum instructor controls that must be available in simulators at Levels A, B, C, and D.
7.a.	Environmental effects, e.g., cloud base (if used), cloud effects, cloud density, visibility in statute miles/kilometers and RVR in feet/meters	X	X	X	X
7.b.	Airport selection	X	X	X	X
7.c.	Airport lighting including variable intensity	X	X	X	X
7.d.	Dynamic effects including ground and flight traffic			X	X
End QPS Requirements
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Begin Information
8.	Sponsors are not required to provide every detail of a runway, but the detail that is provided must be correct within the capabilities of the system	X	X	X	X
End Information

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Table A3E—Functions and Subjective Tests

QPS Requirements	Entry No.	Sound system	Simulator level	A	B	C	D
The following checks are performed during a normal flight profile with motion system ON.
1.	Precipitation			X	X
2.	Rain removal equipment.			X	X
3.	Significant airplane noises perceptible to the pilot during normal operations			X	X
4.	Abnormal operations for which there are associated sound cues including, engine malfunctions, landing gear/tire malfunctions, tail and engine pod strike and pressurization malfunction			X	X
5.	Sound of a crash when the flight simulator is landed in excess of limitations	X	X

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Table A3G—Functions and Subjective Tests

QPS Requirements	Entry No.	Special effects	Simulator level	A	B	C	D
Functions in this table are subject to evaluation only if appropriate for the airplane and/or the system is installed on the specific simulator.
1.	Simulator Power Switch(es)	X	X	X	X
2.	Airplane conditions
2.a.	Gross weight, center of gravity, fuel loading and allocation	X	X	X	X
2.b.	Airplane systems status	X	X	X	X
2.c.	Ground crew functions (e.g., ext. power, push back)	X	X	X	X
3.	Airports
3.a.	Number and selection	X	X	X	X
3.b.	Runway selection	X	X	X	X
3.c.	Runway surface condition (e.g., rough, smooth, icy, wet)	X	X
3.d.	Preset positions (e.g., ramp, gate, #1 for takeoff, takeoff position, over FAF)	X	X	X	X
3.e.	Lighting controls	X	X	X	X
4.	Environmental controls
4.a	Visibility (statute miles (kilometers))	X	X	X	X
4.b.	Runway visual range (in feet (meters))	X	X	X	X
4.c.	Temperature	X	X	X	X
4.d.	Climate conditions (e.g., ice, snow, rain)	X	X	X	X
4.e.	Wind speed and direction	X	X	X	X
4.f.	Windshear	X	X
4.g.	Clouds (base and tops)	X	X	X	X
5.	Airplane system malfunctions (Inserting and deleting malfunctions into the simulator)	X	X	X	X
6.	Locks, Freezes, and Repositioning
6.a.	Problem (all) freeze/release	X	X	X	X
6.b.	Position (geographic) freeze/release	X	X	X	X
6.c.	Repositioning (locations, freezes, and releases)	X	X	X	X
6.d.	Ground speed control	X	X	X	X
7.	Remote IOS	X	X	X	X
8.	Sound Controls. On/off/adjustment	X	X	X	X
9.	Motion/Control Loading System
9.a.	On/off/emergency stop	X	X	X	X
10.	Observer Seats/Stations. Position/Adjustment/Positive restraint system	X	X	X	X

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Begin Information 1. Introduction a. The following is an example test schedule for an Initial/Upgrade evaluation that covers the majority of the requirements set out in the Functions and Subjective test requirements. It is not intended that the schedule be followed line by line, rather, the example should be used as a guide for preparing a schedule that is tailored to the airplane, sponsor, and training task. b. Functions and subjective tests should be planned. This information has been organized as a reference document with the considerations, methods, and evaluation notes for each individual aspect of the simulator task presented as an individual item. In this way the evaluator can design his or her own test plan, using the appropriate sections to provide guidance on method and evaluation criteria. Two aspects should be present in any test plan structure: (1) An evaluation of the simulator to determine that it replicates the aircraft and performs reliably for an uninterrupted period equivalent to the length of a typical training session. (2) The simulator should be capable of operating reliably after the use of training device functions such as repositions or malfunctions. c. A detailed understanding of the training task will naturally lead to a list of objectives that the simulator should meet. This list will form the basis of the test plan. Additionally, once the test plan has been formulated, the initial conditions and the evaluation criteria should be established. The evaluator should consider all factors that may have an influence on the characteristics observed during particular training tasks in order to make the test plan successful. 2. Events a. Initial Conditions (1) Airport. (2) QNH. (3) Temperature. (4) Wind/Crosswind. (5) Zero Fuel Weight /Fuel/Gross Weight /Center of Gravity. b. Initial Checks (1) Documentation of Simulator. (a) Simulator Acceptance Test Manuals. (b) Simulator Approval Test Guide. (c) Technical Logbook Open Item List. (d) Daily Functional Pre-flight Check. (2) Documentation of User/Carrier Flight Logs. (a) Simulator Operating/Instructor Manual. (b) Difference List (Aircraft/Simulator). (c) Flight Crew Operating Manuals. (d) Performance Data for Different Fields. (e) Crew Training Manual. (f) Normal/Abnormal/Emergency Checklists. (3) Simulator External Checks. (a) Appearance and Cleanliness. (b) Stairway/Access Bridge. (c) Emergency Rope Ladders. (d) “Motion On”/“Flight in Progress” Lights. (4) Simulator Internal Checks. (a) Cleaning/Disinfecting Towels (for cleaning oxygen masks). (b) Flight deck Layout (compare with difference list). (5) Equipment. (a) Quick Donning Oxygen Masks. (b) Head Sets. (c) Smoke Goggles. (d) Sun Visors. (e) Escape Rope. (f) Chart Holders. (g) Flashlights. (h) Fire Extinguisher (inspection date). (i) Crash Axe. (j) Gear Pins. c. Power Supply and APU Start Checks (1) Batteries and Static Inverter. (2) APU Start with Battery. (3) APU Shutdown using Fire Handle. (4) External Power Connection. (5) APU Start with External Power. (6) Abnormal APU Start/Operation. d. Flight deck Checks (1) Flight deck Preparation Checks. (2) FMC Programming. (3) Communications and Navigational Aids Checks. e. Engine Start (1) Before Start Checks. (2) Battery start with Ground Air Supply Unit. (3) Engine Crossbleed Start. (4) Normal Engine Start. (5) Abnormal Engine Starts. (6) Engine Idle Readings. (7) After Start Checks. f. Taxi Checks (1) Pushback/Powerback. (2) Taxi Checks. (3) Ground Handling Check: (a) Power required to initiate ground roll. (b) Thrust response. (c) Nosewheel and Pedal Steering. (d) Nosewheel Scuffing. (e) Perform 180 degree turns. (f) Brakes Response and Differential Braking using Normal, Alternate and Emergency. (g) Brake Systems. (h) Eye height and fore/aft position. (4) Runway Roughness.

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g. Visual Scene—Ground Assessment. Select 3 different airport models and perform the following checks with Day, Dusk and Night selected, as appropriate: (1) Visual Controls. (a) Daylight, Dusk, Night Scene Controls. (b) Flight deck “Daylight” ambient lighting. (c) Environment Light Controls. (d) Runway Light Controls. (e) Taxiway Light Controls. (2) Airport Model Content. (a) Ramp area for buildings, gates, airbridges, maintenance ground equipment, parked aircraft. (b) Daylight shadows, night time light pools. (c) Taxiways for correct markings, taxiway/runway, marker boards, CAT I and II/III hold points, taxiway shape/grass areas, taxiway light (positions and colors). (d) Runways for correct markings, lead-off lights, boards, runway slope, runway light positions, and colors, directionality of runway lights. (e) Airport environment for correct terrain and significant features. (f) Visual scene quantization (aliasing), color, and occulting levels. (3) Ground Traffic Selection. (4) Environment Effects. (a) Low cloud scene. (i) Rain: (A) Runway surface scene. (B) Windshield wiper—operation and sound. (ii) Hail: (A) Runway surface scene. (B) Windshield wiper—operation and sound. (b) Lightning/thunder. (c) Snow/ice runway surface scene. (d) Fog. h. Takeoff. Select one or several of the following test cases: (1) T/O Configuration Warnings. (2) Engine Takeoff Readings. (3) Rejected Takeoff (Dry/Wet/Icy Runway) and check the following: (a) Autobrake function. (b) Anti-skid operation. (c) Motion/visual effects during deceleration. (d) Record stopping distance (use runway plot or runway lights remaining). Continue taxiing along the runway while applying brakes and check the following: (e) Center line lights alternating red/white for 2000 feet/600 meters. (f) Center line lights all red for 1000 feet/300 meters. (g) Runway end, red stop bars. (h) Braking fade effect. (i) Brake temperature indications. (4) Engine Failure between VI and V2. (5) Normal Takeoff: (a) During ground roll check the following: (i) Runway rumble. (ii) Acceleration cues. (iii) Groundspeed effects. (iv) Engine sounds. (v) Nosewheel and rudder pedal steering. (b) During and after rotation, check the following: (i) Rotation characteristics. (ii) Column force during rotation. (iii) Gear uplock sounds/bumps. (iv) Effect of slat/flap retraction during climbout. (6) Crosswind Takeoff (check the following): (a) Tendency to turn into or out of the wind. (b) Tendency to lift upwind wing as airspeed increases. (7) Windshear during Takeoff (check the following): (a) Controllable during windshear encounter. (b) Performance adequate when using correct techniques. (c) Windshear Indications satisfactory. (d) Motion cues satisfactory (particularly turbulence). (8) Normal Takeoff with Control Malfunction. (9) Low Visibility T/O (check the following): (a) Visual cues. (b) Flying by reference to instruments. (c) SID Guidance on LNAV. i. Climb Performance. Select one or several of the following test cases: (1) Normal Climb—Climb while maintaining recommended speed profile and note fuel, distance and time. (2) Single Engine Climb—Trim aircraft in a zero wheel climb at V2. Note: Up to 5° bank towards the operating engine(s) is permissible. Climb for 3 minutes and note fuel, distance, and time. Increase speed toward en route climb speed and retract flaps. Climb for 3 minutes and note fuel, distance, and time.

j. Systems Operation During Climb. Check normal operation and malfunctions as appropriate for the following systems: (1) Air conditioning/Pressurization/Ventilation. (2) Autoflight. (3) Communications. (4) Electrical. (5) Fuel. (6) Icing Systems. (7) Indicating and Recording Systems. (8) Navigation/FMS. (9) Pneumatics. k. Cruise Checks. Select one or several of the following test cases: (1) Cruise Performance. (2) High Speed/High Altitude Handling (check the following): (a) Overspeed warning. (b) High Speed buffet. (c) Aircraft control satisfactory.

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(d) Envelope limiting functions on Computer Controlled Aircraft. Reduce airspeed to below level flight buffet onset speed, start a turn, and check the following: (e) High Speed buffet increases with G loading. Reduce throttles to idle and start descent, deploy the speedbrake, and check the following: (f) Speedbrake indications. (g) Symmetrical deployment. (h) Airframe buffet. (i) Aircraft response hands off. (3) Yaw Damper Operation. Switch off yaw dampers and autopilot. Initiate a Dutch roll and check the following: (a) Aircraft dynamics. (b) Simulator motion effects. Switch on yaw dampers, re-initiate a Dutch roll and check the following: (c) Damped aircraft dynamics. (4) APU Operation. (5) Engine Gravity Feed. (6) Engine Shutdown and Driftdown Check: FMC operation Aircraft performance. (7) Engine Relight. l. Descent. Select one of the following test cases: (1) Normal Descent. Descend while maintaining recommended speed profile and note fuel, distance and time. (2) Cabin Depressurization/Emergency Descent. m. Medium Altitude Checks. Select one or several of the following test cases: (1) High Angle of Attack/Stall. Trim the aircraft at 1.4 Vs, establish 1 kt/sec  2 deceleration rate, and check the following— (a) System displays/operation satisfactory. (b) Handling characteristics satisfactory. (c) Stall and Stick shaker speed. (d) Buffet characteristics and onset speed. (e) Envelope limiting functions on Computer Controlled Aircraft. Recover to straight and level flight and check the following: (f) Handling characteristics satisfactory. (2) Turning Flight. Roll aircraft to left, establish a 30° to 45° bank angle, and check the following: (a) Stick force required, satisfactory. (b) Wheel requirement to maintain bank angle. (c) Slip ball response, satisfactory. (d) Time to turn 180°. Roll aircraft from 45° bank one way to 45° bank the opposite direction while maintaining altitude and airspeed—check the following: (e) Controllability during maneuver. (3) Degraded flight controls. (4) Holding Procedure (check the following:) (a) FMC operation. (b) Autopilot auto thrust performance. (5) Storm Selection (check the following:) (a) Weather radar controls. (b) Weather radar operation. (c) Visual scene corresponds with WXR pattern. (Fly through storm center, and check the following:) (d) Aircraft enters cloud. (e) Aircraft encounters representative turbulence. (f) Rain/hail sound effects evident. As aircraft leaves storm area, check the following: (g) Storm effects disappear. (6) TCAS (check the following:) (a) Traffic appears on visual display. (b) Traffic appears on TCAS display(s). As conflicting traffic approaches, take relevant avoiding action, and check the following: (c) Visual and TCAS system displays. n. Approach and Landing. Select one or several of the following test cases while monitoring flight control and hydraulic systems for normal operation and with malfunctions selected: (1) Flaps/Gear Normal Operation. Check the following: (a) Time for extension/retraction. (b) Buffet characteristics. (2) Normal Visual Approach and Landing. Fly a normal visual approach and landing—check the following: (a) Aircraft handling. (b) Spoiler operation. (c) Reverse thrust operation. (d) Directional control on the ground. (e) Touchdown cues for main and nosewheel. (f) Visual cues. (g) Motion cues. (h) Sound cues. (i) Brake and anti-skid operation. (3) Flaps/Gear Abnormal Operation or with hydraulic malfunctions. (4) Abnormal Wing Flaps/Slats Landing. (5) Manual Landing with Control Malfunction. (a) Aircraft handling. (b) Radio aids and instruments. (c) Airport model content and cues. (d) Motion cues. (e) Sound cues. (6) Non-precision Approach—All Engines Operating. (a) Aircraft handling. (b) Radio Aids and instruments. (c) Airport model content and cues. (d) Motion cues. (e) Sound cues. (7) Circling Approach. (a) Aircraft handling. (c) Radio Aids and instruments. (d) Airport model content and cues. (e) Motion cues. (f) Sound cues. (8) Non-precision Approach—One Engine Inoperative.

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(a) Aircraft handling. (b) Radio Aids and instruments. (c) Airport model content and cues. (d) Motion cues. (e) Sound cues. (9) One Engine Inoperative Go-around. (a) Aircraft handling. (b) Radio Aids and instruments. (c) Airport model content and cues. (d) Motion cues. (e) Sound cues. (10) CAT I Approach and Landing with raw-data ILS. (a) Aircraft handling. (b) Radio Aids and instruments. (c) Airport model content and cues. (d) Motion cues. (e) Sound cues. (11) CAT I Approach and Landing with Limiting Crosswind. (a) Aircraft handling. (b) Radio Aids and instruments. (c) Airport model content and cues. (d) Motion cues. (e) Sound cues. (12) CAT I Approach with Windshear. Check the following: (a) Controllable during windshear encounter. (b) Performance adequate when using correct techniques. (c) Windshear indications/warnings. (d) Motion cues (particularly turbulence). (13) CAT II Approach and Automatic Go-Around. (14) CAT III Approach and Landing—System Malfunctions. (15) CAT III Approach and Landing—1 Engine Inoperative. (16) GPWS evaluation. o. Visual Scene—In-Flight Assessment. Select three (3) different visual models and perform the following checks with “day,” “dusk,” and “night” (as appropriate) selected. Reposition the aircraft at or below 2000 feet within 10 nm of the airfield. Fly the aircraft around the airport environment and assess control of the visual system and evaluate the Airport model content as described below: (1) Visual Controls. (a) Daylight, Dusk, Night Scene Controls. (b) Environment Light Controls. (c) Runway Light Controls. (d) Taxiway Light Controls. (e) Approach Light Controls. (2) Airport model Content. (a) Airport environment for correct terrain and significant features. (b) Runways for correct markings, runway slope, directionality of runway lights. (c) Visual scene for quantization (aliasing), color, and occulting. Reposition the aircraft to a long, final approach for an “ILS runway.” Select flight freeze when the aircraft is 5-statute miles (sm)/8-kilometers (km) out and on the glide slope. Check the following: (3) Airport model content. (a) Airfield features. (b) Approach lights. (c) Runway definition. (d) Runway definition. (e) Runway edge lights and VASI lights. (f) Strobe lights. Release flight freeze. Continue flying the approach with NP engaged. Select flight freeze when aircraft is 3 sm/5 km out and on the glide slope. Check the following: (4) Airport model Content. (a) Runway centerline light. (b) Taxiway definition and lights. Release flight freeze and continue flying the approach with A/P engaged. Select flight freeze when aircraft is 2 sm/3 km out and on the glide slope. Check the following: (5) Airport model content. (a) Runway threshold lights. (b) Touchdown zone lights. At 200 ft radio altitude and still on glide slope, select Flight Freeze. Check the following: (6) Airport model content. (a) Runway markings. Set the weather to Category I conditions and check the following: (7) Airport model content. (a) Visual ground segment. Set the weather to Category II conditions, release Flight Freeze, re-select Flight Freeze at 100 feet radio altitude, and check the following: (8) Airport model content. (a) Visual ground segment. Select night/dusk (twilight) conditions and check the following: (9) Airport model content. (a) Runway markings visible within landing light lobes. Set the weather to Category III conditions, release Flight Freeze, re-select Flight Freeze at 50 feet radio altitude and check the following: (10) Airport model content. (a) Visual ground segment. Set WX to a typical “missed approach? weather condition, release Flight Freeze, re-select Flight Freeze at 15 feet radio altitude, and check the following: (11) Airport model content. (a) Visual ground segment. When on the ground, stop the aircraft. Set 0 feet RVR, ensure strobe/beacon tights are switched on and check the following: (12) Airport model content. (a) Visual effect of strobe and beacon. Reposition to final approach, set weather to “Clear,” continue approach for an automatic landing, and check the following: (13) Airport model content. (a) Visual cues during flare to assess sink rate.

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(b) Visual cues during flare to assess Depth perception. (c) Flight deck height above ground. After Landing Operations. (1) After Landing Checks. (2) Taxi back to gate. Check the following: (a) Visual model satisfactory. (b) Parking brake operation satisfactory. (3) Shutdown Checks. q. Crash Function. (1) Gear-up Crash. (2) Excessive rate of descent Crash. (3) Excessive bank angle Crash. [Please see PDF for image: ER09MY08.005]

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[Please see PDF for image: ER09MY08.008]

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[Please see PDF for image: ER09MY08.009]

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[Please see PDF for image: ER09MY08.010]

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[Please see PDF for image: ER09DE22.054]

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[Please see PDF for image: ER09DE22.055]   Attachment 4 to Appendix A to Part 60—Figure A4D—Sample Qualification Test Guide Cover Page INFORMATION

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[Please see PDF for image: ER09DE22.056]

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Attachment 4 to Appendix A to Part 60—Figure A4E—Sample Statement of Qualification—Certificate INFORMATION [Please see PDF for image: ER09DE22.127]

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[Please see PDF for image: ER09MY08.014]

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[Please see PDF for image: ER09MY08.015]

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[Please see PDF for image: ER09MY08.016]

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[Please see PDF for image: ER09MY08.017] Attachment 4 to Appendix A to Part 60—Figure A4H [Reserved]  

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[Please see PDF for image: ER09MY08.019] Attachment 5 to Appendix A to Part 60—Simulator Qualification Requirements for Windshear Training Program Use Begin QPS Requirements 1. Applicability This attachment applies to all simulators, regardless of qualification level, that are used to satisfy the training requirements of an FAA-approved low-altitude windshear flight training program, or any FAA-approved training program that addresses windshear encounters. 2. Statement of Compliance and Capability (SOC) a. The sponsor must submit an SOC confirming that the aerodynamic model is based on flight test data supplied by the airplane manufacturer or other approved data provider. The SOC must also confirm that any change to environmental wind parameters, including variances in those parameters for windshear conditions, once inserted for computation, result in the correct simulated performance. This statement must also include examples of environmental wind parameters currently evaluated in the simulator (such as crosswind takeoffs, crosswind approaches, and crosswind landings). b. For simulators without windshear warning, caution, or guidance hardware in the original equipment, the SOC must also state that the simulation of the added hardware and/or software, including associated flight deck displays and annunciations, replicates the system(s) installed in the airplane. The statement must be accompanied by a block diagram depicting the input and output signal flow, and comparing the signal flow to the equipment installed in the airplane. 3. Models The windshear models installed in the simulator software used for the qualification evaluation must do the following: a. Provide cues necessary for recognizing windshear onset and potential performance degradation requiring a pilot to initiate recovery procedures. The cues must include all of the following, as appropriate for the portion of the flight envelope: (1) Rapid airspeed change of at least ±15 knots (kts). (2) Stagnation of airspeed during the takeoff roll. (3) Rapid vertical speed change of at least ±500 feet per minute (fpm). (4) Rapid pitch change of at least ±5°. b. Be adjustable in intensity (or other parameter to achieve an intensity effect) to at least two (2) levels so that upon encountering the windshear the pilot may identify its presence and apply the recommended procedures for escape from such a windshear.

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(1) If the intensity is lesser, the performance capability of the simulated airplane in the windshear permits the pilot to maintain a satisfactory flightpath; and (2) If the intensity is greater, the performance capability of the simulated airplane in the windshear does not permit the pilot to maintain a satisfactory flightpath (crash). Note: The means used to accomplish the “nonsurvivable” scenario of paragraph 3.b.(2) of this attachment, that involve operational elements of the simulated airplane, must reflect the dispatch limitations of the airplane. c. Be available for use in the FAA-approved windshear flight training program. 4. Demonstrations a. The sponsor must identify one survivable takeoff windshear training model and one survivable approach windshear training model. The wind components of the survivable models must be presented in graphical format so that all components of the windshear are shown, including initiation point, variance in magnitude, and time or distance correlations. The simulator must be operated at the same gross weight, airplane configuration, and initial airspeed during the takeoff demonstration (through calm air and through the first selected survivable windshear), and at the same gross weight, airplane configuration, and initial airspeed during the approach demonstration (through calm air and through the second selected survivable windshear). b. In each of these four situations, at an “initiation point” (i.e., where windshear onset is or should be recognized), the recommended procedures for windshear recovery are applied and the results are recorded as specified in paragraph 5 of this attachment. c. These recordings are made without inserting programmed random turbulence. Turbulence that results from the windshear model is to be expected, and no attempt may be made to neutralize turbulence from this source. d. The definition of the models and the results of the demonstrations of all four?(4) cases described in paragraph 4.a of this attachment, must be made a part of the MQTG. 5. Recording Parameters a. In each of the four MQTG cases, an electronic recording (time history) must be made of the following parameters: (1) Indicated or calibrated airspeed. (2) Indicated vertical speed. (3) Pitch attitude. (4) Indicated or radio altitude. (5) Angle of attack. (6) Elevator position. (7) Engine data (thrust, N1, or throttle position). (8) Wind magnitudes (simple windshear model assumed). b. These recordings must be initiated at least 10 seconds prior to the initiation point, and continued until recovery is complete or ground contact is made. 6. Equipment Installation and Operation All windshear warning, caution, or guidance hardware installed in the simulator must operate as it operates in the airplane. For example, if a rapidly changing wind speed and/or direction would have caused a windshear warning in the airplane, the simulator must respond equivalently without instructor/evaluator intervention. 7. Qualification Test Guide a. All QTG material must be forwarded to the responsible Flight Standards office. b. A simulator windshear evaluation will be scheduled in accordance with normal procedures. Continuing qualification evaluation schedules will be used to the maximum extent possible. c. During the on-site evaluation, the evaluator will ask the operator to run the performance tests and record the results. The results of these on-site tests will be compared to those results previously approved and placed in the QTG or MQTG, as appropriate. d. QTGs for new (or MQTGs for upgraded) simulators must contain or reference the information described in paragraphs 2, 3, 4, and 5 of this attachment. End QPS Requirements Begin Information 8. Subjective Evaluation The responsible Flight Standards office will fly the simulator in at least two of the available windshear scenarios to subjectively evaluate simulator performance as it encounters the programmed windshear conditions. a. One scenario will include parameters that enable the pilot to maintain a satisfactory flightpath. b. One scenario will include parameters that will not enable the pilot to maintain a satisfactory flightpath (crash). c. Other scenarios may be examined at the responsible Flight Standards office's discretion.

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9. Qualification Basis The addition of windshear programming to a simulator in order to comply with the qualification for required windshear training does not change the original qualification basis of the simulator. 10. Demonstration Repeatability For the purposes of demonstration repeatability, it is recommended that the simulator be flown by means of the simulator's autodrive function (for those simulators that have autodrive capability) during the demonstrations. End Information Attachment 6 to Appendix A to Part 60—FSTD Directives Applicable to Airplane Flight Simulators Flight Simulation Training Device (FSTD) Directive FSTD Directive 1. Applicable to all Full Flight Simulators (FFS), regardless of the original qualification basis and qualification date (original or upgrade), having Class II or Class III airport models available. Agency: Federal Aviation Administration (FAA), DOT. Action: This is a retroactive requirement to have all Class II or Class III airport models meet current requirements. Summary: Notwithstanding the authorization listed in paragraph 13b in Appendices A and C of this part, this FSTD Directive requires each certificate holder to ensure that by May 30, 2009, except for the airport model(s) used to qualify the simulator at the designated level, each airport model used by the certificate holder's instructors or evaluators for training, checking, or testing under this chapter in an FFS, meets the definition of a Class II or Class III airport model as defined in 14CFR part 60. The completion of this requirement will not require a report, and the method used for keeping instructors and evaluators apprised of the airport models that meet Class II or Class III requirements on any given simulator is at the option of the certificate holder whose employees are using the FFS, but the method used must be available for review by the TPAA for that certificate holder. Dates: FSTD Directive 1 becomes effective on May 30, 2008. Specific Requirements: 1. Part 60 requires that each FSTD be: a. Sponsored by a person holding or applying for an FAA operating certificate under Part 119, Part 141, or Part 142, or holding or applying for an FAA-approved training program under Part 63, Appendix C, for flight engineers, and b. Evaluated and issued an SOQ for a specific FSTD level. 2. FFSs also require the installation of a visual system that is capable of providing an out-of-the-flight-deck view of airport models. However, historically these airport models were not routinely evaluated or required to meet any standardized criteria. This has led to qualified simulators containing airport models being used to meet FAA-approved training, testing, or checking requirements with potentially incorrect or inappropriate visual references. 3. To prevent this from occurring in the future, by May 30, 2009, except for the airport model(s) used to qualify the simulator at the designated level, each certificate holder must assure that each airport model used for training, testing, or checking under this chapter in a qualified FFS meets the definition of a Class II or Class III airport model as defined in Appendix F of this part. 4. These references describe the requirements for visual scene management and the minimum distances from which runway or landing area features must be visible for all levels of simulator. The airport model must provide, for each “in-use runway” or “in-use landing area,” runway or landing area surface and markings, runway or landing area lighting, taxiway surface and markings, and taxiway lighting. Additional requirements include correlation of the v airport models with other aspects of the airport environment, correlation of the aircraft and associated equipment, scene quality assessment features, and the control of these models the instructor must be able to exercise. 5. For circling approaches, all requirements of this section apply to the runway used for the initial approach and to the runway of intended landing. 6. The details in these models must be developed using airport pictures, construction drawings and maps, or other similar data, or developed in accordance with published regulatory material. However, this FSTD DIRECTIVE 1 does not require that airport models contain details that are beyond the initially designed capability of the visual system, as currently qualified. The recognized limitations to visual systems are as follows: a. Visual systems not required to have runway numbers as a part of the specific runway marking requirements are: (1) Link NVS and DNVS. (2) Novoview 2500 and 6000. (3) FlightSafety VITAL series up to, and including, VITAL III, but not beyond. (4) Redifusion SP1, SP1T, and SP2. b. Visual systems required to display runway numbers only for LOFT scenes are: (1) FlightSafety VITAL IV. (2) Redifusion SP3 and SP3T. (3) Link-Miles Image II.

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c. Visual systems not required to have accurate taxiway edge lighting are: (1) Redifusion SP1. (2) FlightSafety Vital IV. (3) Link-Miles Image II and Image IIT (4) XKD displays (even though the XKD image generator is capable of generating blue colored lights, the display cannot accommodate that color). 7. A copy of this Directive must be filed in the MQTG in the designated FSTD Directive Section, and its inclusion must be annotated on the Index of Effective FSTD Directives chart. See Attachment 4, Appendices A through D for a sample MQTG Index of Effective FSTD Directives chart. Flight Simulation Training Device (FSTD) Directive FSTD Directive 2. Applicable to all airplane Full Flight Simulators (FFS), regardless of the original qualification basis and qualification date (original or upgrade), used to conduct full stall training, upset recovery training, airborne icing training, and other flight training tasks as described in this Directive. Agency: Federal Aviation Administration (FAA), DOT. Action: This is a retroactive requirement for any FSTD being used to obtain training, testing, or checking credit in an FAA approved flight training program for the specific training maneuvers as defined in this Directive. Summary: Notwithstanding the authorization listed in paragraph 13b in Appendix A of this Part, this FSTD Directive requires that each FSTD sponsor conduct additional subjective and objective testing, conduct required modifications, and apply for additional FSTD qualification under § 60.16 to support continued qualification of the following flight training tasks where training, testing, or checking credit is being sought in a selected FSTD being used in an FAA approved flight training program: a. Recognition of and Recovery from a Full Stall b. Upset Prevention and Recovery c. Engine and Airframe Icing d. Takeoff and Landing with Gusting Crosswinds e. Recovery from a Bounced Landing The FSTD sponsor may elect to apply for additional qualification for any, all, or none of the above defined training tasks for a particular FSTD. After March 12, 2019, any FSTD used to conduct the above training tasks must be evaluated and issued additional qualification by the responsible Flight Standards office as defined in this Directive. Dates: FSTD Directive No. 2 becomes effective on May 31, 2016. Specific Requirements 1. Part 60 requires that each FSTD be: a. Sponsored by a person holding or applying for an FAA operating certificate under Part 119, Part 141, or Part 142, or holding or applying for an FAA-approved training program under Part 63, Appendix C, for flight engineers, and b. Evaluated and issued a Statement of Qualification (SOQ) for a specific FSTD level. 2. The evaluation criteria contained in this Directive is intended to address specific training tasks that require additional evaluation to ensure adequate FSTD fidelity. 3. The requirements described in this Directive define additional qualification criteria for specific training tasks that are applicable only to those FSTDs that will be utilized to obtain training, testing, or checking credit in an FAA approved flight training program. In order to obtain additional qualification for the tasks described in this Directive, FSTD sponsors must request additional qualification in accordance with § 60.16 and the requirements of this Directive. FSTDs that are found to meet the requirements of this Directive will have their Statement of Qualification (SOQ) amended to reflect the additional training tasks that the FSTD has been qualified to conduct. The additional qualification requirements as defined in this Directive are divided into the following training tasks: a. Section I—Additional Qualification Requirements for Full Stall Training Tasks b. Section II—Additional Qualification Requirements for Upset Prevention and Recovery Training Tasks c. Section III—Additional Qualification Requirements for Engine and Airframe Icing Training Tasks d. Section IV—Additional Qualification Requirements for Takeoff and Landing in Gusting Crosswinds e. Section V—Additional Qualification Requirements for Bounced Landing Recovery Training Tasks 4. A copy of this Directive (along with all required Statements of Compliance and objective test results) must be filed in the MQTG in the designated FSTD Directive Section, and its inclusion must be annotated on the Index of Effective FSTD Directives chart. See Attachment 4, Appendix A for a sample MQTG Index of Effective FSTD Directives chart. Section I—Evaluation Requirements for Full Stall Training Tasks 1. This section applies to previously qualified Level C and Level D FSTDs being used to obtain credit for stall training maneuvers beyond the first indication of a stall (such as stall warning system activation, stick shaker, etc.) in an FAA approved training program.

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2. The evaluation requirements in this Directive are intended to validate FSTD fidelity at angles of attack sufficient to identify the stall, to demonstrate aircraft performance degradation in the stall, and to demonstrate recovery techniques from a fully stalled flight condition. 3. After March 12, 2019, any FSTD being used to obtain credit for full stall training maneuvers in an FAA approved training program must be evaluated and issued additional qualification in accordance with this Directive and the following sections of Appendix A of this Part: a. Table A1A, General Requirements, Section 2.m. (High Angle of Attack Modeling) b. Table A1A, General Requirements, Section 3.f. (Stick Pusher System) [where applicable] c. Table A2A, Objective Testing Requirements, Test 2.a.10 (Stick Pusher Force Calibration) [where applicable] d. Table A2A, Objective Testing Requirements, Test 2.c.8.a (Stall Characteristics) e. Table A2A, Objective Testing Requirements, Test 3.f.5 (Characteristic Motion Vibrations—Stall Buffet) [See paragraph 4 of this section for applicability on previously qualified FSTDs] f. Table A3A, Functions and Subjective Testing Requirements, Test 5.b.1.b. (High Angle of Attack Maneuvers) g. Attachment 7, Additional Simulator Qualification Requirements for Stall, Upset Prevention and Recovery, and Engine and Airframe Icing Training Tasks (High Angle of Attack Model Evaluation) 4. For FSTDs initially qualified before May 31, 2016, including FSTDs that are initially qualified under the grace period conditions as defined in § 60.15(c): a. Objective testing for stall characteristics (Table A2A, test 2.c.8.a.) will only be required for the (wings level) second segment climb and approach or landing flight conditions. In lieu of objective testing for the high altitude cruise and turning flight stall conditions, these maneuvers may be subjectively evaluated by a qualified subject matter expert (SME) pilot and addressed in the required statement of compliance. b. Where existing flight test validation data in the FSTD's Master Qualification Test Guide (MQTG) is missing required parameters or is otherwise unsuitable to fully meet the objective testing requirements of this Directive, the FAA may accept alternate sources of validation, including subjective validation by an SME pilot with direct experience in the stall characteristics of the aircraft. c. Objective testing for characteristic motion vibrations (Stall buffet—Table A2A, test 3.f.5) is not required where the FSTD's stall buffets have been subjectively evaluated by an SME pilot. For previously qualified Level D FSTDs that currently have objective stall buffet tests in their approved MQTG, the results of these existing tests must be provided to the FAA with the updated stall and stall buffet models in place. d. As described in Attachment 7 of this Appendix, the FAA may accept a statement of compliance from the data provider which confirms the stall characteristics have been subjectively evaluated by an SME pilot on an engineering simulator or development simulator that is acceptable to the FAA. Where this evaluation takes place on an engineering or development simulator, additional objective “proof-of-match” testing for all flight conditions as described in tests 2.c.8.a. and 3.f.5.will be required to verify the implementation of the stall model and stall buffets on the training FSTD. 5. Where qualification is being sought to conduct full stall training tasks in accordance with this Directive, the FSTD Sponsor must conduct the required evaluations and modifications as prescribed in this Directive and report compliance to the responsible Flight Standards office in accordance with § 60.23 using the standardized FSTD Sponsor Notification Form. At a minimum, this form must be accompanied with the following information: a. A description of any modifications to the FSTD (in accordance with § 60.23) necessary to meet the requirements of this Directive. b. Statements of Compliance (High Angle of Attack Modeling/Stick Pusher System)—See Table A1A, Section 2.m., 3.f., and Attachment 7 c. Statement of Compliance (SME Pilot Evaluation)—See Table A1A, Section 2.m. and Attachment 7 d. Copies of the required objective test results as described above in sections 3.c., 3.d., and 3.e. 6. The responsible Flight Standards office will review each submission to determine if the requirements of this Directive have been met and respond to the FSTD Sponsor as described in § 60.23(c). Additional responsible Flight Standards office conducted FSTD evaluations may be required before the modified FSTD is placed into service. This response, along with any noted restrictions, will serve as interim qualification for full stall training tasks until such time that a permanent change is made to the Statement of Qualification (SOQ) at the FSTD's next scheduled evaluation.

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Section II—Evaluation Requirements for Upset Prevention and Recovery Training Tasks 1. This section applies to previously qualified FSTDs being used to obtain training, testing, or checking credits for upset prevention and recovery training tasks (UPRT) as defined in Appendix A, Table A1A, Section 2.n. of this part. Additionally, FSTDs being used for unusual attitude training maneuvers that are intended to exceed the parameters of an aircraft upset must also be evaluated and qualified for UPRT under this section. These parameters include pitch attitudes greater than 25 degrees nose up; pitch attitudes greater than 10 degrees nose down, and bank angles greater than 45 degrees. 2. The requirements contained in this section are intended to define minimum standards for evaluating an FSTD for use in upset prevention and recovery training maneuvers that may exceed an aircraft's normal flight envelope. These standards include the evaluation of qualified training maneuvers against the FSTD's validation envelope and providing the instructor with minimum feedback tools for the purpose of determining if a training maneuver is conducted within FSTD validation limits and the aircraft's operating limits. 3. This Directive contains additional subjective testing that exceeds the evaluation requirements of previously qualified FSTDs. Where aerodynamic modeling data or validation data is not available or insufficient to meet the requirements of this Directive, the responsible Flight Standards office may limit additional qualification to certain upset prevention and recovery maneuvers where adequate data exists. 4. After March 12, 2019, any FSTD being used to obtain training, testing, or checking credit for upset prevention and recovery training tasks in an FAA approved flight training program must be evaluated and issued additional qualification in accordance with this Directive and the following sections of Appendix A of this part: a. Table A1A, General Requirements, Section 2.n. (Upset Prevention and Recovery) b. Table A3A, Functions and Subjective Testing, Test 5.b.3. (Upset Prevention and Recovery Maneuvers) c. Attachment 7, Additional Simulator Qualification Requirements for Stall, Upset Prevention and Recovery, and Engine and Airframe Icing Training Tasks (Upset Prevention and Recovery Training Maneuver Evaluation) 5. Where qualification is being sought to conduct upset prevention and recovery training tasks in accordance with this Directive, the FSTD Sponsor must conduct the required evaluations and modifications as prescribed in this Directive and report compliance to the responsible Flight Standards office in accordance with § 60.23 using the standardized FSTD Sponsor Notification Form. At a minimum, this form must be accompanied with the following information: a. A description of any modifications to the FSTD (in accordance with § 60.23) necessary to meet the requirements of this Directive. b. Statement of Compliance (FSTD Validation Envelope)—See Table A1A, Section 2.n. and Attachment 7 c. A confirmation statement that the modified FSTD has been subjectively evaluated by a qualified pilot as described in § 60.16(a)(1)(iii). 6. The responsible Flight Standards office will review each submission to determine if the requirements of this Directive have been met and respond to the FSTD Sponsor as described in § 60.23(c). Additional responsible Flight Standards office conducted FSTD evaluations may be required before the modified FSTD is placed into service. This response, along with any noted restrictions, will serve as an interim qualification for upset prevention and recovery training tasks until such time that a permanent change is made to the Statement of Qualification (SOQ) at the FSTD's next scheduled evaluation. Section III—Evaluation Requirements for Engine and Airframe Icing Training Tasks 1. This section applies to previously qualified Level C and Level D FSTDs being used to obtain training, testing, or checking credits in maneuvers that demonstrate the effects of engine and airframe ice accretion. 2. The requirements in this section are intended to supersede and improve upon existing Level C and Level D FSTD evaluation requirements on the effects of engine and airframe icing. The requirements define a minimum level of fidelity required to adequately simulate the aircraft specific aerodynamic characteristics of an in-flight encounter with engine and airframe ice accretion as necessary to accomplish training objectives. 3. This Directive contains additional subjective testing that exceeds the evaluation requirements of previously qualified FSTDs. Where aerodynamic modeling data is not available or insufficient to meet the requirements of this Directive, the responsible Flight Standards office may limit qualified engine and airframe icing maneuvers where sufficient aerodynamic modeling data exists. 4. After March 12, 2019, any FSTD being used to conduct training tasks that demonstrate the effects of engine and airframe icing must be evaluated and issued additional qualification in accordance with this Directive and the following sections of Appendix A of this part: a. Table A1A, General Requirements, Section 2.j. (Engine and Airframe Icing)

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b. Attachment 7, Additional Simulator Qualification Requirements for Stall, Upset Prevention and Recovery, and Engine and Airframe Icing Training Tasks (Engine and Airframe Icing Evaluation; Paragraphs 1, 2, and 3). Objective demonstration tests of engine and airframe icing effects (Attachment 2, Table A2A, test 2.i. of this Appendix) are not required for previously qualified FSTDs. 5. Where continued qualification is being sought to conduct engine and airframe icing training tasks in accordance with this Directive, the FSTD Sponsor must conduct the required evaluations and modifications as prescribed in this Directive and report compliance to the responsible Flight Standards office in accordance with § 60.23 using the standardized FSTD Sponsor Notification Form. At a minimum, this form must be accompanied with the following information: a. A description of any modifications to the FSTD (in accordance with § 60.23) necessary to meet the requirements of this Directive; b. Statement of Compliance (Ice Accretion Model)—See Table A1A, Section 2.j., and Attachment 7; and c. A confirmation statement that the modified FSTD has been subjectively evaluated by a qualified pilot as described in § 60.16(a)(1)(iii). 6. The responsible Flight Standards office will review each submission to determine if the requirements of this Directive have been met and respond to the FSTD Sponsor as described in § 60.23(c). Additional responsible Flight Standards office conducted FSTD evaluations may be required before the modified FSTD is placed into service. This response, along with any noted restrictions, will serve as an interim update to the FSTD's Statement of Qualification (SOQ) until such time that a permanent change is made to the SOQ at the FSTD's next scheduled evaluation. Section IV—Evaluation Requirements for Takeoff and Landing in Gusting Crosswind 1. This section applies to previously qualified FSTDs that will be used to obtain training, testing, or checking credits in takeoff and landing tasks in gusting crosswinds as part of an FAA approved training program. The requirements of this Directive are applicable only to those Level B and higher FSTDs that are qualified to conduct takeoff and landing training tasks. 2. The requirements in this section introduce new minimum simulator requirements for gusting crosswinds during takeoff and landing training tasks as well as additional subjective testing that exceeds the evaluation requirements of previously qualified FSTDs. 3. After March 12, 2019, any FSTD that is used to conduct gusting crosswind takeoff and landing training tasks must be evaluated and issued additional qualification in accordance with this Directive and the following sections of Appendix A of this part: a. Table A1A, General Requirements, Section 2.d.3. (Ground Handling Characteristics); b. Table A3A, Functions and Subjective Testing Requirements, test 3.a.3 (Takeoff, Crosswind—Maximum Demonstrated and Gusting Crosswind); and c. Table A3A, Functions and Subjective Testing Requirements, test 8.d. (Approach and landing with crosswind—Maximum Demonstrated and Gusting Crosswind). 4. Where qualification is being sought to conduct gusting crosswind training tasks in accordance with this Directive, the FSTD Sponsor must conduct the required evaluations and modifications as prescribed in this Directive and report compliance to the responsible Flight Standards office in accordance with § 60.23 using the standardized FSTD Sponsor Notification Form. At a minimum, this form must be accompanied with the following information: a. A description of any modifications to the FSTD (in accordance with § 60.23) necessary to meet the requirements of this Directive. b. Statement of Compliance (Gusting Crosswind Profiles)—See Table A1A, Section 2.d.3. c. A confirmation statement that the modified FSTD has been subjectively evaluated by a qualified pilot as described in § 60.16(a)(1)(iii). 5. The responsible Flight Standards office will review each submission to determine if the requirements of this Directive have been met and respond to the FSTD Sponsor as described in § 60.23(c). Additional responsible Flight Standards office conducted FSTD evaluations may be required before the modified FSTD is placed into service. This response, along with any noted restrictions, will serve as an interim qualification for gusting crosswind training tasks until such time that a permanent change is made to the Statement of Qualification (SOQ) at the FSTD's next scheduled evaluation. Section V—Evaluation Requirements for Bounced Landing Recovery Training Tasks 1. This section applies to previously qualified FSTDs that will be used to obtain training, testing, or checking credits in bounced landing recovery as part of an FAA approved training program. The requirements of this Directive are applicable only to those Level B and higher FSTDs that are qualified to conduct takeoff and landing training tasks. 2. The evaluation requirements in this section are intended to introduce new evaluation requirements for bounced landing recovery training tasks and contains additional subjective testing that exceeds the evaluation requirements of previously qualified FSTDs.

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3. After March 12, 2019, any FSTD that is used to conduct bounced landing training tasks must be evaluated and issued additional qualification in accordance with this Directive and the following sections of Appendix A of this Part: a. Table A1A, General Requirements, Section 2.d.2. (Ground Reaction Characteristics) b. Table A3A, Functions and Subjective Testing Requirements, test 9.e. (Missed Approach—Bounced Landing) 4. Where qualification is being sought to conduct bounced landing training tasks in accordance with this Directive, the FSTD Sponsor must conduct the required evaluations and modifications as prescribed in this Directive and report compliance to the responsible Flight Standards office in accordance with § 60.23 using the standardized FSTD Sponsor Notification Form. At a minimum, this form must be accompanied with the following information: a. A description of any modifications to the FSTD (in accordance with § 60.23) necessary to meet the requirements of this Directive; and b. A confirmation statement that the modified FSTD has been subjectively evaluated by a qualified pilot as described in § 60.16(a)(1)(iii). 5. The responsible Flight Standards office will review each submission to determine if the requirements of this Directive have been met and respond to the FSTD Sponsor as described in § 60.23(c). Additional responsible Flight Standards office conducted FSTD evaluations may be required before the modified FSTD is placed into service. This response, along with any noted restrictions, will serve as an interim qualification for bounced landing recovery training tasks until such time that a permanent change is made to the Statement of Qualification (SOQ) at the FSTD's next scheduled evaluation. Attachment 7 to Appendix A to Part 60—Additional Simulator Qualification Requirements for Stall, Upset Prevention and Recovery, and Engine and Airframe Icing Training Tasks Begin QPS Requirements A. High Angle of Attack Model Evaluation (Table A1A, Section 2.m.) 1. Applicability: This attachment applies to all simulators that are used to satisfy training requirements for stall maneuvers that are conducted at angles of attack beyond the activation of the stall warning system. This attachment is not applicable for those FSTDs that are only qualified for approach to stall maneuvers where recovery is initiated at the first indication of the stall. The material in this section is intended to supplement the general requirements, objective testing requirements, and subjective testing requirements contained within Tables A1A, A2A, and A3A, respectively. 2. General Requirements: The requirements for high angle of attack modeling are intended to evaluate the recognition cues and performance and handling qualities of a developing stall through the stall identification angle-of-attack and recovery. Strict time-history-based evaluations against flight test data may not adequately validate the aerodynamic model in an unsteady and potentially unstable flight regime, such as stalled flight. As a result, the objective testing requirements defined in Table A2A do not prescribe strict tolerances on any parameter at angles of attack beyond the stall identification angle of attack. In lieu of mandating such objective tolerances, a Statement of Compliance (SOC) will be required to define the source data and methods used to develop the stall aerodynamic model. 3. Fidelity Requirements: The requirements defined for the evaluation of full stall training maneuvers are intended to provide the following levels of fidelity: a. Airplane type specific recognition cues of the first indication of the stall (such as the stall warning system or aerodynamic stall buffet); b. Airplane type specific recognition cues of an impending aerodynamic stall; and c. Recognition cues and handling qualities from the stall break through recovery that are sufficiently exemplar of the airplane being simulated to allow successful completion of the stall recovery training tasks. For the purposes of stall maneuver evaluation, the term “exemplar” is defined as a level of fidelity that is type specific of the simulated airplane to the extent that the training objectives can be satisfactorily accomplished. 4. Statement of Compliance (Aerodynamic Model): At a minimum, the following must be addressed in the SOC: a. Source Data and Modeling Methods: The SOC must identify the sources of data used to develop the aerodynamic model. These data sources may be from the airplane original equipment manufacturer (OEM), the original FSTD manufacturer/data provider, or other data provider acceptable to the FAA. Of particular interest is a mapping of test points in the form of alpha/beta envelope plot for a minimum of flaps up and flaps down aircraft configurations. For the flight test data, a list of the types of maneuvers used to define the aerodynamic model for angle of attack ranges greater than the first indication of stall must be provided per flap setting. In cases

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where it is impractical to develop and validate a stall model with flight-test data ( e.g., due to safety concerns involving the collection of flight test data past a certain angle of attack), the data provider is expected to make a reasonable attempt to develop a stall model through the required angle of attack range using analytical methods and empirical data ( e.g., wind-tunnel data); b. Validity Range: The FSTD sponsor must declare the range of angle of attack and sideslip where the aerodynamic model remains valid for training. For stall recovery training tasks, satisfactory aerodynamic model fidelity must be shown through at least 10 degrees beyond the stall identification angle of attack. For the purposes of determining this validity range, the stall identification angle of attack is defined as the angle of attack where the pilot is given a clear and distinctive indication to cease any further increase in angle of attack where one or more of the following characteristics occur: i. No further increase in pitch occurs when the pitch control is held at the full aft stop for 2 seconds, leading to an inability to arrest descent rate; ii. An uncommanded nose down pitch that cannot be readily arrested, which may be accompanied by an uncommanded rolling motion; iii. Buffeting of a magnitude and severity that is a strong and effective deterrent to further increase in angle of attack; and iv. Activation of a stick pusher. The model validity range must also be capable of simulating the airplane dynamics as a result of a pilot initially resisting the stick pusher in training. For aircraft equipped with a stall envelope protection system, the model validity range must extend to 10 degrees of angle of attack beyond the stall identification angle of attack with the protection systems disabled or otherwise degraded (such as a degraded flight control mode as a result of a pitot/static system failure). c. Model Characteristics: Within the declared range of model validity, the SOC must address, and the aerodynamic model must incorporate, the following stall characteristics where applicable by aircraft type: i. Degradation in static/dynamic lateral-directional stability; ii. Degradation in control response (pitch, roll, yaw); iii. Uncommanded roll acceleration or roll-off requiring significant control deflection to counter; iv. Apparent randomness or non-repeatability; v. Changes in pitch stability; vi. Stall hysteresis; vii. Mach effects; viii. Stall buffet; and ix. Angle of attack rate effects. An overview of the methodology used to address these features must be provided. 5. Statement of Compliance (Subject Matter Expert Pilot Evaluation): The sponsor must provide an SOC that confirms the FSTD has been subjectively evaluated by a subject matter expert (SME) pilot who is knowledgeable of the aircraft's stall characteristics. In order to qualify as an acceptable SME to evaluate the FSTD's stall characteristics, the SME must meet the following requirements: a. Has held a type rating/qualification in the aircraft being simulated; b. Has direct experience in conducting stall maneuvers in an aircraft that shares the same type rating as the make, model, and series of the simulated aircraft. This stall experience must include hands on manipulation of the controls at angles of attack sufficient to identify the stall ( e.g., deterrent buffet, stick pusher activation, etc.) through recovery to stable flight; c. Where the SME's stall experience is on an airplane of a different make, model, and series within the same type rating, differences in aircraft specific stall recognition cues and handling characteristics must be addressed using available documentation. This documentation may include aircraft operating manuals, aircraft manufacturer flight test reports, or other documentation that describes the stall characteristics of the aircraft; and d. Must be familiar with the intended stall training maneuvers to be conducted in the FSTD ( e.g., general aircraft configurations, stall entry methods, etc.) and the cues necessary to accomplish the required training objectives. The purpose of this requirement is to ensure that the stall model has been sufficiently evaluated in those general aircraft configurations and stall entry methods that will likely be conducted in training. This SOC will only be required once at the time the FSTD is initially qualified for stall training tasks as long as the FSTD's stall model remains unmodified from what was originally evaluated and qualified. Where an FSTD shares common aerodynamic and flight control models with that of an engineering simulator or development simulator that is acceptable to the FAA, the FAA will accept an SOC from the data provider that confirms the stall characteristics have been subjectively assessed by an SME pilot on the engineering or development simulator. An FSTD sponsor may submit a request to the Administrator for approval of a deviation from the SME pilot experience requirements in this paragraph. This request for deviation must include the following information:

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a. An assessment of pilot availability that demonstrates that a suitably qualified pilot meeting the experience requirements of this section cannot be practically located; and b. Alternative methods to subjectively evaluate the FSTD's capability to provide the stall recognition cues and handling characteristics needed to accomplish the training objectives. B. Upset Prevention and Recovery Training (UPRT) Maneuver Evaluation (Table A1A, Section 2.n.) 1. Applicability: This attachment applies to all simulators that are used to satisfy training requirements for upset prevention and recovery training (UPRT) maneuvers. For the purposes of this attachment (as defined in the Airplane Upset Recovery Training Aid), an aircraft upset is generally defined as an airplane unintentionally exceeding the following parameters normally experienced in line operations or training: a. Pitch attitude greater than 25 degrees nose up; b. Pitch attitude greater than 10 degrees nose down; c. Bank angles greater than 45 degrees; and d. Within the above parameters, but flying at airspeeds inappropriate for the conditions. FSTDs that will be used to conduct training maneuvers where the FSTD is either repositioned into an aircraft upset condition or an artificial stimulus (such as weather phenomena or system failures) is applied that is intended to result in a flightcrew entering an aircraft upset condition must be evaluated and qualified in accordance with this section. 2. General Requirements: The general requirement for UPRT qualification in Table A1A defines three basic elements required for qualifying an FSTD for UPRT maneuvers: a. FSTD Training Envelope: Valid UPRT should be conducted within the high and moderate confidence regions of the FSTD validation envelope as defined in paragraph 3 below. b. Instructor Feedback: Provides the instructor/evaluator with a minimum set of feedback tools to properly evaluate the trainee's performance in accomplishing an upset recovery training task. c. Upset Scenarios: Where dynamic upset scenarios or aircraft system malfunctions are used to stimulate the FSTD into an aircraft upset condition, specific guidance must be available to the instructor on the IOS that describes how the upset scenario is driven along with any malfunction or degradation in FSTD functionality that is required to stimulate the upset. 3. FSTD Validation Envelope: For the purposes of this attachment, the term “flight envelope” refers to the entire domain in which the FSTD is capable of being flown with a degree of confidence that the FSTD responds similarly to the airplane. This envelope can be further divided into three subdivisions (see Appendix 3-D of the Airplane Upset Recovery Training Aid ): a. Flight test validated region: This is the region of the flight envelope which has been validated with flight test data, typically by comparing the performance of the FSTD against the flight test data through tests incorporated in the QTG and other flight test data utilized to further extend the model beyond the minimum requirements. Within this region, there is high confidence that the simulator responds similarly to the aircraft. Note that this region is not strictly limited to what has been tested in the QTG; as long as the aerodynamics mathematical model has been conformed to the flight test results, that portion of the mathematical model can be considered to be within the flight test validated region. b. Wind tunnel and/or analytical region: This is the region of the flight envelope for which the FSTD has not been compared to flight test data, but for which there has been wind tunnel testing or the use of other reliable predictive methods (typically by the aircraft manufacturer) to define the aerodynamic model. Any extensions to the aerodynamic model that have been evaluated in accordance with the definition of an exemplar stall model (as described in the stall maneuver evaluation section) must be clearly indicated. Within this region, there is moderate confidence that the simulator will respond similarly to the aircraft. c. Extrapolated: This is the region extrapolated beyond the flight test validated and wind tunnel/analytical regions. The extrapolation may be a linear extrapolation, a holding of the last value before the extrapolation began, or some other set of values. Whether this extrapolated data is provided by the aircraft or simulator manufacturer, it is a “best guess” only. Within this region, there is low confidence that the simulator will respond similarly to the aircraft. Brief excursions into this region may still retain a moderate confidence level in FSTD fidelity; however, the instructor should be aware that the FSTD's response may deviate from the actual aircraft. 4. Instructor Feedback Mechanism: For the instructor/evaluator to provide feedback to the student during UPRT maneuver training, additional information must be accessible that indicates the fidelity of the simulation, the magnitude of trainee's flight control inputs, and aircraft operational limits that could potentially affect the successful completion of the maneuver(s). At a minimum, the following must be available to the instructor/evaluator:

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a. FSTD Validation Envelope: The FSTD must employ a method to display the FSTD's expected fidelity with respect to the FSTD validation envelope. This may be displayed as an angle of attack vs sideslip (alpha/beta) envelope cross-plot on the Instructor Operating System (IOS) or other alternate method to clearly convey the FSTD's fidelity level during the maneuver. The cross-plot or other alternative method must display the relevant validity regions for flaps up and flaps down at a minimum. This validation envelope must be derived by the aerodynamic data provider or derived using information and data sources provided by the original aerodynamic data provider. b. Flight Control Inputs: The FSTD must employ a method for the instructor/evaluator to assess the trainee's flight control inputs during the upset recovery maneuver. Additional parameters, such as cockpit control forces (forces applied by the pilot to the controls) and the flight control law mode for fly-by-wire aircraft, must be portrayed in this feedback mechanism as well. For passive sidesticks, whose displacement is the flight control input, the force applied by the pilot to the controls does not need to be displayed. This tool must include a time history or other equivalent method of recording flight control positions. c. Aircraft Operational Limits: The FSTD must employ a method to provide the instructor/evaluator with real-time information concerning the aircraft operating limits. The simulated aircraft's parameters must be displayed dynamically in real-time and also provided in a time history or equivalent format. At a minimum, the following parameters must be available to the instructor: i. Airspeed and airspeed limits, including the stall speed and maximum operating limit airspeed (Vmo/Mmo); ii. Load factor and operational load factor limits; and iii. Angle of attack and the stall identification angle of attack. See section A, paragraph 4.b. of this attachment for additional information concerning the definition of the stall identification angle of attack. This parameter may be displayed in conjunction with the FSTD validation envelope. End QPS Requirements Begin Information An example FSTD “alpha/beta” envelope display and IOS feedback mechanism are shown below in Figure 1 and Figure 2. The following examples are provided as guidance material on one possible method to display the required UPRT feedback parameters on an IOS display. FSTD sponsors may develop other methods and feedback mechanisms that provide the required parameters and support the training program objectives.

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[Please see PDF for image: ER30MR16.116]

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End Information Begin QPS Requirements C. Engine and Airframe Icing Evaluation (Table A1A, Section 2.j.) 1. Applicability: This section applies to all FSTDs that are used to satisfy training requirements for engine and airframe icing. New general requirements and objective requirements for simulator qualification have been developed to define aircraft specific icing models that support training objectives for the recognition and recovery from an in-flight ice accretion event. 2. General Requirements: The qualification of engine and airframe icing consists of the following elements that must be considered when developing ice accretion models for use in training: a. Ice accretion models must be developed to account for training the specific skills required for recognition of ice accumulation and execution of the required response. b. Ice accretion models must be developed in a manner to contain aircraft specific recognition cues as determined with aircraft OEM supplied data or other suitable analytical methods. c. At least one qualified ice accretion model must be objectively tested to demonstrate that the model has been implemented correctly and generates the correct cues as necessary for training. 3. Statement of Compliance: The SOC as described in Table A1A, Section 2.j. must contain the following information to support FSTD qualification of aircraft specific ice accretion models: a. A description of expected aircraft specific recognition cues and degradation effects due to a typical in-flight icing encounter. Typical cues may include loss of lift, decrease in stall angle of attack, changes in pitching moment, decrease in control effectiveness, and changes in control forces in addition to any overall increase in drag. This description must be based upon relevant source data, such as aircraft OEM supplied data, accident/incident data, or other acceptable data sources. Where a particular airframe has demonstrated vulnerabilities to a specific type of ice accretion (due to accident/incident history) which requires specific training (such as supercooled large-droplet icing or tailplane icing), ice accretion models must be developed that address the training requirements. b. A description of the data sources utilized to develop the qualified ice accretion models. Acceptable data sources may be, but are not limited to, flight test data, aircraft certification data, aircraft OEM engineering simulation data, or other analytical methods based upon established engineering principles. 4. Objective Demonstration Testing: The purpose of the objective demonstration test is to demonstrate that the ice accretion models as described in the Statement of Compliance have been implemented correctly and demonstrate the proper cues and effects as defined in the approved data sources. At least one ice accretion model must be selected for testing and included in the Master Qualification Test Guide (MQTG). Two tests are required to demonstrate engine and airframe icing effects. One test will demonstrate the FSTDs baseline performance without icing, and the second test will demonstrate the aerodynamic effects of ice accretion relative to the baseline test. a. Recorded Parameters: In each of the two required MQTG cases, a time history recording must be made of the following parameters: i. Altitude; ii. Airspeed; iii. Normal Acceleration; iv. Engine Power/settings; v. Angle of Attack/Pitch attitude; vi. Bank Angle; vii. Flight control inputs; viii. Stall warning and stall buffet onset; and ix. Other parameters as necessary to demonstrate the effects of ice accretions. b. Demonstration maneuver: The FSTD sponsor must select an ice accretion model as identified in the SOC for testing. The selected maneuver must demonstrate the effects of ice accretion at high angles of attack from a trimmed condition through approach to stall and “full” stall as compared to a baseline (no ice buildup) test. The ice accretion models must demonstrate the cues necessary to recognize the onset of ice accretion on the airframe, lifting surfaces, and engines and provide representative degradation in performance and handling qualities to the extent that a recovery can be executed. Typical recognition cues that may be present depending upon the simulated aircraft include: i. Decrease in stall angle of attack; ii. Increase in stall speed; iii. Increase in stall buffet threshold of perception speed; iv. Changes in pitching moment; v. Changes in stall buffet characteristics; vi. Changes in control effectiveness or control forces; and vii. Engine effects (power variation, vibration, etc.); The demonstration test may be conducted by initializing and maintaining a fixed amount of ice accretion throughout the maneuver in order to consistently evaluate the aerodynamic effects.

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End QPS Requirements [Docket FAA-2002-12461, 73 FR 26490, May 9, 2008, as amended by Docket FAA-2014-0391, Amdt. 60-4, 81 FR 18218, 18219, 18240, 18283, 18300, and 18303, Mar. 30, 2016; 81 FR 32016 and 32066, May 20, 2016; Docket FAA-2018-0119, Amdt. 60-5, 83 FR 9170, Mar. 5, 2018; Amdt. 60-6, 83 FR 30275, June 27, 2018; Docket FAA-2022-1355, Amdt. 60-7, 87 FR 75711, Dec. 9, 2022]   Pt. 60, App. B Appendix B to Part 60—Qualification Performance Standards for Airplane Flight Training Devices Begin Information This appendix establishes the standards for Airplane FTD evaluation and qualification at Level 4, Level 5, Level 6, or Level 7. The Flight Standards Service, is responsible for the development, application, and implementation of the standards contained within this appendix. The procedures and criteria specified in this appendix will be used by the responsible Flight Standards office when conducting airplane FTD evaluations. Table of Contents 1. Introduction 2. Applicability (§§ 60.1 and 60.2). 3. Definitions (§ 60.3). 4. Qualification Performance Standards (§ 60.4). 5. Quality Management System (§ 60.5). 6. Sponsor Qualification Requirements (§ 60.7). 7. Additional Responsibilities of the Sponsor (§ 60.9). 8. FTD Use (§ 60.11). 9. FTD Objective Data Requirements (§ 60.13). 10. Special Equipment and Personnel Requirements for Qualification of the FTD (§ 60.14). 11. Initial (and Upgrade) Qualification Requirements (§ 60.15). 12. Additional Qualifications for Currently Qualified FTDs (§ 60.16). 13. Previously Qualified FTDs (§ 60.17). 14. Inspection, Continuing Qualification Evaluation, and Maintenance Requirements (§ 60.19). 15. Logging FTD Discrepancies (§ 60.20). 16. Interim Qualification of FTDs for New Airplane Types or Models (§ 60.21). 17. Modifications to FTDs (§ 60.23). 18. Operations with Missing, Malfunctioning, or Inoperative Components (§ 60.25). 19. Automatic Loss of Qualification and Procedures for Restoration of Qualification (§ 60.27). 20. Other Losses of Qualification and Procedures for Restoration of Qualification (§ 60.29). 21. Record Keeping and Reporting (§ 60.31). 22. Applications, Logbooks, Reports, and Records: Fraud, Falsification, or Incorrect Statements (§ 60.33). 23. [Reserved] 24. Levels of FTD. 25. FTD Qualification on the Basis of a Bilateral Aviation Safety Agreement (BASA) (§ 60.37). Attachment 1 to Appendix B to Part 60—General FTD Requirements. Attachment 2 to Appendix B to Part 60—Flight Training Device (FTD) Objective Tests. Attachment 3 to Appendix B to Part 60—Flight Training Device (FTD) Subjective Evaluation. Attachment 4 to Appendix B to Part 60—Sample Documents. End Information 1. Introduction Begin Information a. This appendix contains background information as well as regulatory and informative material as described later in this section. To assist the reader in determining what areas are required and what areas are permissive, the text in this appendix is divided into two sections: “QPS Requirements” and “Information.” The QPS Requirements sections contain details regarding compliance with the part 60 rule language. These details are regulatory, but are found only in this appendix. The Information sections contain material that is advisory in nature, and designed to give the user general information about the regulation. b. [Reserved] c. The responsible Flight Standards office encourages the use of electronic media for all communication, including any record, report, request, test, or statement required by this appendix. The electronic media used must have adequate security provisions and be acceptable to the responsible Flight Standards office. d. Related Reading References. (1) 14 CFR part 60. (2) 14 CFR part 61. (3) 14 CFR part 63. (4) 14 CFR part 119. (5) 14 CFR part 121. (6) 14 CFR part 125. (7) 14 CFR part 135. (8) 14 CFR part 141. (9) 14 CFR part 142.

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(10) AC 120-28, as amended, Criteria for Approval of Category III Landing Weather Minima. (11) AC 120-29, as amended, Criteria for Approving Category I and Category II Landing Minima for part 121 operators. (12) AC 120-35, as amended, Flightcrew Member Line Operational Simulations: Line-Oriented Flight Training, Special Purpose Operational Training, Line Operational Evaluation. (13) AC 120-41, as amended, Criteria for Operational Approval of Airborne Wind Shear Alerting and Flight Guidance Systems. (14) AC 120-45, as amended, Airplane Flight Training Device Qualification. (14) AC 120-57, as amended, Surface Movement Guidance and Control System (SMGCS). (15) AC 150/5300-13, as amended, Airport Design. (16) AC 150/5340-1, as amended, Standards for Airport Markings. (17) AC 150/5340-4, as amended, Installation Details for Runway Centerline Touchdown Zone Lighting Systems. (18) AC 150/5340-19, as amended, Taxiway Centerline Lighting System. (19) AC 150/5340-24, as amended, Runway and Taxiway Edge Lighting System. (20) AC 150/5345-28, as amended, Precision Approach Path Indicator (PAPI) Systems. (21) International Air Transport Association document, “Flight Simulation Training Device Design and Performance Data Requirements,” as amended. (22) AC 25-7, as amended, Flight Test Guide for Certification of Transport Category Airplanes. (23) AC 23-8A, as amended, Flight Test Guide for Certification of Part 23 Airplanes. (24) International Civil Aviation Organization (ICAO) Manual of Criteria for the Qualification of Flight Simulation Training Devices, as amended. (25) Aeroplane Flight Simulation Training Device Evaluation Handbook, Volume I, as amended and Volume II, as amended, The Royal Aeronautical Society, London, UK. (26) FAA Airman Certification Standards and Practical Test Standards for Airline Transport Pilot, Type Ratings, Commercial Pilot, and Instrument Ratings. (27) The FAA Aeronautical Information Manual (AIM). An electronic version of the AIM is on the Internet at http://www.faa.gov/atpubs. (28) Aeronautical Radio, Inc. (ARINC) document number 436, titled Guidelines For Electronic Qualification Test Guide (as amended). (29) Aeronautical Radio, Inc. (ARINC) document 610, Guidance for Design and Integration of Aircraft Avionics Equipment in Simulators (as amended). End Information 2. Applicability (§§ 60.1 and 60.2) Begin Information No additional regulatory or informational material applies to § 60.1, Applicability, or to § 60.2, Applicability of sponsor rules to person who are not sponsors and who are engaged in certain unauthorized activities. 3. Definitions (§ 60.3) See appendix F of this part for a list of definitions and abbreviations from part 1, part 60, and the QPS appendices of part 60. 4. Qualification Performance Standards (§ 60.4) No additional regulatory or informational material applies to § 60.4, Qualification Performance Standards. 5. Quality Management System (§ 60.5) Additional regulatory material and informational material regarding Quality Management Systems for FTDs may be found in appendix E of this part. End Information 6. Sponsor Qualification Requirements. (§ 60.7). Begin Information a. The intent of the language in § 60.7(b) is to have a specific FTD, identified by the sponsor, used at least once in an FAA-approved flight training program for the airplane simulated during the 12-month period described. The identification of the specific FTD may change from one 12-month period to the next 12-month period as long as that sponsor sponsors and uses at least one FTD at least once during the prescribed period. There is no minimum number of hours or minimum FTD periods required. b. The following examples describe acceptable operational practices: (1) Example One. (a) A sponsor is sponsoring a single, specific FTD for its own use, in its own facility or elsewhere— this single FTD forms the basis for the sponsorship. The sponsor uses that FTD at least once in each 12-month period in that sponsor's FAA-approved flight training program for the airplane simulated. This 12-month period is established according to the following schedule: (i) If the FTD was qualified prior to May 30, 2008, the 12-month period begins on the date of the first continuing qualification evaluation conducted in accordance with § 60.19 after May 30, 2008, and continues for each subsequent 12-month period;

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(ii) A device qualified on or after May 30, 2008, will be required to undergo an initial or upgrade evaluation in accordance with § 60.15. Once the initial or upgrade evaluation is complete, the first continuing qualification evaluation will be conducted within 6 months. The 12 month continuing qualification evaluation cycle begins on that date and continues for each subsequent 12-month period. (b) There is no minimum number of hours of FTD use required. (c) The identification of the specific FTD may change from one 12-month period to the next 12-month period as long as that sponsor sponsors and uses at least one FTD at least once during the prescribed period. (2) Example Two. (a) A sponsor sponsors an additional number of FTDs, in its facility or elsewhere. Each additionally sponsored FTD must be— (i) Used by the sponsor in the sponsor's FAA-approved flight training program for the airplane simulated (as described in § 60.7(d)(1)); or (ii) Used by another FAA certificate holder in that other certificate holder's FAA-approved flight training program for the airplane simulated (as described in § 60.7(d)(1)). This 12-month period is established in the same manner as in example one; or (iii) Provided a statement each year from a qualified pilot, (after having flown the airplane, not the subject FTD or another FTD, during the preceding 12-month period) stating that the subject FTD's performance and handling qualities represent the airplane (as described in § 60.7(d)(2)). This statement is provided at least once in each 12-month period established in the same manner as in example one. (b) There is no minimum number of hours of FTD use required. (3) Example Three. (a) A sponsor in New York (in this example, a Part 142 certificate holder) establishes “satellite” training centers in Chicago and Moscow. (b) The satellite function means that the Chicago and Moscow centers must operate under the New York center's certificate (in accordance with all of the New York center's practices, procedures, and policies; e.g., instructor and/or technician training/checking requirements, record keeping, QMS program). (c) All of the FTDs in the Chicago and Moscow centers could be dry-leased (i.e., the certificate holder does not have and use FAA-approved flight training programs for the FTDs in the Chicago and Moscow centers) because— (i) Each FTD in the Chicago center and each FTD in the Moscow center is used at least once each 12-month period by another FAA certificate holder in that other certificate holder's FAA-approved flight training program for the airplane (as described in § 60.7(d)(1)); or (ii) A statement is obtained from a qualified pilot (having flown the airplane, not the subject FTD or another FTD during the preceding 12-month period) stating that the performance and handling qualities of each FTD in the Chicago and Moscow centers represents the airplane (as described in § 60.7(d)(2)). End Information 7. Additional Responsibilities of the Sponsor (§ 60.9) Begin Information The phrase “as soon as practicable” in § 60.9(a) means without unnecessarily disrupting or delaying beyond a reasonable time the training, evaluation, or experience being conducted in the FTD. 8. FTD Use (§ 60.11) No additional regulatory or informational material applies to § 60.11, FTD use. End Information 9. FTD Objective Data Requirements (§ 60.13) Begin QPS Requirements a. Flight test data used to validate FTD performance and handling qualities must have been gathered in accordance with a flight test program containing the following: (1) A flight test plan consisting of: (a) The maneuvers and procedures required for aircraft certification and simulation programming and validation. (b) For each maneuver or procedure— (i) The procedures and control input the flight test pilot and/or engineer used. (ii) The atmospheric and environmental conditions. (iii) The initial flight conditions. (iv) The airplane configuration, including weight and center of gravity. (v) The data to be gathered. (vi) All other information necessary to recreate the flight test conditions in the FTD. (2) Appropriately qualified flight test personnel. (3) An understanding of the accuracy of the data to be gathered using appropriate alternative data sources, procedures, and instrumentation that is traceable to a recognized standard as described in Attachment 2, Table B2F of this appendix.

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(4) Appropriate and sufficient data acquisition equipment or system(s), including appropriate data reduction and analysis methods and techniques, acceptable to the FAA's Aircraft Certification Service. b. The data, regardless of source, must be presented: (1) In a format that supports the FTD validation process; (2) In a manner that is clearly readable and annotated correctly and completely; (3) With resolution sufficient to determine compliance with the tolerances set forth in Attachment 2, Table B2A, Appendix B; (4) With any necessary guidance information provided; and (5) Without alteration, adjustments, or bias. Data may be corrected to address known data calibration errors provided that an explanation of the methods used to correct the errors appears in the QTG. The corrected data may be re-scaled, digitized, or otherwise manipulated to fit the desired presentation. c. After completion of any additional flight test, a flight test report must be submitted in support of the validation data. The report must contain sufficient data and rationale to support qualification of the FTD at the level requested. d. As required by § 60.13(f), the sponsor must notify the responsible Flight Standards office when it becomes aware that an addition to or a revision of the flight related data or airplane systems related data is available if this data is used to program and operate a qualified FTD. The data referred to in this sub-section are those data that are used to validate the performance, handling qualities, or other characteristics of the aircraft, including data related to any relevant changes occurring after the type certification is issued. The sponsor must— (1) Within 10 calendar days, notify the responsible Flight Standards office of the existence of this data; and (2) Within 45 calendar days, notify the responsible Flight Standards office of— (i) The schedule to incorporate this data into the FTD; or (ii) The reason for not incorporating this data into the FTD. e. In those cases where the objective test results authorize a “snapshot test” or a “series of snapshot test results” in lieu of a time-history result, the sponsor or other data provider must ensure that a steady state condition exists at the instant of time captured by the “snapshot.” The steady state condition must exist from 4 seconds prior to, through 1 second following, the instant of time captured by the snap shot. End QPS Requirements Begin Information f. The FTD sponsor is encouraged to maintain a liaison with the manufacturer of the aircraft being simulated (or with the holder of the aircraft type certificate for the aircraft being simulated if the manufacturer is no longer in business), and if appropriate, with the person having supplied the aircraft data package for the FTD in order to facilitate the notification described in this paragraph. g. It is the intent of the responsible Flight Standards office that for new aircraft entering service, at a point well in advance of preparation of the QTG, the sponsor should submit to the responsible Flight Standards office for approval, a descriptive document (see Appendix A, Table A2C, Sample Validation Data Roadmap for Airplanes) containing the plan for acquiring the validation data, including data sources. This document should clearly identify sources of data for all required tests, a description of the validity of these data for a specific engine type and thrust rating configuration, and the revision levels of all avionics affecting the performance or flying qualities of the aircraft. Additionally, this document should provide other information such as the rationale or explanation for cases where data or data parameters are missing, instances where engineering simulation data are used, or where flight test methods require further explanations. It should also provide a brief narrative describing the cause and effect of any deviation from data requirements. The aircraft manufacturer may provide this document. h. There is no requirement for any flight test data supplier to submit a flight test plan or program prior to gathering flight test data. However, the responsible Flight Standards office notes that inexperienced data gatherers often provide data that is irrelevant, improperly marked, or lacking adequate justification for selection. Other problems include inadequate information regarding initial conditions or test maneuvers. The responsible Flight Standards office has been forced to refuse these data submissions as validation data for an FTD evaluation. It is for this reason that the responsible Flight Standards office recommends that any data supplier not previously experienced in this area review the data necessary for programming and for validating the performance of the FTD and discuss the flight test plan anticipated for acquiring such data with the responsible Flight Standards office well in advance of commencing the flight tests. i. The responsible Flight Standards office will consider, on a case-by-case basis, whether to approve supplemental validation data derived from flight data recording systems such as a Quick Access Recorder or Flight Data Recorder.

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End Information 10. Special Equipment and Personnel Requirements for Qualification of the FTD (§ 60.14). Begin Information a. In the event that the responsible Flight Standards office determines that special equipment or specifically qualified persons will be required to conduct an evaluation, the responsible Flight Standards office will make every attempt to notify the sponsor at least one (1) week, but in no case less than 72 hours, in advance of the evaluation. Examples of special equipment include flight control measurement devices, accelerometers, or oscilloscopes. Examples of specially qualified personnel include individuals specifically qualified to install or use any special equipment when its use is required. b. Examples of a special evaluation include an evaluation conducted after: An FTD is moved; at the request of the TPAA; or as a result of comments received from users of the FTD that raise questions about the continued qualification or use of the FTD. End Information 11. Initial (and Upgrade) Qualification Requirements (§ 60.15). Begin QPS Requirement a. In order to be qualified at a particular qualification level, the FTD must: (1) Meet the general requirements listed in Attachment 1 of this appendix; (2) Meet the objective testing requirements listed in Attachment 2 of this appendix (Level 4 FTDs do not require objective tests); and (3) Satisfactorily accomplish the subjective tests listed in Attachment 3 of this appendix. b. The request described in § 60.15(a) must include all of the following: (1) A statement that the FTD meets all of the applicable provisions of this part and all applicable provisions of the QPS. (2) Unless otherwise authorized through prior coordination with the responsible Flight Standards office, a confirmation that the sponsor will forward to the responsible Flight Standards office the statement described in § 60.15(b) in such time as to be received no later than 5 business days prior to the scheduled evaluation and may be forwarded to the responsible Flight Standards office via traditional or electronic means. (3) Except for a Level 4 FTD, a QTG, acceptable to the responsible Flight Standards office, that includes all of the following: (a) Objective data obtained from aircraft testing or another approved source. (b) Correlating objective test results obtained from the performance of the FTD as prescribed in the appropriate QPS. (c) The result of FTD subjective tests prescribed in the appropriate QPS. (d) A description of the equipment necessary to perform the evaluation for initial qualification and the continuing qualification evaluations. c. The QTG described in paragraph a(3) of this section, must provide the documented proof of compliance with the FTD objective tests in Attachment 2, Table B2A of this appendix. d. The QTG is prepared and submitted by the sponsor, or the sponsor?s agent on behalf of the sponsor, to the responsible Flight Standards office for review and approval, and must include, for each objective test: (1) Parameters, tolerances, and flight conditions; (2) Pertinent and complete instructions for conducting automatic and manual tests; (3) A means of comparing the FTD test results to the objective data; (4) Any other information as necessary to assist in the evaluation of the test results; (5) Other information appropriate to the qualification level of the FTD. e. The QTG described in paragraphs (a)(3) and (b) of this section, must include the following: (1) A QTG cover page with sponsor and FAA approval signature blocks (see Attachment 4, Figure B4C, of this appendix, for a sample QTG cover page). (2) [Reserved] (3) An FTD information page that provides the information listed in this paragraph, if applicable (see Attachment 4, Figure B4B, of this appendix, for a sample FTD information page). For convertible FTDs, the sponsor must submit a separate page for each configuration of the FTD. (a) The sponsor's FTD identification number or code. (b) The airplane model and series being simulated. (c) The aerodynamic data revision number or reference. (d) The source of the basic aerodynamic model and the aerodynamic coefficient data used to modify the basic model. (e) The engine model(s) and its data revision number or reference. (f) The flight control data revision number or reference. (g) The flight management system identification and revision level. (h) The FTD model and manufacturer. (i) The date of FTD manufacture. (j) The FTD computer identification.

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(k) The visual system model and manufacturer, including display type. (l) The motion system type and manufacturer, including degrees of freedom. (4) A Table of Contents. (5) A log of revisions and a list of effective pages. (6) List of all relevant data references. (7) A glossary of terms and symbols used (including sign conventions and units). (8) Statements of compliance and capability (SOCs) with certain requirements. (9) Recording procedures or equipment required to accomplish the objective tests. (10) The following information for each objective test designated in Attachment 2 of this appendix, as applicable to the qualification level sought: (a) Name of the test. (b) Objective of the test. (c) Initial conditions. (d) Manual test procedures. (e) Automatic test procedures (if applicable). (f) Method for evaluating FTD objective test results. (g) List of all relevant parameters driven or constrained during the automatic test(s). (h) List of all relevant parameters driven or constrained during the manual test(s). (i) Tolerances for relevant parameters. (j) Source of Validation Data (document and page number). (k) Copy of the Validation Data (if located in a separate binder, a cross reference for the identification and page number for pertinent data location must be provided). (l) FTD Objective Test Results as obtained by the sponsor. Each test result must reflect the date completed and must be clearly labeled as a product of the device being tested. f. A convertible FTD is addressed as a separate FTD for each model and series airplane to which it will be converted and for the FAA qualification level sought. The responsible Flight Standards office will conduct an evaluation for each configuration. If a sponsor seeks qualification for two or more models of an airplane type using a convertible FTD, the sponsor must provide a QTG for each airplane model, or a QTG for the first airplane model and a supplement to that QTG for each additional airplane model. The responsible Flight Standards office will conduct evaluations for each airplane model. g. The form and manner of presentation of objective test results in the QTG must include the following: (1) The sponsor's FTD test results must be recorded in a manner acceptable to the responsible Flight Standards office, that allows easy comparison of the FTD test results to the validation data (e.g., use of a multi-channel recorder, line printer, cross plotting, overlays, transparencies). (2) FTD results must be labeled using terminology common to airplane parameters as opposed to computer software identifications. (3) Validation data documents included in a QTG may be photographically reduced only if such reduction will not alter the graphic scaling or cause difficulties in scale interpretation or resolution. (4) Scaling on graphical presentations must provide the resolution necessary to evaluate the parameters shown in Attachment 2, Table B2A of this appendix. (5) Tests involving time histories, data sheets (or transparencies thereof) and FTD test results must be clearly marked with appropriate reference points to ensure an accurate comparison between FTD and airplane with respect to time. Time histories recorded via a line printer are to be clearly identified for cross-plotting on the airplane data. Over-plots may not obscure the reference data. h. The sponsor may elect to complete the QTG objective and subjective tests at the manufacturer's facility or at the sponsor's training facility (or other sponsor designated location where training will take place). If the tests are conducted at the manufacturer's facility, the sponsor must repeat at least one-third of the tests at the sponsor's training facility in order to substantiate FTD performance. The QTG must be clearly annotated to indicate when and where each test was accomplished. Tests conducted at the manufacturer's facility and at the sponsor's designated training facility must be conducted after the FTD is assembled with systems and sub-systems functional and operating in an interactive manner. The test results must be submitted to the responsible Flight Standards office. i. The sponsor must maintain a copy of the MQTG at the FTD location. j. All FTDs for which the initial qualification is conducted after May 30, 2014, must have an electronic MQTG (eMQTG) including all objective data obtained from airplane testing, or another approved source (reformatted or digitized), together with correlating objective test results obtained from the performance of the FTD (reformatted or digitized) as prescribed in this appendix. The eMQTG must also contain the general FTD performance or demonstration results (reformatted or digitized) prescribed in this appendix, and a description of the equipment necessary to perform the initial qualification evaluation and the continuing qualification evaluations. The eMQTG must include the original validation data used to validate FTD performance and handling qualities in either the original digitized format from the data supplier or an electronic scan of the original time-history plots that were provided by the data supplier. A copy of the eMQTG must be provided to the responsible Flight Standards office. k. All other FTDs (not covered in subparagraph “j”) must have an electronic copy of the MQTG by and after May 30, 2014. An electronic copy of the copy of the MQTG must be provided to the responsible Flight Standards office. This may be provided by an electronic scan presented in a Portable Document File (PDF), or similar format acceptable to the responsible Flight Standards office.

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l. During the initial (or upgrade) qualification evaluation conducted by the responsible Flight Standards office, the sponsor must also provide a person knowledgeable about the operation of the aircraft and the operation of the FTD. End QPS Requirements Begin Information m. Only those FTDs that are sponsored by a certificate holder as defined in Appendix F will be evaluated by the responsible Flight Standards office. However, other FTD evaluations may be conducted on a case-by-case basis as the Administrator deems appropriate, but only in accordance with applicable agreements. n. The responsible Flight Standards office will conduct an evaluation for each configuration, and each FTD must be evaluated as completely as possible. To ensure a thorough and uniform evaluation, each FTD is subjected to the general FTD requirements in Attachment 1 of this appendix, the objective tests listed in Attachment 2 of this appendix, and the subjective tests listed in Attachment 3 of this appendix. The evaluations described herein will include, but not necessarily be limited to the following: (1) Airplane responses, including longitudinal and lateral-directional control responses (see Attachment 2 of this appendix); (2) Performance in authorized portions of the simulated airplane's operating envelope, to include tasks evaluated by the responsible Flight Standards office in the areas of surface operations, takeoff, climb, cruise, descent, approach and landing, as well as abnormal and emergency operations (see Attachment 2 of this appendix); (3) Control checks (see Attachment 1 and Attachment 2 of this appendix); (4) Flight deck configuration (see Attachment 1 of this appendix); (5) Pilot, flight engineer, and instructor station functions checks (see Attachment 1 and Attachment 3 of this appendix); (6) Airplane systems and sub-systems (as appropriate) as compared to the airplane simulated (see Attachment 1 and Attachment 3 of this appendix); (7) FTD systems and sub-systems, including force cueing (motion), visual, and aural (sound) systems, as appropriate (see Attachment 1 and Attachment 2 of this appendix); and (8) Certain additional requirements, depending upon the qualification level sought, including equipment or circumstances that may become hazardous to the occupants. The sponsor may be subject to Occupational Safety and Health Administration requirements. o. The responsible Flight Standards office administers the objective and subjective tests, which includes an examination of functions. The tests include a qualitative assessment of the FTD by a pilot from the responsible Flight Standards office. The evaluation team leader may assign other qualified personnel to assist in accomplishing the functions examination and/or the objective and subjective tests performed during an evaluation when required. (1) Objective tests provide a basis for measuring and evaluating FTD performance and determining compliance with the requirements of this part. (2) Subjective tests provide a basis for: (a) Evaluating the capability of the FTD to perform over a typical utilization period; (b) Determining that the FTD satisfactorily simulates each required task; (c) Verifying correct operation of the FTD controls, instruments, and systems; and (d) Demonstrating compliance with the requirements of this part. p. The tolerances for the test parameters listed in Attachment 2 of this appendix reflect the range of tolerances acceptable to the responsible Flight Standards office for FTD validation and are not to be confused with design tolerances specified for FTD manufacture. In making decisions regarding tests and test results, the responsible Flight Standards office relies on the use of operational and engineering judgment in the application of data (including consideration of the way in which the flight test was flown and way the data was gathered and applied), data presentations, and the applicable tolerances for each test. q. In addition to the scheduled continuing qualification evaluation, each FTD is subject to evaluations conducted by the responsible Flight Standards office at any time without prior notification to the sponsor. Such evaluations would be accomplished in a normal manner (i.e., requiring exclusive use of the FTD for the conduct of objective and subjective tests and an examination of functions) if the FTD is not being used for flight crewmember training, testing, or checking. However, if the FTD were being used, the evaluation would be conducted in a non-exclusive manner. This non-exclusive evaluation will be conducted by the FTD evaluator accompanying the check airman, instructor, Aircrew Program Designee (APD), or FAA inspector aboard the FTD along with the student(s) and observing the operation of the FTD during the training, testing, or checking activities.

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r. Problems with objective test results are handled as follows: (1) If a problem with an objective test result is detected by the evaluation team during an evaluation, the test may be repeated or the QTG may be amended. (2) If it is determined that the results of an objective test do not support the qualification level requested but do support a lower level, the responsible Flight Standards office may qualify the FTD at a lower level. For example, if a Level 6 evaluation is requested, but the FTD fails to meet the spiral stability test tolerances, it could be qualified at Level 5. s. After an FTD is successfully evaluated, the responsible Flight Standards office issues an SOQ to the sponsor, the responsible Flight Standards office recommends the FTD to the TPAA, who will approve the FTD for use in a flight training program. The SOQ will be issued at the satisfactory conclusion of the initial or continuing qualification evaluation and will list the tasks for which the FTD is qualified, referencing the tasks described in Table B1B in Attachment 1 of this appendix. However, it is the sponsor's responsibility to obtain TPAA approval prior to using the FTD in an FAA-approved flight training program. t. Under normal circumstances, the responsible Flight Standards office establishes a date for the initial or upgrade evaluation within ten (10) working days after determining that a complete QTG is acceptable. Unusual circumstances may warrant establishing an evaluation date before this determination is made. A sponsor may schedule an evaluation date as early as 6 months in advance. However, there may be a delay of 45 days or more in rescheduling and completing the evaluation if the sponsor is unable to meet the scheduled date. See Attachment 4, Figure B4A, Sample Request for Initial, Upgrade, or Reinstatement Evaluation, of this appendix. u. The numbering system used for objective test results in the QTG should closely follow the numbering system set out in Attachment 2, FTD Objective Tests, Table B2A, of this appendix. v. Contact the responsible Flight Standards office for additional information regarding the preferred qualifications of pilots used to meet the requirements of § 60.15(d). w. Examples of the exclusions for which the FTD might not have been subjectively tested by the sponsor or the responsible Flight Standards office and for which qualification might not be sought or granted, as described in § 60.15(g)(6), include engine out maneuvers or circling approaches. 12. Additional Qualifications for Currently Qualified FTDs (§ 60.16). No additional regulatory or informational material applies to § 60.16, Additional Qualifications for a Currently Qualified FTD. End Information 13. Previously Qualified FTDs (§ 60.17). Begin QPS Requirements a. In instances where a sponsor plans to remove an FTD from active status for a period of less than two years, the following procedures apply: (1) The responsible Flight Standards office must be notified in writing and the notification must include an estimate of the period that the FTD will be inactive; (2) Continuing Qualification evaluations will not be scheduled during the inactive period; (3) The responsible Flight Standards office will remove the FTD from the list of qualified FTDs on a mutually established date not later than the date on which the first missed continuing qualification evaluation would have been scheduled; (4) Before the FTD is restored to qualified status, it must be evaluated by the responsible Flight Standards office. The evaluation content and the time required to accomplish the evaluation is based on the number of continuing qualification evaluations and sponsor-conducted quarterly inspections missed during the period of inactivity. (5) The sponsor must notify the responsible Flight Standards office of any changes to the original scheduled time out of service; b. FTDs qualified prior to May 31, 2016, and replacement FTD systems, are not required to meet the general FTD requirements, the objective test requirements, and the subjective test requirements of Attachments 1, 2, and 3 of this appendix as long as the FTD continues to meet the test requirements contained in the MQTG developed under the original qualification basis. c. [Reserved] d. FTDs qualified prior to May 31, 2016, may be updated. If an evaluation is deemed appropriate or necessary by the responsible Flight Standards office after such an update, the evaluation will not require an evaluation to standards beyond those against which the FTD was originally qualified. e. Other certificate holders or persons desiring to use an FTD may contract with FTD sponsors to use FTDs previously qualified at a particular level for an airplane type and approved for use within an FAA-approved flight training program. Such FTDs are not required to undergo an additional qualification process, except as described in § 60.16.

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f. Each FTD user must obtain approval from the appropriate TPAA to use any FTD in an FAA-approved flight training program. g. The intent of the requirement listed in § 60.17(b), for each FTD to have an SOQ within 6 years, is to have the availability of that statement (including the configuration list and the limitations to authorizations) to provide a complete picture of the FTD inventory regulated by the FAA. The issuance of the statement will not require any additional evaluation or require any adjustment to the evaluation basis for the FTD. h. Downgrading of an FTD is a permanent change in qualification level and will necessitate the issuance of a revised SOQ to reflect the revised qualification level, as appropriate. If a temporary restriction is placed on an FTD because of a missing, malfunctioning, or inoperative component or on-going repairs, the restriction is not a permanent change in qualification level. Instead, the restriction is temporary and is removed when the reason for the restriction has been resolved. i. The responsible Flight Standards office will determine the evaluation criteria for an FTD that has been removed from active status for a prolonged period. The criteria will be based on the number of continuing qualification evaluations and quarterly inspections missed during the period of inactivity. For example, if the FTD were out of service for a 1 year period, it would be necessary to complete the entire QTG, since all of the quarterly evaluations would have been missed. The responsible Flight Standards office will also consider how the FTD was stored, whether parts were removed from the FTD and whether the FTD was disassembled. j. The FTD will normally be requalified using the FAA-approved MQTG and the criteria that was in effect prior to its removal from qualification. However, inactive periods of 2 years or more will require re-qualification under the standards in effect and current at the time of requalification. End Information 14. Inspection, Continuing Qualification, Evaluation, and Maintenance Requirements (§ 60.19). Begin QPS Requirement a. The sponsor must conduct a minimum of four evenly spaced inspections throughout the year. The objective test sequence and content of each inspection in this sequence must be developed by the sponsor and must be acceptable to the responsible Flight Standards office. b. The description of the functional preflight check must be contained in the sponsor's QMS. c. Record “functional preflight” in the FTD discrepancy log book or other acceptable location, including any item found to be missing, malfunctioning, or inoperative. d. During the continuing qualification evaluation conducted by the responsible Flight Standards office, the sponsor must also provide a person knowledgeable about the operation of the aircraft and the operation of the FTD. End QPS Requirements Begin Information e. The sponsor's test sequence and the content of each quarterly inspection required in § 60.19(a)(1) should include a balance and a mix from the objective test requirement areas listed as follows: (1) Performance. (2) Handling qualities. (3) Motion system (where appropriate). (4) Visual system (where appropriate). (5) Sound system (where appropriate). (6) Other FTD systems. f. If the evaluator plans to accomplish specific tests during a normal continuing qualification evaluation that requires the use of special equipment or technicians, the sponsor will be notified as far in advance of the evaluation as practical; but not less than 72 hours. Examples of such tests include latencies, control sweeps, or motion or visual system tests. g. The continuing qualification evaluations described in § 60.19(b) will normally require 4 hours of FTD time. However, flexibility is necessary to address abnormal situations or situations involving aircraft with additional levels of complexity (e.g., computer controlled aircraft). The sponsor should anticipate that some tests may require additional time. The continuing qualification evaluations will consist of the following: (1) Review of the results of the quarterly inspections conducted by the sponsor since the last scheduled continuing qualification evaluation. (2) A selection of approximately 8 to 15 objective tests from the MQTG that provide an adequate opportunity to evaluate the performance of the FTD. The tests chosen will be performed either automatically or manually and should be able to be conducted within approximately one-third (1/3) of the allotted FTD time. (3) A subjective evaluation of the FTD to perform a representative sampling of the tasks set out in attachment 3 of this appendix. This portion of the evaluation should take approximately two-thirds (2/3) of the allotted FTD time.

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(4) An examination of the functions of the FTD may include the motion system, visual system, sound system as applicable, instructor operating station, and the normal functions and simulated malfunctions of the airplane systems. This examination is normally accomplished simultaneously with the subjective evaluation requirements. h. The requirement established in § 60.19(b)(4) regarding the frequency of responsible Flight Standards office-conducted continuing qualification evaluations for each FTD is typically 12 months. However, the establishment and satisfactory implementation of an approved QMS for a sponsor will provide a basis for adjusting the frequency of evaluations to exceed 12-month intervals. 15. Logging FTD Discrepancies (§ 60.20) No additional regulatory or informational material applies to § 60.20. Logging FTD Discrepancies. 16. Interim Qualification of FTDs for New Airplane Types or Models (§ 60.21) No additional regulatory or informational material applies to § 60.21, Interim Qualification of FTDs for New Airplane Types or Models. End Information 17. Modifications to FTDs (§ 60.23) Begin QPS Requirements a. The notification described in § 60.23(c)(2) must include a complete description of the planned modification, with a description of the operational and engineering effect the proposed modification will have on the operation of the FTD and the results that are expected with the modification incorporated. b. Prior to using the modified FTD: (1) All the applicable objective tests completed with the modification incorporated, including any necessary updates to the MQTG (e.g., accomplishment of FSTD Directives) must be acceptable to the responsible Flight Standards office; and (2) The sponsor must provide the responsible Flight Standards office with a statement signed by the MR that the factors listed in § 60.15(b) are addressed by the appropriate personnel as described in that section. End QPS Requirements Begin Information c. FSTD Directives are considered modification of an FTD. See Attachment 4 of this appendix for a sample index of effective FSTD Directives. End Information 18. Operation with Missing, Malfunctioning, or Inoperative Components (§ 60.25) Begin Information a. The sponsor's responsibility with respect to § 60.25(a) is satisfied when the sponsor fairly and accurately advises the user of the current status of an FTD, including any missing, malfunctioning, or inoperative (MMI) component(s). b. It is the responsibility of the instructor, check airman, or representative of the administrator conducting training, testing, or checking to exercise reasonable and prudent judgment to determine if any MMI component is necessary for the satisfactory completion of a specific maneuver, procedure, or task. c. If the 29th or 30th day of the 30-day period described in 60.25(b) is on a Saturday, a Sunday, or a holiday, the FAA will extend the deadline until the next business day. d. In accordance with the authorization described in § 60.25(b), the sponsor may develop a discrepancy prioritizing system to accomplish repairs based on the level of impact on the capability of the FTD. Repairs having a larger impact on the FTD's ability to provide the required training, evaluation, or flight experience will have a higher priority for repair or replacement. End Information 19. Automatic Loss of Qualification and Procedures for Restoration of Qualification (§ 60.27) Begin Information If the sponsor provides a plan for how the FTD will be maintained during its out-of-service period (e.g., periodic exercise of mechanical, hydraulic, and electrical systems; routine replacement of hydraulic fluid; control of the environmental factors in which the FTD is to be maintained) there is a greater likelihood that the responsible Flight Standards office will be able to determine the amount of testing that required for requalification. End Information

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20. Other Losses of Qualification and Procedures for Restoration of Qualification (§ 60.29) Begin Information If the sponsor provides a plan for how the FTD will be maintained during its out-of-service period (e.g., periodic exercise of mechanical, hydraulic, and electrical systems; routine replacement of hydraulic fluid; control of the environmental factors in which the FTD is to be maintained) there is a greater likelihood that the responsible Flight Standards office will be able to determine the amount of testing that required for requalification. End Information 21. Recordkeeping and Reporting (§ 60.31) Begin QPS Requirements a. FTD modifications can include hardware or software changes. For FTD modifications involving software programming changes, the record required by § 60.31(a)(2) must consist of the name of the aircraft system software, aerodynamic model, or engine model change, the date of the change, a summary of the change, and the reason for the change. b. If a coded form for record keeping is used, it must provide for the preservation and retrieval of information with appropriate security or controls to prevent the inappropriate alteration of such records after the fact. End QPS Requirements 22. Applications, Logbooks, Reports, and Records: Fraud, Falsification, or Incorrect Statements (§ 60.33) Begin Information No additional regulatory or informational material applies to § 60.33, Applications, Logbooks, Reports, and Records: Fraud, Falsification, or Incorrect Statements. End Information 23. [Reserved] 24. Levels of FTD. Begin Information a. The following is a general description of each level of FTD. Detailed standards and tests for the various levels of FTDs are fully defined in Attachments 1 through 3 of this appendix. (1) Level 4. A device that may have an open airplane-specific flight deck area, or an enclosed airplane-specific flight deck and at least one operating system. Air/ground logic is required (no aerodynamic programming required). All displays may be flat/LCD panel representations or actual representations of displays in the aircraft. All controls, switches, and knobs may be touch sensitive activation (not capable of manual manipulation of the flight controls) or may physically replicate the aircraft in control operation. (2) Level 5. A device that may have an open airplane-specific flight deck area, or an enclosed airplane-specific flight deck; generic aerodynamic programming; at least one operating system; and control loading that is representative of the simulated airplane only at an approach speed and configuration. All displays may be flat/LCD panel representations or actual representations of displays in the aircraft. Primary and secondary flight controls (e.g., rudder, aileron, elevator, flaps, spoilers/speed brakes, engine controls, landing gear, nosewheel steering, trim, brakes) must be physical controls. All other controls, switches, and knobs may be touch sensitive activation. (3) Level 6. A device that has an enclosed airplane-specific flight deck; airplane-specific aerodynamic programming; all applicable airplane systems operating; control loading that is representative of the simulated airplane throughout its ground and flight envelope; and significant sound representation. All displays may be flat/LCD panel representations or actual representations of displays in the aircraft, but all controls, switches, and knobs must physically replicate the aircraft in control operation. End Information (4) Level 7. A Level 7 device is one that has an enclosed airplane-specific flight deck and aerodynamic program with all applicable airplane systems operating and control loading that is representative of the simulated airplane throughout its ground and flight envelope and significant sound representation. All displays may be flat/LCD panel representations or actual representations of displays in the aircraft, but all controls, switches, and knobs must physically replicate the aircraft in control operation. It also has a visual system that provides an out-of-the-flight deck view, providing cross-flight deck viewing (for both pilots simultaneously) of a field-of-view of at least 180° horizontally and 40° vertically.

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25. FTD Qualification on the Basis of a Bilateral Aviation Safety Agreement (BASA) (§ 60.37) Begin Information No additional regulatory or informational material applies to § 60.37, FTD Qualification on the Basis of a Bilateral Aviation Safety Agreement (BASA). End Information Attachment 1 to Appendix B to Part 60—General FTD REQUIREMENTS Begin QPS Requirements 1. Requirements a. Certain requirements included in this appendix must be supported with an SOC as defined in Appendix F, which may include objective and subjective tests. The requirements for SOCs are indicated in the “General FTD Requirements” column in Table B1A of this appendix. b. Table B1A describes the requirements for the indicated level of FTD. Many devices include operational systems or functions that exceed the requirements outlined in this section. In any event, all systems will be tested and evaluated in accordance with this appendix to ensure proper operation. End QPS Requirements Begin Information 2. Discussion a. This attachment describes the general requirements for qualifying Level 4 through Level 6 FTDs. The sponsor should also consult the objectives tests in Attachment 2 of this appendix and the examination of functions and subjective tests listed in Attachment 3 of this appendix to determine the complete requirements for a specific level FTD. b. The material contained in this attachment is divided into the following categories: (1) General Flight deck Configuration. (2) Programming. (3) Equipment Operation. (4) Equipment and facilities for instructor/evaluator functions. (5) Motion System. (6) Visual System. (7) Sound System. c. Table B1A provides the standards for the General FTD Requirements. d. Table B1B provides the tasks that the sponsor will examine to determine whether the FTD satisfactorily meets the requirements for flight crew training, testing, and experience, and provides the tasks for which the simulator may be qualified. e. Table B1C provides the functions that an instructor/check airman must be able to control in the simulator. f. It is not required that all of the tasks that appear on the List of Qualified Tasks (part of the SOQ) be accomplished during the initial or continuing qualification evaluation. End Information

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Table B1C—Table of FTD System Tasks QPS requirements

QPS Requirements	Entry No.	Subjective Requirements In order to be qualified at the FTD qualification level indicated, the FTD must be able to perform at least the tasks associated with that level of qualification.	FTD level	4	5	6	Information	Notes
1. Instructor Operating Station (IOS).
1.a.	Power switch(es)	X	X	X
1.b.	Airplane conditions	A	X	X	e.g., GW, CG, Fuel loading, Systems, Ground Crew.
1.c.	Airports/Runways	X	X	X	e.g., Selection and Presets; Surface and Lighting controls if equipped with a visual system.
1.d.	Environmental controls	X	X	X	e.g., Temp, Wind.
1.e.	Airplane system malfunctions (Insertion/deletion)	A	X	X
1.f.	Locks, Freezes, and Repositioning	X	X	X
1.g.	Sound Controls. (On/off/adjustment)	X	X	X
1.h.	Motion/Control Loading System, as appropriate. On/off/emergency stop	A	A	A
2. Observer Seats/Stations.
2.a.	Position/Adjustment/Positive restraint system	X	X	X
Note 1: An “A” in the table indicates that the system, task, or procedure, although not required to be present, may be examined if the appropriate system is in the FTD and is working properly.

Attachment 2 to Appendix B to Part 60—Flight Training Device (FTD) Objective Tests Begin Information 1. Discussion a. For the purposes of this attachment, the flight conditions specified in the Flight Conditions Column of Table B2A, are defined as follows: (1) Ground—on ground, independent of airplane configuration; (2) Take-off—gear down with flaps/slats in any certified takeoff position; (3) First segment climb—gear down with flaps/slats in any certified takeoff position (normally not above 50 ft AGL); (4) Second segment climb—gear up with flaps/slats in any certified takeoff position (normally between 50 ft and 400 ft AGL); (5) Clean—flaps/slats retracted and gear up; (6) Cruise—clean configuration at cruise altitude and airspeed; (7) Approach—gear up or down with flaps/slats at any normal approach position as recommended by the airplane manufacturer; and (8) Landing—gear down with flaps/slats in any certified landing position. b. The format for numbering the objective tests in Appendix A, Attachment 2, Table A2A, and the objective tests in Appendix B, Attachment 2, Table B2A, is identical. However, each test required for FFSs is not necessarily required for FTDs. Also, each test required for FTDs is not necessarily required for FFSs. Therefore, when a test number (or series of numbers) is not required, the term “Reserved” is used in the table at that location. Following this numbering format provides a degree of commonality between the two tables and substantially reduces the potential for confusion when referring to objective test numbers for either FFSs or FTDs. c. The reader is encouraged to review the Airplane Flight Simulator Evaluation Handbook, Volumes I and II, published by the Royal Aeronautical Society, London, UK, and FAA AC 25-7, as amended, Flight Test Guide for Certification of Transport Category Airplanes, and AC 23-8, as amended, Flight Test Guide for Certification of Part 23 Airplanes, for references and examples regarding flight testing requirements and techniques. d. If relevant winds are present in the objective data, the wind vector should be clearly noted as part of the data presentation, expressed in conventional terminology, and related to the runway being used for the test. e. A Level 4 FTD does not require objective tests and therefore, Level 4 is not addressed in the following table.

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End Information Begin QPS Requirements 2. Test Requirements a. The ground and flight tests required for qualification are listed in Table B2A Objective Tests. Computer generated FTD test results must be provided for each test except where an alternate test is specifically authorized by the responsible Flight Standards office. If a flight condition or operating condition is required for the test but does not apply to the airplane being simulated or to the qualification level sought, it may be disregarded (e.g., an engine out missed approach for a single-engine airplane; a maneuver using reverse thrust for an airplane without reverse thrust capability). Each test result is compared against the validation data described in § 60.13, and in Appendix B. The results must be produced on an appropriate recording device acceptable to the responsible Flight Standards office and must include FTD number, date, time, conditions, tolerances, and appropriate dependent variables portrayed in comparison to the validation data. Time histories are required unless otherwise indicated in Table B2A. All results must be labeled using the tolerances and units given. b. Table B2A in this attachment sets out the test results required, including the parameters, tolerances, and flight conditions for FTD validation. Tolerances are provided for the listed tests because mathematical modeling and acquisition and development of reference data are often inexact. All tolerances listed in the following tables are applied to FTD performance. When two tolerance values are given for a parameter, the less restrictive may be used unless otherwise indicated. In those cases where a tolerance is expressed only as a percentage, the tolerance percentage applies to the maximum value of that parameter within its normal operating range as measured from the neutral or zero position unless otherwise indicated. c. Certain tests included in this attachment must be supported with a SOC. In Table B2A, requirements for SOCs are indicated in the “Test Details” column. d. When operational or engineering judgment is used in making assessments for flight test data applications for FTD validity, such judgment may not be limited to a single parameter. For example, data that exhibit rapid variations of the measured parameters may require interpolations or a “best fit” data section. All relevant parameters related to a given maneuver or flight condition must be provided to allow overall interpretation. When it is difficult or impossible to match FTD to airplane data throughout a time history, differences must be justified by providing a comparison of other related variables for the condition being assessed. e. It is not acceptable to program the FTD so that the mathematical modeling is correct only at the validation test points. Unless otherwise noted, FTD tests must represent airplane performance and handling qualities at operating weights and centers of gravity (CG) typical of normal operation. FTD tests at extreme weight or CG conditions may be acceptable where required for concurrent aircraft certification testing. Tests of handling qualities must include validation of augmentation devices. f. When comparing the parameters listed to those of the airplane, sufficient data must also be provided to verify the correct flight condition and airplane configuration changes. For example, to show that control force is within the parameters for a static stability test, data to show the correct airspeed, power, thrust or torque, airplane configuration, altitude, and other appropriate datum identification parameters must also be given. If comparing short period dynamics, normal acceleration may be used to establish a match to the airplane, but airspeed, altitude, control input, airplane configuration, and other appropriate data must also be given. If comparing landing gear change dynamics, pitch, airspeed, and altitude may be used to establish a match to the airplane, but landing gear position must also be provided. All airspeed values must be properly annotated (e.g., indicated versus calibrated). In addition, the same variables must be used for comparison (e.g., compare inches to inches rather than inches to centimeters). g. The QTG provided by the sponsor must clearly describe how the FTD will be set up and operated for each test. Each FTD subsystem may be tested independently, but overall integrated testing of the FTD must be accomplished to assure that the total FTD system meets the prescribed standards. A manual test procedure with explicit and detailed steps for completing each test must also be provided. h. For previously qualified FTDs, the tests and tolerances of this attachment may be used in subsequent continuing qualification evaluations for any given test if the sponsor has submitted a proposed MQTG revision to the responsible Flight Standards office and has received responsible Flight Standards office approval. i. FTDs are evaluated and qualified with an engine model simulating the airplane data supplier's flight test engine. For qualification of alternative engine models (either variations of the flight test engines or other manufacturer's engines) additional tests with the alternative engine models may be required. This attachment contains guidelines for alternative engines.

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j. Testing Computer Controlled Aircraft (CCA) simulators, or other highly augmented airplane simulators, flight test data is required for the Normal (N) and/or Non-normal (NN) control states, as indicated in this attachment. Where test results are independent of control state, Normal or Non-normal control data may be used. All tests in Table B2A require test results in the Normal control state unless specifically noted otherwise in the Test Details section following the CCA designation. The responsible Flight Standards office will determine what tests are appropriate for airplane simulation data. When making this determination, the responsible Flight Standards office may require other levels of control state degradation for specific airplane tests. Where Non-normal control states are required, test data must be provided for one or more Non-normal control states, and must include the least augmented state. Where applicable, flight test data must record Normal and Non-normal states for: (1) Pilot controller deflections or electronically generated inputs, including location of input; and (2) Flight control surface positions unless test results are not affected by, or are independent of, surface positions. k. Tests of handling qualities must include validation of augmentation devices. FTDs for highly augmented airplanes will be validated both in the unaugmented configuration (or failure state with the maximum permitted degradation in handling qualities) and the augmented configuration. Where various levels of handling qualities result from failure states, validation of the effect of the failure is necessary. Requirements for testing will be mutually agreed to between the sponsor and the responsible Flight Standards office on a case-by-case basis. l. Some tests will not be required for airplanes using airplane hardware in the FTD flight deck (e.g., “side stick controller”). These exceptions are noted in Section 2 “Handling Qualities” in Table B2A of this attachment. However, in these cases, the sponsor must provide a statement that the airplane hardware meets the appropriate manufacturer's specifications and the sponsor must have supporting information to that fact available for responsible Flight Standards office review. m. For objective test purposes, see Appendix F of this part for the definitions of “Near maximum,” “Light,” and “Medium” gross weight. End QPS Requirements Begin Information n. In those cases where the objective test results authorize a “snapshot test” or a “series of snapshot test results” in lieu of a time-history result, the sponsor or other data provider must ensure that a steady state condition exists at the instant of time captured by the “snapshot.” The steady state condition must exist from 4 seconds prior to, through 1 second following, the instant of time captured by the snap shot. o. Refer to AC 120-27, “Aircraft Weight and Balance” and FAA-H-8083-1, “Aircraft Weight and Balance Handbook” for more information. End Information

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Begin Information 3. For additional information on the following topics, please refer to Appendix A, Attachment 2, and the indicated paragraph within that attachment • Control Dynamics, paragraph 4. • Motion System, paragraph 6. • Sound System, paragraph 7. • Engineering Simulator Validation Data, paragraph 9. • Validation Test Tolerances, paragraph 11. • Validation Data Road Map, paragraph 12. • Acceptance Guidelines for Alternative Engines Data, paragraph 13. • Acceptance Guidelines for Alternative Avionics, paragraph 14. • Transport Delay Testing, paragraph 15. • Continuing Qualification Evaluation Validation Data Presentation, paragraph 16. End Information 4. Alternative Objective Data for FTD Level 5 Begin QPS Requirements a. This paragraph (including the following tables) is relevant only to FTD Level 5. It is provided because this level is required to simulate the performance and handling characteristics of a set of airplanes with similar characteristics, such as normal airspeed/altitude operating envelope and the same number and type of propulsion systems (engines). b. Tables B2B through B2E reflect FTD performance standards that are acceptable to the FAA. A sponsor must demonstrate that a device performs within these parameters, as applicable. If a device does not meet the established performance parameters for some or for all of the applicable tests listed in Tables B2B through B2E, the sponsor may use FAA accepted flight test data for comparison purposes for those tests. c. Sponsors using the data from Tables B2B through B2E must comply with the following: (1) Submit a complete QTG, including results from all of the objective tests appropriate for the level of qualification sought as set out in Table B2A. The QTG must highlight those results that demonstrate the performance of the FTD is within the allowable performance ranges indicated in Tables B2B through B2E, as appropriate. (2) The QTG test results must include all relevant information concerning the conditions under which the test was conducted; e.g. , gross weight, center of gravity, airspeed, power setting, altitude (climbing, descending, or level), temperature, configuration, and any other parameter that impacts the conduct of the test. (3) The test results become the validation data against which the initial and all subsequent continuing qualification evaluations are compared. These subsequent evaluations will use the tolerances listed in Table B2A. (4) Subjective testing of the device must be performed to determine that the device performs and handles like an airplane within the appropriate set of airplanes. End QPS Requirements Begin Information d. The reader is encouraged to consult the Airplane Flight Simulator Evaluation Handbook, Volumes I and II, published by the Royal Aeronautical Society, London, UK, and AC 25-7, Flight Test Guide for Certification of Transport Category Airplanes, and AC 23-8A, Flight Test Guide for Certification of Part 23 Airplanes, as amended, for references and examples regarding flight testing requirements and techniques. End Information

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End QPS Requirements Begin QPS Requirements 5. Alternative Data Sources, Procedures, and Instrumentation: Level 6 FTD Only a. Sponsors are not required to use the alternative data sources, procedures, and instrumentation. However, a sponsor may choose to use one or more of the alternative sources, procedures, and instrumentation described in Table B2F. End QPS Requirements Begin Information b. It has become standard practice for experienced FTD manufacturers to use such techniques as a means of establishing data bases for new FTD configurations while awaiting the availability of actual flight test data; and then comparing this new data with the newly available flight test data. The results of such comparisons have, as reported by some recognized and experienced simulation experts, become increasingly consistent and indicate that these techniques, applied with appropriate experience, are becoming dependably accurate for the development of aerodynamic models for use in Level 6 FTDs. c. In reviewing this history, the responsible Flight Standards office has concluded that, with proper care, those who are experienced in the development of aerodynamic models for FTD application can successfully use these modeling techniques to acceptably alter the method by which flight test data may be acquired and, when applied to Level 6 FTDs, does not compromise the quality of that simulation. d. The information in the table that follows (Table of Alternative Data Sources, Procedures, and Information: Level 6 FTD Only) is presented to describe an acceptable alternative to data sources for Level 6 FTD modeling and validation, and an acceptable alternative to the procedures and instrumentation found in the flight test methods traditionally accepted for gathering modeling and validation data. (1) Alternative data sources that may be used for part or all of a data requirement are the Airplane Maintenance Manual, the Airplane Flight Manual (AFM), Airplane Design Data, the Type Inspection Report (TIR), Certification Data or acceptable supplemental flight test data. (2) The responsible Flight Standards office recommends that use of the alternative instrumentation noted in Table B2F be coordinated with the responsible Flight Standards office prior to employment in a flight test or data gathering effort. e. The responsible Flight Standards office position regarding the use of these alternative data sources, procedures, and instrumentation is based on three primary preconditions and presumptions regarding the objective data and FTD aerodynamic program modeling. (1) Data gathered through the alternative means does not require angle of attack (AOA) measurements or control surface position measurements for any flight test. AOA can be sufficiently derived if the flight test program insures the collection of acceptable level, unaccelerated, trimmed flight data. Angle of attack may be validated by conducting the three basic “fly-by” trim tests. The FTD time history tests should begin in level, unaccelerated, and trimmed flight, and the results should be compared with the flight test pitch angle. (2) A simulation controls system model should be rigorously defined and fully mature. It should also include accurate gearing and cable stretch characteristics (where applicable) that are determined from actual aircraft measurements. Such a model does not require control surface position measurements in the flight test objective data for Level 6 FTD applications. f. Table B2F is not applicable to Computer Controlled Aircraft FTDs. g. Utilization of these alternate data sources, procedures, and instrumentation does not relieve the sponsor from compliance with the balance of the information contained in this document relative to Level 6 FTDs. h. The term “inertial measurement system” allows the use of a functional global positioning system (GPS). End Information

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Table B2F—Alternative Data Sources, Procedures, and Instrumentation Level 6 FTD

QPS Requirements The standards in this table are required if the data gathering methods described in paragraph 9 of Appendix B are not used.		Information
Objective test reference number and title	Alternative data sources, procedures, and instrumentation	Notes
1.b.1. Performance. Takeoff. Ground acceleration time.	Data may be acquired through a synchronized video recording of a stop watch and the calibrated airplane airspeed indicator. Hand-record the flight conditions and airplane configuration	This test is required only if RTO is sought.
1.b.7. Performance. Takeoff. Rejected takeoff.	Data may be acquired through a synchronized video recording of a stop watch and the calibrated airplane airspeed indicator. Hand-record the flight conditions and airplane configuration	This test is required only if RTO is sought.
1.c.1. Performance. Climb. Normal climb all engines operating.	Data may be acquired with a synchronized video of calibrated airplane instruments and engine power throughout the climb range
1.f.1. Performance. Engines. Acceleration	Data may be acquired with a synchronized video recording of engine instruments and throttle position
1.f.2. Performance. Engines. Deceleration	Data may be acquired with a synchronized video recording of engine instruments and throttle position
2.a.1.a. Handling qualities. Static control tests. Pitch controller position vs. force and surface position calibration	Surface position data may be acquired from flight data recorder (FDR) sensor or, if no FDR sensor, at selected, significant column positions (encompassing significant column position data points), acceptable to the responsible Flight Standards office, using a control surface protractor on the ground. Force data may be acquired by using a hand held force gauge at the same column position data points.	For airplanes with reversible control systems, surface position data acquisition should be accomplished with winds less than 5 kts.
2.a.2.a. Handling qualities. Static control tests. Wheel position vs. force and surface position calibration.	Surface position data may be acquired from flight data recorder (FDR) sensor or, if no FDR sensor, at selected, significant wheel positions (encompassing significant wheel position data points), acceptable to the responsible Flight Standards office, using a control surface protractor on the ground. Force data may be acquired by using a hand held force gauge at the same wheel position data points.	For airplanes with reversible control systems, surface position data acquisition should be accomplished with winds less than 5 kts.
2.a.3.a. Handling qualities. Static control tests. Rudder pedal position vs. force and surface position calibration.	Surface position data may be acquired from flight data recorder (FDR) sensor or, if no FDR sensor, at selected, significant rudder pedal positions (encompassing significant rudder pedal position data points), acceptable to the responsible Flight Standards office, using a control surface protractor on the ground. Force data may be acquired by using a hand held force gauge at the same rudder pedal position data points.	For airplanes with reversible control systems, surface position data acquisition should be accomplished with winds less than 5 kts.
2.a.4. Handling qualities. Static control tests. Nosewheel steering force.	Breakout data may be acquired with a hand held force gauge. The remainder of the force to the stops may be calculated if the force gauge and a protractor are used to measure force after breakout for at least 25% of the total displacement capability
2.a.5. Handling qualities. Static control tests. Rudder pedal steering calibration.	Data may be acquired through the use of force pads on the rudder pedals and a pedal position measurement device, together with design data for nosewheel position
2.a.6. Handling qualities. Static control tests. Pitch trim indicator vs. surface position calibration.	Data may be acquired through calculations
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2.a.8. Handling qualities. Static control tests. Alignment of power lever angle vs. selected engine parameter (e.g., EPR, N 1 , Torque, Manifold pressure).	Data may be acquired through the use of a temporary throttle quadrant scale to document throttle position. Use a synchronized video to record steady state instrument readings or hand-record steady state engine performance readings
2.a.9. Handling qualities. Static control tests. Brake pedal position vs. force.	Use of design or predicted data is acceptable. Data may be acquired by measuring deflection at “zero” and at “maximum.”
2.c.1. Handling qualities. Longitudinal control tests. Power change force.	Data may be acquired by using an inertial measurement system and a synchronized video of the calibrated airplane instruments, throttle position, and the force/position measurements of flight deck controls	Power change dynamics test is acceptable using the same data acquisition methodology.
2.c.2. Handling qualities. Longitudinal control tests. Flap/slat change force.	Data may be acquired by using an inertial measurement system and a synchronized video of calibrated airplane instruments, flap/slat position, and the force/position measurements of flight deck controls	Flap/slat change dynamics test is acceptable using the same data acquisition methodology.
2.c.4. Handling qualities. Longitudinal control tests. Gear change force.	Data may be acquired by using an inertial measurement system and a synchronized video of the calibrated airplane instruments, gear position, and the force/position measurements of flight deck controls	Gear change dynamics test is acceptable using the same data acquisition methodology.
2.c.5. Handling qualities. Longitudinal control tests. Longitudinal trim.	Data may be acquired through use of an inertial measurement system and a synchronized video of flight deck controls position (previously calibrated to show related surface position) and engine instrument readings
2.c.6. Handling qualities. Longitudinal control tests. Longitudinal maneuvering stability (stick force/g).	Data may be acquired through the use of an inertial measurement system and a synchronized video of the calibrated airplane instruments; a temporary, high resolution bank angle scale affixed to the attitude indicator; and a wheel and column force measurement indication
2.c.7. Handling qualities. Longitudinal control tests. Longitudinal static stability	Data may be acquired through the use of a synchronized video of the airplane flight instruments and a hand held force gauge
2.c.8. Handling qualities. Longitudinal control tests. Stall Warning (activation of stall warning device).	Data may be acquired through a synchronized video recording of a stop watch and the calibrated airplane airspeed indicator. Hand-record the flight conditions and airplane configuration	Airspeeds may be cross checked with those in the TIR and AFM.
2.c.9.a. Handling qualities. Longitudinal control tests. Phugoid dynamics.	Data may be acquired by using an inertial measurement system and a synchronized video of the calibrated airplane instruments and the force/position measurements of flight deck controls
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2.c.10. Handling qualities. Longitudinal control tests. Short period dynamics.	Data may be acquired by using an inertial measurement system and a synchronized video of the calibrated airplane instruments and the force/position measurements of flight deck controls
2.c.11. Handling qualities. Longitudinal control tests. Gear and flap/slat operating times.	May use design data, production flight test schedule, or maintenance specification, together with an SOC
2.d.2. Handling qualities. Lateral directional tests. Roll response (rate).	Data may be acquired by using an inertial measurement system and a synchronized video of the calibrated airplane instruments and the force/position measurements of flight deck lateral controls
2.d.3. Handling qualities. Lateral directional tests. (a) Roll overshoot. OR (b) Roll response to flight deck roll controller step input.	Data may be acquired by using an inertial measurement system and a synchronized video of the calibrated airplane instruments and the force/position measurements of flight deck lateral controls
2.d.4. Handling qualities. Lateral directional tests. Spiral stability.	Data may be acquired by using an inertial measurement system and a synchronized video of the calibrated airplane instruments; the force/position measurements of flight deck controls; and a stop watch
2.d.6.a. Handling qualities. Lateral directional tests. Rudder response.	Data may be acquired by using an inertial measurement system and a synchronized video of the calibrated airplane instruments; the force/position measurements of rudder pedals
2.d.7. Handling qualities. Lateral directional tests. Dutch roll, (yaw damper OFF).	Data may be acquired by using an inertial measurement system and a synchronized video of the calibrated airplane instruments and the force/position measurements of flight deck controls
2.d.8. Handling qualities. Lateral directional tests. Steady state sideslip.	Data may be acquired by using an inertial measurement system and a synchronized video of the calibrated airplane instruments and the force/position measurements of flight deck controls

Attachment 3 to Appendix B to Part 60—Flight Training Device (FTD) Subjective Evaluation Begin Information 1. Discussion a. The subjective tests provide a basis for evaluating the capability of the FTD to perform over a typical utilization period. The items listed in the Table of Functions and Subjective Tests are used to determine whether the FTD competently simulates each required maneuver, procedure, or task; and verifying correct operation of the FTD controls, instruments, and systems. The tasks do not limit or exceed the authorizations for use of a given level of FTD as described on the SOQ or as approved by the TPAA. All items in the following paragraphs are subject to examination. b. All simulated airplane systems functions will be assessed for normal and, where appropriate, alternate operations. Simulated airplane systems are listed separately under “Any Flight Phase” to ensure appropriate attention to systems checks. Operational navigation systems (including inertial navigation systems, global positioning systems, or other long-range systems) and the associated electronic display systems will be evaluated if installed. The pilot will include in his report to the TPAA, the effect of the system operation and any system limitation.

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c. At the request of the TPAA, the Pilot may assess the FTD for a special aspect of a sponsor's training program during the functions and subjective portion of an evaluation. Such an assessment may include a portion of a specific operation (e.g., a Line Oriented Flight Training (LOFT) scenario) or special emphasis items in the sponsor's training program. Unless directly related to a requirement for the qualification level, the results of such an evaluation would not affect the qualification of the FTD. End Information Table B3A—Table of Functions and Subjective Tests Level 6 FTD

QPS requirements
Entry No.	Operations tasks
Tasks in this table are subject to evaluation if appropriate for the airplane system or systems simulated as indicated in the SOQ Configuration List as defined in Appendix B, Attachment 2 of this part.
1. Preflight
	Accomplish a functions check of all installed switches, indicators, systems, and equipment at all crewmembers' and instructors' stations, and determine that the flight deck (or flight deck area) design and functions replicate the appropriate airplane.
2. Surface Operations (pre-takeoff)
2.a.	Engine start:
2.a.1.	Normal start.
2.a.2.	Alternative procedures start.
2.a.3.	Abnormal procedures start/shut down.
2.b.	Pushback/Powerback (powerback requires visual system).
3. Takeoff (requires appropriate visual system as set out in Table B1A, item 6; Appendix B, Attachment 1.)
3.a.	Instrument takeoff:
3.a.1.	Engine checks (e.g., engine parameter relationships, propeller/mixture controls).
3.a.2.	Acceleration characteristics.
3.a.3.	Nosewheel/rudder steering.
3.a.4.	Landing gear, wing flap, leading edge device operation.
3.b.	Rejected takeoff:
3.b.1.	Deceleration characteristics.
3.b.2.	Brakes/engine reverser/ground spoiler operation.
3.b.3.	Nosewheel/rudder steering.
4. In-Flight Operations
4.a.	Normal climb.
4.b.	Cruise:
4.b.1.	Demonstration of performance characteristics (speed vs. power).
4.b.2.	Normal turns.
4.b.3.	Demonstration of high altitude handling.
4.b.4.	Demonstration of high airspeed handling/overspeed warning.
4.b.5.	Demonstration of Mach effects on control and trim.
4.b.6.	Steep turns.
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4.b.7.	In-Flight engine shutdown (procedures only).
4.b.8.	In-Flight engine restart (procedures only).
4.b.9.	Specific flight characteristics.
4.b.10.	Response to loss of flight control power.
4.b.11.	Response to other flight control system failure modes.
4.b.12.	Operations during icing conditions.
4.b.13.	Effects of airframe/engine icing.
4.c.	Other flight phase:
4.c.1.	Approach to stalls in the following configurations:
4.c.1.a.	Cruise.
4.c.1.b.	Takeoff or approach.
4.c.1.c.	Landing.
4.c.2.	High angle of attack maneuvers in the following configurations:
4.c.2.a.	Cruise.
4.c.2.b.	Takeoff or approach.
4.c.2.c.	Landing.
4.c.3.	Slow flight.
4.c.4.	Holding.
5. Approaches
5.a.	Non-precision Instrument Approaches:
5.a.1.	With use of autopilot and autothrottle, as applicable.
5.a.2.	Without use of autopilot and autothrottle, as applicable.
5.a.3.	With 10 knot tail wind.
5.a.4.	With 10 knot crosswind.
5.b.	Precision Instrument Approaches:
5.b.1.	With use of autopilot, autothrottle, and autoland, as applicable.
5.b.2.	Without use of autopilot, autothrottle, and autoland, as applicable.
5.b.3.	With 10 knot tail wind.
5.b.4.	With 10 knot crosswind.
6. Missed Approach
6.a.	Manually controlled.
6.b.	Automatically controlled (if applicable).
7. Any Flight Phase, as appropriate
7.a.	Normal system operation (installed systems).
7.b.	Abnormal/Emergency system operation (installed systems).
7.c.	Flap operation.
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7.d.	Landing gear operation.
7.e.	Engine Shutdown and Parking.
7.e.1.	Systems operation.
7.e.2.	Parking brake operation.
8. Instructor Operating Station (IOS), as appropriate. Functions in this section are subject to evaluation only if appropriate for the airplane and/or installed on the specific FTD involved
8.a.	Power Switch(es).
8.b.	Airplane conditions.
8.b.1.	Gross weight, center of gravity, and fuel loading and allocation.
8.b.2.	Airplane systems status.
8.b.3.	Ground crew functions (e.g., external power, push back).
8.c.	Airports.
8.c.1.	Selection.
8.c.2.	Runway selection.
8.c.3.	Preset positions (e.g., ramp, over FAF).
8.d.	Environmental controls.
8.d.1.	Temperature.
8.d.2.	Climate conditions (e.g., ice, rain).
8.d.3.	Wind speed and direction.
8.e.	Airplane system malfunctions.
8.e.1.	Insertion/deletion.
8.e.2.	Problem clear.
8.f.	Locks, Freezes, and Repositioning.
8.f.1.	Problem (all) freeze/release.
8.f.2.	Position (geographic) freeze/release.
8.f.3.	Repositioning (locations, freezes, and releases).
8.f.4.	Ground speed control.
8.f.5.	Remote IOS, if installed.
9. Sound Controls. On/off/adjustment
10. Control Loading System (as applicable) On/off/emergency stop.
11. Observer Stations.
11.a.	Position.
11.b.	Adjustments.
End QPS Requirements

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Table B3B—Table of Functions and Subjective Tests Level 5 FTD

QPS requirements
Entry No.	Operations tasks Tasks in this table are subject to evaluation if appropriate for the airplane system or systems simulated as indicated in the SOQ Configuration List as defined in Appendix B, Attachment 2 of this part.
1. Preflight
	Accomplish a functions check of all installed switches, indicators, systems, and equipment at all crewmembers' and instructors' stations, and determine that the flight deck (or flight deck area) design and functions replicate the appropriate airplane.
2. Surface Operations (pre-takeoff)
2.a.	Engine start (if installed):
2.a.1.	Normal start.
2.a.2.	Alternative procedures start.
2.a.3.	Abnormal/Emergency procedures start/shut down.
3. In-Flight Operations
3.a.	Normal climb.
3.b.	Cruise:
3.b.1.	Performance characteristics (speed vs. power).
3.b.2.	Normal turns.
3.c.	Normal descent.
4. Approaches
4.a.	Coupled instrument approach maneuvers (as applicable for the systems installed).
5. Any Flight Phase
5.a.	Normal system operation (Installed systems).
5.b.	Abnormal/Emergency system operation (Installed systems).
5.c.	Flap operation.
5.d.	Landing gear operation
5.e.	Engine Shutdown and Parking (if installed).
5.e.1.	Systems operation.
5.e.2.	Parking brake operation.
6. Instructor Operating Station (IOS)
6.a.	Power Switch(es).
6.b.	Preset positions—ground, air.
6.c.	Airplane system malfunctions (Installed systems).
6.c.1.	Insertion/deletion.
6.c.2.	Problem clear.

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[Please see PDF for image: ER30MR16.117] Attachment 4 to Appendix B to Part 60—Sample Documents Begin Information Table of Contents Title of Sample Figure B4A Sample Letter, Request for Initial, Upgrade, or Reinstatement Evaluation Figure B4B Attachment: FTD Information Form Figure B4C Sample Letter of Compliance Figure B4D Sample Qualification Test Guide Cover Page Figure B4E Sample Statement of Qualification—Certificate Figure B4F Sample Statement of Qualification—Configuration List Figure B4G Sample Statement of Qualification—List of Qualified Tasks Figure B4H [Reserved] Figure B4I Sample MQTG Index of Effective FTD Directives Attachment 4 to Appendix B to Part 60—Figure B4A—Sample Letter, Request for Initial, Upgrade, or Reinstatement Evaluation Information

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[Please see PDF for image: ER09MY08.023] Attachment 4 to Appendix B to Part 60—Figure B4C—Sample Letter of Compliance Information

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[Please see PDF for image: ER09DE22.105] Attachment 4 to Appendix B to Part 60—Figure B4D—Sample Qualification Test Guide Cover Page Information

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[Please see PDF for image: ER09DE22.106] Attachment 4 to Appendix B to Part 60— Figure B4E—Sample Statement of Qualification—Certificate Information

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[Please see PDF for image: ER09MY08.031] Attachment 4 to Appendix B to Part 60—Figure B4H [Reserved]  

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[Please see PDF for image: ER09MY08.033] [Docket FAA-2002-12461, 73 FR 26490, May 9, 2008, as amended by Docket FAA-2014-0391, Amdt. 60-4, 81 FR 18306, 18307, 18327, and 18376, Mar. 30, 2016; 81 FR 32087, 32110, 32111, and 32165, May 20, 2016; Amdt. 60-6, 83 FR 30275, June 27, 2018; Docket FAA-2022-1355, Amdt. 60-7, 87 FR 75771, Dec. 9, 2022]     Pt. 60, App. C Appendix C to Part 60—Qualification Performance Standards for Helicopter Full Flight Simulators Begin Information This appendix establishes the standards for Helicopter FFS evaluation and qualification. The Flight Standards Service is responsible for the development, application, and implementation of the standards contained within this appendix. The procedures and criteria specified in this appendix will be used by the responsible Flight Standards office when conducting helicopter FFS evaluations. Table of Contents 1. Introduction. 2. Applicability (§ 60.1) and (§ 60.2). 3. Definitions (§ 60.3). 4. Qualification Performance Standards (§ 60.4). 5. Quality Management System (§ 60.5). 6. Sponsor Qualification Requirements (§ 60.7). 7. Additional Responsibilities of the Sponsor (§ 60.9). 8. FFS Use (§ 60.11). 9. FFS Objective Data Requirements (§ 60.13). 10. Special Equipment and Personnel Requirements for Qualification of the FFS (§ 60.14). 11. Initial (and Upgrade) Qualification Requirements (§ 60.15). 12. Additional Qualifications for a Currently Qualified FFS (§ 60.16). 13. Previously Qualified FFSs (§ 60.17). 14. Inspection, Continuing Qualification Evaluation, and Maintenance Requirements (§ 60.19). 15. Logging FFS Discrepancies (§ 60.20). 16. Interim Qualification of FFSs for New Helicopter Types or Models (§ 60.21). 17. Modifications to FFSs (§ 60.23). 18. Operations with Missing, Malfunctioning, or Inoperative Components (§ 60.25). 19. Automatic Loss of Qualification and Procedures for Restoration of Qualification (§ 60.27). 20. Other Losses of Qualification and Procedures for Restoration of Qualification (§ 60.29). 21. Record Keeping and Reporting (§ 60.31).

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22. Applications, Logbooks, Reports, and Records: Fraud, Falsification, or Incorrect Statements (§ 60.33). 23. [Reserved] 24. [Reserved] 25. FFS Qualification on the Basis of a Bilateral Aviation Safety Agreement (BASA) (§ 60.37). Attachment 1 to Appendix C to Part 60—General Simulator Requirements. Attachment 2 to Appendix C to Part 60—FFS Objective Tests. Attachment 3 to Appendix C to Part 60—Simulator Subjective Evaluation. Attachment 4 to Appendix C to Part 60—Sample Documents. Attachment 5 to Appendix C to Part 60—FSTD Directives Applicable to Helicopter FFSs End Information 1. Introduction Begin Information a. This appendix contains background information as well as regulatory and informative material as described later in this section. To assist the reader in determining what areas are required and what areas are permissive, the text in this appendix is divided into two sections: “QPS Requirements” and “Information.” The QPS Requirements sections contain details regarding compliance with the part 60 rule language. These details are regulatory, but are found only in this appendix. The Information sections contain material that is advisory in nature, and designed to give the user general information about the regulation. b. [Reserved] c. The responsible Flight Standards office encourages the use of electronic media for all communication, including any record, report, request, test, or statement required by this appendix. The electronic media used must have adequate security provisions and be acceptable to the responsible Flight Standards office. d. Related Reading References. (1) 14 CFR part 60. (2) 14 CFR part 61. (3) 14 CFR part 63. (4) 14 CFR part 119. (5) 14 CFR part 121. (6) 14 CFR part 125. (7) 14 CFR part 135. (8) 14 CFR part 141. (9) 14 CFR part 142. (10) AC 120-35, as amended, Flightcrew Member Line Operational Simulations: Line-Oriented Flight Training, Special Purpose Operational Training, Line Operational Evaluation. (11) AC 120-57, as amended, Surface Movement Guidance and Control System (SMGCS). (12) AC 120-63, as amended, Helicopter Simulator Qualification. (13) AC 150/5300-13, as amended, Airport Design. (14) AC 150/5340-1, as amended, Standards for Airport Markings. (15) AC 150/5340-4, as amended, Installation Details for Runway Centerline Touchdown Zone Lighting Systems. (16) AC 150/5340-19, as amended, Taxiway Centerline Lighting System. (17) AC 150/5340-24, as amended, Runway and Taxiway Edge Lighting System. (18) AC 150/5345-28, as amended, Precision Approach Path Indicator (PAPI) Systems (19) AC 150/5390-2, as amended, Heliport Design (20) International Air Transport Association document, “Flight Simulator Design and Performance Data Requirements,” as amended. (21) AC 29-2, as amended, Flight Test Guide for Certification of Transport Category Rotorcraft. (22) AC 27-1, as amended, Flight Test Guide for Certification of Normal Category Rotorcraft. (23) International Civil Aviation Organization (ICAO) Manual of Criteria for the Qualification of Flight Simulators, as amended. (24) Airplane Flight Simulator Evaluation Handbook, Volume I, as amended and Volume II, as amended, The Royal Aeronautical Society, London, UK. (25) FAA Airman Certification Standards and Practical Test Standards for Airline Transport Pilot, Type Ratings, Commercial Pilot, and Instrument Ratings. (26) The FAA Aeronautical Information Manual (AIM). An electronic version of the AIM is on the Internet at http://www.faa.gov/atpubs. (27) Aeronautical Radio, Inc. (ARINC) document number 436, titled Guidelines For Electronic Qualification Test Guide (as amended). (28) Aeronautical Radio, Inc. (ARINC) document 610, Guidance for Design and Integration of Aircraft Avionics Equipment in Simulators (as amended). End Information 2. Applicability (§§ 60.1 and 60.2) Begin Information No additional regulatory or informational material applies to § 60.1, Applicability, or to § 60.2, Applicability of sponsor rules to person who are not sponsors and who are engaged in certain unauthorized activities.

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End Information 3. Definitions (§ 60.3) Begin Information See Appendix F of this part for a list of definitions and abbreviations from part 1 and part 60, including the appropriate appendices of part 60. End Information 4. Qualification Performance Standards (§ 60.4) Begin Information No additional regulatory or informational material applies to § 60.4, Qualification Performance Standards. End Information 5. Quality Management System (§ 60.5) Begin Information See Appendix E of this part for additional regulatory and informational material regarding Quality Management Systems. End Information 6. Sponsor Qualification Requirements (§ 60.7) Begin Information a. The intent of the language in § 60.7(b) is to have a specific FFS, identified by the sponsor, used at least once in an FAA-approved flight training program for the helicopter simulated during the 12-month period described. The identification of the specific FFS may change from one 12-month period to the next 12-month period as long as that sponsor sponsors and uses at least one FFS at least once during the prescribed period. There is no minimum number of hours or minimum FFS periods required. b. The following examples describe acceptable operational practices: (1) Example One. (a) A sponsor is sponsoring a single, specific FFS for its own use, in its own facility or elsewhere—this single FFS forms the basis for the sponsorship. The sponsor uses that FFS at least once in each 12-month period in that sponsor's FAA-approved flight training program for the helicopter simulated. This 12-month period is established according to the following schedule: (i) If the FFS was qualified prior to May 30, 2008, the 12-month period begins on the date of the first continuing qualification evaluation conducted in accordance with § 60.19 after May 30, 2008, and continues for each subsequent 12-month period; (ii) A device qualified on or after May 30, 2008, will be required to undergo an initial or upgrade evaluation in accordance with § 60.15. Once the initial or upgrade evaluation is complete, the first continuing qualification evaluation will be conducted within 6 months. The 12 month continuing qualification evaluation cycle begins on that date and continues for each subsequent 12-month period. (b) There is no minimum number of hours of FFS use required. (c) The identification of the specific FFS may change from one 12-month period to the next 12-month period as long as that sponsor sponsors and uses at least one FFS at least once during the prescribed period. (2) Example Two. (a) A sponsor sponsors an additional number of FFSs, in its facility or elsewhere. Each additionally sponsored FFS must be— (i) Used by the sponsor in the sponsor's FAA-approved flight training program for the helicopter simulated (as described in § 60.7(d)(1)); or (ii) Used by another FAA certificate holder in that other certificate holder's FAA-approved flight training program for the helicopter simulated (as described in § 60.7(d)(1)). This 12-month period is established in the same manner as in example one; or (iii) Provided a statement each year from a qualified pilot, (after having flown the helicopter, not the subject FFS or another FFS, during the preceding 12-month period) stating that the subject FFS's performance and handling qualities represent the helicopter (as described in § 60.7(d)(2)). This statement is provided at least once in each 12-month period established in the same manner as in example one. (b) There is no minimum number of hours of FFS use required. (3) Example Three. (a) A sponsor in New York (in this example, a Part 142 certificate holder) establishes “satellite” training centers in Chicago and Moscow. (b) The satellite function means that the Chicago and Moscow centers must operate under the New York center's certificate (in accordance with all of the New York center's practices, procedures, and policies; e.g. , instructor and/or technician training/checking requirements, record keeping, QMS program).

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(c) All of the FFSs in the Chicago and Moscow centers could be dry-leased ( i.e. , the certificate holder does not have and use FAA-approved flight training programs for the FFSs in the Chicago and Moscow centers) because— (i) Each FFS in the Chicago center and each FFS in the Moscow center is used at least once each 12-month period by another FAA certificate holder in that other certificate holder's FAA-approved flight training program for the helicopter (as described in § 60.7(d)(1)); OR (ii) A statement is obtained from a qualified pilot (having flown the helicopter, not the subject FFS or another FFS during the preceding 12-month period) stating that the performance and handling qualities of each FFS in the Chicago and Moscow centers represents the helicopter (as described in § 60.7(d)(2)). End Information 7. Additional Responsibilities of the Sponsor (§ 60.9). Begin Information The phrase “as soon as practicable” in § 60.9(a) means without unnecessarily disrupting or delaying beyond a reasonable time the training, evaluation, or experience being conducted in the FFS. End Information 8. FFS Use (§ 60.11) Begin Information No additional regulatory or informational material applies to § 60.11, FFS Use. End Information 9. FFS Objective Data Requirements (§ 60.13) Begin QPS Requirements a. Flight test data used to validate FFS performance and handling qualities must have been gathered in accordance with a flight test program containing the following: (1) A flight test plan consisting of: (a) The maneuvers and procedures required for aircraft certification and simulation programming and validation (b) For each maneuver or procedure— (i) The procedures and control input the flight test pilot and/or engineer used. (ii) The atmospheric and environmental conditions. (iii) The initial flight conditions. (iv) The helicopter configuration, including weight and center of gravity. (v) The data to be gathered. (vi) All other information necessary to recreate the flight test conditions in the FFS. (2) Appropriately qualified flight test personnel. (3) An understanding of the accuracy of the data to be gathered using appropriate alternative data sources, procedures, and instrumentation that is traceable to a recognized standard as described in Attachment 2, Table C2D of this appendix. (4) Appropriate and sufficient data acquisition equipment or system(s), including appropriate data reduction and analysis methods and techniques, acceptable to the FAA's Aircraft Certification Service. b. The data, regardless of source, must be presented: (1) In a format that supports the FFS validation process; (2) In a manner that is clearly readable and annotated correctly and completely; (3) With resolution sufficient to determine compliance with the tolerances set forth in Attachment 2, Table C2A of this appendix. (4) With any necessary instructions or other details provided, such as Stability Augmentation System (SAS) or throttle position; and (5) Without alteration, adjustments, or bias. Data may be corrected to address known data calibration errors provided that an explanation of the methods used to correct the errors appears in the QTG. The corrected data may be re-scaled, digitized, or otherwise manipulated to fit the desired presentation. c. After completion of any additional flight test, a flight test report must be submitted in support of the validation data. The report must contain sufficient data and rationale to support qualification of the FFS at the level requested. d. As required by § 60.13(f), the sponsor must notify the responsible Flight Standards office when it becomes aware that an addition to, an amendment to, or a revision of data that may relate to FFS performance or handling characteristics is available. The data referred to in this paragraph is data used to validate the performance, handling qualities, or other characteristics of the aircraft, including data related to any relevant changes occurring after the type certificate was issued. The sponsor must— (1) Within 10 calendar days, notify the responsible Flight Standards office of the existence of this data; and (2) Within 45 calendar days, notify the responsible Flight Standards office of— (a) The schedule to incorporate this data into the FFS; or

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(b) The reason for not incorporating this data into the FFS. e. In those cases where the objective test results authorize a “snapshot test” or a “series of snapshot test results” in lieu of a time-history result, the sponsor or other data provider must ensure that a steady state condition exists at the instant of time captured by the “snapshot.” The steady state condition must exist from 4 seconds prior to, through 1 second following, the instant of time captured by the snap shot. End QPS Requirements Begin Information f. The FFS sponsor is encouraged to maintain a liaison with the manufacturer of the aircraft being simulated (or with the holder of the aircraft type certificate for the aircraft being simulated if the manufacturer is no longer in business), and, if appropriate, with the person who supplied the aircraft data package for the FFS in order to facilitate the notification required by § 60.13(f). g. It is the intent of the responsible Flight Standards office that for new aircraft entering service, at a point well in advance of preparation of the QTG, the sponsor should submit to the responsible Flight Standards office for approval, a descriptive document (see Table C2D, Sample Validation Data Roadmap for Helicopters) containing the plan for acquiring the validation data, including data sources. This document should clearly identify sources of data for all required tests, a description of the validity of these data for a specific engine type and thrust rating configuration, and the revision levels of all avionics affecting the performance or flying qualities of the aircraft. Additionally, this document should provide other information, such as the rationale or explanation for cases where data or data parameters are missing, instances where engineering simulation data are used or where flight test methods require further explanations. It should also provide a brief narrative describing the cause and effect of any deviation from data requirements. The aircraft manufacturer may provide this document. h. There is no requirement for any flight test data supplier to submit a flight test plan or program prior to gathering flight test data. However, the responsible Flight Standards office notes that inexperienced data gatherers often provide data that is irrelevant, improperly marked, or lacking adequate justification for selection. Other problems include inadequate information regarding initial conditions or test maneuvers. The responsible Flight Standards office has been forced to refuse these data submissions as validation data for an FFS evaluation. It is for this reason that the responsible Flight Standards office recommends that any data supplier not previously experienced in this area review the data necessary for programming and for validating the performance of the FFS, and discuss the flight test plan anticipated for acquiring such data with the responsible Flight Standards office well in advance of commencing the flight tests. i. The responsible Flight Standards office will consider, on a case-by-case basis, whether to approve supplemental validation data derived from flight data recording systems such as a Quick Access Recorder or Flight Data Recorder. End Information 10. Special Equipment and Personnel Requirements for Qualification of the FFS (§ 60.14) Begin Information a. In the event that the responsible Flight Standards office determines that special equipment or specifically qualified persons will be required to conduct an evaluation, the responsible Flight Standards office will make every attempt to notify the sponsor at least one (1) week, but in no case less than 72 hours, in advance of the evaluation. Examples of special equipment include spot photometers, flight control measurement devices, and sound analyzers. Examples of specially qualified personnel include individuals specifically qualified to install or use any special equipment when its use is required. b. Examples of a special evaluation include an evaluation conducted after an FFS is moved, at the request of the TPAA, or as a result of comments received from users of the FFS that raise questions about the continued qualification or use of the FFS. End Information 11. Initial (and Upgrade) Qualification Requirements (§ 60.15) Begin QPS Requirements a. In order to be qualified at a particular qualification level, the FFS must: (1) Meet the general requirements listed in Attachment 1 of this appendix; (2) Meet the objective testing requirements listed in Attachment 2 of this appendix; and (3) Satisfactorily accomplish the subjective tests listed in Attachment 3 of this appendix. b. The request described in § 60.15(a) must include all of the following: (1) A statement that the FFS meets all of the applicable provisions of this part and all applicable provisions of the QPS.

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(2) A confirmation that the sponsor will forward to the responsible Flight Standards office the statement described in § 60.15(b) in such time as to be received no later than 5 business days prior to the scheduled evaluation and may be forwarded to the responsible Flight Standards office via traditional or electronic means. (3) A QTG, acceptable to the responsible Flight Standards office, that includes all of the following: (a) Objective data obtained from aircraft testing or another approved source. (b) Correlating objective test results obtained from the performance of the FFS as prescribed in the appropriate QPS. (c) The result of FFS subjective tests prescribed in the appropriate QPS. (d) A description of the equipment necessary to perform the evaluation for initial qualification and the continuing qualification evaluations. c. The QTG described in paragraph (a)(3) of this section, must provide the documented proof of compliance with the simulator objective tests in Attachment 2, Table C2A of this appendix. d. The QTG is prepared and submitted by the sponsor, or the sponsor's agent on behalf of the sponsor, to the responsible Flight Standards office for review and approval, and must include, for each objective test: (1) Parameters, tolerances, and flight conditions. (2) Pertinent and complete instructions for the conduct of automatic and manual tests. (3) A means of comparing the FFS test results to the objective data. (4) Any other information as necessary, to assist in the evaluation of the test results. (5) Other information appropriate to the qualification level of the FFS. e. The QTG described in paragraphs (a)(3) and (b) of this section, must include the following: (1) A QTG cover page with sponsor and FAA approval signature blocks (see Attachment 4, Figure C4C, of this appendix, for a sample QTG cover page). (2) A continuing qualification evaluation schedule requirements page. This page will be used by the responsible Flight Standards office to establish and record the frequency with which continuing qualification evaluations must be conducted and any subsequent changes that may be determined by the responsible Flight Standards office in accordance with § 60.19. See Attachment 4 of this appendix, Figure C4G, for a sample Continuing Qualification Evaluation Requirements page. (3) An FFS information page that provides the information listed in this paragraph (see Attachment 4, Figure C4B, of this appendix for a sample FFS information page). For convertible FFSs, the sponsor must submit a separate page for each configuration of the FFS. (a) The sponsor's FFS identification number or code. (b) The helicopter model and series being simulated. (c) The aerodynamic data revision number or reference. (d) The source of the basic aerodynamic model and the aerodynamic coefficient data used to modify the basic model. (e) The engine model(s) and its data revision number or reference. (f) The flight control data revision number or reference. (g) The flight management system identification and revision level. (h) The FFS model and manufacturer. (i) The date of FFS manufacture. (j) The FFS computer identification. (k) The visual system model and manufacturer, including display type. (l) The motion system type and manufacturer, including degrees of freedom. (4) A Table of Contents. (5) A log of revisions and a list of effective pages. (6) List of all relevant data references. (7) A glossary of terms and symbols used (including sign conventions and units). (8) Statements of compliance and capability (SOCs) with certain requirements. (9) Recording procedures or equipment required to accomplish the objective tests. (10) The following information for each objective test designated in Attachment 2 of this appendix, Table C2A, as applicable to the qualification level sought: (a) Name of the test. (b) Objective of the test. (c) Initial conditions. (d) Manual test procedures. (e) Automatic test procedures (if applicable). (f) Method for evaluating FFS objective test results. (g) List of all relevant parameters driven or constrained during the automatically conducted test(s). (h) List of all relevant parameters driven or constrained during the manually conducted test(s). (i) Tolerances for relevant parameters. (j) Source of Validation Data (document and page number). (k) Copy of the Validation Data (if located in a separate binder, a cross reference for the identification and page number for pertinent data location must be provided). (l) Simulator Objective Test Results as obtained by the sponsor. Each test result must reflect the date completed and must be clearly labeled as a product of the device being tested. f. A convertible FFS is addressed as a separate FFS for each model and series helicopter to which it will be converted and for the FAA qualification level sought. If a sponsor seeks qualification for two or more models of a helicopter type using a convertible FFS, the sponsor must submit a QTG for each helicopter model, or a QTG for the first helicopter model and a supplement to that QTG for each additional helicopter model. The responsible Flight Standards office will conduct evaluations for each helicopter model.

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g. Form and manner of presentation of objective test results in the QTG: (1) The sponsor's FFS test results must be recorded in a manner acceptable to the responsible Flight Standards office, that allows easy comparison of the FFS test results to the validation data (e.g., use of a multi-channel recorder, line printer, cross plotting, overlays, transparencies). (2) FFS results must be labeled using terminology common to helicopter parameters as opposed to computer software identifications. (3) Validation data documents included in a QTG may be photographically reduced only if such reduction will not alter the graphic scaling or cause difficulties in scale interpretation or resolution. (4) Scaling on graphical presentations must provide the resolution necessary to evaluate the parameters shown in Attachment 2, Table C2A of this appendix. (5) Tests involving time histories, data sheets (or transparencies thereof) and FFS test results must be clearly marked with appropriate reference points to ensure an accurate comparison between the FFS and the helicopter with respect to time. Time histories recorded via a line printer are to be clearly identified for cross plotting on the helicopter data. Over-plots must not obscure the reference data. h. The sponsor may elect to complete the QTG objective and subjective tests at the manufacturer's facility or at the sponsor's training facility. If the tests are conducted at the manufacturer's facility, the sponsor must repeat at least one-third of the tests at the sponsor's training facility in order to substantiate FFS performance. The QTG must be clearly annotated to indicate when and where each test was accomplished. Tests conducted at the manufacturer's facility and at the sponsor's training facility must be conducted after the FFS is assembled with systems and sub-systems functional and operating in an interactive manner. The test results must be submitted to the responsible Flight Standards office. i. The sponsor must maintain a copy of the MQTG at the FFS location. j. All FFSs for which the initial qualification is conducted after May 30, 2014, must have an electronic MQTG (eMQTG) including all objective data obtained from helicopter testing, or another approved source (reformatted or digitized), together with correlating objective test results obtained from the performance of the FFS (reformatted or digitized) as prescribed in this appendix. The eMQTG must also contain the general FFS performance or demonstration results (reformatted or digitized) prescribed in this appendix, and a description of the equipment necessary to perform the initial qualification evaluation and the continuing qualification evaluations. The eMQTG must include the original validation data used to validate FFS performance and handling qualities in either the original digitized format from the data supplier or an electronic scan of the original time-history plots that were provided by the data supplier. A copy of the eMQTG must be provided to the responsible Flight Standards office. k. All other FFSs not covered in subparagraph “j” must have an electronic copy of the MQTG by May 30, 2014. An electronic copy of the MQTG must be provided to the responsible Flight Standards office. This may be provided by an electronic scan presented in a Portable Document File (PDF), or similar format acceptable to the responsible Flight Standards office. l. During the initial (or upgrade) qualification evaluation conducted by the responsible Flight Standards office, the sponsor must also provide a person who is a user of the device (e.g., a qualified pilot or instructor pilot with flight time experience in that aircraft) and knowledgeable about the operation of the aircraft and the operation of the FFS. End QPS Requirements Begin Information m. Only those FFSs that are sponsored by a certificate holder as defined in Appendix F of this part will be evaluated by the responsible Flight Standards office. However, other FFS evaluations may be conducted on a case-by-case basis as the Administrator deems appropriate, but only in accordance with applicable agreements. n. The responsible Flight Standards office will conduct an evaluation for each configuration, and each FFS must be evaluated as completely as possible. To ensure a thorough and uniform evaluation, each FFS is subjected to the general simulator requirements in Attachment 1 of this appendix, the objective tests listed in Attachment 2 of this appendix, and the subjective tests listed in Attachment 3 of this appendix. The evaluations described herein will include, but not necessarily be limited to the following: (1) Helicopter responses, including longitudinal and lateral-directional control responses (see Attachment 2 of this appendix).

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(2) Performance in authorized portions of the simulated helicopter's operating envelope, to include tasks evaluated by the responsible Flight Standards office in the areas of surface operations, takeoff, climb, cruise, descent, approach, and landing as well as abnormal and emergency operations (see Attachment 2 of this appendix). (3) Control checks (see Attachment 1 and Attachment 2 of this appendix). (4) Flight deck configuration (see Attachment 1 of this appendix). (5) Pilot, flight engineer, and instructor station functions checks (see Attachment 1 and Attachment 3 of this appendix). (6) Helicopter systems and sub-systems (as appropriate) as compared to the helicopter simulated (see Attachment 1 and Attachment 3 of this appendix). (7) FFS systems and sub-systems, including force cueing (motion), visual, and aural (sound) systems, as appropriate (see Attachment 1 and Attachment 2 of this appendix). (8) Certain additional requirements, depending upon the qualification level sought, including equipment or circumstances that may become hazardous to the occupants. The sponsor may be subject to Occupational Safety and Health Administration requirements. o. The responsible Flight Standards office administers the objective and subjective tests, which includes an examination of functions. The tests include a qualitative assessment of the FFS by a pilot from the responsible Flight Standards office. The evaluation team leader may assign other qualified personnel to assist in accomplishing the functions examination and/or the objective and subjective tests performed during an evaluation when required. (1) Objective tests provide a basis for measuring and evaluating FFS performance and determining compliance with the requirements of this part. (2) Subjective tests provide a basis for: (a) Evaluating the capability of the FFS to perform over a typical utilization period; (b) Determining that the FFS satisfactorily simulates each required task; (c) Verifying correct operation of the FFS controls, instruments, and systems; and (d) Demonstrating compliance with the requirements of this part. p. The tolerances for the test parameters listed in Attachment 2 of this appendix reflect the range of tolerances acceptable to the responsible Flight Standards office for FFS validation and are not to be confused with design tolerances specified for FFS manufacture. In making decisions regarding tests and test results, the responsible Flight Standards office relies on the use of operational and engineering judgment in the application of data (including consideration of the way in which the flight test was flown and way the data was gathered and applied), data presentations, and the applicable tolerances for each test. q. In addition to the scheduled continuing qualification evaluation, each FFS is subject to evaluations conducted by the responsible Flight Standards office at any time without prior notification to the sponsor. Such evaluations would be accomplished in a normal manner (i.e., requiring exclusive use of the FFS for the conduct of objective and subjective tests and an examination of functions) if the FFS is not being used for flight crewmember training, testing, or checking. However, if the FFS were being used, the evaluation would be conducted in a non-exclusive manner. This non-exclusive evaluation will be conducted by the FFS evaluator accompanying the check airman, instructor, Aircrew Program Designee (APD), or FAA inspector aboard the FFS along with the student(s) and observing the operation of the FFS during the training, testing, or checking activities. r. Problems with objective test results are handled as follows: (1) If a problem with an objective test result is detected by the evaluation team during an evaluation, the test may be repeated or the QTG may be amended. (2) If it is determined that the results of an objective test do not support the level requested but do support a lower level, the responsible Flight Standards office may qualify the FFS at that lower level. For example, if a Level D evaluation is requested and the FFS fails to meet sound test tolerances, it could be qualified at Level C. s. After an FFS is successfully evaluated, the responsible Flight Standards office issues a certificate of qualification (COQ) to the sponsor. The responsible Flight Standards office recommends the FFS to the TPAA, who will approve the FFS for use in a flight training program. The COQ will be issued at the satisfactory conclusion of the initial or continuing qualification evaluation and will list the tasks for which the FFS is qualified, referencing the tasks described in Table C1B in Attachment 1 of this appendix. However, it is the sponsor's responsibility to obtain TPAA approval prior to using the FFS in an FAA-approved flight training program. t. Under normal circumstances, the responsible Flight Standards office establishes a date for the initial or upgrade evaluation within ten (10) working days after determining that a complete QTG is acceptable. Unusual circumstances may warrant establishing an evaluation date before this determination is made. A sponsor may schedule an evaluation date as early as 6 months in advance. However, there may be a delay of 45 days or more in rescheduling and completing the evaluation if the sponsor is unable to meet the scheduled date. See Attachment 4, of this appendix, Figure C4A, Sample Request for Initial, Upgrade, or Reinstatement Evaluation.

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u. The numbering system used for objective test results in the QTG should closely follow the numbering system set out in Attachment 2, FFS Objective Tests, Table C2A of this appendix. v. Contact the responsible Flight Standards office for additional information regarding the preferred qualifications of pilots used to meet the requirements of § 60.15(d). w. Examples of the exclusions for which the FFS might not have been subjectively tested by the sponsor or the responsible Flight Standards office and for which qualification might not be sought or granted, as described in § 60.15(g)(6), include takeoffs and landing from slopes and pinnacles. End Information 12. Additional Qualifications for a Currently Qualified FFS (§ 60.16) No additional regulatory or informational material applies to § 60.16, Additional Qualifications for a Currently Qualified FFS. 13. Previously Qualified FFSs (§ 60.17) Begin QPS Requirements a. In instances where a sponsor plans to remove an FFS from active status for a period of less than two years, the following procedures apply: (1) The responsible Flight Standards office must be notified in writing and the notification must include an estimate of the period that the FFS will be inactive. (2) Continuing Qualification evaluations will not be scheduled during the inactive period. (3) The responsible Flight Standards office will remove the FFS from the list of qualified FSTDs on a mutually established date not later than the date on which the first missed continuing qualification evaluation would have been scheduled. (4) Before the FFS is restored to qualified status, it must be evaluated by the responsible Flight Standards office. The evaluation content and the time required to accomplish the evaluation is based on the number of continuing qualification evaluations and sponsor-conducted quarterly inspections missed during the period of inactivity. (5) The sponsor must notify the responsible Flight Standards office of any changes to the original scheduled time out of service. b. Simulators qualified prior to May 30, 2008, are not required to meet the general simulation requirements, the objective test requirements, and the subjective test requirements of attachments 1, 2, and 3, of this appendix as long as the simulator continues to meet the test requirements contained in the MQTG developed under the original qualification basis. c. After May 30, 2009, each visual scene or airport model beyond the minimum required for the FFS qualification level that is installed in and available for use in a qualified FFS must meet the requirements described in Attachment 3 of this appendix. d. Simulators qualified prior to May 30, 2008, may be updated. If an evaluation is deemed appropriate or necessary by the responsible Flight Standards office after such an update, the evaluation will not require an evaluation to standards beyond those against which the simulator was originally qualified. End QPS Requirements Begin Information e. Other certificate holders or persons desiring to use an FFS may contract with FFS sponsors to use FFSs previously qualified at a particular level for a helicopter type and approved for use within an FAA-approved flight training program. Such FFSs are not required to undergo an additional qualification process, except as described in § 60.16. f. Each FFS user must obtain approval from the appropriate TPAA to use any FFS in an FAA-approved flight training program. g. The intent of the requirement listed in § 60.17(b), for each FFS to have an SOQ within 6 years, is to have the availability of that statement (including the configuration list and the limitations to authorizations) to provide a complete picture of the FFS inventory regulated by the FAA. The issuance of the statement will not require any additional evaluation or require any adjustment to the evaluation basis for the FFS. h. Downgrading of an FFS is a permanent change in qualification level and will necessitate the issuance of a revised SOQ to reflect the revised qualification level, as appropriate. If a temporary restriction is placed on an FFS because of a missing, malfunctioning, or inoperative component or on-going repairs, the restriction is not a permanent change in qualification level. Instead, the restriction is temporary and is removed when the reason for the restriction has been resolved. i. The responsible Flight Standards office will determine the evaluation criteria for an FFS that has been removed from active status. The criteria will be based on the number of continuing qualification evaluations and quarterly inspections missed during the period of inactivity. For example, if the FFS were out of service for a 1 year period, it would be necessary to complete the entire QTG, since all of the quarterly evaluations would have been missed. The responsible Flight Standards office will also consider how the FFS was stored, whether parts were removed from the FFS and whether the FFS was disassembled.

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j. The FFS will normally be requalified using the FAA-approved MQTG and the criteria that was in effect prior to its removal from qualification. However, inactive periods of 2 years or more will require requalification under the standards in effect and current at the time of requalification. End Information 14. Inspection, Continuing Qualification Evaluation, and Maintenance Requirements (§ 60.19) Begin QPS Requirements a. The sponsor must conduct a minimum of four evenly spaced inspections throughout the year. The objective test sequence and content of each inspection must be developed by the sponsor and must be acceptable to the responsible Flight Standards office. b. The description of the functional preflight check must be contained in the sponsor's QMS. c. Record “functional preflight” in the FFS discrepancy log book or other acceptable location, including any item found to be missing, malfunctioning, or inoperative. d. During the continuing qualification evaluation conducted by the responsible Flight Standards office, the sponsor must also provide a person knowledgeable about the operation of the aircraft and the operation of the FFS. e. The responsible Flight Standards office will conduct continuing qualification evaluations every 12 months unless: (1) The responsible Flight Standards office becomes aware of discrepancies or performance problems with the device that warrants more frequent evaluations; or (2) The sponsor implements a QMS that justifies less frequent evaluations. However, in no case shall the frequency of a continuing qualification evaluation exceed 36 months. End QPS Requirements Begin Information f. The sponsor's test sequence and the content of each quarterly inspection required in § 60.19(a)(1) should include a balance and a mix from the objective test requirement areas listed as follows: (1) Performance. (2) Handling qualities. (3) Motion system (where appropriate). (4) Visual system (where appropriate). (5) Sound system (where appropriate). (6) Other FFS systems. g. If the evaluator plans to accomplish specific tests during a normal continuing qualification evaluation that requires the use of special equipment or technicians, the sponsor will be notified as far in advance of the evaluation as practical; but not less than 72 hours. Examples of such tests include latencies, control dynamics, sounds and vibrations, motion, and/or some visual system tests. h. The continuing qualification evaluations, described in § 60.19(b), will normally require 4 hours of FFS time. However, flexibility is necessary to address abnormal situations or situations involving aircraft with additional levels of complexity ( e.g. , computer controlled aircraft). The sponsor should anticipate that some tests may require additional time. The continuing qualification evaluations will consist of the following: (1) Review of the results of the quarterly inspections conducted by the sponsor since the last scheduled continuing qualification evaluation. (2) A selection of approximately 8 to 15 objective tests from the MQTG that provide an adequate opportunity to evaluate the performance of the FFS. The tests chosen will be performed either automatically or manually and should be able to be conducted within approximately one-third (1/3) of the allotted FFS time. (3) A subjective evaluation of the FFS to perform a representative sampling of the tasks set out in attachment 3 of this appendix. This portion of the evaluation should take approximately two-thirds (2/3) of the allotted FFS time. (4) An examination of the functions of the FFS may include the motion system, visual system, sound system, instructor operating station, and the normal functions and simulated malfunctions of the simulated helicopter systems. This examination is normally accomplished simultaneously with the subjective evaluation requirements. End Information 15. Logging FFS Discrepancies (§ 60.20) Begin Information No additional regulatory or informational material applies to § 60.20. Logging FFS Discrepancies. End Information

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16. Interim Qualification of FFSs for New Helicopter Types or Models (§ 60.21) Begin Information No additional regulatory or informational material applies to § 60.21, Interim Qualification of FFSs for New Helicopter Types or Models. End Information 17. Modifications to FFSs (§ 60.23) Begin QPS Requirements a. The notification described in § 60.23(c)(2) must include a complete description of the planned modification, with a description of the operational and engineering effect the proposed modification will have on the operation of the FFS and the results that are expected with the modification incorporated. b. Prior to using the modified FFS: (1) All the applicable objective tests completed with the modification incorporated, including any necessary updates to the MQTG ( e.g. , accomplishment of FSTD Directives) must be acceptable to the responsible Flight Standards office; and (2) The sponsor must provide the responsible Flight Standards office with a statement signed by the MR that the factors listed in § 60.15(b) are addressed by the appropriate personnel as described in that section. End QPS Requirements Begin Information (3) FSTD Directives are considered modifications of an FFS. See Attachment 4 of this appendix for a sample index of effective FSTD Directives. See Attachment 6 of this appendix for a list of all effective FSTD Directives applicable to Helicopter FFSs. End Information 18. Operation with Missing, Malfunctioning, or Inoperative Components (§ 60.25) Begin Information a. The sponsor's responsibility with respect to § 60.25(a) is satisfied when the sponsor fairly and accurately advises the user of the current status of an FFS, including any missing, malfunctioning, or inoperative (MMI) component(s). b. It is the responsibility of the instructor, check airman, or representative of the administrator conducting training, testing, or checking to exercise reasonable and prudent judgment to determine if any MMI component is necessary for the satisfactory completion of a specific maneuver, procedure, or task. c. If the 29th or 30th day of the 30-day period described in § 60.25(b) is on a Saturday, a Sunday, or a holiday, the FAA will extend the deadline until the next business day. d. In accordance with the authorization described in § 60.25(b), the sponsor may develop a discrepancy prioritizing system to accomplish repairs based on the level of impact on the capability of the FFS. Repairs having a larger impact on FFS capability to provide the required training, evaluation, or flight experience will have a higher priority for repair or replacement. End Information 19. Automatic Loss of Qualification and Procedures for Restoration of Qualification (§ 60.27) Begin Information If the sponsor provides a plan for how the FFS will be maintained during its out-of-service period (e.g., periodic exercise of mechanical, hydraulic, and electrical systems; routine replacement of hydraulic fluid; control of the environmental factors in which the FFS is to be maintained) there is a greater likelihood that the responsible Flight Standards office will be able to determine the amount of testing required for requalification. End Information 20. Other Losses of Qualification and Procedures for Restoration of Qualification (§ 60.29) Begin Information If the sponsor provides a plan for how the FFS will be maintained during its out-of-service period (e.g., periodic exercise of mechanical, hydraulic, and electrical systems; routine replacement of hydraulic fluid; control of the environmental factors in which the FFS is to be maintained) there is a greater likelihood that the responsible Flight Standards office will be able to determine the amount of testing required for requalification.

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End Information 21. Record Keeping and Reporting (§ 60.31) Begin QPS Requirements a. FFS modifications can include hardware or software changes. For FFS modifications involving software programming changes, the record required by § 60.31(a)(2) must consist of the name of the aircraft system software, aerodynamic model, or engine model change, the date of the change, a summary of the change, and the reason for the change. b. If a coded form for record keeping is used, it must provide for the preservation and retrieval of information with appropriate security or controls to prevent the inappropriate alteration of such records after the fact. End QPS Requirements 22. Applications, Logbooks, Reports, and Records: Fraud, Falsification, or Incorrect Statements (§ 60.33) Begin Information No additional regulatory or informational material applies to § 60.33, Applications, Logbooks, Reports, and Records: Fraud, Falsification, or Incorrect Statements. 23. [Reserved] 24. [Reserved] 25. FFS Qualification on the Basis of a Bilateral Aviation Safety Agreement (BASA) (§ 60.37) No additional regulatory or informational material applies to § 60.37, FFS Qualification on the Basis of a Bilateral Aviation Safety Agreement (BASA). End Information Attachment 1 to Appendix C to Part 60—GENERAL SIMULATOR REQUIREMENTS Begin QPS Requirements 1. Requirements a. Certain requirements included in this appendix must be supported with an SOC as defined in Appendix F of this part, which may include objective and subjective tests. The requirements for SOCs are indicated in the “General Simulator Requirements” column in Table C1A of this appendix. b. Table C1A describes the requirements for the indicated level of FFS. Many devices include operational systems or functions that exceed the requirements outlined in this section. However, all systems will be tested and evaluated in accordance with this appendix to ensure proper operation. End QPS Requirements Begin Information 2. Discussion a. This attachment describes the general simulator requirements for qualifying a helicopter FFS. The sponsor should also consult the objective tests in Attachment 2 of this appendix and the examination of functions and subjective tests listed in Attachment 3 of this appendix to determine the complete requirements for a specific level simulator. b. The material contained in this attachment is divided into the following categories: (1) General flight deck configuration. (2) Simulator programming. (3) Equipment operation. (4) Equipment and facilities for instructor/evaluator functions. (5) Motion system. (6) Visual system. (7) Sound system. c. Table C1A provides the standards for the General Simulator Requirements. d. Table C1B provides the tasks that the sponsor will examine to determine whether the FFS satisfactorily meets the requirements for flight crew training, testing, and experience, and provides the tasks for which the simulator may be qualified. e. Table C1C provides the functions that an instructor/check airman must be able to control in the simulator. f. It is not required that all of the tasks that appear on the List of Qualified Tasks (part of the SOQ) be accomplished during the initial or continuing qualification evaluation. g. Table C1A addresses only Levels B, C, and D helicopter simulators because there are no Level A Helicopter simulators. End Information

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Table C1A—Minimum Simulator Requirements

Entry No.	QPS requirements	Simulator levels			Information
	General simulator requirements	B	C	D	Notes
1.	General Flight Deck Configuration
1.a.	The simulator must have a flight deck that is a replica of the helicopter being simulated The simulator must have controls, equipment, observable flight deck indicators, circuit breakers, and bulkheads properly located, functionally accurate and replicating the helicopter. The direction of movement of controls and switches must be identical to that in the helicopter. Pilot seats must afford the capability for the occupant to be able to achieve the design “eye position” established for the helicopter being simulated. Equipment for the operation of the flight deck windows must be included, but the actual windows need not be operable. Fire axes, extinguishers, and spare light bulbs must be available in the FFS but may be relocated to a suitable location as near as practical to the original position. Fire axes, landing gear pins, and any similar purpose instruments need only be represented in silhouette	X	X	X	For simulator purposes, the flight deck consists of all that space forward of a cross section of the fuselage at the most extreme aft setting of the pilots' seats including additional, required flight crewmember duty stations and those required bulkheads aft of the pilot seats. For clarification, bulkheads containing only items such as landing gear pin storage compartments, fire axes and extinguishers, spare light bulbs, and aircraft documents pouches are not considered essential and may be omitted.
1.b.	Those circuit breakers that affect procedures or result in observable flight deck indications must be properly located and functionally accurate	X	X	X
2.	Programming
2.a.	A flight dynamics model that accounts for various combinations of air speed and power normally encountered in flight must correspond to actual flight conditions, including the effect of change in helicopter attitude, aerodynamic and propulsive forces and moments, altitude, temperature, mass, center of gravity location, and configuration An SOC is required	X	X	X
2.b.	The simulator must have the computer capacity, accuracy, resolution, and dynamic response needed to meet the qualification level sought An SOC is required	X	X	X
2.c.	Ground handling (where appropriate) and aerodynamic programming must include the following:
2.c.1.	Ground effect Level B does not require hover programming An SOC is required	X	X	X	Applicable areas include flare and touch down from a running landing as well as for in-ground-effect (IGE) hover. A reasonable simulation of ground effect includes modeling of lift, drag, pitching moment, trim, and power while in ground effect.
2.c.2.	Ground reaction Level B does not require hover programming An SOC is required	X	X	X	Reaction of the helicopter upon contact with the landing surface during landing (e.g., strut deflection, tire or skid friction, side forces) may differ with changes in gross weight, airspeed, rate of descent on touchdown, and slide slip.
2.d.	The simulator must provide for manual and automatic testing of simulator hardware and software programming to determine compliance with simulator objective tests as prescribed in Attachment 2 of this appendix An SOC is required		X	X	This may include an automated system, which could be used for conducting at least a portion of the QTG tests. Automatic “flagging” of out-of-tolerance situations is encouraged.
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2.e.	The relative responses of the motion system, visual system, and flight deck instruments must be measured by latency tests or transport delay tests. Motion onset must occur before the end of the scan of that video field. Instrument response may not occur prior to motion onset. Test results must be within the following limits:				The intent is to verify that the simulator provides instrument, motion, and visual cues that are like the helicopter responses within the stated time delays. It is preferable motion onset occur before the start of the visual scene change (the start of the scan of the first video field containing different information). For helicopter response, acceleration in the appropriate corresponding rotational axis is preferred.
2.e.1.	Response must be within 150 milliseconds of the helicopter response	X
2.e.2.	Response must be within 100 milliseconds of the helicopter response		X	X
2.f.	The simulator must simulate brake and tire failure dynamics (including antiskid failure, if appropriate) An SOC is required.		X	X	The simulator should represent the motion (in the appropriate axes) and the directional control characteristics of the helicopter when experiencing simulated brake or tire failures.
2.g.	The aerodynamic modeling in the simulator must include: (1) Ground effect, (2) Effects of airframe and rotor icing (if applicable), (3) Aerodynamic interference effects between the rotor wake and fuselage, (4) Influence of the rotor on control and stabilization systems, (5) Representations of settling with power, and (6) Retreating blade stall. An SOC is required.		X	X	See Attachment 2 of this appendix for further information on ground effect.
2.h.	The simulator must provide for realistic mass properties, including gross weight, center of gravity, and moments of inertia as a function of payload and fuel loading An SOC is required.	X	X	X
3.	Equipment Operation
3.a.	All relevant instrument indications involved in the simulation of the helicopter must automatically respond to control movement or external disturbances to the simulated helicopter; e.g., turbulence or windshear. Numerical values must be presented in the appropriate units	X	X	X
3.b.	Communications, navigation, caution, and warning equipment must be installed and operate within the tolerances applicable for the helicopter being simulated	X	X	X	See Attachment 3 of this appendix for further information regarding long-range navigation equipment.
3.c.	Simulated helicopter systems must operate as the helicopter systems operate under normal, abnormal, and emergency operating conditions on the ground and in flight	X	X	X
3.d.	The simulator must provide pilot controls with control forces and control travel that correspond to the simulated helicopter. The simulator must also react in the same manner as the helicopter under the same flight conditions	X	X	X
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3.e.	Simulator control feel dynamics must replicate the helicopter simulated. This must be determined by comparing a recording of the control feel dynamics of the simulator to helicopter measurements. For initial and upgrade evaluations, the control dynamic characteristics must be measured and recorded directly from the flight deck controls, and must be accomplished in takeoff, cruise, and landing conditions and configurations		X	X
4.	Instructor/Evaluator Facilities
4.a.	In addition to the flight crewmember stations, the simulator must have at least two suitable seats for the instructor/check airman and FAA inspector. These seats must provide adequate vision to the pilot's panel and forward windows. All seats other than flight crew seats need not represent those found in the helicopter but must be adequately secured to the floor and equipped with similar positive restraint devices	X	X	X	The responsible Flight Standards office will consider alternatives to this standard for additional seats based on unique flight deck configurations.
4.b.	The simulator must have controls that enable the instructor/evaluator to control all required system variables and insert all abnormal or emergency conditions into the simulated helicopter systems as described in the sponsor's FAA-approved training program, or as described in the relevant operating manual as appropriate	X	X	X
4.c.	The simulator must have instructor controls for all environmental effects expected to be available at the IOS; e.g., clouds, visibility, icing, precipitation, temperature, storm cells, and wind speed and direction	X	X	X
4.d.	The simulator must provide the instructor or evaluator the ability to present ground and air hazards		X	X	For example, another aircraft crossing the active runway and converging airborne traffic.
4.e.	The simulator must provide the instructor or evaluator the ability to present the effect of re-circulating dust, water vapor, or snow conditions that develop as a result of rotor downwash		X	X	This is a selectable condition that is not required for all operations on or near the surface.
5.	Motion System
5.a.	The simulator must have motion (force) cues perceptible to the pilot that are representative of the motion in a helicopter	X	X	X	For example, touchdown cues should be a function of the rate of descent (RoD) of the simulated helicopter.
5.b.	The simulator must have a motion (force cueing) system with a minimum of three degrees of freedom (at least pitch, roll, and heave) An SOC is required.	X
5.c.	The simulator must have a motion (force cueing) system that produces cues at least equivalent to those of a six-degrees-of-freedom, synergistic platform motion system (i.e., pitch, roll, yaw, heave, sway, and surge) An SOC is required.		X	X
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5.d.	The simulator must provide for the recording of the motion system response time An SOC is required.	X	X	X
5.e.	The simulator must provide motion effects programming to include the following:
	(1) Runway rumble, oleo deflections, effects of ground speed, uneven runway, characteristics.	X	X	X
	(2) Buffets due to transverse flow effects.
	(3) Buffet during extension and retraction of landing gear.
	(4) Buffet due to retreating blade stall.
	(5) Buffet due to vortex ring (settling with power).
	(6) Representative cues resulting from touchdown.
	(7) High speed rotor vibrations.
	(8) Tire failure dynamics		X	X
	(9) Engine malfunction and engine damage
	(10) Airframe ground strike
	(11) Motion vibrations that result from atmospheric disturbances			X	For air turbulence, general purpose disturbance models are acceptable if, when used, they produce test results that approximate demonstrable flight test data.
5.f.	The simulator must provide characteristic motion vibrations that result from operation of the helicopter (for example, retreating blade stall, extended landing gear, settling with power) in so far as vibration marks an event or helicopter state, which can be sensed in the flight deck			X	The simulator should be programmed and instrumented in such a manner that the characteristic buffet modes can be measured and compared to helicopter data.
6.	Visual System				Additional horizontal field-of-view capability may be added at the sponsor's discretion provided the minimum field-of-view is retained.
6.a.	The simulator must have a visual system providing an out-of-the-flight deck view	X	X	X
6.b.	The simulator must provide a continuous field-of-view of at least 75° horizontally and 30° vertically per pilot seat. Both pilot seat visual systems must be operable simultaneously. The minimum horizontal field-of-view coverage must be plus and minus one-half ( 1/2 ) of the minimum continuous field-of-view requirement, centered on the zero degree azimuth line relative to the aircraft fuselage. An SOC must explain the geometry of the installation An SOC is required.	X
6.c.	The simulator must provide a continuous visual field-of-view of at least 146° horizontally and 36° vertically per pilot seat. Both pilot seat visual systems must be operable simultaneously. Horizontal field-of-view is centered on the zero degree azimuth line relative to the aircraft fuselage. The minimum horizontal field-of-view coverage must be plus and minus one-half ( 1/2 ) of the minimum continuous field-of-view requirement, centered on the zero degree azimuth line relative to the aircraft fuselage. An SOC must explain the geometry of the installation. Capability for a field-of-view in excess of the minimum is not required for qualification at Level C. However, where specific tasks require extended fields of view beyond the 146º by 36º (e.g., to accommodate the use of “chin windows” where the accommodation is either integral with or separate from the primary visual system display), then the extended fields of view must be provided. When considering the installation and use of augmented fields of view, the sponsor must meet with the NSPM to determine the training, testing, checking, and experience tasks for which the augmented field-of-view capability may be required An SOC is required.		X		Optimization of the vertical field-of-view may be considered with respect to the specific helicopter flight deck cut-off angle. The sponsor may request the responsible Flight Standards office to evaluate the FFS for specific authorization(s) for the following: (1) Specific areas within the database needing higher resolution to support landings, take-offs and ground cushion exercises and training away from a heliport, including elevated heliport, helidecks and confined areas. (2) For cross-country flights, sufficient scene details to allow for ground to map navigation over a sector length equal to 30 minutes at an average cruise speed. (3) For offshore airborne radar approaches (ARA), harmonized visual/radar representations of installations.
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6.d.	The simulator must provide a continuous visual field-of-view of at least 176° horizontally and 56° vertically per pilot seat. Both pilot seat visual systems must be operable simultaneously. Horizontal field-of-view is centered on the zero degree azimuth line relative to the aircraft fuselage. The minimum horizontal field-of-view coverage must be plus and minus one-half ( 1/2 ) of the minimum continuous field-of-view requirement, centered on the zero degree azimuth line relative to the aircraft fuselage. An SOC must explain the geometry of the installation. Capability for a field-of-view in excess of the minimum is not required for qualification at Level D. However, where specific tasks require extended fields of view beyond the 176º by 56º (e.g., to accommodate the use of “chin windows” where the accommodation is either integral with or separate from the primary visual system display), then the extended fields of view must be provided. When considering the installation and use of augmented fields of view, the sponsor must meet with the responsible Flight Standards office to determine the training, testing, checking, and experience tasks for which the augmented field-of-view capability may be required An SOC is required.			X	Optimization of the vertical field-of-view may be considered with respect to the specific helicopter flight deck cut-off angle. The sponsor may request the responsible Flight Standards office to evaluate the FFS for specific authorization(s) for the following: (1) Specific areas within the database needing higher resolution to support landings, take-offs and ground cushion exercises and training away from a heliport, including elevated heliport, helidecks and confined areas. (2) For cross-country flights, sufficient scene details to allow for ground to map navigation over a sector length equal to 30 minutes at an average cruise speed. (3) For offshore airborne radar approaches (ARA), harmonized visual/radar representations of installations.
6.e.	The visual system must be free from optical discontinuities and artifacts that create non-realistic cues	X	X	X	Nonrealistic cues might include image “swimming” and image “roll-off,” that may lead a pilot to make incorrect assessments of speed, acceleration and/or situational awareness.
6.f.	The simulator must have operational landing lights for night scenes.Where used, dusk (or twilight) scenes require operational landing lights.	X	X	X
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6.g.	The simulator must have instructor controls for the following: (1) Visibility in statute miles (kilometers) and runway visual range (RVR) in ft. (meters). (2) Airport or landing area selection (3) Airport or landing area lighting	X	X	X
6.h.	Each airport scene displayed must include the following: (1) Airport runways and taxiways (2) Runway definition (a) Runway surface and markings (b) Lighting for the runway in use, including runway threshold, edge, centerline, touchdown zone, VASI (or PAPI), and approach lighting of appropriate colors, as appropriate (c) Taxiway lights	X	X	X
6.i.	The simulator must provide visual system compatibility with dynamic response programming	X	X	X
6.j.	The simulator must show that the segment of the ground visible from the simulator flight deck is the same as from the helicopter flight deck (within established tolerances) when at the correct airspeed and altitude above the touchdown zone	X	X	X	This will show the modeling accuracy of the scene with respect to a predetermined position from the end of the runway “in use.”
6.k.	The simulator must provide visual cues necessary to assess rate of change of height, height AGL, and translational displacement and rates during takeoffs and landings	X
6.l.	The simulator must provide visual cues necessary to assess rate of change of height, height AGL, as well as translational displacement and rates during takeoff, low altitude/low airspeed maneuvering, hover, and landing		X	X
6.m.	The simulator must provide for accurate portrayal of the visual environment relating to the simulator attitude	X	X	X	Visual attitude vs. simulator attitude is a comparison of pitch and roll of the horizon as displayed in the visual scene compared to the display on the attitude indicator.
6.n	The simulator must provide for quick confirmation of visual system color, RVR, focus, and intensity An SOC is required.		X	X
6.o.	The simulator must be capable of producing at least 10 levels of occulting		X	X
6.p.	Night Visual Scenes. The simulator must provide night visual scenes with sufficient scene content to recognize the airport, the terrain, and major landmarks around the airport. The scene content must allow a pilot to successfully accomplish a visual landing. Night scenes, as a minimum, must provide presentations of sufficient surfaces with appropriate textural cues that include self-illuminated objects such as road networks, ramp lighting, and airport signage, to conduct a visual approach, a landing, and airport movement (taxi). Scenes must include a definable horizon and typical terrain characteristics such as fields, roads and bodies of water and surfaces illuminated by helicopter landing lights	X	X	X
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6.q.	Dusk (Twilight) Visual Scenes. The simulator must provide dusk (or twilight) visual scenes with sufficient scene content to recognize the airport, the terrain, and major landmarks around the airport. The scene content must allow a pilot to successfully accomplish a visual landing. Dusk (or twilight) scenes, as a minimum, must provide full color presentations of reduced ambient intensity, sufficient surfaces with appropriate textural cues that include self-illuminated objects such as road networks, ramp lighting and airport signage, to conduct a visual approach, landing and airport movement (taxi). Scenes must include a definable horizon and typical terrain characteristics such as fields, roads and bodies of water and surfaces illuminated by representative aircraft lighting (e.g., landing lights). If provided, directional horizon lighting must have correct orientation and be consistent with surface shading effects. Total scene content must be comparable in detail to that produced by 10,000 visible textured surfaces and 15,000 visible lights with sufficient system capacity to display 16 simultaneously moving objects An SOC is required.		X	X
6.r.	Daylight Visual Scenes. The simulator must have daylight visual scenes with sufficient scene content to recognize the airport, the terrain, and major landmarks around the airport. The scene content must allow a pilot to successfully accomplish a visual landing. No ambient lighting may “washout” the displayed visual scene. Total scene content must be comparable in detail to that produced by 10,000 visible textured surfaces and 6,000 visible lights with sufficient system capacity to display 16 simultaneously moving objects. The visual display must be free of apparent and distracting quantization and other distracting visual effects while the simulator is in motion An SOC is required.		X	X
6.s	The simulator must provide operational visual scenes that portray physical relationships known to cause landing illusions to pilots		X	X	For example: short runways, landing approaches over water, uphill or downhill runways, rising terrain on the approach path, unique topographic features.
6.t.	The simulator must provide special weather representations of light, medium, and heavy precipitation near a thunderstorm on takeoff and during approach and landing. Representations need only be presented at and below an altitude of 2,000 ft. (610 m) above the airport surface and within 10 miles (16 km) of the airport		X	X
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6.u.	The simulator must present visual scenes of wet and snow-covered runways, including runway lighting reflections for wet conditions, and partially obscured lights for snow conditions		X	X	The responsible Flight Standards office will consider suitable alternative effects.
6.v.	The simulator must present realistic color and directionality of all airport lighting		X	X
7.	Sound System
7.a.	The simulator must provide flight deck sounds that result from pilot actions that correspond to those that occur in the helicopter	X	X	X
7.b.	Volume control, if installed, must have an indication of the sound level setting	X	X	X
7.c.	The simulator must accurately simulate the sound of precipitation, windshield wipers, and other significant helicopter noises perceptible to the pilot during normal and abnormal operations, and include the sound of a crash (when the simulator is landed in an unusual attitude or in excess of the structural gear limitations); normal engine sounds; and the sounds of gear extension and retraction An SOC is required.		X	X
7.d.	The simulator must provide realistic amplitude and frequency of flight deck noises and sounds. Simulator performance must be recorded, compared to amplitude and frequency of the same sounds recorded in the helicopter, and made a part of the QTG			X

Table C1B—Table of Tasks vs. Simulator Level

QPS requirements	Entry No.	Subjective requirements The simulator must be able to perform the tasks associated with that level of qualification.	Simulator levels	B	C	D	Information	Notes
1. Preflight Procedures
1.a.	Preflight Inspection (Flight deck Only) switches, indicators, systems, and equipment	X	X	X
1.b.	APU/Engine start and run-up
1.b.1.	Normal start procedures	X	X	X
1.b.2.	Alternate start procedures	X	X	X
1.b.3.	Abnormal starts and shutdowns (hot start, hung start)	X	X	X
1.c.	Taxiing—Ground	X	X	X
1.d.	Taxiing—Hover	X	X	X
1.e.	Pre-takeoff Checks	X	X	X
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2. Takeoff and Departure Phase
2.a.	Normal takeoff
2.a.1.	From ground	X	X	X
2.a.2.	From hover		X	X
2.a.3.	Running	X	X	X
2.b.	Instrument	X	X	X
2.c.	Powerplant Failure During Takeoff	X	X	X
2.d.	Rejected Takeoff	X	X	X
2.e.	Instrument Departure	X	X	X
3. Climb
3.a.	Normal	X	X	X
3.b.	Obstacle clearance	X	X	X
3.c.	Vertical	X	X	X
3.d.	One engine inoperative	X	X	X
4. In-flight Maneuvers
4.a.	Turns (timed, normal, steep)	X	X	X
4.b.	Powerplant Failure—Multiengine Helicopters	X	X	X
4.c.	Powerplant Failure—Single-Engine Helicopters	X	X	X
4.d.	Recovery From Unusual Attitudes	X	X	X
4.e.	Settling with Power	X	X	X
4.f.	Specific Flight Characteristics incorporated into the user's FAA approved flight training program	A	A	A
5. Instrument Procedures
5.a.	Instrument Arrival	X	X	X
5.b.	Holding	X	X	X
5.c.	Precision Instrument Approach
5.c.1.	Normal—All engines operating	X	X	X
5.c.2.	Manually controlled—One or more engines inoperative	X	X	X
5.d.	Non-precision Instrument Approach	X	X	X
5.e.	Missed Approach
5.e.1.	All engines operating	X	X	X
5.e.2.	One or more engines inoperative	X	X	X
5.e.3.	Stability augmentation system failure	X	X	X
6. Landings and Approaches to Landings
6.a.	Visual Approaches (normal, steep, shallow)	X	X	X
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6.b.	Landings
6.b.1.	Normal/crosswind
6.b.1.a.	Running	X	X	X
6.b.1.b.	From Hover		X	X
6.b.2.	One or more engines inoperative	X	X	X
6.b.3.	Rejected Landing	X	X	X
7. Normal and Abnormal Procedures
7.a.	Powerplant	X	X	X
7.b.	Fuel System	X	X	X
7.c.	Electrical System	X	X	X
7.d.	Hydraulic System	X	X	X
7.e.	Environmental System(s)	X	X	X
7.f.	Fire Detection and Extinguisher Systems	X	X	X
7.g.	Navigation and Aviation Systems	X	X	X
7.h.	Automatic Flight Control System, Electronic Flight Instrument System, and Related Subsystems	X	X	X
7.i.	Flight Control Systems	X	X	X
7.j.	Anti-ice and Deice Systems	X	X	X
7.k.	Aircraft and Personal Emergency Equipment	X	X	X
7.l.	Special Missions tasks (e.g., Night Vision goggles, Forward Looking Infrared System, External Loads and as listed on the SOQ)	A	A	X
8. Emergency procedures (as applicable)
8.a.	Emergency Descent	X	X	X
8.b.	Inflight Fire and Smoke Removal	X	X	X
8.c.	Emergency Evacuation	X	X	X
8.d.	Ditching	X	X	X
8.e.	Autorotative Landing	X	X	X
8.f.	Retreating blade stall recovery	X	X	X
8.g.	Mast bumping	X	X	X
8.h.	Loss of tail rotor effectiveness	X	X	X
8.i.	Vortex recovery	X	X	X
9. Postflight Procedures
9.a	After-Landing Procedures	X	X	X
9.b.	Parking and Securing
9.b.1.	Rotor brake operation	X	X	X
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9.b.2.	Abnormal/emergency procedures	X	X	X
Note: An “A” in the table indicates that the system, task, or procedure may be examined if the appropriate aircraft system or control is simulated in the FFS and is working properly

Table C1C—Table of Tasks vs. Simulator Level

QPS requirements	Entry No.	Subjective requirements The simulator must be able to perform the tasks associated with that level of qualification.	Simulator levels	B	C	D	Information	Notes
1.	Instructor Operating Station (IOS), as appropriate
1.a.	Power switch(es)	X	X	X
1.b.	Helicopter conditions	X	X	X	e.g., GW, CG, Fuel loading, Systems, Ground Crew.
1.c.	Airports/Heliports/Helicopter Landing Areas	X	X	X	e.g., Selection, Surface, Presets, Lighting controls
1.d.	Environmental controls.	X	X	X	e.g., Clouds, Visibility, RVR, Temp, Wind, Ice, Snow, Rain, and Windshear.
1.e.	Helicopter system malfunctions (Insertion/deletion)	X	X	X
1.f.	Locks, Freezes, and Repositioning	X	X	X
2.	Sound Controls.
2.a.	On/off/adjustment	X	X	X
3.	Motion/Control Loading System
3.a.	On/off/emergency stop	X	X	X
4.	Observer Seats/Stations
4.a.	Position/Adjustment/Positive restraint system	X	X	X

Attachment 2 to Appendix C to Part 60—FFS Objective Tests Begin Information Table of Contents

Paragraph No.	Title
1.	Introduction.
2.	Test Requirements.
	Table C2A, Objective Tests.
3.	General.
4.	Control Dynamics.
5.	[Reserved]
6.	Motion System.
7.	Sound System.
8.	Additional Information About Flight Simulator Qualification for New or Derivative Helicopters.
9.	Engineering Simulator—Validation Data.
10.	[Reserved]
11.	Validation Test Tolerances.
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12.	Validation Data Roadmap.
13.	Acceptance Guidelines for Alternative Engines Data.
14.	Acceptance Guidelines for Alternative Avionics (Flight-Related Computers and Controllers).
15.	Transport Delay Testing.
16.	Continuing Qualification Evaluations—Validation Test Data Presentation.
17.	Alternative Data Sources, Procedures, and Instrumentation: Level A and Level B Simulators Only.

1. Introduction a. If relevant winds are present in the objective data, the wind vector (magnitude and direction) should be clearly noted as part of the data presentation, expressed in conventional terminology, and related to the runway being used for the test. b. The responsible Flight Standards office will not evaluate any simulator unless the required SOC indicates that the motion system is designed and manufactured to safely operate within the simulator's maximum excursion, acceleration, and velocity capabilities (see Motion System in the following table). c. Table C2A addresses helicopter simulators at Levels B, C, and D because there are no Level A Helicopter simulators. End Information Begin QPS Requirements 2. Test Requirements a. The ground and flight tests required for qualification are listed in Table of C2A, FFS Objective Tests. Computer-generated simulator test results must be provided for each test except where an alternative test is specifically authorized by the responsible Flight Standards office. If a flight condition or operating condition is required for the test but does not apply to the helicopter being simulated or to the qualification level sought, it may be disregarded ( e.g. , an engine out missed approach for a single-engine helicopter, or a hover test for a Level B simulator). Each test result is compared against the validation data described in § 60.13 and in this appendix. Although use of a driver program designed to automatically accomplish the tests is encouraged for all simulators and required for Level C and Level D simulators, each test must be able to be accomplished manually while recording all appropriate parameters. The results must be produced on an appropriate recording device acceptable to the responsible Flight Standards office and must include simulator number, date, time, conditions, tolerances, and appropriate dependent variables portrayed in comparison to the validation data. Time histories are required unless otherwise indicated in Table C2A. All results must be labeled using the tolerances and units given. b. Table C2A sets out the test results required, including the parameters, tolerances, and flight conditions for simulator validation. Tolerances are provided for the listed tests because mathematical modeling and acquisition/development of reference data are often inexact. All tolerances listed in the following tables are applied to simulator performance. When two tolerance values are given for a parameter, the less restrictive value may be used unless otherwise indicated. In those cases where a tolerance is expressed only as a percentage, the tolerance percentage applies to the maximum value of that parameter within its normal operating range as measured from the neutral or zero position unless otherwise indicated. c. Certain tests included in this attachment must be supported with an SOC. In Table C2A, requirements for SOCs are indicated in the “Test Details” column. d. When operational or engineering judgment is used in making assessments for flight test data applications for simulator validity, such judgment may not be limited to a single parameter. For example, data that exhibit rapid variations of the measured parameters may require interpolations or a “best fit” data selection. All relevant parameters related to a given maneuver or flight condition must be provided to allow overall interpretation. When it is difficult or impossible to match simulator to helicopter data throughout a time history, differences must be justified by providing a comparison of other related variables for the condition being assessed. e. The FFS may not be programmed so that the mathematical modeling is correct only at the validation test points. Unless noted otherwise, simulator tests must represent helicopter performance and handling qualities at operating weights and centers of gravity (CG) typical of normal operation. If a test is supported by helicopter data at one extreme weight or CG, another test supported by helicopter data at mid-conditions or as close as possible to the other extreme must be included. Certain tests that are relevant only at one extreme CG or weight condition need not be repeated at the other extreme. Tests of handling qualities must include validation of augmentation devices. f. When comparing the parameters listed to those of the helicopter, sufficient data must also be provided to verify the correct flight condition and helicopter configuration changes. For example, to show that control force is within ±0.5 pound (0.22 daN) in a static stability test, data to show the correct airspeed, power, thrust or torque, helicopter configuration, altitude, and other appropriate datum identification parameters must also be given. If comparing short period dynamics, normal acceleration may be used to establish a match to the helicopter, but airspeed, altitude, control input, helicopter configuration, and other appropriate data must also be given. All airspeed values must be properly annotated (e.g., indicated versus calibrated). In addition, the same variables must be used for comparison (e.g., compare inches to inches rather than inches to centimeters).

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g. The QTG provided by the sponsor must clearly describe how the simulator will be set up and operated for each test. Each simulator subsystem may be tested independently, but overall integrated testing of the simulator must be accomplished to assure that the total simulator system meets the prescribed standards. A manual test procedure with explicit and detailed steps for completing each test must also be provided. h. For previously qualified simulators, the tests and tolerances of this attachment may be used in subsequent continuing qualification evaluations for any given test if the sponsor has submitted a proposed MQTG revision to the responsible Flight Standards office and has received responsible Flight Standards office approval. i. Motion System Tests: (a) The minimum excursions, accelerations, and velocities for pitch, roll, and yaw must be measurable about a single, common reference point and must be achieved by driving one degree of freedom at a time. (b) The minimum excursions, accelerations, and velocities for heave, sway, and surge may be measured about different, identifiable reference points and must be achieved by driving one degree of freedom at a time. j. Tests of handling qualities must include validation of augmentation devices. FFSs for highly augmented helicopters will be validated both in the unaugmented configuration (or failure state with the maximum permitted degradation in handling qualities) and the augmented configuration. Where various levels of handling qualities result from failure states, validation of the effect of the failure is necessary. For those performance and static handling qualities tests where the primary concern is control position in the unaugmented configuration, unaugmented data are not required if the design of the system precludes any affect on control position. In those instances where the unaugmented helicopter response is divergent and non-repeatable, it may not be feasible to meet the specified tolerances. Alternative requirements for testing will be mutually agreed upon by the sponsor and the responsible Flight Standards office on a case-by-case basis. k. Some tests will not be required for helicopters using helicopter hardware in the simulator flight deck (e.g., “helicopter modular controller”). These exceptions are noted in Table C2A of this attachment. However, in these cases, the sponsor must provide a statement that the helicopter hardware meets the appropriate manufacturer's specifications and the sponsor must have supporting information to that fact available for responsible Flight Standards office review. l. In cases where light-class helicopters are being simulated, prior coordination with the responsible Flight Standards office on acceptable weight ranges is required. The terms “light”, “medium”, and “near maximum”, as defined in Appendix F of this part, may not be appropriate for the simulation of light-class helicopters. End QPS Requirements Begin Information m. In those cases where the objective test results authorize a “snapshot test” or a “series of snapshot test results” in lieu of a time-history result, the sponsor or other data provider must ensure that a steady state condition exists at the instant of time captured by the “snapshot”. The steady state condition must exist from 4 seconds prior to, through 1 second following, the instant of time captured by the snap shot. n. For references on basic operating weight, see AC 120-27, Aircraft Weight and Balance; and FAA-H-8083-1, Aircraft Weight and Balance Handbook. End Information

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Table C2A—Full Flight Simulator (FFS) Objective Tests

QPS requirements	Test	Entry No.	Title	Tolerance(s)	Flight condition	Test details	Simulator level	B	C	D	Information	Notes
1. Performance
1.a.	Engine Assessment
1.a.1.	Start Operations
1.a.1.a	Engine start and acceleration (transient)	Light Off Time—±10% or ±1 sec., Torque—±5%, Rotor Speed—±3%, Fuel Flow—±10%, Gas Generator Speed—±5%, Power Turbine Speed—±5%, Gas Turbine Temp.—±30 °C	Ground with the Rotor Brake Used and Not Used, if applicable.	Record each engine start from the initiation of the start sequence to steady state idle and from steady state idle to operating RPM.	X	X	X
1.a.1.b.	Steady State Idle and Operating RPM conditions	Torque—±3%, Rotor Speed—±1.5%, Fuel Flow—±5%, Gas Generator Speed—±2%, Power Turbine Speed—±2%, Turbine Gas Temp.—±20 °C	Ground	Record both steady state idle and operating RPM conditions. May be a series of snapshot tests.	X	X	X
1.a.2.	Power Turbine Speed Trim	±10% of total change of power turbine speed, or ±0.5% change of rotor speed.	Ground	Record engine response to trim system actuation in both directions.	X	X	X
1.a.3.	Engine and Rotor Speed Governing	Torque—±5%, Rotor Speed—1.5%	Climb and descent	Record results using a step input to the collective. May be conducted concurrently with climb and descent performance tests.	X	X	X
1.b.	Surface Operations
1.b.1.	Minimum Radius Turn	±3 ft. (0.9m) or 20% of helicopter turn radius.	Ground	If brakes are used, brake pedal position and brake system pressure must be matched to the helicopter flight test value.	X	X	X
1.b.2.	Rate of Turn vs. Pedal Deflection, Brake Application, or Nosewheel Angle, as applicable	±10% or ±2°/sec. Turn Rate.	Ground Takeoff	If brakes are used, brake pedal position and brake system pressure must be matched to the helicopter flight test value.	X	X	X
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1.b.3.	Taxi	Pitch Angle—±1.5°, Torque—±3%, Longitudinal Control Position—±5%, Lateral Control Position—±5%, Directional Control Position—±5%, Collective Control Position—±5%	Ground	Record results for control position and pitch attitude during ground taxi for a specific ground speed, wind speed and direction, and density altitude.	X	X	X
1.b.4.	Brake Effectiveness	±10% of time and distance.	Ground		X	X	X
1.c.	Takeoff When the speed range for the following tests is less than 40 knots, the applicable airspeed tolerance may be applied to either airspeed or ground speed, as appropriate.
1.c.1.	All Engines	Airspeed—±3 kt, Altitude—±20 ft (6.1m), Torque—±3%, Rotor Speed—±1.5%, Vertical Velocity—±100 fpm (0.50m/sec) or 10%, Pitch Attitude—±1.5°, Bank Attitude—±2°, Heading—±2°, Longitudinal Control Position—±10%, Lateral Control Position—±10%, Directional Control Position—±10%, Collective Control Position—±10%	Ground/Takeoff and Initial Segment of Climb.	Record results of takeoff flight path as appropriate to helicopter model simulated (running takeoff for Level B, takeoff from a hover for Level C and D). For Level B, the criteria apply only to those segments at airspeeds above effective translational lift. Results must be recorded from the initiation of the takeoff to at least 200 ft (61m) AGL.	X	X	X
1.c.2.	One Engine Inoperative continued takeoff.	Airspeed—±3 kt, Altitude—±20 ft (6.1m), Torque—±3%, Rotor Speed—±1.5%, Vertical Velocity—±100 fpm (0.50m/sec) or 10%, Pitch Attitude—±1.5°, Bank Attitude—±2°, Heading—±2°, Longitudinal Control Position—±10% Lateral Control Position—±10%, Directional Control Position—±10%, Collective Control Position—±10%	Ground/Takeoff; and Initial Segment of Climb.	Record takeoff flight path as appropriate to helicopter model simulated. Results must be recorded from the initiation of the takeoff to at least 200 ft (61m) AGL.	X	X	X	Because several kinds of takeoff procedures can be performed, the specific type of takeoff profile should be recorded to ensure the proper takeoff profile comparison test is used.
1.c.3.	One Engine inoperative, rejected take off.	Airspeed—±3 kt, Altitude—±20 ft (6.1m), Torque—±3%, Rotor Speed—±1.5%, Pitch Attitude—±1.5°, Roll angle—±1.5°, Heading—±2°, Longitudinal Control Position—±10%, Lateral Control Position—±10%, Directional Control Position—±10%, Collective Control Position—±10%, Distance—±7.5% or ±30m (100ft).	Ground, Takeoff	Time history from the take off point to touch down. Test conditions near limiting performance.		X	X
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1.d.	Hover
	Performance	Torque—±3%, Pitch Attitude—±1.5°, Bank Attitude—±1.5°, Longitudinal Control Position—±5%, Lateral Control Position—±5%, Directional Control Position—±5%, Collective Control Position—±5%.	In Ground Effect (IGE); and Out of Ground Effect (OGE).	Record results for light and heavy gross weights. May be a series of snapshot tests.		X	X
1.e.	Vertical Climb
	Performance	Vertical Velocity—±100 fpm (0.50 m/sec) or ±10%, Directional Control Position—±5%, Collective Control Position—±5%.	From OGE Hover	Record results for light and heavy gross weights. May be a series of snapshot tests.		X	X
1.f.	Level Flight
	Performance and Trimmed Flight Control Positions.	Torque—±3%, Pitch Attitude—±1.5°, Sideslip Angle—±2°, Longitudinal Control Position—±5%, Lateral Control Position—±5%, Directional Control Position—±5%, Collective Control Position—±5%.	Cruise (Augmentation On and Off).	Record results for two gross weight and CG combinations with varying trim speeds throughout the airspeed envelope. May be a series of snapshot tests.	X	X	X	This test validates performance at speeds above maximum endurance airspeed.
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1.g.	Climb
	Performance and Trimmed Flight Control Positions.	Vertical Velocity—±100 fpm (6.1m/sec) or ±10%, Pitch Attitude—±1.5°, Sideslip Angle—±2°, Longitudinal Control Position—±5%, Lateral Control Position—±5%, Directional Control Position—±5%, Collective Control Position—±5%.	All engines operating; One engine inoperative; Augmentation System(s) On and Off.	Record results for two gross weight and CG combinations. The data presented must be for normal climb power conditions. May be a series of snapshot tests.	X	X	X
1.h.	Descent
1.h.1.	Descent Performance and Trimmed Flight Control Positions.	Torque—±3%, Pitch Attitude—±1.5°, Sideslip Angle—±2°, Longitudinal Control Position—±5%, Lateral Control Position—±5%, Directional Control Position—±5%, Collective Control Position—±5%.	At or near 1,000 fpm (5 m/sec) rate of descent (RoD) at normal approach speed. Augmentation System(s) On and Off.	Results must be recorded for two gross weight and CG combinations. May be a series of snapshot tests.	X	X	X
1.h.2.	Autorotation Performance and Trimmed Flight Control Positions.	Pitch Attitude—±1.5°, Sideslip Angle—±2°, Longitudinal Control Position—±5%, Lateral Control Position—±5%, Directional Control Position—±5%, Collective Control Position—±5%, Vertical Velocity—±100 fpm or 10%, Rotor Speed—±1.5%.	Steady descents. Augmentation System(s) On and Off.	Record results for two gross weight conditions. Data must be recorded for normal operating RPM. (Rotor speed tolerance applies only if collective control position is full down.) Data must be recorded for speeds from 50 kts, ±5 kts, through at least maximum glide distance airspeed, or maximum allowable autorotation airspeed, whichever is slower. May be a series of snapshot tests.	X	X	X
1.i.	Autorotation
	Entry	Rotor Speed—±3%, Pitch Attitude—±2°, Roll Attitude—±3°, Yaw Attitude—±5°, Airspeed—±5 kts., Vertical Velocity—±200 fpm (1.00 m/sec) or 10%.	Cruise or Climb	Record results of a rapid throttle reduction to idle. If the cruise condition is selected, comparison must be made for the maximum range airspeed. If the climb condition is selected, comparison must be made for the maximum rate of climb airspeed at or near maximum continuous power.		X	X
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1.j.	Landing When the speed range for tests 1.j.1., 1.j.2., or 1.j.3. is less than 40 knots, the applicable airspeed tolerance may be applied to either airspeed or ground speed, as appropriate.
1.j.1.	All Engines	Airspeed—±3 kts., Altitude—±20 ft. (6.1m), Torque—±3%, Rotor Speed—±1.5%, Pitch Attitude—±1.5°, Bank Attitude—±1.5°, Heading—±2°, Longitudinal Control Position—±10%, Lateral Control Position—±10%, Directional Control Position—±10%, Collective Control Position—±10%.	Approach	Record results of the approach and landing profile as appropriate to the helicopter model simulated (running landing for Level B, or approach to a hover for Level C and D). For Level B, the criteria apply only to those segments at airspeeds above effective translational lift.	X	X	X
1.j.2.	One Engine Inoperative.	Airspeed—±3 kts., Altitude—±20 ft. (6.1m), Torque—±3%, Rotor Speed—±1.5%, Pitch Attitude—±1.5°, Bank Attitude—±1.5°, Heading—±2°, Longitudinal Control Position—±10%, Lateral Control Position—±10%, Directional Control Position—±10%, Collective Control Position—±10%.	Approach	Record results for both Category A and Category B approaches and landing as appropriate to helicopter model simulated. For Level B, the criteria apply only to those segments at airspeeds above effective translational lift.	X	X	X
1.j.3.	Balked Landing	Airspeed—±3 kts, Altitude—±20 ft. (6.1m), Torque—±3%, Rotor Speed—±1.5%, Pitch Attitude—±1.5°, Bank Attitude—±1.5°, Heading—±2°, Longitudinal Control Position—±10%, Lateral Control Position—±10%, Directional Control Position—±10%, Collective Control Position—±10%.	Approach	Record the results for the maneuver initiated from a stabilized approach at the landing decision point (LDP).	X	X	X
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1.j.4.	Autorotational Landing	Torque—±3%, Rotor Speed—±3%, Vertical Velocity—±100 fpm (0.50m/sec) or 10%, Pitch Attitude—±2º, Bank Attitude—±2º, Heading—±5º, Longitudinal Control Position—±10%, Lateral Control Position—±10%, Directional Control Position—±10%, Collective Control Position—±10%	Landing	Record the results of an autorotational deceleration and landing from a stabilized autorotational descent, to touch down If flight test data containing all required parameters for a complete power-off landing is not available from the aircraft manufacturer for this test and other qualified flight test personnel are not available to acquire this data, the sponsor may coordinate with the responsible Flight Standards office to determine if it is appropriate to accept alternative testing means		X	X	Alternative approaches for acquiring this data may be acceptable, depending on the aircraft as well as the personnel and the data recording, reduction, and interpretation facilities to be used, are: (1) a simulated autorotational flare and reduction of rate of descent (ROD) at altitude; or (2) a power-on termination following an autorotational approach and flare.
2. Handling Qualities
2.a.	Control System Mechanical Characteristics
	For simulators requiring Static or Dynamic tests at the controls ( i.e., cyclic, collective, and pedal), special test fixtures will not be required during initial or upgrade evaluations if the sponsor's QTG/MQTG shows both test fixture results and the results of an alternative approach, such as computer plots produced concurrently showing satisfactory agreement. Repeat of the alternative method during the initial or upgrade evaluation satisfies this test requirement. For initial and upgrade evaluations, the control dynamic characteristics must be measured at and recorded directly from the flight deck controls, and must be accomplished in hover, climb, cruise, and autorotation				Contact the responsible Flight Standards office for clarification of any issue regarding helicopters with reversible controls or where the required validation data is not attainable.
2.a.1.	Cyclic	Breakout—±0.25 lbs. (0.112 daN) or 25%; Force—±1.0 lb. (0.224 daN) or 10%.	Ground; Static conditions with the hydraulic system (if applicable) pressurized; supplemental hydraulic pressurization system may be used. Trim On and Off. Friction Off Augmentation (if applicable) On and Off.	Record results for an uninterrupted control sweep to the stops. (This test does not apply if aircraft hardware modular controllers are used.)	X	X	X	Flight Test Data for this test does not require the rotor to be engaged/turning. The phrase “if applicable” regarding stability augmentation systems means if an augmentation system is available and if this system may be operational on the ground under static conditions as described here.
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2.a.2.	Collective/Pedals	Breakout—±0.5 lb. (0.224 daN) or 25%; Force—±1.0 lb. (0.224 daN) or 10%.	Ground; Static conditions with the hydraulic system (if applicable) pressurized; supplemental hydraulic pressurization system may be used. Trim On and Off. Friction Off. Augmentation (if applicable) On and Off.	Record results for an uninterrupted control sweep to the stops.	X	X	X	Flight Test Data for this test does not require the rotor to be engaged/turning. The phrase “if applicable” regarding stability augmentation system means if a stability augmentation system is available and if this system may be operational on the ground under static conditions as described here.
2.a.3.	Brake Pedal Force vs. Position.	±5 lbs. (2.224 daN) or 10%.	Ground; Static conditions.		X	X	X
2.a.4.	Trim System Rate (all applicable systems)	Rate—±10%.	Ground; Static conditions. Trim On, Friction Off.	The tolerance applies to the recorded value of the trim rate.	X	X	X
2.a.5.	Control Dynamics (all axes)	±10% of time for first zero crossing and ±10 (N + 1)% of period thereafter, ±10% of amplitude of first overshoot, 20% of amplitude of 2nd and subsequent overshoots greater than 5% of initial displacement, ±1 overshoot.	Hover/Cruise, Trim On, Friction Off.	Results must be recorded for a normal control displacement in both directions in each axis.		X	X	Typically, control displacement of 25% to 50% is necessary for proper excitation. Control Dynamics for irreversible control systems may be evaluated in a ground/static condition. Additional information on control dynamics is found later in this attachment. “N” is the sequential period of a full cycle of oscillation.
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2.a.6.	Control System Freeplay	±0.10 inches (±2.5 mm).	Ground; Static conditions; with the hydraulic system (if applicable) pressurized; supplemental hydraulic pressurization system may be used.	Record and compare results for all controls.	X	X	X	Flight Test Data for this test does not require the rotor to be engaged/turning.
2.b.	Low Airspeed Handling Qualities
2.b.1.	Trimmed Flight Control Positions.	Torque—±3%, Pitch Attitude—±1.5°, Bank Attitude—±2°, Longitudinal Control Position—±5%. Lateral Control Position—±5%, Directional Control Position—±5%, Collective Control Position—±5%.	Translational Flight IGE—Sideward, rearward, and forward flight. Augmentation On and Off.	Record results for several airspeed increments to the translational airspeed limits and for 45 kts. forward airspeed. May be a series of snapshot tests.		X	X
2.b.2.	Critical Azimuth	Torque—±3%, Pitch Attitude—±1.5°, Bank Attitude—±2°, Longitudinal Control Position—±5%, Lateral Control Position—±5%, Directional Control Position—±5%, Collective Control Position—±5%.	Stationary Hover. Augmentation On and Off.	Record results for three relative wind directions (including the most critical case) in the critical quadrant. May be a series of snapshot tests.		X	X
2.b.3.	Control Response
2.b.3.a.	Longitudinal	Pitch Rate—±10% or ±2°/sec., Pitch Attitude Change—±10% or 1.5°.	Hover Augmentation On and Off.	Record results for a step control input. The Off-axis response must show correct trend for unaugmented cases.		X	X	This is a “short time” test conducted in a hover, in ground effect, without entering translational flight, to provide better visual reference.
2.b.3.b.	Lateral	Roll Rate—±10% or ±3°/sec., Roll Attitude Change—±10% or ±3°.	Hover Augmentation On and Off.	Record results for a step control input. The Off-axis response must show correct trend for unaugmented cases.		X	X	This is a “short time” test conducted in a hover, in ground effect, without entering translational flight, to provide better visual reference.
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2.b.3.c.	Directional	Yaw Rate—±10% or ±2°/sec., Heading Change—±10% or ±2°.	Hover Augmentation On and Off.	Record results for a step control input. The Off-axis response must show correct trend for unaugmented cases.		X	X	This is a “short time” test conducted in a hover, in ground effect, without entering translational flight, to provide better visual reference.
2.b.3.d.	Vertical	Normal Acceleration—±0.1 g.	Hover Augmentation On and Off.	Record results for a step control input. The Off-axis response must show correct trend for unaugmented cases.		X	X
2.c.	Longitudinal Handling Qualities
2.c.1.	Control Response	Pitch Rate—±10% or ±2°/sec., Pitch Attitude Change—±10% or ±1.5°.	Cruise Augmentation On and Off.	Results must be recorded for two cruise airspeeds to include minimum power required speed. Record data for a step control input. The Off-axis response must show correct trend for unaugmented cases.	X	X	X
2.c.2.	Static Stability	Longitudinal Control Position: ±10% of change from trim or ±0.25 in. (6.3 mm) or Longitudinal Control Force : ±0.5 lb. (0.223 daN) or ±10%.	Cruise or Climb. Autorotation. Augmentation On and Off.	Record results for a minimum of two speeds on each side of the trim speed. May be a series of snapshot tests.	X	X	X
2.c.3.	Dynamic Stability
2.c.3.a.	Long-Term Response.	±10% of calculated period, ±10% of time to 1/2 or double amplitude, or ±0.02 of damping ratio.For non-periodic responses, the time history must be matched within ±3° pitch; and ±5 kts airspeed over a 20 sec period following release of the controls.	Cruise Augmentation On and Off.	For periodic responses, record results for three full cycles (6 overshoots after input completed) or that sufficient to determine time to 1/2 or double amplitude, whichever is less. The test may be terminated prior to 20 sec. if the test pilot determines that the results are becoming uncontrollably divergent.	X	X	X	The response may be unrepeatable throughout the stated time for certain helicopters. In these cases, the test should show at least that a divergence is identifiable. For example: Displacing the cyclic for a given time normally excites this test or until a given pitch attitude is achieved and then return the cyclic to the original position. For non-periodic responses, results should show the same convergent or divergent character as the flight test data.
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2.c.3.b.	Short-Term Response.	±1.5° Pitch or ±2°/sec. Pitch Rate. ±0.1 g Normal Acceleration.	Cruise or Climb. Augmentation On and Off.	Record results for at least two airspeeds.	X	X	X	A control doublet inserted at the natural frequency of the aircraft normally excites this test. However, while input doublets are preferred over pulse inputs for Augmentation-Off tests, for Augmentation-On tests, when the short-term response exhibits 1st-order or deadbeat characteristics, longitudinal pulse inputs may produce a more coherent response.
2.c.4.	Maneuvering Stability.	Longitudinal Control Position—±10% of change from trim or ±0.25 in. (6.3 mm) or Longitudinal Control Forces—±0.5 lb. (0.223 daN) or ±10%.	Cruise or Climb. Augmentation On and Off.	Record results for at least two airspeeds at 30°-45° roll angle. The force may be shown as a cross plot for irreversible systems. May be a series of snapshot tests.	X	X	X
2.d.	Lateral and Directional Handling Qualities
2.d.1.	Control Response
2.d.1.a	Lateral	Roll Rate—±10% or ±3°/sec., Roll Attitude Change—±10% or ±3°.	Cruise Augmentation On and Off.	Record results for at least two airspeeds, including the speed at or near the minimum power required airspeed. Record results for a step control input. The Off-axis response must show correct trend for unaugmented cases	X	X	X
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2.d.1.b.	Directional	Yaw Rate—±10% or ±2°/sec., Yaw Attitude Change—±10% or ±2°.	Cruise Augmentation On and Off.	Record data for at least two airspeeds, including the speed at or near the minimum power required airspeed. Record results for a step control input. The Off-axis response must show correct trend for unaugmented cases.	X	X	X
2.d.2.	Directional Static Stability.	Lateral Control Position—±10% of change from trim or ±0.25 in. (6.3 mm) or Lateral Control Force—±0.5 lb. (0.223 daN) or 10%, Roll Attitude—±1.5, Directional Control Position—±10% of change from trim or ±0.25 in. (6.3 mm) or Directional Control Force—±1 lb. (0.448 daN) or 10%, Longitudinal Control Position—±10% of change from trim or ±0.25 in. (6.3 mm), Vertical Velocity—±100 fpm (0.50m/sec) or 10%.	Cruise; or Climb (may use Descent instead of Climb if desired), Augmentation On and Off.	Record results for at least two sideslip angles on either side of the trim point. The force may be shown as a cross plot for irreversible systems. May be a series of snapshot tests.	X	X	X	This is a steady heading sideslip test at a fixed collective position.
2.d.3.	Dynamic Lateral and Directional Stability
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2.d.3.a.	Lateral-Directional Oscillations.	±0.5 sec. or ±10% of period, ±10% of time to 1/2 or double amplitude or ±0.02 of damping ratio, ±20% or ±1 sec of time difference between peaks of bank and sideslip. For non-periodic responses, the time history must be matched within ±10 knots Airspeed; ±5°/s Roll Rate or ±5° Roll Attitude; ±4°/s Yaw Rate or ±4° Yaw Angle over a 20 sec period roll angle following release of the controls.	Cruise or Climb. Augmentation On and Off.	Record results for at least two airspeeds. The test must be initiated with a cyclic or a pedal doublet input. Record results for six full cycles (12 overshoots after input completed) or that sufficient to determine time to 1/2 or double amplitude, whichever is less. The test may be terminated prior to 20 sec if the test pilot determines that the results are becoming uncontrollably divergent.	X	X	X
2.d.3.b.	Spiral Stability.	±2° or ±10% roll angle.	Cruise or Climb. Augmentation On and Off.	Record the results of a release from pedal only or cyclic only turns for 20 sec. Results must be recorded from turns in both directions. Terminate check at zero roll angle or when the test pilot determines that the attitude is becoming uncontrollably divergent.	X	X	X
2.d.3.c.	Adverse/Proverse Yaw.	Correct Trend, ±2° transient sideslip angle.	Cruise or Climb. Augmentation On and Off.	Record the time history of initial entry into cyclic only turns, using only a moderate rate for cyclic input. Results must be recorded for turns in both directions.	X	X	X
3. Motion System
3.a.	Frequency response
		Based on Simulator Capability.	N/A	Required as part of the MQTG. The test must demonstrate frequency response of the motion system as specified by the applicant for flight simulator qualification.	X	X	X
3.b.	Leg Balance
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	Leg Balance	Based on Simulator Capability.	N/A	Required as part of the MQTG. The test must demonstrate motion system leg balance as specified by the applicant for flight simulator qualification.	X	X	X
3.c.	Turn Around
	Turn Around	Based on Simulator Capability.	N/A	Required as part of the MQTG. The test must demonstrate a smooth turn-around (shift to opposite direction of movement) of the motion system as specified by the applicant for flight simulator qualification.	X	X	X
3.d.	Motion system repeatability
		With the same input signal, the test results must be repeatable to within ±0.05g actual platform linear acceleration in each axis.	Accomplished in both the “ground” mode and in the “flight” mode of the motion system operation.	Required as part of the MQTG. The test is accomplished by injecting a motion signal to generate movement of the platform. The input must be such that the rotational accelerations, rotational rates, and linear accelerations are inserted before the transfer from helicopter center of gravity to the pilot reference point with a minimum amplitude of 5°/sec/sec, 10°/sec and 0.3g, respectively.	X	X	X	See Paragraph 6.c. in this attachment for additional information. Note: if there is no difference in the model for “ground” and “flight” operation of the motion system, this should be described in an SOC and will not require tests in both modes.
3.e.	Motion cueing performance signature
				Required as part of MQTG. These tests must be run with the motion buffet mode disabled.				See paragraph 6.d., of this attachment, Motion cueing performance signature.
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3.e.1.	Takeoff (all engines).	As specified by the sponsor for flight simulator qualification.	Ground	Pitch attitude due to initial climb must dominate over cab tilt due to longitudinal acceleration.	X	X	X	Associated to test number 1.c.1.
3.e.2.	Hover performance (IGE and OGE).	As specified by the sponsor for flight simulator qualification.	Ground			X	X	Associated to test number 1.d.
3.e.3.	Autorotation (entry).	As specified by the sponsor for flight simulator qualification.	Flight			X	X	Associated to test number 1.i.
3.e.4.	Landing (all engines).	As specified by the sponsor for flight simulator qualification.	Flight		X	X	X	Associated to test number 1.j.1.
3.e.5.	Autorotation (landing).	As specified by the sponsor for flight simulator qualification.	Flight			X	X	Associated to test number 1.j.4.
3.e.6.	Control Response
3.e.6.a.	Longitudinal	As specified by the sponsor for flight simulator qualification.	Flight		X	X	X	Associated to test number 2.c.1.
3.e.6.b.	Lateral.	As specified by the sponsor for flight simulator qualification.	Ground		X	X	X	Associated to test number 2.d.1.a.
3.e.6.c.	Directional	As specified by the sponsor for flight simulator qualification.			X	X	X	Associated to test number 2.d.1.c.
3.f.	Characteristic Motion (Vibration) Cues—For all of the following tests, the simulator test results must exhibit the overall appearance and trends of the helicopter data, with at least three (3) of the predominant frequency “spikes” being present within ±2 Hz.				Characteristic motion cues may be separate from the “main” motion system.
3.f.1.	Vibrations—to include 1/Rev and n/Rev vibrations (where “n” is the number of main rotor blades).	+ 3db to −6db or ±10% of nominal vibration level in flight cruise and correct trend (see comment).	(a) On ground (idle); (b) In flight	Characteristic vibrations include those that result from operation of the helicopter (for example, high airspeed, retreating blade stall, extended landing gear, vortex ring or settling with power) in so far as vibration marks an event or helicopter state, which can be sensed in the flight deck. [See Table C1A, table entries 5.e. and 5.f.]			X	Correct trend refers to a comparison of vibration amplitudes between different maneuvers; e.g., if the 1/rev vibration amplitude in the helicopter is higher during steady state turns than in level flight this increasing trend should be demonstrated in the simulator. Additional examples of vibrations may include: (a) Low & High speed transition to and from hover; (b) Level flight; (c) Climb and descent (including vertical climb; (d) Auto-rotation; (e) Steady Turns.
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3.f.2.	Buffet—Test against recorded results for characteristic buffet motion that can be sensed in the flight deck.	+ 3db to −6db or ±10% of nominal vibration level in flight cruise and correct trend (see comment).	On ground and in flight.	Characteristic buffets include those that result from operation of the helicopter (for example, high airspeed, retreating blade stall, extended landing gear, vortex ring or settling with power) in so far as a buffet marks an event or helicopter state, which can be sensed in the flight deck. [See Table C1A, table entries 5.e. and 5.f.]			X	The recorded test results for characteristic buffets should allow the checking of relative amplitude for different frequencies. For atmospheric disturbance, general purpose models are acceptable which approximate demonstrable flight test data.
4. Visual System
4.a.	Visual System Response Time: (Choose either test 4.a.1. or 4.a.2. to satisfy test 4.a., Visual System Response Time Test. This test is also sufficient for motion system response timing and flight deck instrument response timing.)
4.a.1.	Latency
		150 ms (or less) after helicopter response.	Takeoff, climb, and descent.	One test is required in each axis (pitch, roll and yaw) for each of the three conditions (take-off, cruise, and approach or landing).	X
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		100 ms (or less) after helicopter response.	Climb, cruise, descent, and hover.	One test is required in each axis (pitch, roll and yaw) for each of the three conditions (take-off, cruise, and approach or landing).		X	X
4.a.2.	Transport Delay
								If Transport Delay is the chosen method to demonstrate relative responses, the sponsor and the responsible Flight Standards office will use the latency values to ensure proper simulator response when reviewing those existing tests where latency can be identified ( e.g., short period, roll response, rudder response).
4.b.	Field-of-view
4.b.1.	Continuous field-of-view.	The simulator must provide a continuous field-of-view of at least 75° horizontally and 30° vertically per pilot seat or the number of degrees necessary to meet the visual ground segment requirement, whichever is greater. Both pilot seat visual systems must be operable simultaneously. Wide-angle systems providing cross-flight deck viewing (for both pilots simultaneously) must provide a minimum field-of-view of at least 146° horizontally and 36° vertically. Any geometric error between the Image Generator eye point and the pilot eye point must be 8° or less.	N/A	An SOC is required and must explain the geometry of the installation. Additional horizontal field-of-view capability may be added at the sponsor's discretion provided the minimum field-of-view is retained.	X			Horizontal field-of-view is centered on the zero degree azimuth line relative to the aircraft fuselage. Field-of-view may be measured using a visual test pattern filling the entire visual scene (all channels) with a matrix of black and white 5° squares.
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4.b.2.	Continuous field-of-view.	The simulator must provide a continuous field-of-view of at least 146° horizontally and 36° vertically or the number of degrees necessary to meet the visual ground segment requirement, whichever is greater. The minimum horizontal field-of-view coverage must be plus and minus one-half ( 1/2 ) of the minimum continuous field-of-view requirement, centered on the zero degree azimuth line relative to the aircraft fuselage. Any geometric error between the Image Generator eye point and the pilot eye point must be 8° or less.	N/A	An SOC is required and must explain the geometry of the installation. Horizontal field-of-view of at least 146° (including not less than 73° measured either side of the center of the design eye point). Additional horizontal field-of-view capability may be added at the sponsor's discretion provided the minimum field-of-view is retained. Vertical field-of-view of at least 36° measured from the pilot's and co-pilot's eye point.		X		Horizontal field-of-view is centered on the zero degree azimuth line relative to the aircraft fuselage. Field-of-view may be measured using a visual test pattern filling the entire visual scene (all channels) with a matrix of black and white 5° squares.
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4.b.3.	Continuous field-of-view.	Continuous field-of-view of at least 176° horizontal and 56° vertical field-of-view for each pilot simultaneously. Any geometric error between the Image Generator eye point and the pilot eye point must be 8° or less.	N/A	An SOC is required and must explain the geometry of the installation. Horizontal field-of-view is centered on the zero degree azimuth line relative to the aircraft fuselage. Horizontal field-of-view must be at least 176° (including not less than 88° either side of the center of the design eye point). Additional horizontal field-of-view capability may be added at the sponsor's discretion provided the minimum field-of-view is retained. Vertical field-of-view must not be less than a total of 56° measured from the pilot's and co-pilot's eye point			X	The horizontal field-of-view is traditionally described as a 180° field-of-view. However, the field-of-view is technically no less than 176°. Field-of-view may be measured using a visual test pattern filling the entire visual scene (all channels) with a matrix of black and white 5° squares.
4.c.	Surface contrast ratio.	Not less than 5:1.	N/A	The ratio is calculated by dividing the brightness level of the center, bright square (providing at least 2 foot-lamberts or 7 cd/m 2 ) by the brightness level of any adjacent dark square.			X	Measurements may be made using a 1° spot photometer and a raster drawn test pattern filling the entire visual scene (all channels) with a test pattern of black and white squares, 5 per square, with a white square in the center of each channel. During contrast ratio testing, simulator aft-cab and flight deck ambient light levels should be zero.
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4.d.	Highlight brightness.	Not less than six (6) foot-lamberts (20 cd/m 2 ).	N/A	Measure the brightness of the center, white square while superimposing a highlight on that white square. The use of calligraphic capabilities to enhance the raster brightness is acceptable; however, measuring light points is not acceptable.			X	Measurements may be made using a 1° spot photometer and a raster drawn test pattern filling the entire visual scene (all channels) with a test pattern of black and white squares, 5 per square, with a white square in the center of each channel.
4.e.	Surface resolution.	Not greater than two (2) arc minutes.	N/A	An SOC is required and must include the appropriate calculations and an explanation of those calculations. Level B requires surface resolution not greater than three (3) arc minutes.		X	X	When the eye is positioned on a 3° glide slope at the slant range distances indicated with white runway markings on a black runway surface, the eye will subtend two (2) arc minutes: (1) A slant range of 6,876 ft with stripes 150 ft long and 16 ft wide, spaced 4 ft apart. (2) For Configuration A, a slant range of 5,157 feet with stripes 150 ft long and 12 ft wide, spaced 3 ft apart. (3) For Configuration B, a slant range of 9,884 feet, with stripes 150 ft long and 5.75 ft wide, spaced 5.75 ft apart.
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4.f.	Light point size	Not greater than five (5) arc minutes.	N/A	An SOC is required and must include the relevant calculations and an explanation of those calculations.		X	X	Light point size may be measured using a test pattern consisting of a centrally located single row of light points reduced in length until modulation is just discernible in each visual channel. A row of 48 lights will form a 4° angle or less.
4.g.	Light point contrast ratio.							A 1° spot photometer may be used to measure a square of at least 1° filled with light points (where light point modulation is just discernible) and compare the results to the measured adjacent background. During contrast ratio testing, simulator aft-cab and flight deck ambient light levels should be zero.
4.g.1.		Not less than 10:1	N/A	An SOC is required and must include the relevant calculations.	X
4.g.2.		Not less than 25:1	N/A	An SOC is required and must include the relevant calculations.		X	X
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4.h.	Visual ground segment
		The visible segment in the simulator must be ±20% of the segment computed to be visible from the helicopter flight deck. This tolerance may be applied at the far end of the displayed segment. However, lights and ground objects computed to be visible from the helicopter flight deck at the near end of the visible segment must be visible in the simulator.	Landing configuration, with the aircraft trimmed for the appropriate airspeed, where the MLG are at 100 ft (30 m) above the plane of the touchdown zone, on the electronic glide slope with an RVR value set at 1,200 ft (350 m).	The QTG must contain appropriate calculations and a drawing showing the data used to establish the helicopter location and the segment of the ground that is visible considering design eye point, the helicopter attitude, flight deck cut-off angle, and a visibility of 1200 ft (350 m) RVR. Simulator performance must be measured against the QTG calculations. The data submitted must include at least the following:	X	X	X	Pre-positioning for this test is encouraged, and may be achieved via manual or autopilot control to the desired position.
				(1) Static helicopter dimensions as follows: (i) Horizontal and vertical distance from main landing gear (MLG) to glideslope reception antenna. (ii) Horizontal and vertical distance from MLG to pilot's eyepoint. (iii) Static flight deck cutoff angle. (2) Approach data as follows: (i) Identification of runway. (ii) Horizontal distance from runway threshold to glideslope intercept with runway. (iii) Glideslope angle. (iv) Helicopter pitch angle on approach. (3) Helicopter data for manual testing: (i) Gross weight. (ii) Helicopter configuration. (iii) Approach airspeed. If non-homogenous fog is used to obscure visibility, the vertical variation in horizontal visibility must be described and be included in the slant range visibility calculation used in the computations.
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5.	Sound system
	The sponsor will not be required to repeat the helicopter tests (i.e., tests 5.a.1. through 5.a.8. (or 5.b.1. through 5.b.9.) and 5.c., as appropriate) during continuing qualification evaluations if frequency response and background noise test results are within tolerance when compared to the initial qualification evaluation results, and the sponsor shows that no software changes have occurred that will affect the helicopter test results. If the frequency response test method is chosen and fails, the sponsor may elect to fix the frequency response problem and repeat the test or the sponsor may elect to repeat the helicopter tests. If the helicopter tests are repeated during continuing qualification evaluations, the results may be compared against initial qualification evaluation results or helicopter master data. All tests in this section must be presented using an unweighted 1/3 -octave band format from band 17 to 42 (50 Hz to 16 kHz). A minimum 20 second average must be taken at the location corresponding to the helicopter data set. The helicopter and flight simulator results must be produced using comparable data analysis techniques.
5.a.	Basic requirements
5.a.1.	Ready for engine start.	±5 dB per 1/3 octave band.	Ground	Normal condition prior to engine start. The APU must be on if appropriate.			X
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5.a.2.	All engines at idle; rotor not turning (if applicable) and rotor turning.	±5 dB per 1/3 octave band.	Ground	Normal condition prior to lift-off.			X
5.a.3.	Hover	±5 dB per 1/3 octave band.	Hover				X
5.a.4.	Climb	±5 dB per 1/3 octave band.	En-route climb	Medium altitude			X
5.a.5.	Cruise	±5 dB per 1/3 octave band.	Cruise	Normal cruise configuration.			X
5.a.6.	Final approach	±5 dB per 1/3 octave band.	Landing	Constant airspeed, gear down.			X
5.b.	Special cases
		±5 dB per 1/3 octave band.	As appropriate				X	These special cases are identified as particularly significant during critical phases of flight and ground operations for a specific helicopter type or model.
5.c.	Background noise
		±3 dB per 1/3 octave band.	As appropriate	Results of the background noise at initial qualification must be included in the MQTG. Measurements must be made with the simulation running, the sound muted, and a “dead” flight deck.			X	The simulated sound will be evaluated to ensure that the background noise does not interfere with training, testing, or checking.
5.d.	Frequency response
		±5 dB on three (3) consecutive bands when compared to initial evaluation; and ±2 dB when comparing the average of the absolute differences between initial and continuing qualification evaluation.		Applicable only to Continuing Qualification Evaluations. If frequency response plots are provided for each channel at the initial evaluation, these plots may be repeated at the continuing qualification evaluation with the following tolerances applied: (a) The continuing qualification 1/3 octave band amplitudes must not exceed ±5 dB for three consecutive bands when compared to initial results. (b) The average of the sum of the absolute differences between initial and continuing qualification results must not exceed 2 dB (refer to table C2C in Appendix C).			X	Measurements are compared to those taken during initial qualification evaluation.
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Begin Information 3. General a. If relevant winds are present in the objective data, the wind vector should be clearly noted as part of the data presentation, expressed in conventional terminology, and related to the runway being used for test near the ground. b. The reader is encouraged to review the Airplane Flight Simulator Evaluation Handbook, Volumes I and II, published by the Royal Aeronautical Society, London, UK, and FAA AC 25-7, as amended, Flight Test Guide for Certification of Transport Category Airplanes, and AC 23-8, as amended, Flight Test Guide for Certification of Part 23 Airplanes, for references and examples regarding flight testing requirements and techniques. 4. Control Dynamics a. General. The characteristics of a helicopter flight control system have a major effect on the handling qualities. A significant consideration in pilot acceptability of a helicopter is the “feel” provided through the flight controls. Considerable effort is expended on helicopter feel system design so that pilots will be comfortable and will consider the helicopter desirable to fly. In order for an FFS to be representative, it should “feel” like the helicopter being simulated. Compliance with this requirement is determined by comparing a recording of the control feel dynamics of the FFS to actual helicopter measurements in the hover and cruise configurations. (1) Recordings such as free response to an impulse or step function are classically used to estimate the dynamic properties of electromechanical systems. In any case, it is only possible to estimate the dynamic properties as a result of only being able to estimate true inputs and responses. Therefore, it is imperative that the best possible data be collected since close matching of the FFS control loading system to the helicopter system is essential. The required dynamic control tests are described in Table C2A of this attachment. (2) For initial and upgrade evaluations, the QPS requires that control dynamics characteristics be measured and recorded directly from the flight controls (Handling Qualities—Table C2A). This procedure is usually accomplished by measuring the free response of the controls using a step or impulse input to excite the system. The procedure should be accomplished in the hover and cruise flight conditions and configurations. (3) For helicopters with irreversible control systems, measurements may be obtained on the ground if proper pitot-static inputs are provided to represent airspeeds typical of those encountered in flight. Likewise, it may be shown that for some helicopters, hover, climb, cruise, and autorotation have like effects. Thus, one may suffice for another. If either or both considerations apply, engineering validation or helicopter manufacturer rationale should be submitted as justification for ground tests or for eliminating a configuration. For FFSs requiring static and dynamic tests at the controls, special test fixtures will not be required during initial and upgrade evaluations if the QTG shows both test fixture results and the results of an alternate approach (e.g., computer plots that were produced concurrently and show satisfactory agreement). Repeat of the alternate method during the initial evaluation satisfies this test requirement. b. Control Dynamics Evaluations. The dynamic properties of control systems are often stated in terms of frequency, damping, and a number of other classical measurements. In order to establish a consistent means of validating test results for FFS control loading, criteria are needed that will clearly define the measurement interpretation and the applied tolerances. Criteria are needed for underdamped, critically damped and overdamped systems. In the case of an underdamped system with very light damping, the system may be quantified in terms of frequency and damping. In critically damped or overdamped systems, the frequency and damping are not readily measured from a response time history. Therefore, the following suggested measurements may be used: (1) For Levels C and D simulators. Tests to verify that control feel dynamics represent the helicopter should show that the dynamic damping cycles (free response of the controls) match those of the helicopter within specified tolerances. The responsible Flight Standards office recognizes that several different testing methods may be used to verify the control feel dynamic response. The responsible Flight Standards office will consider the merits of testing methods based on reliability and consistency. One acceptable method of evaluating the response and the tolerance to be applied is described below for the underdamped and critically damped cases. A sponsor using this method to comply with the QPS requirements should perform the tests as follows: (a) Underdamped Response. Two measurements are required for the period, the time to first zero crossing (in case a rate limit is present) and the subsequent frequency of oscillation. It is necessary to measure cycles on an individual basis in case there are non-uniform periods in the response. Each period will be independently compared to the respective period of the helicopter control system and, consequently, will enjoy the full tolerance specified for that period. The damping tolerance will be applied to overshoots on an individual basis. Care should be taken when applying the tolerance to small overshoots since the significance of such overshoots becomes questionable. Only those overshoots larger than 5 percent of the total initial displacement should be considered significant. The residual band, labeled T(A d ) on Figure C2A is ±5 percent of the initial displacement amplitude A d from the steady state value of the oscillation. Only oscillations outside the residual band are considered significant. When comparing FFS data to helicopter data, the process should begin by overlaying or aligning the FFS and helicopter steady state values and then comparing amplitudes of oscillation peaks, the time of the first zero crossing, and individual periods of oscillation. The FFS should show the same number of significant overshoots to within one when compared against the helicopter data. The procedure for evaluating the response is illustrated in Figure C2A.

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(b) Critically damped and Overdamped Response. Due to the nature of critically damped and overdamped responses (no overshoots), the time to reach 90 percent of the steady state (neutral point) value should be the same as the helicopter within ±10 percent. The simulator response must be critically damped also. Figure C2B illustrates the procedure. (c) Special considerations. Control systems that exhibit characteristics other than classical overdamped or underdamped responses should meet specified tolerances. In addition, special consideration should be given to ensure that significant trends are maintained. (2) Tolerances. (a) The following summarizes the tolerances, “T” for underdamped systems, and “n” is the sequential period of a full cycle of oscillation. See Figure C2A of this attachment for an illustration of the referenced measurements.

T(P 0 )	±10% of P 0
T(P 1 )	±20% of P 1
T(P 2 )	±30% of P 2
T(P n )	±10(n + 1)% of P n
T(A n )	±10% of A 1 , ±20% of Subsequent Peaks
T(A d )	±5% of A d = residual band

Significant overshoots. First overshoot and ±1 subsequent overshoots (b) The following tolerance applies to critically damped and overdamped systems only. See Figure C2B for an illustration of the reference measurements:

T(P 0 )

±10% of P 0

End Information Begin QPS Requirement c. Alternative method for control dynamics evaluation. (1) An alternative means for validating control dynamics for aircraft with hydraulically powered flight controls and artificial feel systems is by the measurement of control force and rate of movement. For each axis of pitch, roll, and yaw, the control must be forced to its maximum extreme position for the following distinct rates. These tests are conducted under normal flight and ground conditions. (a) Static test—Slowly move the control so that a full sweep is achieved within 95-105 seconds. A full sweep is defined as movement of the controller from neutral to the stop, usually aft or right stop, then to the opposite stop, then to the neutral position. (b) Slow dynamic test—Achieve a full sweep within 8-12 seconds. (c) Fast dynamic test—Achieve a full sweep in within 3-5 seconds. Note: Dynamic sweeps may be limited to forces not exceeding 100 lbs. (44.5 daN).

(d) Tolerances (i) Static test—see Table C2A, FFS Objective Tests, Entries 2.a.1., 2.a.2., and 2.a.3. (ii) Dynamic test—±2 lbs (0.9 daN) or ±10% on dynamic increment above static test. End QPS Requirement Begin Information d. The FAA is open to alternative means that are justified and appropriate to the application. For example, the method described here may not apply to all manufacturers systems and certainly not to aircraft with reversible control systems. Each case is considered on its own merit on an ad hoc basis. If the FAA finds that alternative methods do not result in satisfactory performance, more conventionally accepted methods will have to be used.

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[Please see PDF for image: ER09MY08.034] End Information 5. [Reserved] Begin Information 6. Motion System. a. General. (1) Pilots use continuous information signals to regulate the state of the helicopter. In concert with the instruments and outside-world visual information, whole-body motion feedback is essential in assisting the pilot to control the helicopter dynamics, particularly in the presence of external disturbances. The motion system should meet basic objective performance criteria, and be subjectively tuned at the pilot's seat position to represent the linear and angular accelerations of the helicopter during a prescribed minimum set of maneuvers and conditions. The response of the motion cueing system should be repeatable.

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(2) The Motion System tests in Section 3 of Table C2A are intended to qualify the FFS motion cueing system from a mechanical performance standpoint. Additionally, the list of motion effects provides a representative sample of dynamic conditions that should be present in the flight simulator. An additional list of representative, training-critical maneuvers, selected from Section 1, (Performance tests) and Section 2, (Handling Qualities tests) in Table C2A, that should be recorded during initial qualification (but without tolerance) to indicate the flight simulator motion cueing performance signature have been identified (reference Section 3.e). These tests are intended to help improve the overall standard of FFS motion cueing. b. Motion System Checks. The intent of test 3a, Frequency Response, test 3b, Leg Balance, and test 3c, Turn-Around Check, as described in the Table of Objective Tests, is to demonstrate the performance of the motion system hardware, and to check the integrity of the motion set-up with regard to calibration and wear. These tests are independent of the motion cueing software and should be considered robotic tests. c. Motion System Repeatability. The intent of this test is to ensure that the motion system software and motion system hardware have not degraded or changed over time. This diagnostic test should be completed during continuing qualification checks in lieu of the robotic tests. This will allow an improved ability to determine changes in the software or determine degradation in the hardware. The following information delineates the methodology that should be used for this test. (1) Input: The inputs should be such that rotational accelerations, rotational rates, and linear accelerations are inserted before the transfer from helicopter center of gravity to pilot reference point with a minimum amplitude of 5 deg/sec/sec, 10 deg/sec and 0.3 g, respectively, to provide adequate analysis of the output. (2) Recommended output: (a) Actual platform linear accelerations; the output will comprise accelerations due to both the linear and rotational motion acceleration; (b) Motion actuators position. d. Motion Cueing Performance Signature. (1) Background. The intent of this test is to provide quantitative time history records of motion system response to a selected set of automated QTG maneuvers during initial qualification. It is not intended to be a comparison of the motion platform accelerations against the flight test recorded accelerations (i.e., not to be compared against helicopter cueing). If there is a modification to the initially qualified motion software or motion hardware (e.g., motion washout filter, simulator payload change greater than 10%) then a new baseline may need to be established. (2) Test Selection. The conditions identified in Section 3.e. in Table C2A are those maneuvers where motion cueing is the most discernible. They are general tests applicable to all types of helicopters and should be completed for motion cueing performance signature at any time acceptable to the responsible Flight Standards office prior to or during the initial qualification evaluation, and the results included in the MQTG. (3) Priority. Motion system should be designed with the intent of placing greater importance on those maneuvers that directly influence pilot perception and control of the helicopter motions. For the maneuvers identified in section 3.e. in Table C2A, the flight simulator motion cueing system should have a high tilt co-ordination gain, high rotational gain, and high correlation with respect to the helicopter simulation model. (4) Data Recording. The minimum list of parameters provided should allow for the determination of the flight simulator's motion cueing performance signature for the initial qualification evaluation. The following parameters are recommended as being acceptable to perform such a function: (a) Flight model acceleration and rotational rate commands at the pilot reference point; (b) Motion actuators position; (c) Actual platform position; (d) Actual platform acceleration at pilot reference point. e. Motion Vibrations. (1) Presentation of results. The characteristic motion vibrations may be used to verify that the flight simulator can reproduce the frequency content of the helicopter when flown in specific conditions. The test results should be presented as a Power Spectral Density (PSD) plot with frequencies on the horizontal axis and amplitude on the vertical axis. The helicopter data and flight simulator data should be presented in the same format with the same scaling. The algorithms used for generating the flight simulator data should be the same as those used for the helicopter data. If they are not the same then the algorithms used for the flight simulator data should be proven to be sufficiently comparable. As a minimum the results along the dominant axes should be presented and a rationale for not presenting the other axes should be provided. (2) Interpretation of results. The overall trend of the PSD plot should be considered while focusing on the dominant frequencies. Less emphasis should be placed on the differences at the high frequency and low amplitude portions of the PSD plot. During the analysis, certain structural components of the flight simulator have resonant frequencies that are filtered and may not appear in the PSD plot. If filtering is required, the notch filter bandwidth should be limited to 1 Hz to ensure that the buffet feel is not adversely affected. In addition, a rationale should be provided to explain that the characteristic motion vibration is not being adversely affected by the filtering. The amplitude should match helicopter data as described below. However, if the PSD plot was altered for subjective reasons, a rationale should be provided to justify the change. If the plot is on a logarithmic scale it may be difficult to interpret the amplitude of the buffet in terms of acceleration. For example, a 1 × 10 −3 g-rms 2 /Hz would describe a heavy buffet and may be seen in the deep stall regime. Alternatively, a 1 × 10 −6 g-rms 2 /Hz buffet is almost imperceptable, but may represent a flap buffet at low speed. The previous two examples differ in magnitude by 1000. On a PSD plot this represents three decades (one decade is a change in order of magnitude of 10, and two decades is a change in order of magnitude of 100).

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Note: In the example, “g-rms 2 ” is the mathematical expression for “g's root mean squared.”

f. Table C2B, Motion System Recommendations for Level C and Level D Helicopter Simulators, contains a description of the parameters that should be present in simulator motion systems to provide adequate onset motion cues to helicopter pilots. The information provided covers the six axes of motion (pitch, roll, yaw, vertical, lateral, and longitudinal) and addresses displacement, velocity, and acceleration. Also included is information about the parameters for initial rotational and linear acceleration. The parameters listed in this table apply only to Level C and Level D simulators, and are presented here as recommended targets for motion system capability. They are not requirements. Table C2B—Motion System Recommendations for Level C and Level D Helicopter Simulators

a.	Motion System Envelope
a.1.	Pitch
a.1.a.	Displacement	±25°
a.1.b.	Velocity	±20°/sec
a.1.c.	Acceleration	±100°/sec 2
a.2.	Roll
a.2.a.	Displacement	±25°
a.2.b.	Velocity	±20°/sec
a.2.c.	Acceleration	±100°/sec 2
a.3.	Yaw
a.3.a.	Displacement	±25°
a.3.b.	Velocity—	±20°/sec
a.3.c.	Acceleration	±100°/sec 2
a.4.	Vertical
a.4.a.	Displacement	±34 in.
a.4.b.	Velocity	±24 in.
a.4.c.	Acceleration	±0.8 g.
a.5.	Lateral
a.5.a.	Displacement	±45 in.
a.5.b.	Velocity	±28 in/sec.
a.5.c.	Acceleration	±0.6 g.
a.6.	Longitudinal
a.6.a.	Displacement	±34 in.
a.6.b.	Velocity	±28 in/sec.
a.6.c.	Acceleration	±0.6 g.
a.7.	Initial Rotational Acceleration Ratio.
		All axes 300°/ sec 2 /sec
a.8.	Initial Linear Acceleration Ratio.
a.8.a.	Vertical	±6g/sec
a.8.b.	Lateral	±3g/sec
a.8.c.	Longitudinal	±3g/sec

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[Please see PDF for image: ER09MY08.035] 7. Sound System a. General. The total sound environment in the helicopter is very complex, and changes with atmospheric conditions, helicopter configuration, airspeed, altitude, and power settings. Flight deck sounds are an important component of the flight deck operational environment and provide valuable information to the flight crew. These aural cues can either assist the crew (as an indication of an abnormal situation), or hinder the crew (as a distraction or nuisance). For effective training, the flight simulator should provide flight deck sounds that are perceptible to the pilot during normal and abnormal operations, and that are comparable to those of the helicopter. The flight simulator operator should carefully evaluate background noises in the location where the device will be installed. To demonstrate compliance with the sound requirements, the objective or validation tests in this attachment were selected to provide a representative sample of normal static conditions typically experienced by a pilot.

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b. Alternate propulsion. For FFS with multiple propulsion configurations, any condition listed in Table C2A in this attachment should be presented for evaluation as part of the QTG if identified by the helicopter manufacturer or other data supplier as significantly different due to a change in propulsion system (engine or propeller). c. Data and Data Collection System. (1) Information provided to the flight simulator manufacturer should comply be presented in the format suggested by the “International Air Transport Association (IATA) Flight Simulator Design and Performance Data Requirements,” as amended. This information should contain calibration and frequency response data. (2) The system used to perform the tests listed in Table C2A should comply with the following standards: (a) The specifications for octave, half octave, and third octave band filter sets may be found in American National Standards Institute (ANSI) S1.11-1986. (b) Measurement microphones should be type WS2 or better, as described in International Electrotechnical Commission (IEC) 1094-4-1995. (3) Headsets. If headsets are used during normal operation of the helicopter they should also be used during the flight simulator evaluation. (4) Playback equipment. Playback equipment and recordings of the QTG conditions should be provided during initial evaluations. (5) Background noise. (a) Background noise is the noise in the flight simulator that is not associated with the helicopter, but is caused by the flight simulator's cooling and hydraulic systems and extraneous noise from other locations in the building. Background noise can seriously impact the correct simulation of helicopter sounds, and should be kept below the helicopter sounds. In some cases, the sound level of the simulation can be increased to compensate for the background noise. However, this approach is limited by the specified tolerances and by the subjective acceptability of the sound environment to the evaluation pilot. (b) The acceptability of the background noise levels is dependent upon the normal sound levels in the helicopter being represented. Background noise levels that fall below the lines defined by the following points, may be acceptable: (i) 70 dB @ 50 Hz; (ii) 55 dB @ 1000 Hz; (iii) 30 dB @ 16 kHz. ( Note: These limits are for unweighted 1/3 octave band sound levels. Meeting these limits for background noise does not ensure an acceptable flight simulator. Helicopter sounds that fall below this limit require careful review and may require lower limits on background noise.) (6) Validation testing. Deficiencies in helicopter recordings should be considered when applying the specified tolerances to ensure that the simulation is representative of the helicopter. Examples of typical deficiencies are: (a) Variation of data between tail numbers. (b) Frequency response of microphones. (c) Repeatability of the measurements. Table C2C—Example of Continuing Qualification Frequency Response Test Tolerance

Band center frequency	Initial results (dBSPL)	Continuing qualification results (dBSPL)	Absolute difference
50	75.0	73.8	1.2
63	75.9	75.6	0.3
80	77.1	76.5	0.6
100	78.0	78.3	0.3
125	81.9	81.3	0.6
160	79.8	80.1	0.3
200	83.1	84.9	1.8
250	78.6	78.9	0.3
315	79.5	78.3	1.2
400	80.1	79.5	0.9
500	80.7	79.8	0.9
630	81.9	80.4	1.5
800	73.2	74.1	0.9
1000	79.2	80.1	0.9
1250	80.7	82.8	2.1
1600	81.6	78.6	3.0
2000	76.2	74.4	1.8
2500	79.5	80.7	1.2
3150	80.1	77.1	3.0
4000	78.9	78.6	0.3
5000	80.1	77.1	3.0
6300	80.7	80.4	0.3
8000	84.3	85.5	1.2
10000	81.3	79.8	1.5
12500	80.7	80.1	0.6
16000	71.1	71.1	0.0
	Average	1.1

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8. Additional Information About Flight Simulator Qualification for New or Derivative Helicopters a. Typically, a helicopter manufacturer's approved final data for performance, handling qualities, systems or avionics is not available until well after a new or derivative helicopter has entered service. However, flight crew training and certification often begins several months prior to the entry of the first helicopter into service. Consequently, it may be necessary to use preliminary data provided by the helicopter manufacturer for interim qualification of flight simulators. b. In these cases, the responsible Flight Standards office may accept certain partially validated preliminary helicopter and systems data, and early release (“red label”) avionics data in order to permit the necessary program schedule for training, certification, and service introduction. c. Simulator sponsors seeking qualification based on preliminary data should consult the responsible Flight Standards office to make special arrangements for using preliminary data for flight simulator qualification. The sponsor should also consult the helicopter and flight simulator manufacturers to develop a data plan and flight simulator qualification plan. d. The procedure to be followed to gain the responsible Flight Standards office acceptance of preliminary data will vary from case to case and between helicopter manufacturers. Each helicopter manufacturer's new helicopter development and test program is designed to suit the needs of the particular project and may not contain the same events or sequence of events asanother manufacturer's program or even the same manufacturer's program for a different helicopter. Therefore, there cannot be a prescribed invariable procedure for acceptance of preliminary data; instead there should be a statement describing the final sequence of events, data sources, and validation procedures agreed by the simulator sponsor, the helicopter manufacturer, the flight simulator manufacturer, and the responsible Flight Standards office. Note: A description of helicopter manufacturer-provided data needed for flight simulator modeling and validation is to be found in the “Royal Aeronautical Society Data Package Requirements for Design and Performance Evaluation of Rotary Wing Synthetic Training Devices.”

e. The preliminary data should be the manufacturer's best representation of the helicopter, with assurance that the final data will not deviate significantly from the preliminary estimates. Data derived from these predictive or preliminary techniques should be validated by available sources including, at least, the following: (1) Manufacturer's engineering report. The report should explain the predictive method used and illustrate past success of the method on similar projects. For example, the manufacturer could show the application of the method to an earlier helicopter model or predict the characteristics of an earlier model and compare the results to final data for that model. (2) Early flight test results. This data is often derived from helicopter certification tests and should be used to maximum advantage for early flight simulator validation. Certain critical tests that would normally be done early in the helicopter certification program should be included to validate essential pilot training and certification maneuvers. These tests include cases where a pilot is expected to cope with a helicopter failure mode or an engine failure. The early data available will depend on the helicopter manufacturer's flight test program design and may not be the same in each case. The flight test program of the helicopter manufacturer should include provisions for generation of very early flight tests results for flight simulator validation. f. The use of preliminary data is not indefinite. The helicopter manufacturer's final data should be available within 12 months after the helicopter first entry into service or as agreed by the responsible Flight Standards office, the simulator sponsor, and the helicopter manufacturer. When applying for interim qualification using preliminary data, the simulator sponsor and the responsible Flight Standards office should agree on the update program. This includes specifying that the final data update will be installed in the flight simulator within a period of 12 months following the final data release, unless special conditions exist and a different schedule is acceptable. The flight simulator performance and handling validation would then be based on data derived from flight tests. Initial helicopter systems data should be updated after engineering tests. Final helicopter systems data should also be used for flight simulator programming and validation. g. Flight simulator avionics should stay essentially in step with helicopter avionics (hardware and software) updates. The permitted time lapse between helicopter and flight simulator updates should be minimal. It may depend on the magnitude of the update and whether the QTG and pilot training and certification are affected. Differences in helicopter and flight simulator avionics versions and the resulting effects on flight simulator qualification should be agreed between the simulator sponsor and the responsible Flight Standards office. Consultation with the flight simulator manufacturer is desirable throughout the qualification process. h. The following describes an example of the design data and sources that might be used in the development of an interim qualification plan.

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(1) The plan should consist of the development of a QTG based upon a mix of flight test and engineering simulation data. For data collected from specific helicopter flight tests or other flights the required design model or data changes necessary to support an acceptable Proof of Match (POM) should be generated by the helicopter manufacturer. (2) For proper validation of the two sets of data, the helicopter manufacturer should compare their simulation model responses against the flight test data, when driven by the same control inputs and subjected to the same atmospheric conditions as recorded in the flight test. The model responses should result from a simulation where the following systems are run in an integrated fashion and are consistent with the design data released to the flight simulator manufacturer: (a) Propulsion. (b) Aerodynamics. (c) Mass properties. (d) Flight controls. (e) Stability augmentation. (f) Brakes/landing gear. i. A qualified test pilot should be used to assess handling qualities and performance evaluations for the qualification of flight simulators of new helicopter types. End Information Begin QPS Requirement 9. Engineering Simulator—Validation Data a. When a fully validated simulation (i.e., validated with flight test results) is modified due to changes to the simulated helicopter configuration, the helicopter manufacturer or other acceptable data supplier must coordinate with the responsible Flight Standards office to supply validation data from an “audited” engineering simulator/simulation to selectively supplement flight test data. The responsible Flight Standards office must be provided an opportunity to audit the use of the engineering simulation or the engineering simulator during the acquisition of the data that will be used as validation data. Audited data may be used for changes that are incremental in nature. Manufacturers or other data suppliers must be able to demonstrate that the predicted changes in helicopter performance are based on acceptable aeronautical principles with proven success history and valid outcomes. This must include comparisons of predicted and flight test validated data. b. Helicopter manufacturers or other acceptable data suppliers seeking to use an engineering simulator for simulation validation data as an alternative to flight-test derived validation data, must contact the responsible Flight Standards office and provide the following: (1) A description of the proposed aircraft changes, a description of the proposed simulation model changes, and the use of an integral configuration management process, including an audit of the actual simulation model modifications that includes a step-by-step description leading from the original model(s) to the current model(s). (2) A schedule for review by the responsible Flight Standards office of the proposed plan and the subsequent validation data to establish acceptability of the proposal. (3) Validation data from an audited engineering simulator/simulation to supplement specific segments of the flight test data. c. To be qualified to supply engineering simulator validation data, for aerodynamic, engine, flight control, or ground handling models, a helicopter manufacturer or other acceptable data supplier must: (1) Be able to verify their ability to: (a) Develop and implement high fidelity simulation models; and (b) Predict the handling and performance characteristics of a helicopter with sufficient accuracy to avoid additional flight test activities for those handling and performance characteristics. (2) Have an engineering simulator that: (a) Is a physical entity, complete with a flight deck representative of the simulated class of helicopter; (b) Has controls sufficient for manual flight; (c) Has models that run in an integrated manner; (d) Had fully flight-test validated simulation models as the original or baseline simulation models; (e) Has an out-of-the-flight deck visual system; (f) Has actual avionics boxes interchangeable with the equivalent software simulations to support validation of released software; (g) Uses the same models as released to the training community (which are also used to produce stand-alone proof-of-match and checkout documents); (h) Is used to support helicopter development and certification; and (i) Has been found to be a high fidelity representation of the helicopter by the manufacturer's pilots (or other acceptable data supplier), certificate holders, and the responsible Flight Standards office. (3) Use the engineering simulator to produce a representative set of integrated proof-of-match cases. (4) Use a configuration control system covering hardware and software for the operating components of the engineering simulator. (5) Demonstrate that the predicted effects of the change(s) are within the provisions of sub-paragraph “a” of this section, and confirm that additional flight test data are not required.

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d. Additional Requirements for Validation Data (1) When used to provide validation data, an engineering simulator must meet the simulator standards currently applicable to training simulators except for the data package. (2) The data package used must be: (a) Comprised of the engineering predictions derived from the helicopter design, development, or certification process; (b) Based on acceptable aeronautical principles with proven success history and valid outcomes for aerodynamics, engine operations, avionics operations, flight control applications, or ground handling; (c) Verified with existing flight-test data; and (d) Applicable to the configuration of a production helicopter, as opposed to a flight-test helicopter. (3) Where engineering simulator data are used as part of a QTG, an essential match must exist between the training simulator and the validation data. (4) Training flight simulator(s) using these baseline and modified simulation models must be qualified to at least internationally recognized standards, such as contained in the ICAO Document 9625, the “Manual of Criteria for the Qualification of Flight Simulators.” End QPS Requirement 10. [Reserved] 11. Validation Test Tolerances Begin Information a. Non-Flight-Test Tolerances. If engineering simulator data or other non-flight-test data are used as an allowable form of reference validation data for the objective tests listed in Table C2A of this attachment, the data provider must supply a well-documented mathematical model and testing procedure that enables a replication of the engineering simulation results within 20% of the corresponding flight test tolerances. b. Background (1) The tolerances listed in Table C2A of this attachment are designed to measure the quality of the match using flight-test data as a reference. (2) Good engineering judgment should be applied to all tolerances in any test. A test is failed when the results fall outside of the prescribed tolerance(s). (3) Engineering simulator data are acceptable because the same simulation models used to produce the reference data are also used to test the flight training simulator (i.e., the two sets of results should be “essentially” similar). (4) The results from the two sources may differ for the following reasons: (a) Hardware (avionics units and flight controls); (b) Iteration rates; (c) Execution order; (d) Integration methods; (e) Processor architecture; (f) Digital drift, including: (i) Interpolation methods; (ii) Data handling differences; (iii) Auto-test trim tolerances. (5) The tolerance limit between the reference data and the flight simulator results is generally 20% of the corresponding “flight-test” tolerances. However, there may be cases where the simulator models used are of higher fidelity, or the manner in which they are cascaded in the integrated testing loop have the effect of a higher fidelity, than those supplied by the data provider. Under these circumstances, it is possible that an error greater than 20% may be generated. An error greater than 20% may be acceptable if the simulator sponsor can provide an adequate explanation. (6) Guidelines are needed for the application of tolerances to engineering-simulator-generated validation data because: (a) Flight-test data are often not available due to sound technical reasons; (b) Alternative technical solutions are being advanced; and (c) The costs are high. 12. Validation Data Roadmap a. Helicopter manufacturers or other data suppliers should supply a validation data roadmap (VDR) document as part of the data package. A VDR document contains guidance material from the helicopter validation data supplier recommending the best possible sources of data to be used as validation data in the QTG. A VDR is of special value when requesting interim qualification, qualification of simulators for helicopters certificated prior to 1992, and qualification of alternate engine or avionics fits. A sponsor seeking to have a device qualified in accordance with the standards contained in this QPS appendix should submit a VDR to the responsible Flight Standards office as early as possible in the planning stages. The NSPM is the final authority to approve the data to be used as validation material for the QTG. The responsible Flight Standards office and the Joint Aviation Authorities' Synthetic Training Devices Advisory Board have committed to maintain a list of agreed VDRs. b. The VDR should identify (in matrix format) sources of data for all required tests. It should also provide guidance regarding the validity of these data for a specific engine type, thrust rating configuration, and the revision levels of all avionics affecting helicopter handling qualities and performance. The VDR should include rationale or explanation in cases where data or parameters are missing, engineering simulation data are to be used, flight test methods require explanation, or where there is any deviation from data requirements. Additionally, the document should refer to other appropriate sources of validation data (e.g., sound and vibration data documents).

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c. The Sample Validation Data Roadmap (VDR) for helicopters, shown in Table C2D, depicts a generic roadmap matrix identifying sources of validation data for an abbreviated list of tests. This sample document uses fixed wing parameters instead of helicopter values. It is merely a sample and does not provide actual data. A complete matrix should address all test conditions for helicopter application and provide actual data and data sources. d. Two examples of rationale pages are presented in Appendix F of IATA Flight Simulator Design and Performance Data Requirements document. These illustrate the type of helicopter and avionics configuration information and descriptive engineering rationale used to describe data anomalies or provide an acceptable basis for using alternative data for QTG validation requirements. End Information

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Begin Information 13. [Reserved] 14. Acceptance Guidelines for Alternative Avionics (Flight-Related Computers and Controllers) a. Background (1) For a new helicopter type, the majority of flight validation data are collected on the first helicopter configuration with a “baseline” flight-related avionics ship-set; (see subparagraph b.(2) of this section). These data are then used to validate all flight simulators representing that helicopter type. (2) Additional validation data may be needed for flight simulators representing a helicopter with avionics of a different hardware design than the baseline, or a different software revision than that of previously validated configurations. (3) When a flight simulator with additional or alternate avionics configurations is to be qualified, the QTG should contain tests against validation data for selected cases where avionics differences are expected to be significant. b. Approval Guidelines For Validating Alternate Avionics (1) The following guidelines apply to flight simulators representing helicopters with a revised avionics configuration, or more than one avionics configuration. (2) The baseline validation data should be based on flight test data, except where other data are specifically allowed (e.g., engineering flight simulator data). (3) The helicopter avionics can be segmented into two groups, systems or components whose functional behavior contributes to the aircraft response presented in the QTG results, and systems that do not. The following avionics are examples of contributory systems for which hardware design changes or software revisions may lead to significant differences in the aircraft response relative to the baseline avionics configuration: Flight control computers and controllers for engines, autopilot, braking system, and nosewheel steering system, if applicable. Related avionics such as augmentation systems should also be considered. (4) The acceptability of validation data used in the QTG for an alternative avionics fit should be determined as follows: (a) For changes to an avionics system or component that do not affect QTG validation test response, the QTG test can be based on validation data from the previously validated avionics configuration. (b) For an avionics change to a contributory system, where a specific test is not affected by the change (e.g., the avionics change is a Built In Test Equipment (BITE) update or a modification in a different flight phase), the QTG test can be based on validation data from the previously-validated avionics configuration. The QTG should include authoritative justification (e.g., from the helicopter manufacturer or system supplier) that this avionics change does not affect the test. (c) For an avionics change to a contributory system, the QTG may be based on validation data from the previously-validated avionics configuration if no new functionality is added and the impact of the avionics change on the helicopter response is based on acceptable aeronautical principles with proven success history and valid outcomes. This should be supplemented with avionics-specific validation data from the helicopter manufacturer's engineering simulation, generated with the revised avionics configuration. The QTG should include an explanation of the nature of the change and its effect on the helicopter response. (d) For an avionics change to a contributory system that significantly affects some tests in the QTG, or where new functionality is added, the QTG should be based on validation data from the previously validated avionics configuration and supplemental avionics-specific flight test data sufficient to validate the alternate avionics revision. Additional flight test validation data may not be needed if the avionics changes were certified without the need for testing with a comprehensive flight instrumentation package. The helicopter manufacturer should coordinate flight simulator data requirements in advance with the responsible Flight Standards office. (5) A matrix or “roadmap” should be provided with the QTG indicating the appropriate validation data source for each test. The roadmap should include identification of the revision state of those contributory avionics systems that could affect specific test responses. 15. Transport Delay Testing a. This paragraph describes how to determine the introduced transport delay through the flight simulator system so that it does not exceed a specific time delay. The transport delay should be measured from control inputs through the interface, through each of the host computer modules and back through the interface to motion, flight instrument, and visual systems. The transport delay should not exceed the maximum allowable interval. b. Four specific examples of transport delay are: (1) Simulation of classic non-computer controlled aircraft; (2) Simulation of Computer Controlled Aircraft using real helicopter black boxes;

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(3) Simulation of Computer Controlled Aircraft using software emulation of helicopter boxes; (4) Simulation using software avionics or rehosted instruments. c. Figure C2C illustrates the total transport delay for a non-computer-controlled helicopter or the classic transport delay test. Since there are no helicopter-induced delays for this case, the total transport delay is equivalent to the introduced delay. d. Figure C2D illustrates the transport delay testing method using the real helicopter controller system. e. To obtain the induced transport delay for the motion, instrument and visual signal, the delay induced by the helicopter controller should be subtracted from the total transport delay. This difference represents the introduced delay and should not exceed the standards prescribed in Table C1A. f. Introduced transport delay is measured from the flight deck control input to the reaction of the instruments and motion and visual systems (See Figure C2C). g. The control input may also be introduced after the helicopter controller system input and the introduced transport delay may be measured directly from the control input to the reaction of the instruments, and simulator motion and visual systems (See Figure C2D). h. Figure C2E illustrates the transport delay testing method used on a flight simulator that uses a software emulated helicopter controller system. i. It is not possible to measure the introduced transport delay using the simulated helicopter controller system architecture for the pitch, roll and yaw axes. Therefore, the signal should be measured directly from the pilot controller. The flight simulator manufacturer should measure the total transport delay and subtract the inherent delay of the actual helicopter components because the real helicopter controller system has an inherent delay provided by the helicopter manufacturer. The flight simulator manufacturer should ensure that the introduced delay does not exceed the standards prescribed in Table C1A. j. Special measurements for instrument signals for flight simulators using a real helicopter instrument display system instead of a simulated or re-hosted display. For flight instrument systems, the total transport delay should be measured and the inherent delay of the actual helicopter components subtracted to ensure that the introduced delay does not exceed the standards prescribed in Table C1A. (1) Figure C2FA illustrates the transport delay procedure without helicopter display simulation. The introduced delay consists of the delay between the control movement and the instrument change on the data bus. (2) Figure C2FB illustrates the modified testing method required to measure introduced delay due to software avionics or re-hosted instruments. The total simulated instrument transport delay is measured and the helicopter delay should be subtracted from this total. This difference represents the introduced delay and should not exceed the standards prescribed in Table C1A. The inherent delay of the helicopter between the data bus and the displays is indicated in figure C2FA. The display manufacturer should provide this delay time. k. Recorded signals. The signals recorded to conduct the transport delay calculations should be explained on a schematic block diagram. The flight simulator manufacturer should also provide an explanation of why each signal was selected and how they relate to the above descriptions. l. Interpretation of results. Flight simulator results vary over time from test to test due to “sampling uncertainty.” All flight simulators run at a specific rate where all modules are executed sequentially in the host computer. The flight controls input can occur at any time in the iteration, but these data will not be processed before the start of the new iteration. For example, a flight simulator running at 60 Hz may have a difference of as much as 16.67 msec between results. This does not mean that the test has failed. Instead, the difference is attributed to variation in input processing. In some conditions, the host simulator and the visual system do not run at the same iteration rate, so the output of the host computer to the visual system will not always be synchronized. m. The transport delay test should account for both daylight and night modes of operation of the visual system. In both cases, the tolerances prescribed in Table C1A should be met and the motion response should occur before the end of the first video scan containing new information.

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[Please see PDF for image: ER09MY08.038] 16. Continuing Qualification Evaluations—Validation Test Data Presentation a. Background (1) The MQTG is created during the initial evaluation of a flight simulator. This is the master document, as amended, to which flight simulator continuing qualification evaluation test results are compared. (2) The currently accepted method of presenting continuing qualification evaluation test results is to provide flight simulator results over-plotted with reference data. Test results are carefully reviewed to determine if the test is within the specified tolerances. This can be a time consuming process, particularly when reference data exhibits rapid variations or an apparent anomaly requiring engineering judgment in the application of the tolerances. In these cases, the solution is to compare the results to the MQTG. The continuing qualification results are compared to the results in the MQTG for acceptance. The flight simulator operator and the responsible Flight Standards office should look for any change in the flight simulator performance since initial qualification.

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b. Continuing Qualification Evaluation Test Results Presentation (1) Flight simulator operators are encouraged to over-plot continuing qualification validation test results with MQTG flight simulator results recorded during the initial evaluation and as amended. Any change in a validation test will be readily apparent. In addition to plotting continuing qualification validation test and MQTG results, operators may elect to plot reference data. (2) There are no suggested tolerances between flight simulator continuing qualification and MQTG validation test results. Investigation of any discrepancy between the MQTG and continuing qualification flight simulator performance is left to the discretion of the flight simulator operator and the responsible Flight Standards office. (3) Differences between the two sets of results, other than variations attributable to repeatability issues that cannot be explained should be investigated. (4) The flight simulator should retain the ability to over-plot both automatic and manual validation test results with reference data. End Information Begin QPS Requirements 17. Alternative Data Sources, Procedures, and Instrumentation: Level B Simulators Only a. Sponsors are not required to use the alternative data sources, procedures, and instrumentation. However, any sponsor choosing to use alternative sources must comply with the requirements in Table C2E. End QPS Requirements Begin Information b. It has become standard practice for experienced simulator manufacturers to use such techniques as a means of establishing data bases for new simulator configurations while awaiting the availability of actual flight test data. The data generated from the aerodynamic modeling techniques is then compared to the flight test data when it becomes available. The results of such comparisons have become increasingly consistent, indicating that these techniques, applied with appropriate experience, are dependable and accurate for the development of aerodynamic models for use in Level B simulators. c. Based on this history of successful comparisons, the responsible Flight Standards office has concluded that those who are experienced in the development of aerodynamic models for simulator application can successfully use these modeling techniques to alter the method for acquiring flight test data for Level B simulators. d. The information in Table C2E (Alternative Data Sources, Procedures, and Information) is presented to describe an acceptable alternative to data sources for simulator modeling and validation and an acceptable alternative to the procedures and instrumentation traditionally used to gather such modeling and validation data. (1) Alternative data sources that may be used for part or all of a data requirement are the Helicopter Maintenance Manual, the Rotorcraft Flight Manual (RFM), Helicopter Design Data, the Type Inspection Report (TIR), Certification Data or acceptable supplemental flight test data. (2) The sponsor should coordinate with the responsible Flight Standards office prior to using alternative data sources in a flight test or data gathering effort. e. The responsible Flight Standards office position on the use of these alternative data sources, procedures, and instrumentation is based on the use of a rigorously defined and fully mature simulation controls system model that includes accurate gearing and cable stretch characteristics (where applicable), determined from actual aircraft measurements. The model does not require control surface position measurements in the flight test objective data in these limited applications. f. Data may be acquired by using an inertial measurement system and a synchronized video of the calibrated helicopter instruments, including the inclinometer; the force/position measurements of flight deck controls; and a clear visual directional reference for a known magnetic bearing (e.g., a runway centerline). Ground track and wind corrected heading may be used for sideslip angle. g. The sponsor is urged to contact the responsible Flight Standards office for clarification of any issue regarding helicopters with reversible control systems. This table is not applicable to Computer Controlled Aircraft flight simulators. h. Use of these alternate data sources, procedures, and instrumentation does not relieve the sponsor from compliance with the balance of the information contained in this document relative to Level B FFSs. i. The term “inertial measurement system” is used in table C2E includes the use of a functional global positioning system (GPS).

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j. Synchronized video for the use of alternative data sources, procedures, and instrumentation should have: (1) sufficient resolution to allow magnification of the display to make appropriate measurement and comparisons; and (2) sufficient size and incremental marking to allow similar measurement and comparison. The detail provided by the video should provide sufficient clarity and accuracy to measure the necessary parameter(s) to at least 1/2 of the tolerance authorized for the specific test being conducted and allow an integration of the parameter(s) in question to obtain a rate of change. End Information Table C2E—Alternative Data Sources, Procedures, and Instrumentation

[The standards in this table are required if the data gathering methods described in paragraph 9 of Appendix C are not used]
QPS requirements	Table of objective tests	Test entry number and title	Level By only	Alternative data sources, procedures, and instrumentation	Information	Notes
1.a.1.a. Performance. Engine Start and Accelerations	X	Data may be acquired using a synchronized video recording of all engine instruments, start buttons, means for fuel introduction and means for moving from “idle” to “flight.” A stopwatch is necessary
1.a.1.b. Performance. Steady State Idle and Operating RPM Conditions	X	Data may be acquired using a synchronized video recording of all engine instruments, and include the status of the means for moving from “idle” to “flight.”
1.a.2. Performance. Power Turbine Speed Trim	X	Data may be acquired using a synchronized video recording of all engine instruments. Speed trim actuator position may be hand recorded
1.a.3. Performance. Engine and Rotor Speed Governing	X	Data may be acquired by using a synchronized video of the calibrated helicopter instruments and the force/position measurements of flight deck controls
1.b.1. Performance. On Surface Taxi. Minimum Radius Turn	X	TIR, AFM, or Design data may be used
1.b.2. Performance. On Surface Taxi Rate of Turn vs. Nosewheel Steering Angle	X	Data may be acquired by using a constant tiller position (measured with a protractor), or full pedal application for steady state turn, and synchronized video of heading indicator. If less than full pedal is used, pedal position must be recorded.	A single procedure may not be adequate for all rotorcraft steering systems. Appropriate measurement procedures must be devised and proposed for responsible Flight Standards office concurrence.
1.b.3. Performance. Taxi	X	Data may be acquired by using a synchronized video of the calibrated helicopter instruments and the force/position measurements of flight deck controls
1.b.4. Performance. Brake	X	Data may be acquired using a stopwatch and a means for measuring distance such as runway distance markers conforming with runway distance marker standards
1.c.1. Performance. Running Takeoff	X	Preliminary certification data may be used. Data may be acquired by using a synchronized video of the calibrated helicopter instruments and the force/position measurements of flight deck controls. Collective, cyclic, and pedal position time history must be recorded from the start of collective movement through to normal climb. Indicated torque settings may be hand recorded at the moment of lift-off and in a steady normal climb
1.c.2. Performance. One Engine Inoperative (OEI), continued takeoff	X	Data may be acquired by using a synchronized video of the calibrated helicopter instruments and the force/position measurements of flight deck controls. Collective, cyclic, and pedal position time history must be recorded from the start of collective movement through to normal OEI climb. Indicated torque settings may be hand recorded at the moment of lift-off and in a steady normal OEI climb
1.f. Performance. Level Flight. Trimmed Flight Control Positions	X	Data may be acquired by using a synchronized video of the calibrated helicopter instruments and the force/position measurements of flight deck controls
1.g. Performance. Normal Climb. Trimmed Flight Control Positions	X	Data may be acquired by using a synchronized video of the calibrated helicopter instruments and the force/position measurements of flight deck controls
1.h.1. Descent Performance and Trimmed Flight Control Positions	X	Data may be acquired by using a synchronized video of the calibrated helicopter instruments and the force/position measurements of flight deck controls
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1.h.2. Autorotation Performance and Trimmed Flight Control Positions	X	Data may be acquired by using a synchronized video of the calibrated helicopter instruments and the force/position measurements of flight deck controls
1.j.1. Performance. Running Landing All Engines	X	Data may be acquired by using a synchronized video of the calibrated helicopter instruments and the force/position measurements of flight deck controls
1.j.2. Performance. Running Landing One Engine Inoperative	X	Data may be acquired by using a synchronized video of the calibrated helicopter instruments and the force/position measurements of flight deck controls
1.j.3. Performance. Balked Landing	X	Data may be acquired by using a synchronized video of the calibrated helicopter instruments and the force/position measurements of flight deck controls. The synchronized video must record the time of the “balk landing” decision
2.a.1. Handling Qualities. Static Control Checks. Cyclic Controller Position vs. Force	X	Control positions can be obtained using continuous control position recordings. Force data may be acquired by using a hand held force gauge so that the forces can be cross-plotted against control position in each of the control axes
2.a.2. Handling Qualities. Static Control Checks. Collective/Pedals vs. Force	X	Control positions can be obtained using continuous control position recordings. Force data may be acquired by using a hand held force gauge so that the forces can be cross-plotted against control position in each of the control axes
2.a.3. Handling Qualities. Brake Pedal Force vs. Position	X	Brake pedal positions can be obtained using continuous position recordings. Force data may be acquired by using a hand held force gauge so that the forces can be cross-plotted against brake pedal position
2.a.4. Handling Qualities. Trim System Rate (all applicable systems)	X	Control positions can be obtained using continuous control position recordings plotted against time to provide rate in each applicable system
2.a.6. Handling Qualities. Control System Freeplay	X	Data may be acquired by direct measurement
2.c.1. Longitudinal Handling Qualities. Control Response	X	Data may be acquired by using an inertial measurement system, a synchronized video of the calibrated helicopter instruments and the force/position measurements of flight deck controls
2.c.2. Longitudinal Handling Qualities. Static Stability	X	Data may be acquired by using an inertial measurement system, a synchronized video of the calibrated helicopter instruments and the force/position measurements of flight deck controls
2.c.3.a. Longitudinal Handling Qualities. Dynamic Stability, Long Term Response	X	Data may be acquired by using an inertial measurement system, a synchronized video of the calibrated helicopter instruments and the force/position measurements of flight deck controls
2.c.3.b. Longitudinal Handling Qualities. Dynamic Stability, Short Term Response	X	Data may be acquired by using an inertial measurement system, a synchronized video of the calibrated helicopter instruments and the force/position measurements of flight deck controls
2.c.4. Longitudinal Handling Qualities. Maneuvering stability	X	Data may be acquired by using an inertial measurement system, a synchronized video of the calibrated helicopter instruments and the force/position measurements of flight deck controls
2.d.1.a. Lateral Handling Qualities. Control Response	X	Data may be acquired by using an inertial measurement system, a synchronized video of the calibrated helicopter instruments and the force/position measurements of flight deck controls
2.d.1.b Directional Handling Qualities. Control Response.	X	Data may be acquired by using an inertial measurement system and a synchronized video of calibrated helicopter instruments and force/position measurements of flight deck directional controls
2.d.2. Handling Qualities. Directional Static Stability	X	Data may be acquired by using an inertial measurement system and a synchronized video of calibrated helicopter instruments and force/position measurements of flight deck directional controls
2.d.3.a. Handling Qualities. Dynamic Lateral and Directional Stability Lateral-Directional Oscillations	X	Data may be acquired by using an inertial measurement system and a synchronized video of the calibrated helicopter instruments, the force/position measurements of flight deck controls, and a stop watch
2.d.3.b. Handling Qualities. Dynamic Lateral and Directional Stability Spiral Stability	X	Data may be acquired by using an inertial measurement system and a synchronized video of the calibrated helicopter instruments, the force/position measurements of flight deck controls, and a stop watch
2.d.3.c. Handling Qualities. Dynamic Lateral and Directional Stability. Adverse/Proverse Yaw	X	Data may be acquired by using an inertial measurement system and a synchronized video of the calibrated helicopter instruments, the force/position measurements of flight deck controls
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Begin Information 18. Visual Display Systems. a. Basic principles of a FFS collimated display: (1) The essential feature of a collimated display is that light rays coming from a given point in a picture are parallel. There are two main implications of the parallel rays: (a) The viewer's eyes focus at infinity and have zero convergence, providing a cue that the object is distant; and (b) The angle to any given point in the picture does not change when viewed from a different position so the object behaves geometrically as though it were located at a significant distance from the viewer. These cues are self-consistent, and are appropriate for any object that has been modeled as being at a significant distance from the viewer. (2) In an ideal situation the rays are perfectly parallel, but most implementations provide only an approximation to the ideal. Typically, an FFS display provides an image located not closer than about 20-33 ft (6-10 m) from the viewer, with the distance varying over the field-of-view. A schematic representation of a collimated display is provided in Figure C2A. (3) Collimated displays are well suited to many simulation applications as the area of interest is relatively distant from the observer so the angles to objects should remain independent of viewing position. Consider the view of the runway seen by the flight crew lined up on an approach. In the real world, the runway is distant and the light rays from the runway to the eyes are parallel. The runway appears to be straight ahead to both crew members. This situation is well simulated by a collimated display and is presented in Figure C2B. Note that the distance to the runway has been shortened for clarity. If drawn to scale, the runway would be farther away and the rays from the two seats would be closer to being parallel. (4) While the horizontal field-of-view of a collimated display can be extended to approximately 210°-220°, the vertical field-of-view has been limited to about 40°-45°. These limitations result from tradeoffs in optical quality and interference between the display components and flight deck structures, but were sufficient to meet FFS regulatory approval for Helicopter FFSs. However, recent designs have been introduced with vertical fields of view of up to 60° for helicopter applications. b. Basic principles of a FFS dome (or non-collimated) display: (1) The situation in a dome display is shown in Figure C2C. As the angles can be correct for only one eye point at a time, the visual system in the figure has been aligned for the right seat eye point position. The runway appears to be straight ahead of the aircraft for this viewer. For the left seat viewer, however, the runway appears to be somewhat to the right of the aircraft. As the aircraft is still moving towards the runway, the perceived velocity vector will be directed towards the runway and this will be interpreted as the aircraft having some yaw offset. (2) The situation is substantially different for near field objects encountered in helicopter operations close to the ground. In those cases, objects that should be interpreted as being close to the viewer will be misinterpreted as being distant in a collimated display. The errors can actually be reduced in a dome display. (3) The field-of-view possible with a dome display can be larger than that of a collimated display. Depending on the configuration, a field-of-view of 240° by 90° is possible and can be exceeded. c. Additional display considerations (1) While the situations described above are for discrete viewing positions, the same arguments can be extended to moving eye points produced by the viewer's head movement. In the real world, the parallax effects resulting from head movement provide distance cues. The effect is particularly strong for relative movement of flight deck structure in the near field and modeled objects in the distance. Collimated displays will provide accurate parallax cues for distant objects, but increasingly inaccurate cues for near field objects. The situation is reversed for dome displays.

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(2) Stereopsis cues resulting from the different images presented to each eye for objects relatively close to the viewer also provide depth cues. Again, the collimated and dome displays provide more or less accurate cues depending on the modeled distance of the objects being viewed. d. Training implications (1) In view of the basic principles described above, it is clear that neither display approach provides a completely accurate image for all possible object distances. The sponsor should consider the training role of the FFS when configuring the display system to make the optimum choice. Factors that should be considered include relative importance of training tasks at low altitudes, the role of the two crew members in the flying tasks, and the field-of-view required for specific training tasks.

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[Please see PDF for image: ER09MY08.039] Attachment 3 to Appendix C to Part 60—Simulator Subjective Evaluation Begin QPS Requirements 1. Requirements a. Except for special use airport models, all airport models required by this part must be representations of real-world, operational airports or representations of fictional airports and must meet the requirements set out in Tables C3B or C3C of this attachment, as appropriate. b. If fictional airports are used, the sponsor must ensure that navigational aids and all appropriate maps, charts, and other navigational reference material for the fictional airports (and surrounding areas as necessary) are compatible, complete, and accurate with respect to the visual presentation and airport model of this fictional airport. An SOC must be submitted that addresses navigation aid installation and performance and other criteria (including obstruction clearance protection) for all instrument approaches to the fictional airports that are available in the simulator. The SOC must reference and account for information in the terminal instrument procedures manual and the construction and availability of the required maps, charts, and other navigational material. This material must be clearly marked “for training purposes only.”

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c. When the simulator is being used by an instructor or evaluator for purposes of training, checking, or testing under this chapter, only airport models classified as Class I, Class II, or Class III may be used by the instructor or evaluator. Detailed descriptions/definitions of these classifications are found in Appendix F of this part. d. When a person sponsors an FFS maintained by a person other than a U.S. certificate holder, the sponsor is accountable for that FFS originally meeting, and continuing to meet, the criteria under which it was originally qualified and the appropriate Part 60 criteria, including the visual scenes and airport models that may be used by instructors or evaluators for purposes of training, checking, or testing under this chapter. e. Neither Class II nor Class III airport visual models are required to appear on the SOQ, and the method used for keeping instructors and evaluators apprised of the airport models that meet Class II or Class III requirements on any given simulator is at the option of the sponsor, but the method used must be available for review by the TPAA. f. When an airport model represents a real world airport and a permanent change is made to that real world airport (e.g., a new runway, an extended taxiway, a new lighting system, a runway closure) without a written extension grant from the responsible Flight Standards office (described in paragraph 1.g., of this section), an update to that airport model must be made in accordance with the following time limits: (1) For a new airport runway, a runway extension, a new airport taxiway, a taxiway extension, or a runway/taxiway closure—within 90 days of the opening for use of the new airport runway, runway extension, new airport taxiway, or taxiway extension; or within 90 days of the closure of the runway or taxiway. (2) For a new or modified approach light system—within 45 days of the activation of the new or modified approach light system. (3) For other facility or structural changes on the airport (e.g., new terminal, relocation of Air Traffic Control Tower)—within 180 days of the opening of the new or changed facility or structure. g. If a sponsor desires an extension to the time limit for an update to a visual scene or airport model or has an objection to what must be updated in the specific airport model requirement, the sponsor must provide a written extension request to the responsible Flight Standards office stating the reason for the update delay and a proposed completion date or provide an explanation for the objection, explaining why the identified airport change will not have an impact on flight training, testing, or checking. A copy of this request or objection must also be sent to the POI/TCPM. The responsible Flight Standards office will send the official response to the sponsor and a copy to the POI/TCPM; however, if there is an objection, after consultation with the appropriate POI/TCPM regarding the training, testing, or checking impact, the responsible Flight Standards office will send the official response to the sponsor and a copy to the POI/TCPM. End QPS Requirements Begin Information 2. Discussion a. The subjective tests provide a basis for evaluating the capability of the simulator to perform over a typical utilization period; determining that the simulator competently simulates each required maneuver, procedure, or task; and verifying correct operation of the simulator controls, instruments, and systems. The items listed in the following Tables are for simulator evaluation purposes only. They may not be used to limit or exceed the authorizations for use of a given level of simulator as described on the SOQ or as approved by the TPAA. All items in the following paragraphs are subject to an examination. b. The tests in Table C3A, Operations Tasks, in this attachment address pilot functions, including maneuvers and procedures (called flight tasks), and are divided by flight phases. The performance of these tasks by the responsible Flight Standards office includes an operational examination of the visual system and special effects. There are flight tasks included to address some features of advanced technology helicopters and innovative training programs. c. The tests in Table C3A, Operations Tasks, and Table C3G, Instructor Operating Station, in this attachment address the overall function and control of the simulator including the various simulated environmental conditions; simulated helicopter system operation (normal, abnormal, and emergency); visual system displays; and special effects necessary to meet flight crew training, evaluation, or flight experience requirements.

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d. All simulated helicopter systems functions will be assessed for normal and, where appropriate, alternate operations. Normal, abnormal, and emergency operations associated with a flight phase will be assessed during the evaluation of flight tasks or events within that flight phase. Simulated helicopter systems are listed separately under “Any Flight Phase” to ensure appropriate attention to systems checks. Operational navigation systems (including inertial navigation systems, global positioning systems, or other long-range systems) and the associated electronic display systems will be evaluated if installed. The pilot will include in his report to the TPAA, the effect of the system operation and any system limitation. e. Simulators demonstrating a satisfactory circling approach will be qualified for the circling approach maneuver and may be approved for such use by the TPAA in the sponsor's FAA-approved flight training program. To be considered satisfactory, the circling approach will be flown at maximum gross weight for landing, with minimum visibility for the helicopter approach category, and must allow proper alignment with a landing runway at least 90° different from the instrument approach course while allowing the pilot to keep an identifiable portion of the airport in sight throughout the maneuver (reference—14 CFR 91.175(e)). f. At the request of the TPAA, the Pilot may assess the simulator for a special aspect of a sponsor's training program during the functions and subjective portion of an evaluation. Such an assessment may include a portion of a Line Oriented Flight Training (LOFT) scenario or special emphasis items in the sponsor's training program. Unless directly related to a requirement for the qualification level, the results of such an evaluation would not affect the qualification of the simulator. g. This appendix addresses helicopter simulators at Levels B, C, and D because there are no Level A Helicopter simulators. h. The FAA intends to allow the use of Class III airport models on a limited basis when the sponsor provides the TPAA (or other regulatory authority) an appropriate analysis of the skills, knowledge, and abilities (SKAs) necessary for competent performance of the tasks in which this particular media element is used. The analysis should describe the ability of the FFS/visual media to provide an adequate environment in which the required SKAs are satisfactorily performed and learned. The analysis should also include the specific media element, such as the visual scene or airport model. i. The TPAA may accept Class III airport models without individual observation provided the sponsor provides the TPAA with an acceptable description of the process for determining the acceptability of a specific airport model, outlines the conditions under which such an airport model may be used, and adequately describes what restrictions will be applied to each resulting airport or landing area model. Examples of situations that may warrant Class III model designation by the TPAA include the following: (a) Training, testing, or checking on very low visibility operations, including SMGCS operations. (b) Instrument operations training (including instrument takeoff, departure, arrival, approach, and missed approach training, testing, or checking) using— (i) A specific model that has been geographically “moved” to a different location and aligned with an instrument procedure for another airport. (ii) A model that does not match changes made at the real-world airport (or landing area for helicopters) being modeled. (iii) A model generated with an “off-board” or an “on-board” model development tool (by providing proper latitude/longitude reference; correct runway or landing area orientation, length, width, marking, and lighting information; and appropriate adjacent taxiway location) to generate a facsimile of a real world airport or landing area. j. Previously qualified simulators with certain early generation Computer Generated Image (CGI) visual systems, are limited by the capability of the Image Generator or the display system used. These systems are: (1) Early CGI visual systems that are exempt from the necessity of including runway numbers as a part of the specific runway marking requirements are: (a) Link NVS and DNVS. (b) Novoview 2500 and 6000. (c) FlightSafety VITAL series up to, and including, VITAL III, but not beyond. (d) Redifusion SP1, SP1T, and SP2. (2) Early CGI visual systems are excepted from the necessity of including runway numbers unless the runway is used for LOFT training sessions. These LOFT airport models require runway numbers, but only for the specific runway end (one direction) used in the LOFT session. The systems required to display runway numbers only for LOFT scenes are: (a) FlightSafety VITAL IV. (b) Redifusion SP3 and SP3T. (c) Link-Miles Image II. (3) The following list of previously qualified CGI and display systems are incapable of generating blue lights. These systems are not required to have accurate taxi-way edge lighting are: (a) Redifusion SP1 and SP1T. (b) FlightSafety Vital IV. (c) Link-Miles Image II and Image IIT (d) XKD displays (even though the XKD image generator is capable of generating blue colored lights, the display cannot accommodate that color).

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End Information Table C3A—Functions and Subjective Tests

QPS requirements	Entry No.	Operations tasks	Simulator level	B	C	D
Tasks in this table are subject to evaluation if appropriate for the helicopter simulated as indicated in the SOQ Configuration List or the level of simulator qualification involved. Items not installed or not functional on the simulator and, therefore, not appearing on the SOQ Configuration List, are not required to be listed as exceptions on the SOQ.
1. Preparation for Flight
1.a.	Flight deck check: Switches, indicators, systems, and equipment	X	X	X
2. APU/Engine start and run-up
2.a.	Normal start procedures	X	X	X
2.b.	Alternate start procedures	X	X	X
2.c.	Abnormal starts and shutdowns (e.g., hot start, hung start)	X	X	X
2.d.	Rotor engagement	X	X	X
2.e.	System checks	X	X	X
3. Taxiing—Ground
3.a	Power required to taxi	X	X	X
3.b.	Brake effectiveness	X	X	X
3.c.	Ground handling	X	X	X
3.d.	Water handling (if applicable)		X	X
3.e.	Abnormal/emergency procedures:
3.e.1.	Brake system failure	X	X	X
3.e.2.	Ground resonance		X	X
3.e.3.	Dynamic rollover		X	X
3.e.4.	Deployment of emergency floats/water landing		X	X
3.e.5.	Others listed on the SOQ	A	X	X
4. Taxiing—Hover
4.a.	Takeoff to a hover	X	X	X
4.b.	Instrument response:
4.b.1.	Engine instruments	X	X	X
4.b.2.	Flight instruments	X	X	X
4.b.3.	Hovering turns	X	X	X
4.c.	Hover power checks:
4.c.1.	In ground effect (IGE)	X	X	X
4.c.2.	Out of ground effect (OGE)	X	X	X
4.d.	Crosswind/tailwind hover	X	X	X
4.e.	Translating tendency	X	X	X
4.f.	External load operations:
4.f.1.	Hookup		X	X
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4.f.2.	Release		X	X
4.f.3.	Winch operations		X	X
4.g.	Abnormal/emergency procedures:
4.g.1.	Engine failure	X	X	X
4.g.2.	Fuel governing system failure	X	X	X
4.g.3.	Settling with power (OGE)	X	X	X
4.g.4.	Hovering autorotation		X	X
4.g.5.	Stability augmentation system failure	X	X	X
4.g.6.	Directional control malfunction	X	X	X
4.g.7.	Loss of tail rotor effectiveness (LTE)		X	X
4.g.8.	Others listed on the SOQ	A	X	X
4.h.	Pre-takeoff checks	X	X	X
5. Takeoff/Translational Flight
5.a.	Forward (up to effective translational lift)		X	X
5.b.	Sideward (up to limiting airspeed)		X	X
5.c.	Rearward (up to limiting airspeed)		X	X
6. Takeoff and Departure Phase
6.a.	Normal	X	X	X
6.a.1.	From ground	X	X	X
6.a.2.	From hover	X	X	X
6.a.2.a.	Cat A	X	X	X
6.a.2.b.	Cat B	X	X	X
6.a.3.	Running	X	X	X
6.a.4.	Crosswind/tailwind	X	X	X
6.a.5.	Maximum performance	X	X	X
6.a.6.	Instrument	X	X	X
6.a.7.	Takeoff from a confined area	X	X	X
6.a.8.	Takeoff from a pinnacle/platform	X	X	X
6.a.9.	Takeoff from a slope	X	X	X
6.a.10.	External load operations		X	X
6.b.	Abnormal/emergency procedures:	X	X	X
6.b.1.	Takeoff with engine failure after critical decision point (CDP)	X	X	X
6.b.1.a.	Cat A		X	X
6.b.1.b.	Cat B		X	X
6.c.	Rejected takeoff
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6.c.1.	Land	X	X	X
6.c.2.	Water (if appropriate)	X	X	X
6.d.	Instrument departure	X	X	X
6.e.	Others as listed on the SOQ	A	X	X
7. Climb
7.a.	Normal	X	X	X
7.b.	Obstacle clearance	X	X	X
7.c.	Vertical		X	X
7.d.	One engine inoperative	X	X	X
7.e.	Others as listed on the SOQ	A	X	X
8. Cruise
8.a	Performance	X	X	X
8.b.	Flying qualities	X	X	X
8.c.	Turns	X	X	X
8.c.1.	Timed	X	X	X
8.c.2.	Normal	X	X	X
8.c.3.	Steep	X	X	X
8.d.	Accelerations and decelerations	X	X	X
8.e.	High speed vibrations	X	X	X
8.f.	External Load Operations (see entry 4.f. of this table)		X	X
8.g.	Abnormal/emergency procedures	X	X	X
8.g.1.	Engine fire	X	X	X
8.g.2	Engine failure	X	X	X
8.g.3.	Inflight engine shutdown and restart	X	X	X
8.g.4.	Fuel governing system failures	X	X	X
8.g.5.	Directional control malfunction	X	X	X
8.g.6.	Hydraulic failure	X	X	X
8.g.7.	Stability system failure	X	X	X
8.g.8.	Rotor vibrations	X	X	X
8.g.9.	Recovery from unusual attitudes	X	X	X
9. Descent
9.a.	Normal	X	X	X
9.b.	Maximum rate	X	X	X
9.c.	Autorotative
9.c.1.	Straight-in	X	X	X
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9.c.2.	With turn	X	X	X
9.d.	External Load		X	X
10. Approach
10.a.	Non-precision	X	X	X
10.a.1.	All engines operating	X	X	X
10.a.2.	One or more engines inoperative	X	X	X
10.a.3.	Approach procedures:	X	X	X
10.a.3.a.	NDB	X	X	X
10.a.3.b.	VOR, RNAV, TACAN	X	X	X
10.a.3.c.	ASR	X	X	X
10.a.3.d.	Circling	X	X	X
10.a.3.e.	Helicopter only	X	X	X
10.a.4.	Missed approach	X	X	X
10.a.4.a.	All engines operating	X	X	X
10.a.4.b.	One or more engines inoperative	X	X	X
10.b.	Precision	X	X	X
10.b.1.	All engines operating	X	X	X
10.b.2.	Manually controlled—one or more engines inoperative	X	X	X
10.b.3.	Approach procedures:	X	X	X
10.b.3.a.	PAR	X	X	X
10.b.3.b.	MLS	X	X	X
10.b.3.c.	ILS	X	X	X
10.b.3.c.	(1) Manual (raw data)	X	X	X
10.b.3.c.	(2) Flight director only	X	X	X
10.b.3.c.	(3) Autopilot * only	X	X	X
10.b.3.c.	(4) Cat I	X	X	X
10.b.3.c.	(5) Cat II	X	X	X
10.b.4.	Missed approach:
10.b.4.a.	All engines operating	X	X	X
10.b.4.b.	One or more engines inoperative	X	X	X
10.b.4.c.	Stability system failure	X	X	X
10.c.	Others as listed on the SOQ	A	X	X
11. Landings and Approaches to Landings
11.a.	Visual Approaches:
11.a.1.	Normal	X	X	X
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11.a.2.	Steep	X	X	X
11.a.3.	Shallow	X	X	X
11.a.4.	Crosswind	X	X	X
11.a.5.	Category A profile		X	X
11.a.6.	Category B profile		X	X
11.a.7.	External Load		X	X
11.b.	Abnormal/emergency procedures:
11.b.1.	Directional control failure	X	X	X
11.b.2.	Hydraulics failure	X	X	X
11.b.3.	Fuel governing failure	X	X	X
11.b.4.	Autorotation	X	X	X
11.b.5.	Stability system failure	X	X	X
11.b.6.	Others listed on the SOQ	A	X	X
11c.	Landings:
11.c.1.	Normal:
11.c.1.a.	Running	X	X	X
11.c.1.b.	From Hover	X	X	X
11.c.2.	Pinnacle/platform	X	X	X
11.c.3.	Confined area	X	X	X
11.c.4.	Slope		X	X
11.c.5.	Crosswind	X	X	X
11.c.6.	Tailwind	X	X	X
11.c.7.	Rejected Landing	X	X	X
11.c.8.	Abnormal/emergency procedures:
11.c.8.a.	From autorotation		X	X
11.c.8.b.	One or more engines inoperative	X	X	X
11.c.8.c.	Directional control failure	X	X	X
11.c.8.d.	Hydraulics failure	X	X	X
11.c.8.e.	Stability augmentation system failure	X	X	X
11.c.9.	Other (listed on the SOQ)	A	X	X
12. Any Flight Phase
12.a.1.	Air conditioning	X	X	X
12.a.2.	Anti-icing/deicing	X	X	X
12.a.3.	Auxiliary power-plant	X	X	X
12.a.4.	Communications	X	X	X
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12.a.5.	Electrical	X	X	X
12.a.6.	Fire detection and suppression	X	X	X
12.a.7.	Stabilizer	X	X	X
12.a.8.	Flight controls	X	X	X
12.a.9.	Fuel and oil	X	X	X
12.a.10.	Hydraulic	X	X	X
12.a.11.	Landing gear	X	X	X
12.a.12.	Oxygen	X	X	X
12.a.13.	Pneumatic	X	X	X
12.a.14.	Powerplant	X	X	X
12.a.15.	Flight control computers	X	X	X
12.a.16.	Stability and control augmentation	X	X	X
12.b.	Flight management and guidance system:
12.b.1.	Airborne radar	X	X	X
12.b.2.	Automatic landing aids	X	X	X
12.b.3.	Autopilot	X	X	X
12.b.4.	Collision avoidance system	X	X	X
12.b.5.	Flight data displays	X	X	X
12.b.6.	Flight management computers	X	X	X
12.b.7.	Heads-up displays	X	X	X
12.b.8.	Navigation systems	X	X	X
12.c.	Airborne procedures:
12.c.1.	Holding	X	X	X
12.c.2.	Air hazard avoidance	X	X	X
12.c.3.	Retreating blade stall recovery	X	X	X
12.c.4.	Mast bumping	X	X	X
12.c.5	Loss of directional control	X	X	X
12.c.6.	Loss of tail rotor effectiveness		X	X
12.c.7.	Other (listed on the SOQ)	A	X	X
13. Engine Shutdown and Parking
13.a.	Engine and systems operation	X	X	X
13.b.	Parking brake operation	X	X	X
13.c.	Rotor brake operation	X	X	X
13.d.	Abnormal/emergency procedures	X	X	X
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* “Autopilot” means attitude retention mode of operation.
Note: An “A” in the table indicates that the system, task, or procedure may be examined if the appropriate aircraft system or control is simulated in the FFS and is working properly.

Table C3B—Functions and Subjective Tests

QPS requirements	Entry No.	Visual requirements for qualification at the stated level class I airport or landing area models	Simulator level	B	C	D
This table specifies the minimum airport visual model content and functionality to qualify a simulator at the indicated level. This table applies only to the airport scenes required for simulator qualification; i.e., two helicopter landing area models for Level B simulators; four helicopter landing area models for Level C and Level D simulators.
1.	Functional test content requirements
	The following is the minimum airport/landing area model content requirement to satisfy visual capability tests, and provides suitable visual cues to allow completion of all functions and subjective tests described in this attachment for simulators at Level B.
1.a.	A minimum of one (1) representative airport and one (1) representative helicopter landing area model. The airport and the helicopter landing area may be contained within the same model. If but if this option is selected, the approach path to the airport runway(s) and the approach path to the helicopter landing area must be different. The model(s) used to meet the following requirements may be demonstrated at either a fictional or a real-world airport or helicopter landing area, but each must be acceptable to the sponsor's TPAA, selectable from the IOS, and listed on the SOQ	X
1.b.	The fidelity of the visual scene must be sufficient for the aircrew to visually identify the airport and/or helicopter landing area; determine the position of the simulated helicopter within the visual scene; successfully accomplish take-offs, approaches, and landings; and maneuver around the airport on the ground, or hover taxi, as necessary	X
1.c.	Runways:
1.c.1.	Visible runway number	X
1.c.2.	Runway threshold elevations and locations must be modeled to provide sufficient correlation with helicopter systems (e.g., altimeter)	X
1.c.3.	Runway surface and markings	X
1.c.4.	Lighting for the runway in use including runway edge and centerline	X
1.c.5.	Lighting, visual approach aid (VASI or PAPI) and approach lighting of appropriate colors	X
1.c.6.	Representative taxiway lights	X
1.d.	Other helicopter landing area:
1.d.1.	Standard heliport designation (“H”) marking, properly sized and oriented	X
1.d.2.	Perimeter markings for the Touchdown and Lift-Off Area (TLOF) or the Final Approach and Takeoff Area (FATO), as appropriate	X
1.d.3.	Perimeter lighting for the TLOF or the FATO areas, as appropriate	X
1.d.4.	Appropriate markings and lighting to allow movement from the runway or helicopter landing area to another part of the landing facility	X
2.	Functional test content requirements for Level C and Level D simulators
	The following is the minimum airport/landing area model content requirement to satisfy visual capability tests, and provide suitable visual cues to allow completion of all functions and subjective tests described in this attachment for simulators at Level C and Level D. Not all of the elements described in this section must be found in a single airport/landing area scene. However, all of the elements described in this section must be found throughout a combination of the four (4) airport/landing area models described in entry 2.a. The representations of the hazards (as described in 2.d.) must be “hard objects” that interact as such if contacted by the simulated helicopter. Additionally, surfaces on which the helicopter lands must be “hard surfaces.” The model(s) used to meet the following requirements must be demonstrated at either a fictional or a real-world airport or helicopter landing area, and each must be acceptable to the sponsor's TPAA, selectable from the IOS, and listed on the SOQ.
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2.a.	There must be at least the following airport/helicopter landing areas.
2.a.1.	At least one (1) representative airport		X	X
2.a.2.	At least three representative non-airport landing areas, as follows:
2.a.2.a	At least one (1) representative helicopter landing area situated on a substantially elevated surface with respect to the surrounding structures or terrain (e.g., building top, offshore oil rig)		X	X
2.a.2.b.	At least one (1) helicopter landing area that meets the definition of a “confined landing area”		X	X
2.a.2.c.	At least one (1) helicopter landing area on a sloped surface where the slope is at least 2 1/2 °		X	X
2.b.	For each of the airport/helicopter landing areas described in 2.a., the simulator must be able to provide at least the following:		X	X
2.b.1.	A night and twilight (dusk) environment.		X	X
2.b.2.	A daylight environment			X
2.c.	Non-airport helicopter landing areas must have the following:
2.c.1.	Representative buildings, structures, and lighting within appropriate distances		X	X
2.c.2.	Representative moving and static clutter (e.g., other aircraft, power carts, tugs, fuel trucks)		X	X
2.c.3.	Representative depiction of terrain and obstacles as well as significant and identifiable natural and cultural features, within 25 NM of the reference landing area		X	X
2.c.4.	Standard heliport designation (“H”) marking, properly sized and oriented		X	X
2.c.5.	Perimeter markings for the Touchdown and Lift-Off Area (TLOF) or the Final Approach and Takeoff Area (FATO), as appropriate		X	X
2.c.6.	Perimeter lighting for the TLOF or the FATO areas, as appropriate		X	X
2.c.7.	Appropriate markings and lighting to allow movement from the area to another part of the landing facility, if appropriate		X	X
2.c.8.	Representative markings, lighting, and signage, including a windsock that gives appropriate wind cues		X	X
2.c.9.	Appropriate markings, lighting, and signage necessary for position identification, and to allow movement from the landing area to another part of the landing facility		X	X
2.c.10.	Representative moving and static ground traffic (e.g., vehicular and aircraft), including the ability to present surface hazards (e.g., conflicting traffic, vehicular or aircraft, on or approaching the landing area)		X	X
2.c.11.	Portrayal of landing surface contaminants, including lighting reflections when wet and partially obscured lights when snow is present, or suitable alternative effects		X	X
2.d.	All of the following three (3) hazards must be presented in a combination of the three (3) non-airport landing areas (described in entry 2.a.2. of this table) and each of these non-airport landing areas must have at least one of the following hazards:
2.d.1.	Other airborne traffic		X	X
2.d.2.	Buildings, trees, or other vertical obstructions in the immediate landing area		X	X
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2.d.3.	Suspended wires in the immediate landing area		X	X
2.e.	Airport applications. Each airport must have the following:
2.e.1.	At least one runway designated as “in-use”, appropriately marked and capable of being lighted fully		X	X
2.e.2.	Runway threshold elevations and locations must be modeled to provide sufficient correlation with helicopter systems (e.g., HGS, GPS, altimeter). Slopes in runways, taxiways, and ramp areas, if depicted in the visual scene, may not cause distracting or unrealistic effects, including pilot eye-point height variation	X	X	X
2.e.3.	Appropriate approach lighting systems and airfield lighting for a VFR circuit and landing, non-precision approaches and landings, and precision approaches and landings, as appropriate.		X	X
2.e.4.	Representative taxiway lights			X
3.	Airport or landing area model management
	The following is the minimum visual scene management requirements
3.a.	Runway and helicopter landing area approach lighting must fade into view in accordance with the environmental conditions set in the simulator	X	X	X
3.b.	The direction of strobe lights, approach lights, runway edge lights, visual landing aids, runway centerline lights, threshold lights, touchdown zone lights, and TLOF or FATO lights must be replicated	X	X	X
4.	Visual feature recognition.
	The following are the minimum distances at which runway features must be visible. Distances are measured from runway threshold or a helicopter landing area to a helicopter aligned with the runway or helicopter landing area on an extended 3° glide-slope in simulated meteorological conditions. For circling approaches, all tests apply to the runway used for the initial approach and to the runway of intended landing
4.a.	For runways: Runway definition, strobe lights, approach lights, and runway edge lights from 5 sm (8 km) of the runway threshold	X	X	X
4.b.	For runways: Centerline lights and taxiway definition from 3 sm (5 km)	X	X	X
4.c.	For runways: Visual Approach Aid lights (VASI or PAPI) from 3 sm (5 km) of the threshold	X
4.d.	For runways: Visual Approach Aid lights (VASI or PAPI) from 5 sm (8 km) of the threshold		X	X
4.e.	For runways: Runway threshold lights and touchdown zone lights from 2 sm (3 km)	X	X	X
4.f.	For runways and helicopter landing areas: Markings within range of landing lights for night/twilight scenes and the surface resolution test on daylight scenes, as required	X	X	X
4.g.	For circling approaches, the runway of intended landing and associated lighting must fade into view in a non-distracting manner	X	X	X
4.h.	For helicopter landing areas: Landing direction lights and raised FATO lights from 1 sm (1.5 km)	X	X	X
4.i.	For helicopter landing areas: Flush mounted FATO lights, TOFL lights, and the lighted windsock from 0.5 sm (750 m)			X
4.j.	Hover taxiway lighting (yellow/blue/yellow cylinders) from TOFL area			X
5.	Airport or helicopter landing area model content
	The following prescribes the minimum requirements for an airport/helicopter landing area model and identifies other aspects of the environment that must correspond with that model for simulators at Level B, Level C, and Level D. For circling approaches, all tests apply to the runway used for the initial approach and to the runway of intended landing. If all runways or landing areas in a visual model used to meet the requirements of this attachment are not designated as “in use,” then the “in use” runways/landing areas must be listed on the SOQ (e.g., KORD, Rwys 9R, 14L, 22R). Models of airports or helicopter landing areas with more than one runway or landing area must have all significant runways or landing areas not “in-use” visually depicted for airport runway/landing area recognition purposes. The use of white or off-white light strings that identify the runway or landing area for twilight and night scenes are acceptable for this requirement; and rectangular surface depictions are acceptable for daylight scenes. A visual system's capabilities must be balanced between providing visual models with an accurate representation of the airport and a realistic representation of the surrounding environment. Each runway or helicopter landing area designated as an “in-use” runway or area must include the following detail that is developed using airport pictures, construction drawings and maps, or other similar data, or developed in accordance with published regulatory material; however, this does not require that such models contain details that are beyond the design capability of the currently qualified visual system. Only one “primary” taxi route from parking to the runway end or helicopter takeoff/landing area will be required for each “in-use” runway or helicopter takeoff/landing area.
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5.a.	The surface and markings for each “in-use” runway or helicopter landing area must include the following:
5.a.1.	For airports: Runway threshold markings, runway numbers, touchdown zone markings, fixed distance markings, runway edge markings, and runway centerline stripes	X	X	X
5.a.2.	For helicopter landing areas: Markings for standard heliport identification (“H”) and TOFL, FATO, and safety areas	X	X	X
5.b.	The lighting for each “in-use” runway or helicopter landing area must include the following:
5.b.1.	For airports: Runway approach, threshold, edge, end, centerline (if applicable), touchdown zone (if applicable), leadoff, and visual landing aid lights or light systems for that runway	X	X	X
5.b.2.	For helicopter landing areas: landing direction, raised and flush FATO, TOFL, windsock lighting	X	X	X
5.c.	The taxiway surface and markings associated with each “in-use” runway or helicopter landing area must include the following:
5.c.1.	For airports: Taxiway edge, centerline (if appropriate), runway hold lines, and ILS critical area(s)	X	X	X
5.c.2.	For helicopter landing areas: taxiways, taxi routes, and aprons	X	X	X
5.d.	The taxiway lighting associated with each “in-use” runway or helicopter landing area must include the following:
5.d.1.	For airports: Runway edge, centerline (if appropriate), runway hold lines, ILS critical areas	X	X	X
5.d.2.	For helicopter landing areas: taxiways, taxi routes, and aprons	X	X	X
5.d.3.	For airports: taxiway lighting of correct color			X
5.e.	Airport signage associated with each “in-use” runway or helicopter landing area must include the following:
5.e.1.	For airports: Signs for runway distance remaining, intersecting runway with taxiway, and intersecting taxiway with taxiway	X	X	X
5.e.2.	For helicopter landing areas: as appropriate for the model used	X	X	X
5.f.	Required visual model correlation with other aspects of the airport or helicopter landing environment simulation:
5.f.1.	The airport or helicopter landing area model must be properly aligned with the navigational aids that are associated with operations at the “in-use” runway or helicopter landing area	X	X	X
5.f.2.	The simulation of runway or helicopter landing area contaminants must be correlated with the displayed runway surface and lighting where applicable		X	X
6.	Correlation with helicopter and associated equipment
	The following are the minimum correlation comparisons that must be made for simulators at Level B, Level C, and Level D
6.a.	Visual system compatibility with aerodynamic programming	X	X	X
6.b.	Visual cues to assess sink rate and depth perception during landings	X	X	X
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6.c.	Accurate portrayal of environment relating to flight simulator attitudes	X	X	X
6.d.	The visual scene must correlate with integrated helicopter systems (e.g., terrain, traffic and weather avoidance systems and Head-up Guidance System (HGS))		X	X
6.e.	Representative visual effects for each visible, own-ship, helicopter external light(s)—taxi and landing light lobes (including independent operation, if appropriate)	X	X	X
6.f.	The effect of rain removal devices		X	X
7.	Scene quality The following are the minimum scene quality tests that must be conducted for simulators at Level B, Level C, and Level D.
7.a.	Surfaces and textural cues must be free from apparent and distracting quantization (aliasing)		X	X
7.b.	System capable of portraying full color realistic textural cues		X	X
7.c.	The system light points must be free from distracting jitter, smearing or streaking	X	X	X
7.d.	Demonstration of occulting through each channel of the system in an operational scene	X	X	X
7.e.	Demonstration of a minimum of ten levels of occulting through each channel of the system in an operational scene		X	X
7.f.	System capable of providing focus effects that simulate rain.		X	X
7.g.	System capable of providing focus effects that simulate light point perspective growth		X	X
7.h.	Runway light controls capable of six discrete light steps (0-5)	X	X	X
8.	Environmental effects.
	The following are the minimum environmental effects that must be available in simulators at Level B, Level C, and Level D.
8.a.	The displayed scene corresponding to the appropriate surface contaminants and include appropriate lighting reflections for wet, partially obscured lights for snow, or alternative effects			X
8.b.	Special weather representations which include:
8.b.1.	The sound, motion and visual effects of light, medium and heavy precipitation near a thunderstorm on take-off, approach, and landings at and below an altitude of 2,000 ft (600 m) above the surface and within a radius of 10 sm (16 km) from the airport or helicopter landing area			X
8.b.2.	One airport or helicopter landing area with a snow scene to include terrain snow and snow-covered surfaces			X
8.c.	In-cloud effects such as variable cloud density, speed cues and ambient changes		X	X
8.d.	The effect of multiple cloud layers representing few, scattered, broken and overcast conditions giving partial or complete obstruction of the ground scene		X	X
8.e.	Visibility and RVR measured in terms of distance. Visibility/RVR checked at 2,000 ft (600 m) above the airport or helicopter landing area and at two heights below 2,000 ft with at least 500 ft of separation between the measurements. The measurements must be taken within a radius of 10 sm (16 km) from the airport or helicopter landing area	X	X	X
8.f.	Patchy fog giving the effect of variable RVR			X
8.g.	Effects of fog on airport lighting such as halos and defocus		X	X
8.h.	Effect of own-ship lighting in reduced visibility, such as reflected glare, including landing lights, strobes, and beacons		X	X
8.i.	Wind cues to provide the effect of blowing snow or sand across a dry runway or taxiway selectable from the instructor station			X
8.j.	“White-out” or “Brown-out” effects due to rotor downwash beginning at a distance above the ground equal to the rotor diameter			X
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9.	Instructor control of the following:
	The following are the minimum instructor controls that must be available in Level B, Level C, and Level D simulators, as indicated.
9.a.	Environmental effects, e.g. cloud base, cloud effects, cloud density, visibility in statute miles/ kilometers and RVR in feet/meters	X	X	X
9.b.	Airport or helicopter landing area selection	X	X	X
9.c.	Airport or helicopter landing area lighting, including variable intensity	X	X	X
9.d.	Dynamic effects including ground and flight traffic		X	X
End QPS Requirement
Begin Information
10.	An example of being able to “combine two airport models to achieve two “in-use” runways: One runway designated as the “in-use” runway in the first model of the airport, and the second runway designated as the “in-use” runway in the second model of the same airport. For example, the clearance is for the ILS approach to Runway 27, Circle to Land on Runway 18 right. Two airport visual models might be used: the first with Runway 27 designated as the “in use” runway for the approach to runway 27, and the second with Runway 18 Right designated as the “in use” runway. When the pilot breaks off the ILS approach to runway 27, the instructor may change to the second airport visual model in which runway 18 Right is designated as the “in use” runway, and the pilot would make a visual approach and landing. This process is acceptable to the FAA as long as the temporary interruption due to the visual model change is not distracting to the pilot.
11.	Sponsors are not required to provide every detail of a runway, but the detail that is provided should be correct within reasonable limits.
End Information

Table C3C—Functions and Subjective Tests

QPS requirements	Entry No.	Visual scene content additional airport or landing area models beyond minimum required for qualification Class II airport or landing area models	Simulator level	B	C	D
This table specifies the minimum airport or helicopter landing area visual model content and functionality necessary to add visual models to a simulator's visual model library (i.e., beyond those necessary for qualification at the stated level) without the necessity of further involvement of the responsible Flight Standards office or TPAA.
1.	Airport or landing area model management
	The following is the minimum visual scene management requirements for simulators at Levels B, C, and D.
1.a.	The installation and direction of the following lights must be replicated for the “in-use” surface:
1.a.1.	For “in-use” runways: Strobe lights, approach lights, runway edge lights, visual landing aids, runway centerline lights, threshold lights, and touchdown zone lights	X	X	X
1.a.2.	For “in-use” helicopter landing areas: ground level TLOF perimeter lights, elevated TLOF perimeter lights (if applicable), Optional TLOF lights (if applicable), ground FATO perimeter lights, elevated TLOF lights (if applicable), landing direction lights	X	X	X
2.	Visual feature recognition
	The following are the minimum distances at which runway or landing area features must be visible for simulators at Levels B, C, and D. Distances are measured from runway threshold or a helicopter landing area to an aircraft aligned with the runway or helicopter landing area on a 3° glide-slope from the aircraft to the touchdown point, in simulated meteorological conditions. For circling approaches, all tests apply to the runway used for the initial approach and to the runway of intended landing.
2.a.	For Runways:
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2.a.1.	Strobe lights, approach lights, and edge lights from 5 sm (8 km) of the threshold	X	X	X
2.a.2.	Centerline lights and taxiway definition from 3 sm (5 km)	X	X	X
2.a.3.	Visual Approach Aid lights (VASI or PAPI) from 3 sm (5 km) of the threshold	X
2.a.4.	Visual Approach Aid lights (VASI or PAPI) from 5 sm (8 km) of the threshold		X	X
2.a.5.	Threshold lights and touchdown zone lights from 2 sm (3 km)	X	X	X
2.a.6.	Markings within range of landing lights for night/twilight (dusk) scenes and as required by the surface resolution test on daylight scenes	X	X	X
2.a.7.	For circling approaches, the runway of intended landing and associated lighting must fade into view in a non-distracting manner	X	X	X
2.b.	For Helicopter landing areas:
2.b.1.	Landing direction lights and raised FATO lights from 1 sm (1.5 km)	X	X	X
2.b.2.	Flush mounted FATO lights, TOFL lights, and the lighted windsock from 0.5 sm (750 m)		X	X
2.b.3.	Hover taxiway lighting (yellow/blue/yellow cylinders) from TOFL area		X	X
2.b.4.	Markings within range of landing lights for night/twilight (dusk) scenes and as required by the surface resolution test on daylight scenes	X	X	X
3.	Airport or Helicopter landing area model content
	The following prescribes the minimum requirements for what must be provided in an airport visual model and identifies other aspects of the airport environment that must correspond with that model for simulators at Level B, C, and D. The detail must be developed using airport pictures, construction drawings and maps, or other similar data, or developed in accordance with published regulatory material; however, this does not require that airport or helicopter landing area models contain details that are beyond the designed capability of the currently qualified visual system. For circling approaches, all requirements of this section apply to the runway used for the initial approach and to the runway of intended landing. Only one “primary” taxi route from parking to the runway end or helicopter takeoff/landing area will be required for each “in-use” runway or helicopter takeoff/landing area.
3.a.	The surface and markings for each “in-use” runway or helicopter landing area must include the following:
3.a.1.	For airports: Runway threshold markings, runway numbers, touchdown zone markings, fixed distance markings, runway edge markings, and runway centerline stripes	X	X	X
3.a.2.	For helicopter landing areas: Standard heliport marking (“H”), TOFL, FATO, and safety areas	X	X	X
3.b.	The lighting for each “in-use” runway or helicopter landing area must include the following:
3.b.1.	For airports: Runway approach, threshold, edge, end, centerline (if applicable), touchdown zone (if applicable), leadoff, and visual landing aid lights or light systems for that runway	X	X	X
3.b.2.	For helicopter landing areas: Landing direction, raised and flush FATO, TOFL, windsock lighting	X	X	X
3.c.	The taxiway surface and markings associated with each “in-use” runway or helicopter landing area must include the following:
3.c.1.	For airports: Taxiway edge, centerline (if appropriate), runway hold lines, and ILS critical area(s)	X	X	X
3.c.2.	For helicopter landing areas: Taxiways, taxi routes, and aprons	X	X	X
3.d.	The taxiway lighting associated with each “in-use” runway or helicopter landing area must include the following:
3.d.1.	For airports: Runway edge, centerline (if appropriate), runway hold lines, ILS critical areas	X	X	X
3.d.2.	For helicopter landing areas: Taxiways, taxi routes, and aprons	X	X	X
3.d.3.	For airports: Taxiway lighting of correct color			X
4.	Required visual model correlation with other aspects of the airport environment simulation
	The following are the minimum visual model correlation tests that must be conducted for Level B, Level C, and Level D simulators, as indicated.
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4.a.	The airport model must be properly aligned with the navigational aids that are associated with operations at the “in-use” runway	X	X	X
4.b.	Slopes in runways, taxiways, and ramp areas, if depicted in the visual scene, must not cause distracting or unrealistic effects	X	X	X
5.	Correlation with helicopter and associated equipment
	The following are the minimum correlation comparisons that must be made for simulators at Level B, C, and D.
5.a.	Visual system compatibility with aerodynamic programming	X	X	X
5.b.	Accurate portrayal of environment relating to flight simulator attitudes	X	X	X
5.c.	Visual cues to assess sink rate and depth perception during landings	X	X	X
6.	Scene quality
	The following are the minimum scene quality tests that must be conducted for simulators at Level B, C, and D.
6.a.	Light points free from distracting jitter, smearing or streaking	X	X	X
6.b.	Surfaces and textural cues free from apparent and distracting quantization (aliasing)		X	X
6.c.	Correct color and realistic textural cues			X
7.	Instructor controls of the following:
	The following are the minimum instructor controls that must be available in Level B, Level C, and Level D simulators, as indicated.
7.a.	Environmental effects, e.g., cloud base (if used), cloud effects, cloud density, visibility in statute miles/kilometers and RVR in feet/meters	X	X	X
7.b.	Airport/Heliport selection	X	X	X
7.c.	Airport lighting including variable intensity	X	X	X
7.d.	Dynamic effects including ground and flight traffic		X	X
End QPS Requirements
Begin Information
8.	Sponsors are not required to provide every detail of a runway or helicopter landing area, but the detail that is provided must be correct within the capabilities of the system	X	X	X
End Information

Table C3D—Functions and Subjective Tests

QPS requirements	Entry No.	Motion system (and special aerodynamic model) effects	Simulator level	B	C	D	Information	Notes
This table specifies motion effects that are required to indicate the threshold at which a flight crewmember must be able to recognize an event or situation. Where applicable, flight simulator pitch, side loading and directional control characteristics must be representative of the helicopter.
1	Runway rumble, oleo deflection, ground speed, uneven runway, runway and taxiway centerline light characteristics: Procedure: After the helicopter has been pre-set to the takeoff position and then released, taxi at various speeds with a smooth runway and note the general characteristics of the simulated runway rumble effects of oleo deflections. Repeat the maneuver with a runway roughness of 50%, then with maximum roughness. Note the associated motion vibrations affected by ground speed and runway roughness	X	X	X	If time permits, different gross weights can also be selected as this may also affect the associated vibrations depending on helicopter type. The associated motion effects for the above tests should also include an assessment of the effects of rolling over centerline lights, surface discontinuities of uneven runways, and various taxiway characteristics.
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2	Friction Drag from Skid-type Landing Gear: Procedure: Perform a running takeoff or a running landing and note an increase in a fuselage vibration (as opposed to rotor vibration) due to the friction of dragging the skid along the surface. This vibration will lessen as the ground speed decreases		X	X
3.	Rotor Out-of-Track and/or Out-of-Balance condition: Procedure: Select the malfunction or condition from the IOS. Start the engine(s) normally and check for an abnormal vibration for an Out-of-Track condition and check for an abnormal vibration for an Out-of-Balance condition	X	X	X	Does not require becoming airborne. The abnormal vibration for Out-of-Track and Out-of-Balance conditions should be recognized in the frequency range of the inverse of the period for each; i.e., 1/P for vertical vibration, and 1/P for lateral vibration.
4.	Bumps associated with the landing gear: Procedure: Perform a normal take-off paying special attention to the bumps that could be perceptible due to maximum oleo extension after lift-off	X	X	X	When the landing gear is extended or retracted, motion bumps can be felt when the gear locks into position.
5.	Buffet during extension and retraction of landing gear: Procedure: Operate the landing gear. Check that the motion cues of the buffet experienced represent the actual helicopter	X	X	X
6.	Failure of Dynamic Vibration Absorber or similar system as appropriate for the helicopter (e.g., droop stop or static stop): Procedure: May be accomplished any time the rotor is engaged. Select the appropriate failure at the IOS, note an appropriate increase in vibration and check that the vibration intensity and frequency increases with an increase in RPM and an increase in collective application	X	X	X
7.	Tail Rotor Drive Failure: Procedure: With the engine(s) running and the rotor engaged—select the malfunction and note the immediate increase of medium frequency vibration	X	X	X	The tail rotor operates in the medium frequency range, normally estimated by multiplying the tail rotor gear box ratio by the main rotor RPM. The failure can be recognized by an increase in the vibrations in this frequency range.
8.	Touchdown cues for main and nose gear: Procedure: Conduct several normal approaches with various rates of descent. Check that the motion cues for the touchdown bumps for each descent rate are representative of the actual helicopter	X	X	X
9.	Tire failure dynamics: Procedure: Simulate a single tire failure and a multiple tire failure		X	X	The pilot may notice some yawing with a multiple tire failure selected on the same side. This should require the use of the pedal to maintain control of the helicopter. Dependent on helicopter type, a single tire failure may not be noticed by the pilot and may not cause any special motion effect. Sound or vibration may be associated with the actual tire losing pressure.
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10.	Engine malfunction and engine damage: Procedure: The characteristics of an engine malfunction as prescribed in the malfunction definition document for the particular flight simulator must describe the special motion effects felt by the pilot. Note the associated engine instruments varying according to the nature of the malfunction and note the replication of the effects of the airframe vibration	X	X	X
11.	Tail boom strikes: Procedure: Tail-strikes can be checked by over-rotation of the helicopter at a quick stop or autorotation to the ground	X	X	X	The motion effect should be felt as a noticeable nose down pitching moment.
12.	Vortex Ring State (Settling with Power): Procedure: Specific procedures may differ between helicopters and may be prescribed by the Helicopter Manufacturer or other subject matter expert. However, the following information is provided for illustrative purposes * * * To enter the maneuver, reduce power below hover power. Hold altitude with aft cyclic until the airspeed approaches 20 knots. Then allow the sink rate to increase to 300 feet per minute or more as the attitude is adjusted to obtain an airspeed of less than 10 knots		X	X	When the aircraft begins to shudder, the application of additional up collective increases the vibration and sink rate. One recovery method is to decrease collective to enter vertical autorotation and/or use cyclic inputs to gain horizontal airspeed and exit from vortex ring state.
13.	Retreating Blade Stall: Procedure: Specific procedures may differ between helicopters and may be prescribed by the Helicopter Manufacturer or other subject matter expert. However, the following information is provided for illustrative purposes: To enter the maneuver, increase forward airspeed; the effect will be recognized through the development of a low frequency vibration, pitching up of the nose, and a roll in the direction of the retreating blade. High weight, low rotor RPM, high density altitude, turbulence or steep, abrupt turns are all conducive to retreating blade stall at high forward airspeeds		X	X	Correct recovery from retreating blade stall requires the collective to be lowered first, which reduces blade angles and the angle of attack. Aft cyclic can then be used to slow the helicopter.
14.	Translational Lift Effects: Procedure: From a stabilized in-ground-effect (IGE) Hover begin a forward acceleration. When passing through the effective translational lift range, the noticeable effect will be a possible nose pitch-up in some helicopters, an increase in the rate of climb, and a temporary increase in vibration level (in some cases this vibration may be pronounced). This effect is experienced again upon deceleration through the appropriate speed range. During deceleration, the pitch and rate of climb will have the reverse effect, but there will be a similar, temporary increase in vibration level	X	X	X
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Table C3E—Functions and Subjective Tests

QPS Requirements	Entry number	Sound system	Simulator level	B	C	D
The following checks are performed during a normal flight profile, motion system ON.
1.	Precipitation.		X	X
2.	Rain removal equipment.		X	X
3.	Helicopter noises used by the pilot for normal helicopter operation.		X	X
4.	Abnormal operations for which there are associated sound cues, including engine malfunctions, landing gear or tire malfunctions, tail boom		X	X
5.	Sound of a crash when the flight simulator is landed in excess of limitations		X	X

Table C3F—Functions and Subjective Tests

QPS Requirements	Entry number	Special effects	Simulator level	B	C	D
This table specifies the minimum special effects necessary for the specified simulator level.
1.	Braking Dynamics: Representations of the dynamics of brake failure (flight simulator pitch, side-loading, and directional control characteristics representative of the helicopter), including antiskid and decreased brake efficiency due to high brake temperatures (based on helicopter related data), sufficient to enable pilot identification of the problem and implementation of appropriate procedures		X	X
2.	Effects of Airframe and Engine Icing: Required only for those helicopters authorized for operations in known icing conditions Procedure: With the simulator airborne, in a clean configuration, nominal altitude and cruise airspeed, autopilot on and auto-throttles off, engine and airfoil anti-ice/de-ice systems deactivated; activate icing conditions at a rate that allows monitoring of simulator and systems response Icing recognition will include an increase in gross weight, airspeed decay, change in simulator pitch attitude, change in engine performance indications (other than due to airspeed changes), and change in data from pitot/static system, or rotor out-of-track/balance. Activate heating, anti-ice, or de-ice systems independently. Recognition will include proper effects of these systems, eventually returning the simulated helicopter to normal flight		X	X

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Table C3G—Functions and Subjective Tests

QPS Requirements	Entry number	Instructor Operating Station (IOS)	Simulator level	B	C	D
Functions in this table are subject to evaluation only if appropriate for the helicopter or the system is installed on the specific simulator.
1.	Simulator Power Switch(es)	X	X	X
2.	Helicopter conditions.
2.a.	Gross weight, center of gravity, fuel loading and allocation	X	X	X
2.b.	Helicopter systems status	X	X	X
2.c.	Ground crew functions	X	X	X
3.	Airports/Heliports.
3.a.	Number and selection	X	X	X
3.b.	Runway or landing area selection	X	X	X
3.c.	Landing surface conditions (rough, smooth, icy, wet, dry, snow)	X	X	X
3.d.	Preset positions	X	X	X
3.e.	Lighting controls	X	X	X
4.	Environmental controls.
4.a	Visibility (statute miles/kilometers)	X	X	X
4.b.	Runway visual range (in feet/meters)	X	X	X
4.c.	Temperature	X	X	X
4.d.	Climate conditions	X	X	X
4.e.	Wind speed and direction	X	X	X
5.	Helicopter system malfunctions (Insertion/deletion).	X	X	X
6.	Locks, Freezes, and Repositioning.
6.a.	Problem (all) freeze/release	X	X	X
6.b.	Position (geographic) freeze/release	X	X	X
6.c.	Repositioning (locations, freezes, and releases)	X	X	X
6.d.	Ground speed control	X	X	X
7.	Remote IOS.	X	X	X
8.	Sound Controls. On/off/adjustment	X	X	X
9.	Motion/Control Loading System.
9.a.	On/off/emergency stop	X	X	X
10.	Observer Seats/Stations. Position/Adjustment/Positive restraint system	X	X	X

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Attachment 4 to Appendix C to Part 60—SAMPLE DOCUMENTS Table of Contents Title of Sample Figure C4A Sample Letter, Request for Initial, Upgrade, or Reinstatement Evaluation. Figure C4B Attachment: FFS Information Form Figure A4C Sample Letter of Compliance Figure C4D Sample Qualification Test Guide Cover Page Figure C4E Sample Statement of Qualification—Certificate Figure C4F Sample Statement of Qualification—Configuration List Figure C4G Sample Statement of Qualification—List of Qualified Tasks Figure C4H [Reserved] Figure C4I Sample MQTG Index of Effective FFS Directives Attachment 4 to Appendix C to Part 60—Figure C4A—Sample Letter, Request for Initial, Upgrade, or Reinstatement Evaluation Information [Please see PDF for image: ER09DE22.113]

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[Please see PDF for image: ER09MY08.041]

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[Please see PDF for image: ER09MY08.042]

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[Please see PDF for image: ER09MY08.043] Attachment 4 to Appendix C to Part 60—Figure C4C—Sample Letter of Compliance Information

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[Please see PDF for image: ER09DE22.114] Attachment 4 to Appendix C to Part 60—Figure C4D—Sample Qualification Test Guide Cover Page Information

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[Please see PDF for image: ER09DE22.115] Attachment 4 to Appendix C to Part 60—Figure C4E—Sample Statement of Qualification—Certificate Information

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[Please see PDF for image: ER09DE22.116] [Please see PDF for image: ER09DE22.129]

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[Please see PDF for image: ER09MY08.047]

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[Please see PDF for image: ER09MY08.048]

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[Please see PDF for image: ER09MY08.050] Attachment 4 to Appendix C to Part 60—Figure C4H [Reserved]  

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[Please see PDF for image: ER09MY08.052] Attachment 5 to Appendix C to Part 60—FSTD DIRECTIVES APPLICABLE TO HELICOPTER FFSs Flight Simulation Training Device (FSTD) Directive FSTD Directive 1. Applicable to all FFSs, regardless of the original qualification basis and qualification date (original or upgrade), having Class II or Class III airport models available. Agency: Federal Aviation Administration (FAA), DOT Action: This is a retroactive requirement to have all Class II or Class III airport models meet current requirements. Summary: Notwithstanding the authorization listed in paragraph 13b in Appendices A and C of this part, this FSTD Directive requires each certificate holder to ensure that by May 30, 2009, except for the airport model(s) used to qualify the simulator at the designated level, each airport model used by the certificate holder's instructors or evaluators for training, checking, or testing under this chapter in an FFS, meets the definition of a Class II or Class III airport model as defined in 14CFR part 60. The completion of this requirement will not require a report, and the method used for keeping instructors and evaluators apprised of the airport models that meet Class II or Class III requirements on any given simulator is at the option of the certificate holder whose employees are using the FFS, but the method used must be available for review by the TPAA for that certificate holder. Dates: FSTD Directive 1 becomes effective on May 30, 2008. Specific Requirements: 1. Part 60 requires that each FSTD be: a. Sponsored by a person holding or applying for an FAA operating certificate under Part 119, Part 141, or Part 142, or holding or applying for an FAA-approved training program under Part 63, Appendix C, for flight engineers, and b. Evaluated and issued an SOQ for a specific FSTD level. 2. FFSs also require the installation of a visual system that is capable of providing an out-of-the-flight-deck view of airport models. However, historically these airport models were not routinely evaluated or required to meet any standardized criteria. This has led to qualified simulators containing airport models being used to meet FAA-approved training, testing, or checking requirements with potentially incorrect or inappropriate visual references. 3. To prevent this from occurring in the future, by May 30, 2009, except for the airport model(s) used to qualify the simulator at the designated level, each certificate holder must assure that each airport model used for training, testing, or checking under this chapter in a qualified FFS meets the definition of a Class II or Class III airport model as defined in Appendix F of this part.

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4. These references describe the requirements for visual scene management and the minimum distances from which runway or landing area features must be visible for all levels of simulator. The visual scene or airport model must provide, for each “in-use runway” or “in-use landing area,” runway or landing area surface and markings, runway or landing area lighting, taxiway surface and markings, and taxiway lighting. Additional requirements include correlation of the visual scenes or airport models with other aspects of the airport environment, correlation of the aircraft and associated equipment, scene quality assessment features, and the extent to which the instructor is able to exercise control of these scenes or models. 5. For circling approaches, all requirements of this section apply to the runway used for the initial approach and to the runway of intended landing. 6. The details in these scenes or models must be developed using airport pictures, construction drawings and maps, or other similar data, or be developed in accordance with published regulatory material. However, FSTD Directive 1 does not require that airport models contain details that are beyond the initially designed capability of the visual system, as currently qualified. The recognized limitations to visual systems are as follows: a. Visual systems not required to have runway numbers as a part of the specific runway marking requirements are: (1) Link NVS and DNVS. (2) Novoview 2500 and 6000. (3) FlightSafety VITAL series up to, and including, VITAL III, but not beyond. (4) Redifusion SP1, SP1T, and SP2. b. Visual systems required to display runway numbers only for LOFT scenes are: (1) FlightSafety VITAL IV. (2) Redifusion SP3 and SP3T. (3) Link-Miles Image II. c. Visual systems not required to have accurate taxiway edge lighting are: (1) Redifusion SP1. (2) FlightSafety Vital IV. (3) Link-Miles Image II and Image IIT (4) XKD displays (even though the XKD image generator is capable of generating blue colored lights, the display cannot accommodate that color). 7. A copy of this Directive must be filed in the MQTG in the designated FSTD Directive Section, and its inclusion must be annotated on the Index of Effective FSTD Directives chart. See Attachment 4, Appendices A through D of this part for a sample MQTG Index of Effective FSTD Directives chart. [Docket FAA-2002-12461, 73 FR 26490, May 9, 2008, as amended by Docket FAA-2018-0119, Amdt. 60-5, 83 FR 9170, Mar. 5, 2018; Amdt. 60-6, 83 FR 30275, June 27, 2018; Docket FAA-2022-1355, Amdt. 60-7, 87 FR 75822, Dec. 9, 2022] Editorial Note: At 87 FR 75822, Dec. 9, 2022, appendix C to part 60 was amended in part in the introductory “Begin Information” text, by removing “NSPM” and adding in its place “Flight Standards Service” in the first sentence; however, this amendment could not be incorporated due to inaccurate amendatory instruction.

Pt. 60, App. D Appendix D to Part 60—Qualification Performance Standards for Helicopter Flight Training Devices Begin Information This appendix establishes the standards for Helicopter Flight Training Device (FTD) evaluation and qualification at Level 4, Level 5, Level 6, or Level 7. The Flight Standards Service is responsible for the development, application, and implementation of the standards contained within this appendix. The procedures and criteria specified in this appendix will be used by the responsible Flight Standards office when conducting helicopter FTD evaluations. Table of Contents 1. Introduction. 2. Applicability (§§ 60.1, 60.2). 3. Definitions (§ 60.3). 4. Qualification Performance Standards (§ 60.4). 5. Quality Management System (§ 60.5). 6. Sponsor Qualification Requirements (§ 60.7). 7. Additional Responsibilities of the Sponsor (§ 60.9). 8. FTD Use (§ 60.11). 9. FTD Objective Data Requirements (§ 60.13). 10. Special Equipment and Personnel Requirements for Qualification of the FTD (§ 60.14). 11. Initial (and Upgrade) Qualification Requirements (§ 60.15). 12. Additional Qualifications for Currently Qualified FTDs (§ 60.16). 13. Previously Qualified FTDs (§ 60.17). 14. Inspection, Continuing Qualification Evaluation, and Maintenance Requirements (§ 60.19). 15. Logging FTD Discrepancies (§ 60.20). 16. Interim Qualification of FTDs for New Helicopter Types or Models (§ 60.21). 17. Modifications to FTDs (§ 60.23).

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18. Operations with Missing, Malfunctioning, or Inoperative Components (§ 60.25). 19. Automatic Loss of Qualification and Procedures for Restoration of Qualification (§ 60.27). 20. Other Losses of Qualification and Procedures for Restoration of Qualification (§ 60.29). 21. Recordkeeping and Reporting (§ 60.31). 22. Applications, Logbooks, Reports, and Records: Fraud, Falsification, or Incorrect Statements (§ 60.33). 23. [Reserved] 24. Levels of FTD. 25. FTD Qualification on the Basis of a Bilateral Aviation Safety Agreement (BASA) (§ 60.37). Attachment 1 to Appendix D to Part 60—General FTD Requirements. Attachment 2 to Appendix D to Part 60—Flight Training Device (FTD) Objective Tests. Attachment 3 to Appendix D to Part 60—Flight Training Device (FTD) Subjective Evaluation. Attachment 4 to Appendix D to Part 60—Sample Documents. End Information 1. Introduction Begin Information a. This appendix contains background information as well as regulatory and informative material as described later in this section. To assist the reader in determining what areas are required and what areas are permissive, the text in this appendix is divided into two sections: “QPS Requirements” and “Information.” The QPS Requirements sections contain details regarding compliance with the part 60 rule language. These details are regulatory, but are found only in this appendix. The Information sections contain material that is advisory in nature, and designed to give the user general information about the regulation. b. [Reserved] c. The responsible Flight Standards office encourages the use of electronic media for all communication, including any record, report, request, test, or statement required by this appendix. The electronic media used must have adequate security provisions and be acceptable to the responsible Flight Standards office. d. Related Reading References. (1) 14 CFR part 60. (2) 14 CFR part 61. (3) 14 CFR part 63. (4) 14 CFR part 119. (5) 14 CFR part 121. (6) 14 CFR part 125. (7) 14 CFR part 135. (8) 14 CFR part 141. (9) 14 CFR part 142. (10) AC 120-28, as amended, Criteria for Approval of Category III Landing Weather Minima. (11) AC 120-29, as amended, Criteria for Approving Category I and Category II Landing Minima for part 121 operators. (12) AC 120-35, as amended, Flightcrew Member Line Operational Simulations: Line-Oriented Flight Training, Special Purpose Operational Training, Line Operational Evaluation. (13) AC 120-41, as amended, Criteria for Operational Approval of Airborne Wind Shear Alerting and Flight Guidance Systems. (14) AC 120-57, as amended, Surface Movement Guidance and Control System (SMGCS). (15) AC 120-63, as amended, Helicopter Simulator Qualification. (16) AC 150/5300-13, as amended, Airport Design. (17) AC 150/5340-1, as amended, Standards for Airport Markings. (18) AC 150/5340-4, as amended, Installation Details for Runway Centerline Touchdown Zone Lighting Systems. (19) AC 150/5390-2, as amended, Heliport Design. (20) AC 150/5340-19, as amended, Taxiway Centerline Lighting System. (21) AC 150/5340-24, as amended, Runway and Taxiway Edge Lighting System. (22) AC 150/5345-28, as amended, Precision Approach Path Indicator (PAPI) Systems. (23) International Air Transport Association document, “Flight Simulator Design and Performance Data Requirements,” as amended. (24) AC 29-2, as amended, Flight Test Guide for Certification of Transport Category Rotorcraft. (25) AC 27-1, as amended, Flight Test Guide for Certification of Normal Category Rotorcraft. (26) International Civil Aviation Organization (ICAO) Manual of Criteria for the Qualification of Flight Simulators, as amended. (27) Airplane Flight Simulator Evaluation Handbook, Volume I, as amended and Volume II, as amended, The Royal Aeronautical Society, London, UK. (28) FAA Airman Certification Standards and Practical Test Standards for Airline Transport Pilot, Type Ratings, Commercial Pilot, and Instrument Ratings. (29) The FAA Aeronautical Information Manual (AIM). An electronic version of the AIM is on the Internet at http://www.faa.gov/atpubs. (30) Aeronautical Radio, Inc. (ARINC) document number 436, Guidelines For Electronic Qualification Test Guide (as amended).

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(31) Aeronautical Radio, Inc. (ARINC) document 610, Guidance for Design and Integration of Aircraft Avionics Equipment in Simulators (as amended). End Information 2. Applicability (§ 60.1 and 60.2) Begin Information No additional regulatory or informational material applies to § 60.1, Applicability, or to § 60.2, Applicability of sponsor rules to person who are not sponsors and who are engaged in certain unauthorized activities. End Information 3. Definitions (§ 60.3) Begin Information See Appendix F of this part for a list of definitions and abbreviations from part 1, part 60, and the QPS appendices of part 60. End Information 4. Qualification Performance Standards (§ 60.4) Begin Information No additional regulatory or informational material applies to § 60.4, Qualification Performance Standards. End Information 5. Quality Management System (§ 60.5) Begin Information Additional regulatory material and informational material regarding Quality Management Systems for FTDs may be found in Appendix E of this part. End Information 6. Sponsor Qualification Requirements (§ 60.7) Begin Information a. The intent of the language in § 60.7(b) is to have a specific FTD, identified by the sponsor, used at least once in an FAA-approved flight training program for the helicopter simulated during the 12-month period described. The identification of the specific FTD may change from one 12-month period to the next 12-month period as long as that sponsor sponsors and uses at least one FTD at least once during the prescribed period. There is no minimum number of hours or minimum FTD periods required. b. The following examples describe acceptable operational practices: (1) Example One. (a) A sponsor is sponsoring a single, specific FTD for its own use, in its own facility or elsewhere—this single FTD forms the basis for the sponsorship. The sponsor uses that FTD at least once in each 12-month period in that sponsor's FAA-approved flight training program for the helicopter simulated. This 12-month period is established according to the following schedule: (i) If the FTD was qualified prior to May 30, 2008, the 12-month period begins on the date of the first continuing qualification evaluation conducted in accordance with § 60.19 after May 30, 2008, and continues for each subsequent 12-month period; (ii) A device qualified on or after May 30, 2008, will be required to undergo an initial or upgrade evaluation in accordance with § 60.15. Once the initial or upgrade evaluation is complete, the first continuing qualification evaluation will be conducted within 6 months. The 12 month continuing qualification evaluation cycle begins on that date and continues for each subsequent 12-month period. (b) There is no minimum number of hours of FTD use required. (c) The identification of the specific FTD may change from one 12-month period to the next 12-month period as long as that sponsor sponsors and uses at least one FTD at least once during the prescribed period. (2) Example Two. (a) A sponsor sponsors an additional number of FTDs, in its facility or elsewhere. Each additionally sponsored FTD must be— (i) Used by the sponsor in the sponsor's FAA-approved flight training program for the helicopter simulated (as described in § 60.7(d)(1)); or (ii) Used by another FAA certificate holder in that other certificate holder's FAA-approved flight training program for the helicopter simulated (as described in § 60.7(d)(1)). This 12-month period is established in the same manner as in example one; or (iii) Provided a statement each year from a qualified pilot, (after having flown the helicopter not the subject FTD or another FTD, during the preceding 12-month period) stating that the subject FTD's performance and handling qualities represent the helicopter (as described in § 60.7(d)(2)). This statement is provided at least once in each 12-month period established in the same manner as in example one.

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(b) There is no minimum number of hours of FTD use required. (3) Example Three. (a) A sponsor in New York (in this example, a Part 142 certificate holder) establishes “satellite” training centers in Chicago and Moscow. (b) The satellite function means that the Chicago and Moscow centers must operate under the New York center's certificate (in accordance with all of the New York center's practices, procedures, and policies; e.g., instructor and/or technician training/checking requirements, record keeping, QMS program). (c) All of the FTDs in the Chicago and Moscow centers could be dry-leased (i.e., the certificate holder does not have and use FAA-approved flight training programs for the FTDs in the Chicago and Moscow centers) because— (i) Each FTD in the Chicago center and each FTD in the Moscow center is used at least once each 12-month period by another FAA certificate holder in that other certificate holder's FAA-approved flight training program for the helicopter (as described in § 60.7(d)(1)); or (ii) A statement is obtained from a qualified pilot (having flown the helicopter, not the subject FTD or another FTD during the preceding 12-month period) stating that the performance and handling qualities of each FTD in the Chicago and Moscow centers represents the helicopter (as described in § 60.7(d)(2)). End Information 7. Additional Responsibilities of the Sponsor (§ 60.9) Begin Information The phrase “as soon as practicable” in § 60.9(a) means without unnecessarily disrupting or delaying beyond a reasonable time the training, evaluation, or experience being conducted in the FTD. End Information 8. FTD Use (§ 60.11). Begin Information No additional regulatory or informational material applies to § 60.11, FTD Use. End Information 9. FTD Objective Data Requirements (§ 60.13) Begin QPS Requirements a. Flight test data used to validate FTD performance and handling qualities must have been gathered in accordance with a flight test program containing the following: (1) A flight test plan consisting of: (a) The maneuvers and procedures required for aircraft certification and simulation programming and validation. (b) For each maneuver or procedure— (i) The procedures and control input the flight test pilot and/or engineer used. (ii) The atmospheric and environmental conditions. (iii) The initial flight conditions. (iv) The helicopter configuration, including weight and center of gravity. (v) The data to be gathered. (vi) All other information necessary to recreate the flight test conditions in the FTD. (2) Appropriately qualified flight test personnel. (3) Appropriate and sufficient data acquisition equipment or system(s), including appropriate data reduction and analysis methods and techniques, acceptable to the FAA's Aircraft Certification Service. b. The data, regardless of source, must be presented: (1) In a format that supports the FTD validation process; (2) In a manner that is clearly readable and annotated correctly and completely; (3) With resolution sufficient to determine compliance with the tolerances set forth in Attachment 2, Table D2A Appendix D; (4) With any necessary guidance information provided; and (5) Without alteration, adjustments, or bias. Data may be corrected to address known data calibration errors provided that an explanation of the methods used to correct the errors appears in the QTG. The corrected data may be re-scaled, digitized, or otherwise manipulated to fit the desired presentation c. After completion of any additional flight test, a flight test report must be submitted in support of the validation data. The report must contain sufficient data and rationale to support qualification of the FTD at the level requested. d. As required by § 60.13(f), the sponsor must notify the responsible Flight Standards office when it becomes aware that an addition to or a revision of the flight related data or helicopter systems related data is available if this data is used to program and operate a qualified FTD. The data referred to in this sub-section is data used to validate the performance, handling qualities, or other characteristics of the aircraft, including data related to any relevant changes occurring after the type certification is issued. The sponsor must—

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(1) Within 10 calendar days, notify the responsible Flight Standards office of the existence of this data; and (a) Within 45 calendar days, notify the responsible Flight Standards office of— (b) The schedule to incorporate this data into the FTD; or (c) The reason for not incorporating this data into the FTD. e. In those cases where the objective test results authorize a “snapshot test” or a “series of snapshot tests” results in lieu of a time-history result, the sponsor or other data provider must ensure that a steady state condition exists at the instant of time captured by the “snapshot.” The steady state condition must exist from 4 seconds prior to, through 1 second following, the instant of time captured by the snap shot. End QPS Requirements Begin Information f. The FTD sponsor is encouraged to maintain a liaison with the manufacturer of the aircraft being simulated (or with the holder of the aircraft type certificate for the aircraft being simulated if the manufacturer is no longer in business), and if appropriate, with the person having supplied the aircraft data package for the FTD in order to facilitate the notification described in this paragraph. g. It is the intent of the responsible Flight Standards office that for new aircraft entering service, at a point well in advance of preparation of the QTG, the sponsor should submit to the responsible Flight Standards office for approval, a descriptive document (see Appendix C of this part, Table C2D, Sample Validation Data Roadmap for Helicopters) containing the plan for acquiring the validation data, including data sources. This document should clearly identify sources of data for all required tests, a description of the validity of these data for a specific engine type and thrust rating configuration, and the revision levels of all avionics affecting the performance or flying qualities of the aircraft. Additionally, this document should provide other information such as the rationale or explanation for cases where data or data parameters are missing, instances where engineering simulation data are used, or where flight test methods require further explanations. It should also provide a brief narrative describing the cause and effect of any deviation from data requirements. The aircraft manufacturer may provide this document. h. There is no requirement for any flight test data supplier to submit a flight test plan or program prior to gathering flight test data. However, the responsible Flight Standards office notes that inexperienced data gatherers often provide data that is irrelevant, improperly marked, or lacking adequate justification for selection. Other problems include inadequate information regarding initial conditions or test maneuvers. The responsible Flight Standards office has been forced to refuse these data submissions as validation data for an FTD evaluation. For this reason the responsible Flight Standards office recommends that any data supplier not previously experienced in this area review the data necessary for programming and for validating the performance of the FTD and discuss the flight test plan anticipated for acquiring such data with the responsible Flight Standards office well in advance of commencing the flight tests. i. The responsible Flight Standards office will consider, on a case-by-case basis, whether to approve supplemental validation data derived from flight data recording systems such as a Quick Access Recorder or Flight Data Recorder. End Information 10. Special Equipment and Personnel Requirements for Qualification of the FTD (§ 60.14). Begin Information a. In the event that the responsible Flight Standards office determines that special equipment or specifically qualified persons will be required to conduct an evaluation, the responsible Flight Standards office will make every attempt to notify the sponsor at least one (1) week, but in no case less than 72 hours, in advance of the evaluation. Examples of special equipment include flight control measurement devices, accelerometers, or oscilloscopes. Examples of specially qualified personnel include individuals specifically qualified to install or use any special equipment when its use is required. b. Examples of a special evaluation include an evaluation conducted after an FTD is moved; at the request of the TPAA; or as a result of comments received from users of the FTD that raise questions about the continued qualification or use of the FTD. End Information 11. Initial (and Upgrade) Qualification Requirements (§ 60.15).

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Begin QPS Requirement a. In order to be qualified at a particular qualification level, the FTD must: (1) Meet the general requirements listed in Attachment 1 of this appendix. (2) Meet the objective testing requirements listed in Attachment 2 of this appendix (Level 4 FTDs do not require objective tests). (3) Satisfactorily accomplish the subjective tests listed in Attachment 3 of this appendix. b. The request described in § 60.15(a) must include all of the following: (1) A statement that the FTD meets all of the applicable provisions of this part and all applicable provisions of the QPS. (2) A confirmation that the sponsor will forward to the responsible Flight Standards office the statement described in § 60.15(b) in such time as to be received no later than 5 business days prior to the scheduled evaluation and may be forwarded to the responsible Flight Standards office via traditional or electronic means. (3) Except for a Level 4 FTD, a QTG, acceptable to the responsible Flight Standards office, that includes all of the following: (a) Objective data obtained from aircraft testing or another approved source. (b) Correlating objective test results obtained from the performance of the FTD as prescribed in the appropriate QPS. (c) The result of FTD subjective tests prescribed in the appropriate QPS. (d) A description of the equipment necessary to perform the evaluation for initial qualification and the continuing qualification evaluations. c. The QTG described in paragraph a(3) of this section must provide the documented proof of compliance with the FTD objective tests in Attachment 2, Table D2A of this appendix. d. The QTG is prepared and submitted by the sponsor, or the sponsor's agent on behalf of the sponsor, to the responsible Flight Standards office for review and approval, and must include, for each objective test: (1) Parameters, tolerances, and flight conditions. (2) Pertinent and complete instructions for conducting automatic and manual tests. (3) A means of comparing the FTD test results to the objective data. (4) Any other information as necessary to assist in the evaluation of the test results. (5) Other information appropriate to the qualification level of the FTD. e. The QTG described in paragraphs (a)(3) and (b) of this section, must include the following: (1) A QTG cover page with sponsor and FAA approval signature blocks (see Attachment 4, Figure D4C, of this appendix, for a sample QTG cover page). (2) A continuing qualification evaluation requirements page. This page will be used by the responsible Flight Standards office to establish and record the frequency with which continuing qualification evaluations must be conducted and any subsequent changes that may be determined by the responsible Flight Standards office in accordance with § 60.19. See Attachment 4, Figure D4G, of this appendix for a sample Continuing Qualification Evaluation Requirements page. (3) An FTD information page that provides the information listed in this paragraph, if applicable (see Attachment 4, Figure D4B, of this appendix, for a sample FTD information page). For convertible FTDs, the sponsor must submit a separate page for each configuration of the FTD. (a) The sponsor's FTD identification number or code. (b) The helicopter model and series being simulated. (c) The aerodynamic data revision number or reference. (d) The source of the basic aerodynamic model and the aerodynamic coefficient data used to modify the basic model. (e) The engine model(s) and its data revision number or reference. (f) The flight control data revision number or reference. (g) The flight management system identification and revision level. (h) The FTD model and manufacturer. (i) The date of FTD manufacture. (j) The FTD computer identification. (k) The visual system model and manufacturer, including display type. (l) The motion system type and manufacturer, including degrees of freedom. (4) A Table of Contents. (5) A log of revisions and a list of effective pages. (6) List of all relevant data references. (7) A glossary of terms and symbols used (including sign conventions and units). (8) Statements of Compliance and Capability (SOC) with certain requirements. (9) Recording procedures or equipment required to accomplish the objective tests. (10) The following information for each objective test designated in Attachment 2 of this appendix, as applicable to the qualification level sought: (a) Name of the test. (b) Objective of the test. (c) Initial conditions. (d) Manual test procedures. (e) Automatic test procedures (if applicable). (f) Method for evaluating FTD objective test results. (g) List of all relevant parameters driven or constrained during the automatic test(s). (h) List of all relevant parameters driven or constrained during the manual test(s). (i) Tolerances for relevant parameters.

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(j) Source of Validation Data (document and page number). (k) Copy of the Validation Data (if located in a separate binder, a cross reference for the identification and page number for pertinent data location must be provided). (l) FTD Objective Test Results as obtained by the sponsor. Each test result must reflect the date completed and must be clearly labeled as a product of the device being tested. f. A convertible FTD is addressed as a separate FTD for each model and series helicopter to which it will be converted and for the FAA qualification level sought. The responsible Flight Standards office will conduct an evaluation for each configuration. If a sponsor seeks qualification for two or more models of a helicopter type using a convertible FTD, the sponsor must provide a QTG for each helicopter model, or a QTG for the first helicopter model and a supplement to that QTG for each additional helicopter model. The responsible Flight Standards office will conduct evaluations for each helicopter model. g. The form and manner of presentation of objective test results in the QTG must include the following: (1) The sponsor's FTD test results must be recorded in a manner acceptable to the responsible Flight Standards office, that allows easy comparison of the FTD test results to the validation data (e.g., use of a multi-channel recorder, line printer, cross plotting, overlays, transparencies). (2) FTD results must be labeled using terminology common to helicopter parameters as opposed to computer software identifications. (3) Validation data documents included in a QTG may be photographically reduced only if such reduction will not alter the graphic scaling or cause difficulties in scale interpretation or resolution. (4) Scaling on graphical presentations must provide the resolution necessary to evaluate the parameters shown in Attachment 2, Table D2A of this appendix. (5) Tests involving time histories, data sheets (or transparencies thereof) and FTD test results must be clearly marked with appropriate reference points to ensure an accurate comparison between FTD and helicopter with respect to time. Time histories recorded via a line printer are to be clearly identified for cross-plotting on the helicopter data. Over-plots may not obscure the reference data. h. The sponsor may elect to complete the QTG objective and subjective tests at the manufacturer's facility or at the sponsor's training facility. If the tests are conducted at the manufacturer's facility, the sponsor must repeat at least one-third of the tests at the sponsor's training facility in order to substantiate FTD performance. The QTG must be clearly annotated to indicate when and where each test was accomplished. Tests conducted at the manufacturer's facility and at the sponsor's training facility must be conducted after the FTD is assembled with systems and sub-systems functional and operating in an interactive manner. The test results must be submitted to the responsible Flight Standards office. i. The sponsor must maintain a copy of the MQTG at the FTD location. j. All FTDs for which the initial qualification is conducted after May 30, 2014, must have an electronic MQTG (eMQTG) including all objective data obtained from helicopter testing, or another approved source (reformatted or digitized), together with correlating objective test results obtained from the performance of the FTD (reformatted or digitized) as prescribed in this appendix. The eMQTG must also contain the general FTD performance or demonstration results (reformatted or digitized) prescribed in this appendix, and a description of the equipment necessary to perform the initial qualification evaluation and the continuing qualification evaluations. The eMQTG must include the original validation data used to validate FTD performance and handling qualities in either the original digitized format from the data supplier or an electronic scan of the original time-history plots that were provided by the data supplier. A copy of the eMQTG must be provided to the responsible Flight Standards office. k. All other FTDs (not covered in subparagraph “j”) must have an electronic copy of the MQTG by and after May 30, 2014. An electronic copy of the MQTG must be provided to the responsible Flight Standards office. This may be provided by an electronic scan presented in a Portable Document File (PDF), or similar format acceptable to the responsible Flight Standards office. l. During the initial (or upgrade) qualification evaluation conducted by the responsible Flight Standards office, the sponsor must also provide a person knowledgeable about the operation of the aircraft and the operation of the FTD. End QPS Requirements Begin Information m. Only those FTDs that are sponsored by a certificate holder as defined in Appendix F of this part will be evaluated by the responsible Flight Standards office. However, other FTD evaluations may be conducted on a case-by-case basis as the Administrator deems appropriate, but only in accordance with applicable agreements. n. The responsible Flight Standards office will conduct an evaluation for each configuration, and each FTD must be evaluated as completely as possible. To ensure a thorough and uniform evaluation, each FTD is subjected to the general FTD requirements in Attachment 1 of this appendix, the objective tests listed in Attachment 2 of this appendix, and the subjective tests listed in Attachment 3 of this appendix. The evaluations described herein will include, but not necessarily be limited to the following:

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(1) Helicopter responses, including longitudinal and lateral-directional control responses (see Attachment 2 of this appendix). (2) Performance in authorized portions of the simulated helicopter's operating envelope, to include tasks evaluated by the responsible Flight Standards office in the areas of surface operations, takeoff, climb, cruise, descent, approach and landing, as well as abnormal and emergency operations (see Attachment 2 of this appendix). (3) Control checks (see Attachment 1 and Attachment 2 of this appendix). (4) Flight deck configuration (see Attachment 1 of this appendix). (5) Pilot, flight engineer, and instructor station functions checks (see Attachment 1 and Attachment 3 of this appendix). (6) Helicopter systems and sub-systems (as appropriate) as compared to the helicopter simulated (see attachment 1 and attachment 3 of this appendix). (7) FTD systems and sub-systems, including force cueing (motion), visual, and aural (sound) systems, as appropriate (see Attachment 1 and Attachment 2 of this appendix). (8) Certain additional requirements, depending upon the qualification level sought, including equipment or circumstances that may become hazardous to the occupants. The sponsor may be subject to Occupational Safety and Health Administration requirements. o. The responsible Flight Standards office administers the objective and subjective tests, which include an examination of functions. The tests include a qualitative assessment of the FTD by a pilot from the responsible Flight Standards office. The evaluation team leader may assign other qualified personnel to assist in accomplishing the functions examination and/or the objective and subjective tests performed during an evaluation when required. (1) Objective tests provide a basis for measuring and evaluating FTD performance and determining compliance with the requirements of this part. (2) Subjective tests provide a basis for: (a) Evaluating the capability of the FTD to perform over a typical utilization period; (b) Determining that the FTD satisfactorily simulates each required task; (c) Verifying correct operation of the FTD controls, instruments, and systems; and (d) Demonstrating compliance with the requirements of this part. p. The tolerances for the test parameters listed in Attachment 2 of this appendix reflect the range of tolerances acceptable to the responsible Flight Standards office for FTD validation and are not to be confused with design tolerances specified for FTD manufacture. In making decisions regarding tests and test results, the responsible Flight Standards office relies on the use of operational and engineering judgment in the application of data (including consideration of the way in which the flight test was flown and way the data was gathered and applied), data presentations, and the applicable tolerances for each test. q. In addition to the scheduled continuing qualification evaluation, each FTD is subject to evaluations conducted by the responsible Flight Standards office at any time without prior notification to the sponsor. Such evaluations would be accomplished in a normal manner (i.e., requiring exclusive use of the FTD for the conduct of objective and subjective tests and an examination of functions) if the FTD is not being used for flight crewmember training, testing, or checking. However, if the FTD were being used, the evaluation would be conducted in a non-exclusive manner. This non-exclusive evaluation will be conducted by the FTD evaluator accompanying the check airman, instructor, Aircrew Program Designee (APD), or FAA inspector aboard the FTD along with the student(s) and observing the operation of the FTD during the training, testing, or checking activities. r. Problems with objective test results are handled as follows: (1) If a problem with an objective test result is detected by the evaluation team during an evaluation, the test may be repeated or the QTG may be amended. (2) If it is determined that the results of an objective test do not support the qualification level requested but do support a lower level, the responsible Flight Standards office may qualify the FTD at a lower level. s. After an FTD is successfully evaluated, the responsible Flight Standards office issues an SOQ to the sponsor. The responsible Flight Standards office recommends the FTD to the TPAA, who will approve the FTD for use in a flight training program. The SOQ will be issued at the satisfactory conclusion of the initial or continuing qualification evaluation and will list the tasks for which the FTD is qualified, referencing the tasks described in Table D1B in Attachment 1 of this appendix. However, it is the sponsor's responsibility to obtain TPAA approval prior to using the FTD in an FAA-approved flight training program. t. Under normal circumstances, the responsible Flight Standards office establishes a date for the initial or upgrade evaluation within ten (10) working days after determining that a complete QTG is acceptable. Unusual circumstances may warrant establishing an evaluation date before this determination is made. A sponsor may schedule an evaluation date as early as 6 months in advance. However, there may be a delay of 45 days or more in rescheduling and completing the evaluation if the sponsor is unable to meet the scheduled date. See Attachment 4, of this appendix, Figure D4A, Sample Request for Initial, Upgrade, or Reinstatement Evaluation.

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u. The numbering system used for objective test results in the QTG should closely follow the numbering system set out in Attachment 2, FTD Objective Tests, Table D2A of this appendix. v. Contact the responsible Flight Standards office for additional information regarding the preferred qualifications of pilots used to meet the requirements of § 60.15(d). w. Examples of the exclusions for which the FTD might not have been subjectively tested by the sponsor or the responsible Flight Standards office and for which qualification might not be sought or granted, as described in § 60.15(g)(6), include approaches to and departures from slopes and pinnacles. End Information 12. Additional Qualifications for Currently Qualified FTDs (§ 60.16) Begin Information No additional regulatory or informational material applies to § 60.16, Additional Qualifications for a Currently Qualified FTD. End Information 13. Previously Qualified FTDs (§ 60.17) Begin QPS Requirements a. In instances where a sponsor plans to remove an FTD from active status for a period of less than two years, the following procedures apply: (1) The responsible Flight Standards office must be notified in writing and the notification must include an estimate of the period that the FTD will be inactive. (2) Continuing Qualification evaluations will not be scheduled during the inactive period. (3) The responsible Flight Standards office will remove the FTD from the list of qualified FTDs on a mutually established date not later than the date on which the first missed continuing qualification evaluation would have been scheduled. (4) Before the FTD is restored to qualified status, it must be evaluated by the responsible Flight Standards office. The evaluation content and the time required to accomplish the evaluation is based on the number of continuing qualification evaluations and sponsor-conducted quarterly inspections missed during the period of inactivity. (5) The sponsor must notify the responsible Flight Standards office of any changes to the original scheduled time out of service. b. FTDs and replacement FTD systems qualified prior to May 30, 2008, are not required to meet the general FTD requirements, the objective test requirements, and the subjective test requirements of Attachments 1, 2, and 3, respectively, of this appendix as long as the FTD continues to meet the test requirements contained in the MQTG developed under the original qualification basis. c. After (1 year after date of publication of the final rule in the Federal Register ) each visual scene and airport model installed in and available for use in a qualified FTD must meet the requirements described in Attachment 3 of this appendix. d. Simulators qualified prior to May 30, 2008, may be updated. If an evaluation is deemed appropriate or necessary by the responsible Flight Standards office after such an update, the evaluation will not require an evaluation to standards beyond those against which the simulator was originally qualified. End QPS Requirements Begin Information e. Other certificate holders or persons desiring to use an FTD may contract with FTD sponsors to use FTDs previously qualified at a particular level for a helicopter type and approved for use within an FAA-approved flight training program. Such FTDs are not required to undergo an additional qualification process, except as described in § 60.16. f. Each FTD user must obtain approval from the appropriate TPAA to use any FTD in an FAA-approved flight training program. g. The intent of the requirement listed in § 60.17(b), for each FTD to have an SOQ within 6 years, is to have the availability of that statement (including the configuration list and the limitations to authorizations) to provide a complete picture of the FTD inventory regulated by the FAA. The issuance of the statement will not require any additional evaluation or require any adjustment to the evaluation basis for the FTD. h. Downgrading of an FTD is a permanent change in qualification level and will necessitate the issuance of a revised SOQ to reflect the revised qualification level, as appropriate. If a temporary restriction is placed on an FTD because of a missing, malfunctioning, or inoperative component or on-going repairs, the restriction is not a permanent change in qualification level. Instead, the restriction is temporary and is removed when the reason for the restriction has been resolved.

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i. It is not the intent of the responsible Flight Standards office to discourage the improvement of existing simulation (e.g., the “updating” of a control loading system, or the replacement of the IOS with a more capable unit) by requiring the “updated” device to meet the qualification standards current at the time of the update. Depending on the extent of the update, the responsible Flight Standards officemay require that the updated device be evaluated and may require that an evaluation include all or a portion of the elements of an initial evaluation. However, the standards against which the device would be evaluated are those that are found in the MQTG for that device. j. The responsible Flight Standards officewill determine the evaluation criteria for an FTD that has been removed from active status for a prolonged period. The criteria will be based on the number of continuing qualification evaluations and quarterly inspections missed during the period of inactivity. For example, if the FTD were out of service for a 1 year period, it would be necessary to complete the entire QTG, since all of the quarterly evaluations would have been missed. The responsible Flight Standards officewill also consider how the FTD was stored, whether parts were removed from the FTD and whether the FTD was disassembled. k. The FTD will normally be requalified using the FAA-approved MQTG and the criteria that was in effect prior to its removal from qualification. However, inactive periods of 2 years or more will require re-qualification under the standards in effect and current at the time of requalification. End Information 14. Inspection, Continuing Qualification, Evaluation, and Maintenance Requirements (§ 60.19) Begin QPS Requirement a. The sponsor must conduct a minimum of four evenly spaced inspections throughout the year. The objective test sequence and content of each inspection in this sequence must be developed by the sponsor and must be acceptable to the responsible Flight Standards office. b. The description of the functional preflight check must be contained in the sponsor's QMS. c. Record “functional preflight” in the FTD discrepancy log book or other acceptable location, including any item found to be missing, malfunctioning, or inoperative. d. During the continuing qualification evaluation conducted by the responsible Flight Standards office, the sponsor must also provide a person knowledgeable about the operation of the aircraft and the operation of the FTD. End QPS Requirements Begin Information e. The sponsor's test sequence and the content of each quarterly inspection required in § 60.19(a)(1) should include a balance and a mix from the objective test requirement areas listed as follows: (1) Performance. (2) Handling qualities. (3) Motion system (where appropriate). (4) Visual system (where appropriate). (5) Sound system (where appropriate). (6) Other FTD systems. f. If the evaluator plans to accomplish specific tests during a normal continuing qualification evaluation that requires the use of special equipment or technicians, the sponsor will be notified as far in advance of the evaluation as practical; but not less than 72 hours. Examples of such tests include latencies and control sweeps. g. The continuing qualification evaluations described in § 60.19(b) will normally require 4 hours of FTD time. However, flexibility is necessary to address abnormal situations or situations involving aircraft with additional levels of complexity (e.g., computer controlled aircraft). The sponsor should anticipate that some tests may require additional time. The continuing qualification evaluations will consist of the following: (1) Review of the results of the quarterly inspections conducted by the sponsor since the last scheduled continuing qualification evaluation. (2) A selection of approximately 8 to 15 objective tests from the MQTG that provide an adequate opportunity to evaluate the performance of the FTD. The tests chosen will be performed either automatically or manually and should be able to be conducted within approximately one-third (1/3) of the allotted FTD time. (3) A subjective evaluation of the FTD to perform a representative sampling of the tasks set out in attachment 3 of this appendix. This portion of the evaluation should take approximately two-thirds (2/3) of the allotted FTD time. (4) An examination of the functions of the FTD may include the motion system, visual system, sound system as applicable, instructor operating station, and the normal functions and simulated malfunctions of the simulated helicopter systems. This examination is normally accomplished simultaneously with the subjective evaluation requirements.

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h. The requirement established in § 60.19(b)(4) regarding the frequency of responsible Flight Standards office-conducted continuing qualification evaluations for each FTD is typically 12 months. However, the establishment and satisfactory implementation of an approved QMS for a sponsor will provide a basis for adjusting the frequency of evaluations to exceed 12-month intervals. End Information 15. Logging FTD Discrepancies (§ 60.20) Begin Information No additional regulatory or informational material applies to § 60.20. Logging FTD Discrepancies. End Information 16. Interim Qualification of FTDs for New Helicopter Types or Models (§ 60.21) Begin Information No additional regulatory or informational material applies to § 60.21, Interim Qualification of FTDs for New Helicopter Types or Models. End Information 17. Modifications to FTDs (§ 60.23) Begin QPS Requirements a. The notification described in § 60.23(c)(2) must include a complete description of the planned modification, with a description of the operational and engineering effect the proposed modification will have on the operation of the FTD and the results that are expected with the modification incorporated. b. Prior to using the modified FTD: (1) All the applicable objective tests completed with the modification incorporated, including any necessary updates to the MQTG (e.g., accomplishment of FSTD Directives) must be acceptable to the responsible Flight Standards office; and (2) The sponsor must provide the responsible Flight Standards office with a statement signed by the MR that the factors listed in § 60.15(b) are addressed by the appropriate personnel as described in that section. End QPS Requirements Begin Information c. FSTD Directives are considered modification of an FTD. See Attachment 4 of this appendix, Figure D4I for a sample index of effective FSTD Directives. See Attachment 6 of this appendix for a list of all effective FSTD Directives applicable to Helicopter FTDs. End Information 18. Operation with Missing, Malfunctioning, or Inoperative Components (§ 60.25) Begin Information a. The sponsor's responsibility with respect to § 60.25(a) is satisfied when the sponsor fairly and accurately advises the user of the current status of an FTD, including any missing, malfunctioning, or inoperative (MMI) component(s). b. It is the responsibility of the instructor, check airman, or representative of the administrator conducting training, testing, or checking to exercise reasonable and prudent judgment to determine if any MMI component is necessary for the satisfactory completion of a specific maneuver, procedure, or task. c. If the 29th or 30th day of the 30-day period described in § 60.25(b) is on a Saturday, a Sunday, or a holiday, the FAA will extend the deadline until the next business day. d. In accordance with the authorization described in § 60.25(b), the sponsor may develop a discrepancy prioritizing system to accomplish repairs based on the level of impact on the capability of the FTD. Repairs having a larger impact on the FTD's ability to provide the required training, evaluation, or flight experience will have a higher priority for repair or replacement. End Information 19. Automatic Loss of Qualification and Procedures for Restoration of Qualification (§ 60.27) Begin Information If the sponsor provides a plan for how the FTD will be maintained during its out-of-service period (e.g., periodic exercise of mechanical, hydraulic, and electrical systems; routine replacement of hydraulic fluid; control of the environmental factors in which the FTD is to be maintained) there is a greater likelihood that the responsible Flight Standards office will be able to determine the amount of testing that is required for requalification.

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End Information 20. Other Losses of Qualification and Procedures for Restoration of Qualification (§ 60.29) Begin Information If the sponsor provides a plan for how the FTD will be maintained during its out-of-service period (e.g., periodic exercise of mechanical, hydraulic, and electrical systems; routine replacement of hydraulic fluid; control of the environmental factors in which the FTD is to be maintained) there is a greater likelihood that the responsible Flight Standards office will be able to determine the amount of testing that is required for requalification. End Information 21. Record Keeping and Reporting (§ 60.31) Begin QPS Requirements a. FTD modifications can include hardware or software changes. For FTD modifications involving software programming changes, the record required by § 60.31(a)(2) must consist of the name of the aircraft system software, aerodynamic model, or engine model change, the date of the change, a summary of the change, and the reason for the change. b. If a coded form for record keeping is used, it must provide for the preservation and retrieval of information with appropriate security or controls to prevent the inappropriate alteration of such records after the fact. End Information 22. Applications, Logbooks, Reports, and Records: Fraud, Falsification, or Incorrect Statements (§ 60.33) Begin Information No additional regulatory or informational material applies to § 60.33, Applications, Logbooks, Reports, and Records: Fraud, Falsification, or Incorrect Statements 23. [Reserved] End Information 24. Levels of FTD Begin Information a. The following is a general description of each level of FTD. Detailed standards and tests for the various levels of FTDs are fully defined in Attachments 1 through 3 of this appendix. (1) Level 4. A Level 4 device is one that may have an open helicopter-specific flight deck area, or an enclosed helicopter-specific flight deck and at least one operating system. Air/ground logic is required (no aerodynamic programming required). All displays may be flat/LCD panel representations or actual representations of displays in the aircraft. All controls, switches, and knobs may be touch sensitive activation (not capable of manual manipulation of the flight controls) or may physically replicate the aircraft in control operation. (2) Level 5. A Level 5 device is one that may have an open helicopter-specific flight deck area, or an enclosed helicopter-specific flight deck and a generic aerodynamic program with at least one operating system and control loading representative of the simulated helicopter. The control loading need only represent the helicopter at an approach speed and configuration. All displays may be flat/LCD panel representations or actual representations of displays in the aircraft. Primary and secondary flight controls (e.g., rudder, aileron, elevator, flaps, spoilers/speed brakes, engine controls, landing gear, nosewheel steering, trim, brakes) must be physical controls. All other controls, switches, and knobs may be touch sensitive activation. (3) Level 6. A Level 6 device is one that has an enclosed helicopter-specific flight deck and aerodynamic program with all applicable helicopter systems operating and control loading that is representative of the simulated helicopter throughout its ground and flight envelope and significant sound representation. All displays may be flat/LCD panel representations or actual representations of displays in the aircraft, but all controls, switches, and knobs must physically replicate the aircraft in control operation. (4) Level 7. A Level 7 device is one that has an enclosed helicopter-specific flight deck and aerodynamic program with all applicable helicopter systems operating and control loading that is representative of the simulated helicopter throughout its ground and flight envelope and significant sound representation. All displays may be flat/LCD panel representations or actual representations of displays in the aircraft, but all controls, switches, and knobs must physically replicate the aircraft in control operation. It also has a visual system that provides an out-of-the-flight deck view, providing cross-flight deck viewing (for both pilots simultaneously) of a field-of-view of at least 146° horizontally and 36° vertically as well as a vibration cueing system for characteristic helicopter vibrations noted at the pilot station(s).

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End Information 25. FTD Qualification on the Basis of a Bilateral Aviation Safety Agreement (BASA) (§ 60.37) Begin Information No additional regulatory or informational material applies to § 60.37, FTD Qualification on the Basis of a Bilateral Aviation Safety Agreement (BASA). End Information Attachment 1 to Appendix D to Part 60—GENERAL FTD REQUIREMENTS Begin QPS Requirements 1. Requirements a. Certain requirements included in this appendix must be supported with an SOC as defined in Appendix F, which may include objective and subjective tests. The requirements for SOCs are indicated in the “General FTD Requirements” column in Table D1A of this appendix. b. Table D1A describes the requirements for the indicated level of FTD. Many devices include operational systems or functions that exceed the requirements outlined in this section. In any event, all systems will be tested and evaluated in accordance with this appendix to ensure proper operation. End QPS Requirements Begin Information 2. Discussion a. This attachment describes the general requirements for qualifying Level 4 through Level 7 FTDs. The sponsor should also consult the objectives tests in Attachment 2 of this appendix and the examination of functions and subjective tests listed in Attachment 3 of this appendix to determine the complete requirements for a specific level FTD. b. The material contained in this attachment is divided into the following categories: (1) General Flight Deck Configuration. (2) Programming. (3) Equipment Operation. (4) Equipment and Facilities for Instructor/Evaluator Functions. (5) Motion System. (6) Visual System. (7) Sound System. c. Table D1A provides the standards for the General FTD Requirements. d. Table D1B provides the tasks that the sponsor will examine to determine whether the FTD satisfactorily meets the requirements for flight crew training, testing, and experience. e. Table D1C provides the functions that an instructor/check airman must be able to control in the simulator. f. It is not required that all of the tasks that appear on the List of Qualified Tasks (part of the SOQ) be accomplished during the initial or continuing qualification evaluation. End Information Table D1A—Minimum FTD Requirements

QPS requirements	Entry No.	General FTD requirements	FTD level	4	5	6	7	Information	Notes
1. General Flight Deck Configuration.
1.a.	The FTD must have a flight deck that is a replica of the helicopter, or set of helicopters simulated with controls, equipment, observable flight deck indicators, circuit breakers, and bulkheads properly located, functionally accurate and replicating the helicopter or set of helicopters. The direction of movement of controls and switches must be identical to that in the helicopter or set of helicopters. Crewmember seats must afford the capability for the occupant to be able to achieve the design “eye position.” Equipment for the operation of the flight deck windows must be included, but the actual windows need not be operable. Those circuit breakers that affect procedures or result in observable flight deck indications must be properly located and functionally accurate. Fire axes, extinguishers, landing gear pins, and spare light bulbs must be available, and may be represented in silhouette, in the flight simulator. This equipment must be present as near as practical to the original position			X	X	For FTD purposes, the flight deck consists of all that space forward of a cross section of the flight deck at the most extreme aft setting of the pilots' seats including additional, required crewmember duty stations and those required bulkheads aft of the pilot seats. Bulkheads containing only items such as landing gear pin storage compartments, fire axes and extinguishers, spare light bulbs, and aircraft documents pouches are not considered essential and may be omitted. If omitted, these items, or the silhouettes of these items, may be placed on the wall of the simulator, or in any other location as near as practical to the original position of these items.
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1.b.	The FTD must have equipment (i.e., instruments, panels, systems, circuit breakers, and controls) simulated sufficiently for the authorized training/checking events to be accomplished. The installed equipment, must be located in a spatially correct configuration, and may be in a flight deck or an open flight deck area. Those circuit breakers that affect procedures or result in observable flight deck indications must be properly located and functionally accurate. Additional equipment required for the authorized training and checking events must be available in the FTD but may be located in a suitable location as near as practical to the spatially correct position. Actuation of this equipment must replicate the appropriate function in the helicopter. Fire axes, landing gear pins, and any similar purpose instruments need only be represented in silhouette	X	X
2. Programming.
2.a.	The FTD must provide the proper effect of aerodynamic changes for the combinations of drag and thrust normally encountered in flight. This must include the effect of change in helicopter attitude, thrust, drag, altitude, temperature, and configuration. Levels 6 and 7 additionally require the effects of changes in gross weight and center of gravity.Level 5 requires only generic aerodynamic programming. An SOC is required		X	X	X
2.b.	The FTD must have the computer (analog or digital) capability (i.e., capacity, accuracy, resolution, and dynamic response) needed to meet the qualification level sought. An SOC is required	X	X	X	X
2.c.	Relative responses of the flight deck instruments must be measured by latency tests or transport delay tests, and may not exceed 150 milliseconds. The instruments must respond to abrupt input at the pilot's position within the allotted time, but not before the time that the helicopter or set of helicopters respond under the same conditions • Latency: The FTD instrument and, if applicable, the motion system and the visual system response must not be prior to that time when the helicopter responds and may respond up to 150 milliseconds after that time under the same conditions • Transport Delay: As an alternative to the Latency requirement, a transport delay objective test may be used to demonstrate that the FTD system does not exceed the specified limit. The sponsor must measure all the delay encountered by a step signal migrating from the pilot's control through all the simulation software modules in the correct order, using a handshaking protocol, finally through the normal output interfaces to the instrument display and, if applicable, the motion system, and the visual system		X	X	X	The intent is to verify that the FTD provides instrument cues that are, within the stated time delays, like the helicopter responses. For helicopter response, acceleration in the appropriate, corresponding rotational axis is preferred.
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3. Equipment Operation.
3.a.	All relevant instrument indications involved in the simulation of the helicopter must automatically respond to control movement or external disturbances to the simulated helicopter or set of helicopters; e.g., turbulence or winds	A	X	X	X
3.b.	Navigation equipment must be installed and operate within the tolerances applicable for the helicopter or set of helicopters. Levels 6 and 7 must also include communication equipment (inter-phone and air/ground) like that in the helicopter. Level 5 only needs that navigation equipment necessary to fly an instrument approach	A	X	X	X
3.c.	Installed systems must simulate the applicable helicopter system operation both on the ground and in flight. At least one helicopter system must be represented. Systems must be operative to the extent that applicable normal, abnormal, and emergency operating procedures included in the sponsor's training programs can be accomplished. Levels 6 and 7 must simulate all applicable helicopter flight, navigation, and systems operation. Level 5 must have functional flight and navigational controls, displays, and instrumentation	A	X	X	X
3.d.	The lighting environment for panels and instruments must be sufficient for the operation being conducted	X	X	X	X	Back-lighted panels and instruments may be installed but are not required.
3.e.	The FTD must provide control forces and control travel that correspond to the replicated helicopter or set of helicopters. Control forces must react in the same manner as in the helicopter or set of helicopters under the same flight conditions			X	X
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3.f.	The FTD must provide control forces and control travel of sufficient precision to manually fly an instrument approach. The control forces must react in the same manner as in the helicopter or set of helicopters under the same flight conditions		X
4. Instructor or Evaluator Facilities.
4.a.	In addition to the flight crewmember stations, suitable seating arrangements for an instructor/check airman and FAA Inspector must be available. These seats must provide adequate view of crewmember's panel(s)	X	X	X	X	These seats need not be a replica of an aircraft seat and may be as simple as an office chair placed in an appropriate position.
4.b.	The FTD must have instructor controls that permit activation of normal, abnormal, and emergency conditions, as appropriate. Once activated, proper system operation must result from system management by the crew and not require input from the instructor controls.	X	X	X	X
5. Motion System
5.a.	A motion system may be installed in an FTD. If installed, the motion system operation must not be distracting. If a motion system is installed and additional training, testing, or checking credits are being sought, sensory cues must also be integrated. The motion system must respond to abrupt input at the pilot's position within the allotted time, but not before the time when the helicopter responds under the same conditions. The motion system must be measured by latency tests or transport delay tests and may not exceed 150 milliseconds. Instrument response must not occur prior to motion onset	X	X	X	X
5.b.	The FTD must have at least a vibration cueing system for characteristic helicopter vibrations noted at the pilot station(s)				X	May be accomplished by a “seat shaker” or a bass speaker sufficient to provide the necessary cueing.
6. Visual System
6.a.	The FTD may have a visual system, if desired, although it is not required. If a visual system is installed, it must meet the following criteria:
6.a.1.	The visual system must respond to abrupt input at the pilot's position. An SOC is required	X	X	X
6.a.2.	The visual system must be at least a single channel, non-collimated display. An SOC is required	X	X	X
6.a.3.	The visual system must provide at least a field-of-view of 18° vertical/24° horizontal for the pilot flying. An SOC is required	X	X	X
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6.a.4.	The visual system must provide for a maximum parallax of 10° per pilot. An SOC is required	X	X	X
6.a.5.	The visual scene content may not be distracting. An SOC is required	X	X	X
6.a.6.	The minimum distance from the pilot's eye position to the surface of a direct view display may not be less than the distance to any front panel instrument. An SOC is required	X	X	X
6.a.7.	The visual system must provide for a minimum resolution of 5 arc-minutes for both computed and displayed pixel size. An SOC is required	X	X	X
6.b.	If a visual system is installed and additional training, testing, or checking credits are being sought on the basis of having a visual system, a visual system meeting the standards set out for at least a Level A FFS (see Appendix A of this part) will be required. A “direct-view,” non-collimated visual system (with the other requirements for a Level A visual system met) may be considered satisfactory for those installations where the visual system design “eye point” is appropriately adjusted for each pilot's position such that the parallax error is at or less than 10° simultaneously for each pilot. An SOC is required	X	X	X
6.c.	The FTD must provide a continuous visual field-of-view of at least 146° horizontally and 36° vertically for both pilot seats, simultaneously. The minimum horizontal field-of-view coverage must be plus and minus one-half ( 1/2 ) of the minimum continuous field-of-view requirement, centered on the zero degree azimuth line relative to the aircraft fuselage. Additional horizontal field-of-view capability may be added at the sponsor's discretion provided the minimum field-of-view is retained. Capability for a field-of-view in excess of these minima is not required for qualification at Level 7. However, where specific tasks require extended fields of view beyond the 146° by 36° (e.g., to accommodate the use of “chin windows” where the accommodation is either integral with or separate from the primary visual system display), then such extended fields of view must be provided. An SOC is required and must explain the geometry of the installation.				X	Optimization of the vertical field-of-view may be considered with respect to the specific helicopter flight deck cut-off angle. When considering the installation/use of augmented fields of view, as described here, it will be the responsibility of the sponsor to meet with the responsible Flight Standards office to determine the training, testing, checking, or experience tasks for which the augmented field-of-view capability may be critical to that approval.
7. Sound System
7.a.	The FTD must simulate significant flight deck sounds resulting from pilot actions that correspond to those heard in the helicopter			X	X
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Note: An “A” in the table indicates that the system, task, or procedure may be examined if the appropriate helicopter system or control is simulated in the FTD and is working properly.

Table D1B—Minimum FTD Requirements

QPS requirements	Entry No.	Subjective requirements The FTD must be able to perform the tasks associated with the level of qualification sought.	FTD level	4	5	6	7	Information	Notes
1. Preflight Procedures
1.a.	Preflight Inspection (Flight Deck Only) switches, indicators, systems, and equipment	A	A	X	X
1.b.	APU/Engine start and run-up
1.b.1.	Normal start procedures	A	A	X	X
1.b.2.	Alternate start procedures	A	A	X	X
1.b.3.	Abnormal starts and shutdowns (hot start, hung start)	A	A	X	X
1.c.	Taxiing—Ground				X
1.d.	Taxiing—Hover				X
1.e.	Pre-takeoff Checks	A	A	X	X
2. Takeoff and Departure Phase
2.a.	Normal takeoff
2.a.1.	From ground				X
2.a.2.	From hover				X
2.a.3	Running				X
2.b.	Instrument			X	X
2.c.	Powerplant Failure During Takeoff			X	X
2.d.	Rejected Takeoff				X
2.e.	Instrument Departure			X	X
3. Climb
3.a.	Normal			X	X
3.b.	Obstacle clearance				X
3.c.	Vertical			X	X
3.d.	One engine inoperative			X	X
4. In-flight Maneuvers
4.a.	Turns (timed, normal, steep)		X	X	X
4.b.	Powerplant Failure—Multiengine Helicopters			X	X
4.c.	Powerplant Failure—Single-Engine Helicopters			X	X
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4.d.	Recovery From Unusual Attitudes				X
4.e.	Settling with Power				X
5. Instrument Procedures
5.a.	Instrument Arrival			X	X
5.b.	Holding			X	X
5.c.	Precision Instrument Approach
5.c.1.	Normal—All engines operating		X	X	X
5.c.2.	Manually controlled—One or more engines inoperative			X	X
5.d.	Non-precision Instrument Approach		X	X	X
5.e.	Missed Approach.
5.e.1.	All engines operating			X	X
5.e.2.	One or more engines inoperative			X	X
5.e.3.	Stability augmentation system failure			X	X
6. Landings and Approaches to Landings
6.a.	Visual Approaches (normal, steep, shallow)		X	X	X
6.b.	Landings.
6.b.1.	Normal/crosswind.
6.b.1.a.	Running				X
6.b.1.b.	From Hover				X
6.b.2.	One or more engines inoperative				X
6.b.3.	Rejected Landing				X
7. Normal and Abnormal Procedures
7.a.	Powerplant	A	A	X	X
7.b.	Fuel System	A	A	X	X
7.c.	Electrical System	A	A	X	X
7.d.	Hydraulic System	A	A	X	X
7.e.	Environmental System(s)	A	A	X	X
7.f.	Fire Detection and Extinguisher Systems	A	A	X	X
7.g.	Navigation and Aviation Systems	A	A	X	X
7.h.	Automatic Flight Control System, Electronic Flight Instrument System, and Related Subsystems	A	A	X	X
7.i.	Flight Control Systems	A	A	X	X
7.j.	Anti-ice and Deice Systems	A	A	X	X
7.k.	Aircraft and Personal Emergency Equipment	A	A	X	X
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7.l.	Special Missions tasks (e.g., Night Vision goggles, Forward Looking Infrared System, External Loads and as listed on the SOQ.)				X
8. Emergency procedures (as applicable)
8.a.	Emergency Descent			X	X
8.b.	Inflight Fire and Smoke Removal			X	X
8.c.	Emergency Evacuation			X	X
8.d.	Ditching				X
8.e.	Autorotative Landing				X
8.f.	Retreating blade stall recovery				X
8.g.	Mast bumping				X
8.h.	Loss of tail rotor effectiveness			X	X
9. Postflight Procedures
9.a.	After-Landing Procedures	A	A	X	X
9.b.	Parking and Securing
9.b.1.	Rotor brake operation	A	A	X	X
9.b.2.	Abnormal/emergency procedures	A	A	X	X
Note: An “A” in the table indicates that the system, task, or procedure may be examined if the appropriate aircraft system or control is simulated in the FTD and is working properly.

Table D1C—Table of FTD System Tasks

QPS requirements	Entry No.	Subjective requirements In order to be qualified at the FTD qualification level indicated, the FTD must be able to perform at least the tasks associate with that level of qualification.	FTD level	4	5	6	7	Information	Notes
1. Instructor Operating Station (IOS)
1.a.	Power switch(es)	A	X	X	X
1.b.	Helicopter conditions	A	A	X	X	e.g., GW, CG, Fuel loading, Systems, Ground. Crew.
1.c.	Airports/Heliports/Helicopter Landing Areas	A	X	X	X	e.g., Selection, Surface, Presets, Lighting controls.
1.d.	Environmental controls	A	X	X	X	e.g., Temp and Wind.
1.e.	Helicopter system malfunctions (Insertion/deletion)	A	A	X	X
1.f.	Locks, Freezes, and Repositioning (as appropriate)	A	X	X	X
1.g.	Sound Controls. (On/off/adjustment)		X	X	X
1.h.	Motion/Control Loading System, as appropriate. On/off/emergency stop		A	X	X
2. Observer Seats/Stations
2.a.	Position/Adjustment/Positive restraint system	A	X	X	X
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Note: An “A” in the table indicates that the system, task, or procedure may be examined if the appropriate simulator system or control is in the FTD and is working properly.

Attachment 2 to Appendix D to Part 60—Flight Training Device (FTD) Objective Tests Begin Information 1. Discussion a. If relevant winds are present in the objective data, the wind vector (magnitude and direction) should be noted as part of the data presentation, expressed in conventional terminology, and related to the runway being used for the test. b. The format for numbering the objective tests in Appendix C of this part, Attachment 2, Table C2A, and the objective tests in Appendix D of this part, Attachment 2, Table D2A, is identical. However, each test required for FFSs is not necessarily required for FTDs, and each test required for FTDs is not necessarily required for FFSs. When a test number (or series of numbers) is not required, the term “Reserved” is used in the table at that location. Following this numbering format provides a degree of commonality between the two tables and substantially reduces the potential for confusion when referring to objective test numbers for either FFSs or FTDs. c. A Level 4 FTD does not require objective tests and is not addressed in the following table. End Information Begin QPS Requirements 2. Test Requirements a. The ground and flight tests required for qualification are listed in Table D2A Objective Evaluation Tests. Computer generated FTD test results must be provided for each test except where an alternate test is specifically authorized by the responsible Flight Standards office. If a flight condition or operating condition is required for the test but does not apply to the helicopter being simulated or to the qualification level sought, it may be disregarded (e.g., engine out climb capability for a single-engine helicopter). Each test result is compared against the validation data described in § 60.13, and in Appendix B of this part. The results must be produced on an appropriate recording device acceptable to the responsible Flight Standards office and must include FTD number, date, time, conditions, tolerances, and appropriate dependent variables portrayed in comparison to the validation data. Time histories are required unless otherwise indicated in Table D2A. All results must be labeled using the tolerances and units given. b. Table D2A in this attachment sets out the test results required, including the parameters, tolerances, and flight conditions for FTD validation. Tolerances are provided for the listed tests because mathematical modeling and acquisition and development of reference data are often inexact. All tolerances listed in the following tables are applied to FTD performance. When two tolerance values are given for a parameter, the less restrictive may be used unless otherwise indicated. In those cases where a tolerance is expressed only as a percentage, the tolerance percentage applies to the maximum value of that parameter within its normal operating range as measured from the neutral or zero position unless otherwise indicated. c. Certain tests included in this attachment must be supported with an SOC. In Table D2A, requirements for SOCs are indicated in the “Test Details” column. d. When operational or engineering judgment is used in making assessments for flight test data applications for FTD validity, such judgment must not be limited to a single parameter. For example, data that exhibit rapid variations of the measured parameters may require interpolations or a “best fit” data section. All relevant parameters related to a given maneuver or flight condition must be provided to allow overall interpretation. When it is difficult or impossible to match FTD to helicopter data throughout a time history, differences must be justified by providing a comparison of other related variables for the condition being assessed. e. The FTD may not be programmed so that the mathematical modeling is correct only at the validation test points. Unless noted otherwise, tests must represent helicopter performance and handling qualities at operating weights and centers of gravity (CG) typical of normal operation. If a test is supported by aircraft data at one extreme weight or CG, another test supported by aircraft data at mid-conditions or as close as possible to the other extreme is necessary. Certain tests that are relevant only at one extreme CG or weight condition need not be repeated at the other extreme. The results of the tests for Level 6 are expected to be indicative of the device's performance and handling qualities throughout all of the following:

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(1) The helicopter weight and CG envelope. (2) The operational envelope. (3) Varying atmospheric ambient and environmental conditions—including the extremes authorized for the respective helicopter or set of helicopters. f. When comparing the parameters listed to those of the helicopter, sufficient data must also be provided to verify the correct flight condition and helicopter configuration changes. For example, to show that control force is within the parameters for a static stability test, data to show the correct airspeed, power, thrust or torque, helicopter configuration, altitude, and other appropriate datum identification parameters must also be given. If comparing short period dynamics, normal acceleration may be used to establish a match to the helicopter, but airspeed, altitude, control input, helicopter configuration, and other appropriate data must also be given. If comparing landing gear change dynamics, pitch, airspeed, and altitude may be used to establish a match to the helicopter, but landing gear position must also be provided. All airspeed values must be properly annotated (e.g., indicated versus calibrated). In addition, the same variables must be used for comparison (e.g., compare inches to inches rather than inches to centimeters). g. The QTG provided by the sponsor must clearly describe how the FTD will be set up and operated for each test. Each FTD subsystem may be tested independently, but overall integrated testing of the FTD must be accomplished to assure that the total FTD system meets the prescribed standards. A manual test procedure with explicit and detailed steps for completing each test must also be provided. h. For previously qualified FTDs, the tests and tolerances of this attachment may be used in subsequent continuing qualification evaluations for any given test if the sponsor has submitted a proposed MQTG revision to the responsible Flight Standard office and has received responsible Flight Standards office approval. i. Tests of handling qualities must include validation of augmentation devices. FTDs for highly augmented helicopters will be validated both in the unaugmented configuration (or failure state with the maximum permitted degradation in handling qualities) and the augmented configuration. Where various levels of handling qualities result from failure states, validation of the effect of the failure is necessary. For those performance and static handling qualities tests where the primary concern is control position in the unaugmented configuration, unaugmented data are not required if the design of the system precludes any affect on control position. In those instances where the unaugmented helicopter response is divergent and non-repeatable, it may not be feasible to meet the specified tolerances. Alternative requirements for testing will be mutually agreed upon by the sponsor and the responsible Flight Standards office on a case-by-case basis. j. Some tests will not be required for helicopters using helicopter hardware in the FTD flight deck (e.g., “helicopter modular controller”). These exceptions are noted in Section 2 “Handling Qualities” in Table D2A of this attachment. However, in these cases, the sponsor must provide a statement that the helicopter hardware meets the appropriate manufacturer's specifications and the sponsor must have supporting information to that fact available for responsible Flight Standards office review. k. In cases where light-class helicopters are being simulated, prior coordination with the responsible Flight Standards office on acceptable weight ranges is required. The terms “light,” “medium,” and “near maximum,” may not be appropriate for the simulation of light-class helicopters. End QPS Requirements Begin Information l. In those cases where the objective test results authorize a “snapshot test” or a “series of snapshot test” results in lieu of a time-history result, the sponsor or other data provider must ensure that a steady state condition exists at the instant of time captured by the “snapshot.” The steady state condition must exist from 4 seconds prior to, through 1 second following, the instant of time captured by the snap shot. m. Refer to AC 120-27, Aircraft Weight and Balance; and FAA-H-8083-1, Aircraft Weight and Balance Handbook, for more information. End Information

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Table D2A—Flight Training Device (FTD) Objective Tests

QPS requirements	Test	Entry No.	Title	Tolerances	Flight conditions	Test details	FTD level	5	6	7	Information	Notes
1.	Performance
1.a.	Engine Assessment.
1.a.1.	Start Operations.
1.a.1.a.	Engine start and acceleration (transient)	Light Off Time—±10% or ±1 sec. Torque—±5% Rotor Speed—±3% Fuel Flow—±10% Gas Generator Speed—±5% Power Turbine Speed—±5% Gas Turbine Temp—±30 °C	Ground with the Rotor Brake Used and Not Used	Record each engine start from the initiation of the start sequence to steady state idle and from steady state idle to operating RPM		X	X
1.a.1.b.	Steady State Idle and Operating RPM conditions	Torque—±3% Rotor Speed—±1.5% Fuel Flow—±5% Gas Generator Speed—±2% Power Turbine Speed—±2% Turbine Gas Temp—±20 °C	Ground	Record both steady state idle and operating RPM conditions. May be a series of snapshot tests	X	X	X
1.a.2.	Power Turbine Speed Trim	±10% of total change of power turbine speed; or ±0.5% change of rotor speed	Ground	Record engine response to trim system actuation in both directions		X	X
1.a.3.	Engine and Rotor Speed Governing	Torque—±5% Rotor Speed—±1.5%	Climb Descent	Record results using a step input to the collective. May be conducted concurrently with climb and descent performance tests		X	X
1.b.	Reserved.
1.c.	Takeoff.
1.c.1.	All Engines	Airspeed—±3 kt, Altitude—±20 ft (6.1 m) Torque—±3%, Rotor Speed—±1.5%, Vertical Velocity—±100 fpm (0.50 m/sec) or 10%, Pitch Attitude—±1.5°, Bank Attitude—±2°, Heading—±2°, Longitudinal Control Position—±10%, Lateral Control Position—±10%, Directional Control Position—±10%, Collective Control Position—±10%	Ground/Takeoff and Initial Segment of Climb	Record results of takeoff flight path (running takeoff and takeoff from a hover). The criteria apply only to those segments at airspeeds above effective translational lift. Results must be recorded from the initiation of the takeoff to at least 200 ft (61 m) AGL			X
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1.c.2. through 1.c.3	Reserved.
1.d.	Hover.
	Performance	Torque—±3%, Pitch Attitude—±1.5°, Bank Attitude—±1.5°, Longitudinal Control Position—±5%, Lateral Control Position—±5%, Directional Control Position—±5%, Collective Control Position—±5%	In Ground Effect (IGE); and Out of Ground Effect (OGE)	Record results for light and heavy gross weights. May be a series of snapshot tests			X
1.e.	Vertical Climb.
	Performance	Vertical Velocity—±100 fpm (0.50 m/sec) or ±10%, Directional Control Position—±5%, Collective Control Position—±5%	From OGE Hover	Record results for light and heavy gross weights. May be a series of snapshot tests			X
1.f.	Level Flight.
	Performance and Trimmed Flight Control Positions	Torque—±3% Pitch Attitude—±1.5° Sideslip Angle—±2° Longitudinal Control Position—±5% Lateral Control position—±5% Directional Control Position—±5% Collective Control Position—±5%	Cruise (Augmentation On and Off)	Record results for two gross weight and CG combinations with varying trim speeds throughout the airspeed envelope. May be a series of snapshot tests	X	X	X	This test validates performance at speeds above maximum endurance airspeed.
1.g.	Climb.
	Performance and Trimmed Flight Control Positions	Vertical Velocity—±100 fpm (61 m/sec) or ±10% Pitch Attitude—±1.5° Sideslip Angle—±2° Longitudinal Control Position—±5% Lateral Control Position—±5% Directional Control Position—±5% Collective Control Position—±5%	All engines operating One engine inoperative Augmentation System(s) On and Off	Record results for two gross weight and CG combinations. The data presented must be for normal climb power conditions. May be a series of snapshot tests	X	X	X
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1.h.	Descent.
1.h.1.	Descent Performance and Trimmed Flight Control Positions	Torque—±3% Pitch Attitude—±1.5° Sideslip Angle—±2° Longitudinal Control Position—±5% Lateral Control Position—±5% Directional Control Position—±5% Collective Control Position—±5%	At or near 1,000 fpm (5 m/sec) rate of descent (RoD) at normal approach speed Augmentation System(s) On and Off	Record results for two gross weight and CG combinations. May be a series of snapshot tests	X	X	X
1.h.2.	Autorotation Performance and Trimmed Flight Control Positions	Pitch Attitude—±1.5° Sideslip Angle—±2° Longitudinal Control Position—±5% Lateral Control Position—±5% Directional Control Position—±5% Collective Control Position—±5%	Steady descents. Augmentation System(s) On and Off	Record results for two gross weight conditions. Data must be recorded for normal operating RPM. (Rotor speed tolerance applies only if collective control position is full down.) Data must be recorded for speeds from 50 kts, ±5 kts through at least maximum glide distance airspeed. May be a series of snapshot tests	X	X	X
1.i.	Autorotation.
	Entry	Rotor Speed—±3% Pitch Attitude ±2° Roll Attitude—±3° Yaw Attitude—±5° Airspeed—±5 kts. Vertical Velocity—±200 fpm (1.00 m/sec) or 10%	Cruise; or Climb	Record results of a rapid throttle reduction to idle. If accomplished in cruise, results must be for the maximum range airspeed. If accomplished in climb, results must be for the maximum rate of climb airspeed at or near maximum continuous power		X	X
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1.j.	Landing.
1.j.1.	All Engines	Airspeed—±3 kts, Altitude—±20 ft (6.1 m) Torque—±3%, Rotor Speed—±1.5%, Pitch Attitude—±1.5°, Bank Attitude—±1.5°, Heading—±2°, Longitudinal Control Position—±10%, Lateral Control Position—±10%, Directional Control Position—±10%, Collective Control Position—±10%	Approach	Record results of the approach and landing profile (running landing or approach to a hover). The criteria apply only to those segments at airspeeds above effective translational lift. Record the results from 200 ft AGL (61 m) to the landing or to where the hover is established prior to landing			X
1.j.2. through 1.j.3	Reserved.
1.j.4.	Autorotational Landing.	Torque—±3%, Rotor Speed—±3%, Vertical Velocity—±100 fpm (0.50 m/sec) or 10%, Pitch Attitude—±2°, Bank Attitude—±2°, Heading—±5°, Longitudinal Control Position—±10%, Lateral Control Position—±10%, Directional Control Position—±10%, Collective Control Position—±10%.	Landing.	Record the results of an autorotational deceleration and landing from a stabilized autorotational descent, to touch down.			X	If flight test data containing all required parameters for a complete power-off landing is not available from the aircraft manufacturer for this test, and other qualified flight test personnel are not available to acquire this data, the sponsor must coordinate with the responsible Flight Standards office to determine if it would be appropriate to accept alternative testing means. Alternative approaches to this data acquisition that may be acceptable are: (1) a simulated autorotational flare and reduction of rate of descent (ROD) at altitude; or (2) a power-on termination following an autorotational approach and flare.
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2.	Handling Qualities
2.a.	Control System Mechanical Characteristics.	Contact the responsible Flight Standards office for clarification of any issue regarding helicopters with reversible controls.
2.a.1.	Cyclic	Breakout—±0.25 lbs (0.112 daN) or 25%. Force—±1.0 lb (0.224 daN) or 10%	Ground; Static conditions. Trim On and Off. Friction Off. Augmentation On and Off	Record results for an uninterrupted control sweep to the stops. (This test does not apply if aircraft hardware modular controllers are used.)	X	X	X
2.a.2.	Collective and Pedals	Breakout—±0.5 lb (0.224 daN) or 25%. Force—±1.0 lb (0.224 daN) or 10%	Ground; Static conditions. Trim On and Off. Friction Off. Augmentation On and Off	Record results for an uninterrupted control sweep to the stops	X	X	X
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2.a.3.	Brake Pedal Force vs. Position	±5 lbs (2.224 daN) or 10%	Ground; Static conditions		X	X	X
2.a.4.	Trim System Rate (all applicable systems)	Rate—±10%	Ground; Static conditions. Trim On. Friction Off	The tolerance applies to the recorded value of the trim rate	X	X	X
2.a.5.	Control Dynamics (all axes)	±10% of time for first zero crossing and ±10 (N + 1)% of period thereafter. ±10% of amplitude of first overshoot. ±20% of amplitude of 2nd and subsequent overshoots greater than 5% of initial displacement. ±1 overshoot	Hover/Cruise Trim On Friction Off	Results must be recorded for a normal control displacement in both directions in each axis, using 25% to 50% of full throw		X	X	Control Dynamics for irreversible control systems may be evaluated in a ground/static condition. Refer to paragraph 3 of this attachment for additional information. “N” is the sequential period of a full cycle of oscillation.
2.a.6.	Freeplay	±0.10 in. (±2.5 mm)	Ground; Static conditions	Record and compare results for all controls	X	X	X
2.b.	Low Airspeed Handling Qualities.
2.b.1.	Trimmed Flight Control Positions	Torque ±3% Pitch Attitude ±1.5° Bank Attitude ±2° Longitudinal Control Position ±5% Lateral Control Position ±5% Directional Control Position ±5% Collective Control Position ±5%	Translational Flight IGE—Sideward, rearward, and forward flight. Augmentation On and Off	Record results for several airspeed increments to the translational airspeed limits and for 45 kts. forward airspeed. May be a series of snapshot tests			X
2.b.2.	Critical Azimuth	Torque ±3% Pitch Attitude ±1.5°, Bank Attitude ±2°, Longitudinal Control Position ±5%, Lateral Control Position ±5%, Directional Control Position ±5%, Collective Control Position ±5%	Stationary Hover. Augmentation On and Off	Record results for three relative wind directions (including the most critical case) in the critical quadrant. May be a series of snapshot tests			X
2.b.3.	Control Response.
2.b.3.a.	Longitudinal	Pitch Rate—±10% or ±2°/sec. Pitch Attitude Change—±10% or 1.5°	Hover. Augmentation On and Off	Record results for a step control input. The Off-axis response must show correct trend for unaugmented cases. This test must be conducted in a hover, in ground effect, without entering translational flight			X	This is a “short time” test.
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2.b.3.b.	Lateral	Roll Rate—±10% or ±3°/sec. Roll Attitude Change—±10% or ±3°	Hover Augmentation On and Off	Record results for a step control input. The Off-axis response must show correct trend for unaugmented cases			X	This is a “short time” test conducted in a hover, in ground effect, without entering translational flight, to provide better visual reference.
2.b.3.c.	Directional	Yaw Rate—±10% or ±2°/sec. Heading Change—±10% or ±2°	Hover Augmentation On and Off	Record results for a step control input. The Off-axis response must show correct trend for unaugmented cases. This test must be conducted in a hover, in ground effect, without entering translational flight			X	This is a “short time” test.
2.b.3.d.	Vertical	Normal Acceleration ±0.1g	Hover Augmentation On and Off	Record results for a step control input. The Off-axis response must show correct trend for unaugmented cases			X
2.c.	Longitudinal Handling Qualities.
2.c.1.	Control Response	Pitch Rate—±10% or ±2°/sec. Pitch Attitude Change—±10% or ±1.5°	Cruise Augmentation On and Off	Results must be recorded for two cruise airspeeds to include minimum power required speed. Record data for a step control input. The Off-axis response must show correct trend for unaugmented cases	X	X	X
2.c.2.	Static Stability	Longitudinal Control Position: ±10% of change from trim or ±0.25 in. (6.3 mm) or Longitudinal Control Force: ±0.5 lb. (0.223 daN) or ±10%	Cruise or Climb. Autorotation. Augmentation On and Off	Record results for a minimum of two speeds on each side of the trim speed. May be a series of snapshot tests	X	X	X
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2.c.3.	Dynamic Stability.
2.c.3.a.	Long Term Response	±10% of calculated period. ±10% of time to 1/2 or double amplitude, or ±0.02 of damping ratio. For non-periodic responses, the time history must be matched within ±3° pitch; and ±5 kts airspeed over a 20 sec period following release of the controls	Cruise Augmentation On and Off	Record results for three full cycles (6 overshoots after input completed) or that sufficient to determine time to 1/2 or double amplitude, whichever is less. For non-periodic responses, the test may be terminated prior to 20 sec if the test pilot determines that the results are becoming uncontrollably divergent. Displace the cyclic for one second or less to excite the test. The result will be either convergent or divergent and must be recorded. If this method fails to excite the test, displace the cyclic to the predetermined maximum desired pitch attitude and return to the original position. If this method is used, record the results	X	X	X	The response for certain helicopters may be unrepeatable throughout the stated time. In these cases, the test should show at least that a divergence is identifiable. For example: Displacing the cyclic for a given time normally excites this test or until a given pitch attitude is achieved and then return the cyclic to the original position. For non-periodic responses, results should show the same convergent or divergent character as the flight test data.
2.c.3.b.	Short Term Response	±1.5° Pitch or ±2°/sec. Pitch Rate. ±0.1 g Normal Acceleration	Cruise or Climb. Augmentation On and Off	Record results for at least two airspeeds		X	X	A control doublet inserted at the natural frequency of the aircraft normally excites this test. However, while input doublets are preferred over pulse inputs for Augmentation-Off tests, for Augmentation-On cases, when the short term response exhibits 1st-order or deadbeat characteristics, longitudinal pulse inputs may produce a more coherent response.
2.c.4.	Maneuvering Stability	Longitudinal Control Position—±10% of change from trim or ±0.25 in. (6.3 mm) or Longitudinal Control Forces—±0.5 lb. (0.223 daN) or ±10%	Cruise or Climb. Augmentation On and Off	Record results for at least two airspeeds at 30°-45° bank angle. The force may be shown as a cross plot for irreversible systems. May be a series of snapshot tests		X	X
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2.d.	Lateral and Directional Handling Qualities.
2.d.1.	Control Response.
2.d.1.a.	Lateral	Roll Rate—±10% or ±3°/sec. Roll Attitude Change—±10% or ±3°	Cruise Augmentation On and Offd	Record results for at least two airspeeds, including the speed at or near the minimum power required airspeed. Record results for a step control input. The Off-axis response must show correct trend for unaugmented cases	X	X	X
2.d.1.b.	Directional	Yaw Rate—±10% or ±2°/sec. Yaw Attitude Change—±10% or ±2°	Cruise Augmentation On and Off	Record data for at least two Airspeeds, including the speed at or near the minimum power required airspeed. Record results for a step control input. The Off-axis response must show correct trend for unaugmented cases	X	X	X
2.d.2.	Directional Static Stability	Lateral Control Position—±10% of change from trim or ±0.25 in. (6.3 mm) or Lateral Control Force—±0.5 lb. (0.223 daN) or 10%. Roll Attitude—±1.5 Directional Control Position—±10% of change from trim or ±0.25 in. (6.3 mm) or Directional Control Force—±1 lb. (0.448 daN) or 10%. Longitudinal Control Position—±10% of change from trim or ±0.25 in. (6.3 mm). Vertical Velocity—±100 fpm (0.50m/sec) or 10%	Cruise; or Climb (may use Descent instead of Climb if desired) Augmentation On and Off	Record results for at least two sideslip angles on either side of the trim point. The force may be shown as a cross plot for irreversible systems. May be a series of snapshot tests	X	X	X	This is a steady heading sideslip test at a fixed collective position.
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2.d.3.	Dynamic Lateral and Directional Stability.
2.d.3.a.	Lateral-Directional Oscillations	±0.5 sec. or ±10% of period. ±10% of time to 1/2 or double amplitude or ±0.02 of damping ratio. ±20% or ±1 sec of time difference between peaks of bank and sideslip. For non-periodic responses, the time history must be matched within ±10 knots Airspeed; ±5°/s Roll Rate or ±5° Roll Attitude; ±4°/s Yaw Rate or ±4° Yaw Angle over a 20 sec period roll angle following release of the controls	Cruise or Climb Augmentation On and Off	Record results for at least two airspeeds. The test must be initiated with a cyclic or a pedal doublet input. Record results for six full cycles (12 overshoots after input completed) or that sufficient to determine time to 1/2 or double amplitude, whichever is less. The test may be terminated prior to 20 sec if the test pilot determines that the results are becoming uncontrollably divergent	X	X	X
2.d.3.b.	Spiral Stability	±2° or ±10% roll angle	Cruise or Climb. Augmentation On and Off	Record the results of a release from pedal only or cyclic only turns for 20 sec. Results must be recorded from turns in both directions. Terminate check at zero roll angle or when the test pilot determines that the attitude is becoming uncontrollably divergent	X	X	X
2.d.3.c.	Adverse/Proverse Yaw	Correct Trend, ±2° transient sideslip angle	Cruise or Climb. Augmentation On and Off	Record the time history of initial entry into cyclic only turns, using only a moderate rate for cyclic input. Results must be recorded for turns in both directions	X	X	X
3.	Reserved
4.	Visual System
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4.a.	Visual System Response Time: (Choose either test 4.a.1. or 4.a.2. to satisfy test 4.a., Visual System Response Time Test. This test is also sufficient for flight deck instrument response timing.)
4.a.1.	Latency.
		150 ms (or less) after helicopter response	Takeoff, climb, and descent	One test is required in each axis (pitch, roll and yaw) for each of the three conditions (take-off, cruise, and approach or landing)			X
4.a.2.	Transport Delay.
		150 ms (or less) after controller movement	N/A	A separate test is required in each axis (pitch, roll, and yaw)			X
4.b.	Field-of-view.
4.b.1.	Reserved.
4.b.2.	Continuous visual field-of-view	Minimum continuous field-of-view providing 146° horizontal and 36° vertical field-of-view for each pilot simultaneously and any geometric error between the Image Generator eye point and the pilot eye point is 8° or less	N/A	An SOC is required and must explain the geometry of the installation. Horizontal field-of-view must not be less than a total of 146° (including not less than 73° measured either side of the center of the design eye point). Additional horizontal field-of-view capability may be added at the sponsor's discretion provided the minimum field-of-view is retained. Vertical field-of-view: Not less than a total of 36° measured from the pilot's and co-pilot's eye point			X	Horizontal field-of-view is centered on the zero degree azimuth line relative to the aircraft fuselage.
4.b.3.	Reserved.
4.c.	Surface contrast ratio	Not less than 5:1	N/A	The ratio is calculated by dividing the brightness level of the center, bright square (providing at least 2 foot-lamberts or 7 cd/m 2 ) by the brightness level of any adjacent dark square			X	Measurements may be made using a 1° spot photometer and a raster drawn test pattern filling the entire visual scene (all channels) with a test pattern of black and white squares, 5 per square, with a white square in the center of each channel. During contrast ratio testing, simulator aft-cab and flight deck ambient light levels should be zero.
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4.d.	Highlight brightness	Not less than three (3) foot-lamberts (10 cd/m 2 )	N/A	Measure the brightness of the center white square while superimposing a highlight on that white square. The use of calligraphic capabilities to enhance the raster brightness is acceptable, but measuring light points is not acceptable			X	Measurements may be made using a 1° spot photometer and a raster drawn test pattern filling the entire visual scene (all channels) with a test pattern of black and white squares, 5 per square, with a white square in the center of each channel.
4.e.	Surface resolution	Not greater than two (2) arc minutes	N/A	An SOC is required and must include the relevant calculations			X	When the eye is positioned on a 3° glide slope at the slant range distances indicated with white runway markings on a black runway surface, the eye will subtend two (2) arc minutes: (1) A slant range of 6,876 ft with stripes 150 ft long and 16 ft wide, spaced 4 ft apart. (2) For Configuration A; a slant range of 5,157 feet with stripes 150 ft long and 12 ft wide, spaced 3 ft apart. (3) For Configuration B; a slant range of 9,884 feet, with stripes 150 ft long and 5.75 ft wide, spaced 5.75 ft apart.
4.f.	Light point size	Not greater than five (5) arc-minutes	N/A	An SOC is required and must include the relevant calculations			X	Light point size may be measured using a test pattern consisting of a centrally located single row of light points reduced in length until modulation is just discernible in each visual channel. A row of 48 lights will form a 4° angle or less.
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4.g.	Light point contrast ratio							A 1° spot photometer may be used to measure a square of at least 1° filled with light points (where light point modulation is just discernible) and compare the results to the measured adjacent background. During contrast ratio testing, simulator aft-cab and flight deck ambient light levels should be zero.
4.g.1.	Reserved.
4.g.2.		Not less than 25:1	N/A	An SOC is required and must include the relevant calculations			X
4.h.	Visual ground segment.
		The visible segment in the simulator must be within 20% of the segment computed to be visible from the helicopter flight deck. The tolerance(s) may be applied at either end or at both ends of the displayed segment. However, lights and ground objects computed to be visible from the helicopter flight deck at the near end of the visible segment must be visible in the simulator	Landing configuration, trimmed for appropriate airspeed, at 100 ft (30m) above the touchdown zone, on glide slope with an RVR value set at 1,200 ft (350m)	The QTG must contain relevant calculations and a drawing showing the data used to establish the helicopter location and the segment of the ground that is visible considering design eyepoint, helicopter attitude, flight deck cut-off angle, and a visibility of 1200 ft (350 m) RVR. Simulator performance must be measured against the QTG calculations. The data submitted must include at least the following: (1) Static helicopter dimensions as follows: (i) Horizontal and vertical distance from main landing gear (MLG) to glideslope reception antenna. (ii) Horizontal and vertical distance from MLG to pilot's eyepoint. (iii) Static flight deck cutoff angle. (2) Approach data as follows: (i) Identification of runway. (ii) Horizontal distance from runway threshold to glideslope intercept with runway. (iii) Glideslope angle. (iv) Helicopter pitch angle on approach. (3) Helicopter data for manual testing: (i) Gross weight. (ii) Helicopter configuration. (iii) Approach airspeed. If non-homogenous fog is used to obscure visibility, the vertical variation in horizontal visibility must be described and be included in the slant range visibility calculation used in the computations			X	Pre-position for this test is encouraged, but may be achieved via manual or autopilot control to the desired position.
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5.	Reserved

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EDITORIAL NOTE: At 87 FR 75832, December 9, 2022, appendix D to part 60 was amended in attachment 2, in table D2A, by revising entries for 1.j.4. and 2.a.; however, the amendment could not be incorporated because the revised entry was photographed.

Begin Information 3. Control Dynamics a. The characteristics of a helicopter flight control system have a major effect on the handling qualities. A significant consideration in pilot acceptability of a helicopter is the “feel” provided through the flight deck controls. Considerable effort is expended on helicopter feel system design in order to deliver a system with which pilots will be comfortable and consider the helicopter desirable to fly. In order for an FTD to be representative, it too must present the pilot with the proper feel; that of the respective helicopter. Compliance with this requirement is determined by comparing a recording of the control feel dynamics of the FFS to actual helicopter measurements in the hover and cruise configurations. (1) Recordings such as free response to an impulse or step function are classically used to estimate the dynamic properties of electromechanical systems. It is only possible to estimate the dynamic properties as a result of only being able to estimate true inputs and responses. Therefore, it is imperative that the best possible data be collected since close matching of the FTD control loading system to the helicopter systems is essential. Control feel dynamic tests are described in the Table of Objective Tests in this appendix. Where accomplished, the free response is measured after a step or pulse input is used to excite the system. (2) For initial and upgrade evaluations, it is required that control dynamic characteristics be measured at and recorded directly from the flight deck controls. This procedure is usually accomplished by measuring the free response of the controls using a step or pulse input to excite the system. The procedure must be accomplished in hover, climb, cruise, and autorotation. For helicopters with irreversible control systems, measurements may be obtained on the ground. The procedure should be accomplished in the hover and cruise flight conditions and configurations. Proper pitot-static inputs (if appropriate) must be provided to represent airspeeds typical of those encountered in flight. (3) It may be shown that for some helicopters, climb, cruise, and autorotation have like effects. Thus, some tests for one may suffice for some tests for another. If either or both considerations apply, engineering validation or helicopter manufacturer rationale must be submitted as justification for ground tests or for eliminating a configuration. For FTDs requiring static and dynamic tests at the controls, special test fixtures will not be required during initial and upgrade evaluations if the sponsor's QTG shows both test fixture results and the results of an alternative approach, such as computer plots which were produced concurrently and show satisfactory agreement. Repeat of the alternative method during the initial evaluation satisfies this test requirement. b. Control Dynamics Evaluations. The dynamic properties of control systems are often stated in terms of frequency, damping, and a number of other classical measurements which can be found in texts on control systems. In order to establish a consistent means of validating test results for FTD control loading, criteria are needed that will clearly define the interpretation of the measurements and the tolerances to be applied. Criteria are needed for both the underdamped system and the overdamped system, including the critically damped case. In the case of an underdamped system with very light damping, the system may be quantified in terms of frequency and damping. In critically damped or overdamped systems, the frequency and damping is not readily measured from a response time history. Therefore, some other measurement must be used. (1) Tests to verify that control feel dynamics represent the helicopter must show that the dynamic damping cycles (free response of the control) match that of the helicopter within specified tolerances. The method of evaluating the response and the tolerance to be applied are described below for the underdamped and critically damped cases. (a) Underdamped Response. Two measurements are required for the period, the time to first zero crossing (in case a rate limit is present) and the subsequent frequency of oscillation. It is necessary to measure cycles on an individual basis in case there are nonuniform periods in the response. Each period will be independently compared to the respective period of the helicopter control system and, consequently, will enjoy the full tolerance specified for that period. (b) The damping tolerance will be applied to overshoots on an individual basis. Care must be taken when applying the tolerance to small overshoots since the significance of such overshoots becomes questionable. Only those overshoots larger than 5 percent of the total initial displacement will be considered significant. The residual band, labeled T(A d ) on Figure 1 of this attachment is ±5 percent of the initial displacement amplitude, A d , from the steady state value of the oscillation. Oscillations within the residual band are considered insignificant. When comparing simulator data to helicopter data, the process would begin by overlaying or aligning the simulator and helicopter steady state values and then comparing amplitudes of oscillation peaks, the time of the first zero crossing, and individual periods of oscillation. To be satisfactory, the simulator must show the same number of significant overshoots to within one when compared against the helicopter data. The procedure for evaluating the response is illustrated in Figure 1 of this attachment.

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(c) Critically Damped and Overdamped Response. Due to the nature of critically damped responses (no overshoots), the time to reach 90 percent of the steady state (neutral point) value must be the same as the helicopter within ±10 percent. The simulator response must be critically damped also. Figure 2 of this attachment illustrates the procedure. (d) Special considerations. Control systems that exhibit characteristics other than classical overdamped or underdamped responses should meet specified tolerances. In addition, special consideration should be given to ensure that significant trends are maintained. (2) Tolerances. (a) The following summarizes the tolerances, “T” for underdamped systems, and “n” is the sequential period of a full cycle of oscillation. See Figure D2A of this attachment for an illustration of the referenced measurements. T(P 0 ) ±10% of P 0 T(P 1 ) ±20% of P 1 T(P 2 ) ±30% of P 2 T(P n ) ±10(n + 1)% of P n T(A n ) ±10% of A 1 T(A d ) ±5% of A d = residual band Significant overshoots First overshoot and ±1 subsequent overshoots (b) The following tolerance applies to critically damped and overdamped systems only. See Figure D2B for an illustration of the reference measurements: T(P 0 ) ±10% of P 0

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[Please see PDF for image: ER09MY08.053] c. Alternative method for control dynamics evaluation. (1) An alternative means for validating control dynamics for aircraft with hydraulically powered flight controls and artificial feel systems is by the measurement of control force and rate of movement. For each axis of pitch, roll, and yaw, the control must be forced to its maximum extreme position for the following distinct rates. These tests are conducted under normal flight and ground conditions.

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(a) Static test—Slowly move the control so that a full sweep is achieved within 95-105 seconds. A full sweep is defined as movement of the controller from neutral to the stop, usually aft or right stop, then to the opposite stop, then to the neutral position. (b) Slow dynamic test—Achieve a full sweep within 8-12 seconds. (c) Fast dynamic test—Achieve a full sweep within 3-5 seconds. Note: Dynamic sweeps may be limited to forces not exceeding 100 lbs. (44.5 daN).

(d) Tolerances. (i) Static test; see Table D2A, Flight Training Device (FTD) Objective Tests, Entries 2.a.1., 2.a.2., and 2.a.3. (ii) Dynamic test—±2 lbs (0.9 daN) or ±10% on dynamic increment above static test. End QPS Requirement Begin Information d. The FAA is open to alternative means that are justified and appropriate to the application. For example, the method described here may not apply to all manufacturers' systems and certainly not to aircraft with reversible control systems. Each case is considered on its own merit on an ad hoc basis. If the FAA finds that alternative methods do not result in satisfactory performance, more conventionally accepted methods will have to be used. 4. For Additional Information on the Following Topics, Please Refer to Appendix C of This Part, Attachment 2, and the Indicated Paragraph Within That Attachment • Additional Information About Flight Simulator Qualification for New or Derivative Helicopters, paragraph 8. • Engineering Simulator Validation Data, paragraph 9. • Validation Test Tolerances, paragraph 11. • Validation Data Road Map, paragraph 12. • Acceptance Guidelines for Alternative Avionics, paragraph 13. • Transport Delay Testing, paragraph 15. • Continuing Qualification Evaluation Validation Data Presentation, paragraph 16. End Information Attachment 3 to Appendix D to Part 60—FLIGHT TRAINING DEVICE (FTD) SUBJECTIVE EVALUATION Begin QPS Requirements 1. Requirements a. Except for special use airport models, all airport models required by this part must be representations of real-world, operational airports or representations of fictional airports and must meet the requirements set out in Tables D3B or D3C of this attachment, as appropriate. b. If fictional airports are used, the sponsor must ensure that navigational aids and all appropriate maps, charts, and other navigational reference material for the fictional airports (and surrounding areas as necessary) are compatible, complete, and accurate with respect to the visual presentation and the airport model of this fictional airport. An SOC must be submitted that addresses navigation aid installation and performance and other criteria (including obstruction clearance protection) for all instrument approaches to the fictional airports that are available in the simulator. The SOC must reference and account for information in the terminal instrument procedures manual and the construction and availability of the required maps, charts, and other navigational material. This material must be clearly marked “for training purposes only.” c. When the simulator is being used by an instructor or evaluator for purposes of training, checking, or testing under this chapter, only airport models classified as Class I, Class II, or Class III may be used by the instructor or evaluator. Detailed descriptions/definitions of these classifications are found in Appendix F of this part. d. When a person sponsors an FTD maintained by a person other than a U.S. certificate holder, the sponsor is accountable for that FTD originally meeting, and continuing to meet, the criteria under which it was originally qualified and the appropriate Part 60 criteria, including the visual scenes and airport models that may be used by instructors or evaluators for purposes of training, checking, or testing under this chapter. e. Neither Class II nor Class III airport visual models are required to appear on the SOQ, and the method used for keeping instructors and evaluators apprised of the airport models that meet Class II or Class III requirements on any given simulator is at the option of the sponsor, but the method used must be available for review by the TPAA. f. When an airport model represents a real world airport and a permanent change is made to that real world airport (e.g., a new runway, an extended taxiway, a new lighting system, a runway closure) without a written extension grant from the responsible Flight Standards office (described in paragraph 1.g., of this section), an update to that airport model must be made in accordance with the following time limits:

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(1) For a new airport runway, a runway extension, a new airport taxiway, a taxiway extension, or a runway/taxiway closure—within 90 days of the opening for use of the new airport runway, runway extension, new airport taxiway, or taxiway extension; or within 90 days of the closure of the runway or taxiway. (2) For a new or modified approach light system—within 45 days of the activation of the new or modified approach light system. (3) For other facility or structural changes on the airport (e.g., new terminal, relocation of Air Traffic Control Tower)—within 180 days of the opening of the new or changed facility or structure. g. If a sponsor desires an extension to the time limit for an update to a visual scene or airport model or has an objection to what must be updated in the specific airport model requirement, the sponsor must provide a written extension request to the responsible Flight Standards office stating the reason for the update delay and a proposed completion date or provide an explanation for the objection, explaining why the identified airport change will not have an impact on flight training, testing, or checking. A copy of this request or objection must also be sent to the POI/TCPM. h. Examples of situations that may warrant Class_III model designation by the TPAA include the following: (a) Training, testing, or checking on very low visibility operations, including SMGCS operations. (b) Instrument operations training (including instrument takeoff, departure, arrival, approach, and missed approach training, testing, or checking) using— (i) A specific model that has been geographically “moved” to a different location and aligned with an instrument procedure for another airport. (ii) A model that does not match changes made at the real-world airport (or landing area for helicopters) being modeled. (iii) A model generated with an “off-board” or an “on-board” model development tool (by providing proper latitude/longitude reference; correct runway or landing area orientation, length, width, marking, and lighting information; and appropriate adjacent taxiway location) to generate a facsimile of a real world airport or landing area. These airport models may be accepted by the TPAA without individual observation provided the sponsor provides the TPAA with an acceptable description of the process for determining the acceptability of a specific airport model, outlines the conditions under which such an airport model may be used, and adequately describes what restrictions will be applied to each resulting airport or landing area model. End QPS Requirements Begin Information 2. Discussion a. The subjective tests and the examination of functions provide a basis for evaluating the capability of the FTD to perform over a typical utilization period; determining that the FTD satisfactorily meets the appropriate training/testing/checking objectives and competently simulates each required maneuver, procedure, or task; and verifying correct operation of the FTD controls, instruments, and systems. The items in the list of operations tasks are for FTD evaluation purposes only. They must not be used to limit or exceed the authorizations for use of a given level of FTD as found in the Practical Test Standards or as approved by the TPAA. All items in the following paragraphs are subject to an examination of function. b. The List of Operations Tasks in Table D3A addressing pilot functions and maneuvers is divided by flight phases. All simulated helicopter systems functions will be assessed for normal and, where appropriate, alternate operations. Normal, abnormal, and emergency operations associated with a flight phase will be assessed during the evaluation of maneuvers or events within that flight phase. c. Systems to be evaluated are listed separately under “Any Flight Phase” to ensure appropriate attention to systems checks. Operational navigation systems (including inertial navigation systems, global positioning systems, or other long-range systems) and the associated electronic display systems will be evaluated if installed. The pilot will include in his report to the TPAA, the effect of the system operation and any system limitation. d. At the request of the TPAA, the Pilot may assess the FTD for a special aspect of a sponsor's training program during the functions and subjective portion of an evaluation. Such an assessment may include a portion of a specific operation (e.g., a Line Oriented Flight Training (LOFT) scenario) or special emphasis items in the sponsor's training program. Unless directly related to a requirement for the qualification level, the results of such an evaluation would not necessarily affect the qualification of the FTD. e. The FAA intends to allow the use of Class III airport models on a limited basis when the sponsor provides the TPAA (or other regulatory authority) an appropriate analysis of the skills, knowledge, and abilities (SKAs) necessary for competent performance of the tasks in which this particular media element is used. The analysis should describe the ability of the FTD/visual media to provide an adequate environment in which the required SKAs are satisfactorily performed and learned. The analysis should also include the specific media element, such as the visual scene or airport model. Additional sources of information on the conduct of task and capability analysis may be found on the FAA's Advanced Qualification Program (AQP) Web site at: http://www.faa.gov/education_research/training/aqp.

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End Information Table D3A—Table of Functions and Subjective Tests Level 7 FTD

QPS requirements
Entry No.	Operations tasks
Tasks in this table are subject to evaluation if appropriate for the helicopter simulated as indicated in the SOQ Configuration List or a Level 7 FTD. Items not installed, not functional on the FTD, and not appearing on the SOQ Configuration List, are not required to be listed as exceptions on the SOQ.
1. Preflight Procedures
1.a.	Preflight Inspection (Flight Deck Only) switches, indicators, systems, and equipment.
1.b.	APU/Engine start and run-up.
1.b.1.	Normal start procedures.
1.b.2.	Alternate start procedures.
1.b.3.	Abnormal starts and shutdowns (hot start, hung start).
1.b.4.	Rotor engagement.
1.b.5.	System checks.
1.c.	Taxiing—Ground.
1.c.1.	Power required to taxi.
1.c.2.	Brake effectiveness.
1.c.3.	Ground handling.
1.c.4.	Abnormal/emergency procedures, for example:
1.c.4.a.	Brake system failure.
1.c.4.b.	Ground resonance.
1.c.4.c.	Other (listed on the SOQ).
1.d.	Taxiing—Hover.
1.d.1.	Takeoff to a hover.
1.d.2.	Instrument response.
1.d.2.a.	Engine instruments.
1.d.2.a.	Flight instruments.
1.d.3.	Hovering turns.
1.d.4.	Hover power checks.
1.d.4.a.	In ground effect (IGE).
1.d.4.b.	Out of ground effect (OGE).
1.d.5.	Crosswind/tailwind hover.
1.d.6.	Abnormal/emergency procedures:
1.d.6.a.	Engine failure.
1.d.6.b.	Fuel governing system failure.
1.d.6.c.	Settling with power (OGE).
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1.d.6.d.	Stability augmentation system failure.
1.d.6.e.	Directional control malfunction (including Loss of Tail Rotor Effectiveness, LTE).
1.d.6.f.	Other (listed on the SOQ).
1.e.	Pre-takeoff Checks.
2. Takeoff and Departure Phase
2.a.	Normal and Crosswind Takeoff.
2.a.1.	From ground.
2.a.2.	From hover.
2.a.3.	Running.
2.a.4.	Crosswind/tailwind.
2.a.5.	Maximum performance.
2.b.	Instrument.
2.c.	Powerplant Failure During Takeoff.
2.c.1.	Takeoff with engine failure after critical decision point (CDP).
2.d.	Rejected Takeoff.
2.e.	Instrument Departure.
2.f.	Other (listed on the SOQ).
3. Climb
3.a.	Normal.
3.b.	Obstacle clearance.
3.c.	Vertical.
3.d.	One engine inoperative.
3.e.	Other (listed on the SOQ).
4. Inflight Maneuvers
4.a.	Performance.
4.b.	Flying qualities.
4.c.	Turns.
4.c.1.	Timed.
4.c.2.	Normal.
4.c.3.	Steep.
4.d.	Accelerations and decelerations.
4.e.	High-speed vibrations.
4.f.	Abnormal/emergency procedures, for example:
4.f.1.	Engine fire.
4.f.2.	Engine failure.
4.f.2.a.	Powerplant Failure—Multiengine Helicopters.
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4.f.2.b.	Powerplant Failure—Single-Engine Helicopters.
4.f.3.	Inflight engine shutdown (and restart, if applicable).
4.f.4.	Fuel governing system failures (e.g., FADEC malfunction).
4.f.5.	Directional control malfunction.
4.f.6.	Hydraulic failure.
4.f.7.	Stability augmentation system failure.
4.f.8.	Rotor vibrations.
4.f.9.	Recovery From Unusual Attitudes.
4.f.10.	Settling with Power.
4.g.	Other (listed on the SOQ).
5. Instrument Procedures
5.a.	Instrument Arrival.
5.b.	Holding.
5.c.	Precision Instrument Approach.
5.c.1.	Normal—All engines operating.
5.c.2.	Manually controlled—One or more engines inoperative.
5.c.3.	Approach procedures:
5.c.3.a.	PAR.
5.c.3.b.	GPS.
5.c.3.c.	ILS.
5.c.3.c.1.	Manual (raw data).
5.c.3.c.2.	Autopilot * only.
5.c.3.c.3.	Flight director only.
5.c.3.c.4.	Autopilot * and flight director (if appropriate) coupled.
5.c.3.d.	Other (listed on the SOQ).
5.d.	Non-precision Instrument Approach.
5.d.1.	Normal—All engines operating.
5.d.2.	One or more engines inoperative.
5.d.3.	Approach procedures:
5.d.3.a.	NDB.
5.d.3.b.	VOR, RNAV, TACAN, GPS.
5.d.3.c.	ASR.
5.d.3.d.	Circling.
5.d.3.e.	Helicopter only.
5.d.3.f.	Other (listed on the SOQ).
5.e.	Missed Approach.
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5.e.1.	All engines operating.
5.e.2.	One or more engines inoperative.
5.e.3.	Stability augmentation system failure.
5.e.4.	Other (listed on the SOQ).
6. Landings and Approaches to Landings
6.a.	Visual Approaches.
6.a.1.	Normal.
6.a.2.	Steep.
6.a.3.	Shallow.
6.a.4.	Crosswind.
6.b.	Landings.
6.b.1.	Normal.
6.b.1.a.	Running.
6.b.1.b.	From Hover.
6.b.2.	Crosswind.
6.b.3.	Tailwind.
6.b.4.	One or more engines inoperative.
6.b.5.	Rejected Landing.
6.b.6.	Other (listed on the SOQ).
7. Normal and Abnormal Procedures (any phase of flight)
7.a.	Helicopter and powerplant systems operation (as applicable).
7.a.1.	Anti-icing/deicing systems.
7.a.2.	Auxiliary powerplant.
7.a.3.	Communications.
7.a.4.	Electrical system.
7.a.5.	Environmental system.
7.a.6.	Fire detection and suppression.
7.a.7.	Flight control system.
7.a.8.	Fuel system.
7.a.9.	Engine oil system.
7.a.10.	Hydraulic system.
7.a.11.	Landing gear.
7.a.12.	Oxygen.
7.a.13.	Pneumatic.
7.a.14.	Powerplant.
7.a.15.	Flight control computers.
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7.a.16.	Fly-by-wire controls.
7.a.17.	Stabilizer.
7.a.18.	Stability augmentation and control augmentation system(s).
7.a.19.	Other (listed on the SOQ).
7.b.	Flight management and guidance system (as applicable).
7.b.1.	Airborne radar.
7.b.2.	Automatic landing aids.
7.b.3.	Autopilot.*
7.b.4.	Collision avoidance system.
7.b.5.	Flight data displays.
7.b.6.	Flight management computers.
7.b.7.	Head-up displays.
7.b.8.	Navigation systems.
7.b.9.	Other (listed on the SOQ).
8. Emergency Procedures (as applicable)
8.a.	Autorotative Landing.
8.b.	Air hazard avoidance.
8.c.	Ditching.
8.d.	Emergency evacuation.
8.e.	Inflight fire and smoke removal.
8.f.	Retreating blade stall recovery.
8.g.	Mast bumping.
8.h.	Loss of tail rotor effectiveness.
8.i.	Other (listed on the SOQ).
9. Postflight Procedures
9.a.	After-Landing Procedures.
9.b.	Parking and Securing.
9.b.1.	Engine and systems operation.
9.b.2.	Parking brake operation.
9.b.3.	Rotor brake operation.
9.b.4.	Abnormal/emergency procedures.
10. Instructor Operating Station (IOS), as appropriate
10.a.	Power Switch(es).
10.b.	Helicopter conditions.
10.b.1.	Gross weight, center of gravity, fuel loading and allocation, etc.
10.b.2.	Helicopter systems status.
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10.b.3.	Ground crew functions (e.g., ext. power).
10.c.	Airports.
10.c.1.	Selection.
10.c.2.	Runway selection.
10.c.3.	Preset positions (e.g., ramp, over final approach fix).
10.d.	Environmental controls.
10.d.1.	Temperature.
10.d.2.	Climate conditions (e.g., ice, rain).
10.d.3.	Wind speed and direction.
10.e.	Helicopter system malfunctions.
10.e.1.	Insertion/deletion.
10.e.2.	Problem clear.
10.f.	Locks, Freezes, and Repositioning.
10.f.1.	Problem (all) freeze/release.
10.f.2.	Position (geographic) freeze/release.
10.f.3.	Repositioning (locations, freezes, and releases).
10.f.4.	Ground speed control.
10.g.	Sound Controls.
10.g.1.	On/off/adjustment.
10.h.	Control Loading System (as applicable).
10.h.1.	On/off/emergency stop.
10.i.	Observer Stations.
10.i.1.	Position.
10.i.2.	Adjustments.
* “Autopilot” means attitude retention mode of operation.

Table D3B—Table of Functions and Subjective Tests Airport or Landing Area Content Requirements for Qualification at Level 7 FTD

QPS requirements
Entry No.	Operations tasks
This table specifies the minimum airport visual model content and functionality to qualify an FTD at the indicated level. This table applies only to the airport/helicopter landing area scenes required for FTD qualification.
1.	Functional test content requirements for Level 7 FTDs. The following is the minimum airport/landing area model content requirement to satisfy visual capability tests, and provides suitable visual cues to allow completion of all functions and subjective tests described in this attachment for Level 7 FTDs.
1.a.	A minimum of one (1) representative airport and one (1) representative helicopter landing area model. The airport and the helicopter landing area may be contained within the same visual model. If this option is selected, the approach path to the airport runway(s) and the approach path to the helicopter landing area must be different. The model(s) used to meet the following requirements may be demonstrated at either a fictional or a real-world airport or helicopter landing area, but each must be acceptable to the sponsor's TPAA, selectable from the IOS, and listed on the SOQ.
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1.b.	Fidelity of the Visual Scene. The fidelity of the visual scene must be sufficient for the aircrew to visually identify the airport and/or helicopter landing area; determine the position of the simulated helicopter within the visual scene; successfully accomplish take-offs, approaches, and landings; and maneuver around the airport and/or helicopter landing area on the ground, or hover taxi, as necessary.
1.b.1.	For each of the airport/helicopter landing areas described in 1.a., the FTD visual system must be able to provide at least the following:
1.b.1.a.	A night and twilight (dusk) environment.
1.b.1.b.	A daylight environment.
1.c.	Runways:
1.c.1.	Visible runway number.
1.c.2.	Runway threshold elevations and locations must be modeled to provide sufficient correlation with helicopter systems (e.g., altimeter).
1.c.3.	Runway surface and markings.
1.c.4.	Lighting for the runway in use including runway edge and centerline.
1.c.5.	Lighting, visual approach aid (VASI or PAPI) and approach lighting of appropriate colors.
1.c.6	Taxiway lights.
1.d.	Helicopter landing area.
1.d.1.	Standard heliport designation (“H”) marking, properly sized and oriented.
1.d.2.	Perimeter markings for the Touchdown and Lift-Off Area (TLOF) or the Final Approach and Takeoff Area (FATO), as appropriate.
1.d.3.	Perimeter lighting for the TLOF or the FATO areas, as appropriate.
1.d.4.	Appropriate markings and lighting to allow movement from the runway or helicopter landing area to another part of the landing facility.
2.	Visual scene management. The following is the minimum visual scene management requirements for a Level 7 FTD.
2.a.	Runway and helicopter landing area approach lighting must fade into view appropriately in accordance with the environmental conditions set in the FTD.
2.b.	The direction of strobe lights, approach lights, runway edge lights, visual landing aids, runway centerline lights, threshold lights, touchdown zone lights, and TLOF or FATO lights must be replicated.
3.	Visual feature recognition. The following are the minimum distances at which runway features must be visible. Distances are measured from runway threshold or a helicopter landing area to a helicopter aligned with the runway or helicopter landing area on an extended 3° glide-slope in simulated meteorological conditions. For circling approaches, all tests apply to the runway used for the initial approach and to the runway of intended landing.
3.a.	For runways: Runway definition, strobe lights, approach lights, and edge lights from 5 sm (8 km) of the threshold.
3.b.	For runways: Centerline lights and taxiway definition from 3 sm (5 km).
3.c.	For runways: Visual Approach Aid lights (VASI or PAPI) from 5 sm (8 km) of the threshold.
3.d.	For runways: Runway threshold lights and touchdown zone from 2 sm (3 km).
3.e.	For runways and helicopter landing areas: Markings within range of landing lights for night/twilight scenes and the surface resolution test on daylight scenes, as required.
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3.f.	For circling approaches: The runway of intended landing and associated lighting must fade into view in a non-distracting manner.
3.g.	For helicopter landing areas: Landing direction lights and raised FATO lights from 1 sm (1.5 km).
3.h.	For helicopter landing areas: Flush mounted FATO lights, TLOF lights, and the lighted windsock from 0.5 sm (750 m).
4.	Airport or Helicopter Landing Area Model Content. The following prescribes the minimum requirements for an airport/helicopter landing area visual model and identifies other aspects of the environment that must correspond with that model for a Level 7 FTD. For circling approaches, all tests apply to the runway used for the initial approach and to the runway of intended landing. If all runways or landing areas in a visual model used to meet the requirements of this attachment are not designated as “in use,” then the “in use” runways/landing areas must be listed on the SOQ (e.g., KORD, Rwys 9R, 14L, 22R). Models of airports or helicopter landing areas with more than one runway or landing area must have all significant runways or landing areas not “in-use” visually depicted for airport/runway/landing area recognition purposes. The use of white or off white light strings that identify the runway or landing area for twilight and night scenes are acceptable for this requirement; and rectangular surface depictions are acceptable for daylight scenes. A visual system's capabilities must be balanced between providing visual models with an accurate representation of the airport and a realistic representation of the surrounding environment. Each runway or helicopter landing area designated as an “in-use” runway or area must include the following detail that is developed using airport pictures, construction drawings and maps, or other similar data, or developed in accordance with published regulatory material; however, this does not require that such models contain details that are beyond the design capability of the currently qualified visual system. Only one “primary” taxi route from parking to the runway end or helicopter takeoff/landing area will be required for each “in-use” runway or helicopter takeoff/landing area.
4.a.	The surface and markings for each “in-use” runway or helicopter landing area must include the following:
4.a.1.	For airports: Runway threshold markings, runway numbers, touchdown zone markings, fixed distance markings, runway edge markings, and runway centerline stripes.
4.a.2.	For helicopter landing areas: Markings for standard heliport identification (“H”) and TLOF, FATO, and safety areas.
4.b.	The lighting for each “in-use” runway or helicopter landing area must include the following:
4.b.1.	For airports: Runway approach, threshold, edge, end, centerline (if applicable), touchdown zone (if applicable), leadoff, and visual landing aid lights or light systems for that runway.
4.b.2.	For helicopter landing areas: Landing direction, raised and flush FATO, TLOF, windsock lighting.
4.c.	The taxiway surface and markings associated with each “in-use” runway or helicopter landing area must include the following:
4.c.1.	For airports: Taxiway edge, centerline (if appropriate), runway hold lines, and ILS critical area(s).
4.c.2.	For helicopter landing areas: Taxiways, taxi routes, and aprons.
4.d.	The taxiway lighting associated with each “in-use” runway or helicopter landing area must include the following:
4.d.1.	For airports: Taxiway edge, centerline (if appropriate), runway hold lines, ILS critical areas.
4.d.2.	For helicopter landing areas: Taxiways, taxi routes, and aprons.
4.d.3.	For airports: Taxiway lighting of correct color.
4.e.	Airport signage associated with each “in-use” runway or helicopter landing area must include the following:
4.e.1.	For airports: Signs for runway distance remaining, intersecting runway with taxiway, and intersecting taxiway with taxiway.
4.e.2.	For helicopter landing areas: As appropriate for the model used.
4.f.	Required visual model correlation with other aspects of the airport or helicopter landing environment simulation:
4.f.1.	The airport or helicopter landing area model must be properly aligned with the navigational aids that are associated with operations at the “in-use” runway or helicopter landing area.
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4.f.2.	The simulation of runway or helicopter landing area contaminants must be correlated with the displayed runway surface and lighting, if applicable.
5.	Correlation with helicopter and associated equipment. The following are the minimum correlation comparisons that must be made for a Level 7 FTD.
5.a.	Visual system compatibility with aerodynamic programming.
5.b.	Visual cues to assess sink rate and depth perception during landings.
5.c.	Accurate portrayal of environment relating to FTD attitudes.
5.d.	The visual scene must correlate with integrated helicopter systems, where installed (e.g., terrain, traffic and weather avoidance systems and Head-up Guidance System (HGS)).
5.e.	Representative visual effects for each visible, own-ship, helicopter external light(s)—taxi and landing light lobes (including independent operation, if appropriate).
5.f.	The effect of rain removal devices.
6.	Scene quality. The following are the minimum scene quality tests that must be conducted for a Level 7 FTD.
6.a.	System light points must be free from distracting jitter, smearing and streaking.
6.b.	Demonstration of occulting through each channel of the system in an operational scene.
6.c.	Six discrete light step controls (0-5).
7.	Special weather representations, which include visibility and RVR, measured in terms of distance. Visibility/RVR checked at 2,000 ft (600 m) above the airport or helicopter landing area and at two heights below 2,000 ft with at least 500 ft of separation between the measurements. The measurements must be taken within a radius of 10 sm (16 km) from the airport or helicopter landing area.
7.a.	Effects of fog on airport lighting such as halos and defocus.
7.b.	Effect of own-ship lighting in reduced visibility, such as reflected glare, including landing lights, strobes, and beacons.
8.	Instructor control of the following: The following are the minimum instructor controls that must be available in a Level 7 FTD.
8.a.	Environmental effects: E.g., cloud base, cloud effects, cloud density, visibility in statute miles/kilometers and RVR in feet/meters.
8.b.	Airport or helicopter landing area selection.
8.c.	Airport or helicopter landing area lighting, including variable intensity.
8.d.	Dynamic effects including ground and flight traffic.
End QPS Requirement
Begin Information
9.	An example of being able to combine two airport models to achieve two “in-use” runways: One runway designated as the “in-use” runway in the first model of the airport, and the second runway designated as the “in-use” runway in the second model of the same airport. For example, the clearance is for the ILS approach to Runway 27, Circle to Land on Runway 18 right. Two airport visual models might be used: The first with Runway 27 designated as the “in use” runway for the approach to runway 27, and the second with Runway 18 Right designated as the “in use” runway. When the pilot breaks off the ILS approach to runway 27, the instructor may change to the second airport visual model in which runway 18 Right is designated as the “in use” runway, and the pilot would make a visual approach and landing. This process is acceptable to the FAA as long as the temporary interruption due to the visual model change is not distracting to the pilot.
10.	Sponsors are not required to provide every detail of a runway, but the detail that is provided should be correct within reasonable limits.
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End Information

Table D3C—Table of Functions and Subjective Tests Level 7 FTD Visual Requirements Additional Visual Models Beyond Minimum Required for Qualification Class II Airport or Helicopter Landing Area Models

QPS requirements
Entry No.	Operations tasks
This table specifies the minimum airport or helicopter landing area visual model content and functionality necessary to add visual models to an FTD's visual model library (i.e., beyond those necessary for qualification at the stated level) without the necessity of further involvement of the responsible Flight Standards office or TPAA.
1.	Visual scene management. The following is the minimum visual scene management requirements.
1.a.	The installation and direction of the following lights must be replicated for the “in-use” surface:
1.a.1.	For “in-use” runways: Strobe lights, approach lights, runway edge lights, visual landing aids, runway centerline lights, threshold lights, and touchdown zone lights.
1.a.2.	For “in-use” helicopter landing areas: Ground level TLOF perimeter lights, elevated TLOF perimeter lights (if applicable), Optional TLOF lights (if applicable), ground FATO perimeter lights, elevated TLOF lights (if applicable), landing direction lights.
2.	Visual feature recognition. The following are the minimum distances at which runway or landing area features must be visible. Distances are measured from runway threshold or a helicopter landing area to an aircraft aligned with the runway or helicopter landing area on a 3° glide-slope from the aircraft to the touchdown point, in simulated meteorological conditions. For circling approaches, all tests apply to the runway used for the initial approach and to the runway of intended landing.
2.a.	For Runways.
2.a.1.	Strobe lights, approach lights, and edge lights from 5 sm (8 km) of the threshold.
2.a.2.	Centerline lights and taxiway definition from 3 sm (5 km).
2.a.3.	Visual Approach Aid lights (VASI or PAPI) from 5 sm (8 km) of the threshold.
2.a.4.	Threshold lights and touchdown zone lights from 2 sm (3 km).
2.a.5.	Markings within range of landing lights for night/twilight (dusk) scenes and as required by the surface resolution test on daylight scenes.
2.a.6.	For circling approaches, the runway of intended landing and associated lighting must fade into view in a non-distracting manner.
2.b.	For Helicopter landing areas.
2.b.1.	Landing direction lights and raised FATO lights from 2 sm (3 km).
2.b.2.	Flush mounted FATO lights, TOFL lights, and the lighted windsock from 1 sm (1500 m).
2.b.3.	Hover taxiway lighting (yellow/blue/yellow cylinders) from TOFL area.
2.b.4.	Markings within range of landing lights for night/twilight (dusk) scenes and as required by the surface resolution test on daylight scenes.
3.	Airport or Helicopter Landing Area Model Content. The following prescribes the minimum requirements for what must be provided in an airport visual model and identifies other aspects of the airport environment that must correspond with that model. The detail must be developed using airport pictures, construction drawings and maps, or other similar data, or developed in accordance with published regulatory material; however, this does not require that airport or helicopter landing area models contain details that are beyond the designed capability of the currently qualified visual system. For circling approaches, all requirements of this section apply to the runway used for the initial approach and to the runway of intended landing. Only one “primary” taxi route from parking to the runway end or helicopter takeoff/landing area will be required for each “in-use” runway or helicopter takeoff/landing area.
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3.a.	The surface and markings for each “in-use” runway or helicopter landing area must include the following:
3.a.1.	For airports: Runway threshold markings, runway numbers, touchdown zone markings, fixed distance markings, runway edge markings, and runway centerline stripes.
3.a.2.	For helicopter landing areas: Standard heliport marking (“H”), TOFL, FATO, and safety areas.
3.b.	The lighting for each “in-use” runway or helicopter landing area must include the following:
3.b.1.	For airports: Runway approach, threshold, edge, end, centerline (if applicable), touchdown zone (if applicable), leadoff, and visual landing aid lights or light systems for that runway.
3.b.2.	For helicopter landing areas: Landing direction, raised and flush FATO, TOFL, windsock lighting.
3.c.	The taxiway surface and markings associated with each “in-use” runway or helicopter landing area must include the following:
3.c.1.	For airports: Taxiway edge, centerline (if appropriate), runway hold lines, and ILS critical area(s).
3.c.2.	For helicopter landing areas: Taxiways, taxi routes, and aprons.
3.d.	The taxiway lighting associated with each “in-use” runway or helicopter landing area must include the following:
3.d.1.	For airports: Runway edge, centerline (if appropriate), runway hold lines, ILS critical areas.
3.d.2.	For helicopter landing areas: Taxiways, taxi routes, and aprons.
4.	Required visual model correlation with other aspects of the airport environment simulation. The following are the minimum visual model correlation tests that must be conducted for Level 7 FTD.
4.a.	The airport model must be properly aligned with the navigational aids that are associated with operations at the “in-use” runway.
4.b.	Slopes in runways, taxiways, and ramp areas, if depicted in the visual scene, must not cause distracting or unrealistic effects.
5.	Correlation with helicopter and associated equipment. The following are the minimum correlation comparisons that must be made.
5.a.	Visual system compatibility with aerodynamic programming.
5.b.	Accurate portrayal of environment relating to flight simulator attitudes.
5.c.	Visual cues to assess sink rate and depth perception during landings.
6.	Scene quality. The following are the minimum scene quality tests that must be conducted.
6.a.	Light points free from distracting jitter, smearing or streaking.
6.b.	Surfaces and textural cues free from apparent and distracting quantization (aliasing).
7.	Instructor controls of the following. The following are the minimum instructor controls that must be available.
7.a.	Environmental effects, e.g., cloud base (if used), cloud effects, cloud density, visibility in statute miles/kilometers and RVR in feet/meters.
7.b.	Airport/Heliport selection.
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7.c.	Airport/Heliport lighting including variable intensity.
7.d.	Dynamic effects including ground and flight traffic.
End QPS Requirements
Begin Information
8.	Sponsors are not required to provide every detail of a runway or helicopter landing area, but the detail that is provided must be correct within the capabilities of the system.
End Information

Table D3D—Table of Functions And Subjective Tests Level 6 FTD

QPS requirements
Entry No.	Operations tasks
Tasks in this table are subject to evaluation if appropriate for the helicopter simulated as indicated in the SOQ Configuration List or for a Level 6 FTD. Items not installed or not functional on the FTD and not appearing on the SOQ Configuration List, are not required to be listed as exceptions on the SOQ.
1. Preflight Procedures
1.a.	Preflight Inspection (Flight Deck Only) switches, indicators, systems, and equipment.
1.b.	APU/Engine start and run-up.
1.b.1.	Normal start procedures.
1.b.2.	Alternate start procedures.
1.b.3.	Abnormal starts and shutdowns.
1.b.4.	Rotor engagement.
1.b.5	System checks.
2. Takeoff and Departure Phase
2.a.	Instrument.
2.b.	Takeoff with engine failure after critical decision point (CDP).
3. Climb
3.a.	Normal.
3.b.	One engine inoperative.
4. Inflight Maneuvers
4.a.	Performance.
4.b.	Flying qualities.
4.c.	Turns.
4.c.1.	Timed.
4.c.2.	Normal.
4.c.3.	Steep.
4.d.	Accelerations and decelerations.
4.e.	Abnormal/emergency procedures:
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4.e.1.	Engine fire.
4.e.2.	Engine failure.
4.e.3.	In-flight engine shutdown (and restart, if applicable).
4.e.4.	Fuel governing system failures (e.g., FADEC malfunction).
4.e.5.	Directional control malfunction (restricted to the extent that the maneuver may not terminate in a landing).
4.e.6.	Hydraulic failure.
4.e.7.	Stability augmentation system failure.
5. Instrument Procedures
5.a.	Holding.
5.b.	Precision Instrument Approach.
5.b.1.	All engines operating.
5.b.2.	One or more engines inoperative.
5.b.3.	Approach procedures:
5.b.4.	PAR.
5.b.5.	ILS.
5.b.6.	Manual (raw data).
5.b.7.	Flight director only.
5.b.8.	Autopilot* and flight director (if appropriate) coupled.
5.c.	Non-precision Instrument Approach.
5.c.	Normal—All engines operating.
5.c.	One or more engines inoperative.
5.c.	Approach procedures:
5.c.1.	NDB.
5.c.2.	VOR, RNAV, TACAN, GPS.
5.c.3.	ASR.
5.c.4.	Helicopter only.
5.d.	Missed Approach.
5.d.1.	All engines operating.
5.d.2.	One or more engines inoperative.
5.d.3.	Stability augmentation system failure.
6. Normal and Abnormal Procedures (any phase of flight)
6.a.	Helicopter and powerplant systems operation (as applicable).
6.a.1.	Anti-icing/deicing systems.
6.a.2.	Auxiliary power-plant.
6.a.3.	Communications.
6.a.4.	Electrical system.
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6.a.5.	Environmental system.
6.a.6.	Fire detection and suppression.
6.a.7.	Flight control system.
6.a.8.	Fuel system.
6.a.9.	Engine oil system.
6.a.10.	Hydraulic system.
6.a.11	Landing gear.
6.a.12.	Oxygen.
6.a.13.	Pneumatic.
6.a.14.	Powerplant.
6.a.15.	Flight control computers.
6.a.16.	Stability augmentation and control augmentation system(s).
6.b.	Flight management and guidance system (as applicable).
6.b.1.	Airborne radar.
6.b.2.	Automatic landing aids.
6.b.3.	Autopilot.*
6.b.4.	Collision avoidance system.
6.b.5.	Flight data displays.
6.b.6.	Flight management computers.
6.b.7.	Navigation systems.
7. Postflight Procedures
7.a.	Parking and Securing.
7.b.	Engine and systems operation.
7.c.	Parking brake operation.
7.d.	Rotor brake operation.
7.e.	Abnormal/emergency procedures.
8. Instructor Operating Station (IOS), as appropriate
8.a.	Power Switch(es).
8.b.1.	Helicopter conditions.
8.b.2.	Gross weight, center of gravity, fuel loading and allocation, etc.
8.b.3.	Helicopter systems status.
8.b.4.	Ground crew functions (e.g., ext. power).
8.c.	Airports and landing areas.
8.c.1.	Number and selection.
8.c.2.	Runway or landing area selection.
8.c.3.	Preset positions (e.g., ramp, over FAF).
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8.c.4.	Lighting controls.
8.d.	Environmental controls.
8.d.1	Temperature.
8.d.2.	Climate conditions (e.g., ice, rain).
8.d.3.	Wind speed and direction.
8.e.	Helicopter system malfunctions.
8.e.1.	Insertion/deletion.
8.e.2.	Problem clear.
8.f.	Locks, Freezes, and Repositioning.
8.f.1.	Problem (all) freeze/release.
8.f.2.	Position (geographic) freeze/release.
8.f.3.	Repositioning (locations, freezes, and releases).
8.f.4.	Ground speed control.
8.g.	Sound Controls. On/off/adjustment.
8.h.	Control Loading System (as applicable) On/off/emergency stop.
8.i.	Observer Stations.
8.i.1.	Position.
8.i.2.	Adjustments.
* “Autopilot” means attitude retention mode of operation.

Table D3E—Table of Functions and Subjective Tests Level 5 FTD

QPS requirements
Entry No.	Operations tasks
Tasks in this table are subject to evaluation if appropriate for the helicopter simulated as indicated in the SOQ Configuration List or for a Level 5 FTD. Items not installed or not functional on the FTD and not appearing on the SOQ Configuration List, are not required to be listed as exceptions on the SOQ.
1. Preflight Procedures
1.a.	Preflight Inspection (Flight Deck Only) switches, indicators, systems, and equipment.
1.b.	APU/Engine start and run-up.
1.b.1.	Normal start procedures.
1.b.2.	Alternate start procedures.
1.b.3.	Abnormal starts and shutdowns.
2. Climb
2.a.	Normal.
3. Inflight Maneuvers
3.a.	Performance.
3.b.	Turns, Normal.
4. Instrument Procedures
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4.a.	Coupled instrument approach maneuvers (as applicable for the systems installed).
5. Normal and Abnormal Procedures (any phase of flight)
5.a.	Normal system operation (installed systems).
5.b.	Abnormal/Emergency system operation (installed systems).
6. Postflight Procedures
6.a.	Parking and Securing.
6.b.	Engine and systems operation.
6.c.	Parking brake operation.
6.d.	Rotor brake operation.
6.e.	Abnormal/emergency procedures.
7. Instructor Operating Station (IOS), as appropriate
7.a.	Power Switch(es).
7.b.	Preset positions (ground; air)
7.c.	Helicopter system malfunctions.
7.c.1.	Insertion/deletion.
7.c.2.	Problem clear.
7.d.	Control Loading System (as applicable) On/off/emergency stop.
7.e.	Observer Stations.
7.e.1.	Position.
7.e.2.	Adjustments.

Table D3F—Table of Functions and Subjective Tests Level 4 FTD

QPS requirements
Entry No.	Operations tasks
Tasks in this table are subject to evaluation if appropriate for the helicopter simulated as indicated in the SOQ Configuration List or for a Level 4 FTD. Items not installed or not functional on the FTD and not appearing on the SOQ Configuration List, are not required to be listed as exceptions on the SOQ.
1. Preflight Procedures
1.a.	Preflight Inspection (Flight Deck Only) switches, indicators, systems, and equipment.
1.b.	APU/Engine start and run-up.
1.b.1.	Normal start procedures.
1.b.2.	Alternate start procedures.
1.b.3.	Abnormal starts and shutdowns.
2. Normal and Abnormal Procedures (any phase of flight)
2.a.	Normal system operation (installed systems).
2.b.	Abnormal/Emergency system operation (installed systems).
3. Postflight Procedures
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3.a.	Parking and Securing.
3.b.	Engine and systems operation.
3.c.	Parking brake operation.
4. Instructor Operating Station (IOS), as appropriate
4.a.	Power Switch(es).
4.b.	Preset positions (ground; air)
4.c.	Helicopter system malfunctions.
4.c.1.	Insertion/deletion.
4.c.2.	Problem clear.

Attachment 4 to Appendix D to Part 60—Sample Documents Table of Contents Figure D4A Sample Letter, Request for Initial, Upgrade, or Reinstatement Evaluation Figure D4B Attachment: FTD Information Form Figure D4C Sample Letter of Compliance Figure D4D Sample Qualification Test Guide Cover Page Figure D4E Sample Statement of Qualification—Certificate Figure D4F Sample Statement of Qualification—Configuration List Figure D4G Sample Statement of Qualification—List of Qualified Tasks Figure D4H [Reserved] Figure D4I Sample MQTG Index of Effective FTD Directives Attachment 4 to Appendix D to Part 60—Figure D4A—Sample Letter, Request for Initial, Upgrade, or Reinstatement Evaluation Information [Please see PDF for image: ER09DE22.121]

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[Please see PDF for image: ER09DE22.122]

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[Please see PDF for image: ER09MY08.057] Attachment 4 to Appendix D to Part 60—Figure D4C—Sample Letter of Compliance Information

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[Please see PDF for image: ER09DE22.123] [Please see PDF for image: ER09DE22.124] Attachment 4 to Appendix D to Part 60—Figure D4D—Sample Qualification Test Guide Cover Page Information

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[Please see PDF for image: ER09DE22.125] [Please see PDF for image: ER09DE22.126] Attachment 4 to Appendix D to Part 60—Figure D4E—Sample Statement of Qualification—Certificate Information

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[Please see PDF for image: ER09DE22.130]

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[Please see PDF for image: ER09MY08.061]

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[Please see PDF for image: ER09MY08.062]

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[Please see PDF for image: ER09MY08.063]

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[Please see PDF for image: ER09MY08.064] Attachment 4 to Appendix D to Part 60—Figure D4H [Reserved]  

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[Please see PDF for image: ER09MY08.066] [Docket FAA-2002-12461, 73 FR 26490, May 9, 2008, as amended by Amdt. 60-6, 83 FR 30276, June 27, 2018; Docket FAA-2022-1355, Amdt. 60-7, 87 FR 75832, Dec. 9, 2022]     Pt. 60, App. E Appendix E to Part 60—Qualification Performance Standards for Quality Management Systems for Flight Simulation Training Devices Begin QPS Requirements a. Not later than May 30, 2010, each current sponsor of an FSTD must submit to the responsible Flight Standards office a proposed Quality Management System (QMS) program as described in this appendix. The responsible Flight Standards office will notify the sponsor of the acceptability of the program, including any required adjustments. Within 6 months of the notification of acceptability, the sponsor must implement the program, conduct internal audits, make required program adjustments as a result of any internal audit, and schedule the responsible Flight Standards office initial audit. b. First-time FSTD sponsors must submit to the responsible Flight Standards office the proposed QMS program no later than 120 days before the initial FSTD evaluation. The responsible Flight Standards office will notify the sponsor of the acceptability of the program, including any required adjustments. Within 6 months of the notification of acceptability, the sponsor must implement the program, conduct internal audits, make required program adjustments as a result of any internal audit, and schedule the responsible Flight Standards office initial audit. c. The Director of Operations for a Part 119 certificate holder, the Chief Instructor for a Part 141 certificate holder, or the equivalent for a Part 142 or Flight Engineer School sponsor must designate a Management Representative (MR) who has the authority to establish and modify the sponsor's policies, practices, and procedures regarding the QMS program for the recurring qualification and the daily use of each FSTD. d. The minimum content required for an acceptable QMS is found in Table E1. The policies, processes, or procedures described in this table must be maintained in a Quality Manual and will serve as the basis for the following: (1) The sponsor-conducted initial and recurring periodic assessments;

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(2) The responsible Flight Standards office-conducted initial and recurring periodic assessments; and (3) The continuing surveillance and analysis by the responsible Flight Standards office of the sponsor's performance and effectiveness in providing a satisfactory FSTD for use on a regular basis. e. The sponsor must conduct assessments of its QMS program in segments. The segments will be established by the responsible Flight Standards office at the initial assessment, and the interval for the segment assessments will be every 6 months. The intervals for the segment assessments may be extended beyond 6 months as the QMS program matures, but will not be extended beyond 12 months. The entire QMS program must be assessed every 24 months. f. The periodic assessments conducted by the responsible Flight Standards office will be conducted at intervals not less than once every 24 months, and include a comprehensive review of the QMS program. These reviews will be conducted more frequently if warranted. End QPS Requirements Begin Information g. An example of a segment assessment—At the initial QMS assessment, the responsible Flight Standards office will divide the QMS program into segments (e.g., 6 separate segments). There must be an assessment of a certain number of segments every 6 months (i.e., segments 1 and 2 at the end of the first 6 month period; segments 3 and 4 at the end of the second 6 month period (or one year); and segments 5 and 6 at the end of the third 6 month period (or 18 months). As the program matures, the interval between assessments may be extended to 12 months (e.g., segments 1, 2, and 3 at the end of the first year; and segments 4, 5, and 6 at the end of the second year). In both cases, the entire QMS program is assessed at least every 24 months. h. The following materials are presented to assist sponsors in preparing for an responsible Flight Standards office evaluation of the QMS program. The sample documents include: (1) The desk assessment tool for initial evaluation of the required elements of a QMS program. (2) The on-site assessment tool for initial and continuing evaluation of the required elements of a QMS program. (3) An Element Assessment Table that describes the circumstances that exist to warrant a finding of “non-compliance,” or “non-conformity”; “partial compliance,” or “partial conformity”; and “acceptable compliance,” or “acceptable conformity.” (4) A sample Continuation Sheet for additional comments that may be added by the sponsor or the responsible Flight Standards office during a QMS evaluation. (5) A sample Sponsor Checklist to assist the sponsor in verifying the elements that comprise the required QMS program. (6) A table showing the essential functions, processes, and procedures that relate to the required QMS components and a cross-reference to each represented task. i. Additional Information. (1) In addition to specifically designated QMS evaluations, the responsible Flight Standards office will evaluate the sponsor's QMS program as part of regularly scheduled FSTD continuing qualification evaluations and no-notice FSTD evaluations, focusing in part on the effectiveness and viability of the QMS program and its contribution to the overall capability of the FSTD to meet the requirements of this part. (2) The sponsor or MR may delegate duties associated with maintaining the qualification of the FSTD (e.g., corrective and preventive maintenance, scheduling and conducting tests or inspections, functional preflight checks) but retain the responsibility and authority for the day-to-day qualification of the FSTD. One person may serve as the sponsor or MR for more than one FSTD, but one FSTD may not have more than one sponsor or MR. (3) A QMS program may be applicable to more than one certificate holder (e.g., part 119 and part 142 or two part 119 certificate holders) and an MR may work for more than one certificate holder (e.g., part 119 and part 142 or two part 119 certificate holders) as long as the sponsor's QMS program requirements and the MR requirements are met for each certificate holder. j. The FAA does not mandate a specific QMS program format, but an acceptable QMS program should contain the following: (1) A Quality Policy. This is a formal written Quality Policy Statement that is a commitment by the sponsor outlining what the Quality System will achieve. (2) A MR who has overall authority for monitoring the on-going qualification of assigned FSTDs to ensure that all FSTD qualification issues are resolved as required by this part. The MR should ensure that the QMS program is properly implemented and maintained, and should: (a) Brief the sponsor's management on the qualification processes; (b) Serve as the primary contact point for all matters between the sponsor and the responsible Flight Standards office regarding the qualification of the assigned FSTDs; and (c) Oversee the day-to-day quality control. (3) The system and processes outlined in the QMS should enable the sponsor to monitor compliance with all applicable regulations and ensure correct maintenance and performance of the FSTD in accordance with part 60.

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(4) A QMS program and a statement acknowledging completion of a periodic review by the MR should include the following: (a) A maintenance facility that provides suitable FSTD hardware and software tests and maintenance capability. (b) A recording system in the form of a technical log in which defects, deferred defects, and development projects are listed, assigned and reviewed within a specified time period. (c) Routine maintenance of the FSTD and performance of the QTG tests with adequate staffing to cover FSTD operating periods. (d) A planned internal assessment schedule and a periodic review should be used to verify that corrective action was complete and effective. The assessor should have adequate knowledge of FSTDs and should be acceptable to the responsible Flight Standards office. (5) The MR should receive Quality System training and brief other personnel on the procedures. End Information Table E1—FSTD Quality Management System

Entry No.	QPS Requirement	Information (Reference)
E1.1.	A QMS manual that prescribes the policies, processes, or procedures outlined in this table	§ 60.5(a).
E1.2.	A policy, process, or procedure specifying how the sponsor will identify deficiencies in the QMS	§ 60.5(b).
E1.3.	A policy, process, or procedure specifying how the sponsor will document how the QMS program will be changed to address deficiencies	§ 60.5(b).
E1.4.	A policy, process, or procedure specifying how the sponsor will address proposed program changes (for programs that do not meet the minimum requirements as notified by the responsible Flight Standards office) to the responsible Flight Standards office and receive approval prior to their implementation	§ 60.5(c).
E1.5.	A policy, process, or procedure specifying how the sponsor will document that at least one FSTD is used within the sponsor's FAA-approved flight training program for the aircraft or set of aircraft at least once within the 12-month period following the initial or upgrade evaluation conducted by the responsible Flight Standards office and at least once within each subsequent 12-month period thereafter	§ 60. 7(b)(5).
E1.6.	A policy, process, or procedure specifying how the sponsor will document that at least one FSTD is used within the sponsor's FAA-approved flight training program for the aircraft or set of aircraft at least once within the 12-month period following the first continuing qualification evaluation conducted by the responsible Flight Standards office and at least once within each subsequent 12-month period thereafter	§ 60.7(b)(6).
E1.7.	A policy, process, or procedure specifying how the sponsor will obtain an annual written statement from a qualified pilot (who has flown the subject aircraft or set of aircraft during the preceding 12-month period) that the performance and handling qualities of the subject FSTD represents the subject aircraft or set of aircraft (within the normal operating envelope). Required only if the subject FSTD is not used in the sponsor's FAA-approved flight training program for the aircraft or set of aircraft at least once within the preceding 12-month period	§ 60.5(b)(7) and § 60.7(d)(2).
E1.8.	A policy, process, or procedure specifying how independent feedback (from persons recently completing training, evaluation, or obtaining flight experience; instructors and check airmen using the FSTD for training, evaluation or flight experience sessions; and FSTD technicians and maintenance personnel) will be received and addressed by the sponsor regarding the FSTD and its operation	§ 60.9(b)(1).
E1.9.	A policy, process, or procedure specifying how and where the FSTD SOQ will be posted, or accessed by an appropriate terminal or display, in or adjacent to the FSTD	§ 60.9(b)(2).
E1.10.	A policy, process, or procedure specifying how the sponsor's management representative (MR) is selected and identified by name to the responsible Flight Standards office	§ 60.9(c) and Appendix E, paragraph(d).
E1.11.	A policy, process, or procedure specifying the MR authority and responsibility for the following:	§ 60.9(c)(2), (3), and (4).
E1.11.a.	Monitoring the on-going qualification of assigned FSTDs to ensure all matters regarding FSTD qualification are completed as required by this part
E1.11.b.	Ensuring that the QMS is properly maintained by overseeing the QMS policies, practices, or procedures and modifying as necessary
E1.11.c.	Regularly briefing sponsor's management on the status of the on-going FSTD qualification program and the effectiveness and efficiency of the QMS
E1.11.d.	Serving as the primary contact point for all matters between the sponsor and the responsible Flight Standards office regarding the qualification of assigned FSTDs
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E1.11.e.	Delegating the MR assigned duties to an individual at each of the sponsor's locations, as appropriate
E1.12.	A policy, process, or procedure specifying how the sponsor will:	§ 60.13; QPS Appendices A, B, C, and D.
E1.12.a.	Ensure that the data made available to the responsible Flight Standards office (the validation data package) includes the aircraft manufacturer's flight test data (or other data approved by the responsible Flight Standards office) and all relevant data developed after the type certificate was issued ( e.g., data developed in response to an airworthiness directive) if the data results from a change in performance, handling qualities, functions, or other characteristics of the aircraft that must be considered for flight crewmember training, evaluation, or experience requirements
E1.12.b.	Notify the responsible Flight Standards office within 10 working days of becoming aware that an addition to or a revision of the flight related data or airplane systems related data is available if this data is used to program or operate a qualified FSTD
E1.12.c.	Maintain a liaison with the manufacturer of the aircraft being simulated (or with the holder of the aircraft type certificate for the aircraft being simulated if the manufacturer is no longer in business), and if appropriate, with the person who supplied the aircraft data package for the FFS for the purposes of receiving notification of data package changes
E1.13.	A policy, process, or procedure specifying how the sponsor will make available all special equipment and qualified personnel needed to conduct tests during initial, continuing qualification, or special evaluations	§ 60.14.
E1.14.	A policy, process, or procedure specifying how the sponsor will submit to the responsible Flight Standards office a request to evaluate the FSTD for initial qualification at a specific level and simultaneously request the TPAA forward a concurring letter to the responsible Flight Standards office; including how the MR will use qualified personnel to confirm the following:	§ 60.15(a)-(d); § 60.15(b); § 60.15(b)(i); § 60.15(b)(ii); § 60.15(b)(iii).
E1.14.a.	That the performance and handling qualities of the FSTD represent those of the aircraft or set of aircraft within the normal operating envelope
E1.14.b.	The FSTD systems and sub-systems (including the simulated aircraft systems) functionally represent those in the aircraft or set of aircraft
E1.14.c.	The flight deck represents the configuration of the specific type or aircraft make, model, and series aircraft being simulated, as appropriate
E1.15.	A policy, process, or procedure specifying how the subjective and objective tests are completed at the sponsor's training facility for an initial evaluation	§ 60.15(e).
E1.16.	A policy, process, or procedure specifying how the sponsor will update the QTG with the results of the FAA-witnessed tests and demonstrations together with the results of the objective tests and demonstrations after the responsible Flight Standards office completes the evaluation for initial qualification	§ 60.15(h).
E1.17.	A policy, process, or procedure specifying how the sponsor will make the MQTG available to the responsible Flight Standards office upon request	§ 60.15(i).
E1.18.	A policy, process, or procedure specifying how the sponsor will apply to the responsible Flight Standards office for additional qualification(s) to the SOQ	§ 60.16(a); § 60.16(a)(1)(i); and § 60.16(a)(1)(ii).
E1.19.	A policy, process, or procedure specifying how the sponsor completes all required Attachment 2 objective tests each year in a minimum of four evenly spaced inspections as specified in the appropriate QPS	§ 60.19(a)(1) QPS Appendices A, B, C, or D.
E1.20.	A policy, process, or procedure specifying how the sponsor completes and records a functional preflight check of the FSTD within the preceding 24 hours of FSTD use, including a description of the functional preflight	§ 60.19(a)(2) QPS Appendices A, B, C, or D.
E1.21.	A policy, process, or procedure specifying how the sponsor schedules continuing qualification evaluations with the responsible Flight Standards office	§ 60.19(b)(2).
E1.22.	A policy, process, or procedure specifying how the sponsor ensures that the FSTD has received a continuing qualification evaluation at the interval described in the MQTG	§ 60.19(b)(5)-(6).
E1.23.	A policy, process, or procedure describing how discrepancies are recorded in the FSTD discrepancy log, including	§ 60.19(c); § 60.19(c)(2)(i); § 60.19(c)(2)(ii).
E1.23.a.	A description of how the discrepancies are entered and maintained in the log until corrected
E1.23.b.	A description of the corrective action taken for each discrepancy, the identity of the individual taking the action, and the date that action is taken
E1.24.	A policy, process, or procedure specifying how the discrepancy log is kept in a form and manner acceptable to the Administrator and kept in or adjacent to the FSTD. (An electronic log that may be accessed by an appropriate terminal or display in or adjacent to the FSTD is satisfactory.)	§ 60.19(c)(2)(iii).
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E1.25.	A policy, process, or procedure that requires each instructor, check airman, or representative of the Administrator conducting training, evaluation, or flight experience, and each person conducting the preflight inspection, who discovers a discrepancy, including any missing, malfunctioning, or inoperative components in the FSTD, to write or cause to be written a description of that discrepancy into the discrepancy log at the end of the FSTD preflight or FSTD use session	§ 60.20.
E1.26.	A policy, process, or procedure specifying how the sponsor will apply for initial qualification based on the final aircraft data package approved by the aircraft manufacturer if operating an FSTD based on an interim qualification	§ 60.21(c).
E1.27.	A policy, process, or procedure specifying how the sponsor determines whether an FSTD change qualifies as a modification as defined in § 60.23	§ 60.23(a)(1)-(2).
E1.28.	A policy, process, or procedure specifying how the sponsor will ensure the FSTD is modified in accordance with any FSTD Directive regardless of the original qualification basis	§ 60.23(b).
E1.29.	A policy, process, or procedure specifying how the sponsor will notify the responsible Flight Standards office and TPAA of their intent to use a modified FSTD and to ensure that the modified FSTD will not be used prior to:	§ 60.23(c)(1)(i),(ii), and (iv).
E1.29.a.	Twenty-one days since the sponsor notified the responsible Flight Standards office and the TPAA of the proposed modification and the sponsor has not received any response from either the responsible Flight Standards office or the TPAA; or
E1.29.b.	Twenty-one days since the sponsor notified the responsible Flight Standards office and the TPAA of the proposed modification and one has approved the proposed modification and the other has not responded; or
E1.29.c.	The FSTD successfully completing any evaluation the responsible Flight Standards office may require in accordance with the standards for an evaluation for initial qualification or any part thereof before the modified FSTD is placed in service
E1.30	A policy, process, or procedure specifying how, after an FSTD modification is approved by the responsible Flight Standards office, the sponsor will:	§ 60.23(d)-(e).
E1.30.a.	Post an addendum to the SOQ until as the responsible Flight Standards office issues a permanent, updated SOQ
E1.30.b.	Update the MQTG with current objective test results and appropriate objective data for each affected objective test or other MQTG section affected by the modification
E1.30.c.	File in the MQTG the requirement from the responsible Flight Standards office to make the modification and the record of the modification completion
E1.31.	A policy, process, or procedure specifying how the sponsor will track the length of time a component has been missing, malfunctioning, or inoperative (MMI), including:	§ 60.25(b)-(c), and QPS Appendices A, B, C, or D.
E1.31.a.	How the sponsor will post a list of MMI components in or adjacent to the FSTD
E1.31.b.	How the sponsor will notify the responsible Flight Standards office if the MMI has not been repaired or replaced within 30 days.*
E1.32.	A policy, process, or procedure specifying how the sponsor will notify the responsible Flight Standards office and how the sponsor will seek requalification of the FSTD if the FSTD is moved and reinstalled in a different location	§ 60.27(a)(3).
E1.33.	A policy, process, or procedure specifying how the sponsor will maintain control of the following: (The sponsor must specify how these records are maintained in plain language form or in coded form; but if the coded form is used, the sponsor must specify how the preservation and retrieval of information will be conducted.)	§ 60.31.
E1.33.a.	The MQTG and each amendment
E1.33.b.	A record of all FSTD modifications required by this part since the issuance of the original SOQ
E1.33.c.	Results of the qualification evaluations (initial and each upgrade) since the issuance of the original SOQ
E1.33.d.	Results of the objective tests conducted in accordance with this part for a period of 2 years
E1.33.e.	Results of the previous three continuing qualification evaluations, or the continuing qualification evaluations from the previous 2 years, whichever covers a longer period.
E1.33.f.	Comments obtained in accordance with § 60.9(b);
E1.33.g.	A record of all discrepancies entered in the discrepancy log over the previous 2 years, including the following:
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E1.33.g.1.	A list of the components or equipment that were or are missing, malfunctioning, or inoperative
E1.33.g.2.	The action taken to correct the discrepancy
E1.33.g.3.	The date the corrective action was taken
E1.33.g.4.	The identity of the person determining that the discrepancy has been corrected.
*  Note: If the sponsor has an approved discrepancy prioritization system, this item is satisfied by describing how discrepancies are prioritized, what actions are taken, and how the sponsor will notify the responsible Flight Standards office if the MMI has not been repaired or replaced within the specified timeframe.

[Docket FAA-2002-12461, 73 FR 26490, May 9, 2008, as amended by Docket FAA-2022-1355, Amdt. 60-7, 87 FR 75842, Dec. 9, 2022]     Pt. 60, App. F Appendix F to Part 60—Definitions and Abbreviations for Flight Simulation Training Devices Begin Information 1. Some of the definitions presented below are repeated from the definitions found in 14 CFR part 1, as indicated parenthetically End Information Begin QPS Requirements 2. Definitions 1st Segment —the portion of the takeoff profile from liftoff to gear retraction. 2nd Segment —the portion of the takeoff profile from after gear retraction to initial flap/slat retraction. 3rd Segment —the portion of the takeoff profile after flap/slat retraction is complete. Aircraft Data Package —a combination of the various types of data used to design, program, manufacture, modify, and test the FSTD. Airspeed —calibrated airspeed unless otherwise specified and expressed in terms of nautical miles per hour (knots). Airport Model — Class I. Whether modeling real world or fictional airports (or landing areas for helicopters), these airport models (or landing areas for helicopters) are those that meet the requirements of Table A3B or C3B, found in attachment 2 of Appendix A or C, as appropriate, are evaluated by the responsible Flight Standards office, and are listed on the SOQ. Class II. Whether modeling real world or fictional airports (or landing areas for helicopters), these airport models (or landing areas for helicopters) are those models that are in excess of those used for simulator qualification at a specified level. The FSTD sponsor is responsible for determining that these models meet the requirements set out in Table A3C or C3C, found in attachment 2 of Appendix A or C, as appropriate. Class III. This is a special class of airport model (or landing area for helicopters), used for specific purposes, and includes models that may be incomplete or inaccurate when viewed without restriction, but when appropriate limits are applied (e.g., “valid for use only in visibility conditions less than 1/2 statute mile or RVR2400 feet,” “valid for use only for approaches to Runway 22L and 22R”), those features that may be incomplete or inaccurate may not be able to be recognized as such by the crewmember being trained, tested, or checked. Class III airport models used for training, testing, or checking activities under this Chapter requires the certificate holder to submit to the TPAA an appropriate analysis of the skills, knowledge, and abilities necessary for competent performance of the task(s) in which this particular model is to be used, and requires TPAA acceptance of each Class III model. Altitude —pressure altitude (meters or feet) unless specified otherwise. Angle of Attack —the angle between the airplane longitudinal axis and the relative wind vector projected onto the airplane plane of symmetry. Automatic Testing —FSTD testing where all stimuli are under computer control. Bank —the airplane attitude with respect to or around the longitudinal axis, or roll angle (degrees). Breakout —the force required at the pilot's primary controls to achieve initial movement of the control position.

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Certificate Holder —a person issued a certificate under parts 119, 141, or 142 of this chapter or a person holding an approved course of training for flight engineers in accordance with part 63 of this chapter. Closed Loop Testing —a test method where the input stimuli are generated by controllers that drive the FSTD to follow a pre-defined target response. Computer Controlled Aircraft —an aircraft where all pilot inputs to the control surfaces are transferred and augmented by computers. Confined Area (helicopter operations) —an area where the flight of the helicopter is limited in some direction by terrain or the presence of natural or man-made obstructions (e.g., a clearing in the woods, a city street, or a road bordered by trees or power lines are regarded as confined areas). Control Sweep —movement of the appropriate pilot controller from neutral to an extreme limit in one direction (Forward, Aft, Right, or Left), a continuous movement back through neutral to the opposite extreme position, and then a return to the neutral position. Convertible FSTD —an FSTD in which hardware and software can be changed so that the FSTD becomes a replica of a different model, usually of the same type aircraft. The same FSTD platform, flight deck shell, motion system, visual system, computers, and peripheral equipment can be used in more than one simulation. Critical Engine Parameter —the parameter that is the most accurate measure of propulsive force. Deadband —the amount of movement of the input for a system for which there is no reaction in the output or state of the system observed. Distance —the length of space between two points, expressed in terms of nautical miles unless otherwise specified. Discrepancy —as used in this part, an aspect of the FSTD that is not correct with respect to the aircraft being simulated. This includes missing, malfunctioning, or inoperative components that are required to be present and operate correctly for training, evaluation, and experience functions to be creditable. It also includes errors in the documentation used to support the FSTD (e.g., MQTG errors, information missing from the MQTG, or required statements from appropriately qualified personnel). Downgrade —a permanent change in the qualification level of an FSTD to a lower level. Driven —a test method where the input stimulus or variable is positioned by automatic means, usually a computer input. Electronic Copy of the MQTG —an electronic copy of the MQTG provided by an electronic scan presented in a format, acceptable to the responsible Flight Standards office. Electronic Master Qualification Test Guide —an electronic version of the MQTG (eMQTG), where all objective data obtained from airplane testing, or another approved source, together with correlating objective test results obtained from the performance of the FSTD and a description of the equipment necessary to perform the evaluation for the initial and the continuing qualification evaluations is stored, archived, or presented in either reformatted or digitized electronic format. Engine —as used in this part, the appliance or structure that supplies propulsive force for movement of the aircraft: i.e., The turbine engine for turbine powered aircraft; the turbine engine and propeller assembly for turbo-propeller powered aircraft; and the reciprocating engine and propeller assembly for reciprocating engine powered aircraft. For purposes of this part, engine failure is the failure of either the engine or propeller assembly to provide thrust higher than idle power thrust due to a failure of either the engine or the propeller assembly. Evaluation —with respect to an individual, the checking, testing, or review associated with flight crewmember qualification, training, and certification under parts 61, 63, 121, or 135 of this chapter. With respect to an FSTD, the qualification activities for the device (e.g., the objective and subjective tests, the inspections, or the continuing qualification evaluations) associated with the requirements of this part. Fictional Airport —a visual model of an airport that is a collection of “non-real world” terrain, instrument approach procedures, navigation aids, maps, and visual modeling detail sufficient to enable completion of an Airline Transport Pilot Certificate or Type Rating. Flight Experience —recency of flight experience for landing credit purposes. Flight Simulation Training Device (FSTD) —a full flight simulator (FFS) or a flight training device (FTD). (Part 1) Flight Test Data —(a subset of objective data) aircraft data collected by the aircraft manufacturer or other acceptable data supplier during an aircraft flight test program. Flight Training Device (FTD) —a replica of aircraft instruments, equipment, panels, and controls in an open flight deck area or an enclosed aircraft flight deck replica. It includes the equipment and computer programs necessary to represent aircraft (or set of aircraft) operations in ground and flight conditions having the full range of capabilities of the systems installed in the device as described in part 60 of this chapter and the qualification performance standard (QPS) for a specific FTD qualification level. (Part 1) Free Response —the response of the FSTD after completion of a control input or disturbance.

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Frozen —a test condition where one or more variables are held constant with time. FSTD Approval —the extent to which an FSTD may be used by a certificate holder as authorized by the FAA. FSTD Directive —a document issued by the FAA to an FSTD sponsor requiring a modification to the FSTD due to a safety-of-flight issue and amending the qualification basis for the FSTD. FSTD Latency —the additional time for the FSTD to respond to input that is beyond the response time of the aircraft. FSTD Performance —the overall performance of the FSTD, including aircraft performance (e.g., thrust/drag relationships, climb, range) and flight and ground handling. Full Flight Simulator (FFS) —a replica of a specific type, make, model, or series aircraft. It includes the equipment and computer programs necessary to represent aircraft operations in ground and flight conditions, a visual system providing an out-of-the-flight deck view, a system that provides cues at least equivalent to those of a three-degree-of-freedom motion system, and has the full range of capabilities of the systems installed in the device as described in part 60 of this chapter and the QPS for a specific FFS qualification level. (Part 1) Gate Clutter —the static and moving ground traffic (e.g., other airplanes; tugs; power or baggage carts; fueling, catering, or cargo trucks; pedestrians) presented to pose a potential conflict with the simulated aircraft during ground operations around the point where the simulated airplane is to be parked between flights Generic Airport Model —a Class III visual model that combines correct navigation aids for a real world airport with a visual model that does not depict that same airport. Grandfathering —as used in this part, the practice of assigning a qualification basis for an FSTD based on the period of time during which a published set of standards governed the requirements for the initial and continuing qualification of FSTDs. Each FSTD manufactured during this specified period of time is “grandfathered” or held to the standards that were in effect during that time period. The grandfathered standards remain applicable to each FSTD manufactured during the stated time period regardless of any subsequent modification to those standards and regardless of the sponsor, as long as the FSTD remains qualified or is maintained in a non-qualified status in accordance with the specific requirements and time periods prescribed in this part. Gross Weight —For objective test purposes: Basic Operating Weight (BOW) —the empty weight of the aircraft plus the weight of the following: Normal oil quantity; lavatory servicing fluid; potable water; required crewmembers and their baggage; and emergency equipment. Light Gross Weight —a weight chosen by the sponsor or data provider that is not more than 120% of the BOW of the aircraft being simulated or the minimum practical operating weight of the test aircraft. Medium Gross Weight —a weight chosen by the sponsor or data provider that is within 10% of the average of the numerical values of the BOW and the maximum certificated gross weight. Near Maximum Gross Weight —a weight chosen by the sponsor or data provider that is not less than the BOW of the aircraft being simulated plus 80% of the difference between the maximum certificated gross weight (either takeoff weight or landing weight, as appropriate for the test) and the BOW. Ground Effect —the change in aerodynamic characteristics due to of the change in the airflow past the aircraft caused by the proximity of the earth's surface to the airplane. Hands Off —a test maneuver conducted without pilot control inputs. Hands On —a test maneuver conducted with pilot control inputs as required. Heave —FSTD movement with respect to or along the vertical axis. Height —the height above ground level (or AGL) expressed in meters or feet. “In Use” Runway —as used in this part, the runway that is currently selected, able to be used for takeoffs and landings, and has the surface lighting and markings required by this part. Also known as the “active” runway. Integrated Testing —testing of the FSTD so that all aircraft system models are active and contribute appropriately to the results. With integrated testing, none of the models used are substituted with models or other algorithms intended for testing only. Irreversible Control System —a control system where movement of the control surface will not backdrive the pilot's control on the flight deck. Locked —a test condition where one or more variables are held constant with time. Manual Testing —FSTD testing conducted without computer inputs except for initial setup, and all modules of the simulation are active. Master Qualification Test Guide (MQTG) —the FAA-approved Qualification Test Guide with the addition of the FAA-witnessed test results, applicable to each individual FSTD. Medium —the normal operational weight for a given flight segment. Near Limiting Performance —the performance level the operating engine must be required to achieve to have sufficient power to land a helicopter after experiencing a single engine failure during takeoff of a multiengine helicopter. The operating engine must be required to operate within at least 5 percent of the maximum RPM or temperature limits of the gas turbine or power turbine, or operate within at least 5 percent of the maximum drive train torque limits. Near limiting performance is based on the existing combination of density altitude, temperature, and helicopter gross weight.

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Nominal —the normal operating configuration, atmospheric conditions, and flight parameters for the specified flight segment. Non-Normal Control —a term used in reference to Computer Controlled Aircraft. It is the state where one or more of the intended control, augmentation, or protection functions are not fully working. Note: Specific terms such as ALTERNATE, DIRECT, SECONDARY, or BACKUP may be used to define an actual level of degradation. Normal Control —a term used in reference to Computer Controlled Aircraft. It is the state where the intended control, augmentation, and protection functions are fully working. Objective Data —quantitative data, acceptable to the NSPM, used to evaluate the FSTD. Objective Test —a quantitative measurement and evaluation of FSTD performance. Pitch —the airplane attitude with respect to, or around, the lateral axis expressed in degrees. Power Lever Angle (PLA) —the angle of the pilot's primary engine control lever(s) on the flight deck. This may also be referred to as THROTTLE or POWER LEVER. Predicted Data —estimations or extrapolations of existing flight test data or data from other simulation models using engineering analyses, engineering simulations, design data, or wind tunnel data. Protection Functions —systems functions designed to protect an airplane from exceeding its flight maneuver limitations. Pulse Input —a step input to a control followed by an immediate return to the initial position. Qualification Level —the categorization of an FSTD established by the NSPM based on the FSTDs demonstrated technical and operational capabilities as prescribed in this part. Qualification Performance Standard (QPS) —the collection of procedures and criteria used when conducting objective and subjective tests, to establish FSTD qualification levels. The QPS are published in the appendices to this part, as follows: Appendix A, for Airplane Simulators; Appendix B, for Airplane Flight Training Devices; Appendix C, for Helicopter Simulators; Appendix D, for Helicopter Flight Training Devices; Appendix E, for Quality Management Systems for Flight Simulation Training Devices; and Appendix F, for Definitions and Abbreviations for Flight Simulation Training Devices. Qualification Test Guide (QTG) —the primary reference document used for evaluating an aircraft FSTD. It contains test results, statements of compliance and capability, the configuration of the aircraft simulated, and other information for the evaluator to assess the FSTD against the applicable regulatory criteria. Quality Management System (QMS) —a flight simulation quality-systems that can be used for external quality-assurance purposes. It is designed to identify the processes needed, determine the sequence and interaction of the processes, determine criteria and methods required to ensure the effective operation and control of the processes, ensure the availability of information necessary to support the operation and monitoring of the processes, measure, monitor, and analyze the processes, and implement the actions necessary to achieve planned results. Real-World Airport —as used in this part in reference to airport visual models, a computer generated visual depiction of an existing airport. Representative —when used as an adjective in this part, typical, demonstrative, or characteristic of, the feature being described. For example, “representative sampling of tests” means a sub-set of the complete set of all tests such that the sample includes one or more of the tests in each of the major categories, the results of which provide the evaluator with an overall understanding of the performance and handling characteristics of the FSTD. Reversible Control System —a control system in which movement of the control surface will backdrive the pilot's control on the flight deck. Roll —the airplane attitude with respect to, or around, the longitudinal axis expressed in degrees. Set of Aircraft —aircraft that share similar handling and operating characteristics, similar operating envelopes, and have the same number and type of engines or powerplants. Sideslip Angle —the angle between the relative wind vector and the airplane plane of symmetry. (Note: this definition replaces the current definition of “sideslip.”) Simulation Quality Management System (SQMS) —the elements of a quality management system for FSTD continuing qualification. Snapshot —a presentation of one or more variables at a given instant of time. Special Evaluation —an evaluation of the FSTD for purposes other than initial, upgrade, or continuing qualification. Circumstances that may require a special evaluation include movement of the FSTD to a different location, or an update to FSTD software or hardware that might affect performance or flying qualities. Sponsor —a certificate holder who seeks or maintains FSTD qualification and is responsible for the prescribed actions as prescribed in this part and the QPS for the appropriate FSTD and qualification level.

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Statement of Compliance and Capability (SOC) —a declaration that a specific requirement has been met and explaining how the requirement was met (e.g., gear modeling approach, coefficient of friction sources). The SOC must also describe the capability of the FSTD to meet the requirement, including references to sources of information for showing compliance, rationale to explain how the referenced material is used, mathematical equations and parameter values used, and conclusions reached. Step Input —an abrupt control input held at a constant value. Subjective Test —a qualitative assessment of the performance and operation of the FSTD. Surge —FSTD movement with respect to or along the longitudinal axis. Sway —FSTD movement with respect to or along the lateral axis. T f —Total time of the flare maneuver. T i —Total time from initial throttle movement until a 10% response of a critical engine parameter. T t —Total time from initial throttle movement to an increase of 90% of go around power or a decrease of 90% from maximum take-off power. Time History —a presentation of the change of a variable with respect to time. Training Program Approval Authority (TPAA) —a person authorized by the Administrator to approve the aircraft flight training program in which the FSTD will be used. Training Restriction —a temporary condition where an FSTD with missing, malfunctioning, or inoperative (MMI) components may continue to be used at the qualification level indicated on its SOQ, but restricted from completing the tasks for which the correct function of the MMI component is required. Transport Delay or “Throughput” —the total FSTD system processing time required for an input signal from a pilot primary flight control until motion system, visual system, or instrument response. It is the overall time delay incurred from signal input to output response. It does not include the characteristic delay of the airplane simulated. Update —an improvement to or modernization of the quality or the accuracy of the FSTD without affecting the qualification level of the FSTD. Upgrade —the improvement or enhancement of an FSTD for the purpose of achieving a higher qualification level. Validation Data —objective data used to determine if the FSTD performance is within the tolerances prescribed in the QPS. Validation Test —an objective test where FSTD parameters are compared to the relevant validation data to ensure that the FSTD performance is within the tolerances prescribed in the QPS. Visual Data Base —a display that may include one or more airport models. Visual System Response Time —the interval from a control input to the completion of the visual display scan of the first video field containing the resulting different information. Yaw —the airplane attitude with respect to, or around, the vertical axis expressed in degrees. 3. Abbreviations AFM Airplane Flight Manual. AGL Above Ground Level (meters or feet). AOA Angle of Attack (degrees). APD Aircrew Program Designee. CCA Computer Controlled Aircraft. cd/m2 candela/meter 2 , 3.4263 candela/m 2 = 1 ft-Lambert. CFR Code of Federal Regulations. cm(s) centimeter, centimeters. daN decaNewtons, one (1) decaNewton = 2.27 pounds. deg(s) degree, degrees. DOF Degrees-of-freedom. eMQTG Electronic Master Qualification Test Guide. EPR Engine Pressure Ratio. FAA Federal Aviation Administration (U.S.). FATO Final Approach and Take Off area fpm feet per minute. ft foot/feet, 1 foot = 0.304801 meters. ft-Lambert foot-Lambert, 1 ft-Lambert = 3.4263 candela/m 2 . g Acceleration due to Gravity (meters or feet/sec 2 ); 1g = 9.81 m/sec 2 or 32.2 feet/sec 2 . G/S Glideslope. IATA International Airline Transport Association. ICAO International Civil Aviation Organization. IGE In ground effect. ILS Instrument Landing System. IOS Instructor Operating Station. IQTG International Qualification Test Guide. km Kilometers; 1 km = 0.62137 Statute Miles. kPa KiloPascal (Kilo Newton/Meters2). 1 psi = 6.89476 kPa. kts Knots calibrated airspeed unless otherwise specified, 1 knot = 0.5148 m/sec or 1.689 ft/sec. lb(s) pound(s), one (1) pound = 0.44 decaNewton. LDP Landing decision point. MQTG Master Qualification Test Guide M,m Meters, 1 Meter = 3.28083 feet. Min(s) Minute, minutes. MLG Main Landing Gear. Mpa MegaPascals (1 psi = 6894.76 pascals). ms millisecond(s). N NORMAL CONTROL Used in reference to Computer Controlled Aircraft. nm Nautical Mile(s) 1 Nautical Mile = 6,080 feet. NN NON-NORMAL CONTROL Used in reference to Computer Controlled Aircraft.

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N1 Low Pressure Rotor revolutions per minute, expressed in percent of maximum. N2 High Pressure Rotor revolutions per minute, expressed in percent of maximum. N3 High Pressure Rotor revolutions per minute, expressed in percent of maximum. NWA Nosewheel Angle (degrees). OGE Out of ground effect. PAPI Precision Approach Path Indicator System. Pf Impact or Feel Pressure, often expressed as “q.” PLA Power Lever Angle. PLF Power for Level Flight. psi pounds per square inch. QPS Qualification Performance Standard. QTG Qualification Test Guide. RAE Royal Aerospace Establishment. R/C Rate of Climb (meters/sec or feet/min). R/D Rate of Descent (meters/sec or feet/min). REIL Runway End Identifier Lights. RVR Runway Visual Range (meters or feet). s second(s). sec(s) second, seconds. sm Statute Mile(s) 1 Statute Mile = 5,280 feet. SMGCS Surface Movement Guidance and Control System. SOC Statement of Compliance and Capability. SOQ Statement of Qualification. TIR Type Inspection Report. TLOF Touchdown and Loft Off area. T/O Takeoff. VASI Visual Approach Slope Indicator System. VGS Visual Ground Segment. V 1  Decision speed. V 2  Takeoff safety speed. Vmc Minimum Control Speed. Vmca Minimum Control Speed in the air. Vmcg Minimum Control Speed on the ground. Vmcl Minimum Control Speed—Landing. Vmu The speed at which the last main landing gear leaves the ground. V R  Rotate Speed. V S  Stall Speed or minimum speed in the stall. WAT Weight, Altitude, Temperature. End QPS Requirements [Docket FAA-2002-12461, 73 FR 26490, May 9, 2008, as amended by Docket FAA-2022-1355, Amdt. 60-7, 87 FR 75845, Dec. 9, 2022] Pt. 61 PART 61—CERTIFICATION: PILOTS, FLIGHT INSTRUCTORS, AND GROUND INSTRUCTORS Effective Date Note: Amendments to part 61 were published by Docket FAA-2023-1275, Amdt. 60-8, 89 FR 92483, Nov. 21, 2024, effective Jan. 21, 2025. Special Federal Aviation Regulation No. 73 Subpart A—General Sec. 61.1 Applicability and definitions. 61.2 Exercise of Privilege. 61.3 Requirement for certificates, ratings, and authorizations. 61.4 Qualification and approval of flight simulators and flight training devices. 61.5 Certificates and ratings issued under this part. 61.7 Obsolete certificates and ratings. 61.8 Inapplicability of unmanned aircraft operations. 61.9 [Reserved] 61.11 Expired pilot certificates and reissuance. 61.13 Issuance of airman certificates, ratings, and authorizations. 61.14 Incorporation by Reference. 61.15 Offenses involving alcohol or drugs. 61.16 Refusal to submit to an alcohol test or to furnish test results. 61.17 Temporary certificate. 61.18 [Reserved] 61.19 Duration of pilot and instructor certificates and privileges. 61.21 Duration of a Category II and a Category III pilot authorization (for other than part 121 and part 135 use). 61.23 Medical certificates: Requirement and duration. 61.25 Change of name. 61.27 Voluntary surrender or exchange of certificate. 61.29 Replacement of a lost or destroyed airman or medical certificate or knowledge test report. 61.31 Type rating requirements, additional training, and authorization requirements. 61.33 Tests: General procedure. 61.35 Knowledge test: Prerequisites and passing grades. 61.37 Knowledge tests: Cheating or other unauthorized conduct. 61.39 Prerequisites for practical tests. 61.40 Relief for U.S. military and civilian personnel who are assigned outside the United States in support of U.S. Armed Forces operations. 61.41 Flight training received from flight instructors not certificated by the FAA. 61.43 Practical tests: General procedures. 61.45 Practical tests: Required aircraft and equipment. 61.47 Status of an examiner who is authorized by the Administrator to conduct practical tests. 61.49 Retesting after failure. 61.51 Pilot logbooks. 61.52 Use of aeronautical experience obtained in ultralight vehicles. 61.53 Prohibition on operations during medical deficiency. 61.55 Second-in-command qualifications. 61.56 Flight review. 61.57 Recent flight experience: Pilot in command. 61.58 Pilot-in-command proficiency check: Operation of an aircraft that requires more than one pilot flight crewmember or is turbojet-powered. 61.59 Falsification, reproduction, or alteration of applications, certificates, logbooks, reports, or records. 61.60 Change of address. Subpart B—Aircraft Ratings and Pilot Authorizations 61.61 Applicability. 61.63 Additional aircraft ratings (other than for ratings at the airline transport pilot certification level). 61.64 Use of a flight simulator and flight training device. 61.65 Instrument rating requirements. 61.66 Enhanced Flight Vision System Pilot Requirements. 61.67 Category II pilot authorization requirements. 61.68 Category III pilot authorization requirements. 61.69 Glider and unpowered ultralight vehicle towing: Experience and training requirements. 61.71 Graduates of an approved training program other than under this part: Special rules. 61.73 Military pilots or former military pilots: Special rules. 61.75 Private pilot certificate issued on the basis of a foreign pilot license. 61.77 Special purpose pilot authorization: Operation of a civil aircraft of the United States and leased by a non-U.S. citizen. Subpart C—Student Pilots 61.81 Applicability. 61.83 Eligibility requirements for student pilots. 61.85 Application. 61.87 Solo requirements for student pilots. 61.89 General limitations. 61.91 [Reserved] 61.93 Solo cross-country flight requirements. 61.94 Student pilot seeking a sport pilot certificate or a recreational pilot certificate: Operations at airports within, and in airspace located within, Class B, C, and D airspace, or at airports with an operational control tower in other airspace. 61.95 Operations in Class B airspace and at airports located within Class B airspace. Subpart D—Recreational Pilots 61.96 Applicability and eligibility requirements: General. 61.97 Aeronautical knowledge. 61.98 Flight proficiency. 61.99 Aeronautical experience. 61.100 Pilots based on small islands. 61.101 Recreational pilot privileges and limitations. Subpart E—Private Pilots 61.102 Applicability. 61.103 Eligibility requirements: General. 61.105 Aeronautical knowledge. 61.107 Flight proficiency. 61.109 Aeronautical experience. 61.110 Night flying exceptions. 61.111 Cross-country flights: Pilots based on small islands. 61.113 Private pilot privileges and limitations: Pilot in command. 61.115 Balloon rating: Limitations. 61.117 Private pilot privileges and limitations: Second in command of aircraft requiring more than one pilot. 61.118-61.120 [Reserved] Subpart F—Commercial Pilots 61.121 Applicability. 61.123 Eligibility requirements: General. 61.125 Aeronautical knowledge. 61.127 Flight proficiency. 61.129 Aeronautical experience. 61.131 Exceptions to the night flying requirements. 61.133 Commercial pilot privileges and limitations. 61.135-61.141 [Reserved] Subpart G—Airline Transport Pilots 61.151 Applicability. 61.153 Eligibility requirements: General. 61.155 Aeronautical knowledge. 61.156 Training requirements: Airplane category—multiengine class or multiengine airplane type rating concurrently with an airline transport pilot certificate. 61.157 Flight proficiency. 61.158 [Reserved] 61.159 Aeronautical experience: Airplane category rating. 61.160 Aeronautical experience—airplane category restricted privileges. 61.161 Aeronautical experience: Rotorcraft category and helicopter class rating. 61.163 Aeronautical experience: Powered-lift category rating. 61.165 Additional aircraft category and class ratings. 61.167 Airline transport pilot privileges and limitations. 61.169 Letters of authorization for institutions of higher education. 61.170-61.171 [Reserved]

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Subpart H—Flight Instructors Other Than Flight Instructors With a Sport Pilot Rating 61.181 Applicability. 61.183 Eligibility requirements. 61.185 Aeronautical knowledge. 61.187 Flight proficiency. 61.189 Flight instructor records. 61.191 Additional flight instructor ratings. 61.193 Flight instructor privileges. 61.195 Flight instructor limitations and qualifications. 61.197 Recent experience requirements for flight instructor certification. 61.199 Reinstatement of flight instructor privileges. 61.201 [Reserved] Subpart I—Ground Instructors 61.211 Applicability. 61.213 Eligibility requirements. 61.215 Ground instructor privileges. 61.217 Recent experience requirements. Subpart J—Sport Pilots 61.301 What is the purpose of this subpart and to whom does it apply? 61.303 If I want to operate a light-sport aircraft, what operating limits and endorsement requirements in this subpart must I comply with? 61.305 What are the age and language requirements for a sport pilot certificate? 61.307 What tests do I have to take to obtain a sport pilot certificate? 61.309 What aeronautical knowledge must I have to apply for a sport pilot certificate? 61.311 What flight proficiency requirements must I meet to apply for a sport pilot certificate? 61.313 What aeronautical experience must I have to apply for a sport pilot certificate? 61.315 What are the privileges and limits of my sport pilot certificate? 61.317 Is my sport pilot certificate issued with aircraft category and class ratings? 61.319 [Reserved] 61.321 How do I obtain privileges to operate an additional category or class of light-sport aircraft? 61.323 [Reserved] 61.325 How do I obtain privileges to operate a light-sport aircraft at an airport within, or in airspace within, Class B, C, and D airspace, or in other airspace with an airport having an operational control tower? 61.327 Are there specific endorsement requirements to operate a light-sport aircraft based on V H ? Subpart K—Flight Instructors With a Sport Pilot Rating 61.401 What is the purpose of this subpart? 61.403 What are the age, language, and pilot certificate requirements for a flight instructor certificate with a sport pilot rating? 61.405 What tests do I have to take to obtain a flight instructor certificate with a sport pilot rating? 61.407 What aeronautical knowledge must I have to apply for a flight instructor certificate with a sport pilot rating? 61.409 What flight proficiency requirements must I meet to apply for a flight instructor certificate with a sport pilot rating? 61.411 What aeronautical experience must I have to apply for a flight instructor certificate with a sport pilot rating? 61.412 Do I need additional training to provide instruction on control and maneuvering an airplane solely by reference to the instruments in a light-sport aircraft based on V H ? 61.413 What are the privileges of my flight instructor certificate with a sport pilot rating? 61.415 What are the limits of a flight instructor certificate with a sport pilot rating? 61.417 Will my flight instructor certificate with a sport pilot rating list aircraft category and class ratings? 61.419 How do I obtain privileges to provide training in an additional category or class of light-sport aircraft? 61.421 May I give myself an endorsement? 61.423 What are the recordkeeping requirements for a flight instructor with a sport pilot rating? 61.425 How do I establish recent experience for my flight instructor certificate with a sport pilot rating? 61.427 How do I reinstate my flight instructor privileges if I fail to establish recent experience for my flight instructor certificate with a sport pilot rating? 61.429 May I exercise the privileges of a flight instructor certificate with a sport pilot rating if I hold a flight instructor certificate with another rating? Appendix A to Part 61—Airman Certification Standards and Practical Test Standards Authority: 49 U.S.C. 106(f), 40113, 44701-44703, 44707, 44709-44711, 44729, 44903, 45102-45103, 45301-45302; Sec. 2307, Pub. L. 114-190, 130 Stat. 615 (49 U.S.C. 44703 note); sec. 318, Pub. L. 115-254, 132 Stat. 3186 (49 U.S.C. 44703 note); sec. 820, Pub. L. 118-63, 138 Stat. 1330 (49 U.S.C. 44939 note); secs. 815 and 828, Pub. L. 118-63, 138 Stat. 1328, 1336 (49 U.S.C. 44703 note). Source: Docket 25910, 62 FR 16298, Apr. 4, 1997, unless otherwise noted.

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Pt. 61, SFAR No. 73 Special Federal Aviation Regulation No. 73—Robinson Helicopter Company, Robinson R-22/R-44 Special Training and Experience Requirements Sections 1. Applicability. 2. Required training, aeronautical experience, endorsements, and flight review. 3. Expiration date. 1. Applicability. Under the procedures prescribed in this section, this Special Federal Aviation Regulation (SFAR) applies to all persons who seek to manipulate the controls, act as pilot in command, provide ground training or flight training, or conduct a flight review in a Robinson model R-22 or R-44 helicopter. The requirements stated in this SFAR are in addition to the current requirements of this part. 2. Required training, aeronautical experience, endorsements, and flight review. (a) Ground Training. (1) Except as provided in paragraph 2(a)(2) of this SFAR, no person may manipulate the controls of a Robinson model R-22 or R-44 helicopter-for the purpose of flight unless the ground training specified in paragraph 2(a)(3) of this SFAR is completed and the person's logbook has been endorsed by a flight instructor authorized under paragraph 2(b)(5)(iv) of this SFAR. (2) A person who holds a rotorcraft category and helicopter class rating on that person's pilot certificate and meets the experience requirements of paragraph 2(b)(1) or paragraph 2(b)(2) of this SFAR may not manipulate the controls of a Robinson model R-22 or R-44 helicopter for the purpose of flight unless the ground training specified in paragraph 2(a)(3) of this SFAR is completed and the person's logbook has been endorsed by a flight instructor authorized under paragraph 2(b)(5)(iv) of this SFAR. (3) Ground training must be conducted by a flight instructor who has been authorized under paragraph 2(b)(5)(iv) of this SFAR and consists of the following general subject areas: (i) Energy management; (ii) Mast bumping; (iii) Low rotor revolutions per minute (RPM) and rotor stall; (iv) Low G conditions, effects, and proper recovery procedures; and (v) Rotor RPM decay. (4) The general subject areas identified in paragraph 2(a)(3) of this SFAR are intended to cover both Robinson model R-22 and R-44 helicopters. (5) A person who can show satisfactory completion of the manufacturer's safety course may obtain an endorsement from an FAA aviation safety inspector in lieu of completing the ground training required by paragraphs 2(a)(1) and (2) of this SFAR. (b) Aeronautical Experience. (1) No person may act as pilot in command of a Robinson model R-22 unless that person: (i) Has logged at least 200 flight hours in helicopters, at least 50 flight hours of which were in the Robinson model R-22 helicopter; or (ii) Has logged at least 10 hours of flight training in the Robinson model R-22 helicopter and has received an endorsement from a flight instructor authorized under paragraph 2(b)(5)(iv) of this SFAR that the individual has been given the training required by this paragraph 2(b)(1)(ii) and is proficient to act as pilot in command of an R-22. The flight training must include at least the following abnormal and emergency procedures: (A) Training in autorotation procedures and energy management, including utilizing a combination of flight control inputs and maneuvering to prevent overshooting or undershooting the selected landing area from an entry altitude that permits safe recovery; (B) Autorotations at an entry altitude that permits safe maneuvering and recovery utilizing maximum glide configuration; (C) Engine rotor RPM control without the use of the governor; and (D) Low rotor RPM recognition and recovery. (iii) Pilots who do not meet the experience requirement of paragraph 2(b)(1)(i) of this SFAR may not act as pilot in command of a Robinson model R-22 helicopter beginning 12 calendar months after the date of the endorsement identified in paragraph 2(b)(1)(ii) of this SFAR until those pilots have: (A) Completed a flight review of the ground training subject areas identified by paragraph 2(a)(3) of this SFAR and the flight training identified in paragraph 2(b)(1)(ii) of this SFAR in an R-22; and (B) Obtained an endorsement for that flight review from a flight instructor authorized under paragraph 2(b)(5)(iv) of this SFAR. (2) No person may act as pilot in command of a Robinson model R-44 helicopter unless that person— (i) Has logged at least 200 flight hours in helicopters, at least 50 flight hours of which were in the Robinson model R-44 helicopter. The pilot in command may credit up to 25 flight hours in the Robinson model R-22 helicopter toward the 50-hour requirement in the Robinson model R-44 helicopter; or (ii) Has logged at least 10 hours of flight training in a Robinson helicopter, at least 5 hours of which must have been accomplished in the Robinson model R-44 helicopter, and has received an endorsement from a flight instructor authorized under paragraph 2(b)(5)(iv) of this SFAR that the individual has been given the training required by this paragraph 2(b)(2)(ii) and is proficient to act as pilot in command of an R-44. The flight training must include at least the following abnormal and emergency procedures—

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(A) Training in autorotation procedures and energy management, including utilizing a combination of flight control inputs and maneuvering to prevent overshooting or undershooting the selected landing area from an entry altitude that permits safe recovery; (B) Autorotations at an entry altitude that permits safe maneuvering and recovery utilizing minimum rate of descent configuration and maximum glide configuration; (C) Engine rotor RPM control without the use of the governor; and (D) Low rotor RPM recognition and recovery. (iii) Pilots who do not meet the experience requirement of paragraph 2(b)(2)(i) of this SFAR may not act as pilot in command of a Robinson model R-44 helicopter beginning 12 calendar months after the date of the endorsement identified in paragraph 2(b)(2)(ii) of this SFAR until those pilots have: (A) Completed a flight review of the ground training subject areas identified by paragraph 2(a)(3) and the flight training identified in paragraph 2(b)(2)(ii) of this SFAR in an R-44; and (B) Obtained an endorsement for that flight review from a flight instructor authorized under paragraph 2(b)(5)(iv) of this SFAR. (3) A person who does not hold a rotorcraft category and helicopter class rating must have logged at least 20 hours of flight training in a Robinson model R-22 helicopter from a flight instructor authorized under paragraph 2(b)(5)(iv) of this SFAR prior to operating it in solo flight. In addition, the person must obtain an endorsement from a flight instructor authorized under paragraph 2(b)(5)(iv) of this SFAR that training has been given in those maneuvers and procedures, and the instructor has found the applicant proficient to solo a Robinson model R-22 helicopter. This endorsement is valid for a period of 90 days. The flight training must include at least the following abnormal and emergency procedures: (i) Training in autorotation procedures and energy management, including utilizing a combination of flight control inputs and maneuvering to prevent overshooting or undershooting the selected landing area from an entry altitude that permits safe recovery; (ii) Autorotations at an entry altitude that permits safe maneuvering and recovery utilizing maximum glide configuration; (iii) Engine rotor RPM control without the use of the governor; and (iv) Low rotor RPM recognition and recovery. (4) A person who does not hold a rotorcraft category and helicopter class rating must have logged at least 20 hours of flight training in a Robinson model R-44 helicopter from a flight instructor authorized under paragraph 2(b)(5)(iv) of this SFAR prior to operating it in solo flight. In addition, the person must obtain an endorsement from a flight instructor authorized under paragraph 2(b)(5)(iv) of this SFAR that training has been given in those maneuvers and procedures and the instructor has found the applicant proficient to solo a Robinson model R-44 helicopter. This endorsement is valid for a period of 90 days. The flight training must include at least the following abnormal and emergency procedures: (i) Training in autorotation procedures and energy management, including utilizing a combination of flight control inputs and maneuvering to prevent overshooting or undershooting the selected landing area from an entry altitude that permits safe recovery; (ii) Autorotations at an entry altitude that permits safe maneuvering and recovery utilizing minimum rate of descent configuration and maximum glide configuration; (iii) Engine rotor RPM control without the use of the governor, and (iv) Low rotor RPM recognition and recovery. (5) No flight instructor may provide training or conduct a flight review in a Robinson R-22 or R-44 unless that instructor— (i) Completes the ground training in paragraph 2(a) of this SFAR. (ii) For the Robinson model R-22 helicopter, has logged at least 200 flight hours in helicopters, at least 50 flight hours of which were in the Robinson model R-22 helicopter, or for the Robinson model R-44 helicopter, logged at least 200 flight hours in helicopters, 50 flight hours of which were in Robinson helicopters. Up to 25 flight hours of Robinson model R-22 helicopter flight time may be credited toward the 50-hour requirement. (iii) Has completed flight training in a Robinson model R-22 or R-44 helicopter, or both, on the following abnormal and emergency procedures— (A) Training in autorotation procedures and energy management, including utilizing a combination of flight control inputs and maneuvering to prevent overshooting or undershooting the selected landing area from an entry altitude that permits safe recovery; (B) For the Robinson model R-22 helicopter, autorotations at an entry altitude that permits safe maneuvering and recovery utilizing maximum glide configuration. For the Robinson model R-44 helicopter, autorotations at an entry altitude that permits safe maneuvering and recovery utilizing maximum glide configuration and minimum rate of descent configuration; (C) Engine rotor RPM control without the use of the governor; and (D) Low rotor RPM recognition and recovery.

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(iv) Has been authorized by endorsement from an FAA aviation safety inspector or authorized designated examiner that the instructor has completed the appropriate training, meets the experience requirements, and has satisfactorily demonstrated an ability to provide training on the general subject areas of paragraph 2(a)(3) of this SFAR, and the flight training identified in paragraph 2(b)(5)(iii) of this SFAR. (c) Flight Review. (1) No flight review completed to satisfy § 61.56 by an individual after becoming eligible to function as pilot in command in a Robinson model R-22 helicopter shall be valid for the operation of an R-22 unless that flight review was taken in an R-22. (2) No flight review completed to satisfy § 61.56 by an individual after becoming eligible to function as pilot in command in a Robinson model R-44 helicopter shall be valid for the operation of an R-44 unless that flight review was taken in the R-44. (3) The flight review will include a review of the ground training subject areas of paragraph 2(a)(3) of this SFAR and flight training in abnormal and emergency procedures in the Robinson model R-22 or R-44 helicopter, as appropriate, identified in paragraph 2(b) of this SFAR. (d) Currency Requirements. No person may act as pilot in command of a Robinson model R-22 or R-44 helicopter carrying passengers unless the pilot in command has met the recency of flight experience requirements of § 61.57 in an R-22 or R-44, as appropriate. 3. Expiration date. This SFAR expires August 22, 2029, unless sooner revised or rescinded. [Docket FAA-2023-2083, Amdt. 61-154, 89 FR 59608, July 23, 2024] Subpart A—General § 61.1 Applicability and definitions. (a) Except as provided in part 107 of this chapter, this part prescribes: (1) The requirements for issuing pilot, flight instructor, and ground instructor certificates and ratings; the conditions under which those certificates and ratings are necessary; and the privileges and limitations of those certificates and ratings. (2) The requirements for issuing pilot, flight instructor, and ground instructor authorizations; the conditions under which those authorizations are necessary; and the privileges and limitations of those authorizations. (3) The requirements for issuing pilot, flight instructor, and ground instructor certificates and ratings for persons who have taken courses approved by the Administrator under other parts of this chapter. (b) For the purpose of this part: Accredited has the same meaning as defined by the Department of Education in 34 CFR 600.2. Aeronautical experience means pilot time obtained in an aircraft, flight simulator, or flight training device for meeting the appropriate training and flight time requirements for an airman certificate, rating, flight review, or recency of flight experience requirements of this part. Authorized instructor means— (i) A person who holds a ground instructor certificate issued under part 61 of this chapter and is in compliance with § 61.217, when conducting ground training in accordance with the privileges and limitations of his or her ground instructor certificate; (ii) A person who holds a flight instructor certificate issued under part 61 of this chapter and is in compliance with § 61.197, when conducting ground training or flight training in accordance with the privileges and limitations of his or her flight instructor certificate; or (iii) A person authorized by the Administrator to provide ground training or flight training under part 61, 121, 135, or 142 of this chapter when conducting ground training or flight training in accordance with that authority. Aviation training device means a training device, other than a full flight simulator or flight training device, that has been evaluated, qualified, and approved by the Administrator. Complex airplane means an airplane that has a retractable landing gear, flaps, and a controllable pitch propeller, including airplanes equipped with an engine control system consisting of a digital computer and associated accessories for controlling the engine and propeller, such as a full authority digital engine control; or, in the case of a seaplane, flaps and a controllable pitch propeller, including seaplanes equipped with an engine control system consisting of a digital computer and associated accessories for controlling the engine and propeller, such as a full authority digital engine control. Cross-country time means—

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(i) Except as provided in paragraphs (ii) through (vi) of this definition, time acquired during flight— (A) Conducted by a person who holds a pilot certificate; (B) Conducted in an aircraft; (C) That includes a landing at a point other than the point of departure; and (D) That involves the use of dead reckoning, pilotage, electronic navigation aids, radio aids, or other navigation systems to navigate to the landing point. (ii) For the purpose of meeting the aeronautical experience requirements (except for a rotorcraft category rating), for a private pilot certificate (except for a powered parachute category rating), a commercial pilot certificate, or an instrument rating, or for the purpose of exercising recreational pilot privileges (except in a rotorcraft) under § 61.101 (c), time acquired during a flight— (A) Conducted in an appropriate aircraft; (B) That includes a point of landing that was at least a straight-line distance of more than 50 nautical miles from the original point of departure; and (C) That involves the use of dead reckoning, pilotage, electronic navigation aids, radio aids, or other navigation systems to navigate to the landing point. (iii) For the purpose of meeting the aeronautical experience requirements for a sport pilot certificate (except for powered parachute privileges), time acquired during a flight conducted in an appropriate aircraft that— (A) Includes a point of landing at least a straight line distance of more than 25 nautical miles from the original point of departure; and (B) Involves, as applicable, the use of dead reckoning; pilotage; electronic navigation aids; radio aids; or other navigation systems to navigate to the landing point. (iv) For the purpose of meeting the aeronautical experience requirements for a sport pilot certificate with powered parachute privileges or a private pilot certificate with a powered parachute category rating, time acquired during a flight conducted in an appropriate aircraft that— (A) Includes a point of landing at least a straight line distance of more than 15 nautical miles from the original point of departure; and (B) Involves, as applicable, the use of dead reckoning; pilotage; electronic navigation aids; radio aids; or other navigation systems to navigate to the landing point. (v) For the purpose of meeting the aeronautical experience requirements for any pilot certificate with a rotorcraft category rating or an instrument-helicopter rating, or for the purpose of exercising recreational pilot privileges, in a rotorcraft, under § 61.101(c), time acquired during a flight— (A) Conducted in an appropriate aircraft; (B) That includes a point of landing that was at least a straight-line distance of more than 25 nautical miles from the original point of departure; and (C) That involves the use of dead reckoning, pilotage, electronic navigation aids, radio aids, or other navigation systems to navigate to the landing point. (vi) For the purpose of meeting the aeronautical experience requirements for an airline transport pilot certificate (except with a rotorcraft category rating), time acquired during a flight— (A) Conducted in an appropriate aircraft; (B) That is at least a straight-line distance of more than 50 nautical miles from the original point of departure; and (C) That involves the use of dead reckoning, pilotage, electronic navigation aids, radio aids, or other navigation systems. (vii) For a military pilot who qualifies for a commercial pilot certificate (except with a rotorcraft category rating) under § 61.73 of this part, time acquired during a flight— (A) Conducted in an appropriate aircraft; (B) That is at least a straight-line distance of more than 50 nautical miles from the original point of departure; and (C) That involves the use of dead reckoning, pilotage, electronic navigation aids, radio aids, or other navigation systems.

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Examiner means any person who is authorized by the Administrator to conduct a pilot proficiency test or a practical test for an airman certificate or rating issued under this part, or a person who is authorized to conduct a knowledge test under this part. Flight training means that training, other than ground training, received from an authorized instructor in flight in an aircraft. Ground training means that training, other than flight training, received from an authorized instructor. Institution of higher education has the same meaning as defined by the Department of Education in 34 CFR 600.4. Instrument approach means an approach procedure defined in part 97 of this chapter. Instrument training means that time in which instrument training is received from an authorized instructor under actual or simulated instrument conditions. Knowledge test means a test on the aeronautical knowledge areas required for an airman certificate or rating that can be administered in written form or by a computer. Nationally recognized accrediting agency has the same meaning as defined by the Department of Education in 34 CFR 600.2. Night vision goggles means an appliance worn by a pilot that enhances the pilot's ability to maintain visual surface reference at night. Night vision goggle operation means the portion of a flight that occurs during the time period from 1 hour after sunset to 1 hour before sunrise where the pilot maintains visual surface reference using night vision goggles in an aircraft that is approved for such an operation. Passenger means any person on board an aircraft other than a crewmember, FAA personnel, manufacturer personnel required for type certification, or a person receiving or providing flight training, checking, or testing as authorized by this part. Pilot time means that time in which a person— (i) Serves as a required pilot flight crewmember; (ii) Receives training from an authorized instructor in an aircraft, full flight simulator, flight training device, or aviation training device; (iii) Gives training as an authorized instructor in an aircraft, full flight simulator, flight training device, or aviation training device; or (iv) Serves as second in command in operations conducted in accordance with § 135.99(c) of this chapter when a second pilot is not required under the type certification of the aircraft or the regulations under which the flight is being conducted, provided the requirements in § 61.159(c) are satisfied. Practical test means a test on the areas of operations for an airman certificate, rating, or authorization that is conducted by having the applicant respond to questions and demonstrate maneuvers in flight, in a flight simulator, or in a flight training device. Set of aircraft means aircraft that share similar performance characteristics, such as similar airspeed and altitude operating envelopes, similar handling characteristics, and the same number and type of propulsion systems. Student pilot seeking a sport pilot certificate means a person who has received an endorsement— (i) To exercise student pilot privileges from a certificated flight instructor with a sport pilot rating; or (ii) That includes a limitation for the operation of a light-sport aircraft specified in § 61.89(c) issued by a certificated flight instructor with other than a sport pilot rating. Technically advanced airplane (TAA) means an airplane equipped with an electronically advanced avionics system. Training time means training received— (i) In flight from an authorized instructor; (ii) On the ground from an authorized instructor; or

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(iii) In a flight simulator or flight training device from an authorized instructor. [Docket 25910, 62 FR 16298, Apr. 4, 1997; Amdt. 61-103, 62 FR 40893, July 30, 1997 as amended by Amdt. 61-110, 69 FR 44864, July 27, 2004; Amdt. 61-124, 74 FR 42546, Aug. 21, 2009; Amdt. 61-128, 76 FR 54105, Aug. 31, 2011; Amdt. 61-130, 78 FR 42372, July 15, 2013; Amdt. 61-137, 81 FR 42208, June 28, 2016; Amdt. 61-142, 83 FR 30276, June 27, 2018; Docket FAA-2023-1351, Amdt. 61-156, 89 FR 80339, Oct. 2, 2024] Effective Date Note: Amendments to § 61.1 were published by Docket FAA-2023-1275; Amdt. 60-8, 89 FR 92483, Nov. 21, 2024, effective Jan. 21, 2025. § 61.2 Exercise of Privilege. (a) Validity. No person may: (1) Exercise privileges of a certificate, rating, endorsement, or authorization issued under this part if the certificate, rating or authorization is surrendered, suspended, revoked or expired. (2) Exercise privileges of a flight instructor certificate if that flight instructor certificate is surrendered, suspended, revoked or expired. (3) Exercise privileges of a foreign pilot certificate to operate an aircraft of foreign registry under § 61.3(b) if the certificate is surrendered, suspended, revoked or expired. (4) Exercise privileges of a pilot certificate issued under § 61.75, or an authorization issued under § 61.77, if the foreign pilot certificate relied upon for the issuance of the U.S. pilot certificate or authorization is surrendered, suspended, revoked or expired. (5) Exercise privileges of a medical certificate issued under part 67 to meet any requirements of part 61 if the medical certificate is surrendered, suspended, revoked or expired according to the duration standards set forth in § 61.23(d). (6) Use an official government issued driver's license to meet any requirements of part 61 related to holding that driver's license, if the driver's license is surrendered, suspended, revoked or expired. (b) Currency. No person may: (1) Exercise privileges of an airman certificate, rating, endorsement, or authorization issued under this part unless that person meets the appropriate airman recent experience and medical requirements of this part, specific to the operation or activity. (2) Exercise privileges of a foreign pilot license within the United States to conduct an operation described in § 61.3(b), unless that person meets the appropriate airman recent experience and medical requirements of the country that issued the license, specific to the operation. [Docket FAA-2006-26661, 74 FR 42546, Aug. 21, 2009, as amended by Docket FAA-2023-0825, Amdt. 61-155, 89 FR 80049, Oct. 1, 2024] § 61.3 Requirement for certificates, ratings, and authorizations. (a) Required pilot certificate for operating a civil aircraft of the United States. No person may serve as a required pilot flight crewmember of a civil aircraft of the United States, unless that person: (1) Has in the person's physical possession or readily accessible in the aircraft when exercising the privileges of that pilot certificate or authorization— (i) A pilot certificate issued under this part and in accordance with § 61.19; (ii) A special purpose pilot authorization issued under § 61.77; (iii) A temporary certificate issued under § 61.17; (iv) A document conveying temporary authority to exercise certificate privileges issued by the Airmen Certification Branch under § 61.29(e); (v) When engaged in a flight operation within the United States for a part 119 certificate holder authorized to conduct operations under part 121 or 135 of this chapter, a temporary document provided by that certificate holder under an approved certificate verification plan; (vi) When engaged in a flight operation within the United States for a fractional ownership program manager authorized to conduct operations under part 91, subpart K, of this chapter, a temporary document provided by that program manager under an approved certificate verification plan; or (vii) When operating an aircraft within a foreign country, a pilot license issued by that country may be used. (2) Has a photo identification that is in that person's physical possession or readily accessible in the aircraft when exercising the privileges of that pilot certificate or authorization. The photo identification must be a:

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(i) Driver's license issued by a State, the District of Columbia, or territory or possession of the United States; (ii) Government identification card issued by the Federal government, a State, the District of Columbia, or a territory or possession of the United States; (iii) U.S. Armed Forces' identification card; (iv) Official passport; (v) Credential that authorizes unescorted access to a security identification display area at an airport regulated under 49 CFR part 1542; or (vi) Other form of identification that the Administrator finds acceptable. (b) Required pilot certificate for operating a foreign-registered aircraft within the United States. No person may serve as a required pilot flight crewmember of a civil aircraft of foreign registry within the United States, unless— (1) That person's pilot certificate or document issued under § 61.29(e) is in that person's physical possession or readily accessible in the aircraft when exercising the privileges of that pilot certificate; and (2) Has been issued in accordance with this part, or has been issued or validated by the country in which the aircraft is registered. (c) Medical certificate. (1) A person may serve as a required pilot flight crewmember of an aircraft only if that person holds the appropriate medical certificate issued under part 67 of this chapter, or other documentation acceptable to the FAA, that is in that person's physical possession or readily accessible in the aircraft. Paragraph (c)(2) of this section provides certain exceptions to the requirement to hold a medical certificate. (2) A person is not required to meet the requirements of paragraph (c)(1) of this section if that person— (i) Is exercising the privileges of a student pilot certificate while seeking a pilot certificate with a glider category rating, a balloon class rating, or glider or balloon privileges; (ii) Is exercising the privileges of a student pilot certificate while seeking a sport pilot certificate with other than glider or balloon privileges and holds a U.S. driver's license; (iii) Is exercising the privileges of a student pilot certificate while seeking a pilot certificate with a weight-shift-control aircraft category rating or a powered parachute category rating and holds a U.S. driver's license; (iv) Is exercising the privileges of a sport pilot certificate with glider or balloon privileges; (v) Is exercising the privileges of a sport pilot certificate with other than glider or balloon privileges and holds a U.S. driver's license. A person who has applied for or held a medical certificate may exercise the privileges of a sport pilot certificate using a U.S. driver's license only if that person— (A) Has been found eligible for the issuance of at least a third-class airman medical certificate at the time of his or her most recent application; and (B) Has not had his or her most recently issued medical certificate suspended or revoked or most recent Authorization for a Special Issuance of a Medical Certificate withdrawn. (vi) Is holding a pilot certificate with a balloon class rating and that person— (A) Is exercising the privileges of a private pilot certificate in a balloon; or (B) Is providing flight training in a balloon in accordance with § 61.133(a)(2)(ii); (vii) Is holding a pilot certificate or a flight instructor certificate with a glider category rating, and is piloting or providing training in a glider, as appropriate; (viii) Is exercising the privileges of a flight instructor certificate, provided the person is not acting as pilot in command or as a required pilot flight crewmember; (ix) Is exercising the privileges of a ground instructor certificate; (x) Is operating an aircraft within a foreign country using a pilot license issued by that country and possesses evidence of current medical qualification for that license; (xi) Is operating an aircraft with a U.S. pilot certificate, issued on the basis of a foreign pilot license, issued under § 61.75, and holds a medical certificate issued by the foreign country that issued the foreign pilot license, which is in that person's physical possession or readily accessible in the aircraft when exercising the privileges of that airman certificate;

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(xii) Is a pilot of the U.S. Armed Forces, has an up-to-date U.S. military medical examination, and holds military pilot flight status; (xiii) Is exercising the privileges of a student, recreational or private pilot certificate for operations conducted under the conditions and limitations set forth in § 61.113(i) and holds a U.S. driver's license; (xiv) Is exercising the privileges of a flight instructor certificate and acting as pilot in command or a required flightcrew member for operations conducted under the conditions and limitations set forth in § 61.113(i) and holds a U.S. driver's license; or (xv) Is exercising the privileges of a student pilot certificate or higher while acting as pilot in command on a special medical flight test authorized under part 67 of this chapter. (d) Flight instructor certificate. (1) A person who holds a flight instructor certificate issued under this part must have that certificate, or other documentation acceptable to the Administrator, in that person's physical possession or readily accessible in the aircraft when exercising the privileges of that flight instructor certificate. (2) Except as provided in paragraph (d)(3) of this section, no person other than the holder of a flight instructor certificate issued under this part with the appropriate rating on that certificate may— (i) Give training required to qualify a person for solo flight and solo cross-country flight; (ii) Endorse an applicant for a— (A) Pilot certificate or rating issued under this part; (B) Flight instructor certificate or rating issued under this part; or (C) Ground instructor certificate or rating issued under this part; (iii) Endorse a pilot logbook to show training given; or (iv) Endorse a logbook for solo operating privileges. (3) A flight instructor certificate issued under this part is not necessary— (i) Under paragraph (d)(2) of this section, if the training is given by the holder of a commercial pilot certificate with a lighter-than-air rating, provided the training is given in accordance with the privileges of the certificate in a lighter-than-air aircraft; (ii) Under paragraph (d)(2) of this section, if the training is given by the holder of an airline transport pilot certificate with a rating appropriate to the aircraft in which the training is given, provided the training is given in accordance with the privileges of the certificate and conducted in accordance with an approved air carrier training program approved under part 121 or part 135 of this chapter; (iii) Under paragraph (d)(2) of this section, if the training is given by a person who is qualified in accordance with subpart C of part 142 of this chapter, provided the training is conducted in accordance with an approved part 142 training program; (iv) Under paragraphs (d)(2)(i), (d)(2)(ii)(C), and (d)(2)(iii) of this section, if the training is given by the holder of a ground instructor certificate in accordance with the privileges of the certificate; or (v) Under paragraph (d)(2)(iii) of this section, if the training is given by an authorized flight instructor under § 61.41 of this part. (e) Instrument rating. No person may act as pilot in command of a civil aircraft under IFR or in weather conditions less than the minimums prescribed for VFR flight unless that person holds: (1) The appropriate aircraft category, class, type (if required), and instrument rating on that person's pilot certificate for any airplane, helicopter, or powered-lift being flown; (2) An airline transport pilot certificate with the appropriate aircraft category, class, and type rating (if required) for the aircraft being flown; (3) For a glider, a pilot certificate with a glider category rating and an airplane instrument rating; or (4) For an airship, a commercial pilot certificate with a lighter-than-air category rating and airship class rating. (f) Category II pilot authorization. Except for a pilot conducting Category II operations under part 121 or part 135, a person may not:

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(1) Act as pilot in command of a civil aircraft during Category II operations unless that person— (i) Holds a Category II pilot authorization for that category or class of aircraft, and the type of aircraft, if applicable; or (ii) In the case of a civil aircraft of foreign registry, is authorized by the country of registry to act as pilot in command of that aircraft in Category II operations. (2) Act as second in command of a civil aircraft during Category II operations unless that person— (i) Holds a pilot certificate with category and class ratings for that aircraft and an instrument rating for that category aircraft; (ii) Holds an airline transport pilot certificate with category and class ratings for that aircraft; or (iii) In the case of a civil aircraft of foreign registry, is authorized by the country of registry to act as second in command of that aircraft during Category II operations. (g) Category III pilot authorization. Except for a pilot conducting Category III operations under part 121 or part 135, a person may not: (1) Act as pilot in command of a civil aircraft during Category III operations unless that person— (i) Holds a Category III pilot authorization for that category or class of aircraft, and the type of aircraft, if applicable; or (ii) In the case of a civil aircraft of foreign registry, is authorized by the country of registry to act as pilot in command of that aircraft in Category III operations. (2) Act as second in command of a civil aircraft during Category III operations unless that person— (i) Holds a pilot certificate with category and class ratings for that aircraft and an instrument rating for that category aircraft; (ii) Holds an airline transport pilot certificate with category and class ratings for that aircraft; or (iii) In the case of a civil aircraft of foreign registry, is authorized by the country of registry to act as second in command of that aircraft during Category III operations. (h) Category A aircraft pilot authorization. The Administrator may issue a certificate of authorization for a Category II or Category III operation to the pilot of a small aircraft that is a Category A aircraft, as identified in § 97.3(b)(1) of this chapter if: (1) The Administrator determines that the Category II or Category III operation can be performed safely by that pilot under the terms of the certificate of authorization; and (2) The Category II or Category III operation does not involve the carriage of persons or property for compensation or hire. (i) Ground instructor certificate. (1) Each person who holds a ground instructor certificate issued under this part must have that certificate or a temporary document issued under § 61.29(e) in that person's physical possession or immediately accessible when exercising the privileges of that certificate. (2) Except as provided in paragraph (i)(3) of this section, no person other than the holder of a ground instructor certificate, issued under this part or part 143, with the appropriate rating on that certificate may— (i) Give ground training required to qualify a person for solo flight and solo cross-country flight; (ii) Endorse an applicant for a knowledge test required for a pilot, flight instructor, or ground instructor certificate or rating issued under this part; or (iii) Endorse a pilot logbook to show ground training given. (3) A ground instructor certificate issued under this part is not necessary— (i) Under paragraph (i)(2) of this section, if the training is given by the holder of a flight instructor certificate issued under this part in accordance with the privileges of that certificate; (ii) Under paragraph (i)(2) of this section, if the training is given by the holder of a commercial pilot certificate with a lighter-than-air rating, provided the training is given in accordance with the privileges of the certificate in a lighter-than-air aircraft; (iii) Under paragraph (i)(2) of this section, if the training is given by the holder of an airline transport pilot certificate with a rating appropriate to the aircraft in which the training is given, provided the training is given in accordance with the privileges of the certificate and conducted in accordance with an approved air carrier training program approved under part 121 or part 135 of this chapter;

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(iv) Under paragraph (i)(2) of this section, if the training is given by a person who is qualified in accordance with subpart C of part 142 of this chapter, provided the training is conducted in accordance with an approved part 142 training program; or (v) Under paragraph (i)(2)(iii) of this section, if the training is given by an authorized flight instructor under § 61.41 of this part. (j) Age limitation for certain operations. (1) Age limitation. No person who holds a pilot certificate issued under this part may serve as a pilot on a civil airplane of U.S. registry in the following operations if the person has reached his or her 60th birthday or, in the case of operations with more than one pilot, his or her 65th birthday: (i) Scheduled international air services carrying passengers in turbojet-powered airplanes; (ii) Scheduled international air services carrying passengers in airplanes having a passenger-seat configuration of more than nine passenger seats, excluding each crewmember seat; (iii) Nonscheduled international air transportation for compensation or hire in airplanes having a passenger-seat configuration of more than 30 passenger seats, excluding each crewmember seat; or (iv) Scheduled international air services, or nonscheduled international air transportation for compensation or hire, in airplanes having a payload capacity of more than 7,500 pounds. (2) Definitions. (i) “International air service,” as used in this paragraph (j), means scheduled air service performed in airplanes for the public transport of passengers, mail, or cargo, in which the service passes through the airspace over the territory of more than one country. (ii) “International air transportation,” as used in this paragraph (j), means air transportation performed in airplanes for the public transport of passengers, mail, or cargo, in which the service passes through the airspace over the territory of more than one country. (k) Special purpose pilot authorization. Any person that is required to hold a special purpose pilot authorization, issued in accordance with § 61.77 of this part, must have that authorization and the person's foreign pilot license in that person's physical possession or have it readily accessible in the aircraft when exercising the privileges of that authorization. (l) Inspection of certificate. Each person who holds an airman certificate, temporary document in accordance with paragraph (a)(1)(v) or (vi) of this section, medical certificate, documents establishing alternative medical qualification under part 68 of this chapter, authorization, or license required by this part must present it and their photo identification as described in paragraph (a)(2) of this section for inspection upon a request from: (1) The Administrator; (2) An authorized representative of the National Transportation Safety Board; (3) Any Federal, State, or local law enforcement officer; or (4) An authorized representative of the Transportation Security Administration. [Docket 25910, 62 FR 16298, Apr. 4, 1997; Amdt. 61-103, 62 FR 40894, July 30, 1997; Amdt. 61-111, 67 FR 65861, Oct. 28, 2002; Amdt. 61-110, 69 FR 44864, July 27, 2004; Amdt. 61-123, 74 FR 34234, July 15, 2009; Amdt. 61-124, 74 FR 42546, Aug. 21, 2009; Amdt. 61-124A, 74 FR 53644, Oct. 20, 2009; Amdt. 61-131, 78 FR 56828, Sept. 16, 2013; Amdt. 61-134, 80 FR 33400, June 12, 2015; Docket FAA-2010-1127, Amdt. 61-135, 81 FR 1306, Jan. 12, 2016; Docket FAA-2016-9157, Amdt. 61-140, 82 FR 3164, Jan. 11, 2017; Amdt. 60-6, 83 FR 30276, June 27, 2018; Docket FAA-2021-1040, Amdt. 61-152, 87 FR 71236, Nov. 22, 2022; Docket FAA-2021-1040, Amdt. 61-152, 87 FR 71236, Nov. 22, 2022] Effective Date Note: Amendments to § 61.3 were published by Docket FAA-2023-1275, Amdt. 60-8, 89 FR 92484, Nov. 21, 2024, effective Jan. 21, 2025.

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§ 61.4 Qualification and approval of flight simulators and flight training devices. (a) Except as specified in paragraph (b) or (c) of this section, each flight simulator and flight training device used for training, and for which an airman is to receive credit to satisfy any training, testing, or checking requirement under this chapter, must be qualified and approved by the Administrator for— (1) The training, testing, and checking for which it is used; (2) Each particular maneuver, procedure, or crewmember function performed; and (3) The representation of the specific category and class of aircraft, type of aircraft, particular variation within the type of aircraft, or set of aircraft for certain flight training devices. (b) Any device used for flight training, testing, or checking that has been determined to be acceptable to or approved by the Administrator prior to August 1, 1996, which can be shown to function as originally designed, is considered to be a flight training device, provided it is used for the same purposes for which it was originally accepted or approved and only to the extent of such acceptance or approval. (c) The Administrator may approve a device other than a flight simulator or flight training device for specific purposes. [Docket 25910, 62 FR 16298, Apr. 4, 1997; Amdt. 61-103, 62 FR 40895, July 30, 1997] § 61.5 Certificates and ratings issued under this part. (a) The following certificates are issued under this part to an applicant who satisfactorily accomplishes the training and certification requirements for the certificate sought: (1) Pilot certificates— (i) Student pilot. (ii) Sport pilot. (iii) Recreational pilot. (iv) Private pilot. (v) Commercial pilot. (vi) Airline transport pilot. (2) Flight instructor certificates. (3) Ground instructor certificates. (b) The following ratings are placed on a pilot certificate (other than student pilot) when an applicant satisfactorily accomplishes the training and certification requirements for the rating sought: (1) Aircraft category ratings— (i) Airplane. (ii) Rotorcraft. (iii) Glider. (iv) Lighter-than-air. (v) Powered-lift. (vi) Powered parachute. (vii) Weight-shift-control aircraft. (2) Airplane class ratings— (i) Single-engine land. (ii) Multiengine land. (iii) Single-engine sea. (iv) Multiengine sea. (3) Rotorcraft class ratings— (i) Helicopter. (ii) Gyroplane. (4) Lighter-than-air class ratings— (i) Airship. (ii) Balloon. (5) Weight-shift-control aircraft class ratings— (i) Weight-shift-control aircraft land. (ii) Weight-shift-control aircraft sea. (6) Powered parachute class ratings— (i) Powered parachute land. (ii) Powered parachute sea. (7) Aircraft type ratings— (i) Large aircraft other than lighter-than-air. (ii) Turbojet-powered airplanes. (iii) Other aircraft type ratings specified by the Administrator through the aircraft type certification procedures. (iv) Second-in-command pilot type rating for aircraft that is certificated for operations with a minimum crew of at least two pilots. (8) Instrument ratings (on private and commercial pilot certificates only)— (i) Instrument—Airplane. (ii) Instrument—Helicopter. (iii) Instrument—Powered-lift. (c) The following ratings are placed on a flight instructor certificate when an applicant satisfactorily accomplishes the training and certification requirements for the rating sought: (1) Aircraft category ratings— (i) Airplane. (ii) Rotorcraft. (iii) Glider. (iv) Powered-lift. (2) Airplane class ratings— (i) Single-engine. (ii) Multiengine.

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(3) Rotorcraft class ratings— (i) Helicopter. (ii) Gyroplane. (4) Instrument ratings— (i) Instrument—Airplane. (ii) Instrument—Helicopter. (iii) Instrument—Powered-lift. (5) Sport pilot rating. (d) The following ratings are placed on a ground instructor certificate when an applicant satisfactorily accomplishes the training and certification requirements for the rating sought: (1) Basic. (2) Advanced. (3) Instrument. [Docket 25910, 62 FR 16298, Apr. 4, 1997, as amended by Amdt. 61-110, 69 FR 44864, July 27, 2004; Amdt. 61-113, 70 FR 45271, Aug. 4, 2005] Effective Date Note: Amendments to § 61.5 were published by Docket FAA-2023-1275, Amdt. 60-8, 89 FR 92484, Nov. 21, 2024, effective Jan. 21, 2025. § 61.7 Obsolete certificates and ratings. (a) The holder of a free-balloon pilot certificate issued before November 1, 1973, may not exercise the privileges of that certificate. (b) The holder of a pilot certificate that bears any of the following category ratings without an associated class rating may not exercise the privileges of that category rating: (1) Rotorcraft. (2) Lighter-than-air. (3) Helicopter. (4) Autogyro. § 61.8 Inapplicability of unmanned aircraft operations. Any action conducted pursuant to part 107 of this chapter cannot be used to meet the requirements of this part. [FAA-2020-1067, Amdt. 61-148, 85 FR 79825, Dec. 11, 2020] § 61.9 [Reserved]
§ 61.11 Expired pilot certificates and re-issuance. (a) No person who holds an expired pilot certificate or rating may act as pilot in command or as a required pilot flight crewmember of an aircraft of the same category or class that is listed on that expired pilot certificate or rating. (b) The following pilot certificates and ratings have expired and will not be reissued: (1) An airline transport pilot certificate issued before May 1, 1949, or an airline transport pilot certificate that contains a horsepower limitation. (2) A private or commercial pilot certificate issued before July 1, 1945. (3) A pilot certificate with a lighter-than-air or free-balloon rating issued before July 1, 1945. (c) An airline transport pilot certificate that was issued after April 30, 1949, and that bears an expiration date but does not contain a horsepower limitation, may have that airline transport pilot certificate re-issued without an expiration date. (d) A private or commercial pilot certificate that was issued after June 30, 1945, and that bears an expiration date, may have that pilot certificate reissued without an expiration date. (e) A pilot certificate with a lighter-than-air or free-balloon rating that was issued after June 30, 1945, and that bears an expiration date, may have that pilot certificate reissued without an expiration date. [Docket FAA-2006-26661, 74 FR 42547, Aug. 21, 2009] § 61.13 Issuance of airman certificates, ratings, and authorizations. (a) Application. (1) An applicant for an airman certificate, rating, or authorization under this part must make that application on a form and in a manner acceptable to the Administrator. (2) An applicant must show evidence that the appropriate fee prescribed in appendix A to part 187 of this chapter has been paid when that person applies for airmen certification services administered outside the United States. (3) An applicant who is neither a citizen of the United States nor a resident alien of the United States may be refused issuance of any U.S. airman certificate, rating or authorization by the Administrator. (4) Except as provided in paragraph (a)(3) of this section, an applicant who satisfactorily accomplishes the training and certification requirements for the certificate, rating, or authorization sought is entitled to receive that airman certificate, rating, or authorization.

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(b) Limitations. (1) An applicant who cannot comply with certain areas of operation required on the practical test because of physical limitations may be issued an airman certificate, rating, or authorization with the appropriate limitation placed on the applicant's airman certificate provided the— (i) Applicant is able to meet all other certification requirements for the airman certificate, rating, or authorization sought; (ii) Physical limitation has been recorded with the FAA on the applicant's medical records; and (iii) Administrator determines that the applicant's inability to perform the particular area of operation will not adversely affect safety. (2) A limitation placed on a person's airman certificate may be removed, provided that person demonstrates for an examiner satisfactory proficiency in the area of operation appropriate to the airman certificate, rating, or authorization sought. (c) Additional requirements for Category II and Category III pilot authorizations. (1) A Category II or Category III pilot authorization is issued by a letter of authorization as part of an applicant's instrument rating or airline transport pilot certificate. (2) Upon original issue, the authorization contains the following limitations: (i) For Category II operations, the limitation is 1,600 feet RVR and a 150-foot decision height; and (ii) For Category III operations, each initial limitation is specified in the authorization document. (3) The limitations on a Category II or Category III pilot authorization may be removed as follows: (i) In the case of Category II limitations, a limitation is removed when the holder shows that, since the beginning of the sixth preceding month, the holder has made three Category II ILS approaches with a 150-foot decision height to a landing under actual or simulated instrument conditions. (ii) In the case of Category III limitations, a limitation is removed as specified in the authorization. (4) To meet the experience requirements of paragraph (c)(3) of this section, and for the practical test required by this part for a Category II or a Category III pilot authorization, a flight simulator or flight training device may be used if it is approved by the Administrator for such use. (d) Application during suspension or revocation. (1) Unless otherwise authorized by the Administrator, a person whose pilot, flight instructor, or ground instructor certificate has been suspended may not apply for any certificate, rating, or authorization during the period of suspension. (2) Unless otherwise authorized by the Administrator, a person whose pilot, flight instructor, or ground instructor certificate has been revoked may not apply for any certificate, rating, or authorization for 1 year after the date of revocation. [Docket 25910, 62 FR 40895, July 30, 1997, as amended by Amdt. 61-116, 72 FR 18558, Apr. 12, 2007; Amdt. 61-132, 78 FR 77572, Dec. 24, 2013] § 61.14 Incorporation by Reference. Certain material is incorporated by reference into this part with the approval of the Director of the Federal Register under 5 U.S.C. 552(a) and 1 CFR part 51. All approved incorporation by reference (IBR) material is available for inspection at the Federal Aviation Administration (FAA) and at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). Contact FAA, Training and Certification Group, 202-267-1100, ACSPTSinquiries@faa.gov. For information on the availability of this material at NARA, visit www.archives.gov/federal-register/cfr/ibr-locations or email fr.inspection@nara.gov. The material may be obtained from the Federal Aviation Administration, 800 Independence Avenue SW, Washington DC 20591, 866-835-5322, www.faa.gov/training_testing. (a) Practical Test Standards. (1) FAA-S-8081-3B, Recreational Pilot Practical Test Standards for Airplane Category and Rotorcraft Category, November 2023; IBR approved for § 61.43 and appendix A to this part. (2) FAA-S-8081-7C, Flight Instructor Practical Test Standards for Rotorcraft Category Gyroplane Rating, November 2023; IBR approved for § 61.43 and appendix A to this part. (3) FAA-S-8081-8C, Flight Instructor Practical Test Standards for Glider Category, November 2023; IBR approved for § 61.43 and appendix A to this part. (4) FAA-S-8081-9E, Flight Instructor Instrument Practical Test Standards for Airplane Rating and Helicopter Rating, November 2023; IBR approved for § 61.43 and appendix A to this part. (5) FAA-S-8081-15B, Private Pilot Practical Test Standards for Rotorcraft Category Gyroplane Rating, November 2023; IBR approved for § 61.43 and appendix A to this part. (6) FAA-S-8081-16C, Commercial Pilot Practical Test Standards for Rotorcraft Category Gyroplane Rating, November 2023; IBR approved for § 61.43 and appendix A to this part. (7) FAA-S-8081-17A, Private Pilot Practical Test Standards for Lighter-Than-Air Category, November 2023; IBR approved for § 61.43 and appendix A to this part. (8) FAA-S-8081-18A, Commercial Pilot Practical Test Standards for Lighter-Than-Air Category, November 2023; IBR approved for § 61.43 and appendix A to this part. (9) FAA-S-8081-20A, Airline Transport Pilot and Aircraft Type Rating Practical Test Standards for Rotorcraft Category Helicopter Rating, November 2023; IBR approved for §§ 61.43 and 61.58, and appendix A to this part. (10) FAA-S-8081-22A, Private Pilot Practical Test Standards for Glider Category, November 2023; IBR approved for § 61.43 and appendix A to this part. (11) FAA-S-8081-23B, Commercial Pilot Practical Test Standards for Glider Category, November 2023; IBR approved for § 61.43 and appendix A to this part. (12) FAA-S-8081-29A, Sport Pilot and Sport Pilot Flight Instructor Rating Practical Test Standards for Airplane Category, Rotorcraft Category, and Glider Category, November 2023; IBR approved for §§ 61.43, 61.321, and 61.419, and appendix A to this part. (13) FAA-S-8081-30A, Sport Pilot and Sport Pilot Flight Instructor Rating Practical Test Standards for Lighter-Than-Air Category, November 2023; IBR approved for §§ 61.43, 61.321, and 61.419, and appendix A to this part. (14) FAA-S-8081-31A, Sport Pilot and Sport Pilot Flight Instructor Practical Test Standards for Powered Parachute Category and Weight-Shift-Control Aircraft Category, November 2023; IBR approved for §§ 61.43, 61.321, and 61.419, and appendix A to this part. (15) FAA-S-8081-32A Private Pilot Practical Test Standards for Powered Parachute Category and Weight-Shift-Control Aircraft Category, November 2023; IBR approved for § 61.43 and appendix A to this part. (b) Airman Certification Standards. (1) FAA-S-ACS-2, Commercial Pilot for Powered-Lift Category Airman Certification Standards, November 2023; IBR approved for § 61.43 and appendix A to this part. (2) FAA-S-ACS-3, Instrument Rating—Powered-Lift Airman Certification Standards, November 2023; IBR approved for §§ 61.43 and 61.57, and appendix A to this part. (3) FAA-S-ACS-6C, Private Pilot for Airplane Category Airman Certification Standards, November 2023; IBR approved for § 61.43 and appendix A to this part. (4) FAA-S-ACS-7B, Commercial Pilot for Airplane Category Airman Certification Standards, November 2023; IBR approved for § 61.43 and appendix A to this part. (5) FAA-S-ACS-8C, Instrument Rating—Airplane Airman Certification Standards, November 2023; IBR approved for §§ 61.43 and 61.57, and appendix A to this part. (6) FAA-S-ACS-11A, Airline Transport Pilot and Type Rating for Airplane Category Airman Certification Standards, November 2023; IBR approved for §§ 61.43 and 61.58, and appendix A to this part. (7) FAA-S-ACS-13, Private Pilot for Powered-Lift Category Airman Certification Standards, November 2023; IBR approved for § 61.43 and appendix A to this part. (8) FAA-S-ACS-14, Instrument Rating—Helicopter Airman Certification Standards, November 2023; IBR approved for §§ 61.43 and 61.57, and appendix A to this part. (9) FAA-S-ACS-15, Private Pilot for Rotorcraft Category Helicopter Rating Airman Certification Standards, November 2023; IBR approved for § 61.43 and appendix A to this part. (10) FAA-S-ACS-16, Commercial Pilot for Rotorcraft Category Helicopter Rating Airman Certification Standards, November 2023; IBR approved for § 61.43 and appendix A to this part. (11) FAA-S-ACS-17, Airline Transport Pilot and Type Rating for Powered-Lift Category Airman Certification Standards, November 2023; IBR approved for §§ 61.43 and 61.58, and appendix A to this part. (12) FAA-S-ACS-25, Flight Instructor for Airplane Category Airman Certification Standards, November 2023; IBR approved for § 61.43 and appendix A to this part. (13) FAA-S-ACS-27, Flight Instructor for Powered-Lift Category Airman Certification Standards, November 2023; IBR approved for § 61.43 and appendix A to this part. (14) FAA-S-ACS-28, Flight Instructor—Instrument Rating Powered-Lift Airman Certification Standards, November 2023; IBR approved for § 61.43 and appendix A to this part. (15) FAA-S-ACS-29, Flight Instructor for Rotorcraft Category Helicopter Rating Airman Certification Standards, November 2023; IBR approved for § 61.43 and appendix A to this part. [Docket FAA-2022-1463, Amdt. 61-153, 89 FR 22516, Apr. 1, 2024] § 61.15 Offenses involving alcohol or drugs. (a) A conviction for the violation of any Federal or State statute relating to the growing, processing, manufacture, sale, disposition, possession, transportation, or importation of narcotic drugs, marijuana, or depressant or stimulant drugs or substances is grounds for: (1) Denial of an application for any certificate, rating, or authorization issued under this part for a period of up to 1 year after the date of final conviction; or (2) Suspension or revocation of any certificate, rating, or authorization issued under this part. (b) Committing an act prohibited by § 91.17(a) or § 91.19(a) of this chapter is grounds for: (1) Denial of an application for a certificate, rating, or authorization issued under this part for a period of up to 1 year after the date of that act; or (2) Suspension or revocation of any certificate, rating, or authorization issued under this part. (c) For the purposes of paragraphs (d), (e), and (f) of this section, a motor vehicle action means: (1) A conviction after November 29, 1990, for the violation of any Federal or State statute relating to the operation of a motor vehicle while intoxicated by alcohol or a drug, while impaired by alcohol or a drug, or while under the influence of alcohol or a drug; (2) The cancellation, suspension, or revocation of a license to operate a motor vehicle after November 29, 1990, for a cause related to the operation of a motor vehicle while intoxicated by alcohol or a drug, while impaired by alcohol or a drug, or while under the influence of alcohol or a drug; or (3) The denial after November 29, 1990, of an application for a license to operate a motor vehicle for a cause related to the operation of a motor vehicle while intoxicated by alcohol or a drug, while impaired by alcohol or a drug, or while under the influence of alcohol or a drug. (d) Except for a motor vehicle action that results from the same incident or arises out of the same factual circumstances, a motor vehicle action occurring within 3 years of a previous motor vehicle action is grounds for: (1) Denial of an application for any certificate, rating, or authorization issued under this part for a period of up to 1 year after the date of the last motor vehicle action; or (2) Suspension or revocation of any certificate, rating, or authorization issued under this part. (e) Each person holding a certificate issued under this part shall provide a written report of each motor vehicle action to the FAA, Civil Aviation Security Division (AMC-700), P.O. Box 25810, Oklahoma City, OK 73125, not later than 60 days after the motor vehicle action. The report must include:

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(1) The person's name, address, date of birth, and airman certificate number; (2) The type of violation that resulted in the conviction or the administrative action; (3) The date of the conviction or administrative action; (4) The State that holds the record of conviction or administrative action; and (5) A statement of whether the motor vehicle action resulted from the same incident or arose out of the same factual circumstances related to a previously reported motor vehicle action. (f) Failure to comply with paragraph (e) of this section is grounds for: (1) Denial of an application for any certificate, rating, or authorization issued under this part for a period of up to 1 year after the date of the motor vehicle action; or (2) Suspension or revocation of any certificate, rating, or authorization issued under this part. § 61.16 Refusal to submit to an alcohol test or to furnish test results. A refusal to submit to a test to indicate the percentage by weight of alcohol in the blood, when requested by a law enforcement officer in accordance with § 91.17(c) of this chapter, or a refusal to furnish or authorize the release of the test results requested by the Administrator in accordance with § 91.17(c) or (d) of this chapter, is grounds for: (a) Denial of an application for any certificate, rating, or authorization issued under this part for a period of up to 1 year after the date of that refusal; or (b) Suspension or revocation of any certificate, rating, or authorization issued under this part. § 61.17 Temporary certificate. (a) A temporary pilot, flight instructor, or ground instructor certificate or rating is issued for up to 120 days, at which time a permanent certificate will be issued to a person whom the Administrator finds qualified under this part. (b) A temporary pilot, flight instructor, or ground instructor certificate or rating expires: (1) On the expiration date shown on the certificate; (2) Upon receipt of the permanent certificate; or (3) Upon receipt of a notice that the certificate or rating sought is denied or revoked. § 61.18 [Reserved]
§ 61.19 Duration of pilot and instructor certificates and privileges. (a) General. (1) The holder of a certificate with an expiration date may not, after that date, exercise the privileges of that certificate. (2) Except for a certificate issued with an expiration date, a certificate issued under this part is valid unless it is surrendered, suspended, or revoked. (b) Paper student pilot certificate. A student pilot certificate issued under this part prior to April 1, 2016 expires: (1) For student pilots who have not reached their 40th birthday, 60 calendar months after the month of the date of examination shown on the medical certificate. (2) For student pilots who have reached their 40th birthday, 24 calendar months after the month of the date of examination shown on the medical certificate. (3) For student pilots seeking a glider rating, balloon rating, or a sport pilot certificate, 60 calendar months after the month of the date issued, regardless of the person's age. (c) Pilot certificates. (1) A pilot certificate (including a student pilot certificate issued after April 1, 2016) issued under this part is issued without an expiration date. (2) The holder of a pilot certificate issued on the basis of a foreign pilot license may exercise the privileges of that certificate only while that person's foreign pilot license is effective. (d) Flight instructor certificate. (1) A flight instructor certificate issued under this part on or after December 1, 2024, is issued without an expiration date. (2) A flight instructor certificate issued before December 1, 2024, expires 24 calendar months from the month in which it was issued, renewed, or reinstated, as appropriate.

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(e) Ground instructor certificate. A ground instructor certificate is issued without an expiration date. (f) Return of certificates. The holder of any airman certificate that is issued under this part, and that has been suspended or revoked, must return that certificate to the FAA when requested to do so by the Administrator. (g) Duration of pilot certificates. Except for a temporary certificate issued under § 61.17 or a student pilot certificate issued under paragraph (b) of this section, the holder of a paper pilot certificate issued under this part may not exercise the privileges of that certificate after March 31, 2010. [Docket 25910, 62 FR 16298, Apr. 4, 1997, as amended by Amdt. 61-118, 73 FR 10668, Feb. 28, 2008; Amdt. 61-124, 74 FR 42547, Aug. 21, 2009; Amdt. 61-124A, 74 FR 53644, Oct. 20, 2009; Docket FAA-2010-1127, Amdt. 61-135, 81 FR 1306, Jan. 12, 2016; Docket FAA-2023-0825, Amdt. 61-155, 89 FR 80049, Oct. 1, 2024] § 61.21 Duration of a Category II and a Category III pilot authorization (for other than part 121 and part 135 use). (a) A Category II pilot authorization or a Category III pilot authorization expires at the end of the sixth calendar month after the month in which it was issued or renewed. (b) Upon passing a practical test for a Category II or Category III pilot authorization, the authorization may be renewed for each type of aircraft for which the authorization is held. (c) A Category II or Category III pilot authorization for a specific type aircraft for which an authorization is held will not be renewed beyond 12 calendar months from the month the practical test was accomplished in that type aircraft. (d) If the holder of a Category II or Category III pilot authorization passes the practical test for a renewal in the month before the authorization expires, the holder is considered to have passed it during the month the authorization expired. § 61.23 Medical certificates: Requirement and duration. (a) Operations requiring a medical certificate. Except as provided in paragraphs (b) and (c) of this section, a person— (1) Must hold a first-class medical certificate: (i) When exercising the pilot-in-command privileges of an airline transport pilot certificate; (ii) When exercising the second-in-command privileges of an airline transport pilot certificate in a flag or supplemental operation in part 121 of this chapter that requires three or more pilots; or (iii) When serving as a required pilot flightcrew member in an operation conducted under part 121 of this chapter if the pilot has reached his or her 60th birthday. (2) Must hold at least a second class medical certificate when exercising: (i) Second-in-command privileges of an airline transport pilot certificate in part 121 of this chapter (other than operations specified in paragraph (a)(1)(ii) of this section); (ii) Privileges of a commercial pilot certificate in an aircraft other than a balloon or glider; or (iii) Except as provided in paragraph (b)(5) of this section, privileges of a commercial pilot certificate with a balloon class rating for compensation or hire; or (3) Must hold at least a third-class medical certificate— (i) When exercising the privileges of a private pilot certificate, recreational pilot certificate, or student pilot certificate, except when operating under the conditions and limitations set forth in § 61.113(i); (ii) When exercising the privileges of a flight instructor certificate and acting as the pilot in command or as a required flightcrew member, except when operating under the conditions and limitations set forth in § 61.113(i); (iii) When taking a practical test in an aircraft for a recreational pilot, private pilot, commercial pilot, or airline transport pilot certificate, or for a flight instructor certificate, except when operating under the conditions and limitations set forth in § 61.113(i); or (iv) When performing the duties as an Examiner in an aircraft when administering a practical test or proficiency check for an airman certificate, rating, or authorization, except when meeting the requirements to operate under the conditions and limitations set forth in § 61.113(i).

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(b) Operations not requiring a medical certificate. A person is not required to hold a medical certificate— (1) When exercising the privileges of a student pilot certificate while seeking— (i) A sport pilot certificate with glider or balloon privileges; or (ii) A pilot certificate with a glider category rating or balloon class rating; (2) When exercising the privileges of a sport pilot certificate with privileges in a glider or balloon; (3) When exercising the privileges of a pilot certificate with a glider category rating in a glider; (4) When exercising the privileges of a private pilot certificate with a balloon class rating in a balloon; (5) When exercising the privileges of a commercial pilot certificate with a balloon class rating in a balloon if the person is providing flight training in accordance with § 61.133(a)(2)(ii); (6) When exercising the privileges of a flight instructor certificate with— (i) A sport pilot rating in a glider or balloon; or (ii) A glider category rating; (7) When exercising the privileges of a flight instructor certificate if the person is not acting as pilot in command or serving as a required pilot flight crewmember; (8) When exercising the privileges of a ground instructor certificate; (9) When serving as an Examiner or check airman and administering a practical test or proficiency check for an airman certificate, rating, or authorization conducted in a glider, balloon, flight simulator, or flight training device; (10) When taking a practical test or a proficiency check for a certificate, rating, authorization or operating privilege conducted in a glider, balloon, flight simulator, or flight training device; (11) When a military pilot of the U.S. Armed Forces can show evidence of an up-to-date medical examination authorizing pilot flight status issued by the U.S. Armed Forces and— (i) The flight does not require higher than a third-class medical certificate; and (ii) The flight conducted is a domestic flight operation within U.S. airspace; or (12) When exercising the privileges of a student pilot certificate or higher while acting as pilot in command on a special medical flight test authorized under part 67 of this chapter. (c) Operations requiring either a medical certificate or U.S. driver's license. (1) A person must hold and possess either a medical certificate issued under part 67 of this chapter or a U.S. driver's license when— (i) Exercising the privileges of a student pilot certificate while seeking sport pilot privileges in a light-sport aircraft other than a glider or balloon; (ii) Exercising the privileges of a sport pilot certificate in a light-sport aircraft other than a glider or balloon; (iii) Exercising the privileges of a flight instructor certificate with a sport pilot rating while acting as pilot in command or serving as a required flight crewmember of a light-sport aircraft other than a glider or balloon; (iv) Serving as an Examiner and administering a practical test for the issuance of a sport pilot certificate in a light-sport aircraft other than a glider or balloon; (v) Exercising the privileges of a student, recreational or private pilot certificate if the flight is conducted under the conditions and limitations set forth in § 61.113(i); (vi) Exercising the privileges of a flight instructor certificate and acting as the pilot in command or as a required flight crewmember if the flight is conducted under the conditions and limitations set forth in § 61.113(i); or (vii) Serving as an Examiner and administering a practical test or proficiency check for an airman certificate, rating, or authorization if the flight is conducted under the conditions and limitations set forth in § 61.113(i). (2) A person using a U.S. driver's license to meet the requirements of paragraph (c) while exercising sport pilot privileges must— (i) Comply with each restriction and limitation imposed by that person's U.S. driver's license and any judicial or administrative order applying to the operation of a motor vehicle;

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(ii) Have been found eligible for the issuance of at least a third-class airman medical certificate at the time of his or her most recent application (if the person has applied for a medical certificate); (iii) Not have had his or her most recently issued medical certificate (if the person has held a medical certificate) suspended or revoked or most recent Authorization for a Special Issuance of a Medical Certificate withdrawn; and (iv) Not know or have reason to know of any medical condition that would make that person unable to operate a light-sport aircraft in a safe manner. (3) A person using a U.S. driver's license to meet the requirements of paragraph (c) while operating under the conditions and limitations of § 61.113(i) must meet the following requirements— (i) The person must— (A) Comply with all medical requirements or restrictions associated with his or her U.S. driver's license; (B) At any point after July 14, 2006, have held a medical certificate issued under part 67 of this chapter; (C) Complete the medical education course set forth in § 68.3 of this chapter during the 24 calendar months before acting as pilot in command or serving as a required flightcrew member in an operation conducted under § 61.113(i) and retain a certification of course completion in accordance with § 68.3(b)(1) of this chapter; (D) Receive a comprehensive medical examination from a State-licensed physician during the 48 calendar months before acting as pilot in command or serving as a required flightcrew member of an operation conducted under § 61.113(i) and that medical examination is conducted in accordance with the requirements in part 68 of this chapter; and (E) If the individual has been diagnosed with any medical condition that may impact the ability of the individual to fly, be under the care and treatment of a State-licensed physician when acting as pilot in command or serving as a required flightcrew member of an operation conducted under § 61.113(i). (ii) The most recently issued medical certificate— (A) May include an authorization for special issuance; (B) May be expired; and (C) Cannot have been suspended or revoked. (iii) The most recently issued Authorization for a Special Issuance of a Medical Certificate cannot have been withdrawn; and (iv) The most recent application for an airman medical certificate submitted to the FAA cannot have been completed and denied. (d) Duration of a medical certificate. Use the following table to determine duration for each class of medical certificate:

If you hold	And on the date of examination for your most recent medical certificate you were	And you are conducting an operation requiring	Then your medical certificate expires, for that operation, at the end of the last day of the
(1) A first-class medical certificate	(i) Under age 40	an airline transport pilot certificate for pilot-in-command privileges, or for second-in-command privileges in a flag or supplemental operation in part 121 requiring three or more pilots	12th month after the month of the date of examination shown on the medical certificate.
	(ii) Age 40 or older	an airline transport pilot certificate for pilot-in-command privileges, for second-in-command privileges in a flag or supplemental operation in part 121 requiring three or more pilots, or for a pilot flightcrew member in part 121 operations who has reached his or her 60th birthday.	6th month after the month of the date of examination shown on the medical certificate.
	(iii) Any age	a commercial pilot certificate (other than a commercial pilot certificate with a balloon rating when conducting flight training), a flight engineer certificate, or an air traffic control tower operator certificate	12th month after the month of the date of examination shown on the medical certificate.
	(iv) Under age 40	a recreational pilot certificate, a private pilot certificate, a flight instructor certificate (when acting as pilot in command or a required pilot flight crewmember in operations other than glider or balloon), a student pilot certificate, or a sport pilot certificate (when not using a U.S. driver's license as medical qualification)	60th month after the month of the date of examination shown on the medical certificate.
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	(v) Age 40 or older	a recreational pilot certificate, a private pilot certificate, a flight instructor certificate (when acting as pilot in command or a required pilot flight crewmember in operations other than glider or balloon), a student pilot certificate, or a sport pilot certificate (when not using a U.S. driver's license as medical qualification)	24th month after the month of the date of examination shown on the medical certificate.
(2) A second-class medical certificate	(i) Any age	an airline transport pilot certificate for second-in-command privileges (other than the operations specified in paragraph (d)(1) of this section), a commercial pilot certificate (other than a commercial pilot certificate with a balloon rating when conducting flight training), a flight engineer certificate, or an air traffic control tower operator certificate	12th month after the month of the date of examination shown on the medical certificate.
	(ii) Under age 40	a recreational pilot certificate, a private pilot certificate, a flight instructor certificate (when acting as pilot in command or a required pilot flight crewmember in operations other than glider or balloon), a student pilot certificate, or a sport pilot certificate (when not using a U.S. driver's license as medical qualification)	60th month after the month of the date of examination shown on the medical certificate.
	(iii) Age 40 or older	a recreational pilot certificate, a private pilot certificate, a flight instructor certificate (when acting as pilot in command or a required pilot flight crewmember in operations other than glider or balloon), a student pilot certificate, or a sport pilot certificate (when not using a U.S. driver's license as medical qualification)	24th month after the month of the date of examination shown on the medical certificate.
(3) A third-class medical certificate	(i) Under age 40	a recreational pilot certificate, a private pilot certificate, a flight instructor certificate (when acting as pilot in command or a required pilot flight crewmember in operations other than glider or balloon), a student pilot certificate, or a sport pilot certificate (when not using a U.S. driver's license as medical qualification)	60th month after the month of the date of examination shown on the medical certificate.
	(ii) Age 40 or older	a recreational pilot certificate, a private pilot certificate, a flight instructor certificate (when acting as pilot in command or a required pilot flight crewmember in operations other than glider or balloon), a student pilot certificate, or a sport pilot certificate (when not using a U.S. driver's license as medical qualification)	24th month after the month of the date of examination shown on the medical certificate.

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[Docket 25910, 62 FR 16298, Apr. 4, 1997; Amdt. 61-103, 62 FR 40895, July 30, 1997; Amdt. 61-110, 69 FR 44864, July 27, 2004, as amended by Amdt. 61-121, 73 FR 43064, July 24, 2008; Amdt. 61-121, 73 FR 48125, Aug. 18, 2008; Amdt. 61-123, 74 FR 34234, July 15, 2009; Amdt. 61-124, 74 FR 42547, Aug. 21, 2009; Amdt. 61-129, 76 FR 78143, Dec. 16, 2011; Amdt. 61-129A, 77 FR 61721, Oct. 11, 2012; Amdt. 61-130, 78 FR 42372, July 15, 2013; Docket FAA-2016-9157, Amdt. 61-140, 82 FR 3164, Jan. 11, 2017; Docket FAA-2021-1040, Amdt. 61-152, 87 FR 71236, Nov. 22, 2022; Docket FAA-2021-1040; Amdt. 61-152, 87 FR 71237, Nov. 22, 2022; Docket FAA-2024-2580, Amdt. 61-158, 89 FR 90577, Nov. 18, 2024] § 61.25 Change of name. (a) An application to change the name on a certificate issued under this part must be accompanied by the applicant's: (1) Airman certificate; and (2) A copy of the marriage license, court order, or other document verifying the name change. (b) The documents in paragraph (a) of this section will be returned to the applicant after inspection. [Docket 25910, 62 FR 16298, Apr. 4, 1997, as amended by Amdt. 61-124, 74 FR 42548, Aug. 21, 2009] § 61.27 Voluntary surrender or exchange of certificate. (a) The holder of a certificate issued under this part may voluntarily surrender it for: (1) Cancellation; (2) Issuance of a lower grade certificate; or (3) Another certificate with specific ratings deleted. (b) Any request made under paragraph (a) of this section must include the following signed statement or its equivalent: “This request is made for my own reasons, with full knowledge that my (insert name of certificate or rating, as appropriate) may not be reissued to me unless I again pass the tests prescribed for its issuance.” § 61.29 Replacement of a lost or destroyed airman or medical certificate or knowledge test report. (a) A request for the replacement of a lost or destroyed airman certificate issued under this part must be made: (1) By letter to the Department of Transportation, FAA, Airmen Certification Branch, P.O. Box 25082, Oklahoma City, OK 73125, and must be accompanied by a check or money order for the appropriate fee payable to the FAA; or (2) In any other manner and form approved by the Administrator including a request online to Airmen Services at http://www.faa.gov, and must be accompanied by acceptable form of payment for the appropriate fee. (b) A request for the replacement of a lost or destroyed medical certificate must be made: (1) By letter to the Department of Transportation, FAA, Aerospace Medical Certification Division, P.O. Box 26200, Oklahoma City, OK 73125, and must be accompanied by a check or money order for the appropriate fee payable to the FAA; or (2) In any other manner and form approved by the Administrator and must be accompanied by acceptable form of payment for the appropriate fee. (c) A request for the replacement of a lost or destroyed knowledge test report must be made: (1) By letter to the Department of Transportation, FAA, Airmen Certification Branch, P.O. Box 25082, Oklahoma City, OK 73125, and must be accompanied by a check or money order for the appropriate fee payable to the FAA; or (2) In any other manner and form approved by the Administrator and must be accompanied by acceptable form of payment for the appropriate fee. (d) The letter requesting replacement of a lost or destroyed airman certificate, medical certificate, or knowledge test report must state: (1) The name of the person; (2) The permanent mailing address (including ZIP code), or if the permanent mailing address includes a post office box number, then the person's current residential address; (3) The certificate holder's date and place of birth; and (4) Any information regarding the— (i) Grade, number, and date of issuance of the airman certificate and ratings, if appropriate;

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(ii) Class of medical certificate, the place and date of the medical exam, name of the Airman Medical Examiner (AME), and the circumstances concerning the loss of the original medical certificate, as appropriate; and (iii) Date the knowledge test was taken, if appropriate. (e) A person who has lost an airman certificate, medical certificate, or knowledge test report may obtain, in a form or manner approved by the Administrator, a document conveying temporary authority to exercise certificate privileges from the FAA Aeromedical Certification Branch or the Airman Certification Branch, as appropriate, and the: (1) Document may be carried as an airman certificate, medical certificate, or knowledge test report, as appropriate, for up to 60 days pending the person's receipt of a duplicate under paragraph (a), (b), or (c) of this section, unless the person has been notified that the certificate has been suspended or revoked. (2) Request for such a document must include the date on which a duplicate certificate or knowledge test report was previously requested. [Docket 25910, 62 FR 16298, Apr. 4, 1997; Amdt. 61-103, 62 FR 40896, July 30, 1997; Amdt. 61-121, 73 FR 43065, July 24, 2008; Amdt. 61-124, 74 FR 42548, Aug. 21, 2009; Amdt. 61-131, 78 FR 56828, Sept. 16, 2013] § 61.31 Type rating requirements, additional training, and authorization requirements. (a) Type ratings required. A person who acts as a pilot in command of any of the following aircraft must hold a type rating for that aircraft: (1) Large aircraft (except lighter-than-air). (2) Turbojet-powered airplanes. (3) Other aircraft specified by the Administrator through aircraft type certificate procedures. (b) Authorization in lieu of a type rating. A person may be authorized to operate without a type rating for up to 60 days an aircraft requiring a type rating, provided— (1) The Administrator has authorized the flight or series of flights; (2) The Administrator has determined that an equivalent level of safety can be achieved through the operating limitations on the authorization; (3) The person shows that compliance with paragraph (a) of this section is impracticable for the flight or series of flights; and (4) The flight— (i) Involves only a ferry flight, training flight, test flight, or practical test for a pilot certificate or rating; (ii) Is within the United States; (iii) Does not involve operations for compensation or hire unless the compensation or hire involves payment for the use of the aircraft for training or taking a practical test; and (iv) Involves only the carriage of flight crewmembers considered essential for the flight. (5) If the flight or series of flights cannot be accomplished within the time limit of the authorization, the Administrator may authorize an additional period of up to 60 days to accomplish the flight or series of flights. (c) Aircraft category, class, and type ratings: Limitations on the carriage of persons, or operating for compensation or hire. Unless a person holds a category, class, and type rating (if a class and type rating is required) that applies to the aircraft, that person may not act as pilot in command of an aircraft that is carrying another person, or is operated for compensation or hire. That person also may not act as pilot in command of that aircraft for compensation or hire. (d) Aircraft category, class, and type ratings: Limitations on operating an aircraft as the pilot in command. To serve as the pilot in command of an aircraft, a person must— (1) Hold the appropriate category, class, and type rating (if a class or type rating is required) for the aircraft to be flown; or (2) Have received training required by this part that is appropriate to the pilot certification level, aircraft category, class, and type rating (if a class or type rating is required) for the aircraft to be flown, and have received an endorsement for solo flight in that aircraft from an authorized instructor. (e) Additional training required for operating complex airplanes. (1) Except as provided in paragraph (e)(2) of this section, no person may act as pilot in command of a complex airplane, unless the person has—

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(i) Received and logged ground and flight training from an authorized instructor in a complex airplane, or in a full flight simulator or flight training device that is representative of a complex airplane, and has been found proficient in the operation and systems of the airplane; and (ii) Received a one-time endorsement in the pilot's logbook from an authorized instructor who certifies the person is proficient to operate a complex airplane. (2) The training and endorsement required by paragraph (e)(1) of this section is not required if— (i) The person has logged flight time as pilot in command of a complex airplane, or in a full flight simulator or flight training device that is representative of a complex airplane prior to August 4, 1997; or (ii) The person has received ground and flight training under an approved training program and has satisfactorily completed a competency check under § 135.293 of this chapter in a complex airplane, or in a full flight simulator or flight training device that is representative of a complex airplane which must be documented in the pilot's logbook or training record. (f) Additional training required for operating high-performance airplanes. (1) Except as provided in paragraph (f)(2) of this section, no person may act as pilot in command of a high-performance airplane (an airplane with an engine of more than 200 horsepower), unless the person has— (i) Received and logged ground and flight training from an authorized instructor in a high-performance airplane, or in a full flight simulator or flight training device that is representative of a high-performance airplane, and has been found proficient in the operation and systems of the airplane; and (ii) Received a one-time endorsement in the pilot's logbook from an authorized instructor who certifies the person is proficient to operate a high-performance airplane. (2) The training and endorsement required by paragraph (f)(1) of this section is not required if— (i) The person has logged flight time as pilot in command of a high-performance airplane, or in a full flight simulator or flight training device that is representative of a high-performance airplane prior to August 4, 1997; or (ii) The person has received ground and flight training under an approved training program and has satisfactorily completed a competency check under § 135.293 of this chapter in a high performance airplane, or in a full flight simulator or flight training device that is representative of a high performance airplane which must be documented in the pilot's logbook or training record. (g) Additional training required for operating pressurized aircraft capable of operating at high altitudes. (1) Except as provided in paragraph (g)(3) of this section, no person may act as pilot in command of a pressurized aircraft (an aircraft that has a service ceiling or maximum operating altitude, whichever is lower, above 25,000 feet MSL), unless that person has received and logged ground training from an authorized instructor and obtained an endorsement in the person's logbook or training record from an authorized instructor who certifies the person has satisfactorily accomplished the ground training. The ground training must include at least the following subjects: (i) High-altitude aerodynamics and meteorology; (ii) Respiration; (iii) Effects, symptoms, and causes of hypoxia and any other high-altitude sickness; (iv) Duration of consciousness without supplemental oxygen; (v) Effects of prolonged usage of supplemental oxygen; (vi) Causes and effects of gas expansion and gas bubble formation; (vii) Preventive measures for eliminating gas expansion, gas bubble formation, and high-altitude sickness; (viii) Physical phenomena and incidents of decompression; and (ix) Any other physiological aspects of high-altitude flight. (2) Except as provided in paragraph (g)(3) of this section, no person may act as pilot in command of a pressurized aircraft unless that person has received and logged training from an authorized instructor in a pressurized aircraft, or in a full flight simulator or flight training device that is representative of a pressurized aircraft, and obtained an endorsement in the person's logbook or training record from an authorized instructor who found the person proficient in the operation of a pressurized aircraft. The flight training must include at least the following subjects:

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(i) Normal cruise flight operations while operating above 25,000 feet MSL; (ii) Proper emergency procedures for simulated rapid decompression without actually depressurizing the aircraft; and (iii) Emergency descent procedures. (3) The training and endorsement required by paragraphs (g)(1) and (g)(2) of this section are not required if that person can document satisfactory accomplishment of any of the following in a pressurized aircraft, or in a full flight simulator or flight training device that is representative of a pressurized aircraft: (i) Serving as pilot in command before April 15, 1991; (ii) Completing a pilot proficiency check for a pilot certificate or rating before April 15, 1991; (iii) Completing an official pilot-in-command check conducted by the military services of the United States; or (iv) Completing a pilot-in-command proficiency check under part 121, 125, or 135 of this chapter conducted by the Administrator or by an approved pilot check airman. (h) Additional aircraft type-specific training. No person may serve as pilot in command of an aircraft that the Administrator has determined requires aircraft type-specific training unless that person has— (1) Received and logged type-specific training in the aircraft, or in a full flight simulator or flight training device that is representative of that type of aircraft; and (2) Received a logbook endorsement from an authorized instructor who has found the person proficient in the operation of the aircraft and its systems. (i) Additional training required for operating tailwheel airplanes. (1) Except as provided in paragraph (i)(2) of this section, no person may act as pilot in command of a tailwheel airplane unless that person has received and logged flight training from an authorized instructor in a tailwheel airplane and received an endorsement in the person's logbook from an authorized instructor who found the person proficient in the operation of a tailwheel airplane. The flight training must include at least the following maneuvers and procedures: (i) Normal and crosswind takeoffs and landings; (ii) Wheel landings (unless the manufacturer has recommended against such landings); and (iii) Go-around procedures. (2) The training and endorsement required by paragraph (i)(1) of this section is not required if the person logged pilot-in-command time in a tailwheel airplane before April 15, 1991. (j) Additional training required for operating a glider. (1) No person may act as pilot in command of a glider— (i) Using ground-tow procedures, unless that person has satisfactorily accomplished ground and flight training on ground-tow procedures and operations, and has received an endorsement from an authorized instructor who certifies in that pilot's logbook that the pilot has been found proficient in ground-tow procedures and operations; (ii) Using aerotow procedures, unless that person has satisfactorily accomplished ground and flight training on aerotow procedures and operations, and has received an endorsement from an authorized instructor who certifies in that pilot's logbook that the pilot has been found proficient in aerotow procedures and operations; or (iii) Using self-launch procedures, unless that person has satisfactorily accomplished ground and flight training on self-launch procedures and operations, and has received an endorsement from an authorized instructor who certifies in that pilot's logbook that the pilot has been found proficient in self-launch procedures and operations. (2) The holder of a glider rating issued prior to August 4, 1997, is considered to be in compliance with the training and logbook endorsement requirements of this paragraph for the specific operating privilege for which the holder is already qualified.

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(k) Additional training required for night vision goggle operations. (1) Except as provided under paragraph (k)(3) of this section, a person may act as pilot in command of an aircraft using night vision goggles only if that person receives and logs ground training from an authorized instructor and obtains a logbook or training record endorsement from an authorized instructor who certifies the person completed the ground training. The ground training must include the following subjects: (i) Applicable portions of this chapter that relate to night vision goggle limitations and flight operations; (ii) Aeromedical factors related to the use of night vision goggles, including how to protect night vision, how the eyes adapt to night, self-imposed stresses that affect night vision, effects of lighting on night vision, cues used to estimate distance and depth perception at night, and visual illusions; (iii) Normal, abnormal, and emergency operations of night vision goggle equipment; (iv) Night vision goggle performance and scene interpretation; and (v) Night vision goggle operation flight planning, including night terrain interpretation and factors affecting terrain interpretation. (2) Except as provided under paragraph (k)(3) of this section, a person may act as pilot in command of an aircraft using night vision goggles only if that person receives and logs flight training from an authorized instructor and obtains a logbook or training record endorsement from an authorized instructor who found the person proficient in the use of night vision goggles. The flight training must include the following tasks: (i) Preflight and use of internal and external aircraft lighting systems for night vision goggle operations; (ii) Preflight preparation of night vision goggles for night vision goggle operations; (iii) Proper piloting techniques when using night vision goggles during the takeoff, climb, enroute, descent, and landing phases of flight; and (iv) Normal, abnormal, and emergency flight operations using night vision goggles. (3) The requirements under paragraphs (k)(1) and (2) of this section do not apply if a person can document satisfactory completion of any of the following pilot proficiency checks using night vision goggles in an aircraft: (i) A pilot proficiency check on night vision goggle operations conducted by the U.S. Armed Forces. (ii) A pilot proficiency check on night vision goggle operations under part 135 of this chapter conducted by an Examiner or Check Airman. (iii) A pilot proficiency check on night vision goggle operations conducted by a night vision goggle manufacturer or authorized instructor, when the pilot— (A) Is employed by a Federal, State, county, or municipal law enforcement agency; and (B) Has logged at least 20 hours as pilot in command in night vision goggle operations. (l) Exceptions. (1) This section does not require a category and class rating for aircraft not type-certificated as airplanes, rotorcraft, gliders, lighter-than-air aircraft, powered-lifts, powered parachutes, or weight-shift-control aircraft. (2) The rating limitations of this section do not apply to— (i) An applicant when taking a practical test given by an examiner; (ii) The holder of a student pilot certificate; (iii) The holder of a pilot certificate when operating an aircraft under the authority of— (A) A provisional type certificate; or (B) An experimental certificate, unless the operation involves carrying a passenger; (iv) The holder of a pilot certificate with a lighter-than-air category rating when operating a balloon; (v) The holder of a recreational pilot certificate operating under the provisions of § 61.101(h); or (vi) The holder of a sport pilot certificate when operating a light-sport aircraft. [Docket 25910, 62 FR 40896, July 30, 1997, as amended by Amdt. 61-104, 63 FR 20286, Apr. 23, 1998; Amdt. 61-110, 69 FR 44865, July 27, 2004; Amdt. 61-124, 74 FR 42548, Aug. 21, 2009; Amdt. 61-128, 76 FR 54105, Aug. 31, 2011; Amdt. 61-142, 83 FR 30276, June 27, 2018]

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Effective Date Note: Amendments to § 61.31 were published by Docket FAA-2023-1275, Amdt. 60-8, 89 FR 92484, Nov. 21, 2024, effective Jan. 21, 2025. § 61.33 Tests: General procedure. Tests prescribed by or under this part are given at times and places, and by persons designated by the Administrator. § 61.35 Knowledge test: Prerequisites and passing grades. (a) An applicant for a knowledge test must have: (1) Received an endorsement, if required by this part, from an authorized instructor certifying that the applicant accomplished the appropriate ground-training or a home-study course required by this part for the certificate or rating sought and is prepared for the knowledge test; (2) For the knowledge test for an airline transport pilot certificate with an airplane category multiengine class rating, a graduation certificate for the airline transport pilot certification training program specified in § 61.156; and (3) Proper identification at the time of application that contains the applicant's— (i) Photograph; (ii) Signature; (iii) Date of birth, which shows: (A) For issuance of certificates other than the ATP certificate with an airplane category multiengine class rating, the applicant meets or will meet the age requirements of this part for the certificate sought before the expiration date of the airman knowledge test report; and (B) For issuance of an ATP certificate with an airplane category multiengine class rating obtained under the aeronautical experience requirements of § 61.159 or § 61.160, the applicant is at least 18 years of age at the time of the knowledge test; (iv) If the permanent mailing address is a post office box number, then the applicant must provide a current residential address. (b) The Administrator shall specify the minimum passing grade for the knowledge test. [Docket 25910, 62 FR 16298, Apr. 4, 1997, as amended by Amdt. 61-104, 63 FR 20286, Apr. 23, 1998; Amdt. 61-124, 74 FR 42548, Aug. 21, 2009; Amdt. 61-130, 78 FR 42373, July 15, 2013; Amdt. 61-130B, 78 FR 77573, Dec. 24, 2013; Amdt. 61-149, 86 FR 62087, Nov. 9, 2021] § 61.37 Knowledge tests: Cheating or other unauthorized conduct. (a) An applicant for a knowledge test may not: (1) Copy or intentionally remove any knowledge test; (2) Give to another applicant or receive from another applicant any part or copy of a knowledge test; (3) Give assistance on, or receive assistance on, a knowledge test during the period that test is being given; (4) Take any part of a knowledge test on behalf of another person; (5) Be represented by, or represent, another person for a knowledge test; (6) Use any material or aid during the period that the test is being given, unless specifically authorized to do so by the Administrator; and (7) Intentionally cause, assist, or participate in any act prohibited by this paragraph. (b) An applicant who the Administrator finds has committed an act prohibited by paragraph (a) of this section is prohibited, for 1 year after the date of committing that act, from: (1) Applying for any certificate, rating, or authorization issued under this chapter; and (2) Applying for and taking any test under this chapter. (c) Any certificate or rating held by an applicant may be suspended or revoked if the Administrator finds that person has committed an act prohibited by paragraph (a) of this section. § 61.39 Prerequisites for practical tests. (a) Except as provided in paragraphs (b), (c), (e), and (f) of this section, to be eligible for a practical test for a certificate or rating issued under this part, an applicant must: (1) Pass the required knowledge test: (i) Within the 24-calendar-month period preceding the month the applicant completes the practical test, if a knowledge test is required; or

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(ii) Within the 60-calendar month period preceding the month the applicant completes the practical test for those applicants who complete the airline transport pilot certification training program in § 61.156 and pass the knowledge test for an airline transport pilot certificate with a multiengine class rating after July 31, 2014; (2) Present the knowledge test report at the time of application for the practical test, if a knowledge test is required; (3) Have satisfactorily accomplished the required training and obtained the aeronautical experience prescribed by this part for the certificate or rating sought, and if applying for the practical test with flight time accomplished under § 61.159(c), present a copy of the records required by § 135.63(a)(4)(vi) and (x) of this chapter; (4) Hold at least a third-class medical certificate, if a medical certificate is required; (5) Meet the prescribed age requirement of this part for the issuance of the certificate or rating sought; (6) Have an endorsement, if required by this part, in the applicant's logbook or training record that has been signed by an authorized instructor who certifies that the applicant— (i) Has received and logged training time within 2 calendar months preceding the month of application in preparation for the practical test; (ii) Is prepared for the required practical test; and (iii) Has demonstrated satisfactory knowledge of the subject areas in which the applicant was deficient on the airman knowledge test; and (7) Have a completed and signed application form. (b) Except as provided in paragraph (e) of this section, an applicant for an airline transport pilot certificate with an airplane category multiengine class rating or an airline transport pilot certificate obtained concurrently with a multiengine airplane type rating may take the practical test with an expired knowledge test only if the applicant passed the knowledge test after July 31, 2014, and is employed: (1) As a flightcrew member by a part 119 certificate holder conducting operations under parts 125 or 135 of this chapter at the time of the practical test and has satisfactorily accomplished that operator's approved pilot-in-command training or checking program; or (2) As a flightcrew member by a part 119 certificate holder conducting operations under part 121 of this chapter at the time of the practical test and has satisfactorily accomplished that operator's approved initial training program; or (3) By the U.S. Armed Forces as a flightcrew member in U.S. military air transport operations at the time of the practical test and has satisfactorily completed the pilot in command aircraft qualification training program that is appropriate to the pilot certificate and rating sought. (c) Except as provided in paragraph (e) of this section, an applicant for an airline transport pilot certificate with a rating other than those ratings set forth in paragraph (b) of this section may take the practical test for that certificate or rating with an expired knowledge test report, provided that the applicant is employed: (1) As a flightcrew member by a part 119 certificate holder conducting operations under parts 125 or 135 of this chapter at the time of the practical test and has satisfactorily accomplished that operator's approved pilot-in-command training or checking program; or (2) By the U.S. Armed Forces as a flightcrew member in U.S. military air transport operations at the time of the practical test and has satisfactorily completed the pilot in command aircraft qualification training program that is appropriate to the pilot certificate and rating sought. (d) In addition to the requirements in paragraph (a) of this section, to be eligible for a practical test for an airline transport pilot certificate with an airplane category multiengine class rating or airline transport pilot certificate obtained concurrently with a multiengine airplane type rating, an applicant must: (1) If the applicant passed the knowledge test after July 31, 2014, present the graduation certificate for the airline transport pilot certification training program in § 61.156, at the time of application for the practical test;

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(2) If applying for the practical test under the aeronautical experience requirements of § 61.160(a), the applicant must present the documents required by that section to substantiate eligibility; and (3) If applying for the practical test under the aeronautical experience requirements of § 61.160(b), (c), or (d), the applicant must present an official transcript and certifying document from an institution of higher education that holds a letter of authorization from the Administrator under § 61.169. (e) An applicant for an airman certificate or rating issued under this part 61 may take a practical test with an expired knowledge test if the applicant meets the requirements specified in § 61.40. (f) A person is not required to comply with the provisions of paragraph (a)(6) of this section if that person: (1) Holds a foreign pilot license issued by a contracting State to the Convention on International Civil Aviation that authorizes at least the privileges of the pilot certificate sought; (2) Is only applying for a type rating; or (3) Is applying for an airline transport pilot certificate or an additional rating to an airline transport pilot certificate in an aircraft that does not require an aircraft type rating practical test. (g) If all increments of the practical test for a certificate or rating are not completed on the same date, then all the remaining increments of the test must be completed within 2 calendar months after the month the applicant began the test. (h) If all increments of the practical test for a certificate or rating are not completed within 2 calendar months after the month the applicant began the test, the applicant must retake the entire practical test. [Docket 25910, 62 FR 16298, Apr. 4, 1997; Amdt. 61-103, 62 FR 40897, July 30, 1997, as amended by Amdt. 61-104, 63 FR 20286, Apr. 23, 1998; Amdt. 61-124, 74 FR 42548, Aug. 21, 2009; Amdt. 61-130, 78 FR 42373, July 15, 2013; Amdt. 61-130B, 78 FR 77573, Dec. 24, 2013; Amdt. 61-142, 83 FR 30726, June 27, 2018; Amdt. 61-149, 86 FR 62087, Nov. 9, 2021; Docket FAA-2023-0825, Amdt. 61-155, 89 FR 80049, Oct. 1, 2024] Effective Date Note: Amendments to § 61.39 were published by Docket FAA-2023-1275, Amdt. 60-8, 89 FR 92484, Nov. 21, 2024, effective Jan. 21, 2025. § 61.40 Relief for U.S. Military and civilian personnel who are assigned outside the United States in support of U.S. Armed Forces operations. (a) Relief. A person who satisfies the requirements of paragraph (b) of this section may use the following documents to demonstrate eligibility to renew a flight instructor certificate, establish recent flight instructor experience, take a practical test, or renew an inspection authorization, as appropriate: (1) For flight instructor certificates issued before December 1, 2024, an expired flight instructor certificate to show eligibility for renewal of a flight instructor certificate under § 61.197; (2) Except as provided in paragraph (a)(3) of this section, for flight instructor certificates issued after December 1, 2024, a record demonstrating the last recent experience event accomplished under § 61.197 to show eligibility to reestablish recent experience under § 61.197; (3) For persons who were issued a flight instructor certificate after December 1, 2024, and who served in a U.S. military or civilian capacity outside the United States in support of a U.S. Armed Forces operation for some period of time during the 24 calendar months following the issuance of the person's flight instructor certificate, a flight instructor certificate demonstrating the date of issuance to show eligibility to establish recent experience under § 61.197; (4) An expired written test report to show eligibility under this part to take a practical test;

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(5) An expired written test report to show eligibility to take a practical test required under part 63 of this chapter; and (6) An expired written test report to show eligibility to take a practical test required under part 65 of this chapter or an expired inspection authorization to show eligibility for renewal under § 65.93. (b) Eligibility. A person is eligible for the relief specified in paragraph (a) of this section if that person meets the following requirements: (1) The person must have served in a U.S. military or civilian capacity outside the United States in support of a U.S. Armed Forces operation during some period of time beginning on or after September 11, 2001; (2) One of the following occurred while the person served in an operation as set forth in paragraph (b)(1) of this section or within 6 calendar months after returning to the United States— (i) The person's flight instructor certificate issued before December 1, 2024, airman written test report, or inspection authorization expired; or (ii) For flight instructor certificates issued after December 1, 2024, the person has not met the flight instructor recent experience requirements within the preceding 24 calendar months in accordance with § 61.197; and (3) The person complies with § 61.197 or § 65.93 of this chapter, as appropriate, or completes the appropriate practical test within 6 calendar months after returning to the United States. (c) Required documents. To exercise the relief specified in paragraph (a) of this section, a person must complete and sign an application appropriate to the relief sought and send the application to the appropriate Flight Standards office. The person must include with the application one of the following documents, which must show the date of assignment outside the United States and the date of return to the United States: (1) An official U.S. Government notification of personnel action, or equivalent document, showing the person was a civilian on official duty for the U.S. Government outside the United States and was assigned to a U.S. Armed Forces operation some time on or after September 11, 2001; (2) Military orders validating the person was assigned to duty outside the United States and was assigned to a U.S. Armed Forces operation some time on or after September 11, 2001; or (3) A letter from the person's military commander or civilian supervisor providing the dates during which the person served outside the United States and was assigned to a U.S. Armed Forces operation some time on or after September 11, 2001. [Docket FAA-2023-0825, Amdt. 61-155, 89 FR 80050, Oct. 1, 2024] § 61.41 Flight training received from flight instructors not certificated by the FAA. (a) A person may credit flight training toward the requirements of a pilot certificate or rating issued under this part, if that person received the training from: (1) A flight instructor of an Armed Force in a program for training military pilots of either— (i) The United States; or (ii) A foreign contracting State to the Convention on International Civil Aviation. (2) A flight instructor who is authorized to give such training by the licensing authority of a foreign contracting State to the Convention on International Civil Aviation, and the flight training is given outside the United States. (b) A flight instructor described in paragraph (a) of this section is only authorized to give endorsements to show training given. § 61.43 Practical tests: General procedures. (a) Completion of the practical test for a certificate or rating consists of— (1) Performing the tasks specified in the areas of operation contained in the applicable Airman Certification Standards or Practical Test Standards (incorporated by reference, see § 61.14) as listed in appendix A of this part for the airman certificate or rating sought; (2) Demonstrating mastery of the aircraft by performing each task required by paragraph (a)(1) of this section successfully;

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(3) Demonstrating proficiency and competency of the tasks required by paragraph (a)(1) of this section within the approved standards; and (4) Demonstrating sound judgment. (b) The pilot flight crew complement required during the practical test is based on one of the following requirements that applies to the aircraft being used on the practical test: (1) If the aircraft's FAA-approved flight manual requires the pilot flight crew complement be a single pilot, then the applicant must demonstrate single pilot proficiency on the practical test. (2) If the aircraft's type certification data sheet requires the pilot flight crew complement be a single pilot, then the applicant must demonstrate single pilot proficiency on the practical test. (3) If the FAA Flight Standardization Board report, FAA-approved aircraft flight manual, or aircraft type certification data sheet allows the pilot flight crew complement to be either a single pilot, or a pilot and a copilot, then the applicant may demonstrate single pilot proficiency or have a copilot on the practical test. If the applicant performs the practical test with a copilot, the limitation of “Second in Command Required” will be placed on the applicant's pilot certificate. The limitation may be removed if the applicant passes the practical test by demonstrating single-pilot proficiency in the aircraft in which single-pilot privileges are sought. (c) If an applicant fails any area of operation, that applicant fails the practical test. (d) An applicant is not eligible for a certificate or rating sought until all the areas of operation are passed. (e) The examiner or the applicant may discontinue a practical test at any time: (1) When the applicant fails one or more of the areas of operation; or (2) Due to inclement weather conditions, aircraft airworthiness, or any other safety-of-flight concern. (f) If a practical test is discontinued, the applicant is entitled credit for those areas of operation that were passed, but only if the applicant: (1) Passes the remainder of the practical test within the 60-day period after the date the practical test was discontinued; (2) Presents to the examiner for the retest the original notice of disapproval form or the letter of discontinuance form, as appropriate; (3) Satisfactorily accomplishes any additional training needed and obtains the appropriate instructor endorsements, if additional training is required; and (4) Presents to the examiner for the retest a properly completed and signed application. [Docket 25910, 62 FR 16298, Apr. 4, 1997, as amended by Amdt. 61-124, 74 FR 42549, Aug. 21, 2009; Amdt. 61-142, 83 FR 30276, June 27, 2018; Docket FAA-2022-1463, Amdt. 61-153, 89 FR 22517, Apr. 1, 2024] Effective Date Note: Amendments to § 61.43 were published by Docket FAA-2023-1275, Amdt. 60-8, 89 FR 92484, Nov. 21, 2024, effective Jan. 21, 2025. § 61.45 Practical tests: Required aircraft and equipment. (a) General. Except as provided in paragraph (a)(2) of this section or when permitted to accomplish the entire flight increment of the practical test in a flight simulator or a flight training device, an applicant for a certificate or rating issued under this part must furnish: (1) An aircraft of U.S. registry for each required test that— (i) Is of the category, class, and type, if applicable, for which the applicant is applying for a certificate or rating; and (ii) Has a standard airworthiness certificate or special airworthiness certificate in the limited, primary, or light-sport category. (2) At the discretion of the examiner who administers the practical test, the applicant may furnish— (i) An aircraft that has an airworthiness certificate other than a standard airworthiness certificate or special airworthiness certificate in the limited, primary, or light-sport category, but that otherwise meets the requirements of paragraph (a)(1) of this section; (ii) An aircraft of the same category, class, and type, if applicable, of foreign registry that is properly certificated by the country of registry; or

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(iii) A military aircraft of the same category, class, and type, if aircraft class and type are appropriate, for which the applicant is applying for a certificate or rating, and provided— (A) The aircraft is under the direct operational control of the U.S. Armed Forces; (B) The aircraft is airworthy under the maintenance standards of the U.S. Armed Forces; and (C) The applicant has a letter from his or her commanding officer authorizing the use of the aircraft for the practical test. (b) Required equipment (other than controls). (1) Except as provided in paragraph (b)(2) of this section, an aircraft used for a practical test must have— (i) The equipment for each area of operation required for the practical test; (ii) No prescribed operating limitations that prohibit its use in any of the areas of operation required for the practical test; (iii) Except as provided in paragraphs (e) and (f) of this section, at least two pilot stations with adequate visibility for each person to operate the aircraft safely; and (iv) Cockpit and outside visibility adequate to evaluate the performance of the applicant when an additional jump seat is provided for the examiner. (2) An applicant for a certificate or rating may use an aircraft with operating characteristics that preclude the applicant from performing all of the tasks required for the practical test. However, the applicant's certificate or rating, as appropriate, will be issued with an appropriate limitation. (c) Required controls. Except for lighter-than-air aircraft, and a glider without an engine, an aircraft used for a practical test must have engine power controls and flight controls that are easily reached and operable in a conventional manner by both pilots, unless the Examiner determines that the practical test can be conducted safely in the aircraft without the controls easily reached by the Examiner. (d) Simulated instrument flight equipment. An applicant for a practical test that involves maneuvering an aircraft solely by reference to instruments must furnish: (1) Equipment on board the aircraft that permits the applicant to pass the areas of operation that apply to the rating sought; and (2) A device that prevents the applicant from having visual reference outside the aircraft, but does not prevent the examiner from having visual reference outside the aircraft, and is otherwise acceptable to the Administrator. (e) Aircraft with single controls. A practical test may be conducted in an aircraft having a single set of controls, provided the: (1) Examiner agrees to conduct the test; (2) Test does not involve a demonstration of instrument skills; and (3) Proficiency of the applicant can be observed by an examiner who is in a position to observe the applicant. (f) Light-sport aircraft with a single seat. A practical test for a sport pilot certificate may be conducted in a light-sport aircraft having a single seat provided that the— (1) Examiner agrees to conduct the test; (2) Examiner is in a position to observe the operation of the aircraft and evaluate the proficiency of the applicant; and (3) Pilot certificate of an applicant successfully passing the test is issued a pilot certificate with a limitation “No passenger carriage and flight in a single-seat light-sport aircraft only.” [Docket 25910, 62 FR 16298, Apr. 4, 1997; Amdt. 61-103, 62 FR 40897, July 30, 1997; Amdt. 61-104, 63 FR 20286, Apr. 23, 1998; Amdt. 61-110, 69 FR 44865, July 27, 2004; Amdt. 61-124, 74 FR 42549, Aug. 21, 2009] Effective Date Note: Amendments to § 61.45 were published by Docket FAA-2023-1275, Amdt. 60-8, 89 FR 92484, Nov. 21, 2024, effective Jan. 21, 2025. § 61.47 Status of an examiner who is authorized by the Administrator to conduct practical tests. (a) An examiner represents the Administrator for the purpose of conducting practical tests for certificates and ratings issued under this part and to observe an applicant's ability to perform the areas of operation on the practical test.

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(b) The examiner is not the pilot in command of the aircraft during the practical test unless the examiner agrees to act in that capacity for the flight or for a portion of the flight by prior arrangement with: (1) The applicant; or (2) A person who would otherwise act as pilot in command of the flight or for a portion of the flight. (c) Notwithstanding the type of aircraft used during the practical test, the applicant and the examiner (and any other occupants authorized to be on board by the examiner) are not subject to the requirements or limitations for the carriage of passengers that are specified in this chapter. [Docket 25910, 62 FR 16298, Apr. 4, 1997; Amdt. 61-103, 62 FR 40897, July 30, 1997] Effective Date Note: Amendments to § 61.47 were published by Docket FAA-2023-1275, Amdt. 60-8, 89 FR 92484, Nov. 21, 2024, effective Jan. 21, 2025. § 61.49 Retesting after failure. (a) An applicant for a knowledge or practical test who fails that test may reapply for the test only after the applicant has received: (1) The necessary training from an authorized instructor who has determined that the applicant is proficient to pass the test; and (2) An endorsement from an authorized instructor who gave the applicant the additional training. (b) An applicant for a flight instructor certificate with an airplane category rating or, for a flight instructor certificate with a glider category rating, who has failed the practical test due to deficiencies in instructional proficiency on stall awareness, spin entry, spins, or spin recovery must: (1) Comply with the requirements of paragraph (a) of this section before being retested; (2) Bring an aircraft to the retest that is of the appropriate aircraft category for the rating sought and is certificated for spins; and (3) Demonstrate satisfactory instructional proficiency on stall awareness, spin entry, spins, and spin recovery to an examiner during the retest. § 61.51 Pilot logbooks. (a) Training time and aeronautical experience. Each person must document and record the following time in a manner acceptable to the Administrator: (1) Training and aeronautical experience used to meet the requirements for a certificate, rating, or flight review of this part. (2) The aeronautical experience required for meeting the recent flight experience requirements of this part. (b) Logbook entries. For the purposes of meeting the requirements of paragraph (a) of this section, each person must enter the following information for each flight or lesson logged: (1) General— (i) Date. (ii) Total flight time or lesson time. (iii) Location where the aircraft departed and arrived, or for lessons in a full flight simulator or flight training device, the location where the lesson occurred. (iv) Type and identification of aircraft, full flight simulator, flight training device, or aviation training device, as appropriate. (v) The name of a safety pilot, if required by § 91.109 of this chapter. (2) Type of pilot experience or training— (i) Solo. (ii) Pilot in command. (iii) Second in command. (iv) Flight and ground training received from an authorized instructor. (v) Training received in a full flight simulator, flight training device, or aviation training device from an authorized instructor. (3) Conditions of flight— (i) Day or night. (ii) Actual instrument. (iii) Simulated instrument conditions in flight, a full flight simulator, flight training device, or aviation training device. (iv) Use of night vision goggles in an aircraft in flight, in a full flight simulator, or in a flight training device. (c) Logging of pilot time. The pilot time described in this section may be used to: (1) Apply for a certificate or rating issued under this part or a privilege authorized under this part; or

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(2) Satisfy the recent flight experience requirements of this part. (d) Logging of solo flight time. Except for a student pilot performing the duties of pilot in command of an airship requiring more than one pilot flight crewmember, a pilot may log as solo flight time only that flight time when the pilot is the sole occupant of the aircraft. (e) Logging pilot-in-command flight time. (1) A sport, recreational, private, commercial, or airline transport pilot may log pilot in command flight time for flights- (i) Except when logging flight time under § 61.159(c), when the pilot is the sole manipulator of the controls of an aircraft for which the pilot is rated, or has sport pilot privileges for that category and class of aircraft, if the aircraft class rating is appropriate; (ii) When the pilot is the sole occupant in the aircraft; (iii) When the pilot, except for a holder of a sport or recreational pilot certificate, acts as pilot in command of an aircraft for which more than one pilot is required under the type certification of the aircraft or the regulations under which the flight is conducted; or (iv) When the pilot performs the duties of pilot in command while under the supervision of a qualified pilot in command provided— (A) The pilot performing the duties of pilot in command holds a commercial or airline transport pilot certificate and aircraft rating that is appropriate to the category and class of aircraft being flown, if a class rating is appropriate; (B) The pilot performing the duties of pilot in command is undergoing an approved pilot in command training program that includes ground and flight training on the following areas of operation— ( 1 ) Preflight preparation; ( 2 ) Preflight procedures; ( 3 ) Takeoff and departure; ( 4 ) In-flight maneuvers; ( 5 ) Instrument procedures; ( 6 ) Landings and approaches to landings; ( 7 ) Normal and abnormal procedures; ( 8 ) Emergency procedures; and ( 9 ) Postflight procedures; (C) The supervising pilot in command holds— ( 1 ) A commercial pilot certificate and flight instructor certificate, and aircraft rating that is appropriate to the category, class, and type of aircraft being flown, if a class or type rating is required; or ( 2 ) An airline transport pilot certificate and aircraft rating that is appropriate to the category, class, and type of aircraft being flown, if a class or type rating is required; and (D) The supervising pilot in command logs the pilot in command training in the pilot's logbook, certifies the pilot in command training in the pilot's logbook and attests to that certification with his or her signature, and flight instructor certificate number. (2) If rated to act as pilot in command of the aircraft, an airline transport pilot may log all flight time while acting as pilot in command of an operation requiring an airline transport pilot certificate. (3) A certificated flight instructor may log pilot in command flight time for all flight time while serving as the authorized instructor in an operation if the instructor is rated to act as pilot in command of that aircraft. (4) A student pilot may log pilot-in-command time only when the student pilot— (i) Is the sole occupant of the aircraft or is performing the duties of pilot of command of an airship requiring more than one pilot flight crewmember; (ii) Has a solo flight endorsement as required under § 61.87 of this part; and (iii) Is undergoing training for a pilot certificate or rating. (5) A commercial pilot or airline transport pilot may log all flight time while acting as pilot in command of an operation in accordance with § 135.99(c) of this chapter if the flight is conducted in accordance with an approved second-in-command professional development program that meets the requirements of § 135.99(c) of this chapter. (f) Logging second-in-command flight time. A person may log second-in-command time only for that flight time during which that person: (1) Is qualified in accordance with the second-in-command requirements of § 61.55, and occupies a crewmember station in an aircraft that requires more than one pilot by the aircraft's type certificate;

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(2) Holds the appropriate category, class, and instrument rating (if a class or instrument rating is required for the flight) for the aircraft being flown, and more than one pilot is required under the type certification of the aircraft or the regulations under which the flight is being conducted; (3) Serves as second-in-command in operations conducted in accordance with § 135.99(c) of this chapter when a second pilot is not required under the type certification of the aircraft or the regulations under which the flight is being conducted, provided the requirements in § 61.159(c) are satisfied; or (4) Is designated by a government entity as second-in-command when operating in accordance with paragraph (j)(4) of this section, provided the aircraft used is a large aircraft or turbo-jet powered airplane or holds or originally held a type certificate that requires a second pilot provided that: (i) Second-in-command time logged under this paragraph (f)(4) may not be used to meet the aeronautical experience requirements for the private or commercial pilot certificates or an instrument rating; and (ii) An applicant for an airline transport pilot certificate who logs second in command time under this paragraph (f)(4) in an aircraft that is not type certificated for two pilots issued an airline transport pilot certificate with the limitation “Holder does not meet the pilot in command aeronautical experience requirements of ICAO,” as prescribed under Article 39 of the Convention on International Civil Aviation if the applicant does not meet the ICAO requirements contained in Annex 1 “Personnel Licensing” to the Convention on International Civil Aviation. An applicant is entitled to an airline transport pilot certificate without the ICAO limitation specified under this paragraph (f)(4)(ii) when the applicant presents satisfactory evidence of having met the ICAO requirements and otherwise meets the aeronautical experience requirements of § 61.159 or § 61.161, as applicable. (g) Logging instrument time. (1) A person may log instrument time only for that flight time when the person operates the aircraft solely by reference to instruments under actual or simulated instrument flight conditions. (2) An authorized instructor may log instrument time when conducting instrument flight instruction in actual instrument flight conditions. (3) For the purposes of logging instrument time to meet the recent instrument experience requirements of § 61.57(c) of this part, the following information must be recorded in the person's logbook— (i) The location and type of each instrument approach accomplished; and (ii) The name of the safety pilot, if required. (4) A person may use time in a full flight simulator, flight training device, or aviation training device for acquiring instrument aeronautical experience for a pilot certificate or rating provided an authorized instructor is present to observe that time and signs the person's logbook or training record to verify the time and the content of the training session. (5) A person may use time in a full flight simulator, flight training device, or aviation training device for satisfying instrument recency experience requirements provided a logbook or training record is maintained to specify the training device, time, and the content. (h) Logging training time. (1) A person may log training time when that person receives training from an authorized instructor in an aircraft, full flight simulator, flight training device, or aviation training device. (2) The training time must be logged in a logbook and must: (i) Be endorsed in a legible manner by the authorized instructor; and (ii) Include a description of the training given, the length of the training lesson, and the authorized instructor's signature, certificate number, and certificate expiration date or recent experience end date, consistent with the requirements of § 61.197. (i) Presentation of required documents. (1) Persons must present their pilot certificate, medical certificate, logbook, or any other record required by this part for inspection upon a reasonable request by—

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(i) The Administrator; (ii) An authorized representative from the National Transportation Safety Board; or (iii) Any Federal, State, or local law enforcement officer. (2) A student pilot must carry the following items in the aircraft on all solo cross-country flights as evidence of the required authorized instructor clearances and endorsements— (i) Pilot logbook; (ii) Student pilot certificate; and (iii) Any other record required by this section. (3) A sport pilot must carry his or her logbook or other evidence of required authorized instructor endorsements on all flights. (4) A recreational pilot must carry his or her logbook with the required authorized instructor endorsements on all solo flights— (i) That exceed 50 nautical miles from the airport at which training was received; (ii) Within airspace that requires communication with air traffic control; (iii) Conducted between sunset and sunrise; or (iv) In an aircraft for which the pilot does not hold an appropriate category or class rating. (5) A flight instructor with a sport pilot rating must carry his or her logbook or other evidence of required authorized instructor endorsements on all flights when providing flight training. (j) Aircraft requirements for logging flight time. For a person to log flight time, the time must be acquired in an aircraft that is identified as an aircraft under § 61.5(b), and is— (1) An aircraft of U.S. registry with either a standard or special airworthiness certificate; (2) An aircraft of foreign registry with an airworthiness certificate that is approved by the aviation authority of a foreign country that is a Member State to the Convention on International Civil Aviation Organization; (3) A military aircraft under the direct operational control of the U.S. Armed Forces; or (4) An aircraft used to conduct a public aircraft operation under 49 U.S.C. 40102(a)(41) and 40125. (k) Logging night vision goggle time. (1) A person may log night vision goggle time only for the time the person uses night vision goggles as the primary visual reference of the surface and operates: (i) An aircraft during a night vision goggle operation; or (ii) A full flight simulator or flight training device with the lighting system adjusted to represent the period beginning 1 hour after sunset and ending 1 hour before sunrise. (2) An authorized instructor may log night vision goggle time when that person conducts training using night vision goggles as the primary visual reference of the surface and operates: (i) An aircraft during a night goggle operation; or (ii) A full flight simulator or flight training device with the lighting system adjusted to represent the period beginning 1 hour after sunset and ending 1 hour before sunrise. (3) To log night vision goggle time to meet the recent night vision goggle experience requirements under § 61.57(f), a person must log the information required under § 61.51(b). [Docket 25910, 62 FR 16298, Apr. 4, 1997; Amdt. 61-103, 62 FR 40897, July 30, 1997; Amdt. 61-104, 63 FR 20286, Apr. 23, 1998; Amdt. 61-110, 69 FR 44865, July 27, 2004; Amdt. 61-124, 74 FR 42549, Aug. 21, 2009; Amdt. 61-128, 76 FR 54105, Aug. 31, 2011; Amdt. 61-142, 83 FR 30277, June 27, 2018; Docket FAA-2023-0825, Amdt. 61-155, 89 FR 80050, Oct. 1, 2024; Docket FAA-2023-1351, Amdt. 61-156, 89 FR 80339, Oct. 2, 2024] Effective Date Note: Amendments to § 61.51 were published by Docket FAA-2023-1351, Amdt. 61-156, 89 FR 80050, Oct. 1, 2024, effective Mar. 1, 2027, and by Docket FAA-2023-1275, Amdt. 61-157, 89 FR 92484, Nov. 21, 2024, effective Jan. 21, 2025. § 61.52 Use of aeronautical experience obtained in ultralight vehicles. (a) Before January 31, 2012, a person may use aeronautical experience obtained in an ultralight vehicle to meet the requirements for the following certificates and ratings issued under this part: (1) A sport pilot certificate. (2) A flight instructor certificate with a sport pilot rating;

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(3) A private pilot certificate with a weight-shift-control or powered parachute category rating. (b) Before January 31, 2012, a person may use aeronautical experience obtained in an ultralight vehicle to meet the provisions of § 61.69. (c) A person using aeronautical experience obtained in an ultralight vehicle to meet the requirements for a certificate or rating specified in paragraph (a) of this section or the requirements of paragraph (b) of this section must— (1) Have been a registered ultralight pilot with an FAA-recognized ultralight organization when that aeronautical experience was obtained; (2) Document and log that aeronautical experience in accordance with the provisions for logging aeronautical experience specified by an FAA-recognized ultralight organization and in accordance with the provisions for logging pilot time in aircraft as specified in § 61.51; (3) Obtain the aeronautical experience in a category and class of vehicle corresponding to the rating or privilege sought; and (4) Provide the FAA with a certified copy of his or her ultralight pilot records from an FAA-recognized ultralight organization, that — (i) Document that he or she is a registered ultralight pilot with that FAA-recognized ultralight organization; and (ii) Indicate that he or she is recognized to operate the category and class of aircraft for which sport pilot privileges are sought. [Docket FAA-2001-11133, 69 FR 44865, July 27, 2004, as amended by Amdt. 61-125, 75 FR 5220, Feb. 1, 2010] § 61.53 Prohibition on operations during medical deficiency. (a) Operations that require a medical certificate. Except as provided for in paragraph (b) of this section, no person who holds a medical certificate issued under part 67 of this chapter may act as pilot in command, or in any other capacity as a required pilot flight crewmember, while that person: (1) Knows or has reason to know of any medical condition that would make the person unable to meet the requirements for the medical certificate necessary for the pilot operation; or (2) Is taking medication or receiving other treatment for a medical condition that results in the person being unable to meet the requirements for the medical certificate necessary for the pilot operation. (b) Operations that do not require a medical certificate. For operations provided for in § 61.23(b) of this part, a person shall not act as pilot in command, or in any other capacity as a required pilot flight crewmember, while that person knows or has reason to know of any medical condition that would make the person unable to operate the aircraft in a safe manner. (c) Operations requiring a medical certificate or a U.S. driver's license. For operations provided for in § 61.23(c), a person must meet the provisions of— (1) Paragraph (a) of this section if that person holds a medical certificate issued under part 67 of this chapter and does not hold a U.S. driver's license. (2) Paragraph (b) of this section if that person holds a U.S. driver's license. [Docket 25910, 62 FR 16298, Apr. 4, 1997, as amended by Amdt. 61-110, 69 FR 44866, July 27, 2004; Amdt. 61-124, 74 FR 42550, Aug. 21, 2009] § 61.55 Second-in-command qualifications. (a) A person may serve as a second-in-command of an aircraft type certificated for more than one required pilot flight crewmember or in operations requiring a second-in-command pilot flight crewmember only if that person holds: (1) At least a private pilot certificate with the appropriate category and class rating; and (2) An instrument rating or privilege that applies to the aircraft being flown if the flight is under IFR; and (3) At least a pilot type rating for the aircraft being flown unless the flight will be conducted as domestic flight operations within the United States airspace. (b) Except as provided in paragraph (e) of this section, no person may serve as a second-in-command of an aircraft type certificated for more than one required pilot flight crewmember or in operations requiring a second-in-command unless that person has within the previous 12 calendar months:

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(1) Become familiar with the following information for the specific type aircraft for which second-in-command privileges are requested— (i) Operational procedures applicable to the powerplant, equipment, and systems. (ii) Performance specifications and limitations. (iii) Normal, abnormal, and emergency operating procedures. (iv) Flight manual. (v) Placards and markings. (2) Except as provided in paragraph (g) of this section, performed and logged pilot time in the type of aircraft or in a flight simulator that represents the type of aircraft for which second-in-command privileges are requested, which includes— (i) Three takeoffs and three landings to a full stop as the sole manipulator of the flight controls; (ii) Engine-out procedures and maneuvering with an engine out while executing the duties of pilot in command; and (iii) Crew resource management training. (c) If a person complies with the requirements in paragraph (b) of this section in the calendar month before or the calendar month after the month in which compliance with this section is required, then that person is considered to have accomplished the training and practice in the month it is due. (d) A person may receive a second-in-command pilot type rating for an aircraft after satisfactorily completing the second-in-command familiarization training requirements under paragraph (b) of this section in that type of aircraft provided the training was completed within the 12 calendar months before the month of application for the SIC pilot type rating. The person must comply with the following application and pilot certification procedures: (1) The person who provided the training must sign the applicant's logbook or training record after each lesson in accordance with § 61.51(h)(2) of this part. In lieu of the trainer, it is permissible for a qualified management official within the organization to sign the applicant's training records or logbook and make the required endorsement. The qualified management official must hold the position of Chief Pilot, Director of Training, Director of Operations, or another comparable management position within the organization that provided the training and must be in a position to verify the applicant's training records and that the training was given. (2) The trainer or qualified management official must make an endorsement in the applicant's logbook that states “[Applicant's Name and Pilot Certificate Number] has demonstrated the skill and knowledge required for the safe operation of the [Type of Aircraft], relevant to the duties and responsibilities of a second in command.” (3) If the applicant's flight experience and/or training records are in an electronic form, the applicant must present a paper copy of those records containing the signature of the trainer or qualified management official to a Flight Standards office or Examiner. (4) The applicant must complete and sign an Airman Certificate and/or Rating Application, FAA Form 8710-1, and present the application to a Flight Standards office or to an Examiner. (5) The person who provided the ground and flight training to the applicant must sign the “Instructor's Recommendation” section of the Airman Certificate and/or Rating Application, FAA Form 8710-1. In lieu of the trainer, it is permissible for a qualified management official within the organization to sign the applicant's FAA Form 8710-1. (6) The applicant must appear in person at a Flight Standards office or to an Examiner with his or her logbook/training records and with the completed and signed FAA Form 8710-1. (7) There is no practical test required for the issuance of the “SIC Privileges Only” pilot type rating. (e) A person may receive a second-in-command pilot type rating for the type of aircraft after satisfactorily completing an approved second-in-command training program, proficiency check, or competency check under subpart K of part 91, part 125, or part 135, as appropriate, in that type of aircraft provided the training was completed within the 12 calendar months before the month of application for the SIC pilot type rating. The person must comply with the following application and pilot certification procedures:

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(1) The person who provided the training must sign the applicant's logbook or training record after each lesson in accordance with § 61.51(h)(2) of this part. In lieu of the trainer, it is permissible for a qualified management official within the organization to sign the applicant's training records or logbook and make the required endorsement. The qualified management official must hold the position of Chief Pilot, Director of Training, Director of Operations, or another comparable management position within the organization that provided the training and must be in a position to verify the applicant's training records and that the training was given. (2) The trainer or qualified management official must make an endorsement in the applicant's logbook that states “[Applicant's Name and Pilot Certificate Number] has demonstrated the skill and knowledge required for the safe operation of the [Type of Aircraft], relevant to the duties and responsibilities of a second in command.” (3) If the applicant's flight experience and/or training records are in an electronic form, the applicant must provide a paper copy of those records containing the signature of the trainer or qualified management official to a Flight Standards office, an Examiner, or an Aircrew Program Designee. (4) The applicant must complete and sign an Airman Certificate and/or Rating Application, FAA Form 8710-1, and present the application to a Flight Standards office or to an Examiner or to an authorized Aircrew Program Designee. (5) The person who provided the ground and flight training to the applicant must sign the “Instructor's Recommendation” section of the Airman Certificate and/or Rating Application, FAA Form 8710-1. In lieu of the trainer, it is permissible for a qualified management official within the organization to sign the applicant's FAA Form 8710-1. (6) The applicant must appear in person at a Flight Standards office or to an Examiner or to an authorized Aircrew Program Designee with his or her logbook/training records and with the completed and signed FAA Form 8710-1. (7) There is no practical test required for the issuance of the “SIC Privileges Only” pilot type rating. (f) The familiarization training requirements of paragraph (b) of this section do not apply to a person who is: (1) Designated and qualified as pilot in command under subpart K of part 91, part 121, 125, or 135 of this chapter in that specific type of aircraft; (2) Designated as the second in command under subpart K of part 91, part 121, 125, or 135 of this chapter in that specific type of aircraft; (3) Designated as the second in command in that specific type of aircraft for the purpose of receiving flight training required by this section, and no passengers or cargo are carried on the aircraft; or (4) Designated as a safety pilot for purposes required by § 91.109 of this chapter. (g) The holder of a commercial or airline transport pilot certificate with the appropriate category and class rating is not required to meet the requirements of paragraph (b)(2) of this section, provided the pilot: (1) Is conducting a ferry flight, aircraft flight test, or evaluation flight of an aircraft's equipment; and (2) Is not carrying any person or property on board the aircraft, other than necessary for conduct of the flight. (h) For the purpose of meeting the requirements of paragraph (b) of this section, a person may serve as second in command in that specific type aircraft, provided: (1) The flight is conducted under day VFR or day IFR; and (2) No person or property is carried on board the aircraft, other than necessary for conduct of the flight. (i) The training under paragraphs (b) and (d) of this section and the training, proficiency check, and competency check under paragraph (e) of this section may be accomplished in a flight simulator that is used in accordance with an approved training course conducted by a training center certificated under part 142 of this chapter or under subpart K of part 91, part 121 or part 135 of this chapter.

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(j) When an applicant for an initial second-in-command qualification for a particular type of aircraft receives all the training in a flight simulator, that applicant must satisfactorily complete one takeoff and one landing in an aircraft of the same type for which the qualification is sought. This requirement does not apply to an applicant who completes a proficiency check under part 121 or competency check under subpart K, part 91, part 125, or part 135 for the particular type of aircraft. [Docket 25910, 62 FR 16298, Apr. 4, 1997; Amdt. 61-103, 62 FR 40898, July 30, 1997; Amdt. 61-109, 68 FR 54559, Sept. 17, 2003; Amdt. 61-113, 70 FR 45271, Aug. 4, 2005; Amdt. 61-109, 70 FR 61890, Oct. 27, 2005; Amdt. 61-124, 74 FR 42550, Aug. 21, 2009; Amdt. 61-128, 76 FR 54105, Aug. 31, 2011; Amdt. 61-130, 78 FR 42374, July 15, 2013; Docket FAA-2018-0119, Amdt. 61-141, 83 FR 9170, Mar. 5, 2018] Effective Date Note: Amendments to § 61.55 were published by Docket FAA-2023-1275, Amdt. 60-8, 89 FR 92484, Nov. 21, 2024, effective Jan. 21, 2025. § 61.56 Flight review. (a) Except as provided in paragraphs (b) and (f) of this section, a flight review consists of a minimum of 1 hour of flight training and 1 hour of ground training. The review must include: (1) A review of the current general operating and flight rules of part 91 of this chapter; and (2) A review of those maneuvers and procedures that, at the discretion of the person giving the review, are necessary for the pilot to demonstrate the safe exercise of the privileges of the pilot certificate. (b) Glider pilots may substitute a minimum of three instructional flights in a glider, each of which includes a flight to traffic pattern altitude, in lieu of the 1 hour of flight training required in paragraph (a) of this section. (c) Except as provided in paragraphs (d), (e), and (g) of this section, no person may act as pilot in command of an aircraft unless, since the beginning of the 24th calendar month before the month in which that pilot acts as pilot in command, that person has— (1) Accomplished a flight review given in an aircraft for which that pilot is rated by an authorized instructor and (2) A logbook endorsed from an authorized instructor who gave the review certifying that the person has satisfactorily completed the review. (d) A person who has, within the period specified in paragraph (c) of this section, passed any of the following need not accomplish the flight review required by this section: (1) A pilot proficiency check or practical test conducted by an examiner, an approved pilot check airman, or a U.S. Armed Force, for a pilot certificate, rating, or operating privilege. (2) A practical test conducted by an examiner for one of the following: (i) The issuance of a flight instructor certificate, (ii) An additional rating on a flight instructor certificate, (iii) To meet the recent experience requirements for a flight instructor certificate in accordance with § 61.197(b)(1); or (iv) The reinstatement of flight instructor privileges in accordance with § 61.199(b)(2). (e) A person who has, within the period specified in paragraph (c) of this section, satisfactorily accomplished one or more phases of an FAA-sponsored pilot proficiency program need not accomplish the flight review required by this section. (f) A person who holds a flight instructor certificate need not accomplish the one hour of ground training specified in paragraph (a) of this section if that person has, within the period specified in paragraph (c) of this section, met one of the following requirements— (1) Satisfactorily completed the recent experience requirements for a flight instructor certificate under § 61.197; or (2) Reinstated the person's flight instructor privileges by satisfactorily completing an approved flight instructor refresher course in accordance with § 61.199(a)(1). (g) A student pilot need not accomplish the flight review required by this section provided the student pilot is undergoing training for a certificate and has a current solo flight endorsement as required under § 61.87 of this part.

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(h) The requirements of this section may be accomplished in combination with the requirements of § 61.57 and other applicable recent experience requirements at the discretion of the authorized instructor conducting the flight review. (i) A flight simulator or flight training device may be used to meet the flight review requirements of this section subject to the following conditions: (1) The flight simulator or flight training device must be used in accordance with an approved course conducted by a training center certificated under part 142 of this chapter. (2) Unless the flight review is undertaken in a flight simulator that is approved for landings, the applicant must meet the takeoff and landing requirements of § 61.57(a) or § 61.57(b) of this part. (3) The flight simulator or flight training device used must represent an aircraft or set of aircraft for which the pilot is rated. [Docket 25910, 62 FR 16298, Apr. 4, 1997; Amdt. 61-103, 62 FR 40898, July 30, 1997; Amdt. 61-104, 63 FR 20287, Apr. 23, 1998; Amdt. 61-124, 74 FR 42550, Aug. 21, 2009; Amdt. 61-131, 78 FR 56828, Sept. 16, 2013; Docket FAA-2023-0825, Amdt. 61-155, 89 FR 80050, Oct. 1, 2024] § 61.57 Recent flight experience: Pilot in command. (a) General experience. (1) Except as provided in paragraph (e) of this section, no person may act as a pilot in command of an aircraft carrying persons or of an aircraft certificated for more than one pilot flight crewmember unless that person has made at least three takeoffs and three landings within the preceding 90 days, and— (i) The person acted as the sole manipulator of the flight controls; and (ii) The required takeoffs and landings were performed in an aircraft of the same category, class, and type (if a type rating is required), and, if the aircraft to be flown is an airplane with a tailwheel, the takeoffs and landings must have been made to a full stop in an airplane with a tailwheel. (2) For the purpose of meeting the requirements of paragraph (a)(1) of this section, a person may act as a pilot in command of an aircraft under day VFR or day IFR, provided no persons or property are carried on board the aircraft, other than those necessary for the conduct of the flight. (3) The takeoffs and landings required by paragraph (a)(1) of this section may be accomplished in a full flight simulator or flight training device that is— (i) Approved by the Administrator for landings; and (ii) Used in accordance with an approved course conducted by a training center certificated under part 142 of this chapter. (b) Night takeoff and landing experience. (1) Except as provided in paragraph (e) of this section, no person may act as pilot in command of an aircraft carrying persons during the period beginning 1 hour after sunset and ending 1 hour before sunrise, unless within the preceding 90 days that person has made at least three takeoffs and three landings to a full stop during the period beginning 1 hour after sunset and ending 1 hour before sunrise, and— (i) That person acted as sole manipulator of the flight controls; and (ii) The required takeoffs and landings were performed in an aircraft of the same category, class, and type (if a type rating is required). (2) The takeoffs and landings required by paragraph (b)(1) of this section may be accomplished in a full flight simulator that is— (i) Approved by the Administrator for takeoffs and landings, if the visual system is adjusted to represent the period described in paragraph (b)(1) of this section; and (ii) Used in accordance with an approved course conducted by a training center certificated under part 142 of this chapter. (c) Instrument experience. Except as provided in paragraph (e) of this section, a person may act as pilot in command under IFR or weather conditions less than the minimums prescribed for VFR only if:

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(1) Use of an airplane, powered-lift, helicopter, or airship for maintaining instrument experience. Within the 6 calendar months preceding the month of the flight, that person performed and logged at least the following tasks and iterations in an airplane, powered-lift, helicopter, or airship, as appropriate, for the instrument rating privileges to be maintained in actual weather conditions, or under simulated conditions using a view-limiting device that involves having performed the following— (i) Six instrument approaches. (ii) Holding procedures and tasks. (iii) Intercepting and tracking courses through the use of navigational electronic systems. (2) Use of a full flight simulator, flight training device, or aviation training device for maintaining instrument experience. A pilot may accomplish the requirements in paragraph (c)(1) of this section in a full flight simulator, flight training device, or aviation training device provided the device represents the category of aircraft for the instrument rating privileges to be maintained and the pilot performs the tasks and iterations in simulated instrument conditions. A person may complete the instrument experience in any combination of an aircraft, full flight simulator, flight training device, or aviation training device. (3) Maintaining instrument recent experience in a glider. (i) Within the 6 calendar months preceding the month of the flight, that person must have performed and logged at least the following instrument currency tasks, iterations, and flight time, and the instrument currency must have been performed in actual weather conditions or under simulated weather conditions— (A) One hour of instrument flight time in a glider or in a single engine airplane using a view-limiting device while performing interception and tracking courses through the use of navigation electronic systems. (B) Two hours of instrument flight time in a glider or a single engine airplane with the use of a view-limiting device while performing straight glides, turns to specific headings, steep turns, flight at various airspeeds, navigation, and slow flight and stalls. (ii) Before a pilot is allowed to carry a passenger in a glider under IFR or in weather conditions less than the minimums prescribed for VFR, that pilot must— (A) Have logged and performed 2 hours of instrument flight time in a glider within the 6 calendar months preceding the month of the flight. (B) Use a view-limiting-device while practicing performance maneuvers, performance airspeeds, navigation, slow flight, and stalls. (d) Instrument proficiency check. (1) Except as provided in paragraph (e) of this section, a person who has failed to meet the instrument experience requirements of paragraph (c) of this section for more than six calendar months may reestablish instrument currency only by completing an instrument proficiency check. The instrument proficiency check must include the areas of operation contained in the applicable Airman Certification Standards (incorporated by reference, see § 61.14) as listed in appendix A of this part as appropriate to the rating held. (2) The instrument proficiency check must be— (i) In an aircraft that is appropriate to the aircraft category; (ii) For other than a glider, in a full flight simulator or flight training device that is representative of the aircraft category; or (iii) For a glider, in a single-engine airplane or a glider. (3) The instrument proficiency check must be given by— (i) An examiner; (ii) A person authorized by the U.S. Armed Forces to conduct instrument flight tests, provided the person being tested is a member of the U.S. Armed Forces; (iii) A company check pilot who is authorized to conduct instrument flight tests under part 121, 125, or 135 of this chapter or subpart K of part 91 of this chapter, and provided that both the check pilot and the pilot being tested are employees of that operator or fractional ownership program manager, as applicable; (iv) An authorized instructor; or

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(v) A person approved by the Administrator to conduct instrument practical tests. (e) Exceptions. (1) Paragraphs (a) and (b) of this section do not apply to a pilot in command who is employed by a part 119 certificate holder authorized to conduct operations under part 125 when the pilot is engaged in a flight operation for that certificate holder if the pilot in command is in compliance with §§ 125.281 and 125.285 of this chapter. (2) This section does not apply to a pilot in command who is employed by a part 119 certificate holder authorized to conduct operations under part 121 when the pilot is engaged in a flight operation under part 91 or 121 for that certificate holder if the pilot in command complies with §§ 121.436 and 121.439 of this chapter. (3) This section does not apply to a pilot in command who is employed by a part 119 certificate holder authorized to conduct operations under part 135 when the pilot is engaged in a flight operation under parts 91 or 135 for that certificate holder if the pilot in command is in compliance with §§ 135.243 and 135.247 of this chapter. (4) Paragraph (b) of this section does not apply to a pilot in command of a turbine-powered airplane that is type certificated for more than one pilot crewmember, provided that pilot has complied with the requirements of paragraph (e)(4)(i) or (ii) of this section: (i) The pilot in command must hold at least a commercial pilot certificate with the appropriate category, class, and type rating for each airplane that is type certificated for more than one pilot crewmember that the pilot seeks to operate under this alternative, and: (A) That pilot must have logged at least 1,500 hours of aeronautical experience as a pilot; (B) In each airplane that is type certificated for more than one pilot crewmember that the pilot seeks to operate under this alternative, that pilot must have accomplished and logged the daytime takeoff and landing recent flight experience of paragraph (a) of this section, as the sole manipulator of the flight controls; (C) Within the preceding 90 days prior to the operation of that airplane that is type certificated for more than one pilot crewmember, the pilot must have accomplished and logged at least 15 hours of flight time in the type of airplane that the pilot seeks to operate under this alternative; and (D) That pilot has accomplished and logged at least 3 takeoffs and 3 landings to a full stop, as the sole manipulator of the flight controls, in a turbine-powered airplane that requires more than one pilot crewmember. The pilot must have performed the takeoffs and landings during the period beginning 1 hour after sunset and ending 1 hour before sunrise within the preceding 6 months prior to the month of the flight. (ii) The pilot in command must hold at least a commercial pilot certificate with the appropriate category, class, and type rating for each airplane that is type certificated for more than one pilot crewmember that the pilot seeks to operate under this alternative, and: (A) That pilot must have logged at least 1,500 hours of aeronautical experience as a pilot; (B) In each airplane that is type certificated for more than one pilot crewmember that the pilot seeks to operate under this alternative, that pilot must have accomplished and logged the daytime takeoff and landing recent flight experience of paragraph (a) of this section, as the sole manipulator of the flight controls; (C) Within the preceding 90 days prior to the operation of that airplane that is type certificated for more than one pilot crewmember, the pilot must have accomplished and logged at least 15 hours of flight time in the type of airplane that the pilot seeks to operate under this alternative; and (D) Within the preceding 12 months prior to the month of the flight, the pilot must have completed a training program that is approved under part 142 of this chapter. The approved training program must have required and the pilot must have performed, at least 6 takeoffs and 6 landings to a full stop as the sole manipulator of the controls in a full flight simulator that is representative of a turbine-powered airplane that requires more than one pilot crewmember. The full flight simulator's visual system must have been adjusted to represent the period beginning 1 hour after sunset and ending 1 hour before sunrise.

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(5) Paragraphs (a) and (b) of this section do not apply to a person receiving flight training from an authorized instructor, provided: (i) The flight training is limited to the purpose of meeting the requirements of paragraphs (a) and (b) of this section; (ii) Notwithstanding the provisions of paragraphs (a) and (b) of this section, the person receiving flight training meets all other requirements to act as pilot in command of the aircraft; and (iii) The authorized instructor and the person receiving flight training are the sole occupants of the aircraft. (6) Paragraphs (a) and (b) of this section do not apply to the examiner or the applicant during a practical test required by this part. (f) Night vision goggle operating experience. (1) A person may act as pilot in command in a night vision goggle operation with passengers on board only if, within 2 calendar months preceding the month of the flight, that person performs and logs the following tasks as the sole manipulator of the controls on a flight during a night vision goggle operation— (i) Three takeoffs and three landings, with each takeoff and landing including a climbout, cruise, descent, and approach phase of flight (only required if the pilot wants to use night vision goggles during the takeoff and landing phases of the flight). (ii) Three hovering tasks (only required if the pilot wants to use night vision goggles when operating helicopters or powered-lifts during the hovering phase of flight). (iii) Three area departure and area arrival tasks. (iv) Three tasks of transitioning from aided night flight ( aided night flight means that the pilot uses night vision goggles to maintain visual surface reference) to unaided night flight ( unaided night flight means that the pilot does not use night vision goggles) and back to aided night flight. (v) Three night vision goggle operations, or when operating helicopters or powered-lifts, six night vision goggle operations. (2) A person may act as pilot in command using night vision goggles only if, within the 4 calendar months preceding the month of the flight, that person performs and logs the tasks listed in paragraph (f)(1)(i) through (v) of this section as the sole manipulator of the controls during a night vision goggle operation. (g) Night vision goggle proficiency check. A person must either meet the night vision goggle experience requirements of paragraphs (f)(1) or (f)(2) of this section or pass a night vision goggle proficiency check to act as pilot in command using night vision goggles. The proficiency check must be performed in the category of aircraft that is appropriate to the night vision goggle operation for which the person is seeking the night vision goggle privilege or in a full flight simulator or flight training device that is representative of that category of aircraft. The check must consist of the tasks listed in § 61.31(k), and the check must be performed by: (1) An Examiner who is qualified to perform night vision goggle operations in that same aircraft category and class; (2) A person who is authorized by the U.S. Armed Forces to perform night vision goggle proficiency checks, provided the person being administered the check is also a member of the U.S. Armed Forces; (3) A company check pilot who is authorized to perform night vision goggle proficiency checks under parts 121, 125, or 135 of this chapter, provided that both the check pilot and the pilot being tested are employees of that operator; (4) An authorized flight instructor who is qualified to perform night vision goggle operations in that same aircraft category and class; (5) A person who is qualified as pilot in command for night vision goggle operations in accordance with paragraph (f) of this section; or (6) A person approved by the FAA to perform night vision goggle proficiency checks. [Docket 25910, 62 FR 16298, Apr. 4, 1997; Amdt. 61-103, 62 FR 40898, July 30, 1997]

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Editorial Note: For Federal Register citations affecting § 61.57, see the List of CFR Sections Affected, which appears in the Finding Aids section of the printed volume and at www.govinfo.gov.

Effective Date Note: Amendments to § 61.57 were published by Docket FAA-2023-1275, Amdt. 60-8, 89 FR 92485, Nov. 21, 2024, effective Jan. 21, 2025. § 61.58 Pilot-in-command proficiency check: Operation of an aircraft that requires more than one pilot flight crewmember or is turbojet-powered. (a) Except as otherwise provided in this section, to serve as pilot in command of an aircraft that is type certificated for more than one required pilot flight crewmember or is turbojet-powered, a person must— (1) Within the preceding 12 calendar months, complete a pilot-in-command proficiency check in an aircraft that is type certificated for more than one required pilot flight crewmember or is turbojet-powered; and (2) Within the preceding 24 calendar months, complete a pilot-in-command proficiency check in the particular type of aircraft in which that person will serve as pilot in command, that is type certificated for more than one required pilot flight crewmember or is turbojet-powered. (b) This section does not apply to persons conducting operations under subpart K of part 91, part 121, 125, 133, 135, or 137 of this chapter, or persons maintaining continuing qualification under an Advanced Qualification program approved under subpart Y of part 121 of this chapter. (c) The pilot-in-command proficiency check given in accordance with the provisions of subpart K of part 91, part 121, 125, or 135 of this chapter may be used to satisfy the requirements of this section. (d) The pilot-in-command proficiency check required by paragraph (a) of this section may be accomplished by satisfactory completion of one of the following: (1) A pilot-in-command proficiency check conducted by a person authorized by the Administrator, consisting of the areas of operation contained in the applicable Airman Certification Standards or Practical Test Standards (incorporated by reference, see § 61.14); as listed in appendix A of this part appropriate to the rating held, in an aircraft that is type certificated for more than one pilot flight crewmember or is turbojet powered; (2) The practical test required for a type rating, in an aircraft that is type certificated for more than one required pilot flight crewmember or is turbojet-powered; (3) The initial or periodic practical test required for the issuance of a pilot examiner or check airman designation, in an aircraft that is type certificated for more than one required pilot flight crewmember or is turbojet-powered; (4) A pilot proficiency check administered by a U.S. Armed Force that qualifies the military pilot for pilot-in-command designation with instrument privileges, and was performed in a military aircraft that the military requires to be operated by more than one pilot flight crewmember or is turbojet-powered; (5) For a pilot authorized by the Administrator to operate an experimental turbojet-powered aircraft that possesses, by original design or through modification, more than a single seat, the required proficiency check for all of the experimental turbojet-powered aircraft for which the pilot holds an authorization may be accomplished by completing any one of the following: (i) A single proficiency check, conducted by an examiner authorized by the Administrator, in any one of the experimental turbojet-powered aircraft for which the airman holds an authorization to operate if conducted within the prior 12 months; (ii) A single proficiency check, conducted by an examiner authorized by the Administrator, in any experimental turbojet-powered aircraft ( e.g. , if a pilot acquires a new authorization to operate an additional experimental turbojet-powered aircraft, the check for that new authorization will meet the intent), if conducted within the prior 12 months; (iii) Current qualification under an Advanced Qualification Program (AQP) under subpart Y of part 121 of this chapter; (iv) Any proficiency check conducted under subpart K of part 91, part 121, or part 135 of this chapter within the prior 12 months if conducted in a turbojet-powered aircraft; or

(v) Any other § 61.58 proficiency check conducted within the prior 12 months if conducted in a turbojet-powered aircraft. (e) The pilot of a multi-seat experimental turbojet-powered aircraft who has not received a proficiency check within the prior 12 months in accordance with this section may continue to operate such aircraft in accordance with the pilot's authorizations. However, the pilot is prohibited from carriage of any persons in any experimental turbojet-powered aircraft with the exception of those individuals authorized by the Administrator to conduct training, conduct flight checks, or perform pilot certification functions in such aircraft, and only during flights specifically related to training, flight checks, or certification in such aircraft. (f) This section will not apply to a pilot authorized by the Administrator to serve as pilot in command in experimental turbojet-powered aircraft that possesses, by original design, a single seat, when operating such single-seat aircraft. (g) A check or test described in paragraphs (d)(1) through (5) of this section may be accomplished in a flight simulator under part 142 of this chapter, subject to the following: (1) Except as provided for in paragraphs (g)(2) and (3) of this section, if an otherwise qualified and approved flight simulator used for a pilot-in-command proficiency check is not qualified and approved for a specific required maneuver— (i) The training center must annotate, in the applicant's training record, the maneuver or maneuvers omitted; and (ii) Prior to acting as pilot in command, the pilot must demonstrate proficiency in each omitted maneuver in an aircraft or flight simulator qualified and approved for each omitted maneuver. (2) If the flight simulator used pursuant to paragraph (g) of this section is not qualified and approved for circling approaches— (i) The applicant's record must include the statement, “Proficiency in circling approaches not demonstrated”; and (ii) The applicant may not perform circling approaches as pilot in command when weather conditions are less than the basic VFR conditions described in § 91.155 of this chapter, until proficiency in circling approaches has been successfully demonstrated in a flight simulator qualified and approved for circling approaches or in an aircraft to a person authorized by the Administrator to conduct the check required by this section. (3) If the flight simulator used pursuant to paragraph (g) of this section is not qualified and approved for landings, the applicant must— (i) Hold a type rating in the airplane represented by the simulator; and (ii) Have completed within the preceding 90 days at least three takeoffs and three landings (one to a full stop) as the sole manipulator of the flight controls in the type airplane for which the pilot-in-command proficiency check is sought. (h) For the purpose of meeting the pilot-in-command proficiency check requirements of paragraph (a) of this section, a person may act as pilot in command of a flight under day VFR conditions or day IFR conditions if no person or property is carried, other than as necessary to demonstrate compliance with this part. (i) If a pilot takes the pilot-in-command proficiency check required by this section in the calendar month before or the calendar month after the month in which it is due, the pilot is considered to have taken it in the month in which it was due for the purpose of computing when the next pilot-in-command proficiency check is due. [Docket 25910, 62 FR 40899, July 30, 1997, as amended by Amdt. 61-109, 68 FR 54559, Sept. 17, 2003; Amdt. 61-112, 70 FR 54814, Sept. 16, 2005; Amdt. 61-128, 76 FR 54106, Aug. 31, 2011; 76 FR 63184, Oct. 12, 2011; Docket FAA-2022-1355, Amdt. 61-151, 87 FR 75845, Dec. 9, 2022; Docket FAA-2022-1463, Amdt. 61-153, 89 FR 22517, Apr. 1, 2024]

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§ 61.59 Falsification, reproduction, or alteration of applications, certificates, logbooks, reports, or records. (a) No person may make or cause to be made: (1) Any fraudulent or intentionally false statement on any application for a certificate, rating, authorization, or duplicate thereof, issued under this part; (2) Any fraudulent or intentionally false entry in any logbook, record, or report that is required to be kept, made, or used to show compliance with any requirement for the issuance or exercise of the privileges of any certificate, rating, or authorization under this part; (3) Any reproduction for fraudulent purpose of any certificate, rating, or authorization, under this part; or (4) Any alteration of any certificate, rating, or authorization under this part. (b) The commission of an act prohibited under paragraph (a) of this section is a basis for suspending or revoking any airman certificate, rating, or authorization held by that person. § 61.60 Change of address. The holder of a pilot, flight instructor, or ground instructor certificate who has made a change in permanent mailing address may not, after 30 days from that date, exercise the privileges of the certificate unless the holder has notified in writing the FAA, Airman Certification Branch, P.O. Box 25082, Oklahoma City, OK 73125, of the new permanent mailing address, or if the permanent mailing address includes a post office box number, then the holder's current residential address. Subpart B—Aircraft Ratings and Pilot Authorizations § 61.61 Applicability. This subpart prescribes the requirements for the issuance of additional aircraft ratings after a pilot certificate is issued, issuance of a type rating concurrently with a pilot certificate, and the requirements for and limitations of pilot authorizations issued by the Administrator. [Docket FAA-2006-26661, 76 FR 78143, Dec. 16, 2011] § 61.63 Additional aircraft ratings (other than for ratings at the airline transport pilot certification level). (a) General. For an additional aircraft rating on a pilot certificate, other than for an airline transport pilot certificate, a person must meet the requirements of this section appropriate to the additional aircraft rating sought. (b) Additional aircraft category rating. A person who applies to add a category rating to a pilot certificate: (1) Must complete the training and have the applicable aeronautical experience. (2) Must have a logbook or training record endorsement from an authorized instructor attesting that the person was found competent in the appropriate aeronautical knowledge areas and proficient in the appropriate areas of operation. (3) Must pass the practical test. (4) Need not take an additional knowledge test, provided the applicant holds an airplane, rotorcraft, powered-lift, weight-shift-control aircraft, powered parachute, or airship rating at that pilot certificate level. (c) Additional aircraft class rating. A person who applies for an additional class rating on a pilot certificate: (1) Must have a logbook or training record endorsement from an authorized instructor attesting that the person was found competent in the appropriate aeronautical knowledge areas and proficient in the appropriate areas of operation. (2) Must pass the practical test. (3) Need not meet the specified training time requirements prescribed by this part that apply to the pilot certificate for the aircraft class rating sought; unless, the person only holds a lighter-than-air category rating with a balloon class rating and is seeking an airship class rating, then that person must receive the specified training time requirements and possess the appropriate aeronautical experience. (4) Need not take an additional knowledge test, provided the applicant holds an airplane, rotorcraft, powered-lift, weight-shift-control aircraft, powered parachute, or airship rating at that pilot certificate level.

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(d) Additional aircraft type rating. Except as provided under paragraph (d)(6) of this section, a person who applies for an aircraft type rating or an aircraft type rating to be completed concurrently with an aircraft category or class rating— (1) Must hold or concurrently obtain an appropriate instrument rating, except as provided in paragraph (e) of this section. (2) Must have a logbook or training record endorsement from an authorized instructor attesting that the person is competent in the appropriate aeronautical knowledge areas and proficient in the appropriate areas of operation at the airline transport pilot certification level. (3) Must pass the practical test at the airline transport pilot certification level. (4) Must perform the practical test in actual or simulated instrument conditions, except as provided in paragraph (e) of this section. (5) Need not take an additional knowledge test if the applicant holds an airplane, rotorcraft, powered-lift, or airship rating on the pilot certificate. (6) In the case of a pilot employee of a part 121 or part 135 certificate holder or of a fractional ownership program manager under subpart K of part 91 of this chapter, the pilot must— (i) Meet the appropriate requirements under paragraphs (d)(1), (d)(3), and (d)(4) of this section; and (ii) Receive a flight training record endorsement from the certificate holder attesting that the person completed the certificate holder's approved ground and flight training program. (e) Aircraft not capable of instrument maneuvers and procedures. (1) An applicant for a type rating or a type rating in addition to an aircraft category and/or class rating who provides an aircraft that is not capable of the instrument maneuvers and procedures required on the practical test: (i) May apply for the type rating, but the rating will be limited to “VFR only.” (ii) May have the “VFR only” limitation removed for that aircraft type after the applicant: (A) Passes a practical test in that type of aircraft in actual or simulated instrument conditions; (B) Passes a practical test in that type of aircraft on the appropriate instrument maneuvers and procedures in § 61.157; or (C) Becomes qualified under § 61.73(d) for that type of aircraft. (2) When an instrument rating is issued to a person who holds one or more type ratings, the amended pilot certificate must bear the “VFR only” limitation for each aircraft type rating that the person did not demonstrate instrument competency. (f) Multiengine airplane with a single-pilot station. An applicant for a type rating, at other than the ATP certification level, in a multiengine airplane with a single-pilot station must perform the practical test in the multi-seat version of that airplane, or the practical test may be performed in the single-seat version of that airplane if the Examiner is in a position to observe the applicant during the practical test and there is no multi-seat version of that multiengine airplane. (g) Single engine airplane with a single-pilot station. An applicant for a type rating, at other than the ATP certification level, in a single engine airplane with a single-pilot station must perform the practical test in the multi-seat version of that single engine airplane, or the practical test may be performed in the single-seat version of that airplane if the Examiner is in a position to observe the applicant during the practical test and there is no multi-seat version of that single engine airplane. (h) Aircraft category and class rating for the operation of aircraft with an experimental certificate. A person holding a recreational, private, or commercial pilot certificate may apply for a category and class rating limited to a specific make and model of experimental aircraft, provided— (1) The person logged 5 hours flight time while acting as pilot in command in the same category, class, make, and model of aircraft.

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(2) The person received a logbook endorsement from an authorized instructor who determined the pilot's proficiency to act as pilot in command of the same category, class, make, and model of aircraft. (3) The flight time specified under paragraph (h)(1) of this section was logged between September 1, 2004 and August 31, 2005. (i) Waiver authority. An Examiner who conducts a practical test may waive any task for which the FAA has provided waiver authority. [Docket FAA-2006-26661, 74 FR 42552, Aug. 21, 2009, as amended by Amdt. 61-125, 75 FR 5220, Feb. 1, 2010] Effective Date Note: Amendments to § 61.63 were published by Docket FAA-2023-1275, Amdt. 60-8, 89 FR 92485, Nov. 21, 2024, effective Jan. 21, 2025. § 61.64 Use of a flight simulator and flight training device. (a) Use of a flight simulator or flight training device. If an applicant for a certificate or rating uses a flight simulator or flight training device for training or any portion of the practical test, the flight simulator and flight training device— (1) Must represent the category, class, and type (if a type rating is applicable) for the rating sought; and (2) Must be qualified and approved by the Administrator and used in accordance with an approved course of training under part 141 or part 142 of this chapter; or under part 121 or part 135 of this chapter, provided the applicant is a pilot employee of that air carrier operator. (b) Except as provided in paragraph (f) of this section, if an airplane is not used during the practical test for a type rating for a turbojet airplane (except for preflight inspection), an applicant must accomplish the entire practical test in a Level C or higher flight simulator and the applicant must— (1) Hold a type rating in a turbojet airplane of the same class of airplane for which the type rating is sought, and that type rating may not contain a supervised operating experience limitation; (2) Have 1,000 hours of flight time in two different turbojet airplanes of the same class of airplane for which the type rating is sought; (3) Have been appointed by the U.S. Armed Forces as pilot in command in a turbojet airplane of the same class of airplane for which the type rating is sought; (4) Have 500 hours of flight time in the same type of airplane for which the type rating is sought; or (5) Have logged at least 2,000 hours of flight time, of which 500 hours were in turbine-powered airplanes of the same class of airplane for which the type rating is sought. (c) Except as provided in paragraph (f) of this section, if an airplane is not used during the practical test for a type rating for a turbo-propeller airplane (except for preflight inspection), an applicant must accomplish the entire practical test in a Level C or higher flight simulator and the applicant must— (1) Hold a type rating in a turbo-propeller airplane of the same class of airplane for which the type rating is sought, and that type rating may not contain a supervised operating experience limitation; (2) Have 1,000 hours of flight time in two different turbo-propeller airplanes of the same class of airplane for which the type rating is sought; (3) Have been appointed by the U.S. Armed Forces as pilot in command in a turbo-propeller airplane of the same class of airplane for which the type rating is sought; (4) Have 500 hours of flight time in the same type of airplane for which the type rating is sought; or (5) Have logged at least 2,000 hours of flight time, of which 500 hours were in turbine-powered airplanes of the same class of airplane for which the type rating is sought. (d) Except as provided in paragraph (f) of this section, if a helicopter is not used during the practical test for a type rating in a helicopter (except for preflight inspection), an applicant must accomplish the entire practical test in a Level C or higher flight simulator and the applicant must meet one of the following requirements— (1) Hold a type rating in a helicopter and that type rating may not contain the supervised operating experience limitation;

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(2) Have been appointed by the U.S. Armed Forces as pilot in command of a helicopter; (3) Have 500 hours of flight time in the type of helicopter; or (4) Have 1,000 hours of flight time in two different types of helicopters. (e) Except as provided in paragraph (f) of this section, if a powered-lift is not used during the practical test for a type rating in a powered-lift (except for preflight inspection), an applicant must accomplish the entire practical test in a Level C or higher flight simulator and the applicant must meet one of the following requirements— (1) Hold a type rating in a powered-lift without a supervised operating experience limitation; (2) Have been appointed by the U.S. Armed Forces as pilot in command of a powered-lift; (3) Have 500 hours of flight time in the type of powered-lift for which the rating is sought; or (4) Have 1,000 hours of flight time in two different types of powered-lifts. (f) If the applicant does not meet one of the experience requirements of paragraphs (b)(1) through (5), (c)(1) through (5), (d)(1) through (4) or (e)(1) through (4) of this section, as appropriate to the type rating sought, then— (1) The applicant must complete the following tasks on the practical test in an aircraft appropriate to category, class, and type for the rating sought: Preflight inspection, normal takeoff, normal instrument landing system approach, missed approach, and normal landing; or (2) The applicant's pilot certificate will be issued with a limitation that states: “The [name of the additional type rating] is subject to pilot in command limitations,” and the applicant is restricted from serving as pilot in command in an aircraft of that type. (g) The limitation described under paragraph (f)(2) of this section may be removed from the pilot certificate if the applicant complies with the following— (1) Performs 25 hours of flight time in an aircraft of the category, class, and type for which the limitation applies under the direct observation of the pilot in command who holds a category, class, and type rating, without limitations, for the aircraft; (2) Logs each flight and the pilot in command who observed the flight attests in writing to each flight; (3) Obtains the flight time while performing the duties of pilot in command; and (4) Presents evidence of the supervised operating experience to any Examiner or Flight Standards office to have the limitation removed. [Docket FAA-2006-26661, 76 FR 78143, Dec. 16, 2011, as amended by Docket FAA-2018-0119, Amdt. 61-141, 83 FR 9170, Mar. 5, 2018] Effective Date Note: Amendments to § 61.64 were published by Docket FAA-2023-1275, Amdt. 60-8, 89 FR 92485, Nov. 21, 2024, effective Jan. 21, 2025. § 61.65 Instrument rating requirements. (a) General. A person who applies for an instrument rating must: (1) Hold at least a current private pilot certificate, or be concurrently applying for a private pilot certificate, with an airplane, helicopter, or powered-lift rating appropriate to the instrument rating sought; (2) Be able to read, speak, write, and understand the English language. If the applicant is unable to meet any of these requirements due to a medical condition, the Administrator may place such operating limitations on the applicant's pilot certificate as are necessary for the safe operation of the aircraft; (3) Receive and log ground training from an authorized instructor or accomplish a home-study course of training on the aeronautical knowledge areas of paragraph (b) of this section that apply to the instrument rating sought; (4) Receive a logbook or training record endorsement from an authorized instructor certifying that the person is prepared to take the required knowledge test; (5) Receive and log training on the areas of operation of paragraph (c) of this section from an authorized instructor in an aircraft, full flight simulator, or flight training device that represents an airplane, helicopter, or powered-lift appropriate to the instrument rating sought;

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(6) Receive a logbook or training record endorsement from an authorized instructor certifying that the person is prepared to take the required practical test; (7) Pass the required knowledge test on the aeronautical knowledge areas of paragraph (b) of this section; however, an applicant is not required to take another knowledge test when that person already holds an instrument rating; and (8) Pass the required practical test on the areas of operation in paragraph (c) of this section in— (i) An airplane, helicopter, or powered-lift appropriate to the rating sought; or (ii) A full flight simulator or a flight training device appropriate to the rating sought and for the specific maneuver or instrument approach procedure performed. If an approved flight training device is used for the practical test, the instrument approach procedures conducted in that flight training device are limited to one precision and one nonprecision approach, provided the flight training device is approved for the procedure performed. (b) Aeronautical knowledge. A person who applies for an instrument rating must have received and logged ground training from an authorized instructor or accomplished a home-study course on the following aeronautical knowledge areas that apply to the instrument rating sought: (1) Federal Aviation Regulations of this chapter that apply to flight operations under IFR; (2) Appropriate information that applies to flight operations under IFR in the “Aeronautical Information Manual;” (3) Air traffic control system and procedures for instrument flight operations; (4) IFR navigation and approaches by use of navigation systems; (5) Use of IFR en route and instrument approach procedure charts; (6) Procurement and use of aviation weather reports and forecasts and the elements of forecasting weather trends based on that information and personal observation of weather conditions; (7) Safe and efficient operation of aircraft under instrument flight rules and conditions; (8) Recognition of critical weather situations and windshear avoidance; (9) Aeronautical decision making and judgment; and (10) Crew resource management, including crew communication and coordination. (c) Flight proficiency. A person who applies for an instrument rating must receive and log training from an authorized instructor in an aircraft, or in a full flight simulator or flight training device, in accordance with paragraph (g) of this section, that includes the following areas of operation: (1) Preflight preparation; (2) Preflight procedures; (3) Air traffic control clearances and procedures; (4) Flight by reference to instruments; (5) Navigation systems; (6) Instrument approach procedures; (7) Emergency operations; and (8) Postflight procedures. (d) Aeronautical experience for the instrument-airplane rating. A person who applies for an instrument-airplane rating must have logged: (1) Except as provided in paragraph (g) of this section, 50 hours of cross-country flight time as pilot in command, of which 10 hours must have been in an airplane; and (2) Forty hours of actual or simulated instrument time in the areas of operation listed in paragraph (c) of this section, of which 15 hours must have been received from an authorized instructor who holds an instrument-airplane rating, and the instrument time includes: (i) Three hours of instrument flight training from an authorized instructor in an airplane that is appropriate to the instrument-airplane rating within 2 calendar months before the date of the practical test; and (ii) Instrument flight training on cross country flight procedures, including one cross country flight in an airplane with an authorized instructor, that is performed under instrument flight rules, when a flight plan has been filed with an air traffic control facility, and that involves—

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(A) A flight of 250 nautical miles along airways or by directed routing from an air traffic control facility; (B) An instrument approach at each airport; and (C) Three different kinds of approaches with the use of navigation systems. (e) Aeronautical experience for the instrument-helicopter rating. A person who applies for an instrument-helicopter rating must have logged: (1) Except as provided in paragraph (g) of this section, 50 hours of cross-country flight time as pilot in command, of which 10 hours must have been in a helicopter; and (2) Forty hours of actual or simulated instrument time in the areas of operation listed under paragraph (c) of this section, of which 15 hours must have been with an authorized instructor who holds an instrument-helicopter rating, and the instrument time includes: (i) Three hours of instrument flight training from an authorized instructor in a helicopter that is appropriate to the instrument-helicopter rating within 2 calendar months before the date of the practical test; and (ii) Instrument flight training on cross country flight procedures, including one cross country flight in a helicopter with an authorized instructor that is performed under instrument flight rules and a flight plan has been filed with an air traffic control facility, and involves— (A) A flight of 100 nautical miles along airways or by directed routing from an air traffic control facility; (B) An instrument approach at each airport; and (C) Three different kinds of approaches with the use of navigation systems. (f) Aeronautical experience for the instrument-powered-lift rating. A person who applies for an instrument-powered-lift rating must have logged: (1) Except as provided in paragraph (g) of this section, 50 hours of cross-country flight time as pilot in command, of which 10 hours must have been in a powered-lift; and (2) Forty hours of actual or simulated instrument time in the areas of operation listed under paragraph (c) of this section, of which 15 hours must have been received from an authorized instructor who holds an instrument-powered-lift rating, and the instrument time includes: (i) Three hours of instrument flight training from an authorized instructor in a powered-lift that is appropriate to the instrument-powered-lift rating within 2 calendar months before the date of the practical test; and (ii) Instrument flight training on cross country flight procedures, including one cross country flight in a powered-lift with an authorized instructor that is performed under instrument flight rules, when a flight plan has been filed with an air traffic control facility, that involves— (A) A flight of 250 nautical miles along airways or by directed routing from an air traffic control facility; (B) An instrument approach at each airport; and (C) Three different kinds of approaches with the use of navigation systems. (g) An applicant for a combined private pilot certificate with an instrument rating may satisfy the cross-country flight time requirements of this section by crediting: (1) For an instrument-airplane rating or an instrument-powered-lift rating, up to 45 hours of cross-country flight time performing the duties of pilot in command with an authorized instructor; or (2) For an instrument-helicopter rating, up to 47 hours of cross-country flight time performing the duties of pilot in command with an authorized instructor. (h) Use of full flight simulators or flight training devices. If the instrument time was provided by an authorized instructor in a full flight simulator or flight training device— (1) A maximum of 30 hours may be performed in that full flight simulator or flight training device if the instrument time was completed in accordance with part 142 of this chapter; or (2) A maximum of 20 hours may be performed in that full flight simulator or flight training device if the instrument time was not completed in accordance with part 142 of this chapter.

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(i) Use of an aviation training device. A maximum of 10 hours of instrument time received in a basic aviation training device or a maximum of 20 hours of instrument time received in an advanced aviation training device may be credited for the instrument time requirements of this section if— (1) The device is approved and authorized by the FAA; (2) An authorized instructor provides the instrument time in the device; and (3) The FAA approved the instrument training and instrument tasks performed in the device. (j) Except as provided in paragraph (h)(1) of this section, a person may not credit more than 20 total hours of instrument time in a full flight simulator, flight training device, aviation training device, or a combination towards the instrument time requirements of this section. [Docket 25910, 62 FR 16298, Apr. 4, 1997; Amdt. 61-103, 62 FR 40900, July 30, 1997; Amdt. 61-124, 74 FR 42554, Aug. 21, 2009; Amdt. 61-127, 76 FR 19267, Apr. 7, 2011; Amdt. 61-128, 76 FR 54106, Aug. 31, 2011; Docket FAA-2015-1846, Amdt. 61-136, 81 FR 21460, Apr. 12, 2016] § 61.66 Enhanced Flight Vision System Pilot Requirements. (a) Ground training. (1) Except as provided under paragraphs (f) and (h) of this section, no person may manipulate the controls of an aircraft or act as pilot in command of an aircraft during an EFVS operation conducted under § 91.176(a) or (b) of this chapter, or serve as a required pilot flightcrew member during an EFVS operation conducted under § 91.176(a) of this chapter, unless that person— (i) Receives and logs ground training under a training program approved by the Administrator; and (ii) Obtains a logbook or training record endorsement from an authorized training provider certifying the person satisfactorily completed the ground training appropriate to the category of aircraft for which the person is seeking the EFVS privilege. (2) The ground training must include the following subjects: (i) Those portions of this chapter that relate to EFVS flight operations and limitations, including the Airplane Flight Manual or Rotorcraft Flight Manual limitations; (ii) EFVS sensor imagery, required aircraft flight information, and flight symbology; (iii) EFVS display, controls, modes, features, symbology, annunciations, and associated systems and components; (iv) EFVS sensor performance, sensor limitations, scene interpretation, visual anomalies, and other visual effects; (v) Preflight planning and operational considerations associated with using EFVS during taxi, takeoff, climb, cruise, descent and landing phases of flight, including the use of EFVS for instrument approaches, operating below DA/DH or MDA, executing missed approaches, landing, rollout, and balked landings; (vi) Weather associated with low visibility conditions and its effect on EFVS performance; (vii) Normal, abnormal, emergency, and crew coordination procedures when using EFVS; and (viii) Interpretation of approach and runway lighting systems and their display characteristics when using an EFVS. (b) Flight training. (1) Except as provided under paragraph (h) of this section, no person may manipulate the controls of an aircraft or act as pilot in command of an aircraft during an EFVS operation under § 91.176(a) or (b) of this chapter unless that person— (i) Receives and logs flight training for the EFVS operation under a training program approved by the Administrator; and (ii) Obtains a logbook or training record endorsement from an authorized training provider certifying the person is proficient in the use of EFVS in the category of aircraft in which the training was provided for the EFVS operation to be conducted. (2) Flight training must include the following tasks: (i) Preflight and inflight preparation of EFVS equipment for EFVS operations, including EFVS setup and use of display, controls, modes and associated systems, and adjustments for brightness and contrast under day and night conditions;

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(ii) Proper piloting techniques associated with using EFVS during taxi, takeoff, climb, cruise, descent, landing, and rollout, including missed approaches and balked landings; (iii) Proper piloting techniques for the use of EFVS during instrument approaches, to include operations below DA/DH or MDA as applicable to the EFVS operations to be conducted, under both day and night conditions; (iv) Determining enhanced flight visibility; (v) Identifying required visual references appropriate to EFVS operations; (vi) Transitioning from EFVS sensor imagery to natural vision acquisition of required visual references and the runway environment; (vii) Using EFVS sensor imagery, required aircraft flight information, and flight symbology to touchdown and rollout, if the person receiving training will conduct EFVS operations under § 91.176(a) of this chapter; and (viii) Normal, abnormal, emergency, and crew coordination procedures when using an EFVS. (c) Supplementary EFVS training. A person qualified to conduct an EFVS operation under § 91.176(a) or (b) of this chapter who seeks to conduct an additional EFVS operation for which that person has not received training must— (1) Receive and log the ground and flight training required by paragraphs (a) and (b) of this section, under a training program approved by the Administrator, appropriate to the additional EFVS operation to be conducted; and (2) Obtain a logbook or training record endorsement from the authorized training provider certifying the person is proficient in the use of EFVS in the category of aircraft in which the training was provided for the EFVS operation to be conducted. (d) Recent flight experience: EFVS. Except as provided in paragraphs (f) and (h) of this section, no person may manipulate the controls of an aircraft during an EFVS operation or act as pilot in command of an aircraft during an EFVS operation unless, within 6 calendar months preceding the month of the flight, that person performs and logs six instrument approaches as the sole manipulator of the controls using an EFVS under any weather conditions in the category of aircraft for which the person seeks the EFVS privilege. The instrument approaches may be performed in day or night conditions; and (1) One approach must terminate in a full stop landing; and (2) For persons authorized to exercise the privileges of § 91.176(a), the full stop landing must be conducted using the EFVS. (e) EFVS refresher training. (1) Except as provided in paragraph (h) of this section, a person who has failed to meet the recent flight experience requirements of paragraph (d) of this section for more than six calendar months may reestablish EFVS currency only by satisfactorily completing an approved EFVS refresher course in the category of aircraft for which the person seeks the EFVS privilege. The EFVS refresher course must consist of the subjects and tasks listed in paragraphs (a)(2) and (b)(2) of this section applicable to the EFVS operations to be conducted. (2) The EFVS refresher course must be conducted by an authorized training provider whose instructor meets the training requirements of this section and, if conducting EFVS operations in an aircraft, the recent flight experience requirements of this section. (f) Military pilots and former military pilots in the U.S. Armed Forces. (1) The training requirements of paragraphs (a) and (b) of this section applicable to EFVS operations conducted under § 91.176(a) of this chapter do not apply to a military pilot or former military pilot in the U.S. Armed Forces if that person documents satisfactory completion of ground and flight training in EFVS operations to touchdown and rollout by the U.S. Armed Forces. (2) The training requirements in paragraphs (a) and (b) of this section applicable to EFVS operations conducted under § 91.176(b) of this chapter do not apply to a military pilot or former military pilot in the U.S. Armed Forces if that person documents satisfactory completion of ground and flight training in EFVS operations to 100 feet above the touchdown zone elevation by the U.S. Armed Forces.

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(3) A military pilot or former military pilot in the U.S. Armed Forces may satisfy the recent flight experience requirements of paragraph (d) of this section if he or she documents satisfactory completion of an EFVS proficiency check in the U.S. Armed Forces within 6 calendar months preceding the month of the flight, the check was conducted by a person authorized by the U.S. Armed Forces to administer the check, and the person receiving the check was a member of the U.S. Armed Forces at the time the check was administered. (g) Use of full flight simulators. A level C or higher full flight simulator (FFS) equipped with an EFVS may be used to meet the flight training, recent flight experience, and refresher training requirements of this section. The FFS must be evaluated and qualified for EFVS operations by the Administrator, and must be: (1) Qualified and maintained in accordance with part 60 of this chapter, or a previously qualified device, as permitted in accordance with § 60.17 of this chapter; (2) Approved by the Administrator for the tasks and maneuvers to be conducted; and (3) Equipped with a daylight visual display if being used to meet the flight training requirements of this section. (h) Exceptions. (1) A person may manipulate the controls of an aircraft during an EFVS operation without meeting the requirements of this section in the following circumstances: (i) When receiving flight training to meet the requirements of this section under an approved training program, provided the instructor meets the requirements in this section to perform the EFVS operation in the category of aircraft for which the training is being conducted. (ii) During an EFVS operation performed in the course of satisfying the recent flight experience requirements of paragraph (d) of this section, provided another individual is serving as pilot in command of the aircraft during the EFVS operation and that individual meets the requirements in this section to perform the EFVS operation in the category of aircraft in which the flight is being conducted. (iii) During an EFVS operation performed in the course of completing EFVS refresher training in accordance with paragraph (e) of this section, provided the instructor providing the refresher training meets the requirements in this section to perform the EFVS operation in the category of aircraft for which the training is being conducted. (2) The requirements of paragraphs (a) and (b) of this section do not apply if a person is conducting a flight or series of flights in an aircraft issued an experimental airworthiness certificate under § 21.191 of this chapter for the purpose of research and development or showing compliance with regulations, provided the person has knowledge of the subjects specified in paragraph (a)(2) of this section and has experience with the tasks specified in paragraph (b)(2) of this section applicable to the EFVS operations to be conducted. (3) The requirements specified in paragraphs (d) and (e) of this section do not apply to a pilot who: (i) Is employed by a part 119 certificate holder authorized to conduct operations under part 121, 125, or 135 when the pilot is conducting an EFVS operation for that certificate holder under part 91, 121, 125, or 135, as applicable, provided the pilot conducts the operation in accordance with the certificate holder's operations specifications for EFVS operations; (ii) Is employed by a person who holds a letter of deviation authority issued under § 125.3 of this chapter when the pilot is conducting an EFVS operation for that person under part 125, provided the pilot is conducting the operation in accordance with that person's letter of authorization for EFVS operations; or (iii) Is employed by a fractional ownership program manager to conduct operations under part 91 subpart K when the pilot is conducting an EFVS operation for that program manager under part 91, provided the pilot is conducting the operation in accordance with the program manager's management specifications for EFVS operations.

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(4) The requirements of paragraphs (a) and (b) of this section do not apply if a person is conducting EFVS operations under § 91.176(b) of this chapter and that person documents that prior to March 13, 2018, that person satisfactorily completed ground and flight training on EFVS operations to 100 feet above the touchdown zone elevation. [Docket FAA-2013-0485, Amdt. 61-139, 81 FR 90170, Dec. 13, 2016, as amended by Docket FAA-2013-0485, Amdt. 61-139, 81 FR 90172, Dec. 13, 2016] § 61.67 Category II pilot authorization requirements. (a) General. A person who applies for a Category II pilot authorization must hold: (1) At least a private or commercial pilot certificate with an instrument rating or an airline transport pilot certificate; (2) A type rating for the aircraft for which the authorization is sought if that aircraft requires a type rating; and (3) A category and class rating for the aircraft for which the authorization is sought. (b) Experience requirements. An applicant for a Category II pilot authorization must have at least— (1) 50 hours of night flight time as pilot in command. (2) 75 hours of instrument time under actual or simulated instrument conditions that may include not more than— (i) A combination of 25 hours of simulated instrument flight time in a flight simulator or flight training device; or (ii) 40 hours of simulated instrument flight time if accomplished in an approved course conducted by an appropriately rated training center certificated under part 142 of this chapter. (3) 250 hours of cross-country flight time as pilot in command. (c) Practical test requirements. (1) A practical test must be passed by a person who applies for— (i) Issuance or renewal of a Category II pilot authorization; and (ii) The addition of another type aircraft to the applicant's Category II pilot authorization. (2) To be eligible for the practical test for an authorization under this section, an applicant must— (i) Meet the requirements of paragraphs (a) and (b) of this section; and (ii) If the applicant has not passed a practical test for this authorization during the 12 calendar months preceding the month of the test, then that person must— (A) Meet the requirements of § 61.57(c); and (B) Have performed at least six ILS approaches during the 6 calendar months preceding the month of the test, of which at least three of the approaches must have been conducted without the use of an approach coupler. (3) The approaches specified in paragraph (c)(2)(ii)(B) of this section— (i) Must be conducted under actual or simulated instrument flight conditions; (ii) Must be conducted to the decision height for the ILS approach in the type aircraft in which the practical test is to be conducted; (iii) Need not be conducted to the decision height authorized for Category II operations; (iv) Must be conducted to the decision height authorized for Category II operations only if conducted in a flight simulator or flight training device; and (v) Must be accomplished in an aircraft of the same category and class, and type, as applicable, as the aircraft in which the practical test is to be conducted or in a flight simulator that— (A) Represents an aircraft of the same category and class, and type, as applicable, as the aircraft in which the authorization is sought; and (B) Is used in accordance with an approved course conducted by a training center certificated under part 142 of this chapter. (4) The flight time acquired in meeting the requirements of paragraph (c)(2)(ii)(B) of this section may be used to meet the requirements of paragraph (c)(2)(ii)(A) of this section. (d) Practical test procedures. The practical test consists of an oral increment and a flight increment. (1) Oral increment. In the oral increment of the practical test an applicant must demonstrate knowledge of the following:

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(i) Required landing distance; (ii) Recognition of the decision height; (iii) Missed approach procedures and techniques using computed or fixed attitude guidance displays; (iv) Use and limitations of RVR; (v) Use of visual clues, their availability or limitations, and altitude at which they are normally discernible at reduced RVR readings; (vi) Procedures and techniques related to transition from nonvisual to visual flight during a final approach under reduced RVR; (vii) Effects of vertical and horizontal windshear; (viii) Characteristics and limitations of the ILS and runway lighting system; (ix) Characteristics and limitations of the flight director system, auto approach coupler (including split axis type if equipped), auto throttle system (if equipped), and other required Category II equipment; (x) Assigned duties of the second in command during Category II approaches, unless the aircraft for which authorization is sought does not require a second in command; and (xi) Instrument and equipment failure warning systems. (2) Flight increment. The following requirements apply to the flight increment of the practical test: (i) The flight increment must be conducted in an aircraft of the same category, class, and type, as applicable, as the aircraft in which the authorization is sought or in a flight simulator that— (A) Represents an aircraft of the same category and class, and type, as applicable, as the aircraft in which the authorization is sought; and (B) Is used in accordance with an approved course conducted by a training center certificated under part 142 of this chapter. (ii) The flight increment must consist of at least two ILS approaches to 100 feet AGL including at least one landing and one missed approach. (iii) All approaches performed during the flight increment must be made with the use of an approved flight control guidance system, except if an approved auto approach coupler is installed, at least one approach must be hand flown using flight director commands. (iv) If a multiengine airplane with the performance capability to execute a missed approach with one engine inoperative is used for the practical test, the flight increment must include the performance of one missed approach with an engine, which shall be the most critical engine, if applicable, set at idle or zero thrust before reaching the middle marker. (v) If a multiengine flight simulator or multiengine flight training device is used for the practical test, the applicant must execute a missed approach with the most critical engine, if applicable, failed. (vi) For an authorization for an aircraft that requires a type rating, the practical test must be performed in coordination with a second in command who holds a type rating in the aircraft in which the authorization is sought. (vii) Oral questioning may be conducted at any time during a practical test. [Docket 25910, 62 FR 16298, Apr. 4, 1997; Amdt. 61-103, 62 FR 40900, July 30, 1997] § 61.68 Category III pilot authorization requirements. (a) General. A person who applies for a Category III pilot authorization must hold: (1) At least a private pilot certificate or commercial pilot certificate with an instrument rating or an airline transport pilot certificate; (2) A type rating for the aircraft for which the authorization is sought if that aircraft requires a type rating; and (3) A category and class rating for the aircraft for which the authorization is sought. (b) Experience requirements. An applicant for a Category III pilot authorization must have at least— (1) 50 hours of night flight time as pilot in command. (2) 75 hours of instrument flight time during actual or simulated instrument conditions that may include not more than— (i) A combination of 25 hours of simulated instrument flight time in a flight simulator or flight training device; or

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(ii) 40 hours of simulated instrument flight time if accomplished in an approved course conducted by an appropriately rated training center certificated under part 142 of this chapter. (3) 250 hours of cross-country flight time as pilot in command. (c) Practical test requirements. (1) A practical test must be passed by a person who applies for— (i) Issuance or renewal of a Category III pilot authorization; and (ii) The addition of another type of aircraft to the applicant's Category III pilot authorization. (2) To be eligible for the practical test for an authorization under this section, an applicant must— (i) Meet the requirements of paragraphs (a) and (b) of this section; and (ii) If the applicant has not passed a practical test for this authorization during the 12 calendar months preceding the month of the test, then that person must— (A) Meet the requirements of § 61.57(c); and (B) Have performed at least six ILS approaches during the 6 calendar months preceding the month of the test, of which at least three of the approaches must have been conducted without the use of an approach coupler. (3) The approaches specified in paragraph (c)(2)(ii)(B) of this section— (i) Must be conducted under actual or simulated instrument flight conditions; (ii) Must be conducted to the alert height or decision height for the ILS approach in the type aircraft in which the practical test is to be conducted; (iii) Need not be conducted to the decision height authorized for Category III operations; (iv) Must be conducted to the alert height or decision height, as applicable, authorized for Category III operations only if conducted in a flight simulator or flight training device; and (v) Must be accomplished in an aircraft of the same category and class, and type, as applicable, as the aircraft in which the practical test is to be conducted or in a flight simulator that— (A) Represents an aircraft of the same category and class, and type, as applicable, as the aircraft for which the authorization is sought; and (B) Is used in accordance with an approved course conducted by a training center certificated under part 142 of this chapter. (4) The flight time acquired in meeting the requirements of paragraph (c)(2)(ii)(B) of this section may be used to meet the requirements of paragraph (c)(2)(ii)(A) of this section. (d) Practical test procedures. The practical test consists of an oral increment and a flight increment. (1) Oral increment. In the oral increment of the practical test an applicant must demonstrate knowledge of the following: (i) Required landing distance; (ii) Determination and recognition of the alert height or decision height, as applicable, including use of a radar altimeter; (iii) Recognition of and proper reaction to significant failures encountered prior to and after reaching the alert height or decision height, as applicable; (iv) Missed approach procedures and techniques using computed or fixed attitude guidance displays and expected height loss as they relate to manual go-around or automatic go-around, and initiation altitude, as applicable; (v) Use and limitations of RVR, including determination of controlling RVR and required transmissometers; (vi) Use, availability, or limitations of visual cues and the altitude at which they are normally discernible at reduced RVR readings including— (A) Unexpected deterioration of conditions to less than minimum RVR during approach, flare, and rollout; (B) Demonstration of expected visual references with weather at minimum conditions; (C) The expected sequence of visual cues during an approach in which visibility is at or above landing minima; and (D) Procedures and techniques for making a transition from instrument reference flight to visual flight during a final approach under reduced RVR. (vii) Effects of vertical and horizontal windshear; (viii) Characteristics and limitations of the ILS and runway lighting system;

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(ix) Characteristics and limitations of the flight director system auto approach coupler (including split axis type if equipped), auto throttle system (if equipped), and other Category III equipment; (x) Assigned duties of the second in command during Category III operations, unless the aircraft for which authorization is sought does not require a second in command; (xi) Recognition of the limits of acceptable aircraft position and flight path tracking during approach, flare, and, if applicable, rollout; and (xii) Recognition of, and reaction to, airborne or ground system faults or abnormalities, particularly after passing alert height or decision height, as applicable. (2) Flight increment. The following requirements apply to the flight increment of the practical test— (i) The flight increment may be conducted in an aircraft of the same category and class, and type, as applicable, as the aircraft for which the authorization is sought, or in a flight simulator that— (A) Represents an aircraft of the same category and class, and type, as applicable, as the aircraft in which the authorization is sought; and (B) Is used in accordance with an approved course conducted by a training center certificated under part 142 of this chapter. (ii) The flight increment must consist of at least two ILS approaches to 100 feet AGL, including one landing and one missed approach initiated from a very low altitude that may result in a touchdown during the go-around maneuver; (iii) All approaches performed during the flight increment must be made with the approved automatic landing system or an equivalent landing system approved by the Administrator; (iv) If a multiengine aircraft with the performance capability to execute a missed approach with one engine inoperative is used for the practical test, the flight increment must include the performance of one missed approach with the most critical engine, if applicable, set at idle or zero thrust before reaching the middle or outer marker; (v) If a multiengine flight simulator or multiengine flight training device is used, a missed approach must be executed with an engine, which shall be the most critical engine, if applicable, failed; (vi) For an authorization for an aircraft that requires a type rating, the practical test must be performed in coordination with a second in command who holds a type rating in the aircraft in which the authorization is sought; (vii) Oral questioning may be conducted at any time during the practical test; (viii) Subject to the limitations of this paragraph, for Category IIIb operations predicated on the use of a fail-passive rollout control system, at least one manual rollout using visual reference or a combination of visual and instrument references must be executed. The maneuver required by this paragraph shall be initiated by a fail-passive disconnect of the rollout control system— (A) After main gear touchdown; (B) Prior to nose gear touchdown; (C) In conditions representative of the most adverse lateral touchdown displacement allowing a safe landing on the runway; and (D) In weather conditions anticipated in Category IIIb operations. [Docket 25910, 62 FR 16298, Apr. 4, 1997; Amdt. 61-103, 62 FR 40900, July 30, 1997] § 61.69 Glider and unpowered ultralight vehicle towing: Experience and training requirements. (a) No person may act as pilot in command for towing a glider or unpowered ultralight vehicle unless that person— (1) Holds a private, commercial or airline transport pilot certificate with a category rating for powered aircraft; (2) Has logged at least 100 hours of pilot-in-command time in the aircraft category, class and type, if required, that the pilot is using to tow a glider or unpowered ultralight vehicle; (3) Has a logbook endorsement from an authorized instructor who certifies that the person has received ground and flight training in gliders or unpowered ultralight vehicles and is proficient in—

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(i) The techniques and procedures essential to the safe towing of gliders or unpowered ultralight vehicles, including airspeed limitations; (ii) Emergency procedures; (iii) Signals used; and (iv) Maximum angles of bank. (4) Except as provided in paragraph (b) of this section, has logged at least three flights as the sole manipulator of the controls of an aircraft while towing a glider or unpowered ultralight vehicle, or has simulated towing flight procedures in an aircraft while accompanied by a pilot who meets the requirements of paragraphs (c) and (d) of this section. (5) Except as provided in paragraph (b) of this section, has received a logbook endorsement from the pilot, described in paragraph (a)(4) of this section, certifying that the person has accomplished at least 3 flights in an aircraft while towing a glider or unpowered ultralight vehicle, or while simulating towing flight procedures; and (6) Within 24 calendar months before the flight has— (i) Made at least three actual or simulated tows of a glider or unpowered ultralight vehicle while accompanied by a qualified pilot who meets the requirements of this section; or (ii) Made at least three flights as pilot in command of a glider or unpowered ultralight vehicle towed by an aircraft. (b) Any person who, before May 17, 1967, has made and logged 10 or more flights as pilot in command of an aircraft towing a glider or unpowered ultralight vehicle in accordance with a certificate of waiver need not comply with paragraphs (a)(4) and (a)(5) of this section. (c) The pilot, described in paragraph (a)(4) of this section, who endorses the logbook of a person seeking towing privileges must have— (1) Met the requirements of this section prior to endorsing the logbook of the person seeking towing privileges; and (2) Logged at least 10 flights as pilot in command of an aircraft while towing a glider or unpowered ultralight vehicle. (d) If the pilot described in paragraph (a)(4) of this section holds only a private pilot certificate, then that pilot must have— (1) Logged at least 100 hours of pilot-in-command time in airplanes, or 200 hours of pilot-in-command time in a combination of powered and other-than-powered aircraft; and (2) Performed and logged at least three flights within the 12 calendar months preceding the month that pilot accompanies or endorses the logbook of a person seeking towing privileges— (i) In an aircraft while towing a glider or unpowered ultralight vehicle accompanied by another pilot who meets the requirements of this section; or (ii) As pilot in command of a glider or unpowered ultralight vehicle being towed by another aircraft. [Docket FAA-2001-11133, 69 FR 44866, July 27, 2004, as amended by Amdt. 61-124, 74 FR 42555, Aug. 21, 2009] § 61.71 Graduates of an approved training program other than under this part: Special rules. (a) A person who graduates from an approved training program under part 141 or part 142 of this chapter is considered to have met the applicable aeronautical experience, aeronautical knowledge, and areas of operation requirements of this part if that person presents the graduation certificate and passes the required practical test within the 60-day period after the date of graduation. (b) A person may apply for an airline transport pilot certificate, type rating, or both under this part, and will be considered to have met the applicable requirements under § 61.157, except for the airline transport pilot certification training program required by § 61.156, for that certificate and rating, if that person has: (1) Satisfactorily accomplished an approved training curriculum and a proficiency check for that airplane type that includes all the tasks and maneuvers required by §§ 121.424 and 121.441 of this chapter to serve as pilot in command in operations conducted under part 121 of this chapter; and (2) Applied for an airline transport pilot certificate, type rating, or both within the 60-day period from the date the person satisfactorily accomplished the requirements of paragraph (b)(1) for that airplane type.

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(c) A person who holds a foreign pilot license and is applying for an equivalent U.S. pilot certificate on the basis of a Bilateral Aviation Safety Agreement and associated Implementation Procedures for Licensing may be considered to have met the applicable aeronautical experience, aeronautical knowledge, and areas of operation requirements of this part. [Docket 25910, 62 FR 16298, Apr. 4, 1997; Amdt. 61-103, 62 FR 40901, July 30, 1997; Amdt. 61-128, 76 FR 54107, Aug. 31, 2011; Amdt. 61-130, 78 FR 42374, July 15, 2013; Amdt. 61-144, 85 FR 10920, Feb. 25, 2020] § 61.73 Military pilots or former military pilots: Special rules. (a) General. Except for a person who has been removed from flying status for lack of proficiency or because of a disciplinary action involving aircraft operations, a U.S. military pilot or former military pilot who meets the requirements of this section may apply, on the basis of his or her military pilot qualifications, for: (1) A commercial pilot certificate with the appropriate aircraft category and class rating. (2) An instrument rating with the appropriate aircraft rating. (3) A type rating. (b) Military pilots and former military pilots in the U.S. Armed Forces. A person who qualifies as a military pilot or former military pilot in the U.S. Armed Forces may apply for a pilot certificate and ratings under paragraph (a) of this section if that person— (1) Presents evidentiary documents described under paragraphs (h)(1), (2), and (3) of this section that show the person's status in the U.S. Armed Forces. (2) Has passed the military competency aeronautical knowledge test on the appropriate parts of this chapter for commercial pilot privileges and limitations, air traffic and general operating rules, and accident reporting rules. (3) Presents official U.S. military records that show compliance with one of the following requirements— (i) Before the date of the application, passing an official U.S. military pilot and instrument proficiency check in a military aircraft of the kind of aircraft category, class, and type, if class or type of aircraft is applicable, for the ratings sought; or (ii) Before the date of application, logging 10 hours of pilot time as a military pilot in a U.S. military aircraft in the kind of aircraft category, class, and type, if a class rating or type rating is applicable, for the aircraft rating sought. (c) A military pilot in the Armed Forces of a foreign contracting State to the Convention on International Civil Aviation. A person who is a military pilot in the Armed Forces of a foreign contracting State to the Convention on International Civil Aviation and is assigned to pilot duties in the U.S. Armed Forces, for purposes other than receiving flight training, may apply for a commercial pilot certificate and ratings under paragraph (a) of this section, provided that person— (1) Presents evidentiary documents described under paragraph (h)(4) of this section that show the person is a military pilot in the Armed Forces of a foreign contracting State to the Convention on International Civil Aviation, and is assigned to pilot duties in the U.S. Armed Forces, for purposes other than receiving flight training. (2) Has passed the military competency aeronautical knowledge test on the appropriate parts of this chapter for commercial pilot privileges and limitations, air traffic and general operating rules, and accident reporting rules. (3) Presents official U.S. military records that show compliance with one of the following requirements: (i) Before the date of the application, passed an official U.S. military pilot and instrument proficiency check in a military aircraft of the kind of aircraft category, class, or type, if class or type of aircraft is applicable, for the ratings; or (ii) Before the date of the application, logged 10 hours of pilot time as a military pilot in a U.S. military aircraft of the kind of category, class, and type of aircraft, if a class rating or type rating is applicable, for the aircraft rating.

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(d) Instrument rating. A person who is qualified as a U.S. military pilot or former military pilot may apply for an instrument rating to be added to a pilot certificate if that person— (1) Has passed an instrument proficiency check in the U.S. Armed Forces in the aircraft category for the instrument rating sought; and (2) Has an official U.S. Armed Forces record that shows the person is instrument pilot qualified by the U.S. Armed Forces to conduct instrument flying on Federal airways in that aircraft category and class for the instrument rating sought. (e) Aircraft type rating. An aircraft type rating may only be issued for a type of aircraft that has a comparable civilian type designation by the Administrator. (f) Aircraft type rating placed on an airline transport pilot certificate. A person who is a military pilot or former military pilot of the U.S. Armed Forces and requests an aircraft type rating to be placed on an existing U.S. airline transport pilot certificate may be issued the rating at the airline transport pilot certification level, provided that person: (1) Holds a category and class rating for that type of aircraft at the airline transport pilot certification level; and (2) Has passed an official U.S. military pilot check and instrument proficiency check in that type of aircraft. (g) Flight instructor certificate and ratings. A person who can show official U.S. military documentation of being a U.S. military instructor pilot or U.S. military pilot examiner, or a former instructor pilot or pilot examiner may apply for and be issued a flight instructor certificate with the appropriate ratings if that person: (1) Holds a commercial or airline transport pilot certificate with the appropriate aircraft category and class rating, if a class rating is appropriate, for the flight instructor rating sought; (2) Holds an instrument rating, or has instrument privileges, on the pilot certificate that is appropriate to the flight instructor rating sought; and (3) Presents the following documents: (i) A knowledge test report that shows the person passed a knowledge test on the aeronautical knowledge areas listed under § 61.185(a) appropriate to the flight instructor rating sought and the knowledge test was passed within the preceding 24 calendar months prior to the month of application. If the U.S. military instructor pilot or pilot examiner already holds a flight instructor certificate, holding of a flight instructor certificate suffices for the knowledge test report. (ii) An official U.S. Armed Forces record or order that shows the person is or was qualified as a U.S. Armed Forces military instructor pilot or pilot examiner for the flight instructor rating sought. (iii) An official U.S. Armed Forces record or order that shows the person completed a U.S. Armed Forces' instructor pilot or pilot examiner training course and received an aircraft rating qualification as a military instructor pilot or pilot examiner that is appropriate to the flight instructor rating sought. (iv) An official U.S. Armed Forces record or order that shows the person passed a U.S. Armed Forces instructor pilot or pilot examiner proficiency check in an aircraft as a military instructor pilot or pilot examiner that is appropriate to the flight instructor rating sought. (h) Documents for qualifying for a pilot certificate and rating. The following documents are required for a person to apply for a pilot certificate and rating: (1) An official U.S. Armed Forces record that shows the person is or was a military pilot. (2) An official U.S. Armed Forces record that shows the person graduated from a U.S. Armed Forces undergraduate pilot training school and received a rating qualification as a military pilot. (3) An official U.S. Armed Forces record that shows the pilot passed a pilot proficiency check and instrument proficiency check in an aircraft as a military pilot. (4) If a person is a military pilot in the Armed Forces from a foreign contracting State to the Convention on International Civil Aviation and is applying for a pilot certificate and rating, that person must present the following:

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(i) An official U.S. Armed Forces record that shows the person is a military pilot in the U.S. Armed Forces; (ii) An official U.S. Armed Forces record that shows the person is assigned as a military pilot in the U.S. Armed Forces for purposes other than receiving flight training; (iii) An official record that shows the person graduated from a military undergraduate pilot training school from the Armed Forces from a foreign contracting State to the Convention on International Civil Aviation or from the U.S. Armed Forces, and received a qualification as a military pilot; and (iv) An official U.S. Armed Forces record that shows that the person passed a pilot proficiency check and instrument proficiency check in an aircraft as a military pilot in the U.S. Armed Forces. [Docket FAA-2006-26661, 74 FR 42555, Aug. 21, 2009] § 61.75 Private pilot certificate issued on the basis of a foreign pilot license. (a) General. A person who holds a foreign pilot license at the private pilot level or higher that was issued by a contracting State to the Convention on International Civil Aviation may apply for and be issued a U.S. private pilot certificate with the appropriate ratings if the foreign pilot license meets the requirements of this section. (b) Certificate issued. A U.S. private pilot certificate issued under this section must specify the person's foreign license number and country of issuance. A person who holds a foreign pilot license issued by a contracting State to the Convention on International Civil Aviation may be issued a U.S. private pilot certificate based on the foreign pilot license without any further showing of proficiency, provided the applicant: (1) Meets the requirements of this section; (2) Holds a foreign pilot license, at the private pilot license level or higher, that does not contain a limitation stating that the applicant has not met all of the standards of ICAO for that license; (3) Does not hold a U.S. pilot certificate other than a U.S. student pilot certificate; (4) Holds a medical certificate issued under part 67 of this chapter or a medical license issued by the country that issued the person's foreign pilot license; and (5) Is able to read, speak, write, and understand the English language. If the applicant is unable to meet one of these requirements due to medical reasons, then the Administrator may place such operating limitations on that applicant's pilot certificate as are necessary for the safe operation of the aircraft. (c) Aircraft ratings issued. Aircraft ratings listed on a person's foreign pilot license, in addition to any issued after testing under the provisions of this part, may be placed on that person's U.S. pilot certificate for private pilot privileges only. (d) Instrument ratings issued. A person who holds an instrument rating on the foreign pilot license issued by a contracting State to the Convention on International Civil Aviation may be issued an instrument rating on a U.S. pilot certificate provided: (1) The person's foreign pilot license authorizes instrument privileges; (2) Within 24 months preceding the month in which the person applies for the instrument rating, the person passes the appropriate knowledge test; and (3) The person is able to read, speak, write, and understand the English language. If the applicant is unable to meet one of these requirements due to medical reasons, then the Administrator may place such operating limitations on that applicant's pilot certificate as are necessary for the safe operation of the aircraft. (e) Operating privileges and limitations. A person who receives a U.S. private pilot certificate that has been issued under the provisions of this section: (1) May act as pilot in command of a civil aircraft of the United States in accordance with the pilot privileges authorized by this part and the limitations placed on that U.S. pilot certificate;

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(2) Is limited to the privileges placed on the certificate by the Administrator; (3) Is subject to the limitations and restrictions on the person's U.S. certificate and foreign pilot license when exercising the privileges of that U.S. pilot certificate in an aircraft of U.S. registry operating within or outside the United States; and (f) Limitation on licenses used as the basis for a U.S. certificate. A person may use only one foreign pilot license as a basis for the issuance of a U.S. pilot certificate. The foreign pilot license and medical certification used as a basis for issuing a U.S. pilot certificate under this section must be written in English or accompanied by an English transcription that has been signed by an official or representative of the foreign aviation authority that issued the foreign pilot license. (g) Limitation placed on a U.S. pilot certificate. A U.S. pilot certificate issued under this section can only be exercised when the pilot has the foreign pilot license, upon which the issuance of the U.S. pilot certificate was based, in the holder's possession or readily accessible in the aircraft. [Docket 25910, 62 FR 16298, Apr. 4, 1997, as amended by Amdt. 61-124, 74 FR 42556, Aug. 21, 2009] § 61.77 Special purpose pilot authorization: Operation of a civil aircraft of the United States and leased by a non-U.S. citizen. (a) General. The holder of a foreign pilot license issued by a contracting State to the Convention on International Civil Aviation who meets the requirements of this section may be issued a special purpose pilot authorization by the Administrator for the purpose of performing pilot duties— (1) On a civil aircraft of U.S. registry that is leased to a person who is not a citizen of the United States, and (2) For carrying persons or property for compensation or hire for operations in— (i) Scheduled international air services in turbojet-powered airplanes of U.S. registry; (ii) Scheduled international air services in airplanes of U.S. registry having a configuration of more than nine passenger seats, excluding crewmember seats; (iii) Nonscheduled international air transportation in airplanes of U.S. registry having a configuration of more than 30 passenger seats, excluding crewmember seats; or (iv) Scheduled international air services, or nonscheduled international air transportation, in airplanes of U.S. registry having a payload capacity of more than 7,500 pounds. (b) Eligibility. To be eligible for the issuance or renewal of a special purpose pilot authorization, an applicant must present the following to a Flight Standards office: (1) A foreign pilot license issued by the aeronautical authority of a contracting State to the Convention on International Civil Aviation that contains the appropriate aircraft category, class, type rating, if appropriate, and instrument rating for the aircraft to be flown; (2) A certification by the lessee of the aircraft— (i) Stating that the applicant is employed by the lessee; (ii) Specifying the aircraft type on which the applicant will perform pilot duties; and (iii) Stating that the applicant has received ground and flight instruction that qualifies the applicant to perform the duties to be assigned on the aircraft. (3) Documentation showing when the applicant will reach the age of 65 years (an official copy of the applicant's birth certificate or other official documentation); (4) Documentation the applicant meets the medical standards for the issuance of the foreign pilot license from the aeronautical authority of that contracting State to the Convention on International Civil Aviation; and (5) A statement that the applicant does not already hold a special purpose pilot authorization; however, if the applicant already holds a special purpose pilot authorization, then that special purpose pilot authorization must be surrendered to either the Flight Standards office that issued it, or the Flight Standards office processing the application for the authorization, prior to being issued another special purpose pilot authorization.

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(c) Privileges. A person issued a special purpose pilot authorization under this section— (1) May exercise the privileges prescribed on the special purpose pilot authorization; and (2) Must comply with the limitations specified in this section and any additional limitations specified on the special purpose pilot authorization. (d) General limitations. A special purpose pilot authorization may be used only— (1) For flights between foreign countries or for flights in foreign air commerce within the time period allotted on the authorization. (2) If the foreign pilot license required by paragraph (b)(1) of this section, the medical documentation required by paragraph (b)(4) of this section, and the special purpose pilot authorization issued under this section are in the holder's physical possession or immediately accessible in the aircraft. (3) While the holder is employed by the person to whom the aircraft described in the certification required by paragraph (b)(2) of this section is leased. (4) While the holder is performing pilot duties on the U.S.-registered aircraft described in the certification required by paragraph (b)(2) of this section. (5) If the holder has only one special purpose pilot authorization as provided in paragraph (b)(5) of this section. (e) Age limitation. No person who holds a special purpose pilot authorization issued under this part may serve as a pilot on a civil airplane of U.S. registry in the following operations if the person has reached his or her 60th birthday or, in the case of operations with more than one pilot, his or her 65th birthday: (1) Scheduled international air services carrying passengers in turbojet-powered airplanes; (2) Scheduled international air services carrying passengers in airplanes having a passenger-seat configuration of more than nine passenger seats, excluding each crewmember seat; (3) Nonscheduled international air transportation for compensation or hire in airplanes having a passenger-seat configuration of more than 30 passenger seats, excluding each crewmember seat; or (4) Scheduled international air services, or nonscheduled international air transportation for compensation or hire, in airplanes having a payload capacity of more than 7,500 pounds. (f) Definitions. (1) International air service, as used in paragraph (e) of this section, means scheduled air service performed in airplanes for the public transport of passengers, mail, or cargo, in which the service passes through the air space over the territory of more than one country. (2) International air transportation, as used in paragraph (e) of this section, means air transportation performed in airplanes for the public transport of passengers, mail, or cargo, in which service passes through the air space over the territory of more than one country. (g) Expiration date. Each special purpose pilot authorization issued under this section expires— (1) 60 calendar months from the month it was issued, unless sooner suspended or revoked; (2) When the lease agreement for the aircraft expires or the lessee terminates the employment of the person who holds the special purpose pilot authorization; (3) Whenever the person's foreign pilot license has been suspended, revoked, or is no longer valid; or (4) When the person no longer meets the medical standards for the issuance of the foreign pilot license. (h) Renewal. A person exercising the privileges of a special purpose pilot authorization may apply for a 60-calendar-month extension of that authorization, provided the person— (1) Continues to meet the requirements of this section; and (2) Surrenders the expired special purpose pilot authorization upon receipt of the new authorization.

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(i) Surrender. The holder of a special purpose pilot authorization must surrender the authorization to the Administrator within 7 days after the date the authorization terminates. [Docket 25910, 62 FR 40901, July 30, 1997, as amended by Amdt. 61-123, 74 FR 34234, July 15, 2009; Amdt. 61-124, 74 FR 42557, Aug. 21, 2009; Amdt. 61-134, 80 FR 33401, June 12, 2015; Docket FAA-2018-0119, Amdt. 61-141, 83 FR 9170, Mar. 5, 2018] Subpart C—Student Pilots § 61.81 Applicability. This subpart prescribes the requirements for the issuance of student pilot certificates, the conditions under which those certificates are necessary, and the general operating rules and limitations for the holders of those certificates. § 61.83 Eligibility requirements for student pilots. To be eligible for a student pilot certificate, an applicant must: (a) Be at least 16 years of age for other than the operation of a glider or balloon. (b) Be at least 14 years of age for the operation of a glider or balloon. (c) Be able to read, speak, write, and understand the English language. If the applicant is unable to meet one of these requirements due to medical reasons, then the Administrator may place such operating limitations on that applicant's pilot certificate as are necessary for the safe operation of the aircraft. § 61.85 Application. An applicant for a student pilot certificate: (a) Must make that application in a form acceptable to the Administrator; and (b) Must submit the application to a Flight Standards office, a designated pilot examiner, an airman certification representative associated with a pilot school, a flight instructor, or other person authorized by the Administrator. [Docket FAA-2010-1127, Amdt. 61-135, 81 FR 1306, Jan. 12, 2016, as amended by Docket FAA-2018-0119, Amdt. 61-141, 83 FR 9170, Mar. 5, 2018] § 61.87 Solo requirements for student pilots. (a) General. A student pilot may not operate an aircraft in solo flight unless that student has met the requirements of this section. The term “solo flight” as used in this subpart means that flight time during which a student pilot is the sole occupant of the aircraft or that flight time during which the student performs the duties of a pilot in command of a gas balloon or an airship requiring more than one pilot flight crewmember. (b) Aeronautical knowledge. A student pilot must demonstrate satisfactory aeronautical knowledge on a knowledge test that meets the requirements of this paragraph: (1) The test must address the student pilot's knowledge of— (i) Applicable sections of parts 61 and 91 of this chapter; (ii) Airspace rules and procedures for the airport where the solo flight will be performed; and (iii) Flight characteristics and operational limitations for the make and model of aircraft to be flown. (2) The student's authorized instructor must— (i) Administer the test; and (ii) At the conclusion of the test, review all incorrect answers with the student before authorizing that student to conduct a solo flight. (c) Pre-solo flight training. Prior to conducting a solo flight, a student pilot must have: (1) Received and logged flight training for the maneuvers and procedures of this section that are appropriate to the make and model of aircraft to be flown; and (2) Demonstrated satisfactory proficiency and safety, as judged by an authorized instructor, on the maneuvers and procedures required by this section in the make and model of aircraft or similar make and model of aircraft to be flown. (d) Maneuvers and procedures for pre-solo flight training in a single-engine airplane. A student pilot who is receiving training for a single-engine airplane rating or privileges must receive and log flight training for the following maneuvers and procedures:

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(1) Proper flight preparation procedures, including preflight planning and preparation, powerplant operation, and aircraft systems; (2) Taxiing or surface operations, including runups; (3) Takeoffs and landings, including normal and crosswind; (4) Straight and level flight, and turns in both directions; (5) Climbs and climbing turns; (6) Airport traffic patterns, including entry and departure procedures; (7) Collision avoidance, windshear avoidance, and wake turbulence avoidance; (8) Descents, with and without turns, using high and low drag configurations; (9) Flight at various airspeeds from cruise to slow flight; (10) Stall entries from various flight attitudes and power combinations with recovery initiated at the first indication of a stall, and recovery from a full stall; (11) Emergency procedures and equipment malfunctions; (12) Ground reference maneuvers; (13) Approaches to a landing area with simulated engine malfunctions; (14) Slips to a landing; and (15) Go-arounds. (e) Maneuvers and procedures for pre-solo flight training in a multiengine airplane. A student pilot who is receiving training for a multiengine airplane rating must receive and log flight training for the following maneuvers and procedures: (1) Proper flight preparation procedures, including preflight planning and preparation, powerplant operation, and aircraft systems; (2) Taxiing or surface operations, including runups; (3) Takeoffs and landings, including normal and crosswind; (4) Straight and level flight, and turns in both directions; (5) Climbs and climbing turns; (6) Airport traffic patterns, including entry and departure procedures; (7) Collision avoidance, windshear avoidance, and wake turbulence avoidance; (8) Descents, with and without turns, using high and low drag configurations; (9) Flight at various airspeeds from cruise to slow flight; (10) Stall entries from various flight attitudes and power combinations with recovery initiated at the first indication of a stall, and recovery from a full stall; (11) Emergency procedures and equipment malfunctions; (12) Ground reference maneuvers; (13) Approaches to a landing area with simulated engine malfunctions; and (14) Go-arounds. (f) Maneuvers and procedures for pre-solo flight training in a helicopter. A student pilot who is receiving training for a helicopter rating must receive and log flight training for the following maneuvers and procedures: (1) Proper flight preparation procedures, including preflight planning and preparation, powerplant operation, and aircraft systems; (2) Taxiing or surface operations, including runups; (3) Takeoffs and landings, including normal and crosswind; (4) Straight and level flight, and turns in both directions; (5) Climbs and climbing turns; (6) Airport traffic patterns, including entry and departure procedures; (7) Collision avoidance, windshear avoidance, and wake turbulence avoidance; (8) Descents with and without turns; (9) Flight at various airspeeds; (10) Emergency procedures and equipment malfunctions; (11) Ground reference maneuvers; (12) Approaches to the landing area; (13) Hovering and hovering turns; (14) Go-arounds; (15) Simulated emergency procedures, including autorotational descents with a power recovery and power recovery to a hover; (16) Rapid decelerations; and (17) Simulated one-engine-inoperative approaches and landings for multiengine helicopters. (g) Maneuvers and procedures for pre-solo flight training in a gyroplane. A student pilot who is receiving training for a gyroplane rating or privileges must receive and log flight training for the following maneuvers and procedures: (1) Proper flight preparation procedures, including preflight planning and preparation, powerplant operation, and aircraft systems;

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(2) Taxiing or surface operations, including runups; (3) Takeoffs and landings, including normal and crosswind; (4) Straight and level flight, and turns in both directions; (5) Climbs and climbing turns; (6) Airport traffic patterns, including entry and departure procedures; (7) Collision avoidance, windshear avoidance, and wake turbulence avoidance; (8) Descents with and without turns; (9) Flight at various airspeeds; (10) Emergency procedures and equipment malfunctions; (11) Ground reference maneuvers; (12) Approaches to the landing area; (13) High rates of descent with power on and with simulated power off, and recovery from those flight configurations; (14) Go-arounds; and (15) Simulated emergency procedures, including simulated power-off landings and simulated power failure during departures. (h) Maneuvers and procedures for pre-solo flight training in a powered-lift. A student pilot who is receiving training for a powered-lift rating must receive and log flight training in the following maneuvers and procedures: (1) Proper flight preparation procedures, including preflight planning and preparation, powerplant operation, and aircraft systems; (2) Taxiing or surface operations, including runups; (3) Takeoffs and landings, including normal and crosswind; (4) Straight and level flight, and turns in both directions; (5) Climbs and climbing turns; (6) Airport traffic patterns, including entry and departure procedures; (7) Collision avoidance, windshear avoidance, and wake turbulence avoidance; (8) Descents with and without turns; (9) Flight at various airspeeds from cruise to slow flight; (10) Stall entries from various flight attitudes and power combinations with recovery initiated at the first indication of a stall, and recovery from a full stall; (11) Emergency procedures and equipment malfunctions; (12) Ground reference maneuvers; (13) Approaches to a landing with simulated engine malfunctions; (14) Go-arounds; (15) Approaches to the landing area; (16) Hovering and hovering turns; and (17) For multiengine powered-lifts, simulated one-engine-inoperative approaches and landings. (i) Maneuvers and procedures for pre-solo flight training in a glider. A student pilot who is receiving training for a glider rating or privileges must receive and log flight training for the following maneuvers and procedures: (1) Proper flight preparation procedures, including preflight planning, preparation, aircraft systems, and, if appropriate, powerplant operations; (2) Taxiing or surface operations, including runups, if applicable; (3) Launches, including normal and crosswind; (4) Straight and level flight, and turns in both directions, if applicable; (5) Airport traffic patterns, including entry procedures; (6) Collision avoidance, windshear avoidance, and wake turbulence avoidance; (7) Descents with and without turns using high and low drag configurations; (8) Flight at various airspeeds; (9) Emergency procedures and equipment malfunctions; (10) Ground reference maneuvers, if applicable; (11) Inspection of towline rigging and review of signals and release procedures, if applicable; (12) Aerotow, ground tow, or self-launch procedures; (13) Procedures for disassembly and assembly of the glider; (14) Stall entry, stall, and stall recovery; (15) Straight glides, turns, and spirals; (16) Landings, including normal and crosswind; (17) Slips to a landing; (18) Procedures and techniques for thermalling; and (19) Emergency operations, including towline break procedures.

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(j) Maneuvers and procedures for pre-solo flight training in an airship. A student pilot who is receiving training for an airship rating or privileges must receive and log flight training for the following maneuvers and procedures: (1) Proper flight preparation procedures, including preflight planning and preparation, powerplant operation, and aircraft systems; (2) Taxiing or surface operations, including runups; (3) Takeoffs and landings, including normal and crosswind; (4) Straight and level flight, and turns in both directions; (5) Climbs and climbing turns; (6) Airport traffic patterns, including entry and departure procedures; (7) Collision avoidance, windshear avoidance, and wake turbulence avoidance; (8) Descents with and without turns; (9) Flight at various airspeeds from cruise to slow flight; (10) Emergency procedures and equipment malfunctions; (11) Ground reference maneuvers; (12) Rigging, ballasting, and controlling pressure in the ballonets, and superheating; and (13) Landings with positive and with negative static trim. (k) Maneuvers and procedures for pre-solo flight training in a balloon. A student pilot who is receiving training in a balloon must receive and log flight training for the following maneuvers and procedures: (1) Layout and assembly procedures; (2) Proper flight preparation procedures, including preflight planning and preparation, and aircraft systems; (3) Ascents and descents; (4) Landing and recovery procedures; (5) Emergency procedures and equipment malfunctions; (6) Operation of hot air or gas source, ballast, valves, vents, and rip panels, as appropriate; (7) Use of deflation valves or rip panels for simulating an emergency; (8) The effects of wind on climb and approach angles; and (9) Obstruction detection and avoidance techniques. (l) Maneuvers and procedures for pre-solo flight training in a powered parachute. A student pilot who is receiving training for a powered parachute rating or privileges must receive and log flight training for the following maneuvers and procedures: (1) Proper flight preparation procedures, including preflight planning and preparation, preflight assembly and rigging, aircraft systems, and powerplant operations. (2) Taxiing or surface operations, including run-ups. (3) Takeoffs and landings, including normal and crosswind. (4) Straight and level flight, and turns in both directions. (5) Climbs, and climbing turns in both directions. (6) Airport traffic patterns, including entry and departure procedures. (7) Collision avoidance, windshear avoidance, and wake turbulence avoidance. (8) Descents, and descending turns in both directions. (9) Emergency procedures and equipment malfunctions. (10) Ground reference maneuvers. (11) Straight glides, and gliding turns in both directions. (12) Go-arounds. (13) Approaches to landing areas with a simulated engine malfunction. (14) Procedures for canopy packing and aircraft disassembly. (m) Maneuvers and procedures for pre-solo flight training in a weight-shift-control aircraft. A student pilot who is receiving training for a weight-shift-control aircraft rating or privileges must receive and log flight training for the following maneuvers and procedures: (1) Proper flight preparation procedures, including preflight planning and preparation, preflight assembly and rigging, aircraft systems, and powerplant operations. (2) Taxiing or surface operations, including run-ups. (3) Takeoffs and landings, including normal and crosswind. (4) Straight and level flight, and turns in both directions. (5) Climbs, and climbing turns in both directions. (6) Airport traffic patterns, including entry and departure procedures. (7) Collision avoidance, windshear avoidance, and wake turbulence avoidance.

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(8) Descents, and descending turns in both directions. (9) Flight at various airspeeds from maximum cruise to slow flight. (10) Emergency procedures and equipment malfunctions. (11) Ground reference maneuvers. (12) Stall entry, stall, and stall recovery. (13) Straight glides, and gliding turns in both directions. (14) Go-arounds. (15) Approaches to landing areas with a simulated engine malfunction. (16) Procedures for disassembly. (n) Limitations on student pilots operating an aircraft in solo flight. A student pilot may not operate an aircraft in solo flight unless that student pilot has received an endorsement in the student's logbook for the specific make and model aircraft to be flown by an authorized instructor who gave the training within the 90 days preceding the date of the flight. (o) Limitations on student pilots operating an aircraft in solo flight at night. A student pilot may not operate an aircraft in solo flight at night unless that student pilot has received: (1) Flight training at night on night flying procedures that includes takeoffs, approaches, landings, and go-arounds at night at the airport where the solo flight will be conducted; (2) Navigation training at night in the vicinity of the airport where the solo flight will be conducted; and (3) An endorsement in the student's logbook for the specific make and model aircraft to be flown for night solo flight by an authorized instructor who gave the training within the 90-day period preceding the date of the flight. (p) Limitations on flight instructors authorizing solo flight. No instructor may authorize a student pilot to perform a solo flight unless that instructor has— (1) Given that student pilot training in the make and model of aircraft or a similar make and model of aircraft in which the solo flight is to be flown; (2) Determined the student pilot is proficient in the maneuvers and procedures prescribed in this section; (3) Determined the student pilot is proficient in the make and model of aircraft to be flown; and (4) Endorsed the student pilot's logbook for the specific make and model aircraft to be flown, and that endorsement remains current for solo flight privileges, provided an authorized instructor updates the student's logbook every 90 days thereafter. [Docket 25910, 62 FR 16298, Apr. 4, 1997; Amdt. 61-103, 62 FR 40902, July 30, 1997; Amdt. 61-104, 63 FR 20287, Apr. 23, 1998; Amdt. 61-110, 69 FR 44866, July 27, 2004; Amdt. 61-124, 74 FR 42557, Aug. 21, 2009; Docket FAA-2010-1127, Amdt. 61-135, 81 FR 1306, Jan. 12, 2016] § 61.89 General limitations. (a) A student pilot may not act as pilot in command of an aircraft: (1) That is carrying a passenger; (2) That is carrying property for compensation or hire; (3) For compensation or hire; (4) In furtherance of a business; (5) On an international flight, except that a student pilot may make solo training flights from Haines, Gustavus, or Juneau, Alaska, to White Horse, Yukon, Canada, and return over the province of British Columbia; (6) With a flight or surface visibility of less than 3 statute miles during daylight hours or 5 statute miles at night; (7) When the flight cannot be made with visual reference to the surface; or (8) In a manner contrary to any limitations placed in the pilot's logbook by an authorized instructor. (b) A student pilot may not act as a required pilot flight crewmember on any aircraft for which more than one pilot is required by the type certificate of the aircraft or regulations under which the flight is conducted, except when receiving flight training from an authorized instructor on board an airship, and no person other than a required flight crewmember is carried on the aircraft. (c) A student pilot seeking a sport pilot certificate must comply with the provisions of paragraphs (a) and (b) of this section and may not act as pilot in command— (1) Of an aircraft other than a light-sport aircraft; (2) At night; (3) At an altitude of more than 10,000 feet MSL or 2,000 feet AGL, whichever is higher;

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(4) In Class B, C, and D airspace, at an airport located in Class B, C, or D airspace, and to, from, through, or on an airport having an operational control tower without having received the ground and flight training specified in § 61.94 and an endorsement from an authorized instructor; (5) Of a light-sport aircraft without having received the applicable ground training, flight training, and instructor endorsements specified in § 61.327 (a) and (b). (d) The holder of a student pilot certificate may act as pilot in command of an aircraft without holding a medical certificate issued under part 67 of this chapter provided the student pilot holds a valid U.S. driver's license, meets the requirements of § 61.23(c)(3), and the operation is conducted consistent with the requirements of paragraphs (a) and (b) of this section and the conditions of § 61.113(i). Where the requirements of paragraphs (a) and (b) of this section conflict with § 61.113(i), a student pilot must comply with paragraphs (a) and (b) of this section. [Docket 25910, 62 FR 16298, Apr. 4, 1997, as amended by Amdt. 61-110, 69 FR 44867, July 27, 2004; Amdt. 61-125, 75 FR 5220, Feb. 1, 2010; Docket FAA-2016-9157, Amdt. 61-140, 82 FR 3165, Jan. 11, 2017] § 61.91 [Reserved]
§ 61.93 Solo cross-country flight requirements. (a) General. (1) Except as provided in paragraph (b) of this section, a student pilot must meet the requirements of this section before— (i) Conducting a solo cross-country flight, or any flight greater than 25 nautical miles from the airport from where the flight originated. (ii) Making a solo flight and landing at any location other than the airport of origination. (2) Except as provided in paragraph (b) of this section, a student pilot who seeks solo cross-country flight privileges must: (i) Have received flight training from an instructor authorized to provide flight training on the maneuvers and procedures of this section that are appropriate to the make and model of aircraft for which solo cross-country privileges are sought; (ii) Have demonstrated cross-country proficiency on the appropriate maneuvers and procedures of this section to an authorized instructor; (iii) Have satisfactorily accomplished the pre-solo flight maneuvers and procedures required by § 61.87 of this part in the make and model of aircraft or similar make and model of aircraft for which solo cross-country privileges are sought; and (iv) Comply with any limitations included in the authorized instructor's endorsement that are required by paragraph (c) of this section. (3) A student pilot who seeks solo cross-country flight privileges must have received ground and flight training from an authorized instructor on the cross-country maneuvers and procedures listed in this section that are appropriate to the aircraft to be flown. (b) Authorization to perform certain solo flights and cross-country flights. A student pilot must obtain an endorsement from an authorized instructor to make solo flights from the airport where the student pilot normally receives training to another location. A student pilot who receives this endorsement must comply with the requirements of this paragraph. (1) Solo flights may be made to another airport that is within 25 nautical miles from the airport where the student pilot normally receives training, provided— (i) An authorized instructor has given the student pilot flight training at the other airport, and that training includes flight in both directions over the route, entering and exiting the traffic pattern, and takeoffs and landings at the other airport; (ii) The authorized instructor who gave the training endorses the student pilot's logbook authorizing the flight; (iii) The student pilot has a solo flight endorsement in accordance with § 61.87 of this part; (iv) The authorized instructor has determined that the student pilot is proficient to make the flight; and (v) The purpose of the flight is to practice takeoffs and landings at that other airport.

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(2) Repeated specific solo cross-country flights may be made to another airport that is within 50 nautical miles of the airport from which the flight originated, provided— (i) The authorized instructor has given the student flight training in both directions over the route, including entering and exiting the traffic patterns, takeoffs, and landings at the airports to be used; (ii) The authorized instructor who gave the training has endorsed the student's logbook certifying that the student is proficient to make such flights; (iii) The student has a solo flight endorsement in accordance with § 61.87 of this part; and (iv) The student has a solo cross country flight endorsement in accordance with paragraph (c) of this section; however, for repeated solo cross country flights to another airport within 50 nautical miles from which the flight originated, separate endorsements are not required to be made for each flight. (c) Endorsements for solo cross-country flights. Except as specified in paragraph (b)(2) of this section, a student pilot must have the endorsements prescribed in this paragraph for each cross-country flight: (1) A student pilot must have a solo cross-country endorsement from the authorized instructor who conducted the training that is placed in that person's logbook for the specific category of aircraft to be flown. (2) A student pilot must have a solo cross-country endorsement from an authorized instructor that is placed in that person's logbook for the specific make and model of aircraft to be flown. (3) For each cross-country flight, the authorized instructor who reviews the cross-country planning must make an endorsement in the person's logbook after reviewing that person's cross-country planning, as specified in paragraph (d) of this section. The endorsement must— (i) Specify the make and model of aircraft to be flown; (ii) State that the student's preflight planning and preparation is correct and that the student is prepared to make the flight safely under the known conditions; and (iii) State that any limitations required by the student's authorized instructor are met. (d) Limitations on authorized instructors to permit solo cross-country flights. An authorized instructor may not permit a student pilot to conduct a solo cross-country flight unless that instructor has: (1) Determined that the student's cross-country planning is correct for the flight; (2) Reviewed the current and forecast weather conditions and has determined that the flight can be completed under VFR; (3) Determined that the student is proficient to conduct the flight safely; (4) Determined that the student has the appropriate solo cross-country endorsement for the make and model of aircraft to be flown; and (5) Determined that the student's solo flight endorsement is current for the make and model aircraft to be flown. (e) Maneuvers and procedures for cross-country flight training in a single-engine airplane. A student pilot who is receiving training for cross-country flight in a single-engine airplane must receive and log flight training in the following maneuvers and procedures: (1) Use of aeronautical charts for VFR navigation using pilotage and dead reckoning with the aid of a magnetic compass; (2) Use of aircraft performance charts pertaining to cross-country flight; (3) Procurement and analysis of aeronautical weather reports and forecasts, including recognition of critical weather situations and estimating visibility while in flight; (4) Emergency procedures; (5) Traffic pattern procedures that include area departure, area arrival, entry into the traffic pattern, and approach; (6) Procedures and operating practices for collision avoidance, wake turbulence precautions, and windshear avoidance; (7) Recognition, avoidance, and operational restrictions of hazardous terrain features in the geographical area where the cross-country flight will be flown;

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(8) Procedures for operating the instruments and equipment installed in the aircraft to be flown, including recognition and use of the proper operational procedures and indications; (9) Use of radios for VFR navigation and two-way communication, except that a student pilot seeking a sport pilot certificate must only receive and log flight training on the use of radios installed in the aircraft to be flown; (10) Takeoff, approach, and landing procedures, including short-field, soft-field, and crosswind takeoffs, approaches, and landings; (11) Climbs at best angle and best rate; and (12) Control and maneuvering solely by reference to flight instruments, including straight and level flight, turns, descents, climbs, use of radio aids, and ATC directives. For student pilots seeking a sport pilot certificate, the provisions of this paragraph only apply when receiving training for cross-country flight in an airplane that has a V H greater than 87 knots CAS. (f) Maneuvers and procedures for cross-country flight training in a multiengine airplane. A student pilot who is receiving training for cross-country flight in a multiengine airplane must receive and log flight training in the following maneuvers and procedures: (1) Use of aeronautical charts for VFR navigation using pilotage and dead reckoning with the aid of a magnetic compass; (2) Use of aircraft performance charts pertaining to cross-country flight; (3) Procurement and analysis of aeronautical weather reports and forecasts, including recognition of critical weather situations and estimating visibility while in flight; (4) Emergency procedures; (5) Traffic pattern procedures that include area departure, area arrival, entry into the traffic pattern, and approach; (6) Procedures and operating practices for collision avoidance, wake turbulence precautions, and windshear avoidance; (7) Recognition, avoidance, and operational restrictions of hazardous terrain features in the geographical area where the cross-country flight will be flown; (8) Procedures for operating the instruments and equipment installed in the aircraft to be flown, including recognition and use of the proper operational procedures and indications; (9) Use of radios for VFR navigation and two-way communications; (10) Takeoff, approach, and landing procedures, including short-field, soft-field, and crosswind takeoffs, approaches, and landings; (11) Climbs at best angle and best rate; and (12) Control and maneuvering solely by reference to flight instruments, including straight and level flight, turns, descents, climbs, use of radio aids, and ATC directives. (g) Maneuvers and procedures for cross-country flight training in a helicopter. A student pilot who is receiving training for cross-country flight in a helicopter must receive and log flight training for the following maneuvers and procedures: (1) Use of aeronautical charts for VFR navigation using pilotage and dead reckoning with the aid of a magnetic compass; (2) Use of aircraft performance charts pertaining to cross-country flight; (3) Procurement and analysis of aeronautical weather reports and forecasts, including recognition of critical weather situations and estimating visibility while in flight; (4) Emergency procedures; (5) Traffic pattern procedures that include area departure, area arrival, entry into the traffic pattern, and approach; (6) Procedures and operating practices for collision avoidance, wake turbulence precautions, and windshear avoidance; (7) Recognition, avoidance, and operational restrictions of hazardous terrain features in the geographical area where the cross-country flight will be flown; (8) Procedures for operating the instruments and equipment installed in the aircraft to be flown, including recognition and use of the proper operational procedures and indications; (9) Use of radios for VFR navigation and two-way communications; and (10) Takeoff, approach, and landing procedures.

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(h) Maneuvers and procedures for cross-country flight training in a gyroplane. A student pilot who is receiving training for cross-country flight in a gyroplane must receive and log flight training in the following maneuvers and procedures: (1) Use of aeronautical charts for VFR navigation using pilotage and dead reckoning with the aid of a magnetic compass; (2) Use of aircraft performance charts pertaining to cross-country flight; (3) Procurement and analysis of aeronautical weather reports and forecasts, including recognition of critical weather situations and estimating visibility while in flight; (4) Emergency procedures; (5) Traffic pattern procedures that include area departure, area arrival, entry into the traffic pattern, and approach; (6) Procedures and operating practices for collision avoidance, wake turbulence precautions, and windshear avoidance; (7) Recognition, avoidance, and operational restrictions of hazardous terrain features in the geographical area where the cross-country flight will be flown; (8) Procedures for operating the instruments and equipment installed in the aircraft to be flown, including recognition and use of the proper operational procedures and indications; (9) Use of radios for VFR navigation and two-way communication, except that a student pilot seeking a sport pilot certificate must only receive and log flight training on the use of radios installed in the aircraft to be flown; and (10) Takeoff, approach, and landing procedures, including short-field and soft-field takeoffs, approaches, and landings. (i) Maneuvers and procedures for cross-country flight training in a powered-lift. A student pilot who is receiving training for cross-country flight training in a powered-lift must receive and log flight training in the following maneuvers and procedures: (1) Use of aeronautical charts for VFR navigation using pilotage and dead reckoning with the aid of a magnetic compass; (2) Use of aircraft performance charts pertaining to cross-country flight; (3) Procurement and analysis of aeronautical weather reports and forecasts, including recognition of critical weather situations and estimating visibility while in flight; (4) Emergency procedures; (5) Traffic pattern procedures that include area departure, area arrival, entry into the traffic pattern, and approach; (6) Procedures and operating practices for collision avoidance, wake turbulence precautions, and windshear avoidance; (7) Recognition, avoidance, and operational restrictions of hazardous terrain features in the geographical area where the cross-country flight will be flown; (8) Procedures for operating the instruments and equipment installed in the aircraft to be flown, including recognition and use of the proper operational procedures and indications; (9) Use of radios for VFR navigation and two-way communications; (10) Takeoff, approach, and landing procedures that include high-altitude, steep, and shallow takeoffs, approaches, and landings; and (11) Control and maneuvering solely by reference to flight instruments, including straight and level flight, turns, descents, climbs, use of radio aids, and ATC directives. (j) Maneuvers and procedures for cross-country flight training in a glider. A student pilot who is receiving training for cross-country flight in a glider must receive and log flight training in the following maneuvers and procedures: (1) Use of aeronautical charts for VFR navigation using pilotage and dead reckoning with the aid of a magnetic compass; (2) Use of aircraft performance charts pertaining to cross-country flight; (3) Procurement and analysis of aeronautical weather reports and forecasts, including recognition of critical weather situations and estimating visibility while in flight; (4) Emergency procedures; (5) Traffic pattern procedures that include area departure, area arrival, entry into the traffic pattern, and approach;

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(6) Procedures and operating practices for collision avoidance, wake turbulence precautions, and windshear avoidance; (7) Recognition, avoidance, and operational restrictions of hazardous terrain features in the geographical area where the cross-country flight will be flown; (8) Procedures for operating the instruments and equipment installed in the aircraft to be flown, including recognition and use of the proper operational procedures and indications; (9) Landings accomplished without the use of the altimeter from at least 2,000 feet above the surface; and (10) Recognition of weather and upper air conditions favorable for cross-country soaring, ascending and descending flight, and altitude control. (k) Maneuvers and procedures for cross-country flight training in an airship. A student pilot who is receiving training for cross-country flight in an airship must receive and log flight training for the following maneuvers and procedures: (1) Use of aeronautical charts for VFR navigation using pilotage and dead reckoning with the aid of a magnetic compass; (2) Use of aircraft performance charts pertaining to cross-country flight; (3) Procurement and analysis of aeronautical weather reports and forecasts, including recognition of critical weather situations and estimating visibility while in flight; (4) Emergency procedures; (5) Traffic pattern procedures that include area departure, area arrival, entry into the traffic pattern, and approach; (6) Procedures and operating practices for collision avoidance, wake turbulence precautions, and windshear avoidance; (7) Recognition, avoidance, and operational restrictions of hazardous terrain features in the geographical area where the cross-country flight will be flown; (8) Procedures for operating the instruments and equipment installed in the aircraft to be flown, including recognition and use of the proper operational procedures and indications; (9) Use of radios for VFR navigation and two-way communication, except that a student pilot seeking a sport pilot certificate must only receive and log flight training on the use of radios installed in the aircraft to be flown; (10) Control of air pressure with regard to ascending and descending flight and altitude control; (11) Control of the airship solely by reference to flight instruments, except for a student pilot seeking a sport pilot certificate; and (12) Recognition of weather and upper air conditions conducive for the direction of cross-country flight. (l) Maneuvers and procedures for cross-country flight training in a powered parachute. A student pilot who is receiving training for cross-country flight in a powered parachute must receive and log flight training in the following maneuvers and procedures: (1) Use of aeronautical charts for VFR navigation using pilotage and dead reckoning with the aid of a magnetic compass, as appropriate. (2) Use of aircraft performance charts pertaining to cross-country flight. (3) Procurement and analysis of aeronautical weather reports and forecasts, including recognizing critical weather situations and estimating visibility while in flight. (4) Emergency procedures. (5) Traffic pattern procedures that include area departure, area arrival, entry into the traffic pattern, and approach. (6) Procedures and operating practices for collision avoidance, wake turbulence precautions, and windshear avoidance. (7) Recognition, avoidance, and operational restrictions of hazardous terrain features in the geographical area where the cross-country flight will be flown. (8) Procedures for operating the instruments and equipment installed in the aircraft to be flown, including recognition and use of the proper operational procedures and indications. (9) If equipped for flight with navigation radios, the use of radios for VFR navigation. (10) Recognition of weather and upper air conditions favorable for the cross-country flight.

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(11) Takeoff, approach and landing procedures. (m) Maneuvers and procedures for cross-country flight training in a weight-shift-control aircraft. A student pilot who is receiving training for cross-country flight in a weight-shift-control aircraft must receive and log flight training for the following maneuvers and procedures: (1) Use of aeronautical charts for VFR navigation using pilotage and dead reckoning with the aid of a magnetic compass, as appropriate. (2) Use of aircraft performance charts pertaining to cross-country flight. (3) Procurement and analysis of aeronautical weather reports and forecasts, including recognizing critical weather situations and estimating visibility while in flight. (4) Emergency procedures. (5) Traffic pattern procedures that include area departure, area arrival, entry into the traffic pattern, and approach. (6) Procedures and operating practices for collision avoidance, wake turbulence precautions, and windshear avoidance. (7) Recognition, avoidance, and operational restrictions of hazardous terrain features in the geographical area where the cross-country flight will be flown. (8) Procedures for operating the instruments and equipment installed in the aircraft to be flown, including recognition and use of the proper operational procedures and indications. (9) If equipped for flight using navigation radios, the use of radios for VFR navigation. (10) Recognition of weather and upper air conditions favorable for the cross-country flight. (11) Takeoff, approach and landing procedures, including crosswind approaches and landings. [Docket 25910, 62 FR 16298, Apr. 4, 1997; Amdt. 61-103, 62 FR 40902, July 30, 1997; Amdt. 61-110, 69 FR 44867, July 27, 2004; Amdt. 61-124, 74 FR 42557, Aug. 21, 2009; Amdt. 61-125, 75 FR 5220, Feb. 1, 2010; Docket FAA-2010-1127, Amdt. 61-135, 81 FR 1306, Jan. 12, 2016] § 61.94 Student pilot seeking a sport pilot certificate or a recreational pilot certificate: Operations at airports within, and in airspace located within, Class B, C, and D airspace, or at airports with an operational control tower in other airspace. (a) A student pilot seeking a sport pilot certificate or a recreational pilot certificate who wants to obtain privileges to operate in Class B, C, and D airspace, at an airport located in Class B, C, or D airspace, and to, from, through, or at an airport having an operational control tower, must receive and log ground and flight training from an authorized instructor in the following aeronautical knowledge areas and areas of operation: (1) The use of radios, communications, navigation systems and facilities, and radar services. (2) Operations at airports with an operating control tower, to include three takeoffs and landings to a full stop, with each landing involving a flight in the traffic pattern, at an airport with an operating control tower. (3) Applicable flight rules of part 91 of this chapter for operations in Class B, C, and D airspace and air traffic control clearances. (4) Ground and flight training for the specific Class B, C, or D airspace for which the solo flight is authorized, if applicable, within the 90-day period preceding the date of the flight in that airspace. The flight training must be received in the specific airspace area for which solo flight is authorized. (5) Ground and flight training for the specific airport located in Class B, C, or D airspace for which the solo flight is authorized, if applicable, within the 90-day period preceding the date of the flight at that airport. The flight and ground training must be received at the specific airport for which solo flight is authorized. (b) The authorized instructor who provides the training specified in paragraph (a) of this section must provide a logbook endorsement that certifies the student has received that training and is proficient to conduct solo flight in that specific airspace or at that specific airport and in those aeronautical knowledge areas and areas of operation specified in this section.

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[Docket FAA-2001-11133, 69 FR 44867, July 27, 2004] § 61.95 Operations in Class B airspace and at airports located within Class B airspace. (a) A student pilot may not operate an aircraft on a solo flight in Class B airspace unless: (1) The student pilot has received both ground and flight training from an authorized instructor on that Class B airspace area, and the flight training was received in the specific Class B airspace area for which solo flight is authorized; (2) The logbook of that student pilot has been endorsed by the authorized instructor who gave the student pilot flight training, and the endorsement is dated within the 90-day period preceding the date of the flight in that Class B airspace area; and (3) The logbook endorsement specifies that the student pilot has received the required ground and flight training, and has been found proficient to conduct solo flight in that specific Class B airspace area. (b) A student pilot may not operate an aircraft on a solo flight to, from, or at an airport located within Class B airspace pursuant to § 91.131(b) of this chapter unless: (1) The student pilot has received both ground and flight training from an instructor authorized to provide training to operate at that airport, and the flight and ground training has been received at the specific airport for which the solo flight is authorized; (2) The logbook of that student pilot has been endorsed by an authorized instructor who gave the student pilot flight training, and the endorsement is dated within the 90-day period preceding the date of the flight at that airport; and (3) The logbook endorsement specifies that the student pilot has received the required ground and flight training, and has been found proficient to conduct solo flight operations at that specific airport. (c) This section does not apply to a student pilot seeking a sport pilot certificate or a recreational pilot certificate. [Docket 25910, 62 FR 16298, Apr. 4, 1997; Amdt. 61-103, 62 FR 40902, July 30, 1997; Amdt. 61-110, 69 FR 44868, July 27, 2004] Subpart D—Recreational Pilots § 61.96 Applicability and eligibility requirements: General. (a) This subpart prescribes the requirement for the issuance of recreational pilot certificates and ratings, the conditions under which those certificates and ratings are necessary, and the general operating rules for persons who hold those certificates and ratings. (b) To be eligible for a recreational pilot certificate, a person who applies for that certificate must: (1) Be at least 17 years of age; (2) Be able to read, speak, write, and understand the English language. If the applicant is unable to meet one of these requirements due to medical reasons, then the Administrator may place such operating limitations on that applicant's pilot certificate as are necessary for the safe operation of the aircraft; (3) Receive a logbook endorsement from an authorized instructor who— (i) Conducted the training or reviewed the applicant's home study on the aeronautical knowledge areas listed in § 61.97(b) of this part that apply to the aircraft category and class rating sought; and (ii) Certified that the applicant is prepared for the required knowledge test. (4) Pass the required knowledge test on the aeronautical knowledge areas listed in § 61.97(b) of this part; (5) Receive flight training and a logbook endorsement from an authorized instructor who— (i) Conducted the training on the areas of operation listed in § 61.98(b) of this part that apply to the aircraft category and class rating sought; and (ii) Certified that the applicant is prepared for the required practical test. (6) Meet the aeronautical experience requirements of § 61.99 of this part that apply to the aircraft category and class rating sought before applying for the practical test;

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(7) Pass the practical test on the areas of operation listed in § 61.98(b) that apply to the aircraft category and class rating; (8) Comply with the sections of this part that apply to the aircraft category and class rating; and (9) Hold either a student pilot certificate or sport pilot certificate. [Docket 25910, 62 FR 16298, Apr. 4, 1997; Amdt. 61-103, 62 FR 40902, July 30, 1997; Amdt. 61-124, 74 FR 42558, Aug. 21, 2009] § 61.97 Aeronautical knowledge. (a) General. A person who applies for a recreational pilot certificate must receive and log ground training from an authorized instructor or complete a home-study course on the aeronautical knowledge areas of paragraph (b) of this section that apply to the aircraft category and class rating sought. (b) Aeronautical knowledge areas. (1) Applicable Federal Aviation Regulations of this chapter that relate to recreational pilot privileges, limitations, and flight operations; (2) Accident reporting requirements of the National Transportation Safety Board; (3) Use of the applicable portions of the “Aeronautical Information Manual” and FAA advisory circulars; (4) Use of aeronautical charts for VFR navigation using pilotage with the aid of a magnetic compass; (5) Recognition of critical weather situations from the ground and in flight, windshear avoidance, and the procurement and use of aeronautical weather reports and forecasts; (6) Safe and efficient operation of aircraft, including collision avoidance, and recognition and avoidance of wake turbulence; (7) Effects of density altitude on takeoff and climb performance; (8) Weight and balance computations; (9) Principles of aerodynamics, powerplants, and aircraft systems; (10) Stall awareness, spin entry, spins, and spin recovery techniques, if applying for an airplane single-engine rating; (11) Aeronautical decision making and judgment; and (12) Preflight action that includes— (i) How to obtain information on runway lengths at airports of intended use, data on takeoff and landing distances, weather reports and forecasts, and fuel requirements; and (ii) How to plan for alternatives if the planned flight cannot be completed or delays are encountered. [Docket 25910, 62 FR 16298, Apr. 4, 1997; Amdt. 61-103, 62 FR 40902, July 30, 1997] § 61.98 Flight proficiency. (a) General. A person who applies for a recreational pilot certificate must receive and log ground and flight training from an authorized instructor on the areas of operation of this section that apply to the aircraft category and class rating sought. (b) Areas of operation. (1) For a single-engine airplane rating: (i) Preflight preparation; (ii) Preflight procedures; (iii) Airport operations; (iv) Takeoffs, landings, and go-arounds; (v) Performance maneuvers; (vi) Ground reference maneuvers; (vii) Navigation; (viii) Slow flight and stalls; (ix) Emergency operations; and (x) Postflight procedures. (2) For a helicopter rating: (i) Preflight preparation; (ii) Preflight procedures; (iii) Airport and heliport operations; (iv) Hovering maneuvers; (v) Takeoffs, landings, and go-arounds; (vi) Performance maneuvers; (vii) Ground reference maneuvers; (viii) Navigation; (ix) Emergency operations; and (x) Postflight procedures. (3) For a gyroplane rating: (i) Preflight preparation; (ii) Preflight procedures; (iii) Airport operations; (iv) Takeoffs, landings, and go-arounds; (v) Performance maneuvers; (vi) Ground reference maneuvers; (vii) Navigation; (viii) Flight at slow airspeeds; (ix) Emergency operations; and (x) Postflight procedures. [Docket 25910, 62 FR 16298, Apr. 4, 1997; Amdt. 61-103, 62 FR 40902, July 30, 1997]

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§ 61.99 Aeronautical experience. (a) A person who applies for a recreational pilot certificate must receive and log at least 30 hours of flight time that includes at least— (1) 15 hours of flight training from an authorized instructor on the areas of operation listed in § 61.98 that consists of at least: (i) Except as provided in § 61.100, 2 hours of flight training en route to an airport that is located more than 25 nautical miles from the airport where the applicant normally trains, which includes at least three takeoffs and three landings at the airport located more than 25 nautical miles from the airport where the applicant normally trains; and (ii) Three hours of flight training with an authorized instructor in the aircraft for the rating sought in preparation for the practical test within the preceding 2 calendar months from the month of the test. (2) Three hours of solo flying in the aircraft for the rating sought, on the areas of operation listed in § 61.98 that apply to the aircraft category and class rating sought. (b) The holder of a sport pilot certificate may credit flight training received from a flight instructor with a sport pilot rating toward the aeronautical experience requirements of this section if the following conditions are met: (1) The flight training was accomplished in the same category and class of aircraft for which the rating is sought; (2) The flight instructor with a sport pilot rating was authorized to provide the flight training; and (3) The flight training included training on areas of operation that are required for both a sport pilot certificate and a recreational pilot certificate. [Docket FAA-2016-6142, Amdt. 61-142, 83 FR 30277, June 27, 2018 § 61.100 Pilots based on small islands. (a) An applicant located on an island from which the flight training required in § 61.99(a)(1) of this part cannot be accomplished without flying over water for more than 10 nautical miles from the nearest shoreline need not comply with the requirements of that section. However, if other airports that permit civil operations are available to which a flight may be made without flying over water for more than 10 nautical miles from the nearest shoreline, the applicant must show completion of a dual flight between two airports, which must include three landings at the other airport. (b) An applicant who complies with paragraph (a) of this section and meets all requirements for the issuance of a recreational pilot certificate, except the requirements of § 61.99(a)(1) of this part, will be issued a pilot certificate with an endorsement containing the following limitation, “Passenger carrying prohibited on flights more than 10 nautical miles from (the appropriate island).” The limitation may be subsequently amended to include another island if the applicant complies with the requirements of paragraph (a) of this section for another island. (c) Upon meeting the requirements of § 61.99(a)(1) of this part, the applicant may have the limitation(s) in paragraph (b) of this section removed. § 61.101 Recreational pilot privileges and limitations. (a) A person who holds a recreational pilot certificate may: (1) Carry no more than one passenger; and (2) Not pay less than the pro rata share of the operating expenses of a flight with a passenger, provided the expenses involve only fuel, oil, airport expenses, or aircraft rental fees. (b) A person who holds a recreational pilot certificate may act as pilot in command of an aircraft on a flight within 50 nautical miles from the departure airport, provided that person has— (1) Received ground and flight training for takeoff, departure, arrival, and landing procedures at the departure airport; (2) Received ground and flight training for the area, terrain, and aids to navigation that are in the vicinity of the departure airport; (3) Been found proficient to operate the aircraft at the departure airport and the area within 50 nautical miles from that airport; and

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(4) Received from an authorized instructor a logbook endorsement, which is carried in the person's possession in the aircraft, that permits flight within 50 nautical miles from the departure airport. (c) A person who holds a recreational pilot certificate may act as pilot in command of an aircraft on a flight that exceeds 50 nautical miles from the departure airport, provided that person has— (1) Received ground and flight training from an authorized instructor on the cross-country training requirements of subpart E of this part that apply to the aircraft rating held; (2) Been found proficient in cross-country flying; and (3) Received from an authorized instructor a logbook endorsement, which is carried on the person's possession in the aircraft, that certifies the person has received and been found proficient in the cross-country training requirements of subpart E of this part that apply to the aircraft rating held. (d) A person who holds a recreational pilot certificate may act as pilot in command of an aircraft in Class B, C, and D airspace, at an airport located in Class B, C, or D airspace, and to, from, through, or at an airport having an operational control tower, provided that person has— (1) Received and logged ground and flight training from an authorized instructor on the following aeronautical knowledge areas and areas of operation, as appropriate to the aircraft rating held: (i) The use of radios, communications, navigation system and facilities, and radar services. (ii) Operations at airports with an operating control tower to include three takeoffs and landings to a full stop, with each landing involving a flight in the traffic pattern at an airport with an operating control tower. (iii) Applicable flight rules of part 91 of this chapter for operations in Class B, C, and D airspace and air traffic control clearances; (2) Been found proficient in those aeronautical knowledge areas and areas of operation specified in paragraph (d)(1) of this section; and (3) Received from an authorized instructor a logbook endorsement, which is carried on the person's possession or readily accessible in the aircraft, that certifies the person has received and been found proficient in those aeronautical knowledge areas and areas of operation specified in paragraph (d)(1) of this section. (e) Except as provided in paragraphs (d) and (i) of this section, a recreational pilot may not act as pilot in command of an aircraft— (1) That is certificated— (i) For more than four occupants; (ii) With more than one powerplant; (iii) With a powerplant of more than 180 horsepower, except aircraft certificated in the rotorcraft category; or (iv) With retractable landing gear; (2) That is classified as a multiengine airplane, powered-lift, glider, airship, balloon, powered parachute, or weight-shift-control aircraft; (3) That is carrying a passenger or property for compensation or hire; (4) For compensation or hire; (5) In furtherance of a business; (6) Between sunset and sunrise; (7) In Class A, B, C, and D airspace, at an airport located in Class B, C, or D airspace, or to, from, through, or at an airport having an operational control tower; (8) At an altitude of more than 10,000 feet MSL or 2,000 feet AGL, whichever is higher; (9) When the flight or surface visibility is less than 3 statute miles; (10) Without visual reference to the surface; (11) On a flight outside the United States, unless authorized by the country in which the flight is conducted; (12) To demonstrate that aircraft in flight as an aircraft salesperson to a prospective buyer; (13) That is used in a passenger-carrying airlift and sponsored by a charitable organization; and (14) That is towing any object. (f) A recreational pilot may not act as a pilot flight crewmember on any aircraft for which more than one pilot is required by the type certificate of the aircraft or the regulations under which the flight is conducted, except when:

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(1) Receiving flight training from a person authorized to provide flight training on board an airship; and (2) No person other than a required flight crewmember is carried on the aircraft. (g) A person who holds a recreational pilot certificate, has logged fewer than 400 flight hours, and has not logged pilot-in-command time in an aircraft within the 180 days preceding the flight shall not act as pilot in command of an aircraft until the pilot receives flight training and a logbook endorsement from an authorized instructor, and the instructor certifies that the person is proficient to act as pilot in command of the aircraft. This requirement can be met in combination with the requirements of §§ 61.56 and 61.57 of this part, at the discretion of the authorized instructor. (h) A recreational pilot certificate issued under this subpart carries the notation, “Holder does not meet ICAO requirements.” (i) For the purpose of obtaining additional certificates or ratings while under the supervision of an authorized instructor, a recreational pilot may fly as the sole occupant of an aircraft: (1) For which the pilot does not hold an appropriate category or class rating; (2) Within airspace that requires communication with air traffic control; or (3) Between sunset and sunrise, provided the flight or surface visibility is at least 5 statute miles. (j) In order to fly solo as provided in paragraph (i) of this section, the recreational pilot must meet the appropriate aeronautical knowledge and flight training requirements of § 61.87 for that aircraft. When operating an aircraft under the conditions specified in paragraph (i) of this section, the recreational pilot shall carry the logbook that has been endorsed for each flight by an authorized instructor who: (1) Has given the recreational pilot training in the make and model of aircraft in which the solo flight is to be made; (2) Has found that the recreational pilot has met the applicable requirements of § 61.87; and (3) Has found that the recreational pilot is competent to make solo flights in accordance with the logbook endorsement. (k) A recreational pilot may act as pilot in command of an aircraft without holding a medical certificate issued under part 67 of this chapter provided the pilot holds a valid U.S. driver's license, meets the requirements of § 61.23(c)(3), and the operation is conducted consistent with this section and the conditions of § 61.113(i). Where the requirements of this section conflict with § 61.113(i), a recreational pilot must comply with this section. [Docket 25910, 62 FR 16298, Apr. 4, 1997, as amended by Amdt. 61-110, 69 FR 44868, July 27, 2004; Amdt. 61-124, 74 FR 42558, Aug. 21, 2009; Docket FAA-2016-9157, Amdt. 61-140, 82 FR 3165, Jan. 11, 2017] Subpart E—Private Pilots § 61.102 Applicability. This subpart prescribes the requirements for the issuance of private pilot certificates and ratings, the conditions under which those certificates and ratings are necessary, and the general operating rules for persons who hold those certificates and ratings. § 61.103 Eligibility requirements: General. To be eligible for a private pilot certificate, a person must: (a) Be at least 17 years of age for a rating in other than a glider or balloon. (b) Be at least 16 years of age for a rating in a glider or balloon. (c) Be able to read, speak, write, and understand the English language. If the applicant is unable to meet one of these requirements due to medical reasons, then the Administrator may place such operating limitations on that applicant's pilot certificate as are necessary for the safe operation of the aircraft. (d) Receive a logbook endorsement from an authorized instructor who: (1) Conducted the training or reviewed the person's home study on the aeronautical knowledge areas listed in § 61.105(b) of this part that apply to the aircraft rating sought; and

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(2) Certified that the person is prepared for the required knowledge test. (e) Pass the required knowledge test on the aeronautical knowledge areas listed in § 61.105(b) of this part. (f) Receive flight training and a logbook endorsement from an authorized instructor who: (1) Conducted the training in the areas of operation listed in § 61.107(b) of this part that apply to the aircraft rating sought; and (2) Certified that the person is prepared for the required practical test. (g) Meet the aeronautical experience requirements of this part that apply to the aircraft rating sought before applying for the practical test. (h) Pass a practical test on the areas of operation listed in § 61.107(b) of this part that apply to the aircraft rating sought. (i) Comply with the appropriate sections of this part that apply to the aircraft category and class rating sought. (j) Hold a U.S. student pilot certificate, sport pilot certificate, or recreational pilot certificate. [Docket 25910, 62 FR 16298, Apr. 4, 1997, as amended by Amdt. 61-124, 74 FR 42558, Aug. 21, 2009] § 61.105 Aeronautical knowledge. (a) General. A person who is applying for a private pilot certificate must receive and log ground training from an authorized instructor or complete a home-study course on the aeronautical knowledge areas of paragraph (b) of this section that apply to the aircraft category and class rating sought. (b) Aeronautical knowledge areas. (1) Applicable Federal Aviation Regulations of this chapter that relate to private pilot privileges, limitations, and flight operations; (2) Accident reporting requirements of the National Transportation Safety Board; (3) Use of the applicable portions of the “Aeronautical Information Manual” and FAA advisory circulars; (4) Use of aeronautical charts for VFR navigation using pilotage, dead reckoning, and navigation systems; (5) Radio communication procedures; (6) Recognition of critical weather situations from the ground and in flight, windshear avoidance, and the procurement and use of aeronautical weather reports and forecasts; (7) Safe and efficient operation of aircraft, including collision avoidance, and recognition and avoidance of wake turbulence; (8) Effects of density altitude on takeoff and climb performance; (9) Weight and balance computations; (10) Principles of aerodynamics, powerplants, and aircraft systems; (11) Stall awareness, spin entry, spins, and spin recovery techniques for the airplane and glider category ratings; (12) Aeronautical decision making and judgment; and (13) Preflight action that includes— (i) How to obtain information on runway lengths at airports of intended use, data on takeoff and landing distances, weather reports and forecasts, and fuel requirements; and (ii) How to plan for alternatives if the planned flight cannot be completed or delays are encountered. [Docket 25910, 62 FR 16298, Apr. 4, 1997; Amdt. 61-103, 62 FR 40902, July 30, 1997] § 61.107 Flight proficiency. (a) General. A person who applies for a private pilot certificate must receive and log ground and flight training from an authorized instructor on the areas of operation of this section that apply to the aircraft category and class rating sought. (b) Areas of operation. (1) For an airplane category rating with a single-engine class rating: (i) Preflight preparation; (ii) Preflight procedures; (iii) Airport and seaplane base operations; (iv) Takeoffs, landings, and go-arounds; (v) Performance maneuvers; (vi) Ground reference maneuvers; (vii) Navigation; (viii) Slow flight and stalls; (ix) Basic instrument maneuvers; (x) Emergency operations; (xi) Night operations, except as provided in § 61.110 of this part; and (xii) Postflight procedures. (2) For an airplane category rating with a multiengine class rating: (i) Preflight preparation; (ii) Preflight procedures;

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(iii) Airport and seaplane base operations; (iv) Takeoffs, landings, and go-arounds; (v) Performance maneuvers; (vi) Ground reference maneuvers; (vii) Navigation; (viii) Slow flight and stalls; (ix) Basic instrument maneuvers; (x) Emergency operations; (xi) Multiengine operations; (xii) Night operations, except as provided in § 61.110 of this part; and (xiii) Postflight procedures. (3) For a rotorcraft category rating with a helicopter class rating: (i) Preflight preparation; (ii) Preflight procedures; (iii) Airport and heliport operations; (iv) Hovering maneuvers; (v) Takeoffs, landings, and go-arounds; (vi) Performance maneuvers; (vii) Navigation; (viii) Emergency operations; (ix) Night operations, except as provided in § 61.110 of this part; and (x) Postflight procedures. (4) For a rotorcraft category rating with a gyroplane class rating: (i) Preflight preparation; (ii) Preflight procedures; (iii) Airport operations; (iv) Takeoffs, landings, and go-arounds; (v) Performance maneuvers; (vi) Ground reference maneuvers; (vii) Navigation; (viii) Flight at slow airspeeds; (ix) Emergency operations; (x) Night operations, except as provided in § 61.110 of this part; and (xi) Postflight procedures. (5) For a powered-lift category rating: (i) Preflight preparation; (ii) Preflight procedures; (iii) Airport and heliport operations; (iv) Hovering maneuvers; (v) Takeoffs, landings, and go-arounds; (vi) Performance maneuvers; (vii) Ground reference maneuvers; (viii) Navigation; (ix) Slow flight and stalls; (x) Basic instrument maneuvers; (xi) Emergency operations; (xii) Night operations, except as provided in § 61.110 of this part; and (xiii) Postflight procedures. (6) For a glider category rating: (i) Preflight preparation; (ii) Preflight procedures; (iii) Airport and gliderport operations; (iv) Launches and landings; (v) Performance speeds; (vi) Soaring techniques; (vii) Performance maneuvers; (viii) Navigation; (ix) Slow flight and stalls; (x) Emergency operations; and (xi) Postflight procedures. (7) For a lighter-than-air category rating with an airship class rating: (i) Preflight preparation; (ii) Preflight procedures; (iii) Airport operations; (iv) Takeoffs, landings, and go-arounds; (v) Performance maneuvers; (vi) Ground reference maneuvers; (vii) Navigation; (viii) Emergency operations; and (ix) Postflight procedures. (8) For a lighter-than-air category rating with a balloon class rating: (i) Preflight preparation; (ii) Preflight procedures; (iii) Airport operations; (iv) Launches and landings; (v) Performance maneuvers; (vi) Navigation; (vii) Emergency operations; and (viii) Postflight procedures. (9) For a powered parachute category rating— (i) Preflight preparation; (ii) Preflight procedures; (iii) Airport and seaplane base operations, as applicable; (iv) Takeoffs, landings, and go-arounds; (v) Performance maneuvers; (vi) Ground reference maneuvers; (vii) Navigation; (viii) Night operations, except as provided in § 61.110; (ix) Emergency operations; and (x) Post-flight procedures. (10) For a weight-shift-control aircraft category rating— (i) Preflight preparation; (ii) Preflight procedures; (iii) Airport and seaplane base operations, as applicable; (iv) Takeoffs, landings, and go-arounds;

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(v) Performance maneuvers; (vi) Ground reference maneuvers; (vii) Navigation; (viii) Slow flight and stalls; (ix) Night operations, except as provided in § 61.110; (x) Emergency operations; and (xi) Post-flight procedures. [Docket 25910, 62 FR 16298, Apr. 4, 1997, as amended by Amdt. 61-110, 69 FR 44868, July 27, 2004] § 61.109 Aeronautical experience. (a) For an airplane single-engine rating. Except as provided in paragraph (k) of this section, a person who applies for a private pilot certificate with an airplane category and single-engine class rating must log at least 40 hours of flight time that includes at least 20 hours of flight training from an authorized instructor and 10 hours of solo flight training in the areas of operation listed in § 61.107(b)(1) of this part, and the training must include at least— (1) 3 hours of cross-country flight training in a single-engine airplane; (2) Except as provided in § 61.110 of this part, 3 hours of night flight training in a single-engine airplane that includes— (i) One cross-country flight of over 100 nautical miles total distance; and (ii) 10 takeoffs and 10 landings to a full stop (with each landing involving a flight in the traffic pattern) at an airport. (3) 3 hours of flight training in a single-engine airplane on the control and maneuvering of an airplane solely by reference to instruments, including straight and level flight, constant airspeed climbs and descents, turns to a heading, recovery from unusual flight attitudes, radio communications, and the use of navigation systems/facilities and radar services appropriate to instrument flight; (4) 3 hours of flight training with an authorized instructor in a single-engine airplane in preparation for the practical test, which must have been performed within the preceding 2 calendar months from the month of the test; and (5) 10 hours of solo flight time in a single-engine airplane, consisting of at least— (i) 5 hours of solo cross-country time; (ii) One solo cross country flight of 150 nautical miles total distance, with full-stop landings at three points, and one segment of the flight consisting of a straight-line distance of more than 50 nautical miles between the takeoff and landing locations; and (iii) Three takeoffs and three landings to a full stop (with each landing involving a flight in the traffic pattern) at an airport with an operating control tower. (b) For an airplane multiengine rating. Except as provided in paragraph (k) of this section, a person who applies for a private pilot certificate with an airplane category and multiengine class rating must log at least 40 hours of flight time that includes at least 20 hours of flight training from an authorized instructor and 10 hours of solo flight training in the areas of operation listed in § 61.107(b)(2) of this part, and the training must include at least— (1) 3 hours of cross-country flight training in a multiengine airplane; (2) Except as provided in § 61.110 of this part, 3 hours of night flight training in a multiengine airplane that includes— (i) One cross-country flight of over 100 nautical miles total distance; and (ii) 10 takeoffs and 10 landings to a full stop (with each landing involving a flight in the traffic pattern) at an airport. (3) 3 hours of flight training in a multiengine airplane on the control and maneuvering of an airplane solely by reference to instruments, including straight and level flight, constant airspeed climbs and descents, turns to a heading, recovery from unusual flight attitudes, radio communications, and the use of navigation systems/facilities and radar services appropriate to instrument flight; (4) 3 hours of flight training with an authorized instructor in a multiengine airplane in preparation for the practical test, which must have been performed within the preceding 2 calendar months from the month of the test; and (5) 10 hours of solo flight time in an airplane consisting of at least— (i) 5 hours of solo cross-country time; (ii) One solo cross country flight of 150 nautical miles total distance, with full-stop landings at three points, and one segment of the flight consisting of a straight-line distance of more than 50 nautical miles between the takeoff and landing locations; and

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(iii) Three takeoffs and three landings to a full stop (with each landing involving a flight in the traffic pattern) at an airport with an operating control tower. (c) For a helicopter rating. Except as provided in paragraph (k) of this section, a person who applies for a private pilot certificate with rotorcraft category and helicopter class rating must log at least 40 hours of flight time that includes at least 20 hours of flight training from an authorized instructor and 10 hours of solo flight training in the areas of operation listed in § 61.107(b)(3) of this part, and the training must include at least— (1) 3 hours of cross-country flight training in a helicopter; (2) Except as provided in § 61.110 of this part, 3 hours of night flight training in a helicopter that includes— (i) One cross-country flight of over 50 nautical miles total distance; and (ii) 10 takeoffs and 10 landings to a full stop (with each landing involving a flight in the traffic pattern) at an airport. (3) 3 hours of flight training with an authorized instructor in a helicopter in preparation for the practical test, which must have been performed within the preceding 2 calendar months from the month of the test; and (4) 10 hours of solo flight time in a helicopter, consisting of at least— (i) 3 hours cross-country time; (ii) One solo cross country flight of 100 nautical miles total distance, with landings at three points, and one segment of the flight being a straight-line distance of more than 25 nautical miles between the takeoff and landing locations; and (iii) Three takeoffs and three landings to a full stop (with each landing involving a flight in the traffic pattern) at an airport with an operating control tower. (d) For a gyroplane rating. Except as provided in paragraph (k) of this section, a person who applies for a private pilot certificate with rotorcraft category and gyroplane class rating must log at least 40 hours of flight time that includes at least 20 hours of flight training from an authorized instructor and 10 hours of solo flight training in the areas of operation listed in § 61.107(b)(4) of this part, and the training must include at least— (1) 3 hours of cross-country flight training in a gyroplane; (2) Except as provided in § 61.110 of this part, 3 hours of night flight training in a gyroplane that includes— (i) One cross-country flight of over 50 nautical miles total distance; and (ii) 10 takeoffs and 10 landings to a full stop (with each landing involving a flight in the traffic pattern) at an airport. (3) 3 hours of flight training with an authorized instructor in a gyroplane in preparation for the practical test, which must have been performed within the preceding 2 calendar months from the month of the test; and (4) 10 hours of solo flight time in a gyroplane, consisting of at least— (i) 3 hours of cross-country time; (ii) One solo cross country flight of 100 nautical miles total distance, with landings at three points, and one segment of the flight being a straight-line distance of more than 25 nautical miles between the takeoff and landing locations; and (iii) Three takeoffs and three landings to a full stop (with each landing involving a flight in the traffic pattern) at an airport with an operating control tower. (e) For a powered-lift rating. Except as provided in paragraph (k) of this section, a person who applies for a private pilot certificate with a powered-lift category rating must log at least 40 hours of flight time that includes at least 20 hours of flight training from an authorized instructor and 10 hours of solo flight training in the areas of operation listed in § 61.107(b)(5) of this part, and the training must include at least— (1) 3 hours of cross-country flight training in a powered-lift; (2) Except as provided in § 61.110 of this part, 3 hours of night flight training in a powered-lift that includes— (i) One cross-country flight of over 100 nautical miles total distance; and

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(ii) 10 takeoffs and 10 landings to a full stop (with each landing involving a flight in the traffic pattern) at an airport. (3) 3 hours of flight training in a powered-lift on the control and maneuvering of a powered-lift solely by reference to instruments, including straight and level flight, constant airspeed climbs and descents, turns to a heading, recovery from unusual flight attitudes, radio communications, and the use of navigation systems/facilities and radar services appropriate to instrument flight; (4) 3 hours of flight training with an authorized instructor in a powered-lift in preparation for the practical test, which must have been performed within the preceding 2 calendar months from the month of the test; and (5) 10 hours of solo flight time in an airplane or powered-lift consisting of at least— (i) 5 hours cross-country time; (ii) One solo cross country flight of 150 nautical miles total distance, with full-stop landings at three points, and one segment of the flight consisting of a straight-line distance of more than 50 nautical miles between the takeoff and landing locations; and (iii) Three takeoffs and three landings to a full stop (with each landing involving a flight in the traffic pattern) at an airport with an operating control tower. (f) For a glider category rating. (1) If the applicant for a private pilot certificate with a glider category rating has not logged at least 40 hours of flight time as a pilot in a heavier-than-air aircraft, the applicant must log at least 10 hours of flight time in a glider in the areas of operation listed in § 61.107(b)(6) of this part, and that flight time must include at least— (i) 20 flights in a glider in the areas of operations listed in § 61.107(b)(6) of this part, including at least 3 training flights with an authorized instructor in a glider in preparation for the practical test that must have been performed within the preceding 2 calendar months from the month of the test; and (ii) 2 hours of solo flight time in a glider in the areas of operation listed in § 61.107(b)(6) of this part, with not less than 10 launches and landings being performed. (2) If the applicant has logged at least 40 hours of flight time in a heavier-than-air aircraft, the applicant must log at least 3 hours of flight time in a glider in the areas of operation listed in § 61.107(b)(6) of this part, and that flight time must include at least— (i) 10 solo flights in a glider in the areas of operation listed in § 61.107(b)(6) of this part; and (ii) 3 training flights with an authorized instructor in a glider in preparation for the practical test that must have been performed within the preceding 2 calendar months from the month of the test. (g) For an airship rating. A person who applies for a private pilot certificate with a lighter-than-air category and airship class rating must log at least: (1) 25 hours of flight training in airships on the areas of operation listed in § 61.107(b)(7) of this part, which consists of at least: (i) 3 hours of cross-country flight training in an airship; (ii) Except as provided in § 61.110 of this part, 3 hours of night flight training in an airship that includes: (A) A cross-country flight of over 25 nautical miles total distance; and (B) Five takeoffs and five landings to a full stop (with each landing involving a flight in the traffic pattern) at an airport. (2) 3 hours of flight training in an airship on the control and maneuvering of an airship solely by reference to instruments, including straight and level flight, constant airspeed climbs and descents, turns to a heading, recovery from unusual flight attitudes, radio communications, and the use of navigation systems/facilities and radar services appropriate to instrument flight; (3) Three hours of flight training with an authorized instructor in an airship in preparation for the practical test within the preceding 2 calendar months from the month of the test; and (4) 5 hours performing the duties of pilot in command in an airship with an authorized instructor. (h) For a balloon rating. A person who applies for a private pilot certificate with a lighter-than-air category and balloon class rating must log at least 10 hours of flight training that includes at least six training flights with an authorized instructor in the areas of operation listed in § 61.107(b)(8) of this part, that includes—

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(1) Gas balloon. If the training is being performed in a gas balloon, at least two flights of 2 hours each that consists of— (i) At least one training flight with an authorized instructor in a gas balloon in preparation for the practical test within the preceding 2 calendar months from the month of the test; (ii) At least one flight performing the duties of pilot in command in a gas balloon with an authorized instructor; and (iii) At least one flight involving a controlled ascent to 3,000 feet above the launch site. (2) Balloon with an airborne heater. If the training is being performed in a balloon with an airborne heater, at least— (i) At least two training flights of 1 hour each with an authorized instructor in a balloon with an airborne heater in preparation for the practical test within the preceding 2 calendar months from the month of the test; (ii) One solo flight in a balloon with an airborne heater; and (iii) At least one flight involving a controlled ascent to 2,000 feet above the launch site. (i) For a powered parachute rating. A person who applies for a private pilot certificate with a powered parachute category rating must log at least 25 hours of flight time in a powered parachute that includes at least 10 hours of flight training with an authorized instructor, including 30 takeoffs and landings, and 10 hours of solo flight training in the areas of operation listed in § 61.107 (b)(9) and the training must include at least— (1) One hour of cross-country flight training in a powered parachute that includes a 1-hour cross-country flight with a landing at an airport at least 25 nautical miles from the airport of departure; (2) Except as provided in § 61.110, 3 hours of night flight training in a powered parachute that includes 10 takeoffs and landings (with each landing involving a flight in the traffic pattern) at an airport; (3) Three hours of flight training with an authorized instructor in a powered parachute in preparation for the practical test, which must have been performed within the preceding 2 calendar months from the month of the test; (4) Three hours of solo flight time in a powered parachute, consisting of at least— (i) One solo cross-country flight with a landing at an airport at least 25 nautical miles from the departure airport; and (ii) Twenty solo takeoffs and landings to a full stop (with each landing involving a flight in a traffic pattern) at an airport; and (5) Three takeoffs and landings (with each landing involving a flight in the traffic pattern) in an aircraft at an airport with an operating control tower. (j) For a weight-shift-control aircraft rating. A person who applies for a private pilot certificate with a weight-shift-control rating must log at least 40 hours of flight time that includes at least 20 hours of flight training with an authorized instructor and 10 hours of solo flight training in the areas of operation listed in § 61.107(b)(10) and the training must include at least— (1) Three hours of cross-country flight training in a weight-shift-control aircraft; (2) Except as provided in § 61.110, 3 hours of night flight training in a weight-shift-control aircraft that includes— (i) One cross-country flight of over 75 nautical miles total distance that includes a point of landing that is a straight-line distance of more than 50 nautical miles from the original point of departure; and (ii) Ten takeoffs and landings (with each landing involving a flight in the traffic pattern) at an airport; (3) Three hours of flight training with an authorized instructor in a weight-shift-control aircraft in preparation for the practical test, which must have been performed within the preceding 2 calendar months from the month of the test;

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(4) Ten hours of solo flight time in a weight-shift-control aircraft, consisting of at least— (i) Five hours of solo cross-country time; and (ii) One solo cross-country flight over 100 nautical miles total distance, with landings at a minimum of three points, and one segment of the flight being a straight line distance of at least 50 nautical miles between takeoff and landing locations; and (5) Three takeoffs and landings (with each landing involving a flight in the traffic pattern) in an aircraft at an airport with an operating control tower. (k) Permitted credit for use of a full flight simulator or flight training device. (1) Except as provided in paragraphs (k)(2) of this section, a maximum of 2.5 hours of training in a full flight simulator or flight training device representing the category, class, and type, if applicable, of aircraft appropriate to the rating sought, may be credited toward the flight training time required by this section, if received from an authorized instructor. (2) A maximum of 5 hours of training in a flight simulator or flight training device representing the category, class, and type, if applicable, of aircraft appropriate to the rating sought, may be credited toward the flight training time required by this section if the training is accomplished in a course conducted by a training center certificated under part 142 of this chapter. (3) Except when fewer hours are approved by the Administrator, an applicant for a private pilot certificate with an airplane, rotorcraft, or powered-lift rating, who has satisfactorily completed an approved private pilot course conducted by a training center certificated under part 142 of this chapter, need only have a total of 35 hours of aeronautical experience to meet the requirements of this section. (l) Permitted credit for flight training received from a flight instructor with a sport pilot rating. The holder of a sport pilot certificate may credit flight training received from a flight instructor with a sport pilot rating toward the aeronautical experience requirements of this section if the following conditions are met: (1) The flight training was accomplished in the same category and class of aircraft for which the rating is sought; (2) The flight instructor with a sport pilot rating was authorized to provide the flight training; and (3) The flight training included either— (i) Training on areas of operation that are required for both a sport pilot certificate and a private pilot certificate; or (ii) For airplanes with a V H greater than 87 knots CAS, training on the control and maneuvering of an airplane solely by reference to the flight instruments, including straight and level flight, turns, descents, climbs, use of radio aids, and ATC directives, provided the training was received from a flight instructor with a sport pilot rating who holds an endorsement required by § 61.412(c). [Docket 25910, 62 FR 40902, July 30, 1997, as amended by Amdt. 61-104, 63 FR 20287, Apr. 23, 1998; Amdt. 61-110, 69 FR 44868, July 27, 2004; Amdt. 61-124, 74 FR 42558, Aug. 21, 2009; Amdt. 61-124A, 74 FR 53645, Oct. 20, 2009; Amdt. 61-125, 75 FR 5220, Feb. 1, 2010; Amdt. 61-142, 83 FR 30278, June 27, 2018] Effective Date Note: Amendments to § 61.109 were published by Docket FAA-2023-1275, Amdt. 60-8, 89 FR 92485, Nov. 21, 2024, effective Jan. 21, 2025. § 61.110 Night flying exceptions. (a) Subject to the limitations of paragraph (b) of this section, a person is not required to comply with the night flight training requirements of this subpart if the person receives flight training in and resides in the State of Alaska. (b) A person who receives flight training in and resides in the State of Alaska but does not meet the night flight training requirements of this section: (1) May be issued a pilot certificate with a limitation “Night flying prohibited”; and (2) Must comply with the appropriate night flight training requirements of this subpart within the 12-calendar-month period after the issuance of the pilot certificate. At the end of that period, the certificate will become invalid for use until the person complies with the appropriate night training requirements of this subpart. The person may have the “Night flying prohibited” limitation removed if the person—

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(i) Accomplishes the appropriate night flight training requirements of this subpart; and (ii) Presents to an examiner a logbook or training record endorsement from an authorized instructor that verifies accomplishment of the appropriate night flight training requirements of this subpart. (c) A person who does not meet the night flying requirements in § 61.109(d)(2), (i)(2), or (j)(2) may be issued a private pilot certificate with the limitation “Night flying prohibited.” This limitation may be removed by an examiner if the holder complies with the requirements of § 61.109(d)(2), (i)(2), or (j)(2), as appropriate. [Docket 25910, 62 FR 16298, Apr. 4, 1997; Amdt. 61-103, 62 FR 40904, July 30, 1997; Amdt. 61-110, 69 FR 44869, July 27, 2004] § 61.111 Cross-country flights: Pilots based on small islands. (a) Except as provided in paragraph (b) of this section, an applicant located on an island from which the cross-country flight training required in § 61.109 of this part cannot be accomplished without flying over water for more than 10 nautical miles from the nearest shoreline need not comply with the requirements of that section. (b) If other airports that permit civil operations are available to which a flight may be made without flying over water for more than 10 nautical miles from the nearest shoreline, the applicant must show completion of two round-trip solo flights between those two airports that are farthest apart, including a landing at each airport on both flights. (c) An applicant who complies with paragraph (a) or paragraph (b) of this section, and meets all requirements for the issuance of a private pilot certificate, except the cross-country training requirements of § 61.109 of this part, will be issued a pilot certificate with an endorsement containing the following limitation, “Passenger carrying prohibited on flights more than 10 nautical miles from (the appropriate island).” The limitation may be subsequently amended to include another island if the applicant complies with the requirements of paragraph (b) of this section for another island. (d) Upon meeting the cross-country training requirements of § 61.109 of this part, the applicant may have the limitation in paragraph (c) of this section removed. [Docket 25910, 62 FR 16298, Apr. 4, 1997; Amdt. 61-103, 62 FR 40904, July 30, 1997] § 61.113 Private pilot privileges and limitations: Pilot in command. (a) Except as provided in paragraphs (b) through (h) of this section, no person who holds a private pilot certificate may act as pilot in command of an aircraft that is carrying passengers or property for compensation or hire; nor may that person, for compensation or hire, act as pilot in command of an aircraft. (b) A private pilot may, for compensation or hire, act as pilot in command of an aircraft in connection with any business or employment if: (1) The flight is only incidental to that business or employment; and (2) The aircraft does not carry passengers or property for compensation or hire. (c) A private pilot may not pay less than the pro rata share of the operating expenses of a flight with passengers, provided the expenses involve only fuel, oil, airport expenditures, or rental fees. (d) A private pilot may act as pilot in command of a charitable, nonprofit, or community event flight described in § 91.146, if the sponsor and pilot comply with the requirements of § 91.146. (e) A private pilot may be reimbursed for aircraft operating expenses that are directly related to search and location operations, provided the expenses involve only fuel, oil, airport expenditures, or rental fees, and the operation is sanctioned and under the direction and control of: (1) A local, State, or Federal agency; or (2) An organization that conducts search and location operations. (f) A private pilot who is an aircraft salesman and who has at least 200 hours of logged flight time may demonstrate an aircraft in flight to a prospective buyer.

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(g) A private pilot who meets the requirements of § 61.69 may act as a pilot in command of an aircraft towing a glider or unpowered ultralight vehicle. (h) A private pilot may act as pilot in command for the purpose of conducting a production flight test in a light-sport aircraft intended for certification in the light-sport category under § 21.190 of this chapter, provided that— (1) The aircraft is a powered parachute or a weight-shift-control aircraft; (2) The person has at least 100 hours of pilot-in-command time in the category and class of aircraft flown; and (3) The person is familiar with the processes and procedures applicable to the conduct of production flight testing, to include operations conducted under a special flight permit and any associated operating limitations. (i) A private pilot may act as pilot in command or serve as a required flightcrew member of an aircraft without holding a medical certificate issued under part 67 of this chapter provided the pilot holds a valid U.S. driver's license, meets the requirements of § 61.23(c)(3), and complies with this section and all of the following conditions and limitations: (1) The aircraft is authorized to carry not more than 7 occupants, has a maximum takeoff weight of not more than 12,500 pounds, is operated with no more than 6 passengers on board, and is not a transport category rotorcraft certified to airworthiness standards under part 29 of this chapter; and (2) The flight, including each portion of the flight, is not carried out— (i) At an altitude that is more than 18,000 feet above mean sea level; (ii) Outside the United States unless authorized by the country in which the flight is conducted; or (iii) At an indicated airspeed exceeding 250 knots; and (3) The pilot has available in his or her logbook— (i) The completed medical examination checklist required under § 68.7 of this chapter; and (ii) The certificate of course completion required under § 61.23(c)(3). [Docket 25910, 62 FR 16298, Apr. 4, 1997, as amended by Amdt. 61-110, 69 FR 44869, July 27, 2004; Amdt. 61-115, 72 FR 6910, Feb. 13, 2007; Amdt. 61-125, 75 FR 5220, Feb. 1, 2010; Docket FAA-2016-9157, Amdt. 61-140, 82 FR 3165, Jan. 11, 2017; Docket FAA-2021-1040, Amdt. 61-152, 87 FR 71237, Nov. 22, 2022; Docket FAA-2024-2580, Amdt. 61-158, 89 FR 90577, Nov. 18, 2024] § 61.115 Balloon rating: Limitations. (a) If a person who applies for a private pilot certificate with a balloon rating takes a practical test in a balloon with an airborne heater: (1) The pilot certificate will contain a limitation restricting the exercise of the privileges of that certificate to a balloon with an airborne heater; and (2) The limitation may be removed when the person obtains the required aeronautical experience in a gas balloon and receives a logbook endorsement from an authorized instructor who attests to the person's accomplishment of the required aeronautical experience and ability to satisfactorily operate a gas balloon. (b) If a person who applies for a private pilot certificate with a balloon rating takes a practical test in a gas balloon: (1) The pilot certificate will contain a limitation restricting the exercise of the privilege of that certificate to a gas balloon; and (2) The limitation may be removed when the person obtains the required aeronautical experience in a balloon with an airborne heater and receives a logbook endorsement from an authorized instructor who attests to the person's accomplishment of the required aeronautical experience and ability to satisfactorily operate a balloon with an airborne heater. § 61.117 Private pilot privileges and limitations: Second in command of aircraft requiring more than one pilot. Except as provided in § 61.113 of this part, no private pilot may, for compensation or hire, act as second in command of an aircraft that is type certificated for more than one pilot, nor may that pilot act as second in command of such an aircraft that is carrying passengers or property for compensation or hire.

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[Docket 25910, 62 FR 16298, Apr. 4, 1997; Amdt. 61-103, 62 FR 40904, July 30, 1997] §§ 61.118-61.120 [Reserved]
Subpart F—Commercial Pilots § 61.121 Applicability. This subpart prescribes the requirements for the issuance of commercial pilot certificates and ratings, the conditions under which those certificates and ratings are necessary, and the general operating rules for persons who hold those certificates and ratings. § 61.123 Eligibility requirements: General. To be eligible for a commercial pilot certificate, a person must: (a) Be at least 18 years of age; (b) Be able to read, speak, write, and understand the English language. If the applicant is unable to meet one of these requirements due to medical reasons, then the Administrator may place such operating limitations on that applicant's pilot certificate as are necessary for the safe operation of the aircraft. (c) Receive a logbook endorsement from an authorized instructor who: (1) Conducted the required ground training or reviewed the person's home study on the aeronautical knowledge areas listed in § 61.125 of this part that apply to the aircraft category and class rating sought; and (2) Certified that the person is prepared for the required knowledge test that applies to the aircraft category and class rating sought. (d) Pass the required knowledge test on the aeronautical knowledge areas listed in § 61.125 of this part; (e) Receive the required training and a logbook endorsement from an authorized instructor who: (1) Conducted the training on the areas of operation listed in § 61.127(b) of this part that apply to the aircraft category and class rating sought; and (2) Certified that the person is prepared for the required practical test. (f) Meet the aeronautical experience requirements of this subpart that apply to the aircraft category and class rating sought before applying for the practical test; (g) Pass the required practical test on the areas of operation listed in § 61.127(b) of this part that apply to the aircraft category and class rating sought; (h) Hold at least a private pilot certificate issued under this part or meet the requirements of § 61.73; and (i) Comply with the sections of this part that apply to the aircraft category and class rating sought. § 61.125 Aeronautical knowledge. (a) General. A person who applies for a commercial pilot certificate must receive and log ground training from an authorized instructor, or complete a home-study course, on the aeronautical knowledge areas of paragraph (b) of this section that apply to the aircraft category and class rating sought. (b) Aeronautical knowledge areas. (1) Applicable Federal Aviation Regulations of this chapter that relate to commercial pilot privileges, limitations, and flight operations; (2) Accident reporting requirements of the National Transportation Safety Board; (3) Basic aerodynamics and the principles of flight; (4) Meteorology to include recognition of critical weather situations, windshear recognition and avoidance, and the use of aeronautical weather reports and forecasts; (5) Safe and efficient operation of aircraft; (6) Weight and balance computations; (7) Use of performance charts; (8) Significance and effects of exceeding aircraft performance limitations; (9) Use of aeronautical charts and a magnetic compass for pilotage and dead reckoning; (10) Use of air navigation facilities; (11) Aeronautical decision making and judgment; (12) Principles and functions of aircraft systems; (13) Maneuvers, procedures, and emergency operations appropriate to the aircraft; (14) Night and high-altitude operations;

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(15) Procedures for operating within the National Airspace System; and (16) Procedures for flight and ground training for lighter-than-air ratings. § 61.127 Flight proficiency. (a) General. A person who applies for a commercial pilot certificate must receive and log ground and flight training from an authorized instructor on the areas of operation of this section that apply to the aircraft category and class rating sought. (b) Areas of operation. (1) For an airplane category rating with a single-engine class rating: (i) Preflight preparation; (ii) Preflight procedures; (iii) Airport and seaplane base operations; (iv) Takeoffs, landings, and go-arounds; (v) Performance maneuvers; (vi) Ground reference maneuvers; (vii) Navigation; (viii) Slow flight and stalls; (ix) Emergency operations; (x) High-altitude operations; and (xi) Postflight procedures. (2) For an airplane category rating with a multiengine class rating: (i) Preflight preparation; (ii) Preflight procedures; (iii) Airport and seaplane base operations; (iv) Takeoffs, landings, and go-arounds; (v) Performance maneuvers; (vi) Navigation; (vii) Slow flight and stalls; (viii) Emergency operations; (ix) Multiengine operations; (x) High-altitude operations; and (xi) Postflight procedures. (3) For a rotorcraft category rating with a helicopter class rating: (i) Preflight preparation; (ii) Preflight procedures; (iii) Airport and heliport operations; (iv) Hovering maneuvers; (v) Takeoffs, landings, and go-arounds; (vi) Performance maneuvers; (vii) Navigation; (viii) Emergency operations; (ix) Special operations; and (x) Postflight procedures. (4) For a rotorcraft category rating with a gyroplane class rating: (i) Preflight preparation; (ii) Preflight procedures; (iii) Airport operations; (iv) Takeoffs, landings, and go-arounds; (v) Performance maneuvers; (vi) Ground reference maneuvers; (vii) Navigation; (viii) Flight at slow airspeeds; (ix) Emergency operations; and (x) Postflight procedures. (5) For a powered-lift category rating: (i) Preflight preparation; (ii) Preflight procedures; (iii) Airport and heliport operations; (iv) Hovering maneuvers; (v) Takeoffs, landings, and go-arounds; (vi) Performance maneuvers; (vii) Navigation; (viii) Slow flight and stalls; (ix) Emergency operations; (x) High-altitude operations; (xi) Special operations; and (xii) Postflight procedures. (6) For a glider category rating: (i) Preflight preparation; (ii) Preflight procedures; (iii) Airport and gliderport operations; (iv) Launches and landings; (v) Performance speeds; (vi) Soaring techniques; (vii) Performance maneuvers; (viii) Navigation; (ix) Slow flight and stalls; (x) Emergency operations; and (xi) Postflight procedures. (7) For a lighter-than-air category rating with an airship class rating: (i) Fundamentals of instructing; (ii) Technical subjects; (iii) Preflight preparation; (iv) Preflight lesson on a maneuver to be performed in flight; (v) Preflight procedures; (vi) Airport operations; (vii) Takeoffs, landings, and go-arounds; (viii) Performance maneuvers; (ix) Navigation; (x) Emergency operations; and (xi) Postflight procedures. (8) For a lighter-than-air category rating with a balloon class rating: (i) Fundamentals of instructing; (ii) Technical subjects; (iii) Preflight preparation;

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(iv) Preflight lesson on a maneuver to be performed in flight; (v) Preflight procedures; (vi) Airport operations; (vii) Launches and landings; (viii) Performance maneuvers; (ix) Navigation; (x) Emergency operations; and (xi) Postflight procedures. [Docket 25910, 62 FR 16298, Apr. 4, 1997, as amended by Amdt. 61-124, 74 FR 42558, Aug. 21, 2009] § 61.129 Aeronautical experience. (a) For an airplane single-engine rating. Except as provided in paragraph (i) of this section, a person who applies for a commercial pilot certificate with an airplane category and single-engine class rating must log at least 250 hours of flight time as a pilot that consists of at least: (1) 100 hours in powered aircraft, of which 50 hours must be in airplanes. (2) 100 hours of pilot-in-command flight time, which includes at least— (i) 50 hours in airplanes; and (ii) 50 hours in cross-country flight of which at least 10 hours must be in airplanes. (3) 20 hours of training on the areas of operation listed in § 61.127(b)(1) of this part that includes at least— (i) Ten hours of instrument training using a view-limiting device including attitude instrument flying, partial panel skills, recovery from unusual flight attitudes, and intercepting and tracking navigational systems. Five hours of the 10 hours required on instrument training must be in a single engine airplane; (ii) 10 hours of training in a complex airplane, a turbine-powered airplane, or a technically advanced airplane (TAA) that meets the requirements of paragraph (j) of this section, or any combination thereof. The airplane must be appropriate to land or sea for the rating sought; (iii) One 2-hour cross country flight in a single engine airplane in daytime conditions that consists of a total straight-line distance of more than 100 nautical miles from the original point of departure; (iv) One 2-hour cross country flight in a single engine airplane in nighttime conditions that consists of a total straight-line distance of more than 100 nautical miles from the original point of departure; and (v) Three hours in a single-engine airplane with an authorized instructor in preparation for the practical test within the preceding 2 calendar months from the month of the test. (4) Ten hours of solo flight time in a single engine airplane or 10 hours of flight time performing the duties of pilot in command in a single engine airplane with an authorized instructor on board (either of which may be credited towards the flight time requirement under paragraph (a)(2) of this section), on the areas of operation listed under § 61.127(b)(1) that include— (i) One cross-country flight of not less than 300 nautical miles total distance, with landings at a minimum of three points, one of which is a straight-line distance of at least 250 nautical miles from the original departure point. However, if this requirement is being met in Hawaii, the longest segment need only have a straight-line distance of at least 150 nautical miles; and (ii) 5 hours in night VFR conditions with 10 takeoffs and 10 landings (with each landing involving a flight in the traffic pattern) at an airport with an operating control tower. (b) For an airplane multiengine rating. Except as provided in paragraph (i) of this section, a person who applies for a commercial pilot certificate with an airplane category and multiengine class rating must log at least 250 hours of flight time as a pilot that consists of at least: (1) 100 hours in powered aircraft, of which 50 hours must be in airplanes. (2) 100 hours of pilot-in-command flight time, which includes at least— (i) 50 hours in airplanes; and (ii) 50 hours in cross-country flight of which at least 10 hours must be in airplanes. (3) 20 hours of training on the areas of operation listed in § 61.127(b)(2) of this part that includes at least— (i) Ten hours of instrument training using a view-limiting device including attitude instrument flying, partial panel skills, recovery from unusual flight attitudes, and intercepting and tracking navigational systems. Five hours of the 10 hours required on instrument training must be in a multiengine airplane;

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(ii) 10 hours of training in a multiengine complex or turbine-powered airplane; or for an applicant seeking a multiengine seaplane rating, 10 hours of training in a multiengine seaplane that has flaps and a controllable pitch propeller, including seaplanes equipped with an engine control system consisting of a digital computer and associated accessories for controlling the engine and propeller, such as a full authority digital engine control; (iii) One 2-hour cross country flight in a multiengine airplane in daytime conditions that consists of a total straight-line distance of more than 100 nautical miles from the original point of departure; (iv) One 2-hour cross country flight in a multiengine airplane in nighttime conditions that consists of a total straight-line distance of more than 100 nautical miles from the original point of departure; and (v) Three hours in a multiengine airplane with an authorized instructor in preparation for the practical test within the preceding 2 calendar months from the month of the test. (4) 10 hours of solo flight time in a multiengine airplane or 10 hours of flight time performing the duties of pilot in command in a multiengine airplane with an authorized instructor (either of which may be credited towards the flight time requirement in paragraph (b)(2) of this section), on the areas of operation listed in § 61.127(b)(2) of this part that includes at least— (i) One cross-country flight of not less than 300 nautical miles total distance with landings at a minimum of three points, one of which is a straight-line distance of at least 250 nautical miles from the original departure point. However, if this requirement is being met in Hawaii, the longest segment need only have a straight-line distance of at least 150 nautical miles; and (ii) 5 hours in night VFR conditions with 10 takeoffs and 10 landings (with each landing involving a flight with a traffic pattern) at an airport with an operating control tower. (c) For a helicopter rating. Except as provided in paragraph (i) of this section, a person who applies for a commercial pilot certificate with a rotorcraft category and helicopter class rating must log at least 150 hours of flight time as a pilot that consists of at least: (1) 100 hours in powered aircraft, of which 50 hours must be in helicopters. (2) 100 hours of pilot-in-command flight time, which includes at least— (i) 35 hours in helicopters; and (ii) 10 hours in cross-country flight in helicopters. (3) 20 hours of training on the areas of operation listed in § 61.127(b)(3) of this part that includes at least— (i) Five hours on the control and maneuvering of a helicopter solely by reference to instruments using a view-limiting device including attitude instrument flying, partial panel skills, recovery from unusual flight attitudes, and intercepting and tracking navigational systems. This aeronautical experience may be performed in an aircraft, full flight simulator, flight training device, or an aviation training device; (ii) One 2-hour cross country flight in a helicopter in daytime conditions that consists of a total straight-line distance of more than 50 nautical miles from the original point of departure; (iii) One 2-hour cross country flight in a helicopter in nighttime conditions that consists of a total straight-line distance of more than 50 nautical miles from the original point of departure; and (iv) Three hours in a helicopter with an authorized instructor in preparation for the practical test within the preceding 2 calendar months from the month of the test. (4) Ten hours of solo flight time in a helicopter or 10 hours of flight time performing the duties of pilot in command in a helicopter with an authorized instructor on board (either of which may be credited towards the flight time requirement under paragraph (c)(2) of this section), on the areas of operation listed under § 61.127(b)(3) that includes— (i) One cross-country flight with landings at a minimum of three points, with one segment consisting of a straight-line distance of at least 50 nautical miles from the original point of departure; and

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(ii) 5 hours in night VFR conditions with 10 takeoffs and 10 landings (with each landing involving a flight in the traffic pattern). (d) For a gyroplane rating. A person who applies for a commercial pilot certificate with a rotorcraft category and gyroplane class rating must log at least 150 hours of flight time as a pilot (of which 5 hours may have been accomplished in a full flight simulator or flight training device that is representative of a gyroplane) that consists of at least: (1) 100 hours in powered aircraft, of which 25 hours must be in gyroplanes. (2) 100 hours of pilot-in-command flight time, which includes at least— (i) 10 hours in gyroplanes; and (ii) 3 hours in cross-country flight in gyroplanes. (3) 20 hours of training on the areas of operation listed in § 61.127(b)(4) of this part that includes at least— (i) 2.5 hours on the control and maneuvering of a gyroplane solely by reference to instruments using a view-limiting device including attitude instrument flying, partial panel skills, recovery from unusual flight attitudes, and intercepting and tracking navigational systems. This aeronautical experience may be performed in an aircraft, full flight simulator, flight training device, or an aviation training device; (ii) One 2-hour cross country flight in a gyroplane in daytime conditions that consists of a total straight-line distance of more than 50 nautical miles from the original point of departure; (iii) Two hours of flight training during nighttime conditions in a gyroplane at an airport, that includes 10 takeoffs and 10 landings to a full stop (with each landing involving a flight in the traffic pattern); and (iv) Three hours in a gyroplane with an authorized instructor in preparation for the practical test within the preceding 2 calendar months from the month of the test. (4) Ten hours of solo flight time in a gyroplane or 10 hours of flight time performing the duties of pilot in command in a gyroplane with an authorized instructor on board (either of which may be credited towards the flight time requirement under paragraph (d)(2) of this section), on the areas of operation listed in § 61.127(b)(4) that includes— (i) One cross-country flight with landings at a minimum of three points, with one segment consisting of a straight-line distance of at least 50 nautical miles from the original point of departure; and (ii) 5 hours in night VFR conditions with 10 takeoffs and 10 landings (with each landing involving a flight in the traffic pattern). (e) For a powered-lift rating. Except as provided in paragraph (i) of this section, a person who applies for a commercial pilot certificate with a powered-lift category rating must log at least 250 hours of flight time as a pilot that consists of at least: (1) 100 hours in powered aircraft, of which 50 hours must be in a powered-lift. (2) 100 hours of pilot-in-command flight time, which includes at least— (i) 50 hours in a powered-lift; and (ii) 50 hours in cross-country flight of which 10 hours must be in a powered-lift. (3) 20 hours of training on the areas of operation listed in § 61.127(b)(5) of this part that includes at least— (i) Ten hours of instrument training using a view-limiting device including attitude instrument flying, partial panel skills, recovery from unusual flight attitudes, and intercepting and tracking navigational systems. Five hours of the 10 hours required on instrument training must be in a powered-lift; (ii) One 2-hour cross country flight in a powered-lift in daytime conditions that consists of a total straight-line distance of more than 100 nautical miles from the original point of departure; (iii) One 2-hour cross country flight in a powered-lift in nighttime conditions that consists of a total straight-line distance of more than 100 nautical miles from the original point of departure; and (iv) 3 hours in a powered-lift with an authorized instructor in preparation for the practical test within the preceding 2 calendar months from the month of the test.

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(4) Ten hours of solo flight time in a powered-lift or 10 hours of flight time performing the duties of pilot in command in a powered-lift with an authorized instructor on board (either of which may be credited towards the flight time requirement under paragraph (e)(2) of this section, on the areas of operation listed in § 61.127(b)(5) that includes— (i) One cross-country flight of not less than 300 nautical miles total distance with landings at a minimum of three points, one of which is a straight-line distance of at least 250 nautical miles from the original departure point. However, if this requirement is being met in Hawaii the longest segment need only have a straight-line distance of at least 150 nautical miles; and (ii) 5 hours in night VFR conditions with 10 takeoffs and 10 landings (with each landing involving a flight in the traffic pattern) at an airport with an operating control tower. (f) For a glider rating. A person who applies for a commercial pilot certificate with a glider category rating must log at least— (1) 25 hours of flight time as a pilot in a glider and that flight time must include at least 100 flights in a glider as pilot in command, including at least— (i) Three hours of flight training in a glider with an authorized instructor or 10 training flights in a glider with an authorized instructor on the areas of operation listed in § 61.127(b)(6) of this part, including at least 3 training flights in a glider with an authorized instructor in preparation for the practical test within the preceding 2 calendar months from the month of the test; and (ii) 2 hours of solo flight that include not less than 10 solo flights in a glider on the areas of operation listed in § 61.127(b)(6) of this part; or (2) 200 hours of flight time as a pilot in heavier-than-air aircraft and at least 20 flights in a glider as pilot in command, including at least— (i) Three hours of flight training in a glider or 10 training flights in a glider with an authorized instructor on the areas of operation listed in § 61.127(b)(6) of this part including at least 3 training flights in a glider with an authorized instructor in preparation for the practical test within the preceding 2 calendar months from the month of the test; and (ii) 5 solo flights in a glider on the areas of operation listed in § 61.127(b)(6) of this part. (g) For an airship rating. A person who applies for a commercial pilot certificate with a lighter-than-air category and airship class rating must log at least 200 hours of flight time as a pilot, which includes at least the following hours: (1) 50 hours in airships. (2) Thirty hours of pilot in command flight time in airships or performing the duties of pilot in command in an airship with an authorized instructor aboard, which consists of— (i) 10 hours of cross-country flight time in airships; and (ii) 10 hours of night flight time in airships. (3) Forty hours of instrument time to include— (i) Instrument training using a view-limiting device for attitude instrument flying, partial panel skills, recovery from unusual flight attitudes, and intercepting and tracking navigational systems; and (ii) Twenty hours of instrument flight time, of which 10 hours must be in flight in airships. (4) 20 hours of flight training in airships on the areas of operation listed in § 61.127(b)(7) of this part, which includes at least— (i) Three hours in an airship with an authorized instructor in preparation for the practical test within the preceding 2 calendar months from the month of the test; (ii) One hour cross country flight in an airship in daytime conditions that consists of a total straight-line distance of more than 25 nautical miles from the point of departure; and (iii) One hour cross country flight in an airship in nighttime conditions that consists of a total straight-line distance of more than 25 nautical miles from the point of departure. (5) 10 hours of flight training performing the duties of pilot in command with an authorized instructor on the areas of operation listed in § 61.127(b)(7) of this part, which includes at least—

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(i) One cross-country flight with landings at a minimum of three points, with one segment consisting of a straight-line distance of at least 25 nautical miles from the original point of departure; and (ii) 5 hours in night VFR conditions with 10 takeoffs and 10 landings (with each landing involving a flight in the traffic pattern). (h) For a balloon rating. A person who applies for a commercial pilot certificate with a lighter-than-air category and a balloon class rating must log at least 35 hours of flight time as a pilot, which includes at least the following requirements: (1) 20 hours in balloons; (2) 10 flights in balloons; (3) Two flights in balloons as the pilot in command; and (4) 10 hours of flight training that includes at least 10 training flights with an authorized instructor in balloons on the areas of operation listed in § 61.127(b)(8) of this part, which consists of at least— (i) For a gas balloon— (A) Two training flights of 2 hours each in a gas balloon with an authorized instructor in preparation for the practical test within the preceding 2 calendar months from the month of the test; (B) 2 flights performing the duties of pilot in command in a gas balloon with an authorized instructor on the appropriate areas of operation; and (C) One flight involving a controlled ascent to 5,000 feet above the launch site. (ii) For a balloon with an airborne heater— (A) Two training flights of 1 hour each in a balloon with an airborne heater with an authorized instructor in preparation for the practical test within the preceding 2 calendar months from the month of the test; (B) Two solo flights in a balloon with an airborne heater on the appropriate areas of operation; and (C) One flight involving a controlled ascent to 3,000 feet above the launch site. (i) Permitted credit for use of a flight simulator or flight training device. (1) Except as provided in paragraph (i)(2) of this section, an applicant who has not accomplished the training required by this section in a course conducted by a training center certificated under part 142 of this chapter may: (i) Credit a maximum of 50 hours toward the total aeronautical experience requirements for an airplane or powered-lift rating, provided the aeronautical experience was obtained from an authorized instructor in a full flight simulator or flight training device that represents that class of airplane or powered-lift category and type, if applicable, appropriate to the rating sought; and (ii) Credit a maximum of 25 hours toward the total aeronautical experience requirements of this section for a helicopter rating, provided the aeronautical experience was obtained from an authorized instructor in a full flight simulator or flight training device that represents a helicopter and type, if applicable, appropriate to the rating sought. (2) An applicant who has accomplished the training required by this section in a course conducted by a training center certificated under part 142 of this chapter may: (i) Credit a maximum of 100 hours toward the total aeronautical experience requirements of this section for an airplane and powered-lift rating, provided the aeronautical experience was obtained from an authorized instructor in a full flight simulator or flight training device that represents that class of airplane or powered-lift category and type, if applicable, appropriate to the rating sought; and (ii) Credit a maximum of 50 hours toward the total aeronautical experience requirements of this section for a helicopter rating, provided the aeronautical experience was obtained from an authorized instructor in a full flight simulator or flight training device that represents a helicopter and type, if applicable, appropriate to the rating sought. (3) Except when fewer hours are approved by the FAA, an applicant for the commercial pilot certificate with the airplane or powered-lift rating who has completed 190 hours of aeronautical experience is considered to have met the total aeronautical experience requirements of this section, provided the applicant satisfactorily completed an approved commercial pilot course under part 142 of this chapter and the approved course was appropriate to the commercial pilot certificate and aircraft rating sought.

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(j) Technically advanced airplane. Unless otherwise authorized by the Administrator, a technically advanced airplane must be equipped with an electronically advanced avionics system that includes the following installed components: (1) An electronic Primary Flight Display (PFD) that includes, at a minimum, an airspeed indicator, turn coordinator, attitude indicator, heading indicator, altimeter, and vertical speed indicator; (2) An electronic Multifunction Display (MFD) that includes, at a minimum, a moving map using Global Positioning System (GPS) navigation with the aircraft position displayed; (3) A two axis autopilot integrated with the navigation and heading guidance system; and (4) The display elements described in paragraphs (j)(1) and (2) of this section must be continuously visible. [Docket 25910, 62 FR 16298, Apr. 4, 1997; Amdt. 61-101, 62 FR 16892, Apr. 8, 1997; Amdt. 61-103, 62 FR 40904, July 30, 1997; Amdt. 61-104, 63 FR 20288, Apr. 23, 1998; Amdt. 61-124, 74 FR 42558, Aug. 21, 2009; Amdt. 61-124A, 74 FR 53645, Oct. 20, 2009; Amdt. 61-142, 83 FR 30278, June 27, 2018] § 61.131 Exceptions to the night flying requirements. (a) Subject to the limitations of paragraph (b) of this section, a person is not required to comply with the night flight training requirements of this subpart if the person receives flight training in and resides in the State of Alaska. (b) A person who receives flight training in and resides in the State of Alaska but does not meet the night flight training requirements of this section: (1) May be issued a pilot certificate with the limitation “night flying prohibited.” (2) Must comply with the appropriate night flight training requirements of this subpart within the 12-calendar-month period after the issuance of the pilot certificate. At the end of that period, the certificate will become invalid for use until the person complies with the appropriate night flight training requirements of this subpart. The person may have the “night flying prohibited” limitation removed if the person— (i) Accomplishes the appropriate night flight training requirements of this subpart; and (ii) Presents to an examiner a logbook or training record endorsement from an authorized instructor that verifies accomplishment of the appropriate night flight training requirements of this subpart. [Docket 25910, 62 FR 16298, Apr. 4, 1997; Amdt. 61-103, 62 FR 40905, July 30, 1997] § 61.133 Commercial pilot privileges and limitations. (a) Privileges —(1) General. A person who holds a commercial pilot certificate may act as pilot in command of an aircraft— (i) Carrying persons or property for compensation or hire, provided the person is qualified in accordance with this part and with the applicable parts of this chapter that apply to the operation; and (ii) For compensation or hire, provided the person is qualified in accordance with this part and with the applicable parts of this chapter that apply to the operation. (2) Commercial pilots with lighter-than-air category ratings. A person with a commercial pilot certificate with a lighter-than-air category rating may— (i) For an airship —(A) Give flight and ground training in an airship for the issuance of a certificate or rating; (B) Give an endorsement for a pilot certificate with an airship rating; (C) Endorse a pilot's logbook for solo operating privileges in an airship; (D) Act as pilot in command of an airship under IFR or in weather conditions less than the minimum prescribed for VFR flight; and (E) Give flight and ground training and endorsements that are required for a flight review, an operating privilege or recency-of-experience requirements of this part.

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(ii) For a balloon —(A) Give flight and ground training in a balloon for the issuance of a certificate or rating; (B) Give an endorsement for a pilot certificate with a balloon rating; (C) Endorse a pilot's logbook for solo operating privileges in a balloon; and (D) Give ground and flight training and endorsements that are required for a flight review, an operating privilege, or recency-of-experience requirements of this part. (b) Limitations. (1) A person who applies for a commercial pilot certificate with an airplane category or powered-lift category rating and does not hold an instrument rating in the same category and class will be issued a commercial pilot certificate that contains the limitation, “The carriage of passengers for hire in (airplanes) (powered-lifts) on cross-country flights in excess of 50 nautical miles or at night is prohibited.” The limitation may be removed when the person satisfactorily accomplishes the requirements listed in § 61.65 of this part for an instrument rating in the same category and class of aircraft listed on the person's commercial pilot certificate. (2) If a person who applies for a commercial pilot certificate with a balloon rating takes a practical test in a balloon with an airborne heater— (i) The pilot certificate will contain a limitation restricting the exercise of the privileges of that certificate to a balloon with an airborne heater. (ii) The limitation specified in paragraph (b)(2)(i) of this section may be removed when the person obtains the required aeronautical experience in a gas balloon and receives a logbook endorsement from an authorized instructor who attests to the person's accomplishment of the required aeronautical experience and ability to satisfactorily operate a gas balloon. (3) If a person who applies for a commercial pilot certificate with a balloon rating takes a practical test in a gas balloon— (i) The pilot certificate will contain a limitation restricting the exercise of the privileges of that certificate to a gas balloon. (ii) The limitation specified in paragraph (b)(3)(i) of this section may be removed when the person obtains the required aeronautical experience in a balloon with an airborne heater and receives a logbook endorsement from an authorized instructor who attests to the person's accomplishment of the required aeronautical experience and ability to satisfactorily operate a balloon with an airborne heater. [Docket 25910, 62 FR 16298, Apr. 4, 1997; Amdt. 61-103, 62 FR 40905, July 30, 1997; Docket FAA-2010-1127, Amdt. 61-135, 81 FR 1306, Jan. 12, 2016] §§ 61.135-61.141 [Reserved]
Subpart G—Airline Transport Pilots § 61.151 Applicability. This subpart prescribes the requirements for the issuance of airline transport pilot certificates and ratings, the conditions under which those certificates and ratings are necessary, and the general operating rules for persons who hold those certificates and ratings. § 61.153 Eligibility requirements: General. To be eligible for an airline transport pilot certificate, a person must: (a) Meet the following age requirements: (1) For an airline transport pilot certificate obtained under the aeronautical experience requirements of §§ 61.159, 61.161, or 61.163, be at least 23 years of age; or (2) For an airline transport pilot certificate obtained under the aeronautical experience requirements of § 61.160, be at least 21 years of age. (b) Be able to read, speak, write, and understand the English language. If the applicant is unable to meet one of these requirements due to medical reasons, then the Administrator may place such operating limitations on that applicant's pilot certificate as are necessary for the safe operation of the aircraft; (c) Be of good moral character; (d) Meet at least one of the following requirements: (1) Holds a commercial pilot certificate with an instrument rating issued under this part; (2) Meet the military experience requirements under § 61.73 of this part to qualify for a commercial pilot certificate, and an instrument rating if the person is a rated military pilot or former rated military pilot of an Armed Force of the United States; or

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(3) Holds either a foreign airline transport pilot license with instrument privileges, or a foreign commercial pilot license with an instrument rating, that— (i) Was issued by a contracting State to the Convention on International Civil Aviation; and (ii) Contains no geographical limitations. (e) For an airline transport pilot certificate with an airplane category multiengine class rating or an airline transport pilot certificate obtained concurrently with a multiengine airplane type rating, receive a graduation certificate from an authorized training provider certifying completion of the airline transport pilot certification training program specified in § 61.156 before applying for the knowledge test required by paragraph (g) of this section; (f) Meet the aeronautical experience requirements of this subpart that apply to the aircraft category and class rating sought before applying for the practical test; (g) Pass a knowledge test on the aeronautical knowledge areas of § 61.155(c) of this part that apply to the aircraft category and class rating sought; (h) Pass the practical test on the areas of operation listed in § 61.157(e) of this part that apply to the aircraft category and class rating sought; and (i) Comply with the sections of this subpart that apply to the aircraft category and class rating sought. [Docket 25910, 62 FR 16298, Apr. 4, 1997; Amdt. 61-103, 62 FR 40905, July 30, 1997; Amdt. 61-124, 74 FR 42559, Aug. 21, 2009; Amdt. 61-130, 78 FR 42374, July 15, 2013; Amdt. 61-149, 86 FR 62087, Nov. 9, 2021] § 61.155 Aeronautical knowledge. (a) General. The knowledge test for an airline transport pilot certificate is based on the aeronautical knowledge areas listed in paragraph (c) of this section that are appropriate to the aircraft category and class rating sought. (b) Aircraft type rating. A person who is applying for an additional aircraft type rating to be added to an airline transport pilot certificate is not required to pass a knowledge test if that person's airline transport pilot certificate lists the aircraft category and class rating that is appropriate to the type rating sought. (c) Aeronautical knowledge areas. (1) Applicable Federal Aviation Regulations of this chapter that relate to airline transport pilot privileges, limitations, and flight operations; (2) Meteorology, including knowledge of and effects of fronts, frontal characteristics, cloud formations, icing, and upper-air data; (3) General system of weather and NOTAM collection, dissemination, interpretation, and use; (4) Interpretation and use of weather charts, maps, forecasts, sequence reports, abbreviations, and symbols; (5) National Weather Service functions as they pertain to operations in the National Airspace System; (6) Windshear and microburst awareness, identification, and avoidance; (7) Principles of air navigation under instrument meteorological conditions in the National Airspace System; (8) Air traffic control procedures and pilot responsibilities as they relate to en route operations, terminal area and radar operations, and instrument departure and approach procedures; (9) Aircraft loading, weight and balance, use of charts, graphs, tables, formulas, and computations, and their effect on aircraft performance; (10) Aerodynamics relating to an aircraft's flight characteristics and performance in normal and abnormal flight regimes; (11) Human factors; (12) Aeronautical decision making and judgment; (13) Crew resource management to include crew communication and coordination; and (14) For an airline transport pilot certificate with an airplane category multiengine class rating or an airline transport pilot certificate obtained concurrently with a multiengine airplane type rating, the content of the airline transport pilot certification training program in § 61.156.

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[Docket 25910, 62 FR 16298, Apr. 4, 1997, as amended by Amdt. 61-130, 78 FR 42374, July 15, 2013; Amdt. 61-130C, 81 FR 2, Jan. 4, 2016; Amdt. 61-149, 86 FR 62087, Nov. 9, 2021] § 61.156 Training requirements: Airplane category—multiengine class or multiengine airplane type rating concurrently with an airline transport pilot certificate. A person who applies for the knowledge test for an airline transport pilot certificate with an airplane category multiengine class rating must present a graduation certificate from an authorized training provider under part 121, 135, 141, or 142 of this chapter certifying the applicant has completed the following training in a course approved by the Administrator. (a) Academic training. The applicant for the knowledge test must receive at least 30 hours of classroom instruction that includes the following: (1) At least 8 hours of instruction on aerodynamics including high altitude operations; (2) At least 2 hours of instruction on meteorology, including adverse weather phenomena and weather detection systems; and (3) At least 14 hours of instruction on air carrier operations, including the following areas: (i) Physiology; (ii) Communications; (iii) Checklist philosophy; (iv) Operational control; (v) Minimum equipment list/configuration deviation list; (vi) Ground operations; (vii) Turbine engines; (viii) Transport category aircraft performance; (ix) Automation, navigation, and flight path warning systems. (4) At least 6 hours of instruction on leadership, professional development, crew resource management, and safety culture. (b) FSTD training. The applicant for the knowledge test must receive at least 10 hours of training in a flight simulation training device qualified under part 60 of this chapter that represents a multiengine turbine airplane. The training must include the following: (1) At least 6 hours of training in a Level C or higher full flight simulator qualified under part 60 of this chapter that represents a multiengine turbine airplane with a maximum takeoff weight of 40,000 pounds or greater. The training must include the following areas: (i) Low energy states/stalls; (ii) Upset recovery techniques; and (iii) Adverse weather conditions, including icing, thunderstorms, and crosswinds with gusts. (2) The remaining FSTD training may be completed in a Level 4 or higher flight simulation training device. The training must include the following areas: (i) Navigation including flight management systems; and (ii) Automation including autoflight. (c) Deviation authority. The Administrator may issue deviation authority from the weight requirement in paragraph (b)(1) of this section upon a determination that the objectives of the training can be met in an alternative device. [Docket FAA-2010-0100, 78 FR 42375, July 15, 2013, as amended by Amdt. 61-149, 86 FR 62087, Nov. 9, 2021] § 61.157 Flight proficiency. (a) General. (1) The practical test for an airline transport pilot certificate is given for— (i) An airplane category and single engine class rating. (ii) An airplane category and multiengine class rating. (iii) A rotorcraft category and helicopter class rating. (iv) A powered-lift category rating. (v) An aircraft type rating. (2) A person who is applying for an airline transport pilot practical test must meet— (i) The eligibility requirements of § 61.153; and (ii) The aeronautical knowledge and aeronautical experience requirements of this subpart that apply to the aircraft category and class rating sought. (b) Aircraft type rating. Except as provided in paragraph (c) of this section, a person who applies for an aircraft type rating to be added to an airline transport pilot certificate or applies for a type rating to be concurrently completed with an airline transport pilot certificate:

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(1) Must receive and log ground and flight training from an authorized instructor on the areas of operation under this section that apply to the aircraft type rating; (2) Must receive a logbook endorsement from an authorized instructor that certifies the applicant completed the training on the areas of operation listed under paragraph (e) of this section that apply to the aircraft type rating; and (3) Must perform the practical test in actual or simulated instrument conditions, except as provided under paragraph (g) of this section. (c) Exceptions. A person who applies for an aircraft type rating to be added to an airline transport pilot certificate or an aircraft type rating concurrently with an airline transport pilot certificate, and who is an employee of a certificate holder operating under part 121 or part 135 of this chapter, does not need to comply with the requirements of paragraph (b) of this section if the applicant presents a training record that shows completion of that certificate holder's approved training program for the aircraft type rating. (d) Upgrading type ratings. Any type rating(s) and limitations on a pilot certificate of an applicant who completes an airline transport pilot practical test will be included at the airline transport pilot certification level, provided the applicant passes the practical test in the same category and class of aircraft for which the applicant holds the type rating(s). (e) Areas of Operation. A practical test will include normal and abnormal procedures, as applicable, within the areas of operation for practical tests for an airplane category and powered-lift category rating. (1) For an airplane category—single engine class rating: (i) Preflight preparation; (ii) Preflight procedures; (iii) Takeoffs and Landings; (iv) In-flight maneuvers; (v) Stall Prevention; (vi) Instrument procedures; (vii) Emergency operations; and (viii) Postflight procedures. (2) For an airplane category—multiengine class rating: (i) Preflight preparation; (ii) Preflight procedures; (iii) Takeoffs and Landings; (iv) In-flight maneuvers; (v) Stall Prevention. (vi) Instrument procedures; (vii) Emergency operations; and (viii) Postflight procedures. (3) For a powered-lift category rating: (i) Preflight preparation; (ii) Preflight procedures; (iii) Takeoffs and Departure phase; (iv) In-flight maneuvers; (v) Instrument procedures; (vi) Landings and approaches to landings; (vii) Emergency operations; and (viii) Postflight procedures. (4) For a rotorcraft category—helicopter class rating: (i) Preflight preparation; (ii) Preflight procedures; (iii) Takeoff and departure phase; (iv) In-flight maneuvers; (v) Instrument procedures; (vi) Landings and approaches to landings; (vii) Normal and abnormal procedures; (viii) Emergency procedures; and (ix) Postflight procedures. (f) Proficiency and competency checks conducted under part 121, part 135, or subpart K of part 91. (1) Successful completion of any of the following checks satisfies the flight proficiency requirements of this section for the issuance of an airline transport pilot certificate and/or the appropriate aircraft rating: (i) A proficiency check under § 121.441 of this chapter. (ii) Both a competency check under § 135.293(a)(2) and § 135.293(b) of this chapter and pilot-in-command instrument proficiency check under § 135.297 of this chapter. (iii) Both a competency check under § 91.1065 of this chapter and a pilot-in-command instrument proficiency check under § 91.1069 of this chapter. (2) The checks specified in paragraph (f)(1) of this section must be conducted by one of the following: (i) An FAA Aviation Safety Inspector.

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(ii) An Aircrew Program Designee who is authorized to perform proficiency and/or competency checks for the air carrier whose approved training program has been satisfactorily completed by the pilot applicant. (iii) A Training Center Evaluator with appropriate certification authority who is also authorized to perform the portions of the competency and/or proficiency checks required by paragraph (f)(1) of this section for the air carrier whose approved training program has been satisfactorily completed by the pilot applicant. (g) Aircraft not capable of instrument maneuvers and procedures. An applicant may add a type rating to an airline transport pilot certificate with an aircraft that is not capable of the instrument maneuvers and procedures required on the practical test under the following circumstances— (1) The rating is limited to “VFR only.” (2) The type rating is added to an airline transport pilot certificate that has instrument privileges in that category and class of aircraft. (3) The “VFR only” limitation may be removed for that aircraft type after the applicant: (i) Passes a practical test in that type of aircraft on the appropriate instrument maneuvers and procedures in § 61.157; or (ii) Becomes qualified in § 61.73(d) for that type of aircraft. (h) Multiengine airplane with a single-pilot station. An applicant for a type rating, at the ATP certification level, in a multiengine airplane with a single-pilot station must perform the practical test in the multi-seat version of that airplane. The practical test may be performed in the single-seat version of that airplane if the Examiner is in a position to observe the applicant during the practical test in the case where there is no multi-seat version of that multiengine airplane. (i) Single engine airplane with a single-pilot station. An applicant for a type rating, at the ATP certification level, in a single engine airplane with a single-pilot station must perform the practical test in the multi-seat version of that single engine airplane. The practical test may be performed in the single-seat version of that airplane if the Examiner is in a position to observe the applicant during the practical test in the case where there is no multi-seat version of that single engine airplane. (j) Waiver authority. An Examiner who conducts a practical test may waive any task for which the FAA has provided waiver authority. [Docket FAA-2006-26661, 74 FR 42560, Aug. 21, 2009; Amdt. 61-124A, 74 FR 53647, Oct. 20, 2009, as amended by Amdt. 61-130, 78 FR 42375, July 15, 2013; Docket FAA-2022-1463, Amdt. 61-153, 89 FR 22517, Apr. 1, 2024] § 61.158 [Reserved]
§ 61.159 Aeronautical experience: Airplane category rating. (a) Except as provided in paragraphs (b), (c), and (d) of this section, a person who is applying for an airline transport pilot certificate with an airplane category and class rating must have at least 1,500 hours of total time as a pilot that includes at least: (1) 500 hours of cross-country flight time. (2) 100 hours of night flight time. (3) 50 hours of flight time in the class of airplane for the rating sought. A maximum of 25 hours of training in a full flight simulator representing the class of airplane for the rating sought may be credited toward the flight time requirement of this paragraph if the training was accomplished as part of an approved training course in parts 121, 135, 141, or 142 of this chapter. A flight training device or aviation training device may not be used to satisfy this requirement. (4) 75 hours of instrument flight time, in actual or simulated instrument conditions, subject to the following: (i) Except as provided in paragraph (a)(4)(ii) of this section, an applicant may not receive credit for more than a total of 25 hours of simulated instrument time in a full flight simulator or flight training device. (ii) A maximum of 50 hours of training in a full flight simulator or flight training device may be credited toward the instrument flight time requirements of paragraph (a)(4) of this section if the training was accomplished in a course conducted by a training center certificated under part 142 of this chapter.

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(iii) Training in a full flight simulator or flight training device must be accomplished in a full flight simulator or flight training device, representing an airplane. (5) 250 hours of flight time in an airplane as a pilot in command, or as second in command performing the duties of pilot in command while under the supervision of a pilot in command, or any combination thereof, subject to the following: (i) The flight time requirement must include at least— (A) 100 hours of cross-country flight time; and (B) 25 hours of night flight time. (ii) Except for a person who has been removed from flying status for lack of proficiency or because of a disciplinary action involving aircraft operations, a U.S. military pilot or former U.S. military pilot who meets the requirements of § 61.73(b)(1), or a military pilot in the Armed Forces of a foreign contracting State to the Convention on International Civil Aviation who meets the requirements of § 61.73(c)(1), may credit flight time in a powered-lift aircraft operated in horizontal flight toward the flight time requirement. (6) Not more than 100 hours of the total aeronautical experience requirements of paragraph (a) of this section or § 61.160 may be obtained in a full flight simulator or flight training device provided the device represents an airplane and the aeronautical experience was accomplished as part of an approved training course in parts 121, 135, 141, or 142 of this chapter. (b) A person who has performed at least 20 night takeoffs and landings to a full stop may substitute each additional night takeoff and landing to a full stop for 1 hour of night flight time to satisfy the requirements of paragraph (a)(2) of this section; however, not more than 25 hours of night flight time may be credited in this manner. (c) A commercial pilot may log second-in-command pilot time toward the aeronautical experience requirements of paragraph (a) of this section and the aeronautical experience requirements in § 61.160, provided the pilot is employed by a part 119 certificate holder authorized to conduct operations under part 135 of this chapter and the second-in-command pilot time is obtained in operations conducted for the certificate holder under part 91 or 135 of this chapter when a second pilot is not required under the type certification of the aircraft or the regulations under which the flight is being conducted, and the following requirements are met— (1) The experience must be accomplished as part of a second-in-command professional development program approved by the Administrator under § 135.99 of this chapter; (2) The flight operation must be conducted in accordance with the certificate holder's operations specification for the second-in-command professional development program; (3) The pilot in command of the operation must certify in the pilot's logbook that the second-in-command pilot time was accomplished under this section; and (4) The pilot time may not be logged as pilot-in-command time even when the pilot is the sole manipulator of the controls and may not be used to meet the aeronautical experience requirements in paragraph (a)(5) of this section. (d) A commercial pilot may log the following flight engineer flight time toward the 1,500 hours of total time as a pilot required by paragraph (a) of this section and the total time as a pilot required by § 61.160: (1) Flight-engineer time, provided the time— (i) Is acquired in an airplane required to have a flight engineer by the airplane's flight manual or type certificate; (ii) Is acquired while engaged in operations under part 121 of this chapter for which a flight engineer is required; (iii) Is acquired while the person is participating in a pilot training program approved under part 121 of this chapter; and (iv) Does not exceed more than 1 hour for each 3 hours of flight engineer flight time for a total credited time of no more than 500 hours. (2) Flight-engineer time, provided the flight time—

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(i) Is acquired as a U.S. Armed Forces' flight engineer crewmember in an airplane that requires a flight engineer crewmember by the flight manual; (ii) Is acquired while the person is participating in a flight engineer crewmember training program for the U.S. Armed Forces; and (iii) Does not exceed 1 hour for each 3 hours of flight engineer flight time for a total credited time of no more than 500 hours. (e) An applicant who credits time under paragraphs (b) through (d) of this section and § 61.51(f)(4) is issued an airline transport pilot certificate with the limitation “Holder does not meet the pilot in command aeronautical experience requirements of ICAO,” as prescribed under Article 39 of the Convention on International Civil Aviation. (f) An applicant is entitled to an airline transport pilot certificate without the ICAO limitation specified under paragraph (e) of this section when the applicant presents satisfactory evidence of having met the ICAO requirements under paragraph (e) of this section and otherwise meets the aeronautical experience requirements of this section. [Docket 25910, 62 FR 16298, Apr. 4, 1997, as amended by Amdt. 61-103, 62 FR 40906, July 30, 1997; Amdt. 61-104, 63 FR 20288, Apr. 23, 1998; Amdt. 61-109, 68 FR 54560, Sept. 17, 2003; Amdt. 61-124, 74 FR 42561, Aug. 21, 2009; Amdt. 61-130, 78 FR 42375, July 15, 2013; Admt. 61-130A, 78 FR 44874, July 25, 2013; Amdt. 61-130B, 78 FR 77573, Dec. 24, 2013; Amdt. 61-142, 83 FR 30278, June 27, 2018; Amdt. 61-150, 87 FR 57590, Sept. 21, 2022; Docket FAA-2023-1351, Amdt. 61-156, 89 FR 80340, Oct. 2, 2024] § 61.160 Aeronautical experience—airplane category restricted privileges. (a) Except for a person who has been removed from flying status for lack of proficiency or because of a disciplinary action involving aircraft operations, a U.S. military pilot or former U.S. military pilot may apply for an airline transport pilot certificate with an airplane category multiengine class rating or an airline transport pilot certificate concurrently with a multiengine airplane type rating with a minimum of 750 hours of total time as a pilot if the pilot presents: (1) An official Form DD-214 (Certificate of Release or Discharge from Active Duty) indicating that the person was honorably discharged from the U.S. Armed Forces or an official U.S. Armed Forces record that shows the pilot is currently serving in the U.S. Armed Forces; and (2) An official U.S. Armed Forces record that shows the person graduated from a U.S. Armed Forces undergraduate pilot training school and received a rating qualification as a military pilot. (b) A person may apply for an airline transport pilot certificate with an airplane category multiengine class rating or an airline transport pilot certificate concurrently with a multiengine airplane type rating with a minimum of 1,000 hours of total time as a pilot if the person: (1) Holds a Bachelor's degree with an aviation major from an institution of higher education, as defined in § 61.1, that has been issued a letter of authorization by the Administrator under § 61.169; (2) Completes 60 semester credit hours of aviation and aviation-related coursework that has been recognized by the Administrator as coursework designed to improve and enhance the knowledge and skills of a person seeking a career as a professional pilot; (3) Holds a commercial pilot certificate with an airplane category and instrument rating if: (i) The required ground training was completed as part of an approved part 141 curriculum at the institution of higher education; and (ii) The required flight training was completed as part of an approved part 141 curriculum at the institution of higher education or at a part 141 pilot school that has a training agreement under § 141.26 of this chapter with the institution of higher education; and (4) Presents official transcripts or other documentation acceptable to the Administrator from the institution of higher education certifying that the graduate has satisfied the requirements in paragraphs (b)(1) through (3) of this section.

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(c) A person may apply for an airline transport pilot certificate with an airplane category multiengine class rating or an airline transport pilot certificate concurrently with a multiengine airplane type rating with a minimum of 1,250 hours of total time as a pilot if the person: (1) Holds an Associate's degree with an aviation major from an institution of higher education, as defined in § 61.1, that has been issued a letter of authorization by the Administrator under § 61.169; (2) Completes at least 30 semester credit hours of aviation and aviation-related coursework that has been recognized by the Administrator as coursework designed to improve and enhance the knowledge and skills of a person seeking a career as a professional pilot; (3) Holds a commercial pilot certificate with an airplane category and instrument rating if: (i) The required ground training was completed as part of an approved part 141 curriculum at the institution of higher education; and (ii) The required flight training was completed as part of an approved part 141 curriculum at the institution of higher education or at a part 141 pilot school that has a written training agreement under § 141.26 of this chapter with the institution of higher education; and (4) Presents official transcripts or other documentation acceptable to the Administrator from the institution of higher education certifying that the graduate has satisfied the requirements in paragraphs (c)(1) through (3) of this section. (d) A graduate of an institution of higher education who completes fewer than 60 semester credit hours but at least 30 credit hours and otherwise satisfies the requirements of paragraph (b) of this section may apply for an airline transport pilot certificate with an airplane category multiengine class rating or an airline transport pilot certificate concurrently with a multiengine airplane type rating with a minimum of 1,250 hours of total time as a pilot. (e) A person who applies for an airline transport pilot certificate under the total flight times listed in paragraphs (a), (b), (c), and (d) of this section must otherwise meet the aeronautical experience requirements of § 61.159, except that the person may apply for an airline transport pilot certificate with 200 hours of cross-country flight time. (f) A person may apply for an airline transport pilot certificate with an airplane category multiengine class rating or an airline transport pilot certificate concurrently with a multiengine airplane type rating if the person has 1,500 hours total time as a pilot, 200 hours of cross-country flight time, and otherwise meets the aeronautical experience requirements of § 61.159. (g) An airline transport pilot certificate obtained under this section is subject to the pilot in command limitations set forth in § 61.167(b) and must contain the following limitation, “Restricted in accordance with 14 CFR 61.167.” The pilot is entitled to an airline transport pilot certificate without the limitation specified in this paragraph when the applicant presents satisfactory evidence of having met the aeronautical experience requirements of § 61.159 and the age requirement of § 61.153(a)(1). (h) An applicant who meets the aeronautical experience requirements of paragraphs (a), (b), (c), and (d) of this section is issued an airline transport pilot certificate with the limitation, “Holder does not meet the pilot in command aeronautical experience requirements of ICAO,” as prescribed under Article 39 of the Convention on International Civil Aviation if the applicant does not meet the ICAO requirements contained in Annex 1 “Personnel Licensing” to the Convention on International Civil Aviation. An applicant is entitled to an airline transport pilot certificate without the ICAO limitation specified under this paragraph when the applicant presents satisfactory evidence of having met the ICAO requirements and otherwise meets the aeronautical experience requirements of § 61.159. [Docket FAA-2010-0100, 78 FR 42375, July 15, 2013, as amended by Amdt. 61-149, 86 FR 62087, Nov. 9, 2021]

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§ 61.161 Aeronautical experience: Rotorcraft category and helicopter class rating. (a) A person who is applying for an airline transport pilot certificate with a rotorcraft category and helicopter class rating, must have at least 1,200 hours of total time as a pilot that includes at least: (1) 500 hours of cross-country flight time; (2) 100 hours of night flight time, of which 15 hours are in helicopters; (3) 200 hours of flight time in helicopters, which includes at least 75 hours as a pilot in command, or as second in command performing the duties of a pilot in command under the supervision of a pilot in command, or any combination thereof; and (4) 75 hours of instrument flight time in actual or simulated instrument meteorological conditions, of which at least 50 hours are obtained in flight with at least 25 hours in helicopters as a pilot in command, or as second in command performing the duties of a pilot in command under the supervision of a pilot in command, or any combination thereof. (b) Training in a full flight simulator or flight training device may be credited toward the instrument flight time requirements of paragraph (a)(4) of this section, subject to the following: (1) Training in a full flight simulator or a flight training device must be accomplished in a full flight simulator or flight training device that represents a rotorcraft. (2) Except as provided in paragraph (b)(3) of this section, an applicant may receive credit for not more than a total of 25 hours of simulated instrument time in a full flight simulator and flight training device. (3) A maximum of 50 hours of training in a full flight simulator or flight training device may be credited toward the instrument flight time requirements of paragraph (a)(4) of this section if the aeronautical experience is accomplished in an approved course conducted by a training center certificated under part 142 of this chapter. (c) Flight time logged under § 61.159(c) may be counted toward the 1,200 hours of total time as a pilot required by paragraph (a) of this section and the flight time requirements of paragraphs (a)(1), (2), and (4) of this section, except for the specific helicopter flight time requirements. (d) An applicant who credits time under paragraph (c) of this section and § 61.51(f)(4) is issued an airline transport pilot certificate with the limitation “Holder does not meet the pilot in command aeronautical experience requirements of ICAO,” as prescribed under Article 39 of the Convention on International Civil Aviation. (e) An applicant is entitled to an airline transport pilot certificate without the ICAO limitation specified under paragraph (d) of this section when the applicant presents satisfactory evidence of having met the ICAO requirements under paragraph (d) of this section and otherwise meets the aeronautical experience requirements of this section. [Docket 25910, 62 FR 16298, Apr. 4, 1997; Amdt. 61-103, 62 FR 40906, July 30, 1997; Amdt. 61-104, 63 FR 20289, Apr. 23, 1998; Docket FAA-2016-6142, Amdt. 61-142, 83 FR 30279, June 27, 2018; Docket FAA-2023-1351, Amdt. 61-156, 89 FR 80340, Oct. 2, 2024] § 61.163 Aeronautical experience: Powered-lift category rating. (a) A person who is applying for an airline transport pilot certificate with a powered-lift category rating must have at least 1,500 hours of total time as a pilot that includes at least: (1) 500 hours of cross-country flight time; (2) 100 hours of night flight time; (3) 250 hours in a powered-lift as a pilot in command, or as a second in command performing the duties of a pilot in command under the supervision of a pilot in command, or any combination thereof, which includes at least— (i) 100 hours of cross-country flight time; and (ii) 25 hours of night flight time. (4) 75 hours of instrument flight time in actual or simulated instrument conditions, subject to the following: (i) Except as provided in paragraph (a)(4)(ii) of this section, an applicant may not receive credit for more than a total of 25 hours of simulated instrument time in a flight simulator or flight training device.

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(ii) A maximum of 50 hours of training in a flight simulator or flight training device may be credited toward the instrument flight time requirements of paragraph (a)(4) of this section if the training was accomplished in a course conducted by a training center certificated under part 142 of this chapter. (iii) Training in a flight simulator or flight training device must be accomplished in a flight simulator or flight training device that represents a powered-lift. (b) Not more than 100 hours of the total aeronautical experience requirements of paragraph (a) of this section may be obtained in a flight simulator or flight training device that represents a powered-lift, provided the aeronautical experience was obtained in an approved course conducted by a training center certificated under part 142 of this chapter. [Docket 25910, 62 FR 16298, Apr. 4, 1997; Amdt. 61-103, 62 FR 40906, July 30, 1997; Amdt. 61-104, 63 FR 20289, Apr. 23, 1998] Effective Date Note: Amendments to § 61.163 were published by Docket FAA-2023-1275, Amdt. 60-8, 89 FR 92485, Nov. 21, 2024, effective Jan. 21, 2025. § 61.165 Additional aircraft category and class ratings. (a) Rotorcraft category and helicopter class rating. A person applying for an airline transport certificate with a rotorcraft category and helicopter class rating who holds an airline transport pilot certificate with another aircraft category rating must: (1) Meet the eligibility requirements of § 61.153 of this part; (2) Pass a knowledge test on the aeronautical knowledge areas of § 61.155(c) of this part; (3) Comply with the requirements in § 61.157(b) of this part, if appropriate; (4) Meet the applicable aeronautical experience requirements of § 61.161 of this part; and (5) Pass the practical test on the areas of operation of § 61.157(e)(4) of this part. (b) Airplane category rating with a single-engine class rating. A person applying for an airline transport certificate with an airplane category and single-engine class rating who holds an airline transport pilot certificate with another aircraft category rating must: (1) Meet the eligibility requirements of § 61.153 of this part; (2) Pass a knowledge test on the aeronautical knowledge areas of § 61.155(c) of this part; (3) Comply with the requirements in § 61.157(b) of this part, if appropriate; (4) Meet the applicable aeronautical experience requirements of § 61.159 of this part; and (5) Pass the practical test on the areas of operation of § 61.157(e)(1) of this part. (c) Airplane category rating with a multiengine class rating. A person applying for an airline transport certificate with an airplane category and multiengine class rating who holds an airline transport certificate with another aircraft category rating must: (1) Meet the eligibility requirements of § 61.153 of this part; (2) Successfully complete the airline transport pilot certification training program specified in § 61.156; (3) Pass a knowledge test for an airplane category multiengine class rating or type rating on the aeronautical knowledge areas of § 61.155(c); (4) Comply with the requirements in § 61.157(b) of this part, if appropriate; (5) Meet the aeronautical experience requirements of § 61.159 or § 61.160; and (6) Pass the practical test on the areas of operation of § 61.157(e)(2) of this part. (d) Powered-lift category. A person applying for an airline transport pilot certificate with a powered-lift category rating who holds an airline transport certificate with another aircraft category rating must: (1) Meet the eligibility requirements of § 61.153 of this part; (2) Pass a required knowledge test on the aeronautical knowledge areas of § 61.155(c) of this part; (3) Comply with the requirements in § 61.157(b) of this part, if appropriate; (4) Meet the applicable aeronautical experience requirements of § 61.163 of this part; and (5) Pass the required practical test on the areas of operation of § 61.157(e)(3) of this part.

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(e) Additional class rating within the same aircraft category. Except as provided in paragraph (f) of this section, a person applying for an airline transport pilot certificate with an additional class rating who holds an airline transport certificate in the same aircraft category must— (1) Meet the eligibility requirements of § 61.153, except paragraph (g) of that section; (2) Comply with the requirements in § 61.157(b) of this part, if applicable; (3) Meet the applicable aeronautical experience requirements of subpart G of this part; and (4) Pass a practical test on the areas of operation of § 61.157(e) appropriate to the aircraft rating sought. (f) Adding a multiengine class rating to an airline transport pilot certificate with a single engine class rating. A person applying to add a multiengine class rating, or a multiengine class rating concurrently with a multiengine airplane type rating, to an airline transport pilot certificate with an airplane category single engine class rating must— (1) Meet the eligibility requirements of § 61.153; (2) Pass a required knowledge test on the aeronautical knowledge areas of § 61.155(c), as applicable to multiengine airplanes; (3) Comply with the requirements in § 61.157(b), if applicable; (4) Meet the applicable aeronautical experience requirements of § 61.159; and (5) Pass a practical test on the areas of operation of § 61.157(e)(2). (g) Category class ratings for the operation of aircraft with experimental certificates. Notwithstanding the provisions of paragraphs (a) through (f) of this section, a person holding an airline transport certificate may apply for a category and class rating limited to a specific make and model of experimental aircraft, provided— (1) The person has logged at least 5 hours flight time while acting as pilot in command in the same category, class, make, and model of aircraft that has been issued an experimental certificate; (2) The person has received a logbook endorsement from an authorized instructor who has determined that he or she is proficient to act as pilot in command of the same category, class, make, and model of aircraft for which application is made; and (3) The flight time specified in paragraph (g)(1) of this section must be logged between September 1, 2004 and August 31, 2005. [Docket 25910, 62 FR 16298, Apr. 4, 1997; Amdt. 61-103, 62 FR 40906, July 30, 1997, as amended by Amdt. 61-110, 69 FR 44869, July 27, 2004; Amdt. 61-130, 78 FR 42376, July 15, 2013; Amdt. 61-130B, 78 FR 77574, Dec. 24, 2013; Amdt. 61-130C, 81 FR 2, Jan. 4, 2016] Effective Date Note: Amendments to § 61.165 were published by Docket FAA-2023-1275, Amdt. 60-8, 89 FR 92485, Nov. 21, 2024, effective Jan. 21, 2025. § 61.167 Airline transport pilot privileges and limitations. (a) Privileges. (1) A person who holds an airline transport pilot certificate is entitled to the same privileges as a person who holds a commercial pilot certificate with an instrument rating. (2) A person who holds an airline transport pilot certificate and has met the aeronautical experience requirements of § 61.159 or § 61.161, and the age requirements of § 61.153(a)(1) of this part may instruct— (i) Other pilots in air transportation service in aircraft of the category, class, and type, as applicable, for which the airline transport pilot is rated and endorse the logbook or other training record of the person to whom training has been given; (ii) In flight simulators, and flight training devices representing the aircraft referenced in paragraph (a)(2)(i) of this section, when instructing under the provisions of this section and endorse the logbook or other training record of the person to whom training has been given; (iii) Only as provided in this section, except that an airline transport pilot who also holds a flight instructor certificate can exercise the instructor privileges under subpart H of this part for which he or she is rated; and (iv) In an aircraft, only if the aircraft has functioning dual controls, when instructing under the provisions of this section. (3) Excluding briefings and debriefings, an airline transport pilot may not instruct in aircraft, flight simulators, and flight training devices under this section—

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(i) For more than 8 hours in any 24-consecutive-hour period; or (ii) For more than 36 hours in any 7-consecutive-day period. (4) An airline transport pilot may not instruct in Category II or Category III operations unless he or she has been trained and successfully tested under Category II or Category III operations, as applicable. (b) Limitations. A person who holds an airline transport pilot certificate and has not satisfied the age requirement of § 61.153(a)(1) and the aeronautical experience requirements of § 61.159 may not: (1) Act as pilot in command in operations conducted under part 121, § 91.1053(a)(2)(i), or § 135.243(a)(1) of this chapter, or (2) Serve as second in command in flag or supplemental operations in part 121 of this chapter requiring three or more pilots. [Docket FAA-2010-0100, 78 FR 42376, July 15, 2013, as amended by Amdt. 61-130B, 78 FR 77574, Dec. 24, 2013; Amdt. 61-130C, 81 FR 2, Jan. 4, 2016] Effective Date Note: Amendments to § 61.167 were published by Docket FAA-2023-1275, Amdt. 60-8, 89 FR 92485, Nov. 21, 2024, effective Jan. 21, 2025. § 61.169 Letters of authorization for institutions of higher education. (a) An institution of higher education that is accredited, as defined in § 61.1, may apply for a letter of authorization for the purpose of certifying its graduates for an airline transport pilot certificate under the academic and aeronautical experience requirements in § 61.160. The application must be in a form and manner acceptable to the Administrator. (b) An institution of higher education must comply with the provisions of the letter of authorization and may not certify a graduate unless it determines that the graduate has satisfied the requirements of § 61.160, as appropriate. (c) The Administrator may rescind or amend a letter of authorization if the Administrator determines that the institution of higher education is not complying or is unable to comply with the provisions of the letter of authorization. [Docket FAA-2010-0100, 78 FR 42377, July 15, 2013] §§ 61.170-69.171 [Reserved]
Subpart H—Flight Instructors Other than Flight Instructors With a Sport Pilot Rating § 61.181 Applicability. This subpart prescribes the requirements for the issuance of flight instructor certificates and ratings (except for flight instructor certificates with a sport pilot rating), the conditions under which those certificates and ratings are necessary, and the limitations on those certificates and ratings. [Docket FAA-2001-11133, 69 FR 44869, July 27, 2004] § 61.183 Eligibility requirements. To be eligible for a flight instructor certificate or rating a person must: (a) Be at least 18 years of age; (b) Be able to read, speak, write, and understand the English language. If the applicant is unable to meet one of these requirements due to medical reasons, then the Administrator may place such operating limitations on that applicant's flight instructor certificate as are necessary; (c) Hold either a commercial pilot certificate or airline transport pilot certificate with: (1) An aircraft category and class rating that is appropriate to the flight instructor rating sought; and (2) An instrument rating, or privileges on that person's pilot certificate that are appropriate to the flight instructor rating sought, if applying for— (i) A flight instructor certificate with an airplane category and single-engine class rating; (ii) A flight instructor certificate with an airplane category and multiengine class rating; (iii) A flight instructor certificate with a powered-lift rating; or (iv) A flight instructor certificate with an instrument rating.

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(d) Receive a logbook endorsement from an authorized instructor on the fundamentals of instructing listed in § 61.185 of this part appropriate to the required knowledge test; (e) Pass a knowledge test on the areas listed in § 61.185(a)(1) of this part, unless the applicant: (1) Holds a flight instructor certificate or ground instructor certificate issued under this part; (2) Holds a teacher's certificate issued by a State, county, city, or municipality that authorizes the person to teach at an educational level of the 7th grade or higher; or (3) Is employed as a teacher at an accredited college or university. (f) Pass a knowledge test on the aeronautical knowledge areas listed in § 61.185(a)(2) and (a)(3) of this part that are appropriate to the flight instructor rating sought; (g) Receive a logbook endorsement from an authorized instructor on the areas of operation listed in § 61.187(b) of this part, appropriate to the flight instructor rating sought; (h) Pass the required practical test that is appropriate to the flight instructor rating sought in an: (1) Aircraft that is representative of the category and class of aircraft for the aircraft rating sought; or (2) Flight simulator or approved flight training device that is representative of the category and class of aircraft for the rating sought, and used in accordance with a course at a training center certificated under part 142 of this chapter. (i) Accomplish the following for a flight instructor certificate with an airplane or a glider rating: (1) Receive a logbook endorsement from an authorized instructor indicating that the applicant is competent and possesses instructional proficiency in stall awareness, spin entry, spins, and spin recovery procedures after providing the applicant with flight training in those training areas in an airplane or glider, as appropriate, that is certificated for spins; and (2) Demonstrate instructional proficiency in stall awareness, spin entry, spins, and spin recovery procedures. However, upon presentation of the endorsement specified in paragraph (i)(1) of this section an examiner may accept that endorsement as satisfactory evidence of instructional proficiency in stall awareness, spin entry, spins, and spin recovery procedures for the practical test, provided that the practical test is not a retest as a result of the applicant failing the previous test for deficiencies in the knowledge or skill of stall awareness, spin entry, spins, or spin recovery instructional procedures. If the retest is a result of deficiencies in the ability of an applicant to demonstrate knowledge or skill of stall awareness, spin entry, spins, or spin recovery instructional procedures, the examiner must test the person on stall awareness, spin entry, spins, and spin recovery instructional procedures in an airplane or glider, as appropriate, that is certificated for spins; (j) Log at least 15 hours as pilot in command in the category and class of aircraft that is appropriate to the flight instructor rating sought; and (k) Comply with the appropriate sections of this part that apply to the flight instructor rating sought. [Docket 25910, 62 FR 16298, Apr. 4, 1997; Amdt. 61-103, 62 FR 40907, July 30, 1997; Amdt. 61-124, 74 FR 42561, Aug. 21, 2009] § 61.185 Aeronautical knowledge. (a) A person who is applying for a flight instructor certificate must receive and log ground training from an authorized instructor on: (1) Except as provided in paragraph (b) of this section, the fundamentals of instructing, including: (i) The learning process; (ii) Elements of effective teaching; (iii) Student evaluation and testing; (iv) Course development; (v) Lesson planning; and (vi) Classroom training techniques. (2) The aeronautical knowledge areas for a recreational, private, and commercial pilot certificate applicable to the aircraft category for which flight instructor privileges are sought; and (3) The aeronautical knowledge areas for the instrument rating applicable to the category for which instrument flight instructor privileges are sought. (b) The following applicants do not need to comply with paragraph (a)(1) of this section:

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(1) The holder of a flight instructor certificate or ground instructor certificate issued under this part; (2) The holder of a current teacher's certificate issued by a State, county, city, or municipality that authorizes the person to teach at an educational level of the 7th grade or higher; or (3) A person employed as a teacher at an accredited college or university. [Docket 25910, 62 FR 16298, Apr. 4, 1997; Amdt. 61-103, 62 FR 40907, July 30, 1997] § 61.187 Flight proficiency. (a) General. A person who is applying for a flight instructor certificate must receive and log flight and ground training from an authorized instructor on the areas of operation listed in this section that apply to the flight instructor rating sought. The applicant's logbook must contain an endorsement from an authorized instructor certifying that the person is proficient to pass a practical test on those areas of operation. (b) Areas of operation. (1) For an airplane category rating with a single-engine class rating: (i) Fundamentals of instructing; (ii) Technical subject areas; (iii) Preflight preparation; (iv) Preflight lesson on a maneuver to be performed in flight; (v) Preflight procedures; (vi) Airport and seaplane base operations; (vii) Takeoffs, landings, and go-arounds; (viii) Fundamentals of flight; (ix) Performance maneuvers; (x) Ground reference maneuvers; (xi) Slow flight, stalls, and spins; (xii) Basic instrument maneuvers; (xiii) Emergency operations; and (xiv) Postflight procedures. (2) For an airplane category rating with a multiengine class rating: (i) Fundamentals of instructing; (ii) Technical subject areas; (iii) Preflight preparation; (iv) Preflight lesson on a maneuver to be performed in flight; (v) Preflight procedures; (vi) Airport and seaplane base operations; (vii) Takeoffs, landings, and go-arounds; (viii) Fundamentals of flight; (ix) Performance maneuvers; (x) Ground reference maneuvers; (xi) Slow flight and stalls; (xii) Basic instrument maneuvers; (xiii) Emergency operations; (xiv) Multiengine operations; and (xv) Postflight procedures. (3) For a rotorcraft category rating with a helicopter class rating: (i) Fundamentals of instructing; (ii) Technical subject areas; (iii) Preflight preparation; (iv) Preflight lesson on a maneuver to be performed in flight; (v) Preflight procedures; (vi) Airport and heliport operations; (vii) Hovering maneuvers; (viii) Takeoffs, landings, and go-arounds; (ix) Fundamentals of flight; (x) Performance maneuvers; (xi) Emergency operations; (xii) Special operations; and (xiii) Postflight procedures. (4) For a rotorcraft category rating with a gyroplane class rating: (i) Fundamentals of instructing; (ii) Technical subject areas; (iii) Preflight preparation; (iv) Preflight lesson on a maneuver to be performed in flight; (v) Preflight procedures; (vi) Airport operations; (vii) Takeoffs, landings, and go-arounds; (viii) Fundamentals of flight; (ix) Performance maneuvers; (x) Flight at slow airspeeds; (xi) Ground reference maneuvers; (xii) Emergency operations; and (xiii) Postflight procedures. (5) For a powered-lift category rating: (i) Fundamentals of instructing; (ii) Technical subject areas; (iii) Preflight preparation; (iv) Preflight lesson on a maneuver to be performed in flight; (v) Preflight procedures; (vi) Airport and heliport operations; (vii) Hovering maneuvers; (viii) Takeoffs, landings, and go-arounds; (ix) Fundamentals of flight; (x) Performance maneuvers; (xi) Ground reference maneuvers; (xii) Slow flight and stalls; (xiii) Basic instrument maneuvers; (xiv) Emergency operations;

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(xv) Special operations; and (xvi) Postflight procedures. (6) For a glider category rating: (i) Fundamentals of instructing; (ii) Technical subject areas; (iii) Preflight preparation; (iv) Preflight lesson on a maneuver to be performed in flight; (v) Preflight procedures; (vi) Airport and gliderport operations; (vii) Launches and landings; (viii) Fundamentals of flight; (ix) Performance speeds; (x) Soaring techniques; (xi) Performance maneuvers; (xii) Slow flight, stalls, and spins; (xiii) Emergency operations; and (xiv) Postflight procedures. (7) For an instrument rating with the appropriate aircraft category and class rating: (i) Fundamentals of instructing; (ii) Technical subject areas; (iii) Preflight preparation; (iv) Preflight lesson on a maneuver to be performed in flight; (v) Air traffic control clearances and procedures; (vi) Flight by reference to instruments; (vii) Navigation aids; (viii) Instrument approach procedures; (ix) Emergency operations; and (x) Postflight procedures. (c) The flight training required by this section may be accomplished: (1) In an aircraft that is representative of the category and class of aircraft for the rating sought; or (2) In a flight simulator or flight training device representative of the category and class of aircraft for the rating sought, and used in accordance with an approved course at a training center certificated under part 142 of this chapter. [Docket 25910, 62 FR 16298, Apr. 4, 1997; Amdt. 61-103, 62 FR 40907, July 30, 1997; Amdt. 61-124, 74 FR 42561, Aug. 21, 2009] § 61.189 Flight instructor records. (a) A flight instructor must sign the logbook of each person to whom that instructor has given flight training or ground training. (b) A flight instructor must maintain a record in a logbook or a separate document that contains the following: (1) The name of each person whose logbook that instructor has endorsed for solo flight privileges, and the date of the endorsement; and (2) The name of each person that instructor has endorsed for a knowledge test or practical test, and the record shall also indicate the kind of test, the date, and the results. (c) Each flight instructor must retain the records required by this section for at least 3 years. [Docket 25910, 62 FR 16298, Apr. 4, 1997, as amended by Docket FAA-2010-1127, Amdt. 61-135, 81 FR 1306, Jan. 12, 2016] § 61.191 Additional flight instructor ratings. (a) A person who applies for an additional flight instructor rating on a flight instructor certificate must meet the eligibility requirements listed in § 61.183 of this part that apply to the flight instructor rating sought. (b) A person who applies for an additional rating on a flight instructor certificate is not required to pass the knowledge test on the areas listed in § 61.185(a)(1) of this part. [Docket 25910, 62 FR 16298, Apr. 4, 1997; Amdt. 61-103, 62 FR 40907, July 30, 1997] § 61.193 Flight instructor privileges. (a) A person who holds a flight instructor certificate is authorized within the limitations of that person's flight instructor certificate and ratings to conduct ground training, flight training, certain checking events, and to issue endorsements related to: (1) A student pilot certificate; (2) A pilot certificate; (3) A flight instructor certificate; (4) A ground instructor certificate; (5) An aircraft rating; (6) An instrument rating; (7) A flight review, operating privilege, or recency of experience requirement of this part, or training to maintain or improve the skills of a certificated pilot; (8) A practical test; and (9) A knowledge test. (b) A person who holds a flight instructor certificate is authorized, in a form and manner acceptable to the Administrator, to:

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(1) Accept an application for a student pilot certificate or, for an applicant who holds a pilot certificate (other than a student pilot certificate) issued under part 61 of this chapter and meets the flight review requirements specified in § 61.56, a remote pilot certificate with a small UAS rating; (2) Verify the identity of the applicant; and (3) Verify that an applicant for a student pilot certificate meets the eligibility requirements in § 61.83 or an applicant for a remote pilot certificate with a small UAS rating meets the eligibility requirements in § 107.61 of this chapter. (c) The privileges authorized in this section do not permit a person who holds a flight instructor certificate to conduct operations that would otherwise require an air carrier or operating certificate or specific authorization from the Administrator. [Docket FAA-2010-1127, Amdt. 61-135, 81 FR 1306, Jan. 12, 2016, as amended by Docket FAA-2015-0150, Amdt. 61-137, 81 FR 42208, June 28, 2016; Docket FAA-2023-1351, Amdt. 61-156, 89 FR 80340, Oct. 2, 2024] § 61.195 Flight instructor limitations and qualifications. A person who holds a flight instructor certificate is subject to the following limitations: (a) Hours of training. In any 24-consecutive-hour period, a flight instructor may not conduct more than 8 hours of flight training. (b) Aircraft ratings. Except as provided in paragraph (c) of this section, a flight instructor may not conduct flight training in any aircraft unless the flight instructor: (1) Holds a flight instructor certificate with the applicable category and class rating; (2) Holds a pilot certificate with the applicable category and class rating; and (3) Meets the requirements of paragraph (e) of this section, if applicable. (c) Instrument rating. A flight instructor may conduct instrument training for the issuance of an instrument rating, a type rating not limited to VFR, or the instrument training required for commercial pilot and airline transport pilot certificates if the following requirements are met: (1) Except as provided in paragraph (c)(2) of this section, the flight instructor must hold an instrument rating appropriate to the aircraft used for the instrument training on his or her flight instructor certificate, and— (i) Meet the requirements of paragraph (b) of this section; or (ii) Hold a commercial pilot certificate or airline transport pilot certificate with the appropriate category and class ratings for the aircraft in which the instrument training is conducted provided the pilot receiving instrument training holds a pilot certificate with category and class ratings appropriate to the aircraft in which the instrument training is being conducted. (2) If the flight instructor is conducting the instrument training in a multiengine airplane, the flight instructor must hold an instrument rating appropriate to the aircraft used for the instrument training on his or her flight instructor certificate and meet the requirements of paragraph (b) of this section. (d) Limitations on endorsements. A flight instructor may not endorse a: (1) Student pilot's logbook for solo flight privileges, unless that flight instructor has— (i) Given that student the flight training required for solo flight privileges required by this part; and (ii) Determined that the student is prepared to conduct the flight safely under known circumstances, subject to any limitations listed in the student's logbook that the instructor considers necessary for the safety of the flight. (2) Student pilot's logbook for a solo cross-country flight, unless that flight instructor has determined the student's flight preparation, planning, equipment, and proposed procedures are adequate for the proposed flight under the existing conditions and within any limitations listed in the logbook that the instructor considers necessary for the safety of the flight; (3) Student pilot's logbook for solo flight in a Class B airspace area or at an airport within Class B airspace unless that flight instructor has—

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(i) Given that student ground and flight training in that Class B airspace or at that airport; and (ii) Determined that the student is proficient to operate the aircraft safely. (4) Logbook of a recreational pilot, unless that flight instructor has— (i) Given that pilot the ground and flight training required by this part; and (ii) Determined that the recreational pilot is proficient to operate the aircraft safely. (5) Logbook of a pilot for a flight review, unless that instructor has conducted a review of that pilot in accordance with the requirements of § 61.56(a) of this part; or (6) Logbook of a pilot for an instrument proficiency check, unless that instructor has tested that pilot in accordance with the requirements of § 61.57(d) of this part. (e) Training in an aircraft that requires a type rating. A flight instructor may not give flight instruction, including instrument training, in an aircraft that requires the pilot in command to hold a type rating unless the flight instructor holds a type rating for that aircraft on his or her pilot certificate. (f) Training received in a multiengine airplane, a helicopter, or a powered-lift. A flight instructor may not give training required for the issuance of a certificate or rating in a multiengine airplane, a helicopter, or a powered-lift unless that flight instructor has at least 5 flight hours of pilot-in-command time in the specific make and model of multiengine airplane, helicopter, or powered-lift, as appropriate. (g) Position in aircraft and required pilot stations for providing flight training. (1) A flight instructor must perform all training from in an aircraft that complies with the requirements of § 91.109 of this chapter. (2) A flight instructor who provides flight training for a pilot certificate or rating issued under this part must provide that flight training in an aircraft that meets the following requirements— (i) The aircraft must have at least two pilot stations and be of the same category, class, and type, if appropriate, that applies to the pilot certificate or rating sought. (ii) For single-place aircraft, the pre-solo flight training must have been provided in an aircraft that has two pilot stations and is of the same category, class, and type, if appropriate. (h) Qualifications to provide ground or flight training to initial flight instructor applicants —(1) Ground training. The ground training provided to an initial applicant for a flight instructor certificate must be given by an authorized instructor who— (i) Holds a ground or flight instructor certificate with the appropriate rating, has held that certificate for at least 24 calendar months, and has given at least 40 hours of ground training; or (ii) Holds a ground or flight instructor certificate with the appropriate rating, and has given at least 100 hours of ground training in an FAA-approved course. (2) Flight training. A flight instructor who provides flight training to an initial applicant for a flight instructor certificate must meet the eligibility requirements prescribed in § 61.183; hold the appropriate flight instructor certificate and rating; meet the requirements of the part under which the flight training is provided; and meet one of the following requirements— (i) Have held a flight instructor certificate for at least 24 calendar months; and (A) For training in preparation for an airplane, rotorcraft, or powered-lift rating, have given at least 200 hours of flight training as a flight instructor; or (B) For training in preparation for a glider rating, have given at least 80 hours of flight training as a flight instructor; (ii) Have trained and endorsed, during the preceding 24 calendar months, at least five applicants for a practical test for a pilot certificate or rating, and at least 80 percent of all applicants endorsed in that period passed that test on their first attempt; or (iii) After completing the flight training requirements in paragraph (h)(2)(i)(A) or (B) of this section, as appropriate, have graduated from an FAA-approved flight instructor enhanced qualification training program that satisfies the requirements specified in paragraph (h)(3) of this section.

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(3) Flight instructor enhanced qualification training program. A flight instructor enhanced qualification training program must be approved and conducted under part 141 or 142 of this chapter, and meet the following requirements- (i) The ground training must include at least 25 hours of instruction that includes the following subjects: (A) Flight instructor responsibilities, functions, lesson planning, and risk management, including how to instruct an initial flight instructor applicant on these subjects. (B) Teaching methods, procedures, and techniques applicable to instructing an initial flight instructor applicant. (C) Methods of proper evaluation of an initial flight instructor applicant to detect improper and insufficient transfer of instructional knowledge, training, and performance of the initial flight instructor applicant. (D) Corrective action in the case of unsatisfactory training progress. (ii) The flight training must include at least 10 hours of training that includes the following areas: (A) Scenario-based training to develop the flight instructor's ability to instruct an initial flight instructor applicant how to satisfactorily perform the procedures and maneuvers while giving effective flight training. (B) Instructional knowledge and proficiency to teach an initial flight instructor applicant in abnormal and emergency procedures, which must include stall awareness, spin entry, spins, and spin recovery procedures, if applicable to the category and class of aircraft used in the flight instructor enhanced qualification training program. (C) Risk management and potential results of improper, untimely, or non-execution of safety measures critical to flight training. (D) Methods of proper evaluation of an initial flight instructor applicant to detect improper and insufficient transfer of instructional knowledge, training, and performance of the initial flight instructor applicant. (E) Corrective action in the case of unsatisfactory training progress. (F) Methods to detect personal characteristics of an initial flight instructor applicant that could adversely affect safety. (iii) Each flight instructor enrolled in the flight instructor enhanced qualification training program must satisfactorily complete an end-of-course written test specific to the ground training subjects in paragraph (h)(3)(i) of this section and an end-of-course instructional proficiency flight test specific to the flight training areas in paragraph (h)(3)(ii) of this section. (iv) A full flight simulator or flight training device may be used to meet the flight training requirements of paragraph (h)(3)(ii) of this section. The FFS or FTD must be— (A) Qualified and maintained in accordance with part 60 of this chapter, or a previously qualified device as permitted in accordance with § 60.17 of this chapter; (B) Approved by the Administrator pursuant to § 61.4(a); and (C) Used in accordance with the part under which the FAA-approved course is conducted. (v) A maximum of 5 hours of training received in an advanced aviation training device may be used to meet the flight training requirements of paragraph (h)(3)(ii) of this section for part 141 flight instructor enhanced qualification training programs. The advanced aviation training device must be- (A) Approved by the Administrator pursuant to § 61.4(c); and (B) Used in accordance with part 141 of this chapter. (vi) No certificate holder may use a person, nor may any person serve, as an instructor of the flight instructor enhanced qualification training program unless the instructor holds a flight instructor certificate or ground instructor certificate and meets one of the following qualifications: (A) Serves as a chief instructor or assistant chief instructor in a part 141 pilot school; (B) Serves as a training center program manager or assistant training center program manager of a part 142 training center; or

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(C) Meets the qualifications of an assistant chief instructor, pursuant to § 141.36(d). (vii) A part 141 pilot school or part 142 training center must issue a graduation certificate to each flight instructor who successfully completes the flight instructor enhanced qualification training program. (i) Prohibition against self-endorsements. A flight instructor shall not make any self-endorsement for a certificate, rating, flight review, authorization, operating privilege, practical test, or knowledge test that is required by this part. (j) Additional qualifications required to give training in Category II or Category III operations. A flight instructor may not give training in Category II or Category III operations unless the flight instructor has been trained and tested in Category II or Category III operations, pursuant to § 61.67 or § 61.68 of this part, as applicable. (k) Training for night vision goggle operations. A flight instructor may not conduct training for night vision goggle operations unless the flight instructor: (1) Has a pilot and flight instructor certificate with the applicable category and class rating for the training; (2) If appropriate, has a type rating on his or her pilot certificate for the aircraft; (3) Is pilot in command qualified for night vision goggle operations, in accordance with § 61.31(k); (4) Has logged 100 night vision goggle operations as the sole manipulator of the controls; (5) Has logged 20 night vision goggle operations as the sole manipulator of the controls in the category and class, and type of aircraft, if aircraft class and type is appropriate, that the training will be given in; (6) Is qualified to act as pilot in command in night vision goggle operations under § 61.57(f) or (g); and (7) Has a logbook endorsement from an FAA Aviation Safety Inspector or a person who is authorized by the FAA to provide that logbook endorsement that states the flight instructor is authorized to perform the night vision goggle pilot in command qualification and recent flight experience requirements under § 61.31(k) and § 61.57(f) and (g). (l) Training on control and maneuvering an aircraft solely by reference to the instruments. A flight instructor may conduct flight training on control and maneuvering an airplane solely by reference to the flight instruments, provided the flight instructor— (1) Holds a flight instructor certificate with the applicable category and class rating; or (2) Holds an instrument rating appropriate to the aircraft used for the training on his or her flight instructor certificate, and holds a commercial pilot certificate or airline transport pilot certificate with the appropriate category and class ratings for the aircraft in which the training is conducted provided the pilot receiving the training holds a pilot certificate with category and class ratings appropriate to the aircraft in which the training is being conducted. [Docket 25910, 62 FR 16298, Apr. 4, 1997; Amdt. 61-103, 62 FR 40907, July 30, 1997; Amdt. 61-124, 74 FR 42561, Aug. 21, 2009; Docket FAA-2010-1127, Amdt. 61-135, 81 FR 1307, Jan. 12, 2016; Docket FAA-2016-6142, Amdt. 61-142, 83 FR 30729, June 27, 2018; Docket FAA-2023-0825, Amdt. 61-155, 89 FR 80051, Oct. 1, 2024] § 61.197 Recent experience requirements for flight instructor certification. (a) A person may exercise the privileges of the person's flight instructor certificate only if, within the preceding 24 calendar months, that person has satisfied one of the recent experience requirements specified in paragraph (b) of this section. The 24 calendar month period during which the flight instructor must establish recent experience shall start from one of the following— (1) The month the FAA issued the flight instructor certificate; (2) The month the recent experience requirements of paragraph (b) of this section are accomplished; or (3) The last month of the flight instructor's current recent experience period provided the recent experience requirements of paragraph (b) of this section are accomplished within the 3 calendar months preceding the last month of the certificate holder's current recent experience period.

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(b) A person who holds a flight instructor certificate may establish recent experience by satisfying one of the following requirements— (1) Passing a practical test for— (i) One of the ratings listed on the flight instructor certificate; or (ii) An additional flight instructor rating; or (2) Satisfactorily completing one of the following recent experience requirements, and submitting documentation of such in a form and manner acceptable to the Administrator— (i) During the preceding 24 calendar months, the flight instructor has endorsed at least 5 applicants for a practical test for a certificate or rating and at least 80 percent of all applicants endorsed passed that test on the first attempt. (ii) Within the preceding 24 calendar months, the flight instructor has served as a company check pilot, chief flight instructor, company check airman, or flight instructor in a part 121 or 135 operation, or in a position involving the regular evaluation of pilots. (iii) Within the preceding 3 calendar months, the person has successfully completed an approved flight instructor refresher course consisting of ground training or flight training, or a combination of both. (iv) Within the preceding 24 calendar months from the month of application, the flight instructor passed an official U.S. Armed Forces military instructor pilot or pilot examiner proficiency check in an aircraft for which the military instructor already holds a rating or in an aircraft for an additional rating. (v) Within the preceding 24 calendar months from the month of application, the flight instructor has served as a flight instructor in an FAA-sponsored pilot proficiency program, provided the flight instructor meets the following requirements— (A) Holds a flight instructor certificate and meets the appropriate flight instructor recent experience requirements of this part; (B) Has satisfactorily completed at least one phase of an FAA-sponsored pilot proficiency program in the preceding 12 calendar months; and (C) Has conducted at least 15 flight activities recognized under the FAA-sponsored pilot proficiency program, during which the flight instructor evaluated at least 5 different pilots and has made the necessary endorsements in the logbooks of each pilot for each activity. (c) Except as provided in paragraph (f) of this section, a person who fails to establish recent experience in accordance with paragraph (b) of this section during the 24 calendar month period specified in paragraph (a) of this section may not exercise flight instructor privileges until those privileges are reinstated in accordance with § 61.199. (d) The practical test required by paragraph (b)(1) of this section may be accomplished in a full flight simulator or flight training device if the test is accomplished pursuant to an approved course conducted by a training center certificated under part 142 of this chapter. (e) A person who holds an unexpired flight instructor certificate issued before December 1, 2024, may renew that certificate by establishing recent experience in accordance with paragraph (b) of this section prior to the month of expiration on that person's flight instructor certificate. Except as provided in § 61.40, if that person fails to establish recent experience prior to the expiration of that person's flight instructor certificate, that person may not exercise flight instructor privileges until those privileges are reinstated in accordance with § 61.199. (f) A person who qualifies for the relief prescribed in § 61.40 may establish recent experience in accordance with paragraph (b) of this section, provided the requirements of § 61.40 are met. [Docket FAA-2023-0825, Amdt. 61-155, 89 FR 80051, Oct. 1, 2024] § 61.199 Reinstatement of flight instructor privileges. (a) Flight instructor privileges. The holder of a flight instructor certificate who has not complied with the flight instructor recent experience requirements of § 61.197 may reinstate their flight instructor privileges by filing a completed and signed application with the FAA and satisfactorily completing one of the following reinstatement requirements:

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(1) If 3 calendar months or less have passed since the last month of the flight instructor's recent experience period, the flight instructor may successfully complete an approved flight instructor refresher course consisting of ground training or flight training, or a combination of both, or satisfy one of the requirements specified in paragraph (a)(2) of this section. (2) If more than 3 calendar months have passed since the last month of the flight instructor's recent experience period, the flight instructor must satisfactorily complete one of the following: (i) A flight instructor certification practical test, as prescribed by § 61.183(h), for one of the ratings held on the flight instructor certificate; or (ii) A flight instructor certification practical test for an additional rating. (3) For military instructor pilots and pilot examiners, provide a record showing that, within the preceding 6 calendar months from the date of application for reinstatement, the person— (i) Passed a U.S. Armed Forces instructor pilot or pilot examiner proficiency check; or (ii) Completed a U.S. Armed Forces instructor pilot or pilot examiner training course and received an additional aircraft qualification as a military instructor pilot or pilot examiner that is appropriate to the flight instructor rating sought. (b) Flight instructor ratings. (1) A flight instructor rating or a limited flight instructor rating on a pilot certificate is no longer valid and may not be exchanged for a similar rating or a flight instructor certificate. (2) The holder of a flight instructor rating or a limited flight instructor rating on a pilot certificate may be issued a flight instructor certificate with the current ratings, but only if the person passes the required knowledge and practical test prescribed in this subpart for the issuance of the current flight instructor certificate and rating. [Docket 25910, 62 FR 16298, Apr. 4, 1997, as amended by Amdt. 61-104, 63 FR 20289, Apr. 23, 1998; Amdt. 61-124, 74 FR 42562, Aug. 21, 2009; Amdt. 61-142, 83 FR 30279, June 27, 2018; Docket FAA-2023-0825, Amdt. 61-155, 89 FR 80052, Oct. 1, 2024] § 61.201 [Reserved]
Subpart I—Ground Instructors § 61.211 Applicability. This subpart prescribes the requirements for the issuance of ground instructor certificates and ratings, the conditions under which those certificates and ratings are necessary, and the limitations upon those certificates and ratings. § 61.213 Eligibility requirements. (a) To be eligible for a ground instructor certificate or rating a person must: (1) Be at least 18 years of age; (2) Be able to read, write, speak, and understand the English language. If the applicant is unable to meet one of these requirements due to medical reasons, then the Administrator may place such operating limitations on that applicant's ground instructor certificate as are necessary; (3) Except as provided in paragraph (b) of this section, pass a knowledge test on the fundamentals of instructing to include— (i) The learning process; (ii) Elements of effective teaching; (iii) Student evaluation and testing; (iv) Course development; (v) Lesson planning; and (vi) Classroom training techniques. (4) Pass a knowledge test on the aeronautical knowledge areas in— (i) For a basic ground instructor rating §§ 61.97, 61.105, and 61.309; (ii) For an advanced ground instructor rating §§ 61.97, 61.105, 61.125, 61.155, and 61.309; and (iii) For an instrument ground instructor rating, § 61.65. (b) The knowledge test specified in paragraph (a)(3) of this section is not required if the applicant:

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(1) Holds a ground instructor certificate or flight instructor certificate issued under this part; (2) Holds a teacher's certificate issued by a State, county, city, or municipality that authorizes the person to teach at an educational level of the 7th grade or higher; or (3) Is employed as a teacher at an accredited college or university. [Docket 25910, 62 FR 16298, Apr. 4, 1997, as amended by Amdt. 61-110, 69 FR 44869, July 27, 2004; Amdt. 61-124, 74 FR 42562, Aug. 21, 2009] § 61.215 Ground instructor privileges. (a) A person who holds a basic ground instructor rating is authorized to provide— (1) Ground training in the aeronautical knowledge areas required for the issuance of a sport pilot certificate, recreational pilot certificate, private pilot certificate, or associated ratings under this part; (2) Ground training required for a sport pilot, recreational pilot, and private pilot flight review; and (3) A recommendation for a knowledge test required for the issuance of a sport pilot certificate, recreational pilot certificate, or private pilot certificate under this part. (b) A person who holds an advanced ground instructor rating is authorized to provide: (1) Ground training on the aeronautical knowledge areas required for the issuance of any certificate or rating under this part except for the aeronautical knowledge areas required for an instrument rating. (2) The ground training required for any flight review except for the training required for an instrument rating. (3) A recommendation for a knowledge test required for the issuance of any certificate or rating under this part except for an instrument rating. (c) A person who holds an instrument ground instructor rating is authorized to provide: (1) Ground training in the aeronautical knowledge areas required for the issuance of an instrument rating under this part; (2) Ground training required for an instrument proficiency check; and (3) A recommendation for a knowledge test required for the issuance of an instrument rating under this part. (d) A person who holds a ground instructor certificate is authorized, within the limitations of the ratings on the ground instructor certificate, to endorse the logbook or other training record of a person to whom the holder has provided the training or recommendation specified in paragraphs (a) through (c) of this section. (e) Ground training provided to an initial applicant for a flight instructor certificate may only be provided by an authorized instructor in accordance with § 61.195(h)(1). [Docket 25910, 62 FR 16298, Apr. 4, 1997, as amended by Amdt. 61-110, 69 FR 44869, July 27, 2004; Amdt. 61-124, 74 FR 42562, Aug. 21, 2009; Docket FAA-2023-0825, Amdt. 61-155, 89 FR 80052, Oct. 1, 2024] § 61.217 Recent experience requirements. The holder of a ground instructor certificate may not perform the duties of a ground instructor unless the person can show that one of the following occurred during the preceding 12 calendar months: (a) Employment or activity as a ground instructor giving pilot, flight instructor, or ground instructor training; (b) Employment or activity as a flight instructor giving pilot, flight instructor, or ground instructor ground or flight training; (c) Completion of an approved flight instructor refresher course and receipt of a graduation certificate for that course; or (d) An endorsement from an authorized instructor certifying that the person has demonstrated knowledge in the subject areas prescribed under § 61.213(a)(3) and (a)(4), as appropriate. [Docket FAA-2006-26661, 74 FR 42562, Aug. 21, 2009] Subpart J—Sport Pilots Source: Docket FAA-2001-11133, 69 FR 44869, July 27, 2004, unless otherwise noted.

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§ 61.301 What is the purpose of this subpart and to whom does it apply? (a) This subpart prescribes the following requirements that apply to a sport pilot certificate: (1) Eligibility. (2) Aeronautical knowledge. (3) Flight proficiency. (4) Aeronautical experience. (5) Endorsements. (6) Privileges and limits. (b) Other provisions of this part apply to the logging of flight time and testing. (c) This subpart applies to applicants for, and holders of, sport pilot certificates. It also applies to holders of recreational pilot certificates and higher, as provided in § 61.303. [Docket FAA-2001-11133, 69 FR 44869, July 27, 2004, as amended by Amdt. 61-125, 75 FR 5221, Feb. 1, 2010] § 61.303 If I want to operate a light-sport aircraft, what operating limits and endorsement requirements in this subpart must I comply with? (a) Use the following table to determine what operating limits and endorsement requirements in this subpart, if any, apply to you when you operate a light-sport aircraft. The medical certificate specified in this table must be in compliance with § 61.2 in regards to currency and validity. If you hold a recreational pilot certificate, but not a medical certificate, you must comply with cross country requirements in § 61.101 (c), even if your flight does not exceed 50 nautical miles from your departure airport. You must also comply with requirements in other subparts of this part that apply to your certificate and the operation you conduct.

If you hold	And you hold	Then you may operate	And
(1) A medical certificate	(i) A sport pilot certificate,	(A) Any light-sport aircraft for which you hold the endorsements required for its category and class	( 1 ) You must hold any other endorsements required by this subpart, and comply with the limitations in § 61.315.
	(ii) At least a recreational pilot certificate with a category and class rating,	(A) Any light-sport aircraft in that category and class,	( 1 ) You do not have to hold any of the endorsements required by this subpart, nor do you have to comply with the limitations in § 61.315.
	(iii) At least a recreational pilot certificate but not a rating for the category and class of light sport aircraft you operate,	(A) That light-sport aircraft, only if you hold the endorsements required in § 61.321 for its category and class,	( 1 ) You must comply with the limitations in § 61.315, except § 61.315(c)(14) and, if a private pilot or higher, § 61.315(c)(7).
(2) Only a U.S. driver's license	(i) A sport pilot certificate,	(A) Any light-sport aircraft for which you hold the endorsements required for its category and class.	( 1 ) You must hold any other endorsements required by this subpart, and comply with the limitations in § 61.315.
	(ii) At least a recreational pilot certificate with a category and class rating,	(A) Any light-sport aircraft in that category and class,	( 1 ) You do not have to hold any of the endorsements required by this subpart, but you must comply with the limitations in § 61.315.
	(iii) At least a recreational pilot certificate but not a rating for the category and class of light-sport aircraft you operate,	(A) That light-sport aircraft, only if you hold the endorsements required in § 61.321 for its category and class,	( 1 ) You must comply with the limitations in § 61.315, except § 61.315(c)(14) and, if a private pilot or higher, § 61.315(c)(7).
(3) Neither a medical certificate nor a U.S. driver's license	(i) A sport pilot certificate,	(A) Any light-sport glider or balloon for which you hold the endorsements required for its category and class	( 1 ) You must hold any other endorsements required by this subpart, and comply with the limitations in § 61.315.
	(ii) At least a private pilot certificate with a category and class rating for glider or balloon,	(A) Any light-sport glider or balloon in that category and class	( 1 ) You do not have to hold any of the endorsements required by this subpart, nor do you have to comply with the limitations in § 61.315.
	(iii) At least a private pilot certificate but not a rating for glider or balloon,	(A) Any light-sport glider or balloon, only if you hold the endorsements required in § 61.321 for its category and class	( 1 ) You must comply with the limitations in § 61.315, except § 61.315(c)(14) and, if a private pilot or higher, § 61.315(c)(7).
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(b) A person using a U.S. driver's license to meet the requirements of this paragraph must— (1) Comply with each restriction and limitation imposed by that person's U.S. driver's license and any judicial or administrative order applying to the operation of a motor vehicle; (2) Have been found eligible for the issuance of at least a third-class airman medical certificate at the time of his or her most recent application (if the person has applied for a medical certificate); (3) Not have had his or her most recently issued medical certificate (if the person has held a medical certificate) suspended or revoked or most recent Authorization for a Special Issuance of a Medical Certificate withdrawn; and (4) Not know or have reason to know of any medical condition that would make that person unable to operate a light-sport aircraft in a safe manner. [Docket FAA-2001-11133, 69 FR 44869, July 27, 2004, as amended by Amdt. 61-124, 74 FR 42562, Aug. 21, 2009; Amdt. 61-125, 75 FR 5221, Feb. 1, 2010] § 61.305 What are the age and language requirements for a sport pilot certificate? (a) To be eligible for a sport pilot certificate you must: (1) Be at least 17 years old (or 16 years old if you are applying to operate a glider or balloon). (2) Be able to read, speak, write, and understand English. If you cannot read, speak, write, and understand English because of medical reasons, the FAA may place limits on your certificate as are necessary for the safe operation of light-sport aircraft. § 61.307 What tests do I have to take to obtain a sport pilot certificate? To obtain a sport pilot certificate, you must pass the following tests: (a) Knowledge test. You must pass a knowledge test on the applicable aeronautical knowledge areas listed in § 61.309. Before you may take the knowledge test for a sport pilot certificate, you must receive a logbook endorsement from the authorized instructor who trained you or reviewed and evaluated your home-study course on the aeronautical knowledge areas listed in § 61.309 certifying you are prepared for the test. (b) Practical test. You must pass a practical test on the applicable areas of operation listed in §§ 61.309 and 61.311. Before you may take the practical test for a sport pilot certificate, you must receive a logbook endorsement from the authorized instructor who provided you with flight training on the areas of operation specified in §§ 61.309 and 61.311 in preparation for the practical test. This endorsement certifies that you meet the applicable aeronautical knowledge and experience requirements and are prepared for the practical test. § 61.309 What aeronautical knowledge must I have to apply for a sport pilot certificate? To apply for a sport pilot certificate you must receive and log ground training from an authorized instructor or complete a home-study course on the following aeronautical knowledge areas: (a) Applicable regulations of this chapter that relate to sport pilot privileges, limits, and flight operations. (b) Accident reporting requirements of the National Transportation Safety Board. (c) Use of the applicable portions of the aeronautical information manual and FAA advisory circulars. (d) Use of aeronautical charts for VFR navigation using pilotage, dead reckoning, and navigation systems, as appropriate. (e) Recognition of critical weather situations from the ground and in flight, windshear avoidance, and the procurement and use of aeronautical weather reports and forecasts.

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(f) Safe and efficient operation of aircraft, including collision avoidance, and recognition and avoidance of wake turbulence. (g) Effects of density altitude on takeoff and climb performance. (h) Weight and balance computations. (i) Principles of aerodynamics, powerplants, and aircraft systems. (j) Stall awareness, spin entry, spins, and spin recovery techniques, as applicable. (k) Aeronautical decision making and risk management. (l) Preflight actions that include— (1) How to get information on runway lengths at airports of intended use, data on takeoff and landing distances, weather reports and forecasts, and fuel requirements; and (2) How to plan for alternatives if the planned flight cannot be completed or if you encounter delays. [Docket FAA-2001-11133, 69 FR 44869, July 27, 2004, as amended by Amdt. 61-125, 75 FR 5221, Feb. 1, 2010] § 61.311 What flight proficiency requirements must I meet to apply for a sport pilot certificate? To apply for a sport pilot certificate you must receive and log ground and flight training from an authorized instructor on the following areas of operation, as appropriate, for airplane single-engine land or sea, glider, gyroplane, airship, balloon, powered parachute land or sea, and weight-shift-control aircraft land or sea privileges: (a) Preflight preparation. (b) Preflight procedures. (c) Airport, seaplane base, and gliderport operations, as applicable. (d) Takeoffs (or launches), landings, and go-arounds. (e) Performance maneuvers, and for gliders, performance speeds. (f) Ground reference maneuvers (not applicable to gliders and balloons). (g) Soaring techniques (applicable only to gliders). (h) Navigation. (i) Slow flight (not applicable to lighter-than-air aircraft and powered parachutes). (j) Stalls (not applicable to lighter-than-air aircraft, gyroplanes, and powered parachutes). (k) Emergency operations. (l) Post-flight procedures. [Docket FAA-2001-11133, 69 FR 44869, July 27, 2004, as amended by Amdt. 61-125, 75 FR 5221, Feb. 1, 2010] § 61.313 What aeronautical experience must I have to apply for a sport pilot certificate? Use the following table to determine the aeronautical experience you must have to apply for a sport pilot certificate:

If you are applying for a sport pilot certificate with . . .	Then you must log at least . . .	Which must include at least . . .
(a) Airplane category and single-engine land or sea class privileges,	(1) 20 hours of flight time, including at least 15 hours of flight training from an authorized instructor in a single-engine airplane and at least 5 hours of solo flight training in the areas of operation listed in § 61.311,	(i) 2 hours of cross-country flight training, (ii) 10 takeoffs and landings to a full stop (with each landing involving a flight in the traffic pattern) at an airport, (iii) One solo cross-country flight of at least 75 nautical miles total distance, with a full-stop landing at a minimum of two points and one segment of the flight consisting of a straight-line distance of at least 25 nautical miles between the takeoff and landing locations, and (iv) 2 hours of flight training with an authorized instructor on those areas of operation specified in § 61.311 in preparation for the practical test within the preceding 2 calendar months from the month of the test.
(b) Glider category privileges, and you have not logged at least 20 hours of flight time in a heavier-than-air aircraft,	(1) 10 hours of flight time in a glider, including 10 flights in a glider receiving flight training from an authorized instructor and at least 2 hours of solo flight training in the areas of operation listed in § 61.311,	(i) Five solo launches and landings, and (ii) at least 3 training flights with an authorized instructor on those areas of operation specified in § 61.311 in preparation for the practical test within the preceding 2 calendar months from the month of the test.
(c) Glider category privileges, and you have logged 20 hours flight time in a heavier-than-air aircraft,	(1) 3 hours of flight time in a glider, including five flights in a glider while receiving flight training from an authorized instructor and at least 1 hour of solo flight training in the areas of operation listed in § 61.311,	(i) Three solo launches and landings, and (ii) at least 3 training flights with an authorized instructor on those areas of operation specified in § 61.311 in preparation for the practical test within the preceding 2 calendar months from the month of the test.
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(d) Rotorcraft category and gyroplane class privileges,	(1) 20 hours of flight time, including 15 hours of flight training from an authorized instructor in a gyroplane and at least 5 hours of solo flight training in the areas of operation listed in § 61.311,	(i) 2 hours of cross-country flight training, (ii) 10 takeoffs and landings to a full stop (with each landing involving a flight in the traffic pattern) at an airport, (iii) One solo cross-country flight of at least 50 nautical miles total distance, with a full-stop landing at a minimum of two points, and one segment of the flight consisting of a straight-line distance of at least 25 nautical miles between the takeoff and landing locations, and (iv) 2 hours of flight training with an authorized instructor on those areas of operation specified in § 61.311 in preparation for the practical test within the preceding 2 calendar months from the month of the test.
(e) Lighter-than-air category and airship class privileges,	(1) 20 hours of flight time, including 15 hours of flight training from an authorized instructor in an airship and at least 3 hours performing the duties of pilot in command in an airship with an authorized instructor in the areas of operation listed in § 61.311,	(i) 2 hours of cross-country flight training, (ii) Three takeoffs and landings to a full stop (with each landing involving a flight in the traffic pattern) at an airport, (iii) One cross-country flight of at least 25 nautical miles between the takeoff and landing locations, and (iv) 2 hours of flight training with an authorized instructor on those areas of operation specified in § 61.311 in preparation for the practical test within the preceding 2 calendar months from the month of the test.
(f) Lighter-than-air category and balloon class privileges,	(1) 7 hours of flight time in a balloon, including three flights with an authorized instructor and one flight performing the duties of pilot in command in a balloon with an authorized instructor in the areas of operation listed in § 61.311,	(i) 2 hours of cross-country flight training, and (ii) 1 hours of flight training with an authorized instructor on those areas of operation specified in § 61.311 in preparation for the practical test within the preceding 2 calendar months from the month of the test.
(g) Powered parachute category land or sea class privileges,	(1) 12 hours of flight time in a powered parachute, including 10 hours of flight training from an authorized instructor in a powered parachute, and at least 2 hours of solo flight training in the areas of operation listed in § 61.311	(i) 1 hour of cross-country flight training, (ii) 20 takeoffs and landings to a full stop in a powered parachute with each landing involving flight in the traffic pattern at an airport; (iii) 10 solo takeoffs and landings to a full stop (with each landing involving a flight in the traffic pattern) at an airport, (iv) One solo flight with a landing at a different airport and one segment of the flight consisting of a straight-line distance of at least 10 nautical miles between takeoff and landing locations, and (v) 1 hours of flight training with an authorized instructor on those areas of operation specified in § 61.311 in preparation for the practical test within the preceding 2 calendar months from the month of the test.
(h) Weight-shift-control aircraft category land or sea class privileges,	(1) 20 hours of flight time, including 15 hours of flight training from an authorized instructor in a weight-shift-control aircraft and at least 5 hours of solo flight training in the areas of operation listed in § 61.311,	(i) 2 hours of cross-country flight training, (ii) 10 takeoffs and landings to a full stop (with each landing involving a flight in the traffic pattern) at an airport, (iii) One solo cross-country flight of at least 50 nautical miles total distance, with a full-stop landing at a minimum of two points, and one segment of the flight consisting of a straight-line distance of at least 25 nautical miles between takeoff and landing locations, and (iv) 2 hours of flight training with an authorized instructor on those areas of operation specified in § 61.311 in preparation for the practical test within the preceding 2 calendar months from the month of the test.
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[Docket FAA-2001-11133, 69 FR 44869, July 27, 2004; Amdt. 61-124A, 74 FR 53647, Oct. 20, 2009; Amdt. 61-125, 75 FR 5221, Feb. 1, 2010; Docket FAA-2022-1355, Amdt. 61-151, 87 FR 75845, Dec. 9, 2022] § 61.315 What are the privileges and limits of my sport pilot certificate? (a) If you hold a sport pilot certificate you may act as pilot in command of a light-sport aircraft, except as specified in paragraph (c) of this section. (b) You may share the operating expenses of a flight with a passenger, provided the expenses involve only fuel, oil, airport expenses, or aircraft rental fees. You must pay at least half the operating expenses of the flight. (c) You may not act as pilot in command of a light-sport aircraft: (1) That is carrying a passenger or property for compensation or hire. (2) For compensation or hire. (3) In furtherance of a business. (4) While carrying more than one passenger. (5) At night. (6) In Class A airspace. (7) In Class B, C, and D airspace, at an airport located in Class B, C, or D airspace, and to, from, through, or at an airport having an operational control tower unless you have met the requirements specified in § 61.325. (8) Outside the United States, unless you have prior authorization from the country in which you seek to operate. Your sport pilot certificate carries the limit “Holder does not meet ICAO requirements.” (9) To demonstrate the aircraft in flight to a prospective buyer if you are an aircraft salesperson. (10) In a passenger-carrying airlift sponsored by a charitable organization. (11) At an altitude of more than 10,000 feet MSL or 2,000 feet AGL, whichever is higher. (12) When the flight or surface visibility is less than 3 statute miles. (13) Without visual reference to the surface. (14) If the aircraft: (i) Has a V H greater than 87 knots CAS, unless you have met the requirements of § 61.327(b). (ii) Has a V H less than or equal to 87 knots CAS, unless you have met the requirements of § 61.327(a) or have logged flight time as pilot in command of an airplane with a V H less than or equal to 87 knots CAS before April 2, 2010. (15) Contrary to any operating limitation placed on the airworthiness certificate of the aircraft being flown. (16) Contrary to any limit on your pilot certificate or airman medical certificate, or any other limit or endorsement from an authorized instructor. (17) Contrary to any restriction or limitation on your U.S. driver's license or any restriction or limitation imposed by judicial or administrative order when using your driver's license to satisfy a requirement of this part. (18) While towing any object. (19) As a pilot flight crewmember on any aircraft for which more than one pilot is required by the type certificate of the aircraft or the regulations under which the flight is conducted.

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[Docket FAA-2001-11133, 69 FR 44869, July 27, 2004, as amended by Amdt. 61-125, 75 FR 5221, Feb. 1, 2010; Amdt. 61-125A, 75 FR 15610, Mar. 30, 2010] § 61.317 Is my sport pilot certificate issued with aircraft category and class ratings? Your sport pilot certificate does not list aircraft category and class ratings. When you successfully pass the practical test for a sport pilot certificate, regardless of the light-sport aircraft privileges you seek, the FAA will issue you a sport pilot certificate without any category and class ratings. The FAA will provide you with a logbook endorsement for the category and class of aircraft in which you are authorized to act as pilot in command. [Docket FAA-2001-11133, 69 FR 44869, July 27, 2004, as amended by Amdt. 61-125, 75 FR 5222, Feb. 1, 2010; Amdt. 61-125A, 75 FR 15610, Mar. 30, 2010] § 61.319 [Reserved]
§ 61.321 How do I obtain privileges to operate an additional category or class of light-sport aircraft? If you hold a sport pilot certificate and seek to operate an additional category or class of light-sport aircraft, you must— (a) Receive a logbook endorsement from the authorized instructor who trained you on the applicable aeronautical knowledge areas specified in § 61.309 and areas of operation specified in § 61.311. The endorsement certifies you have met the aeronautical knowledge and flight proficiency requirements for the additional light-sport aircraft privilege you seek; (b) Successfully complete a proficiency check from an authorized instructor, other than the instructor who trained you, consisting of the tasks in the appropriate areas of operation contained in the applicable Practical Test Standards (incorporated by reference, see § 61.14) as listed in appendix A of this part for the additional light-sport aircraft privilege you seek; (c) Complete an application for those privileges on a form and in a manner acceptable to the FAA and present this application to the authorized instructor who conducted the proficiency check specified in paragraph (b) of this section; and (d) Receive a logbook endorsement from the instructor who conducted the proficiency check specified in paragraph (b) of this section certifying you are proficient in the applicable areas of operation and aeronautical knowledge areas, and that you are authorized for the additional category and class light-sport aircraft privilege. [Docket FAA-2001-11133, 69 FR 44869, July 27, 2004, as amended by Docket FAA-2022-1463, Amdt. 61-153, 89 FR 22518, Apr. 1, 2024] § 61.323 [Reserved]
§ 61.325 How do I obtain privileges to operate a light-sport aircraft at an airport within, or in airspace within, Class B, C, and D airspace, or in other airspace with an airport having an operational control tower? If you hold a sport pilot certificate and seek privileges to operate a light-sport aircraft in Class B, C, or D airspace, at an airport located in Class B, C, or D airspace, or to, from, through, or at an airport having an operational control tower, you must receive and log ground and flight training. The authorized instructor who provides this training must provide a logbook endorsement that certifies you are proficient in the following aeronautical knowledge areas and areas of operation: (a) The use of radios, communications, navigation system/facilities, and radar services. (b) Operations at airports with an operating control tower to include three takeoffs and landings to a full stop, with each landing involving a flight in the traffic pattern, at an airport with an operating control tower. (c) Applicable flight rules of part 91 of this chapter for operations in Class B, C, and D airspace and air traffic control clearances. § 61.327 Are there specific endorsement requirements to operate a light-sport aircraft based on V H ? (a) Except as specified in paragraph (c) of this section, if you hold a sport pilot certificate and you seek to operate a light-sport aircraft that is an airplane with a V H less than or equal to 87 knots CAS you must—

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(1) Receive and log ground and flight training from an authorized instructor in an airplane that has a V H less than or equal to 87 knots CAS; and (2) Receive a logbook endorsement from the authorized instructor who provided the training specified in paragraph (a)(1) of this section certifying that you are proficient in the operation of light-sport aircraft that is an airplane with a V H less than or equal to 87 knots CAS. (b) If you hold a sport pilot certificate and you seek to operate a light-sport aircraft that has a V H greater than 87 knots CAS you must— (1) Receive and log ground and flight training from an authorized instructor in an aircraft that has a V H greater than 87 knots CAS; and (2) Receive a logbook endorsement from the authorized instructor who provided the training specified in paragraph (b)(1) of this section certifying that you are proficient in the operation of light-sport aircraft with a V H greater than 87 knots CAS. (c) The training and endorsements required by paragraph (a) of this section are not required if you have logged flight time as pilot in command of an airplane with a V H less than or equal to 87 knots CAS prior to April 2, 2010. [Docket FAA-2007-29015, 75 FR 5222, Feb. 1, 2010; Amdt. 61-125A, 75 FR 15610, Mar. 30, 2010] Subpart K—Flight Instructors With a Sport Pilot Rating Source: Docket FAA-2001-11133, 69 FR 44875, July 27, 2004, unless otherwise noted. § 61.401 What is the purpose of this subpart? (a) This part prescribes the following requirements that apply to a flight instructor certificate with a sport pilot rating: (1) Eligibility. (2) Aeronautical knowledge. (3) Flight proficiency. (4) Endorsements. (5) Privileges and limits. (b) Other provisions of this part apply to the logging of flight time and testing. [Docket FAA-2001-11133, 69 FR 44875, July 27, 2004, as amended by Amdt. 61-125, 75 FR 5222, Feb. 1, 2010] § 61.403 What are the age, language, and pilot certificate requirements for a flight instructor certificate with a sport pilot rating? To be eligible for a flight instructor certificate with a sport pilot rating you must: (a) Be at least 18 years old. (b) Be able to read, speak, write, and understand English. If you cannot read, speak, write, and understand English because of medical reasons, the FAA may place limits on your certificate as are necessary for the safe operation of light-sport aircraft. (c) Hold at least a sport pilot certificate with category and class ratings or privileges, as applicable, that are appropriate to the flight instructor privileges sought. [Docket FAA-2001-11133, 69 FR 44875, July 27, 2004, as amended by Amdt. 61-124, 74 FR 42562, Aug. 21, 2009] § 61.405 What tests do I have to take to obtain a flight instructor certificate with a sport pilot rating? To obtain a flight instructor certificate with a sport pilot rating you must pass the following tests: (a) Knowledge test. Before you take a knowledge test, you must receive a logbook endorsement certifying you are prepared for the test from an authorized instructor who trained you or evaluated your home-study course on the aeronautical knowledge areas listed in § 61.407. You must pass knowledge tests on— (1) The fundamentals of instructing listed in § 61.407(a), unless you meet the requirements of § 61.407(c); and (2) The aeronautical knowledge areas for a sport pilot certificate applicable to the aircraft category and class for which flight instructor privileges are sought. (b) Practical test. (1) Before you take the practical test, you must— (i) Receive a logbook endorsement from the authorized instructor who provided you with flight training on the areas of operation specified in § 61.409 that apply to the category and class of aircraft privileges you seek. This endorsement certifies you meet the applicable aeronautical knowledge and experience requirements and are prepared for the practical test;

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(ii) If you are seeking privileges to provide instruction in an airplane or glider, receive a logbook endorsement from an authorized instructor indicating that you are competent and possess instructional proficiency in stall awareness, spin entry, spins, and spin recovery procedures after you have received flight training in those training areas in an airplane or glider, as appropriate, that is certificated for spins; (2) You must pass a practical test— (i) On the areas of operation listed in § 61.409 that are appropriate to the category and class of aircraft privileges you seek; (ii) In an aircraft representative of the category and class of aircraft for the privileges you seek; (iii) In which you demonstrate that you are able to teach stall awareness, spin entry, spins, and spin recovery procedures if you are seeking privileges to provide instruction in an airplane or glider. If you have not failed a practical test based on deficiencies in your ability to demonstrate knowledge or skill in these areas and you provide the endorsement required by paragraph (b)(1)(ii) of this section, an examiner may accept the endorsement instead of the demonstration required by this paragraph. If you are taking a test because you previously failed a test based on not meeting the requirements of this paragraph, you must pass a practical test on stall awareness, spin entry, spins, and spin recovery instructional competency and proficiency in the applicable category and class of aircraft that is certificated for spins. § 61.407 What aeronautical knowledge must I have to apply for a flight instructor certificate with a sport pilot rating? (a) Except as specified in paragraph (c) of this section you must receive and log ground training from an authorized instructor on the fundamentals of instruction that includes: (1) The learning process. (2) Elements of effective teaching. (3) Student evaluation and testing. (4) Course development. (5) Lesson planning. (6) Classroom training techniques. (b) You must receive and log ground training from an authorized instructor on the aeronautical knowledge areas applicable to a sport pilot certificate for the aircraft category and class in which you seek flight instructor privileges. (c) You do not have to meet the requirements of paragraph (a) of this section if you— (1) Hold a flight instructor certificate or ground instructor certificate issued under this part; (2) Hold a teacher's certificate issued by a State, county, city, or municipality; or (3) Are employed as a teacher at an accredited college or university. [Docket FAA-2001-11133, 69 FR 44875, July 27, 2004, as amended by Amdt. 61-124, 74 FR 42562, Aug. 21, 2009] § 61.409 What flight proficiency requirements must I meet to apply for a flight instructor certificate with a sport pilot rating? You must receive and log ground and flight training from an authorized instructor on the following areas of operation for the aircraft category and class in which you seek flight instructor privileges: (a) Technical subject areas. (b) Preflight preparation. (c) Preflight lesson on a maneuver to be performed in flight. (d) Preflight procedures. (e) Airport, seaplane base, and gliderport operations, as applicable. (f) Takeoffs (or launches), landings, and go-arounds. (g) Fundamentals of flight. (h) Performance maneuvers and for gliders, performance speeds. (i) Ground reference maneuvers (except for gliders and lighter-than-air). (j) Soaring techniques. (k) Slow flight (not applicable to lighter-than-air and powered parachutes). (l) Stalls (not applicable to lighter-than-air, powered parachutes, and gyroplanes).

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(m) Spins (applicable to airplanes and gliders). (n) Emergency operations. (o) Tumble entry and avoidance techniques (applicable to weight-shift-control aircraft). (p) Post-flight procedures. § 61.411 What aeronautical experience must I have to apply for a flight instructor certificate with a sport pilot rating? Use the following table to determine the experience you must have for each aircraft category and class:

If you are applying for a flight instructor certificate with a sport pilot rating for . . .	Then you must log at least . . .	Which must include at least . . .
(a) Airplane category and single-engine class privileges,	(1) 150 hours of flight time as a pilot,	(i) 100 hours of flight time as pilot in command in powered aircraft, (ii) 50 hours of flight time in a single-engine airplane, (iii) 25 hours of cross-country flight time, (iv) 10 hours of cross-country flight time in a single-engine airplane, and
		(v) 15 hours of flight time as pilot in command in a single-engine airplane that is a light-sport aircraft.
(b) Glider category privileges,	(1) 25 hours of flight time as pilot in command in a glider, 100 flights in a glider, and 15 flights as pilot in command in a glider that is a light-sport aircraft, or (2) 100 hours in heavier-than-air aircraft, 20 flights in a glider, and 15 flights as pilot in command in a glider that is a light-sport aircraft
(c) Rotorcraft category and gyroplane class privileges,	(1) 125 hours of flight time as a pilot,	(i) 100 hours of flight time as pilot in command in powered aircraft, (ii) 50 hours of flight time in a gyroplane,
		(iii) 10 hours of cross-country flight time,
		(iv) 3 hours of cross-country flight time in a gyroplane, and
		(v) 15 hours of flight time as pilot in command in a gyroplane that is a light-sport aircraft.
(d) Lighter-than-air category and airship class privileges,	(1) 100 hours of flight time as a pilot,	(i) 40 hours of flight time in an airship, (ii) 20 hours of pilot in command time in an airship,
		(iii) 10 hours of cross-country flight time,
		(iv) 5 hours of cross-country flight time in an airship, and
		(v) 15 hours of flight time as pilot in command in an airship that is a light-sport aircraft.
(e) Lighter-than-air category and balloon class privileges,	(1) 35 hours of flight time as pilot-in-command,	(i) 20 hours of flight time in a balloon, (ii) 10 flights in a balloon, and
		(iii) 5 flights as pilot in command in a balloon that is a light-sport aircraft.
(f) Weight-shift-control aircraft category privileges,	(1) 150 hours of flight time as a pilot,	(i) 100 hours of flight time as pilot in command in powered aircraft, (ii) 50 hours of flight time in a weight-shift-control aircraft,
		(iii) 25 hours of cross-country flight time,
		(iv) 10 hours of cross-country flight time in a weight-shift-control aircraft, and
		(v) 15 hours of flight time as pilot in command in a weight-shift-control aircraft that is a light-sport aircraft.
(g) Powered-parachute category privileges,	(1) 100 hours of flight time as a pilot,	(i) 75 hours of flight time as pilot in command in powered aircraft, (ii) 50 hours of flight time in a powered parachute,
		(iii) 15 hours of cross-country flight time,
		(iv) 5 hours of cross-country flight time in a powered parachute, and
		(v) 15 hours of flight time as pilot in command in a powered parachute that is a light-sport aircraft.
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§ 61.412 Do I need additional training to provide instruction on control and maneuvering an airplane solely by reference to the instruments in a light-sport aircraft based on V H ? To provide flight training under § 61.93(e)(12) on control and maneuvering an airplane solely by reference to the flight instruments for the purpose of issuing a solo cross-country endorsement under § 61.93(c)(1) to a student pilot seeking a sport pilot certificate, a flight instructor with a sport pilot rating must: (a) Hold an endorsement required by § 61.327(b); (b) Receive and log a minimum of 1 hour of ground training and 3 hours of flight training from an authorized instructor in an airplane with a V H greater than 87 knots CAS or in a full flight simulator, flight training device, or aviation training device that replicates an airplane with a V H greater than 87 knots CAS; and (c) Receive a one-time endorsement in his or her logbook from an instructor authorized under subpart H of this part who certifies that the person is proficient in providing training on control and maneuvering solely by reference to the flight instruments in an airplane with a V H greater than 87 knots CAS. This flight training must include straight and level flight, turns, descents, climbs, use of radio navigation aids, and ATC directives. [Amdt. 61-142, 83 FR 30280, June 27, 2018] § 61.413 What are the privileges of my flight instructor certificate with a sport pilot rating? (a) If you hold a flight instructor certificate with a sport pilot rating, you are authorized, within the limits of your certificate and rating, to conduct ground training, flight training, certain checking events, and to issue endorsements related to: (1) A student pilot seeking a sport pilot certificate; (2) A sport pilot certificate; (3) A flight instructor certificate with a sport pilot rating; (4) A powered parachute or weight-shift-control aircraft rating; (5) Sport pilot privileges; (6) A flight review or operating privilege for a sport pilot, or training to maintain or improve the skills of a sport pilot; (7) A practical test for a sport pilot certificate, a private pilot certificate with a powered parachute or weight-shift-control aircraft rating or a flight instructor certificate with a sport pilot rating; (8) A knowledge test for a sport pilot certificate, a private pilot certificate with a powered parachute or weight-shift-control aircraft rating or a flight instructor certificate with a sport pilot rating; and (9) A proficiency check for an additional category or class privilege for a sport pilot certificate or a flight instructor certificate with a sport pilot rating. (b) A person who holds a flight instructor certificate with a sport pilot rating is authorized, in a form and manner acceptable to the Administrator, to: (1) Accept an application for a student pilot certificate or, for an applicant who holds a pilot certificate (other than a student pilot certificate) issued under part 61 of this chapter and meets the flight review requirements specified in § 61.56, a remote pilot certificate with a small UAS rating; (2) Verify the identity of the applicant; and (3) Verify that an applicant for a student pilot certificate meets the eligibility requirements in § 61.83. (c) The privileges authorized in this section do not permit a person who holds a flight instructor certificate with a sport pilot rating to conduct operations that would otherwise require an air carrier or operating certificate or specific authorization from the Administrator.

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[Docket FAA-2010-1127, Amdt. 61-135, 81 FR 1307, Jan. 12, 2016, as amended by Docket FAA-2015-0150, Amdt. 61-137, 81 FR 42208, June 28, 2016; Docket FAA-2023-1351; Amdt. 61-156, 89 FR 80340, Oct. 2, 2024] § 61.415 What are the limits of a flight instructor certificate with a sport pilot rating? If you hold a flight instructor certificate with a sport pilot rating, you may only provide flight training in a light-sport aircraft and are subject to the following limits: (a) You may not provide ground or flight training in any aircraft for which you do not hold: (1) A sport pilot certificate with applicable category and class privileges or a pilot certificate with the applicable category and class rating; and (2) Applicable category and class privileges for your flight instructor certificate with a sport pilot rating. (b) You may not provide ground or flight training for a private pilot certificate with a powered parachute or weight-shift-control aircraft rating unless you hold: (1) At least a private pilot certificate with the applicable category and class rating; and (2) Applicable category and class privileges for your flight instructor certificate with a sport pilot rating. (c) You may not conduct more than 8 hours of flight training in any 24-consecutive-hour period. (d) You may not endorse a: (1) Student pilot's logbook for solo flight privileges, unless you have— (i) Given that student the flight training required for solo flight privileges required by this part; and (ii) Determined that the student is prepared to conduct the flight safely under known circumstances, subject to any limitations listed in the student's logbook that you consider necessary for the safety of the flight. (2) Student pilot's logbook for a solo cross-country flight, unless you have determined the student's flight preparation, planning, equipment, and proposed procedures are adequate for the proposed flight under the existing conditions and within any limitations listed in the logbook that you consider necessary for the safety of the flight. (3) Student pilot's logbook for solo flight in Class B, C, and D airspace areas, at an airport within Class B, C, or D airspace and to from, through or on an airport having an operational control tower, unless you have— (i) Given that student ground and flight training in that airspace or at that airport; and (ii) Determined that the student is proficient to operate the aircraft safely. (4) Logbook of a pilot for a flight review, unless you have conducted a review of that pilot in accordance with the requirements of § 61.56. (e) You may not provide training to operate a light-sport aircraft in Class B, C, and D airspace, at an airport located in Class B, C, or D airspace, and to, from, through, or at an airport having an operational control tower, unless you have the endorsement specified in § 61.325, or are otherwise authorized to conduct operations in this airspace and at these airports. (f) You may not provide training in a light-sport aircraft that is an airplane with a V H less than or equal to 87 knots CAS unless you have the endorsement specified in § 61.327 (a), or are otherwise authorized to operate that light-sport aircraft. (g) You may not provide training in a light-sport aircraft with a V H greater than 87 knots CAS unless you have the endorsement specified in § 61.327 (b), or are otherwise authorized to operate that light-sport aircraft. (h) You may not provide training on the control and maneuvering of an aircraft solely by reference to the instruments in a light sport airplane with a V h greater than 87 knots CAS unless you meet the requirements in § 61.412. (i) You must perform all training in an aircraft that complies with the requirements of § 91.109 of this chapter. (j) If you provide flight training for a certificate, rating or privilege, you must provide that flight training in an aircraft that meets the following: (1) The aircraft must have at least two pilot stations and be of the same category and class appropriate to the certificate, rating or privilege sought.

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(2) For single place aircraft, pre-solo flight training must be provided in an aircraft that has two pilot stations and is of the same category and class appropriate to the certificate, rating, or privilege sought. [Docket FAA-2001-11133, 69 FR 44875, July 27, 2004, as amended by Amdt. 61-125, 75 FR 5222, Feb. 1, 2010; Amdt. 61-125A, 75 FR 15610, Mar. 30, 2010; Docket FAA-2010-1127, Amdt. 61-135, 81 FR 1307, Jan. 12, 2016; Amdt. 61-142, 83 FR 30280, June 27, 2018] § 61.417 Will my flight instructor certificate with a sport pilot rating list aircraft category and class ratings? Your flight instructor certificate does not list aircraft category and class ratings. When you successfully pass the practical test for a flight instructor certificate with a sport pilot rating, regardless of the light-sport aircraft privileges you seek, the FAA will issue you a flight instructor certificate with a sport pilot rating without any category and class ratings. The FAA will provide you with a logbook endorsement for the category and class of light-sport aircraft you are authorized to provide training in. § 61.419 How do I obtain privileges to provide training in an additional category or class of light-sport aircraft? If you hold a flight instructor certificate with a sport pilot rating and seek to provide training in an additional category or class of light-sport aircraft you must— (a) Receive a logbook endorsement from the authorized instructor who trained you on the applicable areas of operation specified in § 61.409 certifying you have met the aeronautical knowledge and flight proficiency requirements for the additional category and class flight instructor privilege you seek; (b) Successfully complete a proficiency check from an authorized instructor, other than the instructor who trained you, consisting of the tasks in the appropriate areas of operation contained in the applicable Practical Test Standards (incorporated by reference, see § 61.14) as listed in appendix A of this part for the additional category and class flight instructor privilege you seek; (c) Complete an application for those privileges on a form and in a manner acceptable to the FAA and present this application to the authorized instructor who conducted the proficiency check specified in paragraph (b) of this section; and (d) Receive a logbook endorsement from the instructor who conducted the proficiency check specified in paragraph (b) of this section certifying you are proficient in the areas of operation and authorized for the additional category and class flight instructor privilege. [Docket FAA-2001-11133, 69 FR 44875, July 27, 2004, as amended by Docket FAA-2022-1463, Amdt. 61-153, 89 FR 22518, Apr. 1, 2024] § 61.421 May I give myself an endorsement? No. If you hold a flight instructor certificate with a sport pilot rating, you may not give yourself an endorsement for any certificate, privilege, rating, flight review, authorization, practical test, knowledge test, or proficiency check required by this part. § 61.423 What are the recordkeeping requirements for a flight instructor with a sport pilot rating? (a) As a flight instructor with a sport pilot rating you must: (1) Sign the logbook of each person to whom you have given flight training or ground training. (2) Keep a record of the name, date, and type of endorsement for: (i) Each person whose logbook you have endorsed for solo flight privileges. (ii) Each person for whom you have provided an endorsement for a knowledge test, practical test, or proficiency check, and the record must indicate the kind of test or check, and the results. (iii) Each person whose logbook you have endorsed as proficient to operate— (A) An additional category or class of light-sport aircraft; (B) In Class B, C, and D airspace; at an airport located in Class B, C, or D airspace; and to, from, through, or at an airport having an operational control tower;

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(C) A light-sport aircraft that is an airplane with a V H less than or equal to 87 knots CAS; and (D) A light-sport aircraft with a V H greater than 87 knots CAS. (iv) Each person whose logbook you have endorsed as proficient to provide flight training in an additional category or class of light-sport aircraft. (b) Within 10 days after providing an endorsement for a person to operate or provide training in an additional category and class of light-sport aircraft you must— (1) Complete, sign, and submit to the FAA the application presented to you to obtain those privileges; and (2) Retain a copy of the form. (c) You must keep the records listed in this section for 3 years. You may keep these records in a logbook or a separate document. [Docket FAA-2001-11133, 69 FR 44875, July 27, 2004, as amended by Amdt. 61-125, 75 FR 5222, Feb. 1, 2010; Amdt. 61-125A, 75 FR 15610, Mar. 30, 2010; Docket FAA-2010-1127, Amdt. 61-135, 81 FR 1307, Jan. 12, 2016] § 61.425 How do I establish recent experience for my flight instructor certificate with a sport pilot rating? (a) If you hold a flight instructor certificate with a sport pilot rating issued after December 1, 2024, you must establish recent experience in accordance with § 61.197. (b) If you hold an unexpired flight instructor certificate with a sport pilot rating issued before December 1, 2024, you must renew your certificate by establishing recent experience in accordance with § 61.197 prior to the month of expiration on your flight instructor certificate. If you fail to establish recent experience prior to the expiration of your flight instructor certificate, you may not exercise flight instructor privileges until you reinstate those privileges in accordance with § 61.427. [Docket FAA-2023-0825, Amdt. 61-155, 89 FR 80052, Oct. 1, 2024] § 61.427 How do I reinstate my flight instructor privileges if I fail to establish recent experience for my flight instructor certificate with a sport pilot rating? If you fail to establish recent experience for your flight instructor certificate with a sport pilot rating, you must reinstate your flight instructor privileges by satisfactorily completing one of the following reinstatement requirements: (a) If 3 calendar months or less have passed since the last month of your recent experience period, you must successfully complete an approved flight instructor refresher course consisting of ground training or flight training, or a combination of both, or satisfy the requirements specified in paragraph (b) of this section. (b) If more than 3 calendar months have passed since the last month of the flight instructor's recent experience period, you must pass a practical test as prescribed in § 61.405(b) or § 61.183(h) for one of the ratings listed on your flight instructor certificate with a sport pilot rating. The FAA will reinstate any privilege authorized by that flight instructor certificate with a sport pilot rating. [Docket FAA-2023-0825, Amdt. 61-155, 89 FR 80053, Oct. 1, 2024] § 61.429 May I exercise the privileges of a flight instructor certificate with a sport pilot rating if I hold a flight instructor certificate with another rating? If you hold a flight instructor certificate, a commercial pilot certificate with an airship rating, or a commercial pilot certificate with a balloon rating issued under this part, and you seek to exercise the privileges of a flight instructor certificate with a sport pilot rating, you may do so without any further showing of proficiency, subject to the following limits: (a) You are limited to the aircraft category and class ratings listed on your flight instructor certificate, commercial pilot certificate with an airship rating, or commercial pilot certificate with a balloon rating, as appropriate, when exercising your flight instructor privileges and the privileges specified in § 61.413. (b) You must comply with the limits specified in § 61.415 and the recordkeeping requirements of § 61.423. (c) If you want to exercise the privileges of your flight instructor certificate in a category or class of light-sport aircraft for which you are not currently rated, you must meet all applicable requirements to provide training in an additional category or class of light-sport aircraft specified in § 61.419.

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[Docket FAA-2001-11133, 69 FR 44875, July 27, 2004, as amended by Amdt. 61-124, 74 FR 42562, Aug. 21, 2009; Amdt. 61-125, 75 FR 5222, Feb. 1, 2010] Pt. 61, App. A Appendix A to Part 61—Airman Certification Standards and Practical Test Standards

If you are seeking this certificate, rating, and/or privilege . . .	Then this ACS/PTS (incorporated by reference, see § 61.14) is applicable:
Airline Transport Pilot Certificate; Airplane Category—Single-Engine Land Rating, Airplane Category—Single-Engine Sea Rating, Airplane Category—Multiengine Land Rating, Airplane Category—Multiengine Sea Rating	FAA-S-ACS-11A, Airline Transport Pilot and Type Rating for Airplane Category Airman Certification Standards, November 2023.
Airline Transport Pilot Certificate; Rotorcraft Category—Helicopter Rating	FAA-S-8081-20A, Airline Transport Pilot and Aircraft Type Rating Practical Test Standards for Rotorcraft Category Helicopter Rating, November 2023.
Airline Transport Pilot Certificate; Powered-Lift Category	FAA-S-ACS-17, Airline Transport Pilot and Type Rating for Powered-Lift Category Airman Certification Standards, November 2023.
Commercial Pilot Certificate; Airplane Category—Single-Engine Land Rating, Airplane Category—Single-Engine Sea Rating, Airplane Category—Multiengine Land Rating, Airplane Category—Multiengine Sea Rating	FAA-S-ACS-7B, Commercial Pilot for Airplane Category Airman Certification Standards, November 2023.
Commercial Pilot Certificate; Rotorcraft Category—Helicopter Rating	FAA-S-ACS-16, Commercial Pilot for Rotorcraft Category Helicopter Rating Airman Certification Standards, November 2023.
Commercial Pilot Certificate; Rotorcraft Category—Gyroplane Rating	FAA-S-8081-16C, Commercial Pilot Practical Test Standards for Rotorcraft Category Gyroplane Rating, November 2023.
Commercial Pilot Certificate; Powered-Lift Category	FAA-S-ACS-2, Commercial Pilot for Powered-Lift Category Airman Certification Standards, November 2023.
Commercial Pilot Certificate; Glider Category	FAA-S-8081-23B, Commercial Pilot Practical Test Standards for Glider Category, November 2023.
Commercial Pilot Certificate; Lighter-Than-Air Category—Airship Rating, Lighter-Than-Air Category—Balloon Rating	FAA-S-8081-18A, Commercial Pilot Practical Test Standards for Lighter-Than-Air Category, November 2023.
Private Pilot Certificate; Airplane Category—Single-Engine Land Rating, Airplane Category—Single-Engine Sea Rating, Airplane Category—Multiengine Land Rating, Airplane Category—Multiengine Sea Rating	FAA-S-ACS-6C, Private Pilot for Airplane Category Airman Certification Standards, November 2023.
Private Pilot Certificate; Rotorcraft Category—Helicopter Rating	FAA-S-ACS-15, Private Pilot for Rotorcraft Category Helicopter Rating Airman Certification Standards, November 2023.
Private Pilot Certificate; Rotorcraft Category—Gyroplane Rating	FAA-S-8081-15B, Private Pilot Practical Test Standards for Rotorcraft Category Gyroplane Rating, November 2023.
Private Pilot Certificate; Powered-Lift Category	FAA-S-ACS-13, Private Pilot for Powered-Lift Category Airman Certification Standards, November 2023.
Private Pilot Certificate; Glider Category	FAA-S-8081-22A, Private Pilot Practical Test Standards for Glider Category, November 2023.
Private Pilot Certificate; Lighter-Than-Air Category—Airship Rating, Lighter-Than-Air Category—Balloon Rating	FAA-S-8081-17A, Private Pilot Practical Test Standards for Lighter-Than-Air Category, November 2023.
Private Pilot Certificate; Powered Parachute Category—Land Rating, Powered Parachute Category—Sea Rating, Weight-Shift-Control Aircraft Category—Land Rating, Weight-Shift-Control Aircraft Category—Sea Rating	FAA-S-8081-32A, Private Pilot Practical Test Standards for Powered Parachute Category and Weight-Shift-Control Category, November 2023.
Recreational Pilot Certificate; Airplane Category—Single-Engine Land Rating, Airplane Category—Single-Engine Sea Rating, Rotorcraft Category—Helicopter Rating, Rotorcraft Category—Gyroplane Rating	FAA-S-8081-3B, Recreational Pilot Practical Test Standards for Airplane Category and Rotorcraft Category, November 2023.
Sport Pilot Certificate; Airplane Category—Single-Engine Land Privileges, Airplane Category—Single-Engine Sea Privileges, Rotorcraft Category—Gyroplane Privileges, Glider Category	FAA-S-8081-29A, Sport Pilot and Sport Pilot Flight Instructor Rating Practical Test Standards for Airplane Category, Rotorcraft Category, and Glider Category, November 2023.
Flight Instructor Certificate with a Sport Pilot Rating; Airplane Category—Single-Engine Privileges, Rotorcraft Category—Gyroplane Privileges, Glider Category.
Sport Pilot Certificate; Lighter-Than-Air Category—Airship Privileges, Lighter-Than-Air Category—Balloon Privileges	FAA-S-8081-30A, Sport Pilot and Sport Pilot Flight Instructor Rating Practical Test Standards for Lighter-Than-Air Category, November 2023.
Flight Instructor Certificate with a Sport Pilot Rating; Lighter-Than-Air Category—Airship Privileges, Lighter-Than-Air Category—Balloon Privileges.
Sport Pilot Certificate; Powered Parachute Category—Land Privileges, Powered Parachute Category—Sea Privileges, Weight-Shift-Control Aircraft Category—Land Privileges, Weight-Shift-Control Aircraft Category—Sea Privileges	FAA-S-8081-31A, Sport Pilot and Sport Pilot Flight Instructor Rating Practical Test Standards for Powered Parachute Category and Weight-Shift-Control Category, November 2023.
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Flight Instructor Certificate with a Sport Pilot Rating; Powered Parachute Category Privileges, Weight-Shift-Control Aircraft Category Privileges.
Instrument Rating—Airplane Instrument Proficiency Check—Airplane	FAA-S-ACS-8C, Instrument Rating—Airplane Airman Certification Standards, November 2023.
Instrument Rating—Helicopter Instrument Proficiency Check—Helicopter	FAA-S-ACS-14, Instrument Rating—Helicopter Airman Certification Standards, November 2023.
Instrument Rating—Powered-Lift Instrument Proficiency Check—Powered-Lift	FAA-S-ACS-3, Instrument Rating—Powered-Lift Airman Certification Standards, November 2023.
Flight Instructor Certificate; Airplane Category—Single Engine Rating Airplane Category—Multiengine Rating	FAA-S-ACS-25, Flight Instructor for Airplane Category Airman Certification Standards, November 2023.
Flight Instructor Certificate; Rotorcraft Category—Helicopter Rating	FAA-S-ACS-29, Flight Instructor for Rotorcraft Category Helicopter Rating Airman Certification Standards, November 2023.
Flight Instructor Certificate; Rotorcraft Category—Gyroplane Rating	FAA-S-8081-7C, Flight Instructor Practical Test Standards for Rotorcraft Category Gyroplane Rating, November 2023.
Flight Instructor Certificate; Powered-lift Category	FAA-S-ACS-27, Flight Instructor for Powered-Lift Category Airman Certification Standards, November 2023.
Flight Instructor Certificate; Glider Category	FAA-S-8081-8C, Flight Instructor Practical Test Standards for Glider Category, November 2023.
Flight Instructor Certificate; Instrument—Airplane Rating, Instrument—Helicopter Rating	FAA-S-8081-9E, Flight Instructor Instrument Practical Test Standards for Airplane Rating and Helicopter Rating, November 2023.
Flight Instructor Certificate; Instrument—Powered-Lift Rating	FAA-S-ACS-28, Flight Instructor—Instrument Rating Powered-Lift Airman Certification Standards, November 2023.
Aircraft Type Rating—Airplane	FAA-S-ACS-11A, Airline Transport Pilot and Type Rating for Airplane Category Airman Certification Standards, November 2023.
Aircraft Type Rating—Helicopter	FAA-S-8081-20A, Airline Transport Pilot and Aircraft Type Rating Practical Test Standards for Rotorcraft Category Helicopter Rating, November 2023.
Aircraft Type Rating—Powered-Lift	FAA-S-ACS-17, Airline Transport Pilot and Type Rating for Powered-Lift Category Airman Certification Standards, November 2023.
Pilot-in-Command Proficiency Check—Airplane	FAA-S-ACS-11A, Airline Transport Pilot and Type Rating for Airplane Category Airman Certification Standards; November 2023.
Pilot-in-Command Proficiency Check—Helicopter	FAA-S-8081-20A, Airline Transport Pilot and Aircraft Type Rating Practical Test Standards for Rotorcraft Category Helicopter Rating, November 2023.
Pilot-in-Command Proficiency Check—Powered-Lift	FAA-S-ACS-17, Airline Transport Pilot and Type Rating for Powered-Lift Category Airman Certification Standards, November 2023.

[Docket FAA-2022-1463, Amdt. 61-153, 89 FR 22518, Apr. 1, 2024] Pt. 63 PART 63—CERTIFICATION: FLIGHT CREWMEMBERS OTHER THAN PILOTS Subpart A—General Sec. 63.1 Applicability. 63.2 Certification of foreign flight crewmembers other than pilots. 63.3 Certificates and ratings required. 63.11 Application and issue. 63.12 Offenses involving alcohol or drugs. 63.12a Refusal to submit to an alcohol test or to furnish test results. 63.12b [Reserved] 63.13 Temporary certificate. 63.14 [Reserved] 63.15 Duration of certificates. 63.15a [Reserved] 63.16 Change of name; replacement of lost or destroyed certificate. 63.17 Tests: General procedure. 63.18 Written tests: Cheating or other unauthorized conduct. 63.19 Operations during physical deficiency. 63.20 Applications, certificates, logbooks, reports, and records; falsification, reproduction, or alteration. 63.21 Change of address. 63.23 Special purpose flight engineer and flight navigator certificates: Operation of U.S.-registered civil airplanes leased by a person not a U.S. citizen.

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Subpart B—Flight Engineers 63.31 Eligibility requirements; general. 63.33 Aircraft ratings. 63.35 Knowledge requirements. 63.37 Aeronautical experience requirements. 63.39 Skill requirements. 63.41 Retesting after failure. 63.42 Flight engineer certificate issued on basis of a foreign flight engineer license. 63.43 Flight engineer courses. Subpart C—Flight Navigators 63.51 Eligibility requirements; general. 63.53 Knowledge requirements. 63.55 Experience requirements. 63.57 Skill requirements. 63.59 Retesting after failure. 63.61 Flight navigator courses. Appendix A to Part 63—Test Requirements for Flight Navigator Certificate Appendix B to Part 63—Flight Navigator Training Course Requirements Appendix C to Part 63—Flight Engineer Training Course Requirements Authority: 49 U.S.C. 106(f), 40113, 44701-44703, 44707, 44709-44711, 45102-45103, 45301-45302. Subpart A—General Source: Docket 1179, 27 FR 7969, Aug. 10, 1962, unless otherwise noted. § 63.1 Applicability. This part prescribes the requirements for issuing flight engineer and flight navigator certificates and the general operating rules for holders of those certificates. § 63.2 Certification of foreign flight crewmembers other than pilots. A person who is neither a United States citizen nor a resident alien is issued a certificate under this part (other than under § 63.23 or § 63.42) outside the United States only when the Administrator finds that the certificate is needed for the operation of a U.S.-registered civil aircraft. (Secs. 313, 601, 602, Federal Aviation Act of 1958, as amended (49 U.S.C. 1354, 1421, and 1422); sec. 6(c), Department of Transportation Act (49 U.S.C. 1655(c)); Title V, Independent Offices Appropriations Act of 1952 (31 U.S.C. 483(a)); sec. 28, International Air Transportation Competition Act of 1979 (49 U.S.C. 1159(b))) [Docket 22052, 47 FR 35693, Aug. 18, 1982] § 63.3 Certificates and ratings required. (a) Except as provided in paragraph (c) of this section, no person may act as a flight engineer of a civil aircraft of U.S. registry unless that person has in his or her physical possession or readily accessible in the aircraft: (1) A current flight engineer certificate with appropriate ratings issued to that person under this part; (2) A document conveying temporary authority to exercise certificate privileges issued by the Airman Certification Branch under § 63.16(f); or (3) When engaged in a flight operation within the United States for a part 119 certificate holder authorized to conduct operations under part 121 of this chapter, a temporary document provided by that certificate holder under an approved certificate verification plan. (b) A person may act as a flight engineer of an aircraft only if that person holds a current second-class (or higher) medical certificate issued to that person under part 67 of this chapter, or other documentation acceptable to the FAA, that is in that person's physical possession or readily accessible in the aircraft. (c) When the aircraft is operated within a foreign country, a current flight engineer certificate issued by the country in which the aircraft is operated, with evidence of current medical qualification for that certificate, may be used. Also, in the case of a flight engineer certificate issued under § 63.42, evidence of current medical qualification accepted for the issue of that certificate is used in place of a medical certificate. (d) No person may act as a flight navigator of a civil aircraft of U.S. registry unless that person has in his or her physical possession a current flight navigator certificate issued to him or her under this part and a second-class (or higher) medical certificate issued to him or her under part 67 of this chapter within the preceding 12 months. However, when the aircraft is operated within a foreign country, a current flight navigator certificate issued by the country in which the aircraft is operated, with evidence of current medical qualification for that certificate, may be used.

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(e) Each person who holds a flight engineer or flight navigator certificate, medical certificate, or temporary document in accordance with paragraph (a)(3) of this section shall present it for inspection upon the request of the Administrator or an authorized representative of the National Transportation Safety Board, or of any Federal, State, or local law enforcement officer. [Amdt. 63-41, 83 FR 30280, June 27, 2018] § 63.11 Application and issue. (a) An application for a certificate and appropriate class rating, or for an additional rating, under this part must be made on a form and in a manner prescribed by the Administrator. Each person who applies for airmen certification services to be administered outside the United States for any certificate or rating issued under this part must show evidence that the fee prescribed in appendix A of part 187 of this chapter has been paid. (b) An applicant who meets the requirements of this part is entitled to an appropriate certificate and appropriate class ratings. (c) Unless authorized by the Administrator, a person whose flight engineer certificate is suspended may not apply for any rating to be added to that certificate during the period of suspension. (d) Unless the order of revocation provides otherwise, a person whose flight engineer or flight navigator certificate is revoked may not apply for the same kind of certificate for 1 year after the date of revocation. (Secs. 313, 601, 602, Federal Aviation Act of 1958, as amended (49 U.S.C. 1354, 1421, and 1422); sec. 6(c), Department of Transportation Act (49 U.S.C. 1655(c)); Title V, Independent Offices Appropriations Act of 1952 (31 U.S.C. 483(a)); sec. 28, International Air Transportation Competition Act of 1979 (49 U.S.C. 1159(b))) [Docket 1179, 27 FR 7969, Aug. 10, 1962, as amended by Amdt. 63-3, 30 FR 14559, Nov. 23, 1965; Amdt. 63-7, 31 FR 13523, Oct. 20, 1966; Amdt. 63-22, 47 FR 35693, Aug. 16, 1982; Amdt. 63-35, 72 FR 18558, Apr. 12, 2007] § 63.12 Offenses involving alcohol or drugs. (a) A conviction for the violation of any Federal or state statute relating to the growing, processing, manufacture, sale, disposition, possession, transportation, or importation of narcotic drugs, marihuana, or depressant or stimulant drugs or substances is grounds for— (1) Denial of an application for any certificate or rating issued under this part for a period of up to 1 year after the date of final conviction; or (2) Suspension or revocation of any certificate or rating issued under this part. (b) The commission of an act prohibited by § 91.17(a) or § 91.19(a) of this chapter is grounds for— (1) Denial of an application for a certificate or rating issued under this part for a period of up to 1 year after the date of that act; or (2) Suspension or revocation of any certificate or rating issued under this part. [Docket 21956, 50 FR 15379, Apr. 17, 1985, as amended by Amdt. 63-27, 54 FR 34330, Aug. 18, 1989] § 63.12a Refusal to submit to an alcohol test or to furnish test results. A refusal to submit to a test to indicate the percentage by weight of alcohol in the blood, when requested by a law enforcement officer in accordance with § 91.11(c) of this chapter, or a refusal to furnish or authorize the release of the test results when requested by the Administrator in accordance with § 91.17 (c) or (d) of this chapter, is grounds for— (a) Denial of an application for any certificate or rating issued under this part for a period of up to 1 year after the date of that refusal; or (b) Suspension or revocation of any certificate or rating issued under this part. [Docket 21956, 51 FR 1229, Jan. 9, 1986, as amended by Amdt. 63-27, 54 FR 34330, Aug. 18, 1989] § 63.12b [Reserved]
§ 63.13 Temporary certificate. A certificate effective for a period of not more than 120 days may be issued to a qualified applicant, pending review of his application and supplementary documents and the issue of the certificate for which he applied.

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[Docket 1179, 27 FR 7969, Aug. 10, 1962, as amended by Amdt. 63-19, 43 FR 22639, May 25, 1978] § 63.14 [Reserved]
§ 63.15 Duration of certificates. (a) Except as provided in § 63.23 and paragraph (b) of this section, a certificate or rating issued under this part is effective until it is surrendered, suspended, or revoked. (b) A flight engineer certificate (with any amendment thereto) issued under § 63.42 expires at the end of the 24th month after the month in which the certificate was issued or renewed. However, the holder may exercise the privileges of that certificate only while the foreign flight engineer license on which that certificate is based is effective. (c) Any certificate issued under this part ceases to be effective if it is surrendered, suspended, or revoked. The holder of any certificate issued under this part that is suspended or revoked shall, upon the Administrator's request, return it to the Administrator. (d) Except for temporary certificate issued under § 63.13, the holder of a paper certificate issued under this part may not exercise the privileges of that certificate after March 31, 2013. (Sec. 6, 80 Stat. 937, 49 U.S.C. 1655; secs. 313, 601, 602, Federal Aviation Act of 1958, as amended (49 U.S.C. 1354, 1421, and 1422); sec. 6(c), Department of Transportation Act (49 U.S.C. 1655(c)); Title V, Independent Offices Appropriations Act of 1952 (31 U.S.C. 483(a)); sec. 28, International Air Transportation Competition Act of 1979 (49 U.S.C. 1159(b))) [Docket 8846, 33 FR 18613, Dec. 17, 1968, as amended by Amdt. 63-22, 47 FR 35693, Aug. 16, 1982; Amdt. 63-36, 73 FR 10668, Feb. 28, 2008] § 63.15a [Reserved]
§ 63.16 Change of name; replacement of lost or destroyed certificate. (a) An application for a change of name on a certificate issued under this part must be accompanied by the applicant's current certificate and the marriage license, court order, or other document verifying the change. The documents are returned to the applicant after inspection. (b) A request for a replacement of a lost or destroyed airman certificate issued under this part must be made: (1) By letter to the Department of Transportation, Federal Aviation Administration, Airman Certification Branch, Post Office Box 25082, Oklahoma City, OK 73125 and must be accompanied by a check or money order for the appropriate fee payable to the FAA; or (2) In any other form and manner approved by the Administrator including a request to Airman Services at http://www.faa.gov, and must be accompanied by acceptable form of payment for the appropriate fee. (c) A request for the replacement of a lost or destroyed medical certificate must be made: (1) By letter to the Department of Transportation, FAA, Aerospace Medical Certification Division, P.O. Box 26200, Oklahoma City, OK 73125, and must be accompanied by a check or money order for the appropriate fee payable to the FAA; or (2) In any other manner and form approved by the Administrator and must be accompanied by acceptable form of payment for the appropriate fee. (d) A request for the replacement of a lost or destroyed knowledge test report must be made: (1) By letter to the Department of Transportation, FAA, Airmen Certification Branch, P.O. Box 25082, Oklahoma City, OK 73125, and must be accompanied by a check or money order for the appropriate fee payable to the FAA; or (2) In any other manner and form approved by the Administrator and must be accompanied by acceptable form of payment for the appropriate fee. (e) The letter requesting replacement of a lost or destroyed airman certificate, medical certificate, or knowledge test report must state: (1) The name of the person; (2) The permanent mailing address (including ZIP code), or if the permanent mailing address includes a post office box number, then the person's current residential address; (3) The certificate holder's date and place of birth; and

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(4) Any information regarding the— (i) Grade, number, and date of issuance of the airman certificate and ratings, if appropriate; (ii) Class of medical certificate, the place and date of the medical exam, name of the Airman Medical Examiner (AME), and the circumstances concerning the loss of the original medical certificate, as appropriate; and (iii) Date the knowledge test was taken, if appropriate. (f) A person who has lost an airman certificate, medical certificate, or knowledge test report may obtain in a form or manner approved by the Administrator, a document conveying temporary authority to exercise certificate privileges from the FAA Aeromedical Certification Branch or the Airman Certification Branch, as appropriate, and the— (1) Document may be carried as an airman certificate, medical certificate, or knowledge test report, as appropriate, for a period not to exceed 60 days pending the person's receiving a duplicate under paragraph (b), (c), or (d) of this section, unless the person has been notified that the certificate has been suspended or revoked. (2) Request for such a document must include the date on which a duplicate certificate or knowledge test report was previously requested. [Amdt. 63-41, 83 FR 30280, June 27, 2018] § 63.17 Tests: General procedure. (a) Tests prescribed by or under this part are given at times and places, and by persons, designated by the Administrator. (b) The minimum passing grade for each test is 70 percent. § 63.18 Written tests: Cheating or other unauthorized conduct. (a) Except as authorized by the Administrator, no person may— (1) Copy, or intentionally remove, a written test under this part; (2) Give to another, or receive from another, any part or copy of that test; (3) Give help on that test to, or receive help on that test from, any person during the period that test is being given. (4) Take any part of that test in behalf of another person; (5) Use any material or aid during the period that test is being given; or (6) Intentionally cause, assist, or participate in any act prohibited by this paragraph. (b) No person who commits an act prohibited by paragraph (a) of this section is eligible for any airman or ground instructor certificate or rating under this chapter for a period of 1 year after the date of that act. In addition, the commission of that act is a basis for suspending or revoking any airman or ground instructor certificate or rating held by that person. [Docket 4086, 30 FR 2196, Feb. 18, 1965] § 63.19 Operations during physical deficiency. No person may serve as a flight engineer or flight navigator during a period of known physical deficiency, or increase in physical deficiency, that would make him unable to meet the physical requirements for his current medical certificate. § 63.20 Applications, certificates, logbooks, reports, and records; falsification, reproduction, or alteration. (a) No person may make or cause to be made— (1) Any fraudulent or intentionally false statement on any application for a certificate or rating under this part; (2) Any fraudulent or intentionally false entry in any logbook, record, or report that is required to be kept, made, or used, to show compliance with any requirement for any certificate or rating under this part; (3) Any reproduction, for fraudulent purpose, of any certificate or rating under this part; or (4) Any alteration of any certificate or rating under this part. (b) The commission by any person of an act prohibited under paragraph (a) of this section is a basis for suspending or revoking any airman or ground instructor certificate or rating held by that person. [Docket 4086, 30 FR 2196, Feb. 18, 1965] § 63.21 Change of address. Within 30 days after any change in his permanent mailing address, the holder of a certificate issued under this part shall notify the Department of Transportation, Federal Aviation Administration, Airman Certification Branch, Post Office Box 25082, Oklahoma City, OK 73125, in writing, of his new address.

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[Docket 10536, 35 FR 14075, Sept. 4, 1970] § 63.23 Special purpose flight engineer and flight navigator certificates: Operation of U.S.-registered civil airplanes leased by a person not a U.S. citizen. (a) General. The holder of a current foreign flight engineer or flight navigator certificate, license, or authorization issued by a foreign contracting State to the Convention on International Civil Aviation, who meets the requirements of this section, may hold a special purpose flight engineer or flight navigator certificate, as appropriate, authorizing the holder to perform flight engineer or flight navigator duties on a civil airplane of U.S. registry, leased to a person not a citizen of the United States, carrying persons or property for compensation or hire. Special purpose flight engineer and flight navigator certificates are issued under this section only for airplane types that can have a maximum passenger seating configuration, excluding any flight crewmember seat, of more than 30 seats or a maximum payload capacity (as defined in § 135.2(e) of this chapter) of more than 7,500 pounds. (b) Eligibility. To be eligible for the issuance, or renewal, of a certificate under this section, an applicant must present the following to the Administrator: (1) A current foreign flight engineer or flight navigator certificate, license, or authorization issued by the aeronautical authority of a foreign contracting State to the Convention on International Civil Aviation or a facsimile acceptable to the Administrator. The certificate or license must authorize the applicant to perform the flight engineer or flight navigator duties to be authorized by a certificate issued under this section on the same airplane type as the leased airplane. (2) A current certification by the lessee of the airplane— (i) Stating that the applicant is employed by the lessee; (ii) Specifying the airplane type on which the applicant will perform flight engineer or flight navigator duties; and (iii) Stating that the applicant has received ground and flight instruction which qualifies the applicant to perform the duties to be assigned on the airplane. (3) Documentation showing that the applicant currently meets the medical standards for the foreign flight engineer or flight navigator certificate, license, or authorization required by paragraph (b)(1) of this section, except that a U.S. medical certificate issued under part 67 of this chapter is not evidence that the applicant meets those standards unless the State which issued the applicant's foreign flight engineer or flight navigator certificate, license, or authorization accepts a U.S. medical certificate as evidence of medical fitness for a flight engineer or flight navigator certificate, license, or authorization. (c) Privileges. The holder of a special purpose flight engineer or flight navigator certificate issued under this section may exercise the same privileges as those shown on the certificate, license, or authorization specified in paragraph (b)(1) of this section, subject to the limitations specified in this section. (d) Limitations. Each certificate issued under this section is subject to the following limitations: (1) It is valid only— (i) For flights between foreign countries and for flights in foreign air commerce; (ii) While it and the certificate, license, or authorization required by paragraph (b)(1) of this section are in the certificate holder's personal possession and are current; (iii) While the certificate holder is employed by the person to whom the airplane described in the certification required by paragraph (b)(2) of this section is leased; (iv) While the certificate holder is performing flight engineer or flight navigator duties on the U.S.-registered civil airplane described in the certification required by paragraph (b)(2) of this section; and

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(v) While the medical documentation required by paragraph (b)(3) of this section is in the certificate holder's personal possession and is currently valid. (2) Each certificate issued under this section contains the following: (i) The name of the person to whom the U.S.-registered civil airplane is leased. (ii) The type of airplane. (iii) The limitation: “Issued under, and subject to, § 63.23 of the Federal Aviation Regulations.” (iv) The limitation: “Subject to the privileges and limitations shown on the holder's foreign flight (engineer or navigator) certificate, license, or authorization.” (3) Any additional limitations placed on the certificate which the Administrator considers necessary. (e) Termination. Each special purpose flight engineer or flight navigator certificate issued under this section terminates— (1) When the lease agreement for the airplane described in the certification required by paragraph (b)(2) of this section terminates; (2) When the foreign flight engineer or flight navigator certificate, license, or authorization, or the medical documentation required by paragraph (b) of this section is suspended, revoked, or no longer valid; or (3) After 24 months after the month in which the special purpose flight engineer or flight navigator certificate was issued. (f) Surrender of certificate. The certificate holder shall surrender the special purpose flight engineer or flight navigator certificate to the Administrator within 7 days after the date it terminates. (g) Renewal. The certificate holder may have the certificate renewed by complying with the requirements of paragraph (b) of this section at the time of application for renewal. (Secs. 313(a), 601, and 602, Federal Aviation Act of 1958; as amended (49 U.S.C. 1354(a), 1421, and 1422); sec. 6(c), Department of Transportation Act (49 U.S.C. 1655(c))) [Docket 19300, 45 FR 5672, Jan. 24, 1980] Subpart B—Flight Engineers Authority: Secs. 313(a), 601, and 602, Federal Aviation Act of 1958; 49 U.S.C. 1354, 1421, 1422. Source: Docket 6458, 30 FR 14559, Nov. 23, 1965, unless otherwise noted. § 63.31 Eligibility requirements; general. To be eligible for a flight engineer certificate, a person must— (a) Be at least 21 years of age; (b) Be able to read, speak, and understand the English language, or have an appropriate limitation placed on his flight engineer certificate; (c) Hold at least a second-class medical certificate issued under part 67 of this chapter within the 12 months before the date he applies, or other evidence of medical qualification accepted for the issue of a flight engineer certificate under § 63.42; and (d) Comply with the requirements of this subpart that apply to the rating he seeks. (Sec. 6, 80 Stat. 937, 49 U.S.C. 1655) [Docket 6458, 30 FR 14559, Nov. 23, 1965, as amended by Amdt. 63-9, 33 FR 18614, Dec. 17, 1968] § 63.33 Aircraft ratings. (a) The aircraft class ratings to be placed on flight engineer certificates are— (1) Reciprocating engine powered; (2) Turbopropeller powered; and (3) Turbojet powered. (b) To be eligible for an additional aircraft class rating after his flight engineer certificate with a class rating is issued to him, an applicant must pass the written test that is appropriate to the class of airplane for which an additional rating is sought, and— (1) Pass the flight test for that class of aircraft; or (2) Satisfactorily complete an approved flight engineer training program that is appropriate to the additional class rating sought. § 63.35 Knowledge requirements. (a) An applicant for a flight engineer certificate must pass a written test on the following:

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(1) The regulations of this chapter that apply to the duties of a flight engineer. (2) The theory of flight and aerodynamics. (3) Basic meteorology with respect to engine operations. (4) Center of gravity computations. (b) An applicant for the original or additional issue of a flight engineer class rating must pass a written test for that airplane class on the following: (1) Preflight. (2) Airplane equipment. (3) Airplane systems. (4) Airplane loading. (5) Airplane procedures and engine operations with respect to limitations. (6) Normal operating procedures. (7) Emergency procedures. (8) Mathematical computation of engine operations and fuel consumption. (c) Before taking the written tests prescribed in paragraphs (a) and (b) of this section, an applicant for a flight engineer certificate must present satisfactory evidence of having completed one of the experience requirements of § 63.37. However, the applicant may take the written tests before acquiring the flight training required by § 63.37. (d) An applicant for a flight engineer certificate or rating must have passed the written tests required by paragraphs (a) and (b) of this section since the beginning of the 24th calendar month before the month in which the flight is taken. However, this limitation does not apply to an applicant for a flight engineer certificate or rating if— (1) The applicant— (i) Within the period ending 24 calendar months after the month in which the applicant passed the written test, is employed as a flight crewmember or mechanic by a U.S. air carrier or commercial operator operating either under part 121 or as a commuter air carrier under part 135 (as defined in part 298 of this title) and is employed by such a certificate holder at the time of the flight test; (ii) If employed as a flight crewmember, has completed initial training, and, if appropriate, transition or upgrade training; and (iii) Meets the recurrent training requirements of the applicable part or, for mechanics, meets the recency of experience requirements of part 65 of this chapter; (2) Within the period ending 24 calendar months after the month in which the applicant passed the written test, the applicant participated in a flight engineer or maintenance training program of a U.S. scheduled military air transportation service and is currently participating in that program; or (3) An applicant is eligible to take a practical test for a flight engineer certificate or rating under this part with an expired written test report in accordance with § 61.40 of this chapter. (e) An air carrier or commercial operator with an approved training program under part 121 of this chapter may, when authorized by the Administrator, provide as part of that program a written test that it may administer to satisfy the test required for an additional rating under paragraph (b) of this section. (Sec. 6, 80 Stat. 937, 49 U.S.C. 1655; secs. 313(a), 601 through 605 of the Federal Aviation Act of 1958 (49 U.S.C. 1354(a), 1421 through 1425); sec. 6(c), Department of Transportation Act (49 U.S.C. 1655(c)); and 14 CFR 11.49) [Docket 1179, 27 FR 7969, Aug. 10, 1962, as amended by Amdt. 63-17, 40 FR 32830, Aug. 5, 1975; Docket 63-21, 47 FR 13316, Mar. 29, 1982; Docket FAA-2023-0825, Amdt. 63-47, 89 FR 80053, Oct. 1, 2024] § 63.37 Aeronautical experience requirements. (a) Except as otherwise specified therein, the flight time used to satisfy the aeronautical experience requirements of paragraph (b) of this section must have been obtained on an airplane— (1) On which a flight engineer is required by this chapter; or (2) That has at least three engines that are rated at least 800 horsepower each or the equivalent in turbine-powered engines. (b) An applicant for a flight engineer certificate with a class rating must present, for the class rating sought, satisfactory evidence of one of the following: (1) At least 3 years of diversified practical experience in aircraft and aircraft engine maintenance (of which at least 1 year was in maintaining multiengine aircraft with engines rated at least 800 horsepower each, or the equivalent in turbine engine powered aircraft), and at least 5 hours of flight training in the duties of a flight engineer.

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(2) Graduation from at least a 2-year specialized aeronautical training course in maintaining aircraft and aircraft engines (of which at least 6 calendar months were in maintaining multiengine aircraft with engines rated at least 800 horsepower each or the equivalent in turbine engine powered aircraft), and at least 5 hours of flight training in the duties of a flight engineer. (3) A degree in aeronautical, electrical, or mechanical engineering from a recognized college, university, or engineering school; at least 6 calendar months of practical experience in maintaining multiengine aircraft with engines rated at least 800 horsepower each, or the equivalent in turbine engine powered aircraft; and at least 5 hours of flight training in the duties of a flight engineer. (4) At least a commercial pilot certificate with an instrument rating and at least 5 hours of flight training in the duties of a flight engineer. (5) At least 200 hours of flight time in a transport category airplane (or in a military airplane with at least two engines and at least equivalent weight and horsepower) as pilot in command or second in command performing the functions of a pilot in command under the supervision of a pilot in command. (6) At least 100 hours of flight time as a flight engineer. (7) Within the 90-day period before he applies, successful completion of an approved flight engineer ground and flight course of instruction as provided in appendix C of this part. (Sec. 6, 80 Stat. 937, 49 U.S.C. 1655) [Docket 6458, 30 FR 14559, Nov. 23, 1965, as amended by Amdt. 63-5, 31 FR 9047, July 1, 1966; Amdt. 63-17, 40 FR 32830, Aug. 5, 1975] § 63.39 Skill requirements. (a) An applicant for a flight engineer certificate with a class rating must pass a practical test in the class of airplane for which a rating is sought. To pass the practical test for a flight engineer certificate, the applicant must satisfactorily demonstrate the objectives in the areas of operation specified in the Flight Engineer Practical Test Standards for Reciprocating Engine, Turbopropeller, and Turbojet Powered Aircraft (incorporated by reference, see paragraph (c) of this section). The test may only be given in an airplane specified in § 63.37(a). (b) The applicant must— (1) Show that the applicant can satisfactorily perform preflight inspection, servicing, starting, pretakeoff, and postlanding procedures; (2) In flight, show that the applicant can satisfactorily perform the normal duties and procedures relating to the airplane, airplane engines, propellers (if appropriate), systems, and appliances; and (3) In flight, in an airplane simulator, or in an approved flight engineer training device, show that the applicant can satisfactorily perform emergency duties and procedures and recognize and take appropriate action for malfunctions of the airplane, engines, propellers (if appropriate), systems and appliances. (c) FAA-S-8081-21A, Flight Engineer Practical Test Standards for Reciprocating Engine, Turbopropeller, and Turbojet Powered Aircraft, November 2023, is incorporated by reference into this section with the approval of the Director of the Federal Register under 5 U.S.C. 552(a) and 1 CFR part 51. All approved material is available for inspection at the Federal Aviation Administration (FAA) and the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). Contact FAA, Training and Certification Group, 202-267-1100, ACSPTSinquiries@faa.gov, www.faa.gov/training_testing. For information on the availability of this material at NARA, visit www.archives.gov/federal-register/cfr/ibr-locations or email fr.inspection@nara.gov. The material may be obtained from FAA, 800 Independence Avenue SW, Washington, DC 20591, 866-835-5322, www.faa.gov/training_testing. [Docket FAA-2022-1463; Amdt. 63-46, 89 FR 22519, Apr. 1, 2024]

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§ 63.41 Retesting after failure. An applicant for a flight engineer certificate who fails a written test or practical test for that certificate may apply for retesting— (a) After 30 days after the date he failed that test; or (b) After he has received additional practice or instruction (flight, synthetic trainer, or ground training, or any combination thereof) that is necessary, in the opinion of the Administrator or the applicant's instructor (if the Administrator has authorized him to determine the additional instruction necessary) to prepare the applicant for retesting. § 63.42 Flight engineer certificate issued on basis of a foreign flight engineer license. (a) Certificates issued. The holder of a current foreign flight engineer license issued by a contracting State to the Convention on International Civil Aviation, who meets the requirements of this section, may have a flight engineer certificate issued to him for the operation of civil aircraft of U.S. registry. Each flight engineer certificate issued under this section specifies the number and State of issuance of the foreign flight engineer license on which it is based. If the holder of the certificate cannot read, speak, or understand the English language, the Administrator may place any limitation on the certificate that he considers necessary for safety. (b) Medical standards and certification. An applicant must submit evidence that he currently meets the medical standards for the foreign flight engineer license on which the application for a certificate under this section is based. A current medical certificate issued under part 67 of this chapter will be excepted as evidence that the applicant meets those standards. However, a medical certificate issued under part 67 of this chapter is not evidence that the applicant meets those standards outside the United States unless the State that issued the applicant's foreign flight engineer license also accepts that medical certificate as evidence of the applicant's physical fitness for his foreign flight engineer license. (c) Ratings issued. Aircraft class ratings listed on the applicant's foreign flight engineer license, in addition to any issued to him after testing under the provisions of this part, are placed on the applicant's flight engineer certificate. An applicant without an aircraft class rating on his foreign flight engineer license may be issued a class rating if he shows that he currently meets the requirements for exercising the privileges of his foreign flight engineer license on that class of aircraft. (d) Privileges and limitations. The holder of a flight engineer certificate issued under this section may act as a flight engineer of a civil aircraft of U.S. registry subject to the limitations of this part and any additional limitations placed on his certificate by the Administrator. He is subject to these limitations while he is acting as a flight engineer of the aircraft within or outside the United States. However, he may not act as flight engineer or in any other capacity as a required flight crewmember, of a civil aircraft of U.S. registry that is carrying persons or property for compensation or hire. (e) Renewal of certificate and ratings. The holder of a certificate issued under this section may have that certificate and the ratings placed thereon renewed if, at the time of application for renewal, the foreign flight engineer license on which that certificate is based is in effect. Application for the renewal of the certificate and ratings thereon must be made before the expiration of the certificate. (Sec. 6, 80 Stat. 937, 49 U.S.C. 1655) [Docket 8846, 33 FR 18614, Dec. 17, 1968, as amended by Amdt. 63-20, 45 FR 5673, Jan. 24, 1980] § 63.43 Flight engineer courses. An applicant for approval of a flight engineer course must submit a letter to the Administrator requesting approval, and must also submit three copies of each course outline, a description of the facilities and equipment, and a list of the instructors and their qualifications. An air carrier or commercial operator with an approved flight engineer training course under part 121 of this chapter may apply for approval of a training course under this part by letter without submitting the additional information required by this paragraph. Minimum requirements for obtaining approval of a flight engineer course are set forth in appendix C of this part.

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Subpart C—Flight Navigators Authority: Secs. 313(a), 314, 601, and 607; 49 U.S.C. 1354(a), 1355, 1421, and 1427. Source: Docket 1179, 27 FR 7970, Aug. 10, 1962, unless otherwise noted. § 63.51 Eligibility requirements; general. To be eligible for a flight navigator certificate, a person must— (a) Be at least 21 years of age; (b) Be able to read, write, speak, and understand the English language; (c) Hold at least a second-class medical certificate issued under part 67 of this chapter within the 12 months before the date he applies; and (d) Comply with §§ 63.53, 63.55, and 63.57. § 63.53 Knowledge requirements. (a) An applicant for a flight navigator certificate must pass a written test on— (1) The regulations of this chapter that apply to the duties of a flight navigator; (2) The fundamentals of flight navigation, including flight planning and cruise control; (3) Practical meteorology, including analysis of weather maps, weather reports, and weather forecasts; and weather sequence abbreviations, symbols, and nomenclature; (4) The types of air navigation facilities and procedures in general use; (5) Calibrating and using air navigation instruments; (6) Navigation by dead reckoning; (7) Navigation by celestial means; (8) Navigation by radio aids; (9) Pilotage and map reading; and (10) Interpretation of navigation aid identification signals. (b) A report of the test is mailed to the applicant. Except as provided in paragraph (c) of this section, a passing grade is evidence, for a period of 24 calendar months after the test, that the applicant has complied with this section. (c) An applicant is eligible to take a practical test for a flight navigator certificate under this part with an expired written test report in accordance with § 61.40 of this chapter. [Docket 1179, 27 FR 7970, Aug. 10, 1962, as amended by Amdt. 63-19, 43 FR 22639, May 25, 1978; Docket FAA-2023-0825, Amdt. 63-47, 89 FR 80053, Oct. 1, 2024] § 63.55 Experience requirements. (a) An applicant for a flight navigator certificate must be a graduate of a flight navigator course approved by the Administrator or present satisfactory documentary evidence of— (1) Satisfactory determination of his position in flight at least 25 times by night by celestial observations and at least 25 times by day by celestial observations in conjunction with other aids; and (2) At least 200 hours of satisfactory flight navigation including celestial and radio navigation and dead reckoning. A pilot who has logged 500 hours of cross-country flight time, of which at least 100 hours were at night, may be credited with not more than 100 hours for the purposes of paragraph (a)(2) of this section. (b) Flight time used exclusively for practicing long-range navigation methods, with emphasis on celestial navigation and dead reckoning, is considered to be satisfactory navigation experience for the purposes of paragraph (a) of this section. It must be substantiated by a logbook, by records of an armed force or a certificated air carrier, or by a letter signed by a certificated flight navigator and attached to the application. § 63.57 Skill requirements. (a) An applicant for a flight navigator certificate must pass a practical test in navigating aircraft by— (1) Dead reckoning; (2) Celestial means; and (3) Radio aids to navigation. (b) An applicant must pass the written test prescribed by § 63.53 before taking the test under this section. However, if a delay in taking the test under this section would inconvenience the applicant or an air carrier, he may take it before he receives the result of the written test, or after he has failed the written test.

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(c) The test requirements for this section are set forth in appendix A of this part. [Docket 1179, 27 FR 7970, Aug. 10, 1962, as amended by Amdt. 63-19, 43 FR 22639, May 25, 1978] § 63.59 Retesting after failure. (a) An applicant for a flight navigator certificate who fails a written or practical test for that certificate may apply for retesting— (1) After 30 days after the date he failed that test; or (2) Before the 30 days have expired if the applicant presents a signed statement from a certificated flight navigator, certificated ground instructor, or any other qualified person approved by the Administrator, certifying that that person has given the applicant additional instruction in each of the subjects failed and that person considers the applicant ready for retesting. (b) A statement from a certificated flight navigator, or from an operations official of an approved navigator course, is acceptable, for the purposes of paragraph (a)(2) of this section, for the written test and for the flight test. A statement from a person approved by the Administrator is acceptable for the written tests. A statement from a supervising or check navigator with the United States Armed Forces is acceptable for the written test and for the practical test. (c) If the applicant failed the flight test, the additional instruction must have been administered in flight. [Docket 1179, 27 FR 7970, Aug. 10, 1962, as amended by Amdt. 63-19, 43 FR 22640, May 25, 1978] § 63.61 Flight navigator courses. An applicant for approval of a flight navigator course must submit a letter to the Administrator requesting approval, and must also submit three copies of the course outline, a description of his facilities and equipment, and a list of the instructors and their qualifications. Requirements for the course are set forth in appendix B to this part.   Pt. 63, App. A Appendix A to Part 63—Test Requirements for Flight Navigator Certificate (a) Demonstration of skill. An applicant will be required to pass practical tests on the prescribed subjects. These tests may be given by FAA inspectors and designated flight navigator examiners.

(b) The examination. The practical examination consists of a ground test and a flight test as itemized on the examination check sheet. Each item must be completed satisfactorily in order for the applicant to obtain a passing grade. Items 5, 6, 7 of the ground test may be completed orally, and items 17, 22, 23, 34, 36, 37, 38, and 39 of the flight test may be completed by an oral examination when a lack of ground facilities or navigation equipment makes such procedure necessary. In these cases a notation to that effect shall be made in the “Remarks” space on the check sheet. (c) Examination procedure. (1) An applicant will provide an aircraft in which celestial observations can be taken in all directions. Minimum equipment shall include a table for plotting, a drift meter or absolute altimeter, an instrument for taking visual bearings, and a radio direction finder. (2) More than one flight may be used to complete the flight test and any type of flight pattern may be used. The test will be conducted chiefly over water whenever practicable, and without regard to radio range legs or radials. If the test is conducted chiefly over land, a chart should be used which shows very little or no topographical and aeronautical data. The total flight time will cover a period of at least four hours. Only one applicant may be examined at one time, and no applicant may perform other than navigator duties during the examination. (3) When the test is conducted with an aircraft belonging to an air carrier, the navigation procedures should conform with those set forth in the carrier's operations manual. Items of the flight test which are not performed during the routine navigation of the flight will be completed by oral examination after the flight or at times during flight which the applicant indicates may be used for tests on those items. Since in-flight weather conditions, the reliability of the weather forecast, and the stability of the aircraft will have considerable effect on an applicant's performance, good judgment must be used by the agent or examiner in evaluating the tests. (d) Ground test. For the ground test, in the order of the numbered items on the examination check sheet, an applicant will be required to:

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(1) Identify without a star identifier, at least six navigational stars and all planets available for navigation at the time of the examination and explain the method of identification. (2) Identify two additional stars with a star identifier or sky diagrams and explain identification procedure. (3) Precompute a time-altitude curve for a period of about 20 minutes and take 10 single observations of a celestial body which is rising or setting rapidly. The intervals between observations should be at least one minute. Mark each observation on the graph to show accuracy. All observations, after corrections, shall plot within 8 minutes of arc from the time-altitude curve, and the average error shall not exceed 5 minutes of arc. (4) Take and plot one 3-star fix and 3 LOP's of the sun. Plotted fix or an average of LOP's must fall within 5 miles of the actual position of the observer. (5) Demonstrate or explain the compensation and swinging of a liquid-type magnetic compass. (6) Demonstrate or explain a method of aligning one type of drift meter. (7) Demonstrate or explain a method of aligning an astro-compass or periscopic sextant. (e) Flight test. For the flight test, in the order of the numbered items on the examination check sheet, an applicant will be required to: (1) Demonstrate his ability to read weather symbols and interpret synoptic surface and upper air weather maps with particular emphasis being placed on winds. (2) Prepare a flight plan by zones from the forecast winds or pressure data of an upper air chart and the operator's data. (3) Compute from the operator's data the predicted fuel consumption for each zone of the flight, including the alternate. (4) Determine the point-of-no-return for the flight with all engines running and the equitime point with one engine inoperative. Graphical methods which are part of the company's operations manual may be used for these computations. (5) Prepare a cruise control (howgozit) chart from the operator's data. (6) Enter actual fuel consumed on the cruise control chart and interpret the variations of the actual curve from the predicted curve. (7) Check the presence on board and operating condition of all navigation equipment. Normally a check list will be used. This check will include a time tick or chronometer comparison. Any lack of thoroughness during this check will justify this item being graded unsatisfactory. (8) Locate emergency equipment, such as, the nearest fire extinguisher, life preserver, life rafts, exits, axe, first aid kits, etc. (9) Recite the navigator's duties and stations during emergencies for the type of aircraft used for the test. (10) Demonstrate the proper use of a flux gate compass or gyrosyn compass (when available), with special emphasis on the caging methods and the location of switches, circuit breakers, and fuses. If these compasses are not part of the aircraft's equipment, an oral examination will be given. (11) Be accurate and use good judgment when setting and altering headings. Erroneous application of variation, deviation, or drift correction, or incorrect measurement of course on the chart will be graded as unsatisfactory. (12) Demonstrate or explain the use of characteristics of various chart projections used in long-range air navigation, including the plotting of courses and bearings, and the measuring of distances. (13) Demonstrate ability to identify designated landmarks by the use of a sectional or WAC chart. (14) Use a computer with facility and accuracy for the computation of winds, drift correction and drift angles, ground speeds, ETA's, fuel loads, etc. (15) Determine track, ground speed, and wind by the double drift method. When a drift meter is not part of the aircraft's equipment, an oral examination on the use of the drift meter and a double drift problem shall be completed. (16) Determine ground speed and wind by the timing method with a drift meter. When a drift meter is not part of the aircraft's equipment, an oral examination on the procedure and a problem shall be completed. (17) Demonstrate the use of air plot for determining wind between fixes and for plotting pressure lines of position when using pressure and absolute altimeter comparisons. (18) Give ETA's to well defined check points at least once each hour after the second hour of flight. The average error shall not be more than 5 percent of the intervening time intervals, and the maximum error of any one ETA shall not be more than 10 percent. (19) Demonstrate knowledge and use of D/F equipment and radio facility information. Grading on this item will be based largely on the applicant's selection of those radio aids which will be of most value to his navigation, the manner with which he uses equipment, including filter box controls, and the precision with which he reads bearings. The aircraft's compass heading and all compass corrections must be considered for each bearing. (20) Use care in tuning to radio stations to insure maximum reception of signal and check for interference signals. Receiver will be checked to ascertain that antenna and BFO (Voice-CW) switches are in correct positions.

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(21) Identify at least three radio stations using International Morse code only for identification. The agent or examiner will tune in these stations so that the applicant will have no knowledge of the direction, distance, or frequency of the stations. (22) Take at least one radio bearing by manual use of the loop. The agent or examiner will check the applicant's bearing by taking a manual bearing on the same station immediately after the applicant. (23) Show the use of good judgment in evaluating radio bearings, and explain why certain bearings may be of doubtful value. (24) Determine and apply correctly the correction required to be made to radio bearings before plotting them on a Mercator chart, and demonstrate the ability to plot bearings accurately on charts of the Mercator and Lambert conformal projections. (25) Compute the compass heading, ETA, and fuel remaining if it is assumed that the flight would be diverted to an alternate airport at a time specified by the agent or examiner. (26)-(28) [Reserved] (29) Demonstrate the ability to properly operate and read an absolute altimeter. (30) Determine the “D” factors for a series of compared readings of an absolute altimeter and a pressure altimeter. (31) Determine drift angle or lateral displacement from the true headingline by application of Bellamy's formula or a variation thereof. (32) Interpret the altimeter comparison data with respect to the pressure system found at flight level. From this data evaluate the accuracy of the prognostic weather map used for flight planning and apply this analysis to the navigation of the flight. (33) Interpret single LOP's for most probable position, and show how a series of single LOP's of the same body may be used to indicate the probable track and ground speed. Also, show how a series of single LOP's (celestial or radio) from the same celestial body or radio station may be used to determine position when the change of azimuth or bearing is 30° or more between observations. (34) Select one of the celestial LOP's used during the flight and explain how to make a single line of position approach to a point selected by the agent or examiner, giving headings, times, and ETA's. (35) Demonstrate the proper use of an astro-compass or periscopic sextant for taking bearings. (36) Determine compass deviation as soon as possible after reaching cruising altitude and whenever there is a change of compass heading of 15° or more. (37) Take celestial fixes at hourly intervals when conditions permit. The accuracy of these fixes shall be checked by means of a radio or visual fix whenever practicable. After allowing for the probable error of a radio or visual fix, a celestial fix under favorable conditions should plot within 10 miles of the actual position. (38) Select celestial bodies for observation, when possible, whose azimuths will differ by approximately 120° for a 3-body fix and will differ by approximately 90° for a 2-body fix. The altitudes of the selected bodies should be between 25° and 75° whenever practicable. (39) Have POMAR and any other required reports ready for transmission at time of schedule, and be able to inform the pilot in command promptly with regard to the aircraft's position and progress in comparison with the flight plan. (40) Keep a log with sufficient legible entries to provide a record from which the flight could be retraced. (41) Note significant weather changes which might influence the drift or ground speed of the aircraft, such as, temperature, “D” factors, frontal conditions, turbulence, etc. (42) Determine the wind between fixes as a regular practice. (43) Estimate the time required and average ground speed during a letdown, under conditions specified by the pilot in command. (44) Work with sufficient speed to determine the aircraft's position hourly by celestial means and also make all other observations and records pertinent to the navigation. The applicant should be able to take the observation, compute, and plot a celestial LOP within a time limit of 8 minutes; observe the absolute and pressure altimeters and compute the drift or lateral displacement within a time limit of 3 minutes. (45) Be accurate in reading instruments and making computations. Errors which are made and corrected without affecting the navigation will be disregarded unless they cause considerable loss of time. An uncorrected error in computation (including reading instruments and books) which will affect the reported position more than 25 miles, the heading more than 3°, or any ETA more than 15 minutes will cause this item to be graded unsatisfactory. (46) Be alert to changing weather or other conditions during flight which might affect the navigation. An applicant should not fail to take celestial observations just prior to encountering a broken or overcast sky condition; and he should not fail to take a bearing on a radio station, which operates at scheduled intervals and which would be a valuable aid to the navigation. (47) Show a logical choice and sequence in using the various navigation methods according to time and accuracy, and check the positions determined by one method against positions determined by other methods.

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(48) Use a logical sequence in performing the various duties of a navigator and plan work according to a schedule. The more important duties should not be neglected for others of less importance. [Docket 1179, 27 FR 7970, Aug. 10, 1962, as amended by Docket FAA-2017-0733, Amdt. 63-39, 82 FR 34398, July 25, 2017] Pt. 63, App. B Appendix B to Part 63—Flight Navigator Training Course Requirements (a) Training course outline —(1) Format. The ground course outline and the flight course outline shall be combined in one looseleaf binder and shall include a table of contents, divided into two parts—ground course and flight course. Each part of the table of contents must contain a list of the major subjects, together with hours allotted to each subject and the total classroom and flight hours.

(2) Ground course outline. (i) It is not mandatory that a course outline have the subject headings arranged exactly as listed in this paragraph. Any arrangement of general headings and subheadings will be satisfactory provided all the subject material listed here is included and the acceptable minimum number of hours is assigned to each subject. Each general subject shall be broken down into detail showing items to be covered. (ii) If any agency desires to include additional subjects in the ground training curriculum, such as international law, flight hygiene, or others which are not required, the hours allotted these additional subjects may not be included in the minimum classroom hours. (iii) The following subjects with classroom hours are considered the minimum coverage for a ground training course for flight navigators:

Subject	Classroom hours
Federal Aviation Administration	5
To include Parts 63, 91, and 121 of this chapter.
Meteorology	40
To include:
Basic weather principles.
Temperature.
Pressure.
Winds.
Moisture in the atmosphere.
Stability.
Clouds.
Hazards.
Air masses.
Front weather.
Fog.
Thunderstorms.
Icing.
World weather and climate.
Weather maps and weather reports.
Forecasting.
International Morse code:
Ability to receive code groups of letters and numerals at a speed of eight words per minute
Navigation instruments (exclusive of radio and radar)	20
To include:
Compasses.
Pressure altimeters.
Airspeed indicators.
Driftmeters.
Bearing indicators.
Aircraft octants.
Instrument calibration and alignment.
Charts and pilotage	15
To include:
Chart projections.
Chart symbols.
Principles of pilotage.
Dead reckoning	30
To include:
Air plot.
Ground plot.
Calculation of ETA.
Vector analysis.
Use of computer.
Search.
Absolute altimeter with:
Applications	15
To include:
Principles of construction.
Operating instructions.
Use of Bellamy's formula.
Flight planning with single drift correction.
Radio and long-range navigational aids	35
To include:
Principles of radio transmission and reception
Radio aids to navigation
Government publications
Airborne D/F equipment
Errors of radio bearings
Quadrantal correction
Plotting radio bearings
ICAO Q code for direction finding
Celestial navigation	150
To include:
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The solar system.
The celestial sphere.
The astronomical triangle.
Theory of lines of position.
Use of the Air Almanac.
Time and its applications.
Navigation tables.
Precomputation.
Celestial line of position approach.
Star identification.
Corrections to celestial observations.
Flight planning and cruise control	25
To include:
The flight plan.
Fuel consumption charts.
Methods of cruise control.
Flight progress chart.
Point-of-no-return.
Equitime point.
Long-range flight problems	15
Total (exclusive of final examinations)	350

(3) Flight course outline. (i) A minimum of 150 hours of supervised flight training shall be given, of which at least 50 hours of flight training must be given at night, and celestial navigation must be used during flights which total at least 125 hours. (ii) A maximum of 50 hours of the required flight training may be obtained in acceptable types of synthetic flight navigator training devices. (iii) Flights should be at least four hours in length and should be conducted off civil airways. Some training on long-range flights is desirable, but is not required. There is no limit to the number of students that may be trained on one flight, but at least one astrodrome or one periscopic sextant mounting must be provided for each group of four students. (iv) Training must be given in dead reckoning, pilotage, radio navigation, celestial navigation, and the use of the absolute altimeter. (b) Equipment. (1) Classroom equipment shall include one table at least 24″ × 32″ in dimensions for each student. (2) Aircraft suitable for the flight training must be available to the approved course operator to insure that the flight training may be completed without undue delay. The approved course operator may contract or obtain written agreements with aircraft operators for the use of suitable aircraft. A copy of the contract or written agreement with an aircraft operator shall be attached to each of the three copies of the course outline submitted for approval. In all cases, the approved course operator is responsible for the nature and quality of instruction given during flight. (c) Instructors. (1) Sufficient classroom instructors must be available to prevent an excessive ratio of students to instructors. Any ratio in excess of 20 to 1 will be considered unsatisfactory. (2) At least one ground instructor must hold a valid flight navigator certificate, and be utilized to coordinate instruction of ground school subjects. (3) Each instructor who conducts flight training must hold a valid flight navigator certificate. (d) Revision of training course. (1) Requests for revisions to course outlines, facilities, and equipment shall follow procedures for original approval of the course. Revisions should be submitted in such form that an entire page or pages of the approved outline can be removed and replaced by the revisions. (2) The list of instructors may be revised at any time without request for approval, provided the minimum requirement of paragraph (e) of this section is maintained. (e) Credit for previous training and experience. (1) Credit may be granted by an operator to students for previous training and experience which is provable and comparable to portions of the approved curriculum. When granting such credit, the approved course operator should be fully cognizant of the fact that he is responsible for the proficiency of his graduates in accordance with subdivision (i) of paragraph (3) of this section. (2) Where advanced credit is allowed, the operator shall evaluate the student's previous training and experience in accordance with the normal practices of accredited technical schools. Before credit is given for any ground school subject or portion thereof, the student must pass an appropriate examination given by the operator. The results of the examination, the basis for credit allowance, and the hours credited shall be incorporated as a part of the student's records. (3) Credit up to a maximum of 50 hours toward the flight training requirement may be given to pilots who have logged at least 500 hours while a member of a flight crew which required a certificated flight navigator or the Armed Forces equivalent. A similar credit may also be given to a licensed deck officer of the Maritime Service who has served as such for at least one year on ocean-going vessels. One-half of the flight time credited under the terms of this paragraph may be applied toward the 50 hours of flight training required at night. (f) Students records and reports. Approval of a course shall not be continued in effect unless the course operator keeps an accurate record of each student, including a chronological log of all instruction, subjects covered and course examinations and grades, and unless he prepares and transmits to the responsible Flight Standards office not later than January 31 of each year, a report containing the following information for the previous calendar year:

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(1) The names of all students graduated, together with their school grades for ground and flight subjects. (2) The names of all students failed or dropped, together with their school grades and reasons for dropping. (g) Quality of instruction. Approval of a course shall not be continued in effect unless at least 80 percent of the students who apply within 90 days after graduation are able to qualify on the first attempt for certification as flight navigators. (h) Statement of graduation. Each student who successfully completes an approved flight navigator course shall be given a statement of graduation. (i) Inspections. Approved course operations will be inspected by authorized representatives of the Administrator as often as deemed necessary to insure that instruction is maintained at the required standards, but the period between inspections shall not exceed 12 months. (j) Change of ownership, name, or location —(1) Change of ownership. Approval of a flight navigator course shall not be continued in effect after the course has changed ownership. The new owner must obtain a new approval by following the procedure prescribed for original approval. (2) Change in name. An approved course changed in name but not changed in ownership shall remain valid if the change is reported by the approved course operator to the responsible Flight Standards office. A letter of approval under the new name will be issued by the responsible Flight Standards office. (3) Change in location. An approved course shall remain in effect even though the approved course operator changes location if the change is reported without delay by the operator to the responsible Flight Standards office, which will inspect the facilities to be used. If they are found to be adequate, a letter of approval showing the new location will be issued by the responsible Flight Standards office. (k) Cancellation of approval. (1) Failure to meet or maintain any of the requirements set forth in this section for the approval or operation of an approved flight navigator course shall be considered sufficient reason for cancellation of the approval. (2) If an operator should desire voluntary cancellation of his approved course, he should submit the effective letter of approval and a written request for cancellation to the Administrator through the responsible Flight Standards office. (l) Duration. The authority to operate an approved flight navigator course shall expire 24 months after the last day of the month of issuance. (m) Renewal. Application for renewal of authority to operate an approved flight navigator course may be made by letter to the responsible Flight Standards office at any time within 60 days before to the expiration date. Renewal of approval will depend upon the course operator meeting the current conditions for approval and having a satisfactory record as an operator. [Docket 1179, 27 FR 7970, Aug. 10, 1962, as amended by Amdt. 63-6, 31 FR 9211, July 6, 1966; Amdt. 63-28, 54 FR 39291, Sept. 25, 1989; Docket FAA-2017-0733, Amdt. 63-39, 82 FR 34398, July 25, 2017; Docket FAA-2018-0119, Amdt. 63-40, 83 FR 9170, Mar. 5, 2018] Pt. 63, App. C Appendix C to Part 63—Flight Engineer Training Course Requirements (a) Training course outline —(1) Format. The ground course outline and the flight course outline are independent. Each must be contained in a looseleaf binder to include a table of contents. If an applicant desires approval of both a ground school course and a flight school course, they must be combined in one looseleaf binder that includes a separate table of contents for each course. Separate course outlines are required for each type of airplane.

(2) Ground course outline. (i) It is not mandatory that the subject headings be arranged exactly as listed in this paragraph. Any arrangement of subjects is satisfactory if all the subject material listed here is included and at least the minimum programmed hours are assigned to each subject. Each general subject must be broken down into detail showing the items to be covered. (ii) If any course operator desires to include additional subjects in the ground course curriculum, such as international law, flight hygiene, or others that are not required, the hours allotted these additional subjects may not be included in the minimum programmed classroom hours. (iii) The following subjects and classroom hours are the minimum programmed coverage for the initial approval of a ground training course for flight engineers. Subsequent to initial approval of a ground training course an applicant may apply to the Administrator for a reduction in the programmed hours. Approval of a reduction in the approved programmed hours is based on improved training effectiveness due to improvements in methods, training aids, quality of instruction, or any combination thereof.

Subject	Classroom hours
Federal Aviation Regulations	10
To include the regulations of this chapter that apply to flight engineers
Theory of Flight and Aerodynamics	10
Airplane Familiarization	90
To include as appropriate:
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Specifications.
Construction features.
Flight controls.
Hydraulic systems.
Pneumatic systems.
Electrical systems.
Anti-icing and de-icing systems.
Pressurization and air-conditioning systems.
Vacuum systems.
Pilot static systems.
Instrument systems.
Fuel and oil systems.
Emergency equipment.
Engine Familiarization	45
To include as appropriate:
Specifications.
Construction features.
Lubrication.
Ignition.
Carburetor and induction, supercharging and fuel control systems
Accessories.
Propellers.
Instrumentation.
Emergency equipment.
Normal Operations (Ground and Flight)	50
To include as appropriate:
Servicing methods and procedures.
Operation of all the airplane systems.
Operation of all the engine systems.
Loading and center of gravity computations.
Cruise control (normal, long range, maximum endurance)
Power and fuel computation.
Meteorology as applicable to engine operation
Emergency Operations	80
To include as appropriate:
Landing gear, brakes, flaps, speed brakes, and leading edge devices
Pressurization and air-conditioning.
Portable fire extinguishers.
Fuselage fire and smoke control.
Loss of electrical power.
Engine fire control.
Engine shut-down and restart.
Oxygen.
Total (exclusive of final tests)	235

The above subjects, except Theory of Flight and Aerodynamics, and Regulations must apply to the same type of airplane in which the student flight engineer is to receive flight training. (3) Flight Course Outline. (i) The flight training curriculum must include at least 10 hours of flight instruction in an airplane specified in § 63.37(a). The flight time required for the practical test may not be credited as part of the required flight instruction. (ii) All of the flight training must be given in the same type airplane. (iii) As appropriate to the airplane type, the following subjects must be taught in the flight training course: Subject normal duties, procedures and operations To include as appropriate: Airplane preflight. Engine starting, power checks, pretakeoff, postlanding and shut-down procedures. Power control. Temperature control. Engine operation analysis. Operation of all systems. Fuel management. Logbook entries. Pressurization and air conditioning. recognition and correction of in-flight malfunctions To include: Analysis of abnormal engine operation. Analysis of abnormal operation of all systems. Corrective action. emergency operations in flight To include as appropriate: Engine fire control. Fuselage fire control. Smoke control. Loss of power or pressure in each system. Engine overspeed. Fuel dumping. Landing gear, spoilers, speed brakes, and flap extension and retraction. Engine shut-down and restart. Use of oxygen. (iv) If the Administrator finds a simulator or flight engineer training device to accurately reproduce the design, function, and control characteristics, as pertaining to the duties and responsibilities of a flight engineer on the type of airplane to be flown, the flight training time may be reduced by a ratio of 1 hour of flight time to 2 hours of airplane simulator time, or 3 hours of flight engineer training device time, as the case may be, subject to the following limitations: ( a ) Except as provided in subdivision ( b ) of this paragraph, the required flight instruction time in an airplane may not be less than 5 hours. ( b ) As to a flight engineer student holding at least a commercial pilot certificate with an instrument rating, airplane simulator or a combination of airplane simulator and flight engineer training device time may be submitted for up to all 10 hours of the required flight instruction time in an airplane. However, not more than 15 hours of flight engineer training device time may be substituted for flight instruction time. (v) To obtain credit for flight training time, airplane simulator time, or flight engineer training device time, the student must occupy the flight engineer station and operate the controls.

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(b) Classroom equipment. Classroom equipment should consist of systems and procedural training devices, satisfactory to the Administrator, that duplicate the operation of the systems of the airplane in which the student is to receive his flight training. (c) Contracts or agreements. (1) An approved flight engineer course operator may contract with other persons to obtain suitable airplanes, airplane simulators, or other training devices or equipment. (2) An operator who is approved to conduct both the flight engineer ground course and the flight engineer flight course may contract with others to conduct one course or the other in its entirety but may not contract with others to conduct both courses for the same airplane type. (3) An operator who has approval to conduct a flight engineer ground course or flight course for a type of airplane, but not both courses, may not contract with another person to conduct that course in whole or in part. (4) An operator who contracts with another to conduct a flight engineer course may not authorize or permit the course to be conducted in whole or in part by a third person. (5) In all cases, the course operator who is approved to operate the course is responsible for the nature and quality of the instruction given. (6) A copy of each contract authorized under this paragraph must be attached to each of the 3 copies of the course outline submitted for approval. (d) Instructors. (1) Only certificated flight engineers may give the flight instruction required by this appendix in an airplane, simulator, or flight engineer training device. (2) There must be a sufficient number of qualified instructors available to prevent an excess ratio of students to instructors. (e) Revisions. (1) Requests for revisions of the course outlines, facilities or equipment must follow the procedures for original approval of the course. Revisions must be submitted in such form that an entire page or pages of the approved outline can be removed and replaced by the revisions. (2) The list of instructors may be revised at any time without request for approval, if the requirements of paragraph (d) of this appendix are maintained. (f) Ground school credits. (1) Credit may be granted a student in the ground school course by the course operator for comparable previous training or experience that the student can show by written evidence: however, the course operator must still meet the quality of instruction as described in paragraph (h) of this appendix. (2) Before credit for previous training or experience may be given, the student must pass a test given by the course operator on the subject for which the credit is to be given. The course operator shall incorporate results of the test, the basis for credit allowance, and the hours credited as part of the student's records. (g) Records and reports. (1) The course operator must maintain, for at least two years after a student graduates, fails, or drops from a course, a record of the student's training, including a chronological log of the subject course, attendance examinations, and grades. (2) Except as provided in paragraph (3) of this section, the course operator must submit to the Administrator, not later than January 31 of each year, a report for the previous calendar year's training, to include: (i) Name, enrollment and graduation date of each student; (ii) Ground school hours and grades of each student; (iii) Flight, airplane simulator, flight engineer training device hours, and grades of each student; and (iv) Names of students failed or dropped, together with their school grades and reasons for dropping. (3) Upon request, the Administrator may waive the reporting requirements of paragraph (2) of this section for an approved flight engineer course that is part of an approved training course under subpart N of part 121 of this chapter. (h) Quality of instruction. (1) Approval of a ground course is discontinued whenever less than 80 percent of the students pass the FAA written test on the first attempt. (2) Approval of a flight course is discontinued whenever less than 80 percent of the students pass the FAA practical test on the first attempt. (3) Notwithstanding paragraphs (1) and (2) of this section, approval of a ground or flight course may be continued when the Administrator finds— (i) That the failure rate was based on less than a representative number of students; or (ii) That the course operator has taken satisfactory means to improve the effectiveness of the training. (i) Time limitation. Each student must apply for the written test and the flight test within 90 days after completing the ground school course. (j) Statement of course completion. (1) The course operator shall give to each student who successfully completes an approved flight engineer ground school training course, and passes the FAA written test, a statement of successful completion of the course that indicates the date of training, the type of airplane on which the ground course training was based, and the number of hours received in the ground school course. (2) The course operator shall give each student who successfully completes an approved flight engineer flight course, and passed the FAA practical test, a statement of successful completion of the flight course that indicates the dates of the training, the type of airplane used in the flight course, and the number of hours received in the flight course.

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(3) A course operator who is approved to conduct both the ground course and the flight course may include both courses in a single statement of course completion if the provisions of paragraphs (1) and (2) of this section are included. (4) The requirements of this paragraph do not apply to an air carrier or commercial operator with an approved training course under part 121 of this chapter providing the student receives a flight engineer certificate upon completion of that course. (k) Inspections. Each course operator shall allow the Administrator at any time or place, to make any inspection necessary to ensure that the quality and effectiveness of the instruction are maintained at the required standards. (l) Change of ownership, name, or location. (1) Approval of a flight engineer ground course or flight course is discontinued if the ownership of the course changes. The new owner must obtain a new approval by following the procedure prescribed for original approval. (2) Approval of a flight engineer ground course or flight course does not terminate upon a change in the name of the course that is reported to the Administrator within 30 days. The Administrator issues a new letter of approval, using the new name, upon receipt of notice within that time. (3) Approval of a flight engineer ground course or flight course does not terminate upon a change in location of the course that is reported to the Administrator within 30 days. The Administrator issues a new letter of approval, showing the new location, upon receipt of notice within that time, if he finds the new facilities to be adequate. (m) Cancellation of approval. (1) Failure to meet or maintain any of the requirements of this appendix for the approval of a flight engineer ground course or flight course is reason for cancellation of the approval. (2) If a course operator desires to voluntarily terminate the course, he should notify the Administrator in writing and return the last letter of approval. (n) Duration. Except for a course operated as part of an approved training course under subpart N of part 121 of this chapter, the approval to operate a flight engineer ground course or flight course terminates 24 months after the last day of the month of issue. (o) Renewal. (1) Renewal of approval to operate a flight engineer ground course or flight course is conditioned upon the course operator's meeting the requirements of this appendix. (2) Application for renewal may be made to the Administrator at any time after 60 days before the termination date. (p) Course operator approvals. An applicant for approval of a flight engineer ground course, or flight course, or both, must meet all of the requirements of this appendix concerning application, approval, and continuing approval of that course or courses. (q) Practical test eligibility. An applicant for a flight engineer certificate and class rating under the provisions of § 63.37(b)(6) is not eligible to take the practical test unless he has successfully completed an approved flight engineer ground school course in the same type of airplane for which he has completed an approved flight engineer flight course. [Docket 6458, 30 FR 14560, Nov. 23, 1965, as amended by Amdt. 63-15, 37 FR 9758, May 17, 1972] Pt. 65 PART 65—CERTIFICATION: AIRMEN OTHER THAN FLIGHT CREWMEMBERS Special Federal Aviation Regulation No. 103 Subpart A—General Sec. 65.1 Applicability. 65.3 Certification of foreign airmen other than flight crewmembers. 65.11 Application and issue. 65.12 Offenses involving alcohol or drugs. 65.13 Temporary certificate. 65.14 [Reserved] 65.15 Duration of certificates. 65.16 Change of name: Replacement of lost or destroyed certificate. 65.17 Tests: General procedure. 65.18 Written tests: Cheating or other unauthorized conduct. 65.19 Retesting after failure. 65.20 Applications, certificates, logbooks, reports, and records: Falsification reproduction, or alteration. 65.21 Change of address. 65.23 Incorporation by reference. Subpart B—Air Traffic Control Tower Operators 65.31 Required credentials, certificates, and ratings or qualifications. 65.33 Eligibility requirements: General. 65.35 Knowledge requirements. 65.37 Skill requirements: Operating positions. 65.39 Practical experience requirements: Facility rating. 65.41 Skill requirements: Facility ratings. 65.43 [Reserved] 65.45 Performance of duties.

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65.46-65.46b [Reserved] 65.47 Maximum hours. 65.49 General operating rules. 65.50 Currency requirements. Subpart C—Aircraft Dispatchers 65.51 Certificate required. 65.53 Eligibility requirements: General. 65.55 Knowledge requirements. 65.57 Experience or training requirements. 65.59 Skill requirements. 65.61 Aircraft dispatcher certification courses: Content and minimum hours. 65.63 Aircraft dispatcher certification courses: Application, duration, and other general requirements. 65.65 Aircraft dispatcher certification courses: Training facilities. 65.67 Aircraft dispatcher certification courses: Personnel. 65.70 Aircraft dispatcher certification courses: Records. Subpart D—Mechanics 65.71 Eligibility requirements: General. 65.73 Ratings. 65.75 Knowledge requirements. 65.77 Experience requirements. 65.79 Skill requirements. 65.80 Certificated aviation maintenance technician school students. 65.81 General privileges and limitations. 65.83 Recent experience requirements. 65.85 Airframe rating; additional privileges. 65.87 Powerplant rating; additional privileges. 65.89 Display of certificate. 65.91 Inspection authorization. 65.92 Inspection authorization: Duration. 65.93 Inspection authorization: Renewal. 65.95 Inspection authorization: Privileges and limitations. Subpart E—Repairmen 65.101 Eligibility requirements: General. 65.103 Repairman certificate: Privileges and limitations. 65.104 Repairman certificate—experimental aircraft builder—Eligibility, privileges and limitations. 65.105 Display of certificate. 65.107 Repairman certificate (light-sport aircraft): Eligibility, privileges, and limits. Subpart F—Parachute Riggers 65.111 Certificate required. 65.113 Eligibility requirements: General. 65.115 Senior parachute rigger certificate: Experience, knowledge, and skill requirements. 65.117 Military riggers or former military riggers: Special certification rule. 65.119 Master parachute rigger certificate: Experience, knowledge, and skill requirements. 65.121 Type ratings. 65.123 Additional type ratings: Requirements. 65.125 Certificates: Privileges. 65.127 Facilities and equipment. 65.129 Performance standards. 65.131 Records. 65.133 Seal. Appendix A to Part 65—Aircraft Dispatcher Courses Authority: 49 U.S.C. 106(f), 40113, 44701-44703, 44707, 44709-44711, 45102-45103, 45301-45302. Source: Docket 1179, 27 FR 7973, Aug. 10, 1962, unless otherwise noted. Pt. 65, SFAR No. 103 Special Federal Aviation Regulation No. 103—Process for Requesting Waiver of Mandatory Separation Age for a Federal Aviation Administration Air Traffic Control Specialist In Flight Service Stations, Enroute or Terminal Facilities, and the David J. Hurley Air Traffic Control System Command Center 1. To whom does this SFAR apply? This Special Federal Aviation Regulation (SFAR) applies to you if you are an air traffic control specialist (ATCS) employed by the FAA in flight service stations, enroute facilities, terminal facilities, or at the David J. Hurley Air Traffic Control System Command Center who wishes to obtain a waiver of the mandatory separation age as provided by 5 U.S.C. section 8335(a).

2. When must I file for a waiver? No earlier than the beginning of the twelfth month before, but no later than the beginning of the sixth month before, the month in which you turn 56, your official chain-of-command must receive your written request asking for a waiver of mandatory separation. 3. What if I do not file a request before six months before the month in which I turn 56? If your official chain-of-command does not receive your written request for a waiver of mandatory separation before the beginning of the sixth month before the month in which you turn 56, your request will be denied. 4. How will the FAA determine if my request meets the filing time requirements of this SFAR? a. We consider your request to be filed in a timely manner under this SFAR if your official chain-of-command receives it or it is postmarked: i. After 12 a.m. on the first day of the twelfth month before the month in which you turn 56; and

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ii. Before 12 a.m. of the first day of the sixth month before the month in which you turn 56. b. If you file your request by mail and the postmark is not legible, we will consider it to comply with paragraph a.2 of this section if we receive it by 12 p.m. of the fifth day of the sixth month before the month in which you turn 56. c. If the last day of the time period specified in paragraph a.2 or paragraph b falls on a Saturday, Sunday, or Federal holiday, we will consider the time period to end at 12 p.m. of the next business day. 5. Where must I file my request for waiver and what must it include? a. You must file your request for waiver of mandatory separation in writing with the Air Traffic Manager in flight service stations, enroute facilities, terminal facilities, or the David J. Hurley Air Traffic Control System Command Center in which you are employed. b. Your request for waiver must include all of the following: i. Your name. ii. Your current facility. iii. Your starting date at the facility. iv. A list of positions at the facility that you are certified in and how many hours it took to achieve certification at the facility. v. Your area of specialty at the facility. vi. Your shift schedule. vii. [Reserved] viii. A list of all facilities where you have worked as a certified professional controller (CPC) including facility level and dates at each facility; ix. Evidence of your exceptional skills and experience as a controller; and x. Your signature. 6. How will my waiver request be reviewed? a. Upon receipt of your request for waiver, the Air Traffic Manager of your facility will make a written recommendation that the Administrator either approve or deny your request. If the manager recommends approval of your request, he or she will certify in writing the accuracy of the information you provided as evidence of your exceptional skills and experience as a controller. b. The Air Traffic Manager will then forward the written recommendation with a copy of your request to the senior executive manager in the Air Traffic Manager's regional chain-of-command. c. The senior executive manager in the regional chain-of-command will make a written recommendation that the Administrator either approve or deny your request. If the senior executive manager recommends approval of your request, he or she will certify in writing the accuracy of the information you have provided as evidence of exceptional skills and experience. d. The senior executive manager in the regional chain-of-command will then forward his or her recommendation with a copy of your request to the appropriate Vice President at FAA Headquarters. Depending on the facility in which you are employed, the request will be forwarded to either the Vice President for Flight Services, the Vice President for Enroute and Oceanic Services, the Vice President for Terminal Services or the Vice President for Systems Operations. For example, if you work at a flight service station at the time that you request a waiver, the request will be forwarded to the Vice President for Flight Services. e. The appropriate Vice President will review your request and make a written recommendation that the Administrator either approve or deny your request, which will be forwarded to the Administrator. f. The Administrator will issue the final decision on your request. 7. If I am granted a waiver, when will it expire? a. Waivers will be granted for a period of one year. b. No later than 90-days prior to expiration of a waiver, you may request that the waiver be extended using the same process identified in section 6. c. If you timely request an extension of the waiver and it is denied, you will receive a 60-day advance notice of your separation date simultaneously with notification of the denial. d. If you do not request an extension of the waiver granted, you will receive a 60-day advance notice of your separation date. e. Action to separate you from your covered position becomes effective on the last day of the month in which the 60-day notice expires. 8. Under what circumstances may my waiver be terminated? a. The FAA/DOT may terminate your waiver under the following circumstances: i. The needs of the FAA; or ii. If you are identified as a primary contributor to an operational error/deviation or runway incursion. b. If the waiver is terminated for either of the reasons identified in paragraph 1 of this section, the air traffic control specialist will receive a 60-day advance notice. c. Action to separate you from your covered position becomes effective on the last day of the month in which the 60-day notice expires. 9. Appeal of denial or termination of waiver request: The denial or termination of a waiver of mandatory separation request is neither appealable nor grievable. [Docket FAA-2004-17334, 70 FR 1636, Jan. 7, 2005, as amended by Amdt. 65-55, 76 FR 12, Jan. 3, 2011]

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Subpart A—General § 65.1 Applicability. This part prescribes the requirements for issuing the following certificates and associated ratings and the general operating rules for the holders of those certificates and ratings: (a) Air-traffic control-tower operators. (b) Aircraft dispatchers. (c) Mechanics. (d) Repairmen. (e) Parachute riggers. § 65.3 Certification of foreign airmen other than flight crewmembers. A person who is neither a U.S. citizen nor a resident alien is issued a certificate under subpart D of this part, outside the United States, only when the Administrator finds that the certificate is needed for the operation or continued airworthiness of a U.S.-registered civil aircraft. [Docket 65-28, 47 FR 35693, Aug. 16, 1982] § 65.11 Application and issue. (a) Application for a certificate and appropriate class rating, or for an additional rating, under this part must be made on a form and in a manner prescribed by the Administrator. Each person who applies for airmen certification services to be administered outside the United States or for any certificate or rating issued under this part must show evidence that the fee prescribed in appendix A of part 187 of this chapter has been paid. (b) Except for FAA Credential holders with tower ratings, an applicant who meets the requirements of this part is entitled to an appropriate certificate and rating. (c) Unless authorized by the Administrator, a person whose air traffic control tower operator, mechanic, or parachute rigger certificate is suspended may not apply for any rating to be added to that certificate during the period of suspension. (d) Unless the order of revocation provides otherwise— (1) A person whose air traffic control tower operator, aircraft dispatcher, or parachute rigger certificate is revoked may not apply for the same kind of certificate for 1 year after the date of revocation; and (2) A person whose mechanic or repairman certificate is revoked may not apply for either of those kinds of certificates for 1 year after the date of revocation. [Docket 1179, 27 FR 7973, Aug. 10, 1962, as amended by Amdt. 65-9, 31 FR 13524, Oct. 20, 1966; Amdt. 65-28, 47 FR 35693, Aug. 16, 1982; Amdt. 65-49, 72 FR 18559, Apr. 12, 2007; Amdt. 65-56, 79 FR 74611, Dec. 16, 2014] § 65.12 Offenses involving alcohol or drugs. (a) A conviction for the violation of any Federal or state statute relating to the growing, processing, manufacture, sale, disposition, possession, transportation, or importation of narcotic drugs, marihuana, or depressant or stimulant drugs or substances is grounds for— (1) Denial of an application for any certificate or rating issued under this part for a period of up to 1 year after the date of final conviction; or (2) Suspension or revocation of any certificate or rating issued under this part. (b) The commission of an act prohibited by § 91.19(a) of this chapter is grounds for— (1) Denial of an application for a certificate or rating issued under this part for a period of up to 1 year after the date of that act; or (2) Suspension or revocation of any certificate or rating issued under this part. [Docket 21956, 50 FR 15379, Apr. 17, 1985, as amended by Amdt. 65-34, 54 FR 34330, Aug. 18, 1989] § 65.13 Temporary certificate. A certificate and ratings effective for a period of not more than 120 days may be issued to a qualified applicant, pending review of his application and supplementary documents and the issue of the certificate and ratings for which he applied. [Docket 1179, 27 FR 7973, Aug. 10, 1962, as amended by Amdt. 65-23, 43 FR 22640, May 25, 1978]

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§ 65.14 [Reserved]
§ 65.15 Duration of certificates. (a) Except for repairman certificates, a certificate or rating issued under this part is effective until it is surrendered, suspended, or revoked. (b) Unless it is sooner surrendered, suspended, or revoked, a repairman certificate is effective until the holder is relieved from the duties for which the holder was employed and certificated. (c) The holder of a certificate issued under this part that is suspended, revoked, or no longer effective shall return it to the Administrator. (d) Except for temporary certificates issued under § 65.13, the holder of a paper certificate issued under this part may not exercise the privileges of that certificate after March 31, 2013. [Docket 22052, 47 FR 35693, Aug. 16, 1982, as amended by Amdt. 65-51, 73 FR 10668, Feb. 28, 2008] § 65.16 Change of name: Replacement of lost or destroyed certificate. (a) An application for a change of name on a certificate issued under this part must be accompanied by the applicant's current certificate and the marriage license, court order, or other document verifying the change. The documents are returned to the applicant after inspection. (b) An application for a replacement of a lost or destroyed certificate is made by letter to the Department of Transportation, Federal Aviation Administration, Airman Certification Branch, Post Office Box 25082, Oklahoma City, OK 73125. The letter must— (1) Contain the name in which the certificate was issued, the permanent mailing address (including zip code), social security number (if any), and date and place of birth of the certificate holder, and any available information regarding the grade, number, and date of issue of the certificate, and the ratings on it; and (2) Be accompanied by a check or money order for $2, payable to the Federal Aviation Administration. (c) An application for a replacement of a lost or destroyed medical certificate is made by letter to the Department of Transportation, Federal Aviation Administration, Aerospace Medical Certification Division, Post Office Box 26200, Oklahoma City, OK 73125, accompanied by a check or money order for $2.00. (d) A person whose certificate issued under this part or medical certificate, or both, has been lost may obtain a telegram from the FAA confirming that it was issued. The telegram may be carried as a certificate for a period not to exceed 60 days pending his receiving a duplicate certificate under paragraph (b) or (c) of this section, unless he has been notified that the certificate has been suspended or revoked. The request for such a telegram may be made by prepaid telegram, stating the date upon which a duplicate certificate was requested, or including the request for a duplicate and a money order for the necessary amount. The request for a telegraphic certificate should be sent to the office prescribed in paragraph (b) or (c) of this section, as appropriate. However, a request for both at the same time should be sent to the office prescribed in paragraph (b) of this section. [Docket 7258, 31 FR 13524, Oct. 20, 1966, as amended by Docket 8084, 32 FR 5769, Apr. 11, 1967; Amdt. 65-16, 35 FR 14075, Sept. 4, 1970; Amdt. 65-17, 36 FR 2865, Feb. 11, 1971; Amdt. 65-52, 73 FR 43065, July 24, 2008] § 65.17 Tests: General procedure. (a) Tests prescribed by or under this part are given at times and places, and by persons, designated by the Administrator. (b) The minimum passing grade for each test is 70 percent. § 65.18 Written tests: Cheating or other unauthorized conduct. (a) Except as authorized by the Administrator, no person may— (1) Copy, or intentionally remove, a written test under this part; (2) Give to another, or receive from another, any part or copy of that test; (3) Give help on that test to, or receive help on that test from, any person during the period that test is being given; (4) Take any part of that test in behalf of another person; (5) Use any material or aid during the period that test is being given; or

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(6) Intentionally cause, assist, or participate in any act prohibited by this paragraph. (b) No person who commits an act prohibited by paragraph (a) of this section is eligible for any airman or ground instructor certificate or rating under this chapter for a period of 1 year after the date of that act. In addition, the commission of that act is a basis for suspending or revoking any airman or ground instructor certificate or rating held by that person. [Docket 4086, 30 FR 2196, Feb. 18, 1965] § 65.19 Retesting after failure. An applicant for a written, oral, or practical test for a certificate and rating, or for an additional rating under this part, may apply for retesting— (a) After 30 days after the date the applicant failed the test; or (b) Before the 30 days have expired if the applicant presents a signed statement from an airman holding the certificate and rating sought by the applicant, certifying that the airman has given the applicant additional instruction in each of the subjects failed and that the airman considers the applicant ready for retesting. [Docket 16383, 43 FR 22640, May 25, 1978] § 65.20 Applications, certificates, logbooks, reports, and records: Falsification, reproduction, or alteration. (a) No person may make or cause to be made— (1) Any fraudulent or intentionally false statement on any application for a certificate or rating under this part; (2) Any fraudulent or intentionally false entry in any logbook, record, or report that is required to be kept, made, or used, to show compliance with any requirement for any certificate or rating under this part; (3) Any reproduction, for fraudulent purpose, of any certificate or rating under this part; or (4) Any alteration of any certificate or rating under this part. (b) The commission by any person of an act prohibited under paragraph (a) of this section is a basis for suspending or revoking any airman or ground instructor certificate or rating held by that person. [Docket 4086, 30 FR 2196, Feb. 18, 1965] § 65.21 Change of address. Within 30 days after any change in his permanent mailing address, the holder of a certificate issued under this part shall notify the Department of Transportation, Federal Aviation Administration, Airman Certification Branch, Post Office Box 25082, Oklahoma City, OK 73125, in writing, of his new address. [Docket 10536, 35 FR 14075, Sept. 4, 1970] § 65.23 Incorporation by reference. Certain material is incorporated by reference into this part with the approval of the Director of the Federal Register under 5 U.S.C. 552(a) and 1 CFR part 51. This material is available for inspection at the Federal Aviation Administration (FAA) and at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). Contact FAA, Certification and Training Group, 202-267-1100, ACSPTSinquiries@faa.gov. For information on the availability of this material at NARA, email fr.inspection@nara.gov, or go to www.archives.gov/federal-register/cfr/ibr-locations. The material may be obtained from the source in the following paragraph of this section. (a) Federal Aviation Administration, 800 Independence Avenue SW, Washington, DC 20591, 866-835-5322, www.faa.gov/training_testing. (1) FAA-S-8081-10E, Aircraft Dispatcher Practical Test Standards, November 2023; IBR approved for § 65.59. (2) FAA-S-8081-25C, Parachute Rigger Practical Test Standards, November 2023; IBR approved for §§ 65.115, 65.119, and 65.123. (3) FAA-S-ACS-1, Aviation Mechanic General, Airframe, and Powerplant Airman Certification Standards, November 1, 2021; IBR approved for §§ 65.75 and 65.79. (b) [Reserved] [Docket FAA-2021-0237; Amdt. 65-63, 87 FR 31414, May 24, 2022, as amended by Docket FAA-2022-1463; Amdt. 65-64, 89 FR 22520, Apr. 1, 2024]

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Subpart B—Air Traffic Control Tower Operators Source: Docket 10193, 35 FR 12326, Aug. 1, 1970, unless otherwise noted. § 65.31 Required credentials, certificates, and ratings or qualifications. No person may act as an air traffic control tower operator at an air traffic control tower in connection with civil aircraft unless he or she— (a) Holds an FAA Credential with a tower rating or an air traffic control tower operator certificate issued under this subpart; (b) Holds a facility rating for that control tower issued under this subpart, or has qualified for the operating position at which he or she acts and is under the supervision of the holder of a facility rating for that control tower; and (c) Except for a person employed by the FAA or employed by, or on active duty with, the Department of the Air Force, Army, or Navy or the Coast Guard, holds at least a second-class medical certificate issued under part 67 of this chapter. [Docket 10193, 35 FR 12326, Aug. 1, 1970, as amended by Amdt. 65-25, 45 FR 18911, Mar. 24, 1980; Amdt. 65-31, 52 FR 17518, May 8, 1987; Amdt. 65-56, 79 FR 74611, Dec. 16, 2014] § 65.33 Eligibility requirements: General. To be eligible for an air traffic control tower operator certificate a person must— (a) Be at least 18 years of age; (b) Be of good moral character; (c) Be able to read, write, and understand the English language and speak it without accent or impediment of speech that would interfere with two-way radio conversation; (d) Except for a person employed by the FAA or employed by, or on active duty with, the Department of the Air Force, Army, or Navy or the Coast Guard, hold at least a second-class medical certificate issued under part 67 of this chapter within the 12 months before the date application is made; and (e) Comply with § 65.35. [Docket 10193, 35 FR 12326, Aug. 1, 1970, as amended by Amdt. 65-25, 45 FR 18911, Mar. 24, 1980; Amdt. 65-31, 52 FR 17518, May 8, 1987] § 65.35 Knowledge requirements. Each applicant for an air traffic control tower operator certificate must pass a written test on— (a) The flight rules in part 91 of this chapter: (b) Airport traffic control procedures, and this subpart: (c) En route traffic control procedures; (d) Communications operating procedures; (e) Flight assistance service; (f) Air navigation, and aids to air navigation; and (g) Aviation weather. § 65.37 Skill requirements: Operating positions. No person may act as an air traffic control tower operator at any operating position unless he has passed a practical test on— (a) Control tower equipment and its use; (b) Weather reporting procedures and use of reports; (c) Notices to Airmen, and use of the Airman's Information Manual; (d) Use of operational forms; (e) Performance of noncontrol operational duties; and (f) Each of the following procedures that is applicable to that operating position and is required by the person performing the examination: (1) The airport, including rules, equipment, runways, taxiways, and obstructions. (2) The terrain features, visual checkpoints, and obstructions within the lateral boundaries of the surface areas of Class B, Class C, Class D, or Class E airspace designated for the airport. (3) Traffic patterns and associated procedures for use of preferential runways and noise abatement. (4) Operational agreements. (5) The center, alternate airports, and those airways, routes, reporting points, and air navigation aids used for terminal air traffic control. (6) Search and rescue procedures.

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(7) Terminal air traffic control procedures and phraseology. (8) Holding procedures, prescribed instrument approach, and departure procedures. (9) Radar alignment and technical operation. (10) The application of the prescribed radar and nonradar separation standard, as appropriate. [Docket 10193, 35 FR 12326, Aug. 1, 1991, as amended by Amdt. 65-36, 56 FR 65653, Dec. 17, 1991] § 65.39 Practical experience requirements: Facility rating. Each applicant for a facility rating at any air traffic control tower must have satisfactorily served— (a) As an air traffic control tower operator at that control tower without a facility rating for at least 6 months; or (b) As an air traffic control tower operator with a facility rating at a different control tower for at least 6 months before the date he applies for the rating. However, an applicant who is a member of an Armed Force of the United States meets the requirements of this section if he has satisfactorily served as an air traffic control tower operator for at least 6 months. [Docket 1179, 27 FR 7973, Aug. 10, 1962, as amended by Amdt. 65-19, 36 FR 21280, Nov. 5, 1971] § 65.41 Skill requirements: Facility ratings. Each applicant for a facility rating at an air traffic control tower must have passed a practical test on each item listed in § 65.37 of this part that is applicable to each operating position at the control tower at which the rating is sought. § 65.43 [Reserved]
§ 65.45 Performance of duties. (a) An air traffic control tower operator shall perform his duties in accordance with the limitations on his certificate and the procedures and practices prescribed in air traffic control manuals of the FAA, to provide for the safe, orderly, and expeditious flow of air traffic. (b) An operator with a facility rating may control traffic at any operating position at the control tower at which he holds a facility rating. However, he may not issue an air traffic clearance for IFR flight without authorization from the appropriate facility exercising IFR control at that location. (c) An operator who does not hold a facility rating for a particular control tower may act at each operating position for which he has qualified, under the supervision of an operator holding a facility rating for that control tower. [Docket 10193, 35 FR 12326, Aug. 1, 1970, as amended by Amdt. 65-16, 35 FR 14075, Sept. 4, 1970] §§ 65.46-65.46b [Reserved]
§ 65.47 Maximum hours. Except in an emergency, a certificated air traffic control tower operator must be relieved of all duties for at least 24 consecutive hours at least once during each 7 consecutive days. Such an operator may not serve or be required to serve— (a) For more than 10 consecutive hours; or (b) For more than 10 hours during a period of 24 consecutive hours, unless he has had a rest period of at least 8 hours at or before the end of the 10 hours of duty. § 65.49 General operating rules. (a) Except for a person employed by the FAA or employed by, or on active duty with, the Department of the Air Force, Army, or Navy, or the Coast Guard, no person may act as an air traffic control tower operator under a certificate issued to him or her under this part unless he or she has in his or her personal possession an appropriate current medical certificate issued under part 67 of this chapter. (b) Each person holding an air traffic control tower operator certificate shall keep it readily available when performing duties in an air traffic control tower, and shall present that certificate or his medical certificate or both for inspection upon the request of the Administrator or an authorized representative of the National Transportation Safety Board, or of any Federal, State, or local law enforcement officer.

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(c) A certificated air traffic control tower operator who does not hold a facility rating for a particular control tower may not act at any operating position at the control tower concerned unless there is maintained at that control tower, readily available to persons named in paragraph (b) of this section, a current record of the operating positions at which he has qualified. (d) An air traffic control tower operator may not perform duties under his certificate during any period of known physical deficiency that would make him unable to meet the physical requirements for his current medical certificate. However, if the deficiency is temporary, he may perform duties that are not affected by it whenever another certificated and qualified operator is present and on duty. (e) A certificated air traffic control tower operator may not control air traffic with equipment that the Administrator has found to be inadequate. (f) The holder of an air traffic control tower operator certificate, or an applicant for one, shall, upon the reasonable request of the Administrator, cooperate fully in any test that is made of him. [Docket 1179, 27 FR 7973, Aug. 10, 1962, as amended by Amdt. 65-31, 52 FR 17519, May 8, 1987] § 65.50 Currency requirements. The holder of an air traffic control tower operator certificate may not perform any duties under that certificate unless— (a) He has served for at least three of the preceding 6 months as an air traffic control tower operator at the control tower to which his facility rating applies, or at the operating positions for which he has qualified; or (b) He has shown that he meets the requirements for his certificate and facility rating at the control tower concerned, or for operating at positions for which he has previously qualified. Subpart C—Aircraft Dispatchers Source: Docket FAA-1998-4553, 64 FR 68923, Dec. 8, 1999, unless otherwise noted. § 65.51 Certificate required. (a) No person may act as an aircraft dispatcher (exercising responsibility with the pilot in command in the operational control of a flight) in connection with any civil aircraft in air commerce unless that person has in his or her personal possession an aircraft dispatcher certificate issued under this subpart. (b) Each person who holds an aircraft dispatcher certificate must present it for inspection upon the request of the Administrator or an authorized representative of the National Transportation Safety Board, or of any Federal, State, or local law enforcement officer. § 65.53 Eligibility requirements: General. (a) To be eligible to take the aircraft dispatcher knowledge test, a person must be at least 21 years of age. (b) To be eligible for an aircraft dispatcher certificate, a person must— (1) Be at least 23 years of age; (2) Be able to read, speak, write, and understand the English language; (3) Pass the required knowledge test prescribed by § 65.55 of this part; (4) Pass the required practical test prescribed by § 65.59 of this part; and (5) Comply with the requirements of § 65.57 of this part. § 65.55 Knowledge requirements. (a) A person who applies for an aircraft dispatcher certificate must pass a knowledge test on the following aeronautical knowledge areas: (1) Applicable Federal Aviation Regulations of this chapter that relate to airline transport pilot privileges, limitations, and flight operations; (2) Meteorology, including knowledge of and effects of fronts, frontal characteristics, cloud formations, icing, and upper-air data; (3) General system of weather and NOTAM collection, dissemination, interpretation, and use; (4) Interpretation and use of weather charts, maps, forecasts, sequence reports, abbreviations, and symbols; (5) National Weather Service functions as they pertain to operations in the National Airspace System; (6) Windshear and microburst awareness, identification, and avoidance;

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(7) Principles of air navigation under instrument meteorological conditions in the National Airspace System; (8) Air traffic control procedures and pilot responsibilities as they relate to enroute operations, terminal area and radar operations, and instrument departure and approach procedures; (9) Aircraft loading, weight and balance, use of charts, graphs, tables, formulas, and computations, and their effect on aircraft performance; (10) Aerodynamics relating to an aircraft's flight characteristics and performance in normal and abnormal flight regimes; (11) Human factors; (12) Aeronautical decision making and judgment; and (13) Crew resource management, including crew communication and coordination. (b) Except as provided in paragraph (c) of this section, the applicant must present documentary evidence satisfactory to the Administrator of having passed an aircraft dispatcher knowledge test within the preceding 24 calendar months. (c) An applicant is eligible to take a practical test for an aircraft dispatcher certificate under this part with an expired written test report in accordance with § 61.40 of this chapter. [Docket FAA-2023-0825, Amdt. 65-65, 89 FR 80053, Oct. 1, 2024] § 65.57 Experience or training requirements. An applicant for an aircraft dispatcher certificate must present documentary evidence satisfactory to the Administrator that he or she has the experience prescribed in paragraph (a) of this section or has accomplished the training described in paragraph (b) of this section as follows: (a) A total of at least 2 years experience in the 3 years before the date of application, in any one or in any combination of the following areas: (1) In military aircraft operations  as a— (i) Pilot; (ii) Flight navigator; or (iii) Meteorologist. (2) In aircraft operations conducted under part 121 of this chapter as— (i) An assistant in dispatching air carrier aircraft, under the direct supervision of a dispatcher certificated under this subpart; (ii) A pilot; (iii) A flight engineer; or (iv) A meteorologist. (3) In aircraft operations as— (i) An Air Traffic Controller; or (ii) A Flight Service Specialist. (4) In aircraft operations, performing other duties that the Administrator finds provide equivalent experience. (b) A statement of graduation issued or revalidated in accordance with § 65.70(b) of this part, showing that the person has successfully completed an approved aircraft dispatcher course. § 65.59 Skill requirements. An applicant for an aircraft dispatcher certificate must pass a practical test given by the Administrator, with respect to any one type of large aircraft used in air carrier operations. To pass the practical test for an aircraft dispatcher certificate, the applicant must satisfactorily demonstrate the objectives in the areas of operation specified in the Aircraft Dispatcher Practical Test Standards (incorporated by reference, see § 65.23). [Docket FAA-2022-1463, Amdt. 65-64, 89 FR 22520, Apr. 1, 2024] § 65.61 Aircraft dispatcher certification courses: Content and minimum hours. (a) An approved aircraft dispatcher certification course must: (1) Provide instruction in the areas of knowledge and topics listed in appendix A of this part; (2) Include a minimum of 200 hours of instruction. (b) An applicant for approval of an aircraft dispatcher course must submit an outline that describes the major topics and subtopics to be covered and the number of hours proposed for each. (c) Additional subject headings for an aircraft dispatcher certification course may also be included, however the hours proposed for any subjects not listed in appendix A of this part must be in addition to the minimum 200 course hours required in paragraph (a) of this section.

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(d) For the purpose of completing an approved course, a student may substitute previous experience or training for a portion of the minimum 200 hours of training. The course operator determines the number of hours of credit based on an evaluation of the experience or training to determine if it is comparable to portions of the approved course curriculum. The credit allowed, including the total hours and the basis for it, must be placed in the student's record required by § 65.70(a) of this part. § 65.63 Aircraft dispatcher certification courses: Application, duration, and other general requirements. (a) Application. Application for original approval of an aircraft dispatcher certification course or the renewal of approval of an aircraft dispatcher certification course under this part must be: (1) Made in writing to the Administrator; (2) Accompanied by two copies of the course outline required under § 65.61(b) of this part, for which approval is sought; (3) Accompanied by a description of the equipment and facilities to be used; and (4) Accompanied by a list of the instructors and their qualifications. (b) Duration. Unless withdrawn or canceled, an approval of an aircraft dispatcher certification course of study expires: (1) On the last day of the 24th month from the month the approval was issued; or (2) Except as provided in paragraph (f) of this section, on the date that any change in ownership of the school occurs. (c) Renewal. Application for renewal of an approved aircraft dispatcher certification course must be made within 30 days preceding the month the approval expires, provided the course operator meets the following requirements: (1) At least 80 percent of the graduates from that aircraft dispatcher certification course, who applied for the practical test required by § 65.59 of this part, passed the practical test on their first attempt; and (2) The aircraft dispatcher certification course continues to meet the requirements of this subpart for course approval. (d) Course revisions. Requests for approval of a revision of the course outline, facilities, or equipment must be in accordance with paragraph (a) of this section. Proposed revisions of the course outline or the description of facilities and equipment must be submitted in a format that will allow an entire page or pages of the approved outline or description to be removed and replaced by any approved revision. The list of instructors may be revised at any time without request for approval, provided the minimum requirements of § 65.67 of this part are maintained and the Administrator is notified in writing. (e) Withdrawal or cancellation of approval. Failure to continue to meet the requirements of this subpart for the approval or operation of an approved aircraft dispatcher certification course is grounds for withdrawal of approval of the course. A course operator may request cancellation of course approval by a letter to the Administrator. The operator must forward any records to the FAA as requested by the Administrator. (f) Change in ownership. A change in ownership of a part 65, appendix A-approved course does not terminate that aircraft dispatcher certification course approval if, within 10 days after the date that any change in ownership of the school occurs: (1) Application is made for an appropriate amendment to the approval; and (2) No change in the facilities, personnel, or approved aircraft dispatcher certification course is involved. (g) Change in name or location. A change in name or location of an approved aircraft dispatcher certification course does not invalidate the approval if, within 10 days after the date that any change in name or location occurs, the course operator of the part 65, appendix A-approved course notifies the Administrator, in writing, of the change.

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§ 65.65 Aircraft dispatcher certification courses: Training facilities. An applicant for approval of authority to operate an aircraft dispatcher course of study must have facilities, equipment, and materials adequate to provide each student the theoretical and practical aspects of aircraft dispatching. Each room, training booth, or other space used for instructional purposes must be temperature controlled, lighted, and ventilated to conform to local building, sanitation, and health codes. In addition, the training facility must be so located that the students in that facility are not distracted by the instruction conducted in other rooms. § 65.67 Aircraft dispatcher certification courses: Personnel. (a) Each applicant for an aircraft dispatcher certification course must meet the following personnel requirements: (1) Each applicant must have adequate personnel, including one instructor who holds an aircraft dispatcher certificate and is available to coordinate all training course instruction. (2) Each applicant must not exceed a ratio of 25 students for one instructor. (b) The instructor who teaches the practical dispatch applications area of the appendix A course must hold an aircraft dispatchers certificate § 65.70 Aircraft dispatcher certification courses: Records. (a) The operator of an aircraft dispatcher course must maintain a record for each student, including a chronological log of all instructors, subjects covered, and course examinations and results. The record must be retained for at least 3 years after graduation. The course operator also must prepare, for its records, and transmit to the Administrator not later than January 31 of each year, a report containing the following information for the previous year: (1) The names of all students who graduated, together with the results of their aircraft dispatcher certification courses. (2) The names of all the students who failed or withdrew, together with the results of their aircraft dispatcher certification courses or the reasons for their withdrawal. (b) Each student who successfully completes the approved aircraft dispatcher certification course must be given a written statement of graduation, which is valid for 90 days. After 90 days, the course operator may revalidate the graduation certificate for an additional 90 days if the course operator determines that the student remains proficient in the subject areas listed in appendix A of this part. Subpart D—Mechanics § 65.71 Eligibility requirements: General. (a) To be eligible for a mechanic certificate and associated ratings, a person must— (1) Be at least 18 years of age; (2) Be able to read, write, speak, and understand the English language, or in the case of an applicant who does not meet this requirement and who is employed outside of the United States by a U.S. air carrier, have his certificate endorsed “Valid only outside the United States”; (3) Have passed all of the prescribed tests within a period of 24 months; and (4) Comply with the sections of this subpart that apply to the rating the applicant seeks. (b) A certificated mechanic who applies for an additional rating must meet the requirements of § 65.77 and, within a period of 24 calendar months, pass the tests prescribed by §§ 65.75 and 65.79 for the additional rating sought, except as provided in § 65.75(d). [Docket 1179, 27 FR 7973, Aug. 10, 1962, as amended by Amdt. 65-6, 31 FR 5950, Apr. 19, 1966; Docket FAA-2023-0825, Amdt. 65-65, 89 FR 80053, Oct. 1, 2024] § 65.73 Ratings. (a) The following ratings are issued under this subpart: (1) Airframe. (2) Powerplant. (b) A mechanic certificate with an aircraft or aircraft engine rating, or both, that was issued before, and was valid on, June 15, 1952, is equal to a mechanic certificate with an airframe or powerplant rating, or both, as the case may be, and may be exchanged for such a corresponding certificate and rating or ratings.

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§ 65.75 Knowledge requirements. (a) Except as specified in paragraph (c) of this section, each applicant for a mechanic certificate or rating must, after meeting the applicable experience requirements of § 65.77, pass a written test, appropriate to the rating sought, which includes the aeronautical knowledge subject areas contained in the Aviation Mechanic General, Airframe, and Powerplant Airman Certification Standards (incorporated by reference, see § 65.23), as appropriate to the rating sought. (b) The applicant must pass each section of the test before applying for the oral and practical tests prescribed by § 65.79. A report of the written test is sent to the applicant. (c) An applicant for a mechanic certificate or rating may take the mechanic general written test prior to meeting the applicable experience requirements of § 65.77, provided the applicant presents an authenticated document from a certificated aviation maintenance technician school that demonstrates satisfactory completion of the general portion of the school's curriculum and specifies the completion date. (d) An applicant is eligible to take a practical test for a mechanic certificate or rating under this part with an expired written test report in accordance with § 61.40 of this chapter. [Docket 1179, 27 FR 7973, Aug. 10, 1962, as amended by Amdt. 65-1, 27 FR 10410, Oct. 25, 1962; Docket FAA-2021-0237, Amdt. 65-63, 87 FR 31414, May 24, 2022; Docket FAA-2023-0825, Amdt. 65-65, 89 FR 80053, Oct. 1, 2024] § 65.77 Experience requirements. Each applicant for a mechanic certificate or rating must present either— (a) An authenticated document from a certificated aviation maintenance technician school in accordance with § 147.21 of this chapter; or (b) Documentary evidence, satisfactory to the Administrator, of— (1) At least 18 months of practical experience with the procedures, practices, materials, tools, machine tools, and equipment generally used in constructing, maintaining, or altering airframes or powerplants, appropriate to the rating sought; or (2) At least 30 months of practical experience concurrently performing the duties appropriate to both the airframe and powerplant ratings. [Docket FAA-2021-0237, Amdt. 65-63, 87 FR 31415, May 24, 2022] § 65.79 Skill requirements. Each applicant for a mechanic certificate or rating must pass an oral test and a practical test, as appropriate to the rating sought, by demonstrating satisfactory understanding of the knowledge, risk management, and skill elements for each subject contained in the Aviation Mechanic General, Airframe, and Powerplant Airmen Certification Standards (incorporated by reference, see § 65.23), as appropriate to the rating sought. [Docket FAA-2021-0237, Amdt. 65-63, 87 FR 31415, May 24, 2022] § 65.80 Certificated aviation maintenance technician school students. Whenever an aviation maintenance technician school certificated under part 147 of this chapter shows to the Administrator that any of its students has made satisfactory progress at the school and is prepared to take the oral and practical tests prescribed by § 65.79, that student may take those tests during the final subjects of the student's training in the curriculum required under part 147, before the student meets the applicable experience requirements of § 65.77 and before the student passes each section of the written test prescribed by § 65.75. [Docket FAA-2021-0237, Amdt. 65-63, 87 FR 31415, May 24, 2022] § 65.81 General privileges and limitations. (a) A certificated mechanic may perform or supervise the maintenance, preventive maintenance or alteration of an aircraft or appliance, or a part thereof, for which he is rated (but excluding major repairs to, and major alterations of, propellers, and any repair to, or alteration of, instruments), and may perform additional duties in accordance with §§ 65.85, 65.87, and 65.95. However, he may not supervise the maintenance, preventive maintenance, or alteration of, or approve and return to service, any aircraft or appliance, or part thereof, for which he is rated unless he has satisfactorily performed the work concerned at an earlier date. If he has not so performed that work at an earlier date, he may show his ability to do it by performing it to the satisfaction of the Administrator or under the direct supervision of a certificated and appropriately rated mechanic, or a certificated repairman, who has had previous experience in the specific operation concerned.

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(b) A certificated mechanic may not exercise the privileges of his certificate and rating unless he understands the current instructions of the manufacturer, and the maintenance manuals, for the specific operation concerned. [Docket 1179, 27 FR 7973, Aug. 10, 1962, as amended by Amdt. 65-2, 29 FR 5451, Apr. 23, 1964; Amdt. 65-26, 45 FR 46737, July 10, 1980] § 65.83 Recent experience requirements. A certificated mechanic may not exercise the privileges of his certificate and rating unless, within the preceding 24 months— (a) The Administrator has found that he is able to do that work; or (b) He has, for at least 6 months— (1) Served as a mechanic under his certificate and rating; (2) Technically supervised other mechanics; (3) Supervised, in an executive capacity, the maintenance or alteration of aircraft; or (4) Been engaged in any combination of paragraph (b) (1), (2), or (3) of this section. § 65.85 Airframe rating; additional privileges. (a) Except as provided in paragraph (b) of this section, a certificated mechanic with an airframe rating may approve and return to service an airframe, or any related part or appliance, after he has performed, supervised, or inspected its maintenance or alteration (excluding major repairs and major alterations). In addition, he may perform the 100-hour inspection required by part 91 of this chapter on an airframe, or any related part or appliance, and approve and return it to service. (b) A certificated mechanic with an airframe rating can approve and return to service an airframe, or any related part or appliance, of an aircraft with a special airworthiness certificate in the light-sport category after performing and inspecting a major repair or major alteration for products that are not produced under an FAA approval provided the work was performed in accordance with instructions developed by the manufacturer or a person acceptable to the FAA. [Docket 1179, 27 FR 7973, Aug. 10, 1962, as amended by Amdt. 65-10, 32 FR 5770, Apr. 11, 1967; Amdt. 65-45, 69 FR 44879, July 27, 2004] § 65.87 Powerplant rating; additional privileges. (a) Except as provided in paragraph (b) of this section, a certificated mechanic with a powerplant rating may approve and return to service a powerplant or propeller or any related part or appliance, after he has performed, supervised, or inspected its maintenance or alteration (excluding major repairs and major alterations). In addition, he may perform the 100-hour inspection required by part 91 of this chapter on a powerplant or propeller, or any part thereof, and approve and return it to service. (b) A certificated mechanic with a powerplant rating can approve and return to service a powerplant or propeller, or any related part or appliance, of an aircraft with a special airworthiness certificate in the light-sport category after performing and inspecting a major repair or major alteration for products that are not produced under an FAA approval, provided the work was performed in accordance with instructions developed by the manufacturer or a person acceptable to the FAA. [Docket 1179, 27 FR 7973, Aug. 10, 1962, as amended by Amdt. 65-10, 32 FR 5770, Apr. 11, 1967; Amdt. 65-45, 69 FR 44879, July 27, 2004] § 65.89 Display of certificate. Each person who holds a mechanic certificate shall keep it within the immediate area where he normally exercises the privileges of the certificate and shall present it for inspection upon the request of the Administrator or an authorized representative of the National Transportation Safety Board, or of any Federal, State, or local law enforcement officer.

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[Docket 7258, 31 FR 13524, Oct. 20, 1966, as amended by Docket 8084, 32 FR 5769, Apr. 11, 1967] § 65.91 Inspection authorization. (a) An application for an inspection authorization is made on a form and in a manner prescribed by the Administrator. (b) An applicant who meets the requirements of this section is entitled to an inspection authorization. (c) To be eligible for an inspection authorization, an applicant must— (1) Hold a currently effective mechanic certificate with both an airframe rating and a powerplant rating, each of which is currently effective and has been in effect for a total of at least 3 years; (2) Have been actively engaged, for at least the 2-year period before the date he applies, in maintaining aircraft certificated and maintained in accordance with this chapter; (3) Have a fixed base of operations at which he may be located in person or by telephone during a normal working week but it need not be the place where he will exercise his inspection authority; (4) Have available to him the equipment, facilities, and inspection data necessary to properly inspect airframes, powerplants, propellers, or any related part or appliance; and (5) Pass a written test on his ability to inspect according to safety standards for returning aircraft to service after major repairs and major alterations and annual and progressive inspections performed under part 43 of this chapter. An applicant who fails the test prescribed in paragraph (c)(5) of this section may not apply for retesting until at least 90 days after the date he failed the test. [Docket 1179, 27 FR 7973, Aug. 10, 1962, as amended by Amdt. 65-5, 31 FR 3337, Mar. 3, 1966; Amdt. 65-22, 42 FR 46279, Sept. 15, 1977; Amdt. 65-30, 50 FR 15700, Apr. 19, 1985] § 65.92 Inspection authorization: Duration. (a) Each inspection authorization expires on March 31 of each odd-numbered year. However, the holder may exercise the privileges of that authorization only while he holds a currently effective mechanic certificate with both a currently effective airframe rating and a currently effective powerplant rating. (b) An inspection authorization ceases to be effective whenever any of the following occurs: (1) The authorization is surrendered, suspended, or revoked. (2) The holder no longer has a fixed base of operation. (3) The holder no longer has the equipment, facilities, and inspection data required by § 65.91(c) (3) and (4) for issuance of his authorization. (c) The holder of an inspection authorization that is suspended or revoked shall, upon the Administrator's request, return it to the Administrator. [Docket 12537, 42 FR 46279, Sept. 15, 1977, as amended by Amdt. 65-50, 72 FR 4404, Jan. 30, 2007] § 65.93 Inspection authorization: Renewal. (a) Except as provided in paragraph (d) of this section, to be eligible for renewal of an inspection authorization for a 2-year period an applicant must present evidence during the month of March of each odd-numbered year, at the responsible Flight Standards office, that the applicant still meets the requirements of § 65.91(c)(1) through (4). In addition, during the time the applicant held the inspection authorization, the applicant must show completion of one of the activities in paragraphs (a)(1) through (5) of this section by March 31 of the first year of the 2-year inspection authorization period, and completion of one of the five activities during the second year of the 2-year period: (1) Performed at least one annual inspection for each 90 days that the applicant held the current authority; or (2) Performed at least two major repairs or major alterations for each 90 days that the applicant held the current authority; or

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(3) Performed or supervised and approved at least one progressive inspection in accordance with standards prescribed by the Administrator; or (4) Attended and successfully completed a refresher course, acceptable to the Administrator, of not less than 8 hours of instruction; or (5) Passed an oral test by an FAA inspector to determine that the applicant's knowledge of applicable regulations and standards is current. (b) The holder of an inspection authorization that has been in effect: (1) for less than 90 days before the expiration date need not comply with paragraphs (a)(1) through (5) of this section. (2) for less than 90 days before March 31 of an even-numbered year need not comply with paragraphs (a)(1) through (5) of this section for the first year of the 2-year inspection authorization period. (c) An inspection authorization holder who does not complete one of the activities set forth in § 65.93(a) (1) through (5) of this section by March 31 of the first year of the 2-year inspection authorization period may not exercise inspection authorization privileges after March 31 of the first year. The inspection authorization holder may resume exercising inspection authorization privileges after passing an oral test from an FAA inspector to determine that the applicant's knowledge of the applicable regulations and standards is current. An inspection authorization holder who passes this oral test is deemed to have completed the requirements of § 65.93(a) (1) through (5) by March 31 of the first year. (d) A person who qualifies for the relief prescribed in § 61.40 of this chapter is eligible to renew an expired inspection authorization under this section, provided the requirements of § 61.40 of this chapter are met. [Docket FAA-2007-27108, 72 FR 4404, Jan. 30, 2007, as amended by Docket FAA-2018-0119, Amdt. 65-57A, 83 FR 9171, Mar. 5, 2018; Docket FAA-2023-0825, Amdt. 65-65, 89 FR 80053, Oct. 1, 2024] § 65.95 Inspection authorization: Privileges and limitations. (a) The holder of an inspection authorization may— (1) Inspect and approve for return to service any aircraft or related part or appliance (except any aircraft maintained in accordance with a continuous airworthiness program under part 121 of this chapter) after a major repair or major alteration to it in accordance with part 43 [New] of this chapter, if the work was done in accordance with technical data approved by the Administrator; and (2) Perform an annual, or perform or supervise a progressive inspection according to §§ 43.13 and 43.15 of this chapter. (b) When he exercises the privileges of an inspection authorization the holder shall keep it available for inspection by the aircraft owner, the mechanic submitting the aircraft, repair, or alteration for approval (if any), and shall present it upon the request of the Administrator or an authorized representative of the National Transportation Safety Board, or of any Federal, State, or local law enforcement officer. (c) If the holder of an inspection authorization changes his fixed base of operation, he may not exercise the privileges of the authorization until he has notified the responsible Flight Standards office or International Field Office for the area in which the new base is located, in writing, of the change. [Docket 1179, 27 FR 7973, Aug. 10, 1962, as amended by Amdt. 65-2, 29 FR 5451, Apr. 23, 1964; Amdt. 65-4, 30 FR 3638, Mar. 14, 1965; Amdt. 65-5, 31 FR 3337, Mar. 3, 1966; Amdt. 65-9, 31 FR 13524, Oct. 20, 1966; 32 FR 5769, Apr. 11, 1967; Amdt. 65-35, 54 FR 39292, Sept. 25, 1989; Amdt. 65-41, 66 FR 21066, Apr. 27, 2001; Docket FAA-2018-0119, Amdt. 65-57A, 83 FR 9171, Mar. 5, 2018] Subpart E—Repairmen § 65.101 Eligibility requirements: General. (a) To be eligible for a repairman certificate a person must— (1) Be at least 18 years of age; (2) Be specially qualified to perform maintenance on aircraft or components thereof, appropriate to the job for which he is employed; (3) Be employed for a specific job requiring those special qualifications by a certificated repair station, or by a certificated commercial operator or certificated air carrier, that is required by its operating certificate or approved operations specifications to provide a continuous airworthiness maintenance program according to its maintenance manuals;

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(4) Be recommended for certification by his employer, to the satisfaction of the Administrator, as able to satisfactorily maintain aircraft or components, appropriate to the job for which he is employed; (5) Have either— (i) At least 18 months of practical experience in the procedures, practices, inspection methods, materials, tools, machine tools, and equipment generally used in the maintenance duties of the specific job for which the person is to be employed and certificated; or (ii) Completed formal training that is acceptable to the Administrator and is specifically designed to qualify the applicant for the job on which the applicant is to be employed; and (6) Be able to read, write, speak, and understand the English language, or, in the case of an applicant who does not meet this requirement and who is employed outside the United States by a certificated repair station, a certificated U.S. commercial operator, or a certificated U.S. air carrier, described in paragraph (a)(3) of this section, have this certificate endorsed “Valid only outside the United States.” (b) This section does not apply to the issuance of a repairman certificate (experimental aircraft builder) under § 65.104 or to a repairman certificate (light-sport aircraft) under § 65.107. [Docket 1179, 27 FR 7973, Aug. 10, 1962, as amended by Amdt. 65-11, 32 FR 13506, Sept. 27, 1967; Amdt. 65-24, 44 FR 46781, Aug. 9, 1979; Amdt. 65-27, 47 FR 13316, Mar. 29, 1982; Amdt. 65-45, 69 FR 44879, July 27, 2004; 72 FR 7739, Feb. 20, 2007] § 65.103 Repairman certificate: Privileges and limitations. (a) A certificated repairman may perform or supervise the maintenance, preventive maintenance, or alteration of aircraft or aircraft components appropriate to the job for which the repairman was employed and certificated, but only in connection with duties for the certificate holder by whom the repairman was employed and recommended. (b) A certificated repairman may not perform or supervise duties under the repairman certificate unless the repairman understands the current instructions of the certificate holder by whom the repairman is employed and the manufacturer's instructions for continued airworthiness relating to the specific operations concerned. (c) This section does not apply to the holder of a repairman certificate (light-sport aircraft) while that repairman is performing work under that certificate. [Docket 18241, 45 FR 46738, July 10, 1980, as amended by Amdt. 65-45, 69 FR 44879, July 27, 2004] § 65.104 Repairman certificate—experimental aircraft builder—Eligibility, privileges and limitations. (a) To be eligible for a repairman certificate (experimental aircraft builder), an individual must— (1) Be at least 18 years of age; (2) Be the primary builder of the aircraft to which the privileges of the certificate are applicable; (3) Show to the satisfaction of the Administrator that the individual has the requisite skill to determine whether the aircraft is in a condition for safe operations; and (4) Be a citizen of the United States or an individual citizen of a foreign country who has lawfully been admitted for permanent residence in the United States. (b) The holder of a repairman certificate (experimental aircraft builder) may perform condition inspections on the aircraft constructed by the holder in accordance with the operating limitations of that aircraft. (c) Section 65.103 does not apply to the holder of a repairman certificate (experimental aircraft builder) while performing under that certificate. [Docket 18739, 44 FR 46781, Aug. 9, 1979] § 65.105 Display of certificate. Each person who holds a repairman certificate shall keep it within the immediate area where he normally exercises the privileges of the certificate and shall present it for inspection upon the request of the Administrator or an authorized representative of the National Transportation Safety Board, or of any Federal, State, or local law enforcement officer.

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[Docket 7258, 31 FR 13524, Oct. 20, 1966, as amended by Docket 8084, 32 FR 5769, Apr. 11, 1967] § 65.107 Repairman certificate (light-sport aircraft): Eligibility, privileges, and limits. (a) Use the following table to determine your eligibility for a repairman certificate (light-sport aircraft) and appropriate rating:

To be eligible for	You must
(1) A repairman certificate (light-sport aircraft)	(i) Be at least 18 years old, (ii) Be able to read, speak, write, and understand English. If for medical reasons you cannot meet one of these requirements, the FAA may place limits on your repairman certificate necessary to safely perform the actions authorized by the certificate and rating,
	(iii) Demonstrate the requisite skill to determine whether a light-sport aircraft is in a condition for safe operation, and
	(iv) Be a citizen of the United States, or a citizen of a foreign country who has been lawfully admitted for permanent residence in the United States.
(2) A repairman certificate (light-sport aircraft) with an inspection rating	(i) Meet the requirements of paragraph (a)(1) of this section, and (ii) Complete a 16-hour training course acceptable to the FAA on inspecting the particular class of experimental light-sport aircraft for which you intend to exercise the privileges of this rating.
(3) A repairman certificate (light-sport aircraft) with a maintenance rating	(i) Meet the requirements of paragraph (a)(1) of this section, and
	(ii) Complete a training course acceptable to the FAA on maintaining the particular class of light-sport aircraft for which you intend to exercise the privileges of this rating. The training course must, at a minimum, provide the following number of hours of instruction:
	(A) For airplane class privileges—120-hours,
	(B) For weight-shift control aircraft class privileges—104 hours,
	(C) For powered parachute class privileges—104 hours,
	(D) For lighter than air class privileges—80 hours,
	(E) For glider class privileges—80 hours.

(b) The holder of a repairman certificate (light-sport aircraft) with an inspection rating may perform the annual condition inspection on a light-sport aircraft: (1) That is owned by the holder; (2) That has been issued an experimental certificate for operating a light-sport aircraft under § 21.191(i) of this chapter; and (3) That is in the same class of light-sport-aircraft for which the holder has completed the training specified in paragraph (a)(2)(ii) of this section. (c) The holder of a repairman certificate (light-sport aircraft) with a maintenance rating may— (1) Approve and return to service an aircraft that has been issued a special airworthiness certificate in the light-sport category under § 21.190 of this chapter, or any part thereof, after performing or inspecting maintenance (to include the annual condition inspection and the 100-hour inspection required by § 91.327 of this chapter), preventive maintenance, or an alteration (excluding a major repair or a major alteration on a product produced under an FAA approval); (2) Perform the annual condition inspection on a light-sport aircraft that has been issued an experimental certificate for operating a light-sport aircraft under § 21.191(i) of this chapter; and (3) Only perform maintenance, preventive maintenance, and an alteration on a light-sport aircraft that is in the same class of light-sport aircraft for which the holder has completed the training specified in paragraph (a)(3)(ii) of this section. Before performing a major repair, the holder must complete additional training acceptable to the FAA and appropriate to the repair performed. (d) The holder of a repairman certificate (light-sport aircraft) with a maintenance rating may not approve for return to service any aircraft or part thereof unless that person has previously performed the work concerned satisfactorily. If that person has not previously performed that work, the person may show the ability to do the work by performing it to the satisfaction of the FAA, or by performing it under the direct supervision of a certificated and appropriately rated mechanic, or a certificated repairman, who has had previous experience in the specific operation concerned. The repairman may not exercise the privileges of the certificate unless the repairman understands the current instructions of the manufacturer and the maintenance manuals for the specific operation concerned.

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[Docket FAA-2001-11133, 69 FR 44879, July 27, 2004] Subpart F—Parachute Riggers § 65.111 Certificate required. (a) No person may pack, maintain, or alter any personnel-carrying parachute intended for emergency use in connection with civil aircraft of the United States (including the reserve parachute of a dual parachute system to be used for intentional parachute jumping) unless that person holds an appropriate current certificate and type rating issued under this subpart and complies with §§ 65.127 through 65.133. (b) No person may pack any main parachute of a dual-parachute system to be used for intentional parachute jumping in connection with civil aircraft of the United States unless that person— (1) Has an appropriate current certificate issued under this subpart; (2) Is under the supervision of a current certificated parachute rigger; (3) Is the person making the next parachute jump with that parachute in accordance with § 105.43(a) of this chapter; or (4) Is the parachutist in command making the next parachute jump with that parachute in a tandem parachute operation conducted under § 105.45(b)(1) of this chapter. (c) No person may maintain or alter any main parachute of a dual-parachute system to be used for intentional parachute jumping in connection with civil aircraft of the United States unless that person— (1) Has an appropriate current certificate issued under this subpart; or (2) Is under the supervision of a current certificated parachute rigger; (d) Each person who holds a parachute rigger certificate shall present it for inspection upon the request of the Administrator or an authorized representative of the National Transportation Safety Board, or of any Federal, State, or local law enforcement officer. (e) The following parachute rigger certificates are issued under this part: (1) Senior parachute rigger. (2) Master parachute rigger. (f) Sections 65.127 through 65.133 do not apply to parachutes packed, maintained, or altered for the use of the armed forces. [Docket 1179, 27 FR 7973, Aug. 10, 1962, as amended by Amdt. 65-9, 31 FR 13524, Oct. 20, 1966; 32 FR 5769, Apr. 11, 1967; Amdt. 65-42, 66 FR 23553, May 9, 2001; Amdt. 65-54, 75 FR 31285, June 3, 2010] § 65.113 Eligibility requirements: General. (a) To be eligible for a parachute rigger certificate, a person must— (1) Be at least 18 years of age; (2) Be able to read, write, speak, and understand the English language, or, in the case of a citizen of Puerto Rico, or a person who is employed outside of the United States by a U.S. air carrier, and who does not meet this requirement, be issued a certificate that is valid only in Puerto Rico or while he is employed outside of the United States by that air carrier, as the case may be; and (3) Comply with the sections of this subpart that apply to the certificate and type rating he seeks. (b) Except for a master parachute rigger certificate, a parachute rigger certificate that was issued before, and was valid on, October 31, 1962, is equal to a senior parachute rigger certificate, and may be exchanged for such a corresponding certificate.

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§ 65.115 Senior parachute rigger certificate: Experience, knowledge, and skill requirements. Except as provided in § 65.117, an applicant for a senior parachute rigger certificate must— (a) Present evidence satisfactory to the Administrator that the applicant has packed at least 20 parachutes of each type for which the applicant seeks a rating, in accordance with the manufacturer's instructions and under the supervision of a certificated parachute rigger holding a rating for that type or a person holding an appropriate military rating; (b) Pass a written test, with respect to parachutes in common use, on— (1) Their construction, packing, and maintenance; (2) The manufacturer's instructions; (3) The regulations of this subpart; and (c) Pass an oral and practical test showing the applicant's ability to pack and maintain at least one type of parachute in common use, appropriate to the type rating the applicant seeks. To pass the oral and practical test for a senior parachute rigger certificate, the applicant must satisfactorily demonstrate the objectives in the areas of operation applicable to a senior parachute rigger specified in the Parachute Rigger Practical Test Standards (incorporated by reference, see § 65.23), appropriate to the type rating sought. [Docket 10468, 37 FR 13251, July 6, 1972, as amended by Docket FAA-2022-1463, Amdt. 65-64, 89 FR 22520, Apr. 1, 2024] § 65.117 Military riggers or former military riggers: Special certification rule. In place of the procedure in § 65.115, an applicant for a senior parachute rigger certificate is entitled to it if he passes a written test on the regulations of this subpart and presents satisfactory documentary evidence that he— (a) Is a member or civilian employee of an Armed Force of the United States, is a civilian employee of a regular armed force of a foreign country, or has, within the 12 months before he applies, been honorably discharged or released from any status covered by this paragraph; (b) Is serving, or has served within the 12 months before he applies, as a parachute rigger for such an Armed Force; and (c) Has the experience required by § 65.115(a). § 65.119 Master parachute rigger certificate: Experience, knowledge, and skill requirements. An applicant for a master parachute rigger certificate must meet the following requirements: (a) Present evidence satisfactory to the Administrator that the applicant has had at least 3 years of experience as a parachute rigger and has satisfactorily packed at least 100 parachutes of each of two types in common use, in accordance with the manufacturer's instructions— (1) While a certificated and appropriately rated senior parachute rigger; or (2) While under the supervision of a certificated and appropriately rated parachute rigger or a person holding appropriate military ratings. (3) An applicant may combine experience specified in paragraphs (a)(1) and (2) of this section to meet the requirements of this paragraph (a). (b) If the applicant is not the holder of a senior parachute rigger certificate, pass a written test, with respect to parachutes in common use, on— (1) Their construction, packing, and maintenance; (2) The manufacturer's instructions; and (3) The regulations of this subpart. (c) Pass an oral and practical test showing the applicant's ability to pack and maintain two types of parachutes in common use, appropriate to the type ratings the applicant seeks. To pass the oral and practical test for a master parachute rigger certificate, the applicant must satisfactorily demonstrate the objectives in the areas of operation applicable to a master parachute rigger specified in the Parachute Rigger Practical Test Standards (incorporated by reference, see § 65.23), as appropriate to the type rating sought. [Docket 10468, 37 FR 13252, July 6, 1972, as amended by Docket FAA-2022-1463, Amdt. 65-64, 89 FR 22520, Apr. 1, 2024; Amdt. 65-64A, 89 FR 29252, Apr. 22, 2024]

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§ 65.121 Type ratings. (a) The following type ratings are issued under this subpart: (1) Seat. (2) Back. (3) Chest. (4) Lap. (b) The holder of a senior parachute rigger certificate who qualifies for a master parachute rigger certificate is entitled to have placed on his master parachute rigger certificate the ratings that were on his senior parachute rigger certificate. § 65.123 Additional type ratings: Requirements. A certificated parachute rigger who applies for an additional type rating must— (a) Present evidence satisfactory to the Administrator that the applicant has packed at least 20 parachutes of the type for which the applicant seeks a rating, in accordance with the manufacturer's instructions and under the supervision of a certificated parachute rigger holding a rating for that type or a person holding an appropriate military rating; and (b) Pass a practical test, to the satisfaction of the Administrator, showing the applicant's ability to pack and maintain the type of parachute, appropriate to the type rating sought. To pass the practical test for an additional type rating, the applicant must satisfactorily demonstrate the objectives in the area of operation specified in the Parachute Rigger Practical Test Standards (incorporated by reference, see § 65.23), applicable to the type rating sought. [Docket FAA-2022-1463, Amdt. 65-64, 89 FR 22520, Apr. 1, 2024] § 65.125 Certificates: Privileges. (a) A certificated senior parachute rigger may— (1) Pack or maintain (except for major repair) any type of parachute for which he is rated; and (2) Supervise other persons in packing any type of parachute for which that person is rated in accordance with § 105.43(a) or § 105.45(b)(1) of this chapter. (b) A certificated master parachute rigger may— (1) Pack, maintain, or alter any type of parachute for which he is rated; and (2) Supervise other persons in packing, maintaining, or altering any type of parachute for which the certificated parachute rigger is rated in accordance with § 105.43(a) or § 105.45(b)(1) of this chapter. (c) A certificated parachute rigger need not comply with §§ 65.127 through 65.133 (relating to facilities, equipment, performance standards, records, recent experience, and seal) in packing, maintaining, or altering (if authorized) the main parachute of a dual parachute pack to be used for intentional jumping. [Docket 1179, 27 FR 7973, Aug. 10, 1962, as amended by Amdt. 65-20, 37 FR 13252, July 6, 1972; Amdt. 65-42, 66 FR 23553, May 9, 2001] § 65.127 Facilities and equipment. No certificated parachute rigger may exercise the privileges of his certificate unless he has at least the following facilities and equipment available to him: (a) A smooth top table at least three feet wide by 40 feet long. (b) Suitable housing that is adequately heated, lighted, and ventilated for drying and airing parachutes. (c) Enough packing tools and other equipment to pack and maintain the types of parachutes that he services. (d) Adequate housing facilities to perform his duties and to protect his tools and equipment. [Docket 1179, 27 FR 7973, Aug. 10, 1962, as amended by Amdt. 65-27, 47 FR 13316, Mar. 29, 1982] § 65.129 Performance standards. No certificated parachute rigger may— (a) Pack, maintain, or alter any parachute unless he is rated for that type; (b) Pack a parachute that is not safe for emergency use; (c) Pack a parachute that has not been thoroughly dried and aired; (d) Alter a parachute in a manner that is not specifically authorized by the Administrator or the manufacturer; (e) Pack, maintain, or alter a parachute in any manner that deviates from procedures approved by the Administrator or the manufacturer of the parachute; or

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(f) Exercise the privileges of his certificate and type rating unless he understands the current manufacturer's instructions for the operation involved and has— (1) Performed duties under his certificate for at least 90 days within the preceding 12 months; or (2) Shown the Administrator that he is able to perform those duties. § 65.131 Records. (a) Each certificated parachute rigger shall keep a record of the packing, maintenance, and alteration of parachutes performed or supervised by him. He shall keep in that record, with respect to each parachute worked on, a statement of— (1) Its type and make; (2) Its serial number; (3) The name and address of its owner; (4) The kind and extent of the work performed; (5) The date when and place where the work was performed; and (6) The results of any drop tests made with it. (b) Each person who makes a record under paragraph (a) of this section shall keep it for at least 2 years after the date it is made. (c) Each certificated parachute rigger who packs a parachute shall write, on the parachute packing record attached to the parachute, the date and place of the packing and a notation of any defects he finds on inspection. He shall sign that record with his name and the number of his certificate. § 65.133 Seal. Each certificated parachute rigger must have a seal with an identifying mark prescribed by the Administrator, and a seal press. After packing a parachute he shall seal the pack with his seal in accordance with the manufacturer's recommendation for that type of parachute.   Pt. 65, App. A Appendix A to Part 65—Aircraft Dispatcher Courses Overview This appendix sets forth the areas of knowledge necessary to perform dispatcher functions. The items listed below indicate the minimum set of topics that must be covered in a training course for aircraft dispatcher certification. The order of coverage is at the discretion of the approved school. I. Regulations A. Subpart C of this part; B. Parts 1, 25, 61, 71, 91, 121, 139, and 175, of this chapter; C. 49 CFR part 830; D. General Operating Manual. II. Meteorology A. Basic Weather Studies (1) The earth's motion and its effects on weather. (2) Analysis of the following regional weather types, characteristics, and structures, or combinations thereof: (a) Maritime. (b) Continental. (c) Polar. (d) Tropical. (3) Analysis of the following local weather types, characteristics, and structures or combinations thereof: (a) Coastal. (b) Mountainous. (c) Island. (d) Plains. (4) The following characteristics of the atmosphere: (a) Layers. (b) Composition. (c) Global Wind Patterns. (d) Ozone. (5) Pressure: (a) Units of Measure. (b) Weather Systems Characteristics. (c) Temperature Effects on Pressure. (d) Altimeters. (e) Pressure Gradient Force. (f) Pressure Pattern Flying Weather. (6) Wind: (a) Major Wind Systems and Coriolis Force. (b) Jetstreams and their Characteristics. (c) Local Wind and Related Terms. (7) States of Matter: (a) Solids, Liquid, and Gases. (b) Causes of change of state. (8) Clouds: (a) Composition, Formation, and Dissipation. (b) Types and Associated Precipitation. (c) Use of Cloud Knowledge in Forecasting. (9) Fog: (a) Causes, Formation, and Dissipation. (b) Types. (10) Ice: (a) Causes, Formation, and Dissipation.

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(b) Types. (11) Stability/Instability: (a) Temperature Lapse Rate, Convection. (b) Adiabatic Processes. (c) Lifting Processes. (d) Divergence. (e) Convergence. (12) Turbulence: (a) Jetstream Associated. (b) Pressure Pattern Recognition. (c) Low Level Windshear. (d) Mountain Waves. (e) Thunderstorms. (f) Clear Air Turbulence. (13) Airmasses: (a) Classification and Characteristics. (b) Source Regions. (c) Use of Airmass Knowledge in Forecasting. (14) Fronts: (a) Structure and Characteristics, Both Vertical and Horizontal. (b) Frontal Types. (c) Frontal Weather Flying. (15) Theory of Storm Systems: (a) Thunderstorms. (b) Tornadoes. (c) Hurricanes and Typhoons. (d) Microbursts. (e) Causes, Formation, and Dissipation. B. Weather, Analysis, and Forecasts (1) Observations: (a) Surface Observations. (i) Observations made by certified weather observer. (ii) Automated Weather Observations. (b) Terminal Forecasts. (c) Significant En route Reports and Forecasts. (i) Pilot Reports. (ii) Area Forecasts. (iii) Sigmets, Airmets. (iv) Center Weather Advisories. (d) Weather Imagery. (i) Surface Analysis. (ii) Weather Depiction. (iii) Significant Weather Prognosis. (iv) Winds and Temperature Aloft. (v) Tropopause Chart. (vi) Composite Moisture Stability Chart. (vii) Surface Weather Prognostic Chart. (viii) Radar Meteorology. (ix) Satellite Meteorology. (x) Other charts as applicable. (e) Meteorological Information Data Collection Systems. (2) Data Collection, Analysis, and Forecast Facilities. (3) Service Outlets Providing Aviation Weather Products. C. Weather Related Aircraft Hazards (1) Crosswinds and Gusts. (2) Contaminated Runways. (3) Restrictions to Surface Visibility. (4) Turbulence and Windshear. (5) Icing. (6) Thunderstorms and Microburst. (7) Volcanic Ash. III. Navigation A. Study of the Earth (1) Time reference and location (0 Longitude, UTC). (2) Definitions. (3) Projections. (4) Charts. B. Chart Reading, Application, and Use. C. National Airspace Plan. D. Navigation Systems. E. Airborne Navigation Instruments. F. Instrument Approach Procedures. (1) Transition Procedures. (2) Precision Approach Procedures. (3) Non-precision Approach Procedures. (4) Minimums and the relationship to weather. G. Special Navigation and Operations. (1) North Atlantic. (2) Pacific. (3) Global Differences. IV. AIRCRAFT A. Aircraft Flight Manual. B. Systems Overview. (1) Flight controls. (2) Hydraulics. (3) Electrical. (4) Air Conditioning and Pressurization. (5) Ice and Rain protection. (6) Avionics, Communication, and Navigation. (7) Powerplants and Auxiliary Power Units. (8) Emergency and Abnormal Procedures. (9) Fuel Systems and Sources. C. Minimum Equipment List/Configuration Deviation List (MEL/CDL) and Applications. D. Performance. (1) Aircraft in general. (2) Principles of flight: (a) Group one aircraft. (b) Group two aircraft. (3) Aircraft Limitations. (4) Weight and Balance. (5) Flight instrument errors. (6) Aircraft performance: (a) Take-off performance. (b) En route performance. (c) Landing performance. V. Communications A. Regulatory requirements. B. Communication Protocol. C. Voice and Data Communications. D. Notice to Airmen (NOTAMS). E. Aeronautical Publications. F. Abnormal Procedures. VI. Air Traffic Control A. Responsibilities. B. Facilities and Equipment. C. Airspace classification and route structure. D. Flight Plans. (1) Domestic. (2) International. E. Separation Minimums.

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F. Priority Handling. G. Holding Procedures. H. Traffic Management. VII. Emergency and Abnormal Procedures A. Security measures on the ground. B. Security measures in the air. C. FAA responsibility and services. D. Collection and dissemination of information on overdue or missing aircraft. E. Means of declaring an emergency. F. Responsibility for declaring an emergency. G. Required reporting of an emergency. H. NTSB reporting requirements. VIII. Practical Dispatch Applications A. Human Factors. (1) Decisionmaking: (a) Situation Assessment. (b) Generation and Evaluation of Alternatives. (i) Tradeoffs and Prioritization. (ii) Contingency Planning. (c) Support Tools and Technologies. (2) Human Error: (a) Causes. (i) Individual and Organizational Factors. (ii) Technology-Induced Error. (b) Prevention. (c) Detection and Recovery. (3) Teamwork: (a) Communication and Information Exchange. (b) Cooperative and Distributed Problem-Solving. (c) Resource Management. (i) Air Traffic Control (ATC) activities and workload. (ii) Flightcrew activities and workload. (iii) Maintenance activities and workload. (iv) Operations Control Staff activities and workload. B. Applied Dispatching. (1) Briefing techniques, Dispatcher, Pilot. (2) Preflight: (a) Safety. (b) Weather Analysis. (i) Satellite imagery. (ii) Upper and lower altitude charts. (iii) Significant en route reports and forecasts. (iv) Surface charts. (v) Surface observations. (vi) Terminal forecasts and orientation to Enhanced Weather Information System (EWINS). (c) NOTAMS and airport conditions. (d) Crew. (i) Qualifications. (ii) Limitations. (e) Aircraft. (i) Systems. (ii) Navigation instruments and avionics systems. (iii) Flight instruments. (iv) Operations manuals and MEL/CDL. (v) Performance and limitations. (f) Flight Planning. (i) Route of flight. 1. Standard Instrument Departures and Standard Terminal Arrival Routes. 2. En route charts. 3. Operational altitude. 4. Departure and arrival charts. (ii) Minimum departure fuel. 1. Climb. 2. Cruise. 3. Descent. (g) Weight and balance. (h) Economics of flight overview (Performance, Fuel Tankering). (i) Decision to operate the flight. (j) ATC flight plan filing. (k) Flight documentation. (i) Flight plan. (ii) Dispatch release. (3) Authorize flight departure with concurrence of pilot in command. (4) In-flight operational control: (a) Current situational awareness. (b) Information exchange. (c) Amend original flight release as required. (5) Post-Flight: (a) Arrival verification. (b) Weather debrief. (c) Flight irregularity reports as required. [Docket FAA-1998-4553, 64 FR 68925, Dec. 8, 1999, as amended by Docket FAA-2016-6142, Amdt. 65-58, 83 FR 30281, June 27, 2018] Pt. 67 PART 67—MEDICAL STANDARDS AND CERTIFICATION Subpart A—General Sec. 67.1 Applicability. 67.3 Issue. 67.4 Application. 67.7 Access to the National Driver Register. Subpart B—First-Class Airman Medical Certificate 67.101 Eligibility. 67.103 Eye. 67.105 Ear, nose, throat, and equilibrium. 67.107 Mental. 67.109 Neurologic. 67.111 Cardiovascular. 67.113 General medical condition. 67.115 Discretionary issuance. Subpart C—Second-Class Airman Medical Certificate 67.201 Eligibility. 67.203 Eye. 67.205 Ear, nose, throat, and equilibrium. 67.207 Mental. 67.209 Neurologic. 67.211 Cardiovascular. 67.213 General medical condition.

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67.215 Discretionary issuance. Subpart D—Third-Class Airman Medical Certificate 67.301 Eligibility. 67.303 Eye. 67.305 Ear, nose, throat, and equilibrium. 67.307 Mental. 67.309 Neurologic. 67.311 Cardiovascular. 67.313 General medical condition. 67.315 Discretionary issuance. Subpart E—Certification Procedures 67.401 Special issuance of medical certificates. 67.403 Applications, certificates, logbooks, reports, and records: Falsification, reproduction, or alteration; incorrect statements. 67.405 Medical examinations: Who may perform? 67.407 Delegation of authority. 67.409 Denial of medical certificate. 67.411 [Reserved] 67.413 Medical records. 67.415 Return of medical certificate after suspension or revocation. Authority: 49 U.S.C. 106(g), 40113, 44701-44703, 44707, 44709-44711, 45102-45103, 45301-45303. Source: Docket 27940, 61 FR 11256, Mar. 19, 1996, unless otherwise noted. Subpart A—General § 67.1 Applicability. This part prescribes the medical standards and certification procedures for issuing medical certificates for airmen and for remaining eligible for a medical certificate. § 67.3 Issue. A person who meets the medical standards prescribed in this part, based on medical examination and evaluation of the person's history and condition, is entitled to an appropriate medical certificate. [Docket FAA-2007-27812, 73 FR 43065, July 24, 2008] § 67.4 Application. An applicant for first-, second- and third-class medical certification must: (a) Apply on a form and in a manner prescribed by the Administrator; (b) Be examined by an aviation medical examiner designated in accordance with part 183 of this chapter. An applicant may obtain a list of aviation medical examiners from the FAA Office of Aerospace Medicine homepage on the FAA Web site, from any FAA Regional Flight Surgeon, or by contacting the Manager of the Aerospace Medical Education Division, P.O. Box 25082, Oklahoma City, Oklahoma 73125. (c) Show proof of age and identity by presenting a government-issued photo identification (such as a valid U.S. driver's license, identification card issued by a driver's license authority, military identification, or passport). If an applicant does not have government-issued identification, he or she may use non-photo, government-issued identification (such as a birth certificate or voter registration card) in conjunction with photo identification (such as a work identification card or a student identification card). [Docket FAA-2007-27812, 73 FR 43065, July 24, 2008, as amended by Docket FAA-2022-1355, Amdt. 67-22, 87 FR 75845, Dec. 9, 2022] § 67.7 Access to the National Driver Register. At the time of application for a certificate issued under this part, each person who applies for a medical certificate shall execute an express consent form authorizing the Administrator to request the chief driver licensing official of any state designated by the Administrator to transmit information contained in the National Driver Register about the person to the Administrator. The Administrator shall make information received from the National Driver Register, if any, available on request to the person for review and written comment. Subpart B—First-Class Airman Medical Certificate § 67.101 Eligibility. To be eligible for a first-class airman medical certificate, and to remain eligible for a first-class airman medical certificate, a person must meet the requirements of this subpart. § 67.103 Eye. Eye standards for a first-class airman medical certificate are:

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(a) Distant visual acuity of 20/20 or better in each eye separately, with or without corrective lenses. If corrective lenses (spectacles or contact lenses) are necessary for 20/20 vision, the person may be eligible only on the condition that corrective lenses are worn while exercising the privileges of an airman certificate. (b) Near vision of 20/40 or better, Snellen equivalent, at 16 inches in each eye separately, with or without corrective lenses. If age 50 or older, near vision of 20/40 or better, Snellen equivalent, at both 16 inches and 32 inches in each eye separately, with or without corrective lenses. (c) Ability to perceive those colors necessary for the safe performance of airman duties. (d) Normal fields of vision. (e) No acute or chronic pathological condition of either eye or adnexa that interferes with the proper function of an eye, that may reasonably be expected to progress to that degree, or that may reasonably be expected to be aggravated by flying. (f) Bifoveal fixation and vergence-phoria relationship sufficient to prevent a break in fusion under conditions that may reasonably be expected to occur in performing airman duties. Tests for the factors named in this paragraph are not required except for persons found to have more than 1 prism diopter of hyperphoria, 6 prism diopters of esophoria, or 6 prism diopters of exophoria. If any of these values are exceeded, the Federal Air Surgeon may require the person to be examined by a qualified eye specialist to determine if there is bifoveal fixation and an adequate vergence-phoria relationship. However, if otherwise eligible, the person is issued a medical certificate pending the results of the examination. § 67.105 Ear, nose, throat, and equilibrium. Ear, nose, throat, and equilibrium standards for a first-class airman medical certificate are: (a) The person shall demonstrate acceptable hearing by at least one of the following tests: (1) Demonstrate an ability to hear an average conversational voice in a quiet room, using both ears, at a distance of 6 feet from the examiner, with the back turned to the examiner. (2) Demonstrate an acceptable understanding of speech as determined by audiometric speech discrimination testing to a score of at least 70 percent obtained in one ear or in a sound field environment. (3) Provide acceptable results of pure tone audiometric testing of unaided hearing acuity according to the following table of worst acceptable thresholds, using the calibration standards of the American National Standards Institute, 1969 (11 West 42d Street, New York, NY 10036):

Frequency (Hz)	500 Hz	1000 Hz	2000 Hz	3000 Hz
Better ear (Db)	35	30	30	40
Poorer ear (Db)	35	50	50	60

(b) No disease or condition of the middle or internal ear, nose, oral cavity, pharynx, or larynx that— (1) Interferes with, or is aggravated by, flying or may reasonably be expected to do so; or (2) Interferes with, or may reasonably be expected to interfere with, clear and effective speech communication. (c) No disease or condition manifested by, or that may reasonably be expected to be manifested by, vertigo or a disturbance of equilibrium. § 67.107 Mental. Mental standards for a first-class airman medical certificate are: (a) No established medical history or clinical diagnosis of any of the following: (1) A personality disorder that is severe enough to have repeatedly manifested itself by overt acts. (2) A psychosis. As used in this section, “psychosis” refers to a mental disorder in which: (i) The individual has manifested delusions, hallucinations, grossly bizarre or disorganized behavior, or other commonly accepted symptoms of this condition; or (ii) The individual may reasonably be expected to manifest delusions, hallucinations, grossly bizarre or disorganized behavior, or other commonly accepted symptoms of this condition.

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(3) A bipolar disorder. (4) Substance dependence, except where there is established clinical evidence, satisfactory to the Federal Air Surgeon, of recovery, including sustained total abstinence from the substance(s) for not less than the preceding 2 years. As used in this section— (i) “Substance” includes: Alcohol; other sedatives and hypnotics; anxiolytics; opioids; central nervous system stimulants such as cocaine, amphetamines, and similarly acting sympathomimetics; hallucinogens; phencyclidine or similarly acting arylcyclohexylamines; cannabis; inhalants; and other psychoactive drugs and chemicals; and (ii) “Substance dependence” means a condition in which a person is dependent on a substance, other than tobacco or ordinary xanthine-containing (e.g., caffeine) beverages, as evidenced by— (A) Increased tolerance; (B) Manifestation of withdrawal symptoms; (C) Impaired control of use; or (D) Continued use despite damage to physical health or impairment of social, personal, or occupational functioning. (b) No substance abuse within the preceding 2 years defined as: (1) Use of a substance in a situation in which that use was physically hazardous, if there has been at any other time an instance of the use of a substance also in a situation in which that use was physically hazardous; (2) A verified positive drug test result, an alcohol test result of 0.04 or greater alcohol concentration, or a refusal to submit to a drug or alcohol test required by the U.S. Department of Transportation or an agency of the U.S. Department of Transportation; or (3) Misuse of a substance that the Federal Air Surgeon, based on case history and appropriate, qualified medical judgment relating to the substance involved, finds— (i) Makes the person unable to safely perform the duties or exercise the privileges of the airman certificate applied for or held; or (ii) May reasonably be expected, for the maximum duration of the airman medical certificate applied for or held, to make the person unable to perform those duties or exercise those privileges. (c) No other personality disorder, neurosis, or other mental condition that the Federal Air Surgeon, based on the case history and appropriate, qualified medical judgment relating to the condition involved, finds— (1) Makes the person unable to safely perform the duties or exercise the privileges of the airman certificate applied for or held; or (2) May reasonably be expected, for the maximum duration of the airman medical certificate applied for or held, to make the person unable to perform those duties or exercise those privileges. [Docket 27940, 61 FR 11256, Mar. 19, 1996, as amended by Amdt. 67-19, 71 FR 35764, June 21, 2006] § 67.109 Neurologic. Neurologic standards for a first-class airman medical certificate are: (a) No established medical history or clinical diagnosis of any of the following: (1) Epilepsy; (2) A disturbance of consciousness without satisfactory medical explanation of the cause; or (3) A transient loss of control of nervous system function(s) without satisfactory medical explanation of the cause. (b) No other seizure disorder, disturbance of consciousness, or neurologic condition that the Federal Air Surgeon, based on the case history and appropriate, qualified medical judgment relating to the condition involved, finds— (1) Makes the person unable to safely perform the duties or exercise the privileges of the airman certificate applied for or held; or (2) May reasonably be expected, for the maximum duration of the airman medical certificate applied for or held, to make the person unable to perform those duties or exercise those privileges. § 67.111 Cardiovascular. Cardiovascular standards for a first-class airman medical certificate are:

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(a) No established medical history or clinical diagnosis of any of the following: (1) Myocardial infarction; (2) Angina pectoris; (3) Coronary heart disease that has required treatment or, if untreated, that has been symptomatic or clinically significant; (4) Cardiac valve replacement; (5) Permanent cardiac pacemaker implantation; or (6) Heart replacement; (b) A person applying for first-class medical certification must demonstrate an absence of myocardial infarction and other clinically significant abnormality on electrocardiographic examination: (1) At the first application after reaching the 35th birthday; and (2) On an annual basis after reaching the 40th birthday. (c) An electrocardiogram will satisfy a requirement of paragraph (b) of this section if it is dated no earlier than 60 days before the date of the application it is to accompany and was performed and transmitted according to acceptable standards and techniques. § 67.113 General medical condition. The general medical standards for a first-class airman medical certificate are: (a) No established medical history or clinical diagnosis of diabetes mellitus that requires insulin or any other hypoglycemic drug for control. (b) No other organic, functional, or structural disease, defect, or limitation that the Federal Air Surgeon, based on the case history and appropriate, qualified medical judgment relating to the condition involved, finds— (1) Makes the person unable to safely perform the duties or exercise the privileges of the airman certificate applied for or held; or (2) May reasonably be expected, for the maximum duration of the airman medical certificate applied for or held, to make the person unable to perform those duties or exercise those privileges. (c) No medication or other treatment that the Federal Air Surgeon, based on the case history and appropriate, qualified medical judgment relating to the medication or other treatment involved, finds— (1) Makes the person unable to safely perform the duties or exercise the privileges of the airman certificate applied for or held; or (2) May reasonably be expected, for the maximum duration of the airman medical certificate applied for or held, to make the person unable to perform those duties or exercise those privileges. § 67.115 Discretionary issuance. A person who does not meet the provisions of §§ 67.103 through 67.113 may apply for the discretionary issuance of a certificate under § 67.401. Subpart C—Second-Class Airman Medical Certificate § 67.201 Eligibility. To be eligible for a second-class airman medical certificate, and to remain eligible for a second-class airman medical certificate, a person must meet the requirements of this subpart. § 67.203 Eye. Eye standards for a second-class airman medical certificate are: (a) Distant visual acuity of 20/20 or better in each eye separately, with or without corrective lenses. If corrective lenses (spectacles or contact lenses) are necessary for 20/20 vision, the person may be eligible only on the condition that corrective lenses are worn while exercising the privileges of an airman certificate. (b) Near vision of 20/40 or better, Snellen equivalent, at 16 inches in each eye separately, with or without corrective lenses. If age 50 or older, near vision of 20/40 or better, Snellen equivalent, at both 16 inches and 32 inches in each eye separately, with or without corrective lenses. (c) Ability to perceive those colors necessary for the safe performance of airman duties. (d) Normal fields of vision. (e) No acute or chronic pathological condition of either eye or adnexa that interferes with the proper function of an eye, that may reasonably be expected to progress to that degree, or that may reasonably be expected to be aggravated by flying.

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(f) Bifoveal fixation and vergence-phoria relationship sufficient to prevent a break in fusion under conditions that may reasonably be expected to occur in performing airman duties. Tests for the factors named in this paragraph are not required except for persons found to have more than 1 prism diopter of hyperphoria, 6 prism diopters of esophoria, or 6 prism diopters of exophoria. If any of these values are exceeded, the Federal Air Surgeon may require the person to be examined by a qualified eye specialist to determine if there is bifoveal fixation and an adequate vergence-phoria relationship. However, if otherwise eligible, the person is issued a medical certificate pending the results of the examination. § 67.205 Ear, nose, throat, and equilibrium. Ear, nose, throat, and equilibrium standards for a second-class airman medical certificate are: (a) The person shall demonstrate acceptable hearing by at least one of the following tests: (1) Demonstrate an ability to hear an average conversational voice in a quiet room, using both ears, at a distance of 6 feet from the examiner, with the back turned to the examiner. (2) Demonstrate an acceptable understanding of speech as determined by audiometric speech discrimination testing to a score of at least 70 percent obtained in one ear or in a sound field environment. (3) Provide acceptable results of pure tone audiometric testing of unaided hearing acuity according to the following table of worst acceptable thresholds, using the calibration standards of the American National Standards Institute, 1969:

Frequency (Hz)	500 Hz	1000 Hz	2000 Hz	3000 Hz
Better ear (Db)	35	30	30	40
Poorer ear (Db)	35	50	50	60

(b) No disease or condition of the middle or internal ear, nose, oral cavity, pharynx, or larynx that— (1) Interferes with, or is aggravated by, flying or may reasonably be expected to do so; or (2) Interferes with, or may reasonably be expected to interfere with, clear and effective speech communication. (c) No disease or condition manifested by, or that may reasonably be expected to be manifested by, vertigo or a disturbance of equilibrium. § 67.207 Mental. Mental standards for a second-class airman medical certificate are: (a) No established medical history or clinical diagnosis of any of the following: (1) A personality disorder that is severe enough to have repeatedly manifested itself by overt acts. (2) A psychosis. As used in this section, “psychosis” refers to a mental disorder in which: (i) The individual has manifested delusions, hallucinations, grossly bizarre or disorganized behavior, or other commonly accepted symptoms of this condition; or (ii) The individual may reasonably be expected to manifest delusions, hallucinations, grossly bizarre or disorganized behavior, or other commonly accepted symptoms of this condition. (3) A bipolar disorder. (4) Substance dependence, except where there is established clinical evidence, satisfactory to the Federal Air Surgeon, of recovery, including sustained total abstinence from the substance(s) for not less than the preceding 2 years. As used in this section— (i) “Substance” includes: Alcohol; other sedatives and hypnotics; anxiolytics; opioids; central nervous system stimulants such as cocaine, amphetamines, and similarly acting sympathomimetics; hallucinogens; phencyclidine or similarly acting arylcyclohexylamines; cannabis; inhalants; and other psychoactive drugs and chemicals; and (ii) “Substance dependence” means a condition in which a person is dependent on a substance, other than tobacco or ordinary xanthine-containing (e.g., caffeine) beverages, as evidenced by— (A) Increased tolerance;

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(B) Manifestation of withdrawal symptoms; (C) Impaired control of use; or (D) Continued use despite damage to physical health or impairment of social, personal, or occupational functioning. (b) No substance abuse within the preceding 2 years defined as: (1) Use of a substance in a situation in which that use was physically hazardous, if there has been at any other time an instance of the use of a substance also in a situation in which that use was physically hazardous; (2) A verified positive drug test result, an alcohol test result of 0.04 or greater alcohol concentration, or a refusal to submit to a drug or alcohol test required by the U.S. Department of Transportation or an agency of the U.S. Department of Transportation; or (3) Misuse of a substance that the Federal Air Surgeon, based on case history and appropriate, qualified medical judgment relating to the substance involved, finds— (i) Makes the person unable to safely perform the duties or exercise the privileges of the airman certificate applied for or held; or (ii) May reasonably be expected, for the maximum duration of the airman medical certificate applied for or held, to make the person unable to perform those duties or exercise those privileges. (c) No other personality disorder, neurosis, or other mental condition that the Federal Air Surgeon, based on the case history and appropriate, qualified medical judgment relating to the condition involved, finds— (1) Makes the person unable to safely perform the duties or exercise the privileges of the airman certificate applied for or held; or (2) May reasonably be expected, for the maximum duration of the airman medical certificate applied for or held, to make the person unable to perform those duties or exercise those privileges. [Docket 27940, 61 FR 11256, Mar. 19, 1996, as amended by Amdt. 67-19, 71 FR 35764, June 21, 2006] § 67.209 Neurologic. Neurologic standards for a second-class airman medical certificate are: (a) No established medical history or clinical diagnosis of any of the following: (1) Epilepsy; (2) A disturbance of consciousness without satisfactory medical explanation of the cause; or (3) A transient loss of control of nervous system function(s) without satisfactory medical explanation of the cause; (b) No other seizure disorder, disturbance of consciousness, or neurologic condition that the Federal Air Surgeon, based on the case history and appropriate, qualified medical judgment relating to the condition involved, finds— (1) Makes the person unable to safely perform the duties or exercise the privileges of the airman certificate applied for or held; or (2) May reasonably be expected, for the maximum duration of the airman medical certificate applied for or held, to make the person unable to perform those duties or exercise those privileges. § 67.211 Cardiovascular. Cardiovascular standards for a second-class medical certificate are no established medical history or clinical diagnosis of any of the following: (a) Myocardial infarction; (b) Angina pectoris; (c) Coronary heart disease that has required treatment or, if untreated, that has been symptomatic or clinically significant; (d) Cardiac valve replacement; (e) Permanent cardiac pacemaker implantation; or (f) Heart replacement. § 67.213 General medical condition. The general medical standards for a second-class airman medical certificate are: (a) No established medical history or clinical diagnosis of diabetes mellitus that requires insulin or any other hypoglycemic drug for control. (b) No other organic, functional, or structural disease, defect, or limitation that the Federal Air Surgeon, based on the case history and appropriate, qualified medical judgment relating to the condition involved, finds—

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(1) Makes the person unable to safely perform the duties or exercise the privileges of the airman certificate applied for or held; or (2) May reasonably be expected, for the maximum duration of the airman medical certificate applied for or held, to make the person unable to perform those duties or exercise those privileges. (c) No medication or other treatment that the Federal Air Surgeon, based on the case history and appropriate, qualified medical judgment relating to the medication or other treatment involved, finds— (1) Makes the person unable to safely perform the duties or exercise the privileges of the airman certificate applied for or held; or (2) May reasonably be expected, for the maximum duration of the airman medical certificate applied for or held, to make the person unable to perform those duties or exercise those privileges. § 67.215 Discretionary issuance. A person who does not meet the provisions of §§ 67.203 through 67.213 may apply for the discretionary issuance of a certificate under § 67.401. Subpart D—Third-Class Airman Medical Certificate § 67.301 Eligibility. To be eligible for a third-class airman medical certificate, or to remain eligible for a third-class airman medical certificate, a person must meet the requirements of this subpart. § 67.303 Eye. Eye standards for a third-class airman medical certificate are: (a) Distant visual acuity of 20/40 or better in each eye separately, with or without corrective lenses. If corrective lenses (spectacles or contact lenses) are necessary for 20/40 vision, the person may be eligible only on the condition that corrective lenses are worn while exercising the privileges of an airman certificate. (b) Near vision of 20/40 or better, Snellen equivalent, at 16 inches in each eye separately, with or without corrective lenses. (c) Ability to perceive those colors necessary for the safe performance of airman duties. (d) No acute or chronic pathological condition of either eye or adnexa that interferes with the proper function of an eye, that may reasonably be expected to progress to that degree, or that may reasonably be expected to be aggravated by flying. § 67.305 Ear, nose, throat, and equilibrium. Ear, nose, throat, and equilibrium standards for a third-class airman medical certificate are: (a) The person shall demonstrate acceptable hearing by at least one of the following tests: (1) Demonstrate an ability to hear an average conversational voice in a quiet room, using both ears, at a distance of 6 feet from the examiner, with the back turned to the examiner. (2) Demonstrate an acceptable understanding of speech as determined by audiometric speech discrimination testing to a score of at least 70 percent obtained in one ear or in a sound field environment. (3) Provide acceptable results of pure tone audiometric testing of unaided hearing acuity according to the following table of worst acceptable thresholds, using the calibration standards of the American National Standards Institute, 1969:

Frequency (Hz)	500 Hz	1000 Hz	2000 Hz	3000 Hz
Better ear (Db)	35	30	30	40
Poorer ear (Db)	35	50	50	60

(b) No disease or condition of the middle or internal ear, nose, oral cavity, pharynx, or larynx that— (1) Interferes with, or is aggravated by, flying or may reasonably be expected to do so; or (2) Interferes with clear and effective speech communication. (c) No disease or condition manifested by, or that may reasonably be expected to be manifested by, vertigo or a disturbance of equilibrium.

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§ 67.307 Mental. Mental standards for a third-class airman medical certificate are: (a) No established medical history or clinical diagnosis of any of the following: (1) A personality disorder that is severe enough to have repeatedly manifested itself by overt acts. (2) A psychosis. As used in this section, “psychosis” refers to a mental disorder in which— (i) The individual has manifested delusions, hallucinations, grossly bizarre or disorganized behavior, or other commonly accepted symptoms of this condition; or (ii) The individual may reasonably be expected to manifest delusions, hallucinations, grossly bizarre or disorganized behavior, or other commonly accepted symptoms of this condition. (3) A bipolar disorder. (4) Substance dependence, except where there is established clinical evidence, satisfactory to the Federal Air Surgeon, of recovery, including sustained total abstinence from the substance(s) for not less than the preceding 2 years. As used in this section— (i) “Substance” includes: alcohol; other sedatives and hypnotics; anxiolytics; opioids; central nervous system stimulants such as cocaine, amphetamines, and similarly acting sympathomimetics; hallucinogens; phencyclidine or similarly acting arylcyclohexylamines; cannabis; inhalants; and other psychoactive drugs and chemicals; and (ii) “Substance dependence” means a condition in which a person is dependent on a substance, other than tobacco or ordinary xanthine-containing (e.g., caffeine) beverages, as evidenced by— (A) Increased tolerance; (B) Manifestation of withdrawal symptoms; (C) Impaired control of use; or (D) Continued use despite damage to physical health or impairment of social, personal, or occupational functioning. (b) No substance abuse within the preceding 2 years defined as: (1) Use of a substance in a situation in which that use was physically hazardous, if there has been at any other time an instance of the use of a substance also in a situation in which that use was physically hazardous; (2) A verified positive drug test result, an alcohol test result of 0.04 or greater alcohol concentration, or a refusal to submit to a drug or alcohol test required by the U.S. Department of Transportation or an agency of the U.S. Department of Transportation; or (3) Misuse of a substance that the Federal Air Surgeon, based on case history and appropriate, qualified medical judgment relating to the substance involved, finds— (i) Makes the person unable to safely perform the duties or exercise the privileges of the airman certificate applied for or held; or (ii) May reasonably be expected, for the maximum duration of the airman medical certificate applied for or held, to make the person unable to perform those duties or exercise those privileges. (c) No other personality disorder, neurosis, or other mental condition that the Federal Air Surgeon, based on the case history and appropriate, qualified medical judgment relating to the condition involved, finds— (1) Makes the person unable to safely perform the duties or exercise the privileges of the airman certificate applied for or held; or (2) May reasonably be expected, for the maximum duration of the airman medical certificate applied for or held, to make the person unable to perform those duties or exercise those privileges. [Docket 27940, 61 FR 11256, Mar. 19, 1996, as amended by Amdt. 67-19, 71 FR 35764, June 21, 2006] § 67.309 Neurologic. Neurologic standards for a third-class airman medical certificate are: (a) No established medical history or clinical diagnosis of any of the following: (1) Epilepsy; (2) A disturbance of consciousness without satisfactory medical explanation of the cause; or (3) A transient loss of control of nervous system function(s) without satisfactory medical explanation of the cause.

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(b) No other seizure disorder, disturbance of consciousness, or neurologic condition that the Federal Air Surgeon, based on the case history and appropriate, qualified medical judgment relating to the condition involved, finds— (1) Makes the person unable to safely perform the duties or exercise the privileges of the airman certificate applied for or held; or (2) May reasonably be expected, for the maximum duration of the airman medical certificate applied for or held, to make the person unable to perform those duties or exercise those privileges. § 67.311 Cardiovascular. Cardiovascular standards for a third-class airman medical certificate are no established medical history or clinical diagnosis of any of the following: (a) Myocardial infarction; (b) Angina pectoris; (c) Coronary heart disease that has required treatment or, if untreated, that has been symptomatic or clinically significant; (d) Cardiac valve replacement; (e) Permanent cardiac pacemaker implantation; or (f) Heart replacement. § 67.313 General medical condition. The general medical standards for a third-class airman medical certificate are: (a) No established medical history or clinical diagnosis of diabetes mellitus that requires insulin or any other hypoglycemic drug for control. (b) No other organic, functional, or structural disease, defect, or limitation that the Federal Air Surgeon, based on the case history and appropriate, qualified medical judgment relating to the condition involved, finds— (1) Makes the person unable to safely perform the duties or exercise the privileges of the airman certificate applied for or held; or (2) May reasonably be expected, for the maximum duration of the airman medical certificate applied for or held, to make the person unable to perform those duties or exercise those privileges. (c) No medication or other treatment that the Federal Air Surgeon, based on the case history and appropriate, qualified medical judgment relating to the medication or other treatment involved, finds— (1) Makes the person unable to safely perform the duties or exercise the privileges of the airman certificate applied for or held; or (2) May reasonably be expected, for the maximum duration of the airman medical certificate applied for or held, to make the person unable to perform those duties or exercise those privileges. § 67.315 Discretionary issuance. A person who does not meet the provisions of §§ 67.303 through 67.313 may apply for the discretionary issuance of a certificate under § 67.401. Subpart E—Certification Procedures § 67.401 Special issuance of medical certificates. (a) At the discretion of the Federal Air Surgeon, an Authorization for Special Issuance of a Medical Certificate (Authorization), valid for a specified period, may be granted to a person who does not meet the provisions of subparts B, C, or D of this part if the person shows to the satisfaction of the Federal Air Surgeon that the duties authorized by the class of medical certificate applied for can be performed without endangering public safety during the period in which the Authorization would be in force. The Federal Air Surgeon may authorize a special medical flight test, practical test, or medical evaluation for this purpose. A medical certificate of the appropriate class may be issued to a person who does not meet the provisions of subparts B, C, or D of this part if that person possesses a valid Authorization and is otherwise eligible. An airman medical certificate issued in accordance with this section shall expire no later than the end of the validity period or upon the withdrawal of the Authorization upon which it is based. At the end of its specified validity period, for grant of a new Authorization, the person must again show to the satisfaction of the Federal Air Surgeon that the duties authorized by the class of medical certificate applied for can be performed without endangering public safety during the period in which the Authorization would be in force.

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(b) At the discretion of the Federal Air Surgeon, a Statement of Demonstrated Ability (SODA) may be granted, instead of an Authorization, to a person whose disqualifying condition is static or nonprogressive and who has been found capable of performing airman duties without endangering public safety. A SODA does not expire and authorizes a designated aviation medical examiner to issue a medical certificate of a specified class if the examiner finds that the condition described on its face has not adversely changed. (c) In granting an Authorization or SODA, the Federal Air Surgeon may consider the person's operational experience and any medical facts that may affect the ability of the person to perform airman duties including— (1) The combined effect on the person of failure to meet more than one requirement of this part; and (2) The prognosis derived from professional consideration of all available information regarding the person. (d) In granting an Authorization or SODA under this section, the Federal Air Surgeon specifies the class of medical certificate authorized to be issued and may do any or all of the following: (1) Limit the duration of an Authorization; (2) Condition the granting of a new Authorization on the results of subsequent medical tests, examinations, or evaluations; (3) State on the Authorization or SODA, and any medical certificate based upon it, any operational limitation needed for safety; or (4) Condition the continued effect of an Authorization or SODA, and any second- or third-class medical certificate based upon it, on compliance with a statement of functional limitations issued to the person in coordination with the Director of Flight Standards or the Director's designee. (e) In determining whether an Authorization or SODA should be granted to an applicant for a third-class medical certificate, the Federal Air Surgeon considers the freedom of an airman, exercising the privileges of a private pilot certificate, to accept reasonable risks to his or her person and property that are not acceptable in the exercise of commercial or airline transport pilot privileges, and, at the same time, considers the need to protect the safety of persons and property in other aircraft and on the ground. (f) An Authorization or SODA granted under the provisions of this section to a person who does not meet the applicable provisions of subparts B, C, or D of this part may be withdrawn, at the discretion of the Federal Air Surgeon, at any time if— (1) There is adverse change in the holder's medical condition; (2) The holder fails to comply with a statement of functional limitations or operational limitations issued as a condition of certification under this section; (3) Public safety would be endangered by the holder's exercise of airman privileges; (4) The holder fails to provide medical information reasonably needed by the Federal Air Surgeon for certification under this section; or (5) The holder makes or causes to be made a statement or entry that is the basis for withdrawal of an Authorization or SODA under § 67.403. (g) A person who has been granted an Authorization or SODA under this section based on a special medical flight or practical test need not take the test again during later physical examinations unless the Federal Air Surgeon determines or has reason to believe that the physical deficiency has or may have degraded to a degree to require another special medical flight test or practical test. (h) The authority of the Federal Air Surgeon under this section is also exercised by the Manager, Aeromedical Certification Division, and each Regional Flight Surgeon. (i) If an Authorization or SODA is withdrawn under paragraph (f) of this section the following procedures apply: (1) The holder of the Authorization or SODA will be served a letter of withdrawal, stating the reason for the action;

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(2) By not later than 60 days after the service of the letter of withdrawal, the holder of the Authorization or SODA may request, in writing, that the Federal Air Surgeon provide for review of the decision to withdraw. The request for review may be accompanied by supporting medical evidence; (3) Within 60 days of receipt of a request for review, a written final decision either affirming or reversing the decision to withdraw will be issued; and (4) A medical certificate rendered invalid pursuant to a withdrawal, in accordance with paragraph (a) of this section, shall be surrendered to the Administrator upon request. [Docket 27940, 61 FR 11256, Mar. 19, 1996, as amended by Amdt. 67-20, 73 FR 43066, July 24, 2008; Amdt. 67-21, 77 FR 16668, Mar. 22, 2012] § 67.403 Applications, certificates, logbooks, reports, and records: Falsification, reproduction, or alteration; incorrect statements. (a) No person may make or cause to be made— (1) A fraudulent or intentionally false statement on any application for a medical certificate or on a request for any Authorization for Special Issuance of a Medical Certificate (Authorization) or Statement of Demonstrated Ability (SODA) under this part; (2) A fraudulent or intentionally false entry in any logbook, record, or report that is kept, made, or used, to show compliance with any requirement for any medical certificate or for any Authorization or SODA under this part; (3) A reproduction, for fraudulent purposes, of any medical certificate under this part; or (4) An alteration of any medical certificate under this part. (b) The commission by any person of an act prohibited under paragraph (a) of this section is a basis for— (1) Suspending or revoking all airman, ground instructor, and medical certificates and ratings held by that person; (2) Withdrawing all Authorizations or SODA's held by that person; and (3) Denying all applications for medical certification and requests for Authorizations or SODA's. (c) The following may serve as a basis for suspending or revoking a medical certificate; withdrawing an Authorization or SODA; or denying an application for a medical certificate or request for an authorization or SODA: (1) An incorrect statement, upon which the FAA relied, made in support of an application for a medical certificate or request for an Authorization or SODA. (2) An incorrect entry, upon which the FAA relied, made in any logbook, record, or report that is kept, made, or used to show compliance with any requirement for a medical certificate or an Authorization or SODA. § 67.405 Medical examinations: Who may perform? (a) First-class. Any aviation medical examiner who is specifically designated for the purpose may perform examinations for the first-class medical certificate. (b) Second- and third-class. Any aviation medical examiner may perform examinations for the second-or third-class medical certificate. [Docket FAA-2007-27812, 73 FR 43066, July 24, 2008] § 67.407 Delegation of authority. (a) The authority of the Administrator under 49 U.S.C. 44703 to issue or deny medical certificates is delegated to the Federal Air Surgeon to the extent necessary to— (1) Examine applicants for and holders of medical certificates to determine whether they meet applicable medical standards; and (2) Issue, renew, and deny medical certificates, and issue, renew, deny, and withdraw Authorizations for Special Issuance of a Medical Certificate and Statements of Demonstrated Ability to a person based upon meeting or failing to meet applicable medical standards. (b) Subject to limitations in this chapter, the delegated functions of the Federal Air Surgeon to examine applicants for and holders of medical certificates for compliance with applicable medical standards and to issue, renew, and deny medical certificates are also delegated to aviation medical examiners and to authorized representatives of the Federal Air Surgeon within the FAA.

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(c) The authority of the Administrator under 49 U.S.C. 44702, to reconsider the action of an aviation medical examiner is delegated to the Federal Air Surgeon; the Manager, Aeromedical Certification Division; and each Regional Flight Surgeon. Where the person does not meet the standards of §§ 67.107(b)(3) and (c), 67.109(b), 67.113(b) and (c), 67.207(b)(3) and (c), 67.209(b), 67.213(b) and (c), 67.307(b)(3) and (c), 67.309(b), or 67.313(b) and (c), any action taken under this paragraph other than by the Federal Air Surgeon is subject to reconsideration by the Federal Air Surgeon. A certificate issued by an aviation medical examiner is considered to be affirmed as issued unless an FAA official named in this paragraph (authorized official) reverses that issuance within 60 days after the date of issuance. However, if within 60 days after the date of issuance an authorized official requests the certificate holder to submit additional medical information, an authorized official may reverse the issuance within 60 days after receipt of the requested information. (d) The authority of the Administrator under 49 U.S.C. 44709 to re-examine any civil airman to the extent necessary to determine an airman's qualification to continue to hold an airman medical certificate, is delegated to the Federal Air Surgeon and his or her authorized representatives within the FAA. § 67.409 Denial of medical certificate. (a) Any person who is denied a medical certificate by an aviation medical examiner may, within 30 days after the date of the denial, apply in writing to the Federal Air Surgeon, Attention: Manager, Aeromedical Certification Division, AAM-300, Federal Aviation Administration, P.O. Box 25082, Oklahoma City, Oklahoma 73126, for reconsideration of that denial. If the person does not ask for reconsideration during the 30-day period after the date of the denial, he or she is considered to have withdrawn the application for a medical certificate. (b) The denial of a medical certificate— (1) By an aviation medical examiner is not a denial by the Administrator under 49 U.S.C. 44703. (2) By the Federal Air Surgeon is considered to be a denial by the Administrator under 49 U.S.C. 44703. (3) By the Manager, Aeromedical Certification Division, or a Regional Flight Surgeon is considered to be a denial by the Administrator under 49 U.S.C. 44703 except where the person does not meet the standards of §§ 67.107(b)(3) and (c), 67.109(b), or 67.113(b) and (c); 67.207(b)(3) and (c), 67.209(b), or 67.213(b) and (c); or 67.307(b)(3) and (c), 67.309(b), or 67.313(b) and (c). (c) Any action taken under § 67.407(c) that wholly or partly reverses the issue of a medical certificate by an aviation medical examiner is the denial of a medical certificate under paragraph (b) of this section. (d) If the issue of a medical certificate is wholly or partly reversed by the Federal Air Surgeon; the Manager, Aeromedical Certification Division; or a Regional Flight Surgeon, the person holding that certificate shall surrender it, upon request of the FAA. [Docket 27940, 61 FR 11256, Mar. 19, 1996, as amended by Docket FAA-2022-1355, Amdt. 67-22, 87 FR 75845, Dec. 9, 2022] § 67.411 [Reserved]
§ 67.413 Medical records. (a) Whenever the Administrator finds that additional medical information or history is necessary to determine whether you meet the medical standards required to hold a medical certificate, you must: (1) Furnish that information to the FAA; or (2) Authorize any clinic, hospital, physician, or other person to release to the FAA all available information or records concerning that history. (b) If you fail to provide the requested medical information or history or to authorize its release, the FAA may suspend, modify, or revoke your medical certificate or, in the case of an applicant, deny the application for a medical certificate. (c) If your medical certificate is suspended, modified, or revoked under paragraph (b) of this section, that suspension or modification remains in effect until you provide the requested information, history, or authorization to the FAA and until the FAA determines that you meet the medical standards set forth in this part.

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[Docket FAA-2007-27812, 73 FR 43066, July 24, 2008] § 67.415 Return of medical certificate after suspension or revocation. The holder of any medical certificate issued under this part that is suspended or revoked shall, upon the Administrator's request, return it to the Administrator.

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SUBCHAPTER E—AIRSPACE Pt. 71 PART 71—DESIGNATION OF CLASS A, B, C, D, AND E AIRSPACE AREAS; AIR TRAFFIC SERVICE ROUTES; AND REPORTING POINTS Sec. Special Federal Aviation Regulation No. 97 [Note] 71.1 Applicability. 71.3 [Reserved] 71.5 Reporting points. 71.7 Bearings, radials, and mileages. 71.9 Overlapping airspace designations. 71.11 Air Traffic Service (ATS) routes. 71.13 Classification of Air Traffic Service (ATS) routes. 71.15 Designation of jet routes and VOR Federal airways. Subpart A—Class A Airspace 71.31 Class A airspace. 71.33 Class A airspace areas. Subpart B—Class B Airspace 71.41 Class B airspace. Subpart C—Class C Airspace 71.51 Class C airspace. Subpart D—Class D Airspace 71.61 Class D airspace. Subpart E—Class E Airspace 71.71 Class E airspace. Subparts F-G [Reserved] Subpart H—Reporting Points 71.901 Applicability. Authority: 49 U.S.C. 106(f), 106(g), 40103, 40113, 40120; E.O. 10854, 24 FR 9565, 3 CFR, 1959-1963 Comp., p.389. Source: Amdt. 71-14, 56 FR 65654, Dec. 17, 1991, unless otherwise noted. Pt. 71, SFAR No. 97, Nt. Special Federal Aviation Regulation No. 97 Editorial Note: For the text of SFAR No. 97, see part 91 of this chapter.

§ 71.1 Applicability. A listing for Class A, B, C, D, and E airspace areas; air traffic service routes; and reporting points can be found in FAA Order JO 7400.11J, Airspace Designations and Reporting Points, dated July 31, 2024. This incorporation by reference was approved by the Director of the Federal Register in accordance with 5 U.S.C. 552 (a) and 1 CFR part 51. The approval to incorporate by reference FAA Order JO 7400.11J is effective September 15, 2024, through September 15, 2025. During the incorporation by reference period, proposed changes to the listings of Class A, B, C, D, and E airspace areas; air traffic service routes; and reporting points will be published in full text as proposed rule documents in the Federal Register, unless there is good cause to forego notice and comment. Amendments to the listings of Class A, B, C, D, and E airspace areas; air traffic service routes; and reporting points will be published in full text as final rules in the Federal Register. Periodically, the final rule amendments will be integrated into a revised edition of the Order and submitted to the Director of the Federal Register for approval for incorporation by reference in this section. This incorporation by reference material is available for inspection at the Federal Aviation Administration (FAA) and at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). Contact the FAA at: Rules and Regulations Group, Federal Aviation Administration, 600 Independence Avenue SW, Washington, DC 20597; phone: (202) 267-8783. An electronic version of FAA Order JO 7400.11J is available on the FAA website at www.faa.gov/air_traffic/publications. A copy of FAA Order JO 7400.11J may be inspected in Docket No. FAA-2024-2061; Amendment No. 71-56, on www.regulations.gov. For information on the availability of this material at NARA, email fr.inspection@nara.gov or visit www.archives.gov/federal-register/cfr/ibr-locations. [Docket FAA-2024-2061, Amdt. 71-56, 89 FR 68338, Aug. 26, 2024] Effective Date Note: By Docket FAA-2024-2061, Amdt. 71-56, 89 FR 68338, Aug. 26, 2024, § 71.1 was revised, effective Sept. 15, 2024 through Sept. 15, 2025.

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§ 71.3 [Reserved]
§ 71.5 Reporting points. The reporting points listed in subpart H of FAA Order JO 7400.11J (incorporated by reference, see § 71.1) consist of geographic locations at which the position of an aircraft must be reported in accordance with part 91 of this chapter. [Docket 29334, 73 FR 54495, Sept. 22, 2008, as amended by Amdt. 71-40, 73 FR 60940, Oct. 15, 2008; Amdt. 71-41, 74 FR 46490, Sept. 10, 2009; Amdt. 71-42, 75 FR 55268, Sept. 10, 2010; Amdt. 71-43, 76 FR 53329, Aug. 26, 2011; Amdt. 71-44, 77 FR 50908, Aug. 23, 2012; Amdt. 71-45, 78 FR 52848, Aug. 27, 2013; Amdt. 71-46, 79 FR 51888, Sept. 2, 2014; Amdt. 71-47, 80 FR 51937, Aug. 27, 2015; Amdt. 71-48, 81 FR 55372, Aug. 19, 2016; Amdt. 71-49, 82 FR 40068, Aug. 24, 2017; Amdt. 71-50, 83 FR 43757, Aug. 28, 2018; Amdt. 71-51, 84 FR 45652, Aug. 30, 2019; Amdt. 71-52, 85 FR 50780, Aug. 18, 2020; Amdt. 71-53, 86 FR 46963, Aug. 23, 2021; Docket FAA-2022-1022, Amdt. 71-54, 87 FR 54878, Sept. 8, 2022; Docket FAA-2023-1785, Amdt. 71-55, 88 FR 58072, Aug. 25, 2023; Docket FAA-2024-2061, Amdt. 71-56, 89 FR 68339, Aug. 26, 2024] Effective Date Note: By Docket FAA-2024-2061, Amdt. 71-56, 89 FR 68339, Aug. 26, 2024, § 71.5 was amended by removing the words “FAA Order JO 7400.11H” and adding, in their place, the words “FAA Order JO 7400.11J, effective Sept. 15, 2024, through Sept. 15, 2025.

§ 71.7 Bearings, radials, and mileages. All bearings and radials in this part are true and are applied from point of origin and all mileages in this part are stated as nautical miles. § 71.9 Overlapping airspace designations. (a) When overlapping airspace designations apply to the same airspace, the operating rules associated with the more restrictive airspace designation apply. (b) For the purpose of this section— (1) Class A airspace is more restrictive than Class B, Class C, Class D, Class E, or Class G airspace; (2) Class B airspace is more restrictive than Class C, Class D, Class E, or Class G airspace; (3) Class C airspace is more restrictive than Class D, Class E, or Class G airspace; (4) Class D airspace is more restrictive than Class E or Class G airspace; and (5) Class E is more restrictive than Class G airspace. § 71.11 Air Traffic Service (ATS) routes. Unless otherwise specified, the following apply: (a) An Air Traffic Service (ATS) route is based on a centerline that extends from one navigation aid, fix, or intersection, to another navigation aid, fix, or intersection (or through several navigation aids, fixes, or intersections) specified for that route. (b) An ATS route does not include the airspace of a prohibited area. [Docket FAA-2003-14698, 68 FR 16947, Apr. 8, 2003, as amended by Amdt. 71-33, 70 FR 23004, May 3, 2005] § 71.13 Classification of Air Traffic Service (ATS) routes. Unless otherwise specified, ATS routes are classified as follows: (a) In subpart A of this part: (1) Jet routes. (2) Area navigation (RNAV) routes. (b) In subpart E of this part: (1) VOR Federal airways. (2) Colored Federal airways. (i) Green Federal airways. (ii) Amber Federal airways. (iii) Red Federal airways. (iv) Blue Federal airways. (3) Area navigation (RNAV) routes. [Docket FAA-2003-14698, 68 FR 16947, Apr. 8, 2003] § 71.15 Designation of jet routes and VOR Federal airways. Unless otherwise specified, the place names appearing in the descriptions of airspace areas designated as jet routes in subpart A of FAA Order JO 7400.11J, and as VOR Federal airways in subpart E of FAA Order JO 7400.11J, are the names of VOR or VORTAC navigation aids. FAA Order JO 7400.11J is incorporated by reference in § 71.1.

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[Docket 29334, 73 FR 54495, Sept. 22, 2008, as amended by Amdt. 71-40, 73 FR 60940, Oct. 15, 2008; Amdt. 71-41, 74 FR 46490, Sept. 10, 2009; Amdt. 71-42, 75 FR 55268, Sept. 10, 2010; Amdt. 71-43, 76 FR 53329, Aug. 26, 2011; Amdt. 71-44, 77 FR 50908, Aug. 23, 2012; Amdt. 71-45, 78 FR 52848, Aug. 27, 2013; Amdt. 71-46, 79 FR 51888, Sept. 2, 2014; Amdt. 71-47, 80 FR 51937, Aug. 27, 2015; Amdt. 71-48, 81 FR 55372, Aug. 19, 2016; Amdt. 71-49, 82 FR 40068, Aug. 24, 2017; Amdt. 71-50, 83 FR 43757, Aug. 28, 2018; Docket FAA-2019-0627, Amdt. 71-51, 84 FR 45652, Aug. 30, 2019; Amdt. 71-52, 85 FR 50780, Aug. 18, 2020; Amdt. 71-53, 86 FR 46963, Aug. 23, 2021; Docket FAA-2022-1022, Amdt. 71-54, 87 FR 54878, Sept. 8, 2022; Docket FAA-2023-1785, Amdt. 71-55, 88 FR 58072, Aug. 25, 2023; Docket FAA-2024-2061, Amdt. 71-56, 89 FR 68339, Aug. 26, 2024] Effective Date Note: By Docket FAA-2024-2061, Amdt. 71-56, 89 FR 68339, Aug. 26, 2024, § 71.15 was amended by removing the words “FAA Order JO 7400.11H” everywhere that they appear and adding, in their place, the words “FAA Order JO 7400.11J, effective Sept. 15, 2024, through Sept. 15, 2025.

Subpart A—Class A Airspace § 71.31 Class A airspace. The airspace descriptions contained in § 71.33 and the routes contained in subpart A of FAA Order JO 7400.11J (incorporated by reference, see § 71.1) are designated as Class A airspace within which all pilots and aircraft are subject to the rating requirements, operating rules, and equipment requirements of part 91 of this chapter. [Docket 29334, 73 FR 54495, Sept. 22, 2008, as amended by Amdt. 71-40, 73 FR 60940, Oct. 15, 2008; Amdt. 71-41, 74 FR 46490, Sept. 10, 2009; Amdt. 71-42, 75 FR 55268, Sept. 10, 2010; Amdt. 71-43, 76 FR 53329, Aug. 26, 2011; Amdt. 71-44, 77 FR 50908, Aug. 23, 2012; Amdt. 71-45, 78 FR 52848, Aug. 27, 2013; Amdt. 71-46, 79 FR 51888, Sept. 2, 2014; Amdt. 71-47, 80 FR 51937, Aug. 27, 2015; Amdt. 71-48, 81 FR 55372, Aug. 19, 2016; Amdt. 71-49, 82 FR 40068, Aug. 24, 2017; Amdt. 71-50, 83 FR 43757, Aug. 28, 2018; Amdt. 71-51, 84 FR 45652, Aug. 30, 2019; Amdt. 71-52, 85 FR 50780, Aug. 18, 2020; Amdt. 71-53, 86 FR 46963, Aug. 23, 2021; Docket FAA-2022-1022, Amdt. 71-54, 87 FR 54878, Sept. 8, 2022; Docket FAA-2023-1785, Amdt. 71-55, 88 FR 58072, Aug. 25, 2023; Docket FAA-2024-2061, Amdt. 71-56, 89 FR 68339, Aug. 26, 2024] Effective Date Note: By Docket FAA-2024-2061, Amdt. 71-56, 89 FR 68339, Aug. 26, 2024, § 71.31 was amended by removing the words “FAA Order JO 7400.11H” and adding, in their place, the words “FAA Order JO 7400.11J, effective Sept. 15, 2024, through Sept. 15, 2025.

§ 71.33 Class A airspace areas. (a) That airspace of the United States, including that airspace overlying the waters within 12 nautical miles of the coast of the 48 contiguous States, from 18,000 feet MSL to and including FL600 excluding the states of Alaska and Hawaii. (b) That airspace of the State of Alaska, including that airspace overlying the waters within 12 nautical miles of the coast, from 18,000 feet MSL to and including FL600 but not including the airspace less than 1,500 feet above the surface of the earth and the Alaska Peninsula west of longitude 160°00′00″ West. (c) The airspace areas listed as offshore airspace areas in subpart A of FAA Order JO 7400.11J (incorporated by reference, see § 71.1) that are designated in international airspace within areas of domestic radio navigational signal or ATC radar coverage, and within which domestic ATC procedures are applied. [Amdt. 71-14, 56 FR 65654, Dec. 17, 1991] Editorial Note: For Federal Register citations affecting § 71.33, see the List of CFR Sections Affected, which appears in the Finding Aids section of the printed volume and at www.govinfo.gov.

Effective Date Note: By Docket FAA-2024-2061, Amdt. 71-56, 89 FR 68339, Aug. 26, 2024, § 71.33(c) was amended by removing the words “FAA Order JO 7400.11H” and adding, in their place, the words “FAA Order JO 7400.11J, effective Sept. 15, 2024, through Sept. 15, 2025.

Subpart B—Class B Airspace § 71.41 Class B airspace. The Class B airspace areas listed in subpart B of FAA Order JO 7400.11J (incorporated by reference, see § 71.1) consist of specified airspace within which all aircraft operators are subject to the minimum pilot qualification requirements, operating rules, and aircraft equipment requirements of part 91 of this chapter. Each Class B airspace area designated for an airport in subpart B of FAA Order JO 7400.11J (incorporated by reference, see § 71.1) contains at least one primary airport around which the airspace is designated.

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[Docket 29334, 73 FR 54495, Sept. 22, 2008, as amended by Amdt. 71-40, 73 FR 60940, Oct. 15, 2008; Amdt. 71-41, 74 FR 46490, Sept. 10, 2009; Amdt. 71-42, 75 FR 55268, Sept. 10, 2010; Amdt. 71-43, 76 FR 53329, Aug. 26, 2011; Amdt. 71-44, 77 FR 50908, Aug. 23, 2012; Amdt. 71-45, 78 FR 52848, Aug. 27, 2013; Amdt. 71-46, 79 FR 51888, Sept. 2, 2014; Amdt. 71-47, 80 FR 51937, Aug. 27, 2015; Amdt. 71-48, 81 FR 55372, Aug. 19, 2016; Amdt. 71-49, 82 FR 40068, Aug. 24, 2017; Amdt. 71-50, 83 FR 43757, Aug. 28, 2018; Amdt. 71-51, 84 FR 45652, Aug. 30, 2019; Amdt. 71-52, 85 FR 50780, Aug. 18, 2020; Amdt. 71-53, 86 FR 46963, Aug. 23, 2021; Docket FAA-2022-1022, Amdt. 71-54, 87 FR 54878, Sept. 8, 2022; Docket FAA-2023-1785, Amdt. 71-55, 88 FR 58072, Aug. 25, 2023; Docket FAA-2024-2061, Amdt. 71-56, 89 FR 68339, Aug. 26, 2024] Effective Date Note: By Docket FAA-2024-2061, Amdt. 71-56, 89 FR 68339, Aug. 26, 2024, § 71.41 was amended by removing the words “FAA Order JO 7400.11H” everywhere that they appear and adding, in their place, the words “FAA Order JO 7400.11J, effective Sept. 15, 2024, through Sept. 15, 2025.

Subpart C—Class C Airspace § 71.51 Class C airspace. The Class C airspace areas listed in subpart C of FAA Order JO 7400.11J (incorporated by reference, see § 71.1) consist of specified airspace within which all aircraft operators are subject to operating rules and equipment requirements specified in part 91 of this chapter. Each Class C airspace area designated for an airport in subpart C of FAA Order JO 7400.11J. (incorporated by reference, see § 71.1) contains at least one primary airport around which the airspace is designated. [Docket 29334, 73 FR 54495, Sept. 22, 2008, as amended by Amdt. 71-40, 73 FR 60940, Oct. 15, 2008; Amdt. 71-41, 74 FR 46490, Sept. 10, 2009; Amdt. 71-42, 75 FR 55269, Sept. 10, 2010; Amdt. 71-43, 76 FR 53329, Aug. 26, 2011; Amdt. 71-44, 77 FR 50908, Aug. 23, 2012; Amdt. 71-45, 78 FR 52848, Aug. 27, 2013; Amdt. 71-46, 79 FR 51888, Sept. 2, 2014; Amdt. 71-47, 80 FR 51937, Aug. 27, 2015; Amdt. 71-48, 81 FR 55372, Aug. 19, 2016; Amdt. 71-49, 82 FR 40068, Aug. 24, 2017; Amdt. 71-50, 83 FR 43757, Aug. 28, 2018; Amdt. 71-51, 84 FR 45652, Aug. 30, 2019; Amdt. 71-52, 85 FR 50780, Aug. 18, 2020; Amdt. 71-53, 86 FR 46963, Aug. 23, 2021; Docket FAA-2022-1022, Amdt. 71-54, 87 FR 54878, Sept. 8, 2022; Docket FAA-2023-1785, Amdt. 71-55, 88 FR 58072, Aug. 25, 2023; Docket FAA-2024-2061, Amdt. 71-56, 89 FR 68339, Aug. 26, 2024] Effective Date Note: By Docket FAA-2024-2061, Amdt. 71-56, 89 FR 68339, Aug. 26, 2024, § 71.51 was amended by removing the words “FAA Order JO 7400.11H” everywhere that they appear and adding, in their place, the words “FAA Order JO 7400.11J, effective Sept. 15, 2024, through Sept. 15, 2025.

Subpart D—Class D Airspace § 71.61 Class D airspace. The Class D airspace areas listed in subpart D of FAA Order JO 7400.11J (incorporated by reference, see § 71.1) consist of specified airspace within which all aircraft operators are subject to operating rules and equipment requirements specified in part 91 of this chapter. Each Class D airspace area designated for an airport in subpart D of FAA Order JO 7400.11J (incorporated by reference, see § 71.1) contains at least one primary airport around which the airspace is designated. [Docket 29334, 73 FR 54495, Sept. 22, 2008, as amended by Amdt. 71-40, 73 FR 60940, Oct. 15, 2008; Amdt. 71-41, 74 FR 46490, Sept. 10, 2009; Amdt. 71-42, 75 FR 55269, Sept. 10, 2010; Amdt. 71-43, 76 FR 53329, Aug. 26, 2011; Amdt. 71-44, 77 FR 50908, Aug. 23, 2012; Amdt. 71-45, 78 FR 52848, Aug. 27, 2013; Amdt. 71-46, 79 FR 51888, Sept. 2, 2014; Amdt. 71-47, 80 FR 51937, Aug. 27, 2015; Amdt. 71-48, 81 FR 55372, Aug. 19, 2016; Amdt. 71-49, 82 FR 40069, Aug. 24, 2017; Amdt. 71-50, 83 FR 43757, Aug. 28, 2018; Amdt. 71-51, 84 FR 45652, Aug. 30, 2019; Amdt. 71-52, 85 FR 50780, Aug. 18, 2020; Amdt. 71-53, 86 FR 46963, Aug. 23, 2021; Docket FAA-2022-1022, Amdt. 71-54, 87 FR 54878, Sept. 8, 2022; Docket FAA-2023-1785, Amdt. 71-55, 88 FR 58072, Aug. 25, 2023; Docket FAA-2024-2061, Amdt. 71-56, 89 FR 68339, Aug. 26, 2024]

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Effective Date Note: By Docket FAA-2024-2061, Amdt. 71-56, 89 FR 68339, Aug. 26, 2024, § 71.61 was amended by removing the words “FAA Order JO 7400.11H” everywhere that they appear and adding, in their place, the words “FAA Order JO 7400.11J”, effective Sept. 15, 2024, through Sept. 15, 2025.

Subpart E—Class E Airspace § 71.71 Class E airspace. Class E Airspace consists of: (a) The airspace of the United States, including that airspace overlying the waters within 12 nautical miles of the coast of the 48 contiguous states and Alaska, extending upward from 14,500 feet MSL up to, but not including 18,000 feet MSL, and the airspace above FL600, excluding— (1) The Alaska peninsula west of longitude 160°00′00″ W.; and (2) The airspace below 1,500 feet above the surface of the earth. (b) The airspace areas designated for an airport in subpart E of FAA Order JO 7400.11J (incorporated by reference, see § 71.1) within which all aircraft operators are subject to the operating rules specified in part 91 of this chapter. (c) The airspace areas listed as domestic airspace areas in subpart E of FAA Order JO 7400.11J (incorporated by reference, see § 71.1) which extend upward from 700 feet or more above the surface of the earth when designated in conjunction with an airport for which an approved instrument approach procedure has been prescribed, or from 1,200 feet or more above the surface of the earth for the purpose of transitioning to or from the terminal or en route environment. When such areas are designated in conjunction with airways or routes, the extent of such designation has the lateral extent identical to that of a Federal airway and extends upward from 1,200 feet or higher. Unless otherwise specified, the airspace areas in the paragraph extend upward from 1,200 feet or higher above the surface to, but not including, 14,500 feet MSL. (d) The Federal airways described in subpart E of FAA Order JO 7400.11J (incorporated by reference, see § 71.1). (e) The airspace areas listed as en route domestic airspace areas in subpart E of FAA Order JO 7400.11J (incorporated by reference, see § 71.1). Unless otherwise specified, each airspace area has a lateral extent identical to that of a Federal airway and extends upward from 1,200 feet above the surface of the earth to the overlying or adjacent controlled airspace. (f) The airspace areas listed as offshore airspace areas in subpart E of FAA Order JO 7400.11J (incorporated by reference, see § 71.1) that are designated in international airspace within areas of domestic radio navigational signal or ATC radar coverage, and within which domestic ATC procedures are applied. Unless otherwise specified, each airspace area extends upward from a specified altitude up to, but not including, 18,000 feet MSL. [Docket 29334, 73 FR 54495, Sept. 22, 2008, as amended by Amdt. 71-40, 73 FR 60940, Oct. 15, 2008; Amdt. 71-41, 74 FR 46490, Sept. 10, 2009; Amdt. 71-42, 75 FR 55269, Sept. 10, 2010; Amdt. 71-43, 76 FR 53329, Aug. 26, 2011; Amdt. 71-44, 77 FR 50908, Aug. 23, 2012; Amdt. 71-45, 78 FR 52848, Aug. 27, 2013; Amdt. 71-46, 79 FR 51888, Sept. 2, 2014; Amdt. 71-47, 80 FR 51937, Aug. 27, 2015; Amdt. 71-48, 81 FR 55372, Aug. 19, 2016; Amdt. 71-49, 82 FR 40069, Aug. 24, 2017; Amdt. 71-50, 83 FR 43757, Aug. 28, 2018; Amdt. 71-51, 84 FR 45652, Aug. 30, 2019; Amdt. 71-52, 85 FR 50780, Aug. 18, 2020; Amdt. 71-53, 86 FR 46963, Aug. 23, 2021; Docket FAA-2022-1022, Amdt. 71-54, 87 FR 54878, Sept. 8, 2022; Docket FAA-2023-1785, Amdt. 71-55, 88 FR 58072, Aug. 25, 2023; Docket FAA-2024-2061, Amdt. 71-56, 89 FR 68339, Aug. 26, 2024] Effective Date Note: By Docket FAA-2024-2061, Amdt. 71-56, 89 FR 68339, Aug. 26, 2024, § 71.71(b) through (f) were amended by removing the words “FAA Order JO 7400.11H” everywhere that they appear and adding, in their place, the words “FAA Order JO 7400.11J, effective Sept. 15, 2024, through Sept. 15, 2025.

Subparts F-G [Reserved] Subpart H—Reporting Points § 71.901 Applicability. Unless otherwise designated: (a) Each reporting point listed in subpart H of FAA Order JO 7400.11J (incorporated by reference, see § 71.1) applies to all directions of flight. In any case where a geographic location is designated as a reporting point for less than all airways passing through that point, or for a particular direction of flight along an airway only, it is so indicated by including the airways or direction of flight in the designation of geographical location.

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(b) Place names appearing in the reporting point descriptions indicate VOR or VORTAC facilities identified by those names. [Docket 29334, 73 FR 54495, Sept. 22, 2008, as amended by Amdt. 71-40, 73 FR 60940, Oct. 15, 2008; Amdt. 71-41, 74 FR 46490, Sept. 10, 2009; Amdt. 71-42, 75 FR 55269, Sept. 10, 2010; Amdt. 71-43, 76 FR 53329, Aug. 26, 2011; Amdt. 71-44, 77 FR 50908, Aug. 23, 2012; Amdt. 71-45, 78 FR 52848, Aug. 27, 2013; Amdt. 71-46, 79 FR 51888, Sept. 2, 2014; Amdt. 71-47, 80 FR 51937, Aug. 27, 2015; Amdt. 71-48, 81 FR 55372, Aug. 19, 2016; Amdt. 71-49, 82 FR 40069, Aug. 24, 2017; Amdt. 71-50, 83 FR 43757, Aug. 28, 2018; Amdt. 71-51, 84 FR 45652, Aug. 30, 2019; Amdt. 71-52, 85 FR 50780, Aug. 18, 2020; Amdt. 71-53, 86 FR 46963, Aug. 23, 2021; Docket FAA-2022-1022, Amdt. 71-54, 87 FR 54878, Sept. 8, 2022; Docket FAA-2023-1785, Amdt. 71-55, 88 FR 58072, Aug. 25, 2023; Docket FAA-2024-2061, Amdt. 71-56, 89 FR 68339, Aug. 26, 2024] Effective Date Note: By Docket FAA-2024-2061, Amdt. 71-56, 89 FR 68339, Aug. 26, 2024, § 71.901(a) was amended by removing the words “FAA Order JO 7400.11H” and adding, in their place, the words “FAA Order JO 7400.11J, effective Sept. 15, 2024, through Sept. 15, 2025.

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SUBCHAPTER F—AIR TRAFFIC AND GENERAL OPERATING RULES Pt. 91 PART 91—GENERAL OPERATING AND FLIGHT RULES Special Federal Aviation Regulation No. 50-2 Special Federal Aviation Regulation No. 60 Special Federal Aviation Regulation No. 97 Special Federal Aviation Regulation No. 104 Subpart A—General Sec. 91.1 Applicability. 91.3 Responsibility and authority of the pilot in command. 91.5 Pilot in command of aircraft requiring more than one required pilot. 91.7 Civil aircraft airworthiness. 91.9 Civil aircraft flight manual, marking, and placard requirements. 91.11 Prohibition on interference with crewmembers. 91.13 Careless or reckless operation. 91.15 Dropping objects. 91.17 Alcohol or drugs. 91.19 Carriage of narcotic drugs, marihuana, and depressant or stimulant drugs or substances. 91.21 Portable electronic devices. 91.23 Truth-in-leasing clause requirement in leases and conditional sales contracts. 91.25 Aviation Safety Reporting Program: Prohibition against use of reports for enforcement purposes. 91.27-91.99 [Reserved] Subpart B—Flight Rules General 91.101 Applicability. 91.103 Preflight action. 91.105 Flight crewmembers at stations. 91.107 Use of safety belts, shoulder harnesses, and child restraint systems. 91.108 Use of supplemental restraint systems. 91.109 Flight instruction; Simulated instrument flight and certain flight tests. 91.111 Operating near other aircraft. 91.113 Right-of-way rules: Except water operations. 91.115 Right-of-way rules: Water operations. 91.117 Aircraft speed. 91.119 Minimum safe altitudes: General. 91.121 Altimeter settings. 91.123 Compliance with ATC clearances and instructions. 91.125 ATC light signals. 91.126 Operating on or in the vicinity of an airport in Class G airspace. 91.127 Operating on or in the vicinity of an airport in Class E airspace. 91.129 Operations in Class D airspace.

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91.130 Operations in Class C airspace. 91.131 Operations in Class B airspace. 91.133 Restricted and prohibited areas. 91.135 Operations in Class A airspace. 91.137 Temporary flight restrictions in the vicinity of disaster/hazard areas. 91.138 Temporary flight restrictions in national disaster areas in the State of Hawaii. 91.139 Emergency air traffic rules. 91.141 Flight restrictions in the proximity of the Presidential and other parties. 91.143 Flight limitation in the proximity of space flight operations. 91.144 Temporary restriction on flight operations during abnormally high barometric pressure conditions. 91.145 Management of aircraft operations in the vicinity of aerial demonstrations and major sporting events. 91.146 Passenger-carrying flights for the benefit of a charitable, nonprofit, or community event. 91.147 Passenger-carrying flights for compensation or hire. 91.148-91.149 [Reserved] Visual Flight Rules 91.151 Fuel requirements for flight in VFR conditions. 91.153 VFR flight plan: Information required. 91.155 Basic VFR weather minimums. 91.157 Special VFR weather minimums. 91.159 VFR cruising altitude or flight level. 91.161 Special awareness training required for pilots flying under visual flight rules within a 60-nautical mile radius of the Washington, DC VOR/DME. 91.162-91.165 [Reserved] Instrument Flight Rules 91.167 Fuel requirements for flight in IFR conditions. 91.169 IFR flight plan: Information required. 91.171 VOR equipment check for IFR operations. 91.173 ATC clearance and flight plan required. 91.175 Takeoff and landing under IFR. 91.176 Straight-in landing operations below DA/DH or MDA using an enhanced flight vision system (EFVS) under IFR. 91.177 Minimum altitudes for IFR operations. 91.179 IFR cruising altitude or flight level. 91.180 Operations within airspace designated as Reduced Vertical Separation Minimum airspace. 91.181 Course to be flown. 91.183 IFR communications. 91.185 IFR operations: Two-way radio communications failure. 91.187 Operation under IFR in controlled airspace: Malfunction reports. 91.189 Category II and III operations: General operating rules. 91.191 Category II and Category III manual. 91.193 Certificate of authorization for certain Category II operations. 91.195-91.199 [Reserved] Subpart C—Equipment, Instrument, and Certificate Requirements 91.201 [Reserved] 91.203 Civil aircraft: Certifications required. 91.205 Powered civil aircraft with standard category U.S. airworthiness certificates: Instrument and equipment requirements. 91.207 Emergency locator transmitters. 91.209 Aircraft lights. 91.211 Supplemental oxygen. 91.213 Inoperative instruments and equipment. 91.215 ATC transponder and altitude reporting equipment and use. 91.217 Data correspondence between automatically reported pressure altitude data and the pilot's altitude reference. 91.219 Altitude alerting system or device: Turbojet-powered civil airplanes. 91.221 Traffic alert and collision avoidance system equipment and use. 91.223 Terrain awareness and warning system. 91.225 Automatic Dependent Surveillance-Broadcast (ADS-B) Out equipment and use. 91.227 Automatic Dependent Surveillance-Broadcast (ADS-B) Out equipment performance requirements. 91.228-91.299 [Reserved] Subpart D—Special Flight Operations 91.301 [Reserved] 91.303 Aerobatic flight. 91.305 Flight test areas. 91.307 Parachutes and parachuting. 91.309 Towing: Gliders and unpowered ultralight vehicles. 91.311 Towing: Other than under § 91.309. 91.313 Restricted category civil aircraft: Operating limitations. 91.315 Limited category civil aircraft: Operating limitations. 91.317 Provisionally certificated civil aircraft: Operating limitations. 91.319 Aircraft having experimental certificates: Operating limitations. 91.321 Carriage of candidates in elections. 91.323 Increased maximum certificated weights for certain airplanes operated in Alaska. 91.325 Primary category aircraft: Operating limitations. 91.326 Exception to operating certain aircraft for the purposes of flight training, flightcrew member checking, or flightcrew member testing. 91.327 Aircraft having a special airworthiness certificate in the light-sport category: Operating limitations.

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91.328-91.399 [Reserved] Subpart E—Maintenance, Preventive Maintenance, and Alterations 91.401 Applicability. 91.403 General. 91.405 Maintenance required. 91.407 Operation after maintenance, preventive maintenance, rebuilding, or alteration. 91.409 Inspections. 91.410 [Reserved] 91.411 Altimeter system and altitude reporting equipment tests and inspections. 91.413 ATC transponder tests and inspections. 91.415 Changes to aircraft inspection programs. 91.417 Maintenance records. 91.419 Transfer of maintenance records. 91.421 Rebuilt engine maintenance records. 91.423-91.499 [Reserved] Subpart F—Large and Turbine-Powered Multiengine Airplanes and Fractional Ownership Program Aircraft 91.501 Applicability. 91.503 Flying equipment and operating information. 91.505 Familiarity with operating limitations and emergency equipment. 91.507 Equipment requirements: Over-the-top or night VFR operations. 91.509 Survival equipment for overwater operations. 91.511 Communication and navigation equipment for overwater operations. 91.513 Emergency equipment. 91.515 Flight altitude rules. 91.517 Passenger information. 91.519 Passenger briefing. 91.521 Shoulder harness. 91.523 Carry-on baggage. 91.525 Carriage of cargo. 91.527 Operating in icing conditions. 91.529 Flight engineer requirements. 91.531 Second in command requirements. 91.533 Flight attendant requirements. 91.535 Stowage of food, beverage, and passenger service equipment during aircraft movement on the surface, takeoff, and landing. 91.537-91.599 [Reserved] Subpart G—Additional Equipment and Operating Requirements for Large and Transport Category Aircraft 91.601 Applicability. 91.603 Aural speed warning device. 91.605 Transport category civil airplane weight limitations. 91.607 Emergency exits for airplanes carrying passengers for hire. 91.609 Flight data recorders and cockpit voice recorders. 91.611 Authorization for ferry flight with one engine inoperative. 91.613 Materials for compartment interiors. 91.615-91.699 [Reserved] Subpart H—Foreign Aircraft Operations and Operations of U.S.-Registered Civil Aircraft Outside of the United States; and Rules Governing Persons on Board Such Aircraft 91.701 Applicability. 91.702 Persons on board. 91.703 Operations of civil aircraft of U.S. registry outside of the United States. 91.705 [Reserved] 91.706 Operations within airspace designed as Reduced Vertical Separation Minimum Airspace. 91.707 Flights between Mexico or Canada and the United States. 91.709 Operations to Cuba. 91.711 Special rules for foreign civil aircraft. 91.713 Operation of civil aircraft of Cuban registry. 91.715 Special flight authorizations for foreign civil aircraft. 91.717-91.799 [Reserved] Subpart I—Operating Noise Limits 91.801 Applicability: Relation to part 36. 91.803 Part 125 operators: Designation of applicable regulations. 91.805 Final compliance: Subsonic airplanes. 91.807-91.813 [Reserved] 91.815 Agricultural and fire fighting airplanes: Noise operating limitations. 91.817 Civil aircraft sonic boom. 91.818 Special flight authorization to exceed Mach 1. 91.819 Civil supersonic airplanes that do not comply with part 36. 91.821 Civil supersonic airplanes: Noise limits. 91.823-91.849 [Reserved] 91.851 Definitions. 91.853 Final compliance: Civil subsonic airplanes. 91.855 Entry and nonaddition rule. 91.857 Stage 2 operations outside of the 48 contiguous United States. 91.858 Special flight authorizations for non-revenue Stage 2 operations. 91.859 Modification to meet Stage 3, Stage 4, or Stage 5 noise levels. 91.861 Base level. 91.863 Transfers of Stage 2 airplanes with base level. 91.865 Phased compliance for operators with base level. 91.867 Phased compliance for new entrants. 91.869 Carry-forward compliance.

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91.871 Waivers from interim compliance requirements. 91.873 Waivers from final compliance. 91.875 Annual progress reports. 91.877 Annual reporting of Hawaiian operations. 91.879-91.880 [Reserved] 91.881 Final compliance: Civil subsonic jet airplanes weighing 75,000 pounds or less. 91.883 Special flight authorizations for jet airplanes weighing 75,000 pounds or less. 91.884-91.899 [Reserved] Subpart J—Waivers 91.901 [Reserved] 91.903 Policy and procedures. 91.905 List of rules subject to waivers. 91.907-91.999 [Reserved] Subpart K—Fractional Ownership Operations 91.1001 Applicability. 91.1002 Compliance date. 91.1003 Management contract between owner and program manager. 91.1005 Prohibitions and limitations. 91.1007 Flights conducted under part 121 or part 135 of this chapter. 91.1009 Clarification of operational control. 91.1011 Operational control responsibilities and delegation. 91.1013 Operational control briefing and acknowledgment. 91.1014 Issuing or denying management specifications. 91.1015 Management specifications. 91.1017 Amending program manager's management specifications. 91.1019 Conducting tests and inspections. 91.1021 Internal safety reporting and incident/accident response. 91.1023 Program operating manual requirements. 91.1025 Program operating manual contents. 91.1027 Recordkeeping. 91.1029 Flight scheduling and locating requirements. 91.1031 Pilot in command or second in command: Designation required. 91.1033 Operating information required. 91.1035 Passenger awareness. 91.1037 Large transport category airplanes: Turbine engine powered; Limitations; Destination and alternate airports. 91.1039 IFR takeoff, approach and landing minimums. 91.1041 Aircraft proving and validation tests. 91.1043 [Reserved] 91.1045 Additional equipment requirements. 91.1047 Drug and alcohol misuse education program. 91.1049 Personnel. 91.1050 Employment of former FAA employees. 91.1053 Crewmember experience. 91.1055 Pilot operating limitations and pairing requirement. 91.1057 Flight, duty and rest time requirements; All crewmembers. 91.1059 Flight time limitations and rest requirements: One or two pilot crews. 91.1061 Augmented flight crews. 91.1062 Duty periods and rest requirements: Flight attendants. 91.1063 Testing and training: Applicability and terms used. 91.1065 Initial and recurrent pilot testing requirements. 91.1067 Initial and recurrent flight attendant crewmember testing requirements. 91.1069 Flight crew: Instrument proficiency check requirements. 91.1071 Crewmember: Tests and checks, grace provisions, training to accepted standards. 91.1073 Training program: General. 91.1075 Training program: Special rules. 91.1077 Training program and revision: Initial and final approval. 91.1079 Training program: Curriculum. 91.1081 Crewmember training requirements. 91.1083 Crewmember emergency training. 91.1085 Hazardous materials recognition training. 91.1087 Approval of aircraft simulators and other training device. 91.1089 Qualifications: Check pilots (aircraft) and check pilots (simulator). 91.1091 Qualifications: Flight instructors (aircraft) and flight instructors (simulator). 91.1093 Initial and transition training and checking: Check pilots (aircraft), check pilots (simulator). 91.1095 Initial and transition training and checking: Flight instructors (aircraft), flight instructors (simulator). 91.1097 Pilot and flight attendant crewmember training programs. 91.1099 Crewmember initial and recurrent training requirements. 91.1101 Pilots: Initial, transition, and upgrade ground training. 91.1103 Pilots: Initial, transition, upgrade, requalification, and differences flight training. 91.1105 Flight attendants: Initial and transition ground training. 91.1107 Recurrent training. 91.1109 Aircraft maintenance: Inspection program. 91.1111 Maintenance training. 91.1113 Maintenance recordkeeping. 91.1115 Inoperable instruments and equipment. 91.1411 Continuous airworthiness maintenance program use by fractional ownership program manager. 91.1413 CAMP: Responsibility for airworthiness.

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91.1415 CAMP: Mechanical reliability reports. 91.1417 CAMP: Mechanical interruption summary report. 91.1423 CAMP: Maintenance organization. 91.1425 CAMP: Maintenance, preventive maintenance, and alteration programs. 91.1427 CAMP: Manual requirements. 91.1429 CAMP: Required inspection personnel. 91.1431 CAMP: Continuing analysis and surveillance. 91.1433 CAMP: Maintenance and preventive maintenance training program. 91.1435 CAMP: Certificate requirements. 91.1437 CAMP: Authority to perform and approve maintenance. 91.1439 CAMP: Maintenance recording requirements. 91.1441 CAMP: Transfer of maintenance records. 91.1443 CAMP: Airworthiness release or aircraft maintenance log entry. Subpart L—Continued Airworthiness and Safety Improvements 91.1501 Purpose and definition. 91.1503 [Reserved] 91.1505 Repairs assessment for pressurized fuselages. 91.1507 Fuel tank system inspection program. Subpart M—Special Federal Aviation Regulations 91.1603 Special Federal Aviation Regulation No. 112—Prohibition Against Certain Flights in the Territory and Airspace of Libya. 91.1605 Special Federal Aviation Regulation No. 77—Prohibition Against Certain Flights in the Baghdad Flight Information Region (FIR) (ORBB). 91.1607 [Reserved] 91.1609 Special Federal Aviation Regulation No. 114—Prohibition Against Certain Flights in the Damascus Flight Information Region (FIR) (OSTT). 91.1611 Special Federal Aviation Regulation No. 115—Prohibition Against Certain Flights in Specified Areas of the Sanaa Flight Information Region (FIR) (OYSC). 91.1613 Special Federal Aviation Regulation No. 107—Prohibition Against Certain Flights in the Territory and Airspace of Somalia. 91.1615 Special Federal Aviation Regulation No. 79—Prohibition Against Certain Flights in the Pyongyang Flight Information Region (FIR) (ZKKP). 91.1617 Special Federal Aviation Regulation No. 117—Prohibition Against Certain Flights in the Tehran Flight Information Region (FIR) (OIIX). 91.1619 Special Federal Aviation Regulation No. 119—Prohibition Against Certain Flights in the Kabul Flight Information Region (FIR) (OAKX). Subpart N—Mitsubishi MU-2B Series Special Training, Experience, and Operating Requirements 91.1701 Applicability. 91.1703 Compliance and eligibility. 91.1705 Required pilot training. 91.1707 Training program hours. 91.1709 Training program approval. 91.1711 Aeronautical experience. 91.1713 Instruction, checking, and evaluation. 91.1715 Currency requirements and flight review. 91.1717 Operating requirements. 91.1719 Credit for prior training. 91.1721 Incorporation by reference. Appendix A to Part 91—Category II Operations: Manual, Instruments, Equipment, and Maintenance Appendixes B—C to Part 91 [Reserved] Appendix D to Part 91—Airports/Locations: Special Operating Restrictions Appendix E to Part 91—Airplane Flight Recorder Specifications Appendix F to Part 91—Helicopter Flight Recorder Specifications Appendix G to Part 91—Operations in Reduced Vertical Separation Minimum (RVSM) Airspace Authority: 49 U.S.C. 106(f), 40101, 40103, 40105, 40113, 40120, 44101, 44111, 44701, 44704, 44709, 44711, 44712, 44715, 44716, 44717, 44722, 46306, 46315, 46316, 46504, 46506-46507, 47122, 47508, 47528-47531, 47534; Pub. L. 114-190, 130 Stat. 615 (49 U.S.C. 44703 note); Sec. 828 of Pub. L. 118-63, 138 Stat. 1330 (49 U.S.C. 44703 note); articles 12 and 29 of the Convention on International Civil Aviation (61 Stat. 1180), (126 Stat. 11). Pt. 91, SFAR No. 50-2 Special Federal Aviation Regulation No. 50-2—Special Flight Rules in the Vicinity of the Grand Canyon National Park, AZ Section 1. Applicability. This rule prescribes special operating rules for all persons operating aircraft in the following airspace, designated as the Grand Canyon National Park Special Flight Rules Area:

That airspace extending upward from the surface up to but not including 14,500 feet MSL within an area bounded by a line beginning at lat. 36°09′30″ N., long. 114°03′00″ W.; northeast to lat. 36°14′00″ N., long. 113°09′50″ W.; thence northeast along the boundary of the Grand Canyon National Park to lat. 36°24′47″ N., long. 112°52′00″ W.; to lat. 36°30′30″ N., long. 112°36′15″ W. to lat. 36°21′30″ N., long. 112°00′00″ W. to lat. 36°35′30″ N., long. 111°53′10″ W., to lat. 36°53′00″ N., long. 111°36′45″ W. to lat. 36°53′00″ N., long. 111°33′00″ W.; to lat. 36°19′00″ N., long. 111°50′50″ W.; to lat. 36°17′00″ N., long. 111°42′00″ W.; to lat. 35°59′30″ N., long. 111°42′00″ W.; to lat. 35°57′30″ N., long. 112°03′55″ W.; thence counterclockwise via the 5 statute mile radius of the Grand Canyon Airport airport reference point (lat. 35°57′09″ N., long. 112°08′47″ W.) to lat. 35°57′30″ N., long. 112°14′00″ W.; to lat. 35°57′30″ N., long. 113°11′00″ W.; to lat. 35°42′30″ N., long. 113°11′00″ W.; to 35°38′30″ N.; long. 113°27′30″ W.; thence counterclockwise via the 5 statute mile radius of the Peach Springs VORTAC to lat. 35°41′20″ N., long. 113°36′00″ W.; to lat. 35°55′25″ N., long. 113°49′10″ W.; to lat. 35°57′45″ N., 113°45′20″ W.; thence northwest along the park boundary to lat. 36°02′20″ N., long. 113°50′15″ W.; to 36°00′10″ N., long. 113°53′45″ W.; thence to the point of beginning.

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Section 3. Aircraft operations: general. Except in an emergency, no person may operate an aircraft in the Special Flight Rules, Area under VFR on or after September 22, 1988, or under IFR on or after April 6, 1989, unless the operation— (a) Is conducted in accordance with the following procedures: Note: The following procedures do not relieve the pilot from see-and-avoid responsibility or compliance with FAR 91.119.

(1) Unless necessary to maintain a safe distance from other aircraft or terrain— (i) Remain clear of the areas described in Section 4; and (ii) Remain at or above the following altitudes in each sector of the canyon: Eastern section from Lees Ferry to North Canyon and North Canyon to Boundary Ridge: as prescribed in Section 5. Boundary Ridge to Supai Point (Yumtheska Point): 10,000 feet MSL. Western section from Diamond Creek to the Grant Wash Cliffs: 8,000 feet MSL. (2) Proceed through the four flight corridors describe in Section 4 at the following altitudes unless otherwise authorized in writing by the responsible Flight Standards office: Northbound 11,500 or 13,500 feet MSL Southbound >10,500 or >12,500 feet MSL (b) Is authorized in writing by the responsible Flight Standards office and is conducted in compliance with the conditions contained in that authorization. Normally authorization will be granted for operation in the areas described in Section 4 or below the altitudes listed in Section 5 only for operations of aircraft necessary for law enforcement, firefighting, emergency medical treatment/evacuation of persons in the vicinity of the Park; for support of Park maintenance or activities; or for aerial access to and maintenance of other property located within the Special Flight Rules Area. Authorization may be issued on a continuing basis. (c)(1) Prior to November 1, 1988, is conducted in accordance with a specific authorization to operate in that airspace incorporated in the operator's part 135 operations specifications in accordance with the provisions of SFAR 50-1, notwithstanding the provisions of Sections 4 and 5; and (2) On or after November 1, 1988, is conducted in accordance with a specific authorization to operate in that airspace incorporated in the operated in the operator's operations specifications and approved by the responsible Flight Standards office in accordance with the provisions of SFAR 50-2. (d) Is a search and rescue mission directed by the U.S. Air Force Rescue Coordination Center. (e) Is conducted within 3 nautical miles of Whitmore Airstrip, Pearce Ferry Airstrip, North Rim Airstrip, Cliff Dwellers Airstrip, or Marble Canyon Airstrip at an altitudes less than 3,000 feet above airport elevation, for the purpose of landing at or taking off from that facility. Or (f) Is conducted under an IFR clearance and the pilot is acting in accordance with ATC instructions. An IFR flight plan may not be filed on a route or at an altitude that would require operation in an area described in Section 4. Section 4. Flight-free zones. Except in an emergency or if otherwise necessary for safety of flight, or unless otherwise authorized by the responsible Flight Standards office for a purpose listed in Section 3(b), no person may operate an aircraft in the Special Flight Rules Area within the following areas: (a) Desert View Flight-Free Zone. Within an area bounded by a line beginning at Lat. 35°59′30″ N., Long. 111°46′20″ W. to 35°59′30″ N., Long. 111°52′45″ W.; to Lat. 36°04′50″ N., Long. 111°52′00″ W.; to Lat. 36°06′00″ N., Long. 111°46′20″ W.; to the point of origin; but not including the airspace at and above 10,500 feet MSL within 1 mile of the western boundary of the zone. The area between the Desert View and Bright Angel Flight-Free Zones is designated the “Zuni Point Corridor.” (b) Bright Angel Flight-Free Zone. Within an area bounded by a line beginning at Lat. 35°59′30″ N., Long. 111°55′30″ W.; to Lat. 35°59′30″ N., Long. 112°04′00″ W.; thence counterclockwise via the 5 statute mile radius of the Grand Canyon Airport point (Lat. 35°57′09″ N., Long. 112°08′47″ W.) to Lat. 36°01′30″ N., Long. 112°11′00″ W.; to Lat. 36°06′15″ N., Long. 112°12′50″ W.; to Lat. 36°14′40″ N., Long. 112°08′50″ W.; to Lat. 36°14′40″ N., Long. 111°57′30″ W.; to Lat. 36°12′30″ N., Long. 111°53′50″ W.; to the point of origin; but not including the airspace at and above 10,500 feet MSL within 1 mile of the eastern boundary between the southern boundary and Lat. 36°04′50″ N. or the airspace at and above 10,500 feet MSL within 2 miles of the northwest boundary. The area bounded by the Bright Angel and Shinumo Flight-Free Zones is designated the “Dragon Corridor.”

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(c) Shinumo Flight-Free Zone. Within an area bounded by a line beginning at Lat. 36°04′00″ N., Long. 112°16′40″ W.; northwest along the park boundary to a point at Lat. 36°12′47″ N., Long. 112°30′53″ W.; to Lat. 36°21′15″ N., Long. 112°20′20″ W.; east along the park boundary to Lat. 36°21′15″ N., Long. 112°13′55″ W.; to Lat. 36°14′40″ N., Long. 112°11′25″ W.; to the point of origin. The area between the Thunder River/Toroweap and Shinumo Flight Free Zones is designated the “Fossil Canyon Corridor.” (d) Toroweap/Thunder River Flight-Free Zone. Within an area bounded by a line beginning at Lat. 36°22′45″ N., Long. 112°20′35″ W.; thence northwest along the boundary of the Grand Canyon National Park to Lat. 36°17′48″ N., Long. 113°03′15″ W.; to Lat. 36°15′00″ N., Long. 113°07′10″ W.; to Lat. 36°10′30″ N., Long. 113°07′10″ W.; thence east along the Colorado River to the confluence of Havasu Canyon (Lat. 36°18′40″ N., Long. 112°45′45″ W.;) including that area within a 1.5 nautical mile radius of Toroweap Overlook (Lat. 36°12′45″ N., Long. 113°03′30″ W.); to the point of origin; but not including the following airspace designated as the “Tuckup Corridor”: at or above 10,500 feet MSL within 2 nautical miles either side of a line extending between Lat. 36°24′47″ N., Long. 112°48′50″ W. and Lat. 36°17′10″ N., Long. 112°48′50″ W.; to the point of origin. Section 5. Minimum flight altitudes. Except in an emergency or if otherwise necessary for safety of flight, or unless otherwise authorized by the responsible Flight Standards office for a purpose listed in Section 3(b), no person may operate an aircraft in the Special Flight Rules Area at an altitude lower than the following: (a) Eastern section from Lees Ferry to North Canyon: 5,000 feet MSL. (b) Eastern section from North Canyon to Boundary Ridge: 6,000 feet MSL. (c) Boundary Ridge to Supai (Yumtheska) Point: 7,500 feet MSL. (d) Supai Point to Diamond Creek: 6,500 feet MSL. (e) Western section from Diamond Creek to the Grand Wash Cliffs: 5,000 feet MSL. Section 9. Termination date. Section 1. Applicability, Section 4, Flight-free zones, and Section 5. Minimum flight altitudes, expire on April 19, 2001. Note: [Removed]

[66 FR 1003, Jan. 4, 2001, as amended at 66 FR 16584, Mar. 26, 2001; 72 FR 9846, Mar. 6, 2007; Docket FAA-2018-0119, Amdt. 91-350, 83 FR 9171, Mar. 5, 2018] Pt. 91, SFAR No. 60 Special Federal Aviation Regulation No. 60—Air Traffic Control System Emergency Operation 1. Each person shall, before conducting any operation under the Federal Aviation Regulations (14 CFR chapter I), be familiar with all available information concerning that operation, including Notices to Airmen issued under § 91.139 and, when activated, the provisions of the National Air Traffic Reduced Complement Operations Plan available for inspection at operating air traffic facilities and Regional air traffic division offices, and the General Aviation Reservation Program. No operator may change the designated airport of intended operation for any flight contained in the October 1, 1990, OAG.

2. Notwithstanding any provision of the Federal Aviation Regulations to the contrary, no person may operate an aircraft in the Air Traffic Control System: a. Contrary to any restriction, prohibition, procedure or other action taken by the Director of the Office of Air Traffic Systems Management (Director) pursuant to paragraph 3 of this regulation and announced in a Notice to Airmen pursuant to § 91.139 of the Federal Aviation Regulations. b. When the National Air Traffic Reduced Complement Operations Plan is activated pursuant to paragraph 4 of this regulation, except in accordance with the pertinent provisions of the National Air Traffic Reduced Complement Operations Plan. 3. Prior to or in connection with the implementation of the RCOP, and as conditions warrant, the Director is authorized to: a. Restrict, prohibit, or permit VFR and/or IFR operations at any airport, Class B airspace area, Class C airspace area, or other class of controlled airspace. b. Give priority at any airport to flights that are of military necessity, or are medical emergency flights, Presidential flights, and flights transporting critical Government employees. c. Implement, at any airport, traffic management procedures, that may include reduction of flight operations. Reduction of flight operations will be accomplished, to the extent practical, on a pro rata basis among and between air carrier, commercial operator, and general aviation operations. Flights cancelled under this SFAR at a high density traffic airport will be considered to have been operated for purposes of part 93 of the Federal Aviation Regulations. 4. The Director may activate the National Air Traffic Reduced Complement Operations Plan at any time he finds that it is necessary for the safety and efficiency of the National Airspace System. Upon activation of the RCOP and notwithstanding any provision of the FAR to the contrary, the Director is authorized to suspend or modify any airspace designation.

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5. Notice of restrictions, prohibitions, procedures and other actions taken by the Director under this regulation with respect to the operation of the Air Traffic Control system will be announced in Notices to Airmen issued pursuant to § 91.139 of the Federal Aviation Regulations. 6. The Director may delegate his authority under this regulation to the extent he considers necessary for the safe and efficient operation of the National Air Traffic Control System. (Authority: 49 U.S.C. app. 1301(7), 1303, 1344, 1348, 1352 through 1355, 1401, 1421 through 1431, 1471, 1472, 1502, 1510, 1522, and 2121 through 2125; articles 12, 29, 31, and 32(a) of the Convention on International Civil Aviation (61 stat. 1180); 42 U.S.C. 4321 et seq.; E.O. 11514, 35 FR 4247, 3 CFR, 1966-1970 Comp., p. 902; 49 U.S.C. 106(g)) [Docket 26351, 55 FR 40760, Oct. 4, 1990, as amended by Amdt. 91-227, 56 FR 65652, Dec. 17, 1991] Pt. 91, SFAR No. 97 Special Federal Aviation Regulation No. 97—Special Operating Rules for the Conduct of Instrument Flight Rules (IFR) Area Navigation (RNAV) Operations using Global Positioning Systems (GPS) in Alaska Those persons identified in Section 1 may conduct IFR en route RNAV operations in the State of Alaska and its airspace on published air traffic routes using TSO C145a/C146a navigation systems as the only means of IFR navigation. Despite contrary provisions of parts 71, 91, 95, 121, 125, and 135 of this chapter, a person may operate aircraft in accordance with this SFAR if the following requirements are met.

Section 1. Purpose, use, and limitations a. This SFAR permits TSO C145a/C146a GPS (RNAV) systems to be used for IFR en route operations in the United States airspace over and near Alaska (as set forth in paragraph c of this section) at Special Minimum En Route Altitudes (MEA) that are outside the operational service volume of ground-based navigation aids, if the aircraft operation also meets the requirements of sections 3 and 4 of this SFAR. b. Certificate holders and part 91 operators may operate aircraft under this SFAR provided that they comply with the requirements of this SFAR. c. Operations conducted under this SFAR are limited to United States Airspace within and near the State of Alaska as defined in the following area description: From 62°00′00.000″ N, Long. 141°00′00.00″ W.; to Lat. 59°47′54.11″ N., Long. 135°28′38.34″ W.; to Lat. 56°00′04.11″ N., Long. 130°00′07.80″ W.; to Lat. 54°43′00.00″ N., Long. 130°37′00.00″ W.; to Lat. 51°24′00.00″ N., Long. 167°49′00.00″ W.; to Lat. 50°08′00.00″ N., Long. 176°34′00.00″ W.; to Lat. 45°42′00.00″ N., Long. −162°55′00.00″ E.; to Lat. 50°05′00.00″ N., Long. −159°00′00.00″ E.; to Lat. 54°00′00.00″ N., Long. −169°00′00.00″ E.; to Lat. 60°00 00.00″ N., Long. −180°00′ 00.00″ E; to Lat. 65°00′00.00″ N., Long. 168°58′23.00″ W.; to Lat. 90°00′00.00″ N., Long. 00°00′0.00″ W.; to Lat. 62°00′00.000″ N, Long. 141°00′00.00″ W. (d) No person may operate an aircraft under IFR during the en route portion of flight below the standard MEA or at the special MEA unless the operation is conducted in accordance with sections 3 and 4 of this SFAR. Section 2. Definitions and abbreviations For the purposes of this SFAR, the following definitions and abbreviations apply. Area navigation (RNAV). RNAV is a method of navigation that permits aircraft operations on any desired flight path. Area navigation (RNAV) route. RNAV route is a published route based on RNAV that can be used by suitably equipped aircraft. Certificate holder. A certificate holder means a person holding a certificate issued under part 119 or part 125 of this chapter or holding operations specifications issued under part 129 of this chapter. Global Navigation Satellite System (GNSS). GNSS is a world-wide position and time determination system that uses satellite ranging signals to determine user location. It encompasses all satellite ranging technologies, including GPS and additional satellites. Components of the GNSS include GPS, the Global Orbiting Navigation Satellite System, and WAAS satellites. Global Positioning System (GPS). GPS is a satellite-based radio navigational, positioning, and time transfer system. The system provides highly accurate position and velocity information and precise time on a continuous global basis to properly equipped users. Minimum crossing altitude (MCA). The minimum crossing altitude (MCA) applies to the operation of an aircraft proceeding to a higher minimum en route altitude when crossing specified fixes. Required navigation system. Required navigation system means navigation equipment that meets the performance requirements of TSO C145a/C146a navigation systems certified for IFR en route operations. Route segment. Route segment is a portion of a route bounded on each end by a fix or NAVAID.

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Special MEA. Special MEA refers to the minimum en route altitudes, using required navigation systems, on published routes outside the operational service volume of ground-based navigation aids and are depicted on the published Low Altitude and High Altitude En Route Charts using the color blue and with the suffix “G.” For example, a GPS MEA of 4000 feet MSL would be depicted using the color blue, as 4000G. Standard MEA. Standard MEA refers to the minimum en route IFR altitude on published routes that uses ground-based navigation aids and are depicted on the published Low Altitude and High Altitude En Route Charts using the color black. Station referenced. Station referenced refers to radio navigational aids or fixes that are referenced by ground based navigation facilities such as VOR facilities. Wide Area Augmentation System (WAAS). WAAS is an augmentation to GPS that calculates GPS integrity and correction data on the ground and uses geo-stationary satellites to broadcast GPS integrity and correction data to GPS/WAAS users and to provide ranging signals. It is a safety critical system consisting of a ground network of reference and integrity monitor data processing sites to assess current GPS performance, as well as a space segment that broadcasts that assessment to GNSS users to support en route through precision approach navigation. Users of the system include all aircraft applying the WAAS data and ranging signal. Section 3. Operational Requirements To operate an aircraft under this SFAR, the following requirements must be met: a. Training and qualification for operations and maintenance personnel on required navigation equipment used under this SFAR. b. Use authorized procedures for normal, abnormal, and emergency situations unique to these operations, including degraded navigation capabilities, and satellite system outages. c. For certificate holders, training of flight crewmembers and other personnel authorized to exercise operational control on the use of those procedures specified in paragraph b of this section. d. Part 129 operators must have approval from the State of the operator to conduct operations in accordance with this SFAR. e. In order to operate under this SFAR, a certificate holder must be authorized in operations specifications. Section 4. Equipment Requirements a. The certificate holder must have properly installed, certificated, and functional dual required navigation systems as defined in section 2 of this SFAR for the en route operations covered under this SFAR. b. When the aircraft is being operated under part 91, the aircraft must be equipped with at least one properly installed, certificated, and functional required navigation system as defined in section 2 of this SFAR for the en route operations covered under this SFAR. Section 5. Expiration date This Special Federal Aviation Regulation will remain in effect until rescinded. [Docket FAA-2003-14305, 68 FR 14077, Mar. 21, 2003] Pt. 91, SFAR No. 104 Special Federal Aviation Regulation No. 104—Prohibition Against Certain Flights by Syrian Air Carriers to the United States 1. Applicability. This Special Federal Aviation Regulation (SFAR) No. 104 applies to any air carrier owned or controlled by Syria that is engaged in scheduled international air services.

2. Special flight restrictions. Except as provided in paragraphs 3 and 4 of this SFAR No. 104, no air carrier described in paragraph 1 may take off from or land in the territory of the United States. 3. Permitted operations. This SFAR does not prohibit overflights of the territory of the United States by any air carrier described in paragraph 1. 4. Emergency situations. In an emergency that requires immediate decision and action for the safety of the flight, the pilot in command of an aircraft of any air carrier described in paragraph 1 may deviate from this SFAR to the extent required by that emergency. Each person who deviates from this rule must, within 10 days of the deviation, excluding Saturdays, Sundays, and Federal holidays, submit to the responsible Flight Standards office a complete report of the operations or the aircraft involved in the deviation, including a description of the deviation and the reasons therefor. 5. Duration. This SFAR No. 104 will remain in effect until further notice. [Docket FAA-2004-17763, 69 FR 31719, June 4, 2004, as amended by Docket FAA-2018-0119, Amdt. 91-350, 83 FR 9171, Mar. 5, 2018] Subpart A—General Source: Docket 18334, 54 FR 34292, Aug. 18, 1989, unless otherwise noted. § 91.1 Applicability. (a) Except as provided in paragraphs (b), (c), (e), and (f) of this section and §§ 91.701 and 91.703, this part prescribes rules governing the operation of aircraft within the United States, including the waters within 3 nautical miles of the U.S. coast.

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(b) Each person operating an aircraft in the airspace overlying the waters between 3 and 12 nautical miles from the coast of the United States must comply with §§ 91.1 through 91.21; §§ 91.101 through 91.143; §§ 91.151 through 91.159; §§ 91.167 through 91.193; § 91.203; § 91.205; §§ 91.209 through 91.217; § 91.221, § 91.225; §§ 91.303 through 91.319; §§ 91.323 through 91.327; § 91.605; § 91.609; §§ 91.703 through 91.715; and § 91.903. (c) This part applies to each person on board an aircraft being operated under this part, unless otherwise specified. (d) This part also establishes requirements for operators to take actions to support the continued airworthiness of each airplane. (e) This part does not apply to any aircraft or vehicle governed by part 103 of this chapter, or subparts B, C, or D of part 101 of this chapter. (f) Except as provided in §§ 107.13, 107.27, 107.47, 107.57, and 107.59 of this chapter, this part does not apply to any aircraft governed by part 107 of this chapter. [Docket 18334, 54 FR 34292, Aug. 18, 1989, as amended by Amdt. 91-257, 64 FR 1079, Jan. 7, 1999; Amdt. 91-282, 69 FR 44880, July 27, 2004; Amdt. 91-297, 72 FR 63410, Nov. 8, 2007; Amdt. 91-314, 75 FR 30193, May 28, 2010; Docket FAA-2015-0150, Amdt. 91-343, 81 FR 42208, June 28, 2016] Effective Date Note: Amendments to § 91.1 were published by Docket FAA-2023-1275, Amdt. 60-8, 89 FR 92485, Nov. 21, 2024, effective Jan. 21, 2025. § 91.3 Responsibility and authority of the pilot in command. (a) The pilot in command of an aircraft is directly responsible for, and is the final authority as to, the operation of that aircraft. (b) In an in-flight emergency requiring immediate action, the pilot in command may deviate from any rule of this part to the extent required to meet that emergency. (c) Each pilot in command who deviates from a rule under paragraph (b) of this section shall, upon the request of the Administrator, send a written report of that deviation to the Administrator. (Approved by the Office of Management and Budget under control number 2120-0005) § 91.5 Pilot in command of aircraft requiring more than one required pilot. No person may operate an aircraft that is type certificated for more than one required pilot flight crewmember unless the pilot in command meets the requirements of § 61.58 of this chapter. § 91.7 Civil aircraft airworthiness. (a) No person may operate a civil aircraft unless it is in an airworthy condition. (b) The pilot in command of a civil aircraft is responsible for determining whether that aircraft is in condition for safe flight. The pilot in command shall discontinue the flight when unairworthy mechanical, electrical, or structural conditions occur. § 91.9 Civil aircraft flight manual, marking, and placard requirements. (a) Except as provided in paragraph (d) of this section, no person may operate a civil aircraft without complying with the operating limitations specified in the approved Airplane or Rotorcraft Flight Manual, markings, and placards, or as otherwise prescribed by the certificating authority of the country of registry. (b) No person may operate a U.S.-registered civil aircraft— (1) For which an Airplane or Rotorcraft Flight Manual is required by § 21.5 of this chapter unless there is available in the aircraft a current, approved Airplane or Rotorcraft Flight Manual or the manual provided for in § 121.141(b); and (2) For which an Airplane or Rotorcraft Flight Manual is not required by § 21.5 of this chapter, unless there is available in the aircraft a current approved Airplane or Rotorcraft Flight Manual, approved manual material, markings, and placards, or any combination thereof. (c) No person may operate a U.S.-registered civil aircraft unless that aircraft is identified in accordance with part 45 or 48of this chapter.

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(d) Any person taking off or landing a helicopter certificated under part 29 of this chapter at a heliport constructed over water may make such momentary flight as is necessary for takeoff or landing through the prohibited range of the limiting height-speed envelope established for the helicopter if that flight through the prohibited range takes place over water on which a safe ditching can be accomplished and if the helicopter is amphibious or is equipped with floats or other emergency flotation gear adequate to accomplish a safe emergency ditching on open water. [Docket 18334, 54 FR 34292, Aug. 18, 1989, as amended by Docket FAA-2022-1355, Amdt. 91-366, 87 FR 75846, Dec. 9, 2022] § 91.11 Prohibition on interference with crewmembers. No person may assault, threaten, intimidate, or interfere with a crewmember in the performance of the crewmember's duties aboard an aircraft being operated. § 91.13 Careless or reckless operation. (a) Aircraft operations for the purpose of air navigation. No person may operate an aircraft in a careless or reckless manner so as to endanger the life or property of another. (b) Aircraft operations other than for the purpose of air navigation. No person may operate an aircraft, other than for the purpose of air navigation, on any part of the surface of an airport used by aircraft for air commerce (including areas used by those aircraft for receiving or discharging persons or cargo), in a careless or reckless manner so as to endanger the life or property of another. § 91.15 Dropping objects. No pilot in command of a civil aircraft may allow any object to be dropped from that aircraft in flight that creates a hazard to persons or property. However, this section does not prohibit the dropping of any object if reasonable precautions are taken to avoid injury or damage to persons or property. § 91.17 Alcohol or drugs. (a) No person may act or attempt to act as a crewmember of a civil aircraft— (1) Within 8 hours after the consumption of any alcoholic beverage; (2) While under the influence of alcohol; (3) While using any drug that affects the person's faculties in any way contrary to safety; or (4) While having an alcohol concentration of 0.04 or greater in a blood or breath specimen. Alcohol concentration means grams of alcohol per deciliter of blood or grams of alcohol per 210 liters of breath. (b) Except in an emergency, no pilot of a civil aircraft may allow a person who appears to be intoxicated or who demonstrates by manner or physical indications that the individual is under the influence of drugs (except a medical patient under proper care) to be carried in that aircraft. (c) A crewmember shall do the following: (1) On request of a law enforcement officer, submit to a test to indicate the alcohol concentration in the blood or breath, when— (i) The law enforcement officer is authorized under State or local law to conduct the test or to have the test conducted; and (ii) The law enforcement officer is requesting submission to the test to investigate a suspected violation of State or local law governing the same or substantially similar conduct prohibited by paragraph (a)(1), (a)(2), or (a)(4) of this section. (2) Whenever the FAA has a reasonable basis to believe that a person may have violated paragraph (a)(1), (a)(2), or (a)(4) of this section, on request of the FAA, that person must furnish to the FAA the results, or authorize any clinic, hospital, or doctor, or other person to release to the FAA, the results of each test taken within 4 hours after acting or attempting to act as a crewmember that indicates an alcohol concentration in the blood or breath specimen. (d) Whenever the Administrator has a reasonable basis to believe that a person may have violated paragraph (a)(3) of this section, that person shall, upon request by the Administrator, furnish the Administrator, or authorize any clinic, hospital, doctor, or other person to release to the Administrator, the results of each test taken within 4 hours after acting or attempting to act as a crewmember that indicates the presence of any drugs in the body.

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(e) Any test information obtained by the Administrator under paragraph (c) or (d) of this section may be evaluated in determining a person's qualifications for any airman certificate or possible violations of this chapter and may be used as evidence in any legal proceeding under section 602, 609, or 901 of the Federal Aviation Act of 1958. [Docket 18334, 54 FR 34292, Aug. 18, 1989, as amended by Amdt. 91-291, June 21, 2006] § 91.19 Carriage of narcotic drugs, marihuana, and depressant or stimulant drugs or substances. (a) Except as provided in paragraph (b) of this section, no person may operate a civil aircraft within the United States with knowledge that narcotic drugs, marihuana, and depressant or stimulant drugs or substances as defined in Federal or State statutes are carried in the aircraft. (b) Paragraph (a) of this section does not apply to any carriage of narcotic drugs, marihuana, and depressant or stimulant drugs or substances authorized by or under any Federal or State statute or by any Federal or State agency. § 91.21 Portable electronic devices. (a) Except as provided in paragraph (b) of this section, no person may operate, nor may any operator or pilot in command of an aircraft allow the operation of, any portable electronic device on any of the following U.S.-registered civil aircraft: (1) Aircraft operated by a holder of an air carrier operating certificate or an operating certificate; or (2) Any other aircraft while it is operated under IFR. (b) Paragraph (a) of this section does not apply to— (1) Portable voice recorders; (2) Hearing aids; (3) Heart pacemakers; (4) Electric shavers; or (5) Any other portable electronic device that the operator of the aircraft has determined will not cause interference with the navigation or communication system of the aircraft on which it is to be used. (c) In the case of an aircraft operated by a holder of an air carrier operating certificate or an operating certificate, the determination required by paragraph (b)(5) of this section shall be made by that operator of the aircraft on which the particular device is to be used. In the case of other aircraft, the determination may be made by the pilot in command or other operator of the aircraft. § 91.23 Truth-in-leasing clause requirement in leases and conditional sales contracts. (a) Except as provided in paragraph (b) of this section, the parties to a lease or contract of conditional sale involving a U.S.-registered large civil aircraft and entered into after January 2, 1973, shall execute a written lease or contract and include therein a written truth-in-leasing clause as a concluding paragraph in large print, immediately preceding the space for the signature of the parties, which contains the following with respect to each such aircraft: (1) Identification of the Federal Aviation Regulations under which the aircraft has been maintained and inspected during the 12 months preceding the execution of the lease or contract of conditional sale, and certification by the parties thereto regarding the aircraft's status of compliance with applicable maintenance and inspection requirements in this part for the operation to be conducted under the lease or contract of conditional sale. (2) The name and address (printed or typed) and the signature of the person responsible for operational control of the aircraft under the lease or contract of conditional sale, and certification that each person understands that person's responsibilities for compliance with applicable Federal Aviation Regulations. (3) A statement that an explanation of factors bearing on operational control and pertinent Federal Aviation Regulations can be obtained from the responsible Flight Standards office.

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(b) The requirements of paragraph (a) of this section do not apply— (1) To a lease or contract of conditional sale when— (i) The party to whom the aircraft is furnished is a foreign air carrier or certificate holder under part 121, 125, 135, or 141 of this chapter, or (ii) The party furnishing the aircraft is a foreign air carrier or a person operating under part 121, 125, and 141 of this chapter, or a person operating under part 135 of this chapter having authority to engage in on-demand operations with large aircraft. (2) To a contract of conditional sale, when the aircraft involved has not been registered anywhere prior to the execution of the contract, except as a new aircraft under a dealer's aircraft registration certificate issued in accordance with § 47.61 of this chapter. (c) No person may operate a large civil aircraft of U.S. registry that is subject to a lease or contract of conditional sale to which paragraph (a) of this section applies, unless— (1) The lessee or conditional buyer, or the registered owner if the lessee is not a citizen of the United States, has mailed a copy of the lease or contract that complies with the requirements of paragraph (a) of this section, within 24 hours of its execution, to the Aircraft Registration Branch, Attn: Technical Section, P.O. Box 25724, Oklahoma City, OK 73125; (2) A copy of the lease or contract that complies with the requirements of paragraph (a) of this section is carried in the aircraft. The copy of the lease or contract shall be made available for review upon request by the Administrator, and (3) The lessee or conditional buyer, or the registered owner if the lessee is not a citizen of the United States, has notified by telephone or in person the responsible Flight Standards office. Unless otherwise authorized by that office, the notification shall be given at least 48 hours before takeoff in the case of the first flight of that aircraft under that lease or contract and inform the FAA of— (i) The location of the airport of departure; (ii) The departure time; and (iii) The registration number of the aircraft involved. (d) The copy of the lease or contract furnished to the FAA under paragraph (c) of this section is commercial or financial information obtained from a person. It is, therefore, privileged and confidential and will not be made available by the FAA for public inspection or copying under 5 U.S.C. 552(b)(4) unless recorded with the FAA under part 49 of this chapter. (e) For the purpose of this section, a lease means any agreement by a person to furnish an aircraft to another person for compensation or hire, whether with or without flight crewmembers, other than an agreement for the sale of an aircraft and a contract of conditional sale under section 101 of the Federal Aviation Act of 1958. The person furnishing the aircraft is referred to as the lessor, and the person to whom it is furnished the lessee. (Approved by the Office of Management and Budget under control number 2120-0005) [Docket 18334, 54 FR 34292, Aug. 18, 1989, as amended by Amdt. 91-212, 54 FR 39293, Sept. 25, 1989; Amdt. 91-253, 62 FR 13253, Mar. 19, 1997; Amdt. 91-267, 66 FR 21066, Apr. 27, 2001; Docket FAA-2018-0119, Amdt. 91-350, 83 FR 9171, Mar. 5, 2018] § 91.25 Aviation Safety Reporting Program: Prohibition against use of reports for enforcement purposes. The Administrator of the FAA will not use reports submitted to the National Aeronautics and Space Administration under the Aviation Safety Reporting Program (or information derived therefrom) in any enforcement action except information concerning accidents or criminal offenses which are wholly excluded from the Program. §§ 91.27-91.99 [Reserved]
Subpart B—Flight Rules Source: Docket 18334, 54 FR 34294, Aug. 18, 1989, unless otherwise noted. General § 91.101 Applicability. This subpart prescribes flight rules governing the operation of aircraft within the United States and within 12 nautical miles from the coast of the United States.

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§ 91.103 Preflight action. Each pilot in command shall, before beginning a flight, become familiar with all available information concerning that flight. This information must include— (a) For a flight under IFR or a flight not in the vicinity of an airport, weather reports and forecasts, fuel requirements, alternatives available if the planned flight cannot be completed, and any known traffic delays of which the pilot in command has been advised by ATC; (b) For any flight, runway lengths at airports of intended use, and the following takeoff and landing distance information: (1) For civil aircraft for which an approved Airplane or Rotorcraft Flight Manual containing takeoff and landing distance data is required, the takeoff and landing distance data contained therein; and (2) For civil aircraft other than those specified in paragraph (b)(1) of this section, other reliable information appropriate to the aircraft, relating to aircraft performance under expected values of airport elevation and runway slope, aircraft gross weight, and wind and temperature. § 91.105 Flight crewmembers at stations. (a) During takeoff and landing, and while en route, each required flight crewmember shall— (1) Be at the crewmember station unless the absence is necessary to perform duties in connection with the operation of the aircraft or in connection with physiological needs; and (2) Keep the safety belt fastened while at the crewmember station. (b) Each required flight crewmember of a U.S.-registered civil aircraft shall, during takeoff and landing, keep his or her shoulder harness fastened while at his or her assigned duty station. This paragraph does not apply if— (1) The seat at the crewmember's station is not equipped with a shoulder harness; or (2) The crewmember would be unable to perform required duties with the shoulder harness fastened. [Docket 18334, 54 FR 34294, Aug. 18, 1989, as amended by Amdt. 91-231, 57 FR 42671, Sept. 15, 1992] § 91.107 Use of safety belts, shoulder harnesses, and child restraint systems. (a) Unless otherwise authorized by the Administrator— (1) No pilot may take off a U.S.-registered civil aircraft (except a free balloon that incorporates a basket or gondola, or an airship type certificated before November 2, 1987) unless the pilot in command of that aircraft ensures that each person on board is briefed on how to fasten and unfasten that person's safety belt and, if installed, shoulder harness. (2) No pilot may cause to be moved on the surface, take off, or land a U.S.-registered civil aircraft (except a free balloon that incorporates a basket or gondola, or an airship type certificated before November 2, 1987) unless the pilot in command of that aircraft ensures that each person on board has been notified to fasten his or her safety belt and, if installed, his or her shoulder harness. (3) Except as provided in this paragraph, each person on board a U.S.-registered civil aircraft (except a free balloon that incorporates a basket or gondola or an airship type certificated before November 2, 1987) must occupy an approved seat or berth with a safety belt and, if installed, shoulder harness, properly secured about him or her during movement on the surface, takeoff, and landing. For seaplane and float equipped rotorcraft operations during movement on the surface, the person pushing off the seaplane or rotorcraft from the dock and the person mooring the seaplane or rotorcraft at the dock are excepted from the preceding seating and safety belt requirements. Notwithstanding the preceding requirements of this paragraph, a person may: (i) Be held by an adult, except as outlined in § 91.108(j), who is occupying an approved seat or berth, provided that the person being held has not reached his or her second birthday and does not occupy or use any restraining device;

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(ii) Use the floor of the aircraft as a seat, provided that the person is on board for the purpose of engaging in sport parachuting; or (iii) Notwithstanding any other requirement of this chapter, occupy an approved child restraint system furnished by the operator or one of the persons described in paragraph (a)(3)(iii)(A) of this section provided that: (A) The child is accompanied by a parent, guardian, or attendant designated by the child's parent or guardian to attend to the safety of the child during the flight; (B) Except as provided in paragraph (a)(3)(iii)(B)( 4 ) of this action, the approved child restraint system bears one or more labels as follows: ( 1 ) Seats manufactured to U.S. standards between January 1, 1981, and February 25, 1985, must bear the label: “This child restraint system conforms to all applicable Federal motor vehicle safety standards”; ( 2 ) Seats manufactured to U.S. standards on or after February 26, 1985, must bear two labels: ( i ) “This child restraint system conforms to all applicable Federal motor vehicle safety standards”; and ( ii ) “THIS RESTRAINT IS CERTIFIED FOR USE IN MOTOR VEHICLES AND AIRCRAFT” in red lettering; ( 3 ) Seats that do not qualify under paragraphs (a)(3)(iii)(B)( 1 ) and (a)(3)(iii)(B)( 2 ) of this section must bear a label or markings showing: ( ii ) That the seat was manufactured under the standards of the United Nations; ( iii ) That the seat or child restraint device furnished by the operator was approved by the FAA through Type Certificate or Supplemental Type Certificate; or ( iv ) That the seat or child restraint device furnished by the operator, or one of the persons described in paragraph (a)(3)(iii)(A) of this section, was approved by the FAA in accordance with § 21.8(d) of this chapter or Technical Standard Order C-100b or a later version. The child restraint device manufactured by AmSafe, Inc. (CARES, Part No. 4082) and approved by the FAA in accordance with § 21.305(d) (2010 ed.) of this chapter may continue to bear a label or markings showing FAA approval in accordance with § 21.305(d) (2010 ed.) of this chapter. ( 4 ) Except as provided in § 91.107(a)(3)(iii)(B)( 3 )( iii ) and § 91.107(a)(3)(iii)(B)( 3 )( iv ), booster-type child restraint systems (as defined in Federal Motor Vehicle Safety Standard No. 213 (49 CFR 571.213)), vest- and harness-type child restraint systems, and lap held child restraints are not approved for use in aircraft; and (C) The operator complies with the following requirements: ( 1 ) The restraint system must be properly secured to an approved forward-facing seat or berth; ( 2 ) The child must be properly secured in the restraint system and must not exceed the specified weight limit for the restraint system; and ( 3 ) The restraint system must bear the appropriate label(s). (b) Unless otherwise stated, this section does not apply to operations conducted under part 121, 125, or 135 of this chapter. Paragraph (a)(3) of this section does not apply to persons subject to § 91.105. [Docket 26142, 57 FR 42671, Sept. 15, 1992, as amended by Amdt. 91-250, 61 FR 28421, June 4, 1996; Amdt. 91-289, 70 FR 50906, Aug. 26, 2005; Amdt. 91-292, 71 FR 40009, July 14, 2006; Amdt. 91-317, 75 FR 48857, Aug. 12, 2010; Amdt. 91-332, 79 FR 28812, May 20, 2014; Docket FAA-2023-2250, Amdt. 91-376, 89 FR 67849, Aug. 22, 2024] § 91.108 Use of supplemental restraint systems. (a) Use of supplemental restraint systems. Except as provided in this section, no person may conduct an operation in a civil aircraft in which any individual on board is secured with a supplemental restraint system, as defined in § 1.1 of this chapter. (b) Doors opened or removed flight operations. Except as provided under paragraph (k) of this section: (1) No person may operate a civil aircraft with the doors opened or removed unless— (i) Each individual on board occupies an approved seat or berth with a safety belt and, if installed, shoulder harness, properly secured about the individual or an approved child restraint system properly secured to an approved seat or berth with a safety belt and, if installed, shoulder harness in accordance with § 91.107(a)(3)(iii) or § 135.128(a)(2) of this chapter, during all phases of flight; or

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(ii) Each individual on board— (A) Occupies an approved seat or berth with a safety belt and, if installed, shoulder harness, properly secured about the individual during movement on the surface, takeoff, and landing; and (B) Is secured during the remainder of the flight using a supplemental restraint system in accordance with, and that meets the requirements of, this section. (2) Prior to releasing an FAA-approved safety belt and, if installed, shoulder harness during an operation with the doors opened or removed, an individual must be properly secured by a supplemental restraint system that is connected to an FAA-approved airframe attachment point. An individual cannot release their safety belt and, if installed, shoulder harness until the pilot in command authorizes them to do so. (c) Supplemental restraint system design requirements. Each supplemental restraint system must: (1) Have a harness that secures around the torso of the individual using the supplemental restraint system; (2) Have a lanyard that connects the harness to an FAA-approved airframe attachment point or points inside the aircraft and that ensures the torso of the individual using the supplemental restraint system remains inside the aircraft at all times; (3) Not impede egress from the aircraft in an emergency after being released; and (4) Have a release mechanism that— (i) Can be quickly operated by the individual using the supplemental restraint system with minimal difficulty; (ii) Is attached to the front or side of the harness in a location easily accessible to and visible by the individual using the supplemental restraint system; (iii) Prevents inadvertent release; and (iv) Can be released without the use of a knife to cut the restraint, and without any additional tool or the assistance of any other individual. (d) Who may provide the supplemental restraint system. The supplemental restraint system may be provided by the operator or by the individual using the supplemental restraint system. An operator or individual providing a supplemental restraint system must: (1) Confirm with the pilot in command, either verbally or in writing, as determined by the pilot in command, the system's continued serviceability and readiness for its intended purpose; and (2) Ensure the individual who will occupy the supplemental restraint system complies with the sizing criteria for which the system is rated. (e) Supplemental restraint system operational requirements. The following are supplemental restraint system operational requirements: (1) A qualified person designated by the operator must— (i) Connect the supplemental restraint system to an FAA-approved airframe attachment point or points rated equal to or greater than the weight of the individual using the supplemental restraint system (or the combined weight if there is more than one supplemental restraint system attached to an attachment point); (ii) Not connect the supplemental restraint system to any airframe attachment point located in the flightdeck; and (iii) Not connect the supplemental restraint system to any safety belt or shoulder harness attachment point(s) unless the attachment point is FAA-approved as described in paragraph (e)(1)(i) of this section. (2) A supplemental restraint system must fit the individual using it based on the sizing criteria for which the supplemental restraint system is rated. (3) Nothing may attach to the supplemental restraint system that is not relevant to its function as defined under § 1.1 of this chapter. (f) Pilot in command. The pilot in command— (1) Has the overall responsibility to ensure that the supplemental restraint system meets the requirements of this section and must not permit an individual to use a supplemental restraint system that does not meet the requirements of this section;

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(2) Must receive confirmation from the operator or any individual providing the supplemental restraint system of the system's continued serviceability and readiness for its intended purpose before each takeoff; (3) May only permit an individual to use a supplemental restraint system provided by the operator or the pilot in command if that individual complies with the sizing criteria for which the supplemental restraint system is rated; (4) Has final authority regarding whether the supplemental restraint system may be used during flight operations; and (5) Has final authority to authorize an individual to release the FAA-approved safety belt and, if installed, shoulder harness and remain secured only by the supplemental restraint system. (g) Passenger briefing. Before each takeoff, the pilot in command must ensure that each passenger who intends to use a supplemental restraint system has been briefed on: (1) How to use, secure, and release the supplemental restraint system properly. This requirement is not necessary for an individual providing their own supplemental restraint system, but that individual must meet the passenger demonstration requirements in paragraph (h) of this section. (2) Means of direct communication between crewmembers and passengers during normal and emergency operating procedures regarding— (i) The use of headset and intercom systems, if installed; (ii) How passengers will be notified of an event requiring action, including emergencies, egress procedures, and other unforeseen circumstances; (iii) How each passenger will be notified when the passenger is permitted to release the FAA-approved safety belt and, if installed, shoulder harness, and move within the aircraft using the supplemental restraint system; (iv) How each passenger will be notified when the passenger must return to their seat and secure the FAA-approved safety belt and, if installed, shoulder harness; and (v) When and how to notify a crewmember of safety concerns. (h) Passenger demonstration. After the briefing required by paragraph (g) of this section, prior to ground movement, any passenger intending to use a supplemental restraint system must demonstrate to the pilot in command, a crewmember, or other qualified person designated by the operator, the following: (1) The ability to use, secure, and release the FAA-approved safety belt and, if installed, shoulder harness, and (2) The ability to accomplish all actions required for quick release of the supplemental restraint system without assistance and with minimal difficulty. (i) Individuals not permitted to use supplemental restraint systems. The following individuals are not permitted to use a supplemental restraint system, as defined in § 1.1 of this chapter: (1) Any passenger who cannot demonstrate— (i) That they are able to use, secure, and release the FAA-approved safety belt and, if installed, shoulder harness; or (ii) That they are able to release quickly the supplemental restraint system with no assistance and with minimal difficulty. (2) Any individual who is less than 15 years of age. (3) Any individual seated in the flightdeck. (4) Any passenger who occupies or uses an approved child restraint system. (j) Lap-held child. Notwithstanding any other requirement of this chapter, a child who has not reached their second birthday may not be held by an adult during civil aircraft operations when: (1) The adult uses a supplemental restraint system; or (2) The aircraft doors are opened or removed. (k) Excluded operations. Unless otherwise stated: (1) This section does not apply to operations conducted under part 105 or 133 of this chapter and does not apply to the persons described in § 91.107(a)(3)(ii) of this chapter.

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(2) Operators subject to the requirements of paragraph (b)(1) of this section may operate an aircraft with doors opened or removed, notwithstanding any flight crewmembers on board who are subject to the requirements of §§ 91.105 or 135.171 of this chapter and who need to unfasten their shoulder harnesses in accordance with those sections. (3) Paragraph (b)(2) of this section does not apply to any flight crewmembers subject to §§ 91.105 or 135.171 of this chapter to the extent that the flight crewmembers need to unfasten their shoulder harnesses in accordance with those sections. [Docket FAA-2023-2250, Amdt. 91-376, 89 FR 67849, Aug. 22, 2024] § 91.109 Flight instruction; Simulated instrument flight and certain flight tests. (a) No person may operate a civil aircraft (except a manned free balloon) that is being used for flight instruction unless that aircraft has fully functioning dual controls. However, instrument flight instruction may be given in an airplane that is equipped with a single, functioning throwover control wheel that controls the elevator and ailerons, in place of fixed, dual controls, when— (1) The instructor has determined that the flight can be conducted safely; and (2) The person manipulating the controls has at least a private pilot certificate with appropriate category and class ratings. (b) An airplane equipped with a single, functioning throwover control wheel that controls the elevator and ailerons, in place of fixed, dual controls may be used for flight instruction to conduct a flight review required by § 61.56 of this chapter, or to obtain recent flight experience or an instrument proficiency check required by § 61.57 when— (1) The airplane is equipped with operable rudder pedals at both pilot stations; (2) The pilot manipulating the controls is qualified to serve and serves as pilot in command during the entire flight; (3) The instructor is current and qualified to serve as pilot in command of the airplane, meets the requirements of § 61.195(b), and has logged at least 25 hours of pilot-in-command flight time in the make and model of airplane; and (4) The pilot in command and the instructor have determined the flight can be conducted safely. (c) No person may operate a civil aircraft in simulated instrument flight unless— (1) The other control seat is occupied by a safety pilot who possesses at least: (i) A private pilot certificate with category and class ratings appropriate to the aircraft being flown; or (ii) For purposes of providing training for a solo cross-country endorsement under § 61.93 of this chapter, a flight instructor certificate with an appropriate sport pilot rating and meets the requirements of § 61.412 of this chapter. (2) The safety pilot has adequate vision forward and to each side of the aircraft, or a competent observer in the aircraft adequately supplements the vision of the safety pilot; and (3) Except in the case of lighter-than-air aircraft, that aircraft is equipped with fully functioning dual controls. However, simulated instrument flight may be conducted in a single-engine airplane, equipped with a single, functioning, throwover control wheel, in place of fixed, dual controls of the elevator and ailerons, when— (i) The safety pilot has determined that the flight can be conducted safely; and (ii) The person manipulating the controls has at least a private pilot certificate with appropriate category and class ratings. (d) No person may operate a civil aircraft that is being used for a flight test for an airline transport pilot certificate or a class or type rating on that certificate, or for a part 121 proficiency flight test, unless the pilot seated at the controls, other than the pilot being checked, is fully qualified to act as pilot in command of the aircraft. [Docket 18334, 54 FR 34294, Aug. 18, 1989, as amended by Amdt. 91-324, 76 FR 54107, Aug. 31, 2011; Amdt. 61-142, 83 FR 30281, June 27, 2018]

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§ 91.111 Operating near other aircraft. (a) No person may operate an aircraft so close to another aircraft as to create a collision hazard. (b) No person may operate an aircraft in formation flight except by arrangement with the pilot in command of each aircraft in the formation. (c) No person may operate an aircraft, carrying passengers for hire, in formation flight. § 91.113 Right-of-way rules: Except water operations. (a) Inapplicability. This section does not apply to the operation of an aircraft on water. (b) General. When weather conditions permit, regardless of whether an operation is conducted under instrument flight rules or visual flight rules, vigilance shall be maintained by each person operating an aircraft so as to see and avoid other aircraft. When a rule of this section gives another aircraft the right-of-way, the pilot shall give way to that aircraft and may not pass over, under, or ahead of it unless well clear. (c) In distress. An aircraft in distress has the right-of-way over all other air traffic. (d) Converging. When aircraft of the same category are converging at approximately the same altitude (except head-on, or nearly so), the aircraft to the other's right has the right-of-way. If the aircraft are of different categories— (1) A balloon has the right-of-way over any other category of aircraft; (2) A glider has the right-of-way over an airship, powered parachute, weight-shift-control aircraft, airplane, or rotorcraft. (3) An airship has the right-of-way over a powered parachute, weight-shift-control aircraft, airplane, or rotorcraft. However, an aircraft towing or refueling other aircraft has the right-of-way over all other engine-driven aircraft. (e) Approaching head-on. When aircraft are approaching each other head-on, or nearly so, each pilot of each aircraft shall alter course to the right. (f) Overtaking. Each aircraft that is being overtaken has the right-of-way and each pilot of an overtaking aircraft shall alter course to the right to pass well clear. (g) Landing. Aircraft, while on final approach to land or while landing, have the right-of-way over other aircraft in flight or operating on the surface, except that they shall not take advantage of this rule to force an aircraft off the runway surface which has already landed and is attempting to make way for an aircraft on final approach. When two or more aircraft are approaching an airport for the purpose of landing, the aircraft at the lower altitude has the right-of-way, but it shall not take advantage of this rule to cut in front of another which is on final approach to land or to overtake that aircraft. [Docket 18334, 54 FR 34294, Aug. 18, 1989, as amended by Amdt. 91-282, 69 FR 44880, July 27, 2004] Effective Date Note: Amendments to § 91.113 were published by Docket FAA-2023-1275, Amdt. 60-8, 89 FR 92485, Nov. 21, 2024, effective Jan. 21, 2025. § 91.115 Right-of-way rules: Water operations. (a) General. Each person operating an aircraft on the water shall, insofar as possible, keep clear of all vessels and avoid impeding their navigation, and shall give way to any vessel or other aircraft that is given the right-of-way by any rule of this section. (b) Crossing. When aircraft, or an aircraft and a vessel, are on crossing courses, the aircraft or vessel to the other's right has the right-of-way. (c) Approaching head-on. When aircraft, or an aircraft and a vessel, are approaching head-on, or nearly so, each shall alter its course to the right to keep well clear. (d) Overtaking. Each aircraft or vessel that is being overtaken has the right-of-way, and the one overtaking shall alter course to keep well clear. (e) Special circumstances. When aircraft, or an aircraft and a vessel, approach so as to involve risk of collision, each aircraft or vessel shall proceed with careful regard to existing circumstances, including the limitations of the respective craft.

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§ 91.117 Aircraft speed. (a) Unless otherwise authorized by the Administrator, no person may operate an aircraft below 10,000 feet MSL at an indicated airspeed of more than 250 knots (288 m.p.h.). (b) Unless otherwise authorized or required by ATC, no person may operate an aircraft at or below 2,500 feet above the surface within 4 nautical miles of the primary airport of a Class C or Class D airspace area at an indicated airspeed of more than 200 knots (230 mph.). This paragraph (b) does not apply to any operations within a Class B airspace area. Such operations shall comply with paragraph (a) of this section. (c) No person may operate an aircraft in the airspace underlying a Class B airspace area designated for an airport or in a VFR corridor designated through such a Class B airspace area, at an indicated airspeed of more than 200 knots (230 mph). (d) If the minimum safe airspeed for any particular operation is greater than the maximum speed prescribed in this section, the aircraft may be operated at that minimum speed. [Docket 18334, 54 FR 34292, Aug. 18, 1989, as amended by Amdt. 91-219, 55 FR 34708, Aug. 24, 1990; Amdt. 91-227, 56 FR 65657, Dec. 17, 1991; Amdt. 91-233, 58 FR 43554, Aug. 17, 1993] § 91.119 Minimum safe altitudes: General. Except when necessary for takeoff or landing, no person may operate an aircraft below the following altitudes: (a) Anywhere. An altitude allowing, if a power unit fails, an emergency landing without undue hazard to persons or property on the surface. (b) Over congested areas. Over any congested area of a city, town, or settlement, or over any open air assembly of persons, an altitude of 1,000 feet above the highest obstacle within a horizontal radius of 2,000 feet of the aircraft. (c) Over other than congested areas. An altitude of 500 feet above the surface, except over open water or sparsely populated areas. In those cases, the aircraft may not be operated closer than 500 feet to any person, vessel, vehicle, or structure. (d) Helicopters, powered parachutes, and weight-shift-control aircraft. If the operation is conducted without hazard to persons or property on the surface— (1) A helicopter may be operated at less than the minimums prescribed in paragraph (b) or (c) of this section, provided each person operating the helicopter complies with any routes or altitudes specifically prescribed for helicopters by the FAA; and (2) A powered parachute or weight-shift-control aircraft may be operated at less than the minimums prescribed in paragraph (c) of this section. [Docket 18334, 54 FR 34294, Aug. 18, 1989, as amended by Amdt. 91-311, 75 FR 5223, Feb. 1, 2010] § 91.121 Altimeter settings. (a) Each person operating an aircraft shall maintain the cruising altitude or flight level of that aircraft, as the case may be, by reference to an altimeter that is set, when operating— (1) Below 18,000 feet MSL, to— (i) The current reported altimeter setting of a station along the route and within 100 nautical miles of the aircraft; (ii) If there is no station within the area prescribed in paragraph (a)(1)(i) of this section, the current reported altimeter setting of an appropriate available station; or (iii) In the case of an aircraft not equipped with a radio, the elevation of the departure airport or an appropriate altimeter setting available before departure; or (2) At or above 18,000 feet MSL, to 29.92″ Hg. (b) The lowest usable flight level is determined by the atmospheric pressure in the area of operation as shown in the following table:

Current altimeter setting	Lowest usable flight level
29.92 (or higher)	180
29.91 through 29.42	185
29.41 through 28.92	190
28.91 through 28.42	195
28.41 through 27.92	200
27.91 through 27.42	205
27.41 through 26.92	210

(c) To convert minimum altitude prescribed under §§ 91.119 and 91.177 to the minimum flight level, the pilot shall take the flight level equivalent of the minimum altitude in feet and add the appropriate number of feet specified below, according to the current reported altimeter setting:

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Current altimeter setting	Adjustment factor
29.92 (or higher)	None
29.91 through 29.42	500
29.41 through 28.92	1,000
28.91 through 28.42	1,500
28.41 through 27.92	2,000
27.91 through 27.42	2,500
27.41 through 26.92	3,000

§ 91.123 Compliance with ATC clearances and instructions. (a) When an ATC clearance has been obtained, no pilot in command may deviate from that clearance unless an amended clearance is obtained, an emergency exists, or the deviation is in response to a traffic alert and collision avoidance system resolution advisory. However, except in Class A airspace, a pilot may cancel an IFR flight plan if the operation is being conducted in VFR weather conditions. When a pilot is uncertain of an ATC clearance, that pilot shall immediately request clarification from ATC. (b) Except in an emergency, no person may operate an aircraft contrary to an ATC instruction in an area in which air traffic control is exercised. (c) Each pilot in command who, in an emergency, or in response to a traffic alert and collision avoidance system resolution advisory, deviates from an ATC clearance or instruction shall notify ATC of that deviation as soon as possible. (d) Each pilot in command who (though not deviating from a rule of this subpart) is given priority by ATC in an emergency, shall submit a detailed report of that emergency within 48 hours to the manager of that ATC facility, if requested by ATC. (e) Unless otherwise authorized by ATC, no person operating an aircraft may operate that aircraft according to any clearance or instruction that has been issued to the pilot of another aircraft for radar air traffic control purposes. (Approved by the Office of Management and Budget under control number 2120-0005) [Docket 18834, 54 FR 34294, Aug. 18, 1989, as amended by Amdt. 91-227, 56 FR 65658, Dec. 17, 1991; Amdt. 91-244, 60 FR 50679, Sept. 29, 1995] § 91.125 ATC light signals. ATC light signals have the meaning shown in the following table:

Color and type of signal	Meaning with respect to aircraft on the surface	Meaning with respect to aircraft in flight
Steady green	Cleared for takeoff	Cleared to land.
Flashing green	Cleared to taxi	Return for landing (to be followed by steady green at proper time).
Steady red	Stop	Give way to other aircraft and continue circling.
Flashing red	Taxi clear of runway in use	Airport unsafe—do not land.
Flashing white	Return to starting point on airport	Not applicable.
Alternating red and green	Exercise extreme caution	Exercise extreme caution.

§ 91.126 Operating on or in the vicinity of an airport in Class G airspace. (a) General. Unless otherwise authorized or required, each person operating an aircraft on or in the vicinity of an airport in a Class G airspace area must comply with the requirements of this section. (b) Direction of turns. When approaching to land at an airport without an operating control tower in Class G airspace— (1) Each pilot of an airplane must make all turns of that airplane to the left unless the airport displays approved light signals or visual markings indicating that turns should be made to the right, in which case the pilot must make all turns to the right; and (2) Each pilot of a helicopter or a powered parachute must avoid the flow of fixed-wing aircraft. (c) Flap settings. Except when necessary for training or certification, the pilot in command of a civil turbojet-powered aircraft must use, as a final flap setting, the minimum certificated landing flap setting set forth in the approved performance information in the Airplane Flight Manual for the applicable conditions. However, each pilot in command has the final authority and responsibility for the safe operation of the pilot's airplane, and may use a different flap setting for that airplane if the pilot determines that it is necessary in the interest of safety.

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(d) Communications with control towers. Unless otherwise authorized or required by ATC, no person may operate an aircraft to, from, through, or on an airport having an operational control tower unless two-way radio communications are maintained between that aircraft and the control tower. Communications must be established prior to 4 nautical miles from the airport, up to and including 2,500 feet AGL. However, if the aircraft radio fails in flight, the pilot in command may operate that aircraft and land if weather conditions are at or above basic VFR weather minimums, visual contact with the tower is maintained, and a clearance to land is received. If the aircraft radio fails while in flight under IFR, the pilot must comply with § 91.185. [Docket 24458, 56 FR 65658, Dec. 17, 1991, as amended by Amdt. 91-239, 59 FR 11693, Mar. 11, 1994; Amdt. 91-282, 69 FR 44880, July 27, 2004] § 91.127 Operating on or in the vicinity of an airport in Class E airspace. (a) Unless otherwise required by part 93 of this chapter or unless otherwise authorized or required by the ATC facility having jurisdiction over the Class E airspace area, each person operating an aircraft on or in the vicinity of an airport in a Class E airspace area must comply with the requirements of § 91.126. (b) Departures. Each pilot of an aircraft must comply with any traffic patterns established for that airport in part 93 of this chapter. (c) Communications with control towers. Unless otherwise authorized or required by ATC, no person may operate an aircraft to, from, through, or on an airport having an operational control tower unless two-way radio communications are maintained between that aircraft and the control tower. Communications must be established prior to 4 nautical miles from the airport, up to and including 2,500 feet AGL. However, if the aircraft radio fails in flight, the pilot in command may operate that aircraft and land if weather conditions are at or above basic VFR weather minimums, visual contact with the tower is maintained, and a clearance to land is received. If the aircraft radio fails while in flight under IFR, the pilot must comply with § 91.185. [Docket 24458, 56 FR 65658, Dec. 17, 1991, as amended by Amdt. 91-239, 59 FR 11693, Mar. 11, 1994] § 91.129 Operations in Class D airspace. (a) General. Unless otherwise authorized or required by the ATC facility having jurisdiction over the Class D airspace area, each person operating an aircraft in Class D airspace must comply with the applicable provisions of this section. In addition, each person must comply with §§ 91.126 and 91.127. For the purpose of this section, the primary airport is the airport for which the Class D airspace area is designated. A satellite airport is any other airport within the Class D airspace area. (b) Deviations. An operator may deviate from any provision of this section under the provisions of an ATC authorization issued by the ATC facility having jurisdiction over the airspace concerned. ATC may authorize a deviation on a continuing basis or for an individual flight, as appropriate. (c) Communications. Each person operating an aircraft in Class D airspace must meet the following two-way radio communications requirements: (1) Arrival or through flight. Each person must establish two-way radio communications with the ATC facility (including foreign ATC in the case of foreign airspace designated in the United States) providing air traffic services prior to entering that airspace and thereafter maintain those communications while within that airspace. (2) Departing flight. Each person— (i) From the primary airport or satellite airport with an operating control tower must establish and maintain two-way radio communications with the control tower, and thereafter as instructed by ATC while operating in the Class D airspace area; or (ii) From a satellite airport without an operating control tower, must establish and maintain two-way radio communications with the ATC facility having jurisdiction over the Class D airspace area as soon as practicable after departing.

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(d) Communications failure. Each person who operates an aircraft in a Class D airspace area must maintain two-way radio communications with the ATC facility having jurisdiction over that area. (1) If the aircraft radio fails in flight under IFR, the pilot must comply with § 91.185 of the part. (2) If the aircraft radio fails in flight under VFR, the pilot in command may operate that aircraft and land if— (i) Weather conditions are at or above basic VFR weather minimums; (ii) Visual contact with the tower is maintained; and (iii) A clearance to land is received. (e) Minimum altitudes when operating to an airport in Class D airspace. (1) Unless required by the applicable distance-from-cloud criteria, each pilot operating a large or turbine-powered airplane must enter the traffic pattern at an altitude of at least 1,500 feet above the elevation of the airport and maintain at least 1,500 feet until further descent is required for a safe landing. (2) Each pilot operating a large or turbine-powered airplane approaching to land on a runway served by an instrument approach procedure with vertical guidance, if the airplane is so equipped, must: (i) Operate that airplane at an altitude at or above the glide path between the published final approach fix and the decision altitude (DA), or decision height (DH), as applicable; or (ii) If compliance with the applicable distance-from-cloud criteria requires glide path interception closer in, operate that airplane at or above the glide path, between the point of interception of glide path and the DA or the DH. (3) Each pilot operating an airplane approaching to land on a runway served by a visual approach slope indicator must maintain an altitude at or above the glide path until a lower altitude is necessary for a safe landing. (4) Paragraphs (e)(2) and (e)(3) of this section do not prohibit normal bracketing maneuvers above or below the glide path that are conducted for the purpose of remaining on the glide path. (f) Approaches. Except when conducting a circling approach under part 97 of this chapter or unless otherwise required by ATC, each pilot must— (1) Circle the airport to the left, if operating an airplane; or (2) Avoid the flow of fixed-wing aircraft, if operating a helicopter. (g) Departures. No person may operate an aircraft departing from an airport except in compliance with the following: (1) Each pilot must comply with any departure procedures established for that airport by the FAA. (2) Unless otherwise required by the prescribed departure procedure for that airport or the applicable distance from clouds criteria, each pilot of a turbine-powered airplane and each pilot of a large airplane must climb to an altitude of 1,500 feet above the surface as rapidly as practicable. (h) Noise abatement. Where a formal runway use program has been established by the FAA, each pilot of a large or turbine-powered airplane assigned a noise abatement runway by ATC must use that runway. However, consistent with the final authority of the pilot in command concerning the safe operation of the aircraft as prescribed in § 91.3(a), ATC may assign a different runway if requested by the pilot in the interest of safety. (i) Takeoff, landing, taxi clearance. No person may, at any airport with an operating control tower, operate an aircraft on a runway or taxiway, or take off or land an aircraft, unless an appropriate clearance is received from ATC. [Docket 24458, 56 FR 65658, Dec. 17, 1991, as amended by Amdt. 91-234, 58 FR 48793, Sept. 20, 1993; Amdt. 91-296, 72 FR 31678, June 7, 2007; 77 FR 28250, May 14, 2012] § 91.130 Operations in Class C airspace. (a) General. Unless otherwise authorized by ATC, each aircraft operation in Class C airspace must be conducted in compliance with this section and § 91.129. For the purpose of this section, the primary airport is the airport for which the Class C airspace area is designated. A satellite airport is any other airport within the Class C airspace area.

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(b) Traffic patterns. No person may take off or land an aircraft at a satellite airport within a Class C airspace area except in compliance with FAA arrival and departure traffic patterns. (c) Communications. Each person operating an aircraft in Class C airspace must meet the following two-way radio communications requirements: (1) Arrival or through flight. Each person must establish two-way radio communications with the ATC facility (including foreign ATC in the case of foreign airspace designated in the United States) providing air traffic services prior to entering that airspace and thereafter maintain those communications while within that airspace. (2) Departing flight. Each person— (i) From the primary airport or satellite airport with an operating control tower must establish and maintain two-way radio communications with the control tower, and thereafter as instructed by ATC while operating in the Class C airspace area; or (ii) From a satellite airport without an operating control tower, must establish and maintain two-way radio communications with the ATC facility having jurisdiction over the Class C airspace area as soon as practicable after departing. (d) Equipment requirements. Unless otherwise authorized by the ATC having jurisdiction over the Class C airspace area, no person may operate an aircraft within a Class C airspace area designated for an airport unless that aircraft is equipped with the applicable equipment specified in § 91.215, and after January 1, 2020, § 91.225. (e) Deviations. An operator may deviate from any provision of this section under the provisions of an ATC authorization issued by the ATC facility having jurisdiction over the airspace concerned. ATC may authorize a deviation on a continuing basis or for an individual flight, as appropriate. [Docket 24458, 56 FR 65659, Dec. 17, 1991, as amended by Amdt. 91-232, 58 FR 40736, July 30, 1993; Amdt. 91-239, 59 FR 11693, Mar. 11, 1994; Amdt. 91-314, 75 FR 30193, May 28, 2010] § 91.131 Operations in Class B airspace. (a) Operating rules. No person may operate an aircraft within a Class B airspace area except in compliance with § 91.129 and the following rules: (1) The operator must receive an ATC clearance from the ATC facility having jurisdiction for that area before operating an aircraft in that area. (2) Unless otherwise authorized by ATC, each person operating a large turbine engine-powered airplane to or from a primary airport for which a Class B airspace area is designated must operate at or above the designated floors of the Class B airspace area while within the lateral limits of that area. (3) Any person conducting pilot training operations at an airport within a Class B airspace area must comply with any procedures established by ATC for such operations in that area. (b) Pilot requirements. (1) No person may take off or land a civil aircraft at an airport within a Class B airspace area or operate a civil aircraft within a Class B airspace area unless— (i) The pilot in command holds at least a private pilot certificate; (ii) The pilot in command holds a recreational pilot certificate and has met— (A) The requirements of § 61.101(d) of this chapter; or (B) The requirements for a student pilot seeking a recreational pilot certificate in § 61.94 of this chapter; (iii) The pilot in command holds a sport pilot certificate and has met— (A) The requirements of § 61.325 of this chapter; or (B) The requirements for a student pilot seeking a recreational pilot certificate in § 61.94 of this chapter; or (iv) The aircraft is operated by a student pilot who has met the requirements of § 61.94 or § 61.95 of this chapter, as applicable. (2) Notwithstanding the provisions of paragraphs (b)(1)(ii), (b)(1)(iii) and (b)(1)(iv) of this section, no person may take off or land a civil aircraft at those airports listed in section 4 of appendix D to this part unless the pilot in command holds at least a private pilot certificate. (c) Communications and navigation equipment requirements. Unless otherwise authorized by ATC, no person may operate an aircraft within a Class B airspace area unless that aircraft is equipped with—

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(1) For IFR operation. An operable VOR or TACAN receiver or an operable and suitable RNAV system; and (2) For all operations. An operable two-way radio capable of communications with ATC on appropriate frequencies for that Class B airspace area. (d) Other equipment requirements. No person may operate an aircraft in a Class B airspace area unless the aircraft is equipped with— (1) The applicable operating transponder and automatic altitude reporting equipment specified in § 91.215 (a), except as provided in § 91.215 (e), and (2) After January 1, 2020, the applicable Automatic Dependent Surveillance-Broadcast Out equipment specified in § 91.225. [Docket 24458, 56 FR 65658, Dec. 17, 1991, as amended by Amdt. 91-282, 69 FR 44880, July 27, 2004; Amdt. 91-296, 72 FR 31678, June 7, 2007; Amdt. 91-314, 75 FR 30193, May 28, 2010] § 91.133 Restricted and prohibited areas. (a) No person may operate an aircraft within a restricted area (designated in part 73) contrary to the restrictions imposed, or within a prohibited area, unless that person has the permission of the using or controlling agency, as appropriate. (b) Each person conducting, within a restricted area, an aircraft operation (approved by the using agency) that creates the same hazards as the operations for which the restricted area was designated may deviate from the rules of this subpart that are not compatible with the operation of the aircraft. § 91.135 Operations in Class A airspace. Except as provided in paragraph (d) of this section, each person operating an aircraft in Class A airspace must conduct that operation under instrument flight rules (IFR) and in compliance with the following: (a) Clearance. Operations may be conducted only under an ATC clearance received prior to entering the airspace. (b) Communications. Unless otherwise authorized by ATC, each aircraft operating in Class A airspace must be equipped with a two-way radio capable of communicating with ATC on a frequency assigned by ATC. Each pilot must maintain two-way radio communications with ATC while operating in Class A airspace. (c) Equipment requirements. Unless otherwise authorized by ATC, no person may operate an aircraft within Class A airspace unless that aircraft is equipped with the applicable equipment specified in § 91.215, and after January 1, 2020, § 91.225. (d) ATC authorizations. An operator may deviate from any provision of this section under the provisions of an ATC authorization issued by the ATC facility having jurisdiction of the airspace concerned. In the case of an inoperative transponder, ATC may immediately approve an operation within a Class A airspace area allowing flight to continue, if desired, to the airport of ultimate destination, including any intermediate stops, or to proceed to a place where suitable repairs can be made, or both. Requests for deviation from any provision of this section must be submitted in writing, at least 4 days before the proposed operation. ATC may authorize a deviation on a continuing basis or for an individual flight. [Docket 24458, 56 FR 65659, Dec. 17, 1991, as amended by Amdt. 91-314, 75 FR 30193, May 28, 2010] § 91.137 Temporary flight restrictions in the vicinity of disaster/hazard areas. (a) The Administrator will issue a Notice to Airmen (NOTAM) designating an area within which temporary flight restrictions apply and specifying the hazard or condition requiring their imposition, whenever he determines it is necessary in order to— (1) Protect persons and property on the surface or in the air from a hazard associated with an incident on the surface; (2) Provide a safe environment for the operation of disaster relief aircraft; or (3) Prevent an unsafe congestion of sightseeing and other aircraft above an incident or event which may generate a high degree of public interest.

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The Notice to Airmen will specify the hazard or condition that requires the imposition of temporary flight restrictions. (b) When a NOTAM has been issued under paragraph (a)(1) of this section, no person may operate an aircraft within the designated area unless that aircraft is participating in the hazard relief activities and is being operated under the direction of the official in charge of on scene emergency response activities. (c) When a NOTAM has been issued under paragraph (a)(2) of this section, no person may operate an aircraft within the designated area unless at least one of the following conditions are met: (1) The aircraft is participating in hazard relief activities and is being operated under the direction of the official in charge of on scene emergency response activities. (2) The aircraft is carrying law enforcement officials. (3) The aircraft is operating under the ATC approved IFR flight plan. (4) The operation is conducted directly to or from an airport within the area, or is necessitated by the impracticability of VFR flight above or around the area due to weather, or terrain; notification is given to the Flight Service Station (FSS) or ATC facility specified in the NOTAM to receive advisories concerning disaster relief aircraft operations; and the operation does not hamper or endanger relief activities and is not conducted for the purpose of observing the disaster. (5) The aircraft is carrying properly accredited news representatives, and, prior to entering the area, a flight plan is filed with the appropriate FAA or ATC facility specified in the Notice to Airmen and the operation is conducted above the altitude used by the disaster relief aircraft, unless otherwise authorized by the official in charge of on scene emergency response activities. (d) When a NOTAM has been issued under paragraph (a)(3) of this section, no person may operate an aircraft within the designated area unless at least one of the following conditions is met: (1) The operation is conducted directly to or from an airport within the area, or is necessitated by the impracticability of VFR flight above or around the area due to weather or terrain, and the operation is not conducted for the purpose of observing the incident or event. (2) The aircraft is operating under an ATC approved IFR flight plan. (3) The aircraft is carrying incident or event personnel, or law enforcement officials. (4) The aircraft is carrying properly accredited news representatives and, prior to entering that area, a flight plan is filed with the appropriate FSS or ATC facility specified in the NOTAM. (e) Flight plans filed and notifications made with an FSS or ATC facility under this section shall include the following information: (1) Aircraft identification, type and color. (2) Radio communications frequencies to be used. (3) Proposed times of entry of, and exit from, the designated area. (4) Name of news media or organization and purpose of flight. (5) Any other information requested by ATC. § 91.138 Temporary flight restrictions in national disaster areas in the State of Hawaii. (a) When the Administrator has determined, pursuant to a request and justification provided by the Governor of the State of Hawaii, or the Governor's designee, that an inhabited area within a declared national disaster area in the State of Hawaii is in need of protection for humanitarian reasons, the Administrator will issue a Notice to Airmen (NOTAM) designating an area within which temporary flight restrictions apply. The Administrator will designate the extent and duration of the temporary flight restrictions necessary to provide for the protection of persons and property on the surface. (b) When a NOTAM has been issued in accordance with this section, no person may operate an aircraft within the designated area unless at least one of the following conditions is met: (1) That person has obtained authorization from the official in charge of associated emergency or disaster relief response activities, and is operating the aircraft under the conditions of that authorization.

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(2) The aircraft is carrying law enforcement officials. (3) The aircraft is carrying persons involved in an emergency or a legitimate scientific purpose. (4) The aircraft is carrying properly accredited newspersons, and that prior to entering the area, a flight plan is filed with the appropriate FAA or ATC facility specified in the NOTAM and the operation is conducted in compliance with the conditions and restrictions established by the official in charge of on-scene emergency response activities. (5) The aircraft is operating in accordance with an ATC clearance or instruction. (c) A NOTAM issued under this section is effective for 90 days or until the national disaster area designation is terminated, whichever comes first, unless terminated by notice or extended by the Administrator at the request of the Governor of the State of Hawaii or the Governor's designee. [Docket 26476, 56 FR 23178, May 20, 1991, as amended by Amdt. 91-270, 66 FR 47377, Sept. 11, 2001] § 91.139 Emergency air traffic rules. (a) This section prescribes a process for utilizing Notices to Airmen (NOTAMs) to advise of the issuance and operations under emergency air traffic rules and regulations and designates the official who is authorized to issue NOTAMs on behalf of the Administrator in certain matters under this section. (b) Whenever the Administrator determines that an emergency condition exists, or will exist, relating to the FAA's ability to operate the air traffic control system and during which normal flight operations under this chapter cannot be conducted consistent with the required levels of safety and efficiency— (1) The Administrator issues an immediately effective air traffic rule or regulation in response to that emergency condition; and (2) The Administrator or the Associate Administrator for Air Traffic may utilize the NOTAM system to provide notification of the issuance of the rule or regulation. Those NOTAMs communicate information concerning the rules and regulations that govern flight operations, the use of navigation facilities, and designation of that airspace in which the rules and regulations apply. (c) When a NOTAM has been issued under this section, no person may operate an aircraft, or other device governed by the regulation concerned, within the designated airspace except in accordance with the authorizations, terms, and conditions prescribed in the regulation covered by the NOTAM. § 91.141 Flight restrictions in the proximity of the Presidential and other parties. No person may operate an aircraft over or in the vicinity of any area to be visited or traveled by the President, the Vice President, or other public figures contrary to the restrictions established by the Administrator and published in a Notice to Airmen (NOTAM). § 91.143 Flight limitation in the proximity of space flight operations. When a Notice to Airmen (NOTAM) is issued in accordance with this section, no person may operate any aircraft of U.S. registry, or pilot any aircraft under the authority of an airman certificate issued by the Federal Aviation Administration, within areas designated in a NOTAM for space flight operation except when authorized by ATC. [Docket FAA-2004-19246, 69 FR 59753, Oct. 5, 2004] § 91.144 Temporary restriction on flight operations during abnormally high barometric pressure conditions. (a) Special flight restrictions. When any information indicates that barometric pressure on the route of flight currently exceeds or will exceed 31 inches of mercury, no person may operate an aircraft or initiate a flight contrary to the requirements established by the Administrator and published in a Notice to Airmen issued under this section.

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(b) Waivers. The Administrator is authorized to waive any restriction issued under paragraph (a) of this section to permit emergency supply, transport, or medical services to be delivered to isolated communities, where the operation can be conducted with an acceptable level of safety. [Amdt. 91-240, 59 FR 17452, Apr. 12, 1994; 59 FR 37669, July 25, 1994] § 91.145 Management of aircraft operations in the vicinity of aerial demonstrations and major sporting events. (a) The FAA will issue a Notice to Airmen (NOTAM) designating an area of airspace in which a temporary flight restriction applies when it determines that a temporary flight restriction is necessary to protect persons or property on the surface or in the air, to maintain air safety and efficiency, or to prevent the unsafe congestion of aircraft in the vicinity of an aerial demonstration or major sporting event. These demonstrations and events may include: (1) United States Naval Flight Demonstration Team (Blue Angels); (2) United States Air Force Air Demonstration Squadron (Thunderbirds); (3) United States Army Parachute Team (Golden Knights); (4) Summer/Winter Olympic Games; (5) Annual Tournament of Roses Football Game; (6) World Cup Soccer; (7) Major League Baseball All-Star Game; (8) World Series; (9) Kodak Albuquerque International Balloon Fiesta; (10) Sandia Classic Hang Gliding Competition; (11) Indianapolis 500 Mile Race; (12) Any other aerial demonstration or sporting event the FAA determines to need a temporary flight restriction in accordance with paragraph (b) of this section. (b) In deciding whether a temporary flight restriction is necessary for an aerial demonstration or major sporting event not listed in paragraph (a) of this section, the FAA considers the following factors: (1) Area where the event will be held. (2) Effect flight restrictions will have on known aircraft operations. (3) Any existing ATC airspace traffic management restrictions. (4) Estimated duration of the event. (5) Degree of public interest. (6) Number of spectators. (7) Provisions for spectator safety. (8) Number and types of participating aircraft. (9) Use of mixed high and low performance aircraft. (10) Impact on non-participating aircraft. (11) Weather minimums. (12) Emergency procedures that will be in effect. (c) A NOTAM issued under this section will state the name of the aerial demonstration or sporting event and specify the effective dates and times, the geographic features or coordinates, and any other restrictions or procedures governing flight operations in the designated airspace. (d) When a NOTAM has been issued in accordance with this section, no person may operate an aircraft or device, or engage in any activity within the designated airspace area, except in accordance with the authorizations, terms, and conditions of the temporary flight restriction published in the NOTAM, unless otherwise authorized by: (1) Air traffic control; or (2) A Flight Standards Certificate of Waiver or Authorization issued for the demonstration or event. (e) For the purpose of this section: (1) Flight restricted airspace area for an aerial demonstration— The amount of airspace needed to protect persons and property on the surface or in the air, to maintain air safety and efficiency, or to prevent the unsafe congestion of aircraft will vary depending on the aerial demonstration and the factors listed in paragraph (b) of this section. The restricted airspace area will normally be limited to a 5 nautical mile radius from the center of the demonstration and an altitude 17000 mean sea level (for high performance aircraft) or 13000 feet above the surface (for certain parachute operations), but will be no greater than the minimum airspace necessary for the management of aircraft operations in the vicinity of the specified area.

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(2) Flight restricted area for a major sporting event— The amount of airspace needed to protect persons and property on the surface or in the air, to maintain air safety and efficiency, or to prevent the unsafe congestion of aircraft will vary depending on the size of the event and the factors listed in paragraph (b) of this section. The restricted airspace will normally be limited to a 3 nautical mile radius from the center of the event and 2500 feet above the surface but will not be greater than the minimum airspace necessary for the management of aircraft operations in the vicinity of the specified area. (f) A NOTAM issued under this section will be issued at least 30 days in advance of an aerial demonstration or a major sporting event, unless the FAA finds good cause for a shorter period and explains this in the NOTAM. (g) When warranted, the FAA Administrator may exclude the following flights from the provisions of this section: (1) Essential military. (2) Medical and rescue. (3) Presidential and Vice Presidential. (4) Visiting heads of state. (5) Law enforcement and security. (6) Public health and welfare. [Docket FAA-2000-8274, 66 FR 47378, Sept. 11, 2001] § 91.146 Passenger-carrying flights for the benefit of a charitable, nonprofit, or community event. (a) Definitions. For purposes of this section, the following definitions apply: Charitable event means an event that raises funds for the benefit of a charitable organization recognized by the Department of the Treasury whose donors may deduct contributions under section 170 of the Internal Revenue Code (26 U.S.C. Section 170). Community event means an event that raises funds for the benefit of any local or community cause that is not a charitable event or non-profit event. Non-profit event means an event that raises funds for the benefit of a non-profit organization recognized under State or Federal law, as long as one of the organization's purposes is the promotion of aviation safety. (b) Passenger-carrying flights in airplanes, powered-lift, or rotorcraft for the benefit of a charitable, nonprofit, or community event identified in paragraph (c) of this section are not subject to the certification requirements of part 119 of this chapter or the drug and alcohol testing requirements in part 120 of this chapter, provided the following conditions are satisfied and the limitations in paragraphs (c) and (d) of this section are not exceeded: (1) The flight is nonstop and begins and ends at the same airport and is conducted within a 25-statute mile radius of that airport; (2) The flight is conducted from a public airport that is adequate for the aircraft used, or from another location the FAA approves for the operation; (3) The aircraft has a maximum of 30 seats, excluding each crewmember seat, and a maximum payload capacity of 7,500 pounds; (4) The flight is not an aerobatic or a formation flight; (5) Each aircraft holds a standard airworthiness certificate, is airworthy, and is operated in compliance with the applicable requirements of subpart E of this part; (6) Each flight is made during day VFR conditions; (7) Reimbursement of the operator of the aircraft is limited to that portion of the passenger payment for the flight that does not exceed the pro rata cost of owning, operating, and maintaining the aircraft for that flight, which may include fuel, oil, airport expenditures, and rental fees; (8) The beneficiary of the funds raised is not in the business of transportation by air; (9) A private pilot acting as pilot in command has at least 500 hours of flight time; (10) Each flight is conducted in accordance with the safety provisions of part 136, subpart A of this chapter; and (11) Flights are not conducted over a national park, unit of a national park, or abutting tribal lands, unless the operator has secured a letter of agreement from the FAA, as specified under subpart B of part 136 of this chapter, and is operating in accordance with that agreement during the flights.

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(c) (1) Passenger-carrying flights or series of flights are limited to a total of four charitable events or non-profit events per year, with no event lasting more than three consecutive days. (2) Passenger-carrying flights or series of flights are limited to one community event per year, with no event lasting more than three consecutive days. (d) Pilots and sponsors of events described in this section are limited to no more than 4 events per calendar year. (e) At least seven days before the event, each sponsor of an event described in this section must furnish to the responsible Flight Standards office for the area where the event is scheduled: (1) A signed letter detailing the name of the sponsor, the purpose of the event, the date and time of the event, the location of the event, all prior events under this section participated in by the sponsor in the current calendar year; (2) A photocopy of each pilot in command's pilot certificate, medical certificate, and logbook entries that show the pilot is current in accordance with §§ 61.56 and 61.57 of this chapter and that any private pilot has at least 500 hours of flight time; and (3) A signed statement from each pilot that lists all prior events under this section in which the pilot has participated during the current calendar year. [Docket FAA-1998-4521, 72 FR 6910, Feb. 13, 2007, as amended by Amdt. 91-308, 74 FR 32804, July 9, 2009; Docket FAA-2018-0119, Amdt. 91-350, 83 FR 9171, Mar. 5, 2018; Docket FAA-2022-1563, Amdt. 91-370, 88 FR 48087, July 26, 2023] § 91.147 Passenger-carrying flights for compensation or hire. (a) Definitions. For the purposes of this section, Operator means any person conducting nonstop passenger-carrying flights in an airplane, powered-lift, or rotorcraft for compensation or hire in accordance with §§ 119.1(e)(2), 135.1(a)(5), or 121.1(d) of this chapter that begin and end at the same airport and are conducted within a 25-statute mile radius of that airport. (b) General requirements. An Operator conducting passenger-carrying flights for compensation or hire must meet the following requirements unless all flights are conducted under § 91.146. The Operator must: (1) Comply with the safety provisions of part 136, subpart A of this chapter. (2) Register and implement its drug and alcohol testing programs in accordance with part 120 of this chapter. (3) Comply with the applicable requirements of part 5 of this chapter. (4) Apply for and receive a Letter of Authorization from the responsible Flight Standards office. (c) Letter of Authorization. Each application for a Letter of Authorization must include the following information: (1) Name of Operator, agent, and any d/b/a (doing-business-as) under which that Operator does business. (2) Principal business address and mailing address. (3) Principal place of business (if different from business address). (4) Name of person responsible for management of the business. (5) Name of person responsible for aircraft maintenance. (6) Type of aircraft, registration number(s), and make/model/series. (7) Antidrug and Alcohol Misuse Prevention Program registration. (d) Compliance. The Operator must comply with the provisions of the Letter of Authorization received. [Docket FAA-2021-0419, Amdt. 91-374, 89 FR 33108, Apr. 26, 2024] §§ 91.148-91.149 [Reserved]
Visual Flight Rules § 91.151 Fuel requirements for flight in VFR conditions. (a) No person may begin a flight in an airplane under VFR conditions unless (considering wind and forecast weather conditions) there is enough fuel to fly to the first point of intended landing and, assuming normal cruising speed— (1) During the day, to fly after that for at least 30 minutes; or (2) At night, to fly after that for at least 45 minutes. (b) No person may begin a flight in a rotorcraft under VFR conditions unless (considering wind and forecast weather conditions) there is enough fuel to fly to the first point of intended landing and, assuming normal cruising speed, to fly after that for at least 20 minutes.

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§ 91.153 VFR flight plan: Information required. (a) Information required. Unless otherwise authorized by ATC, each person filing a VFR flight plan shall include in it the following information: (1) The aircraft identification number and, if necessary, its radio call sign. (2) The type of the aircraft or, in the case of a formation flight, the type of each aircraft and the number of aircraft in the formation. (3) The full name and address of the pilot in command or, in the case of a formation flight, the formation commander. (4) The point and proposed time of departure. (5) The proposed route, cruising altitude (or flight level), and true airspeed at that altitude. (6) The point of first intended landing and the estimated elapsed time until over that point. (7) The amount of fuel on board (in hours). (8) The number of persons in the aircraft, except where that information is otherwise readily available to the FAA. (9) Any other information the pilot in command or ATC believes is necessary for ATC purposes. (b) Cancellation. When a flight plan has been activated, the pilot in command, upon canceling or completing the flight under the flight plan, shall notify an FAA Flight Service Station or ATC facility. § 91.155 Basic VFR weather minimums. (a) Except as provided in paragraph (b) of this section and § 91.157, no person may operate an aircraft under VFR when the flight visibility is less, or at a distance from clouds that is less, than that prescribed for the corresponding altitude and class of airspace in the following table:

Airspace	Flight visibility	Distance from clouds
Class A	Not Applicable	Not Applicable.
Class B	3 statute miles	Clear of Clouds.
Class C	3 statute miles	500 feet below.
		1,000 feet above.
		2,000 feet horizontal.
Class D	3 statute miles	500 feet below.
		1,000 feet above.
		2,000 feet horizontal.
Class E:
Less than 10,000 feet MSL	3 statute miles	500 feet below.
		1,000 feet above.
		2,000 feet horizontal.
At or above 10,000 feet MSL	5 statute miles	1,000 feet below.
		1,000 feet above.
		1 statute mile horizontal.
Class G:
1,200 feet or less above the surface (regardless of MSL altitude)
For aircraft other than helicopters:
Day, except as provided in § 91.155(b)	1 statute mile	Clear of clouds.
Night, except as provided in § 91.155(b)	3 statute miles	500 feet below.
		1,000 feet above.
		2,000 feet horizontal.
For helicopters:
Day	1/2 statute mile	Clear of clouds
Night, except as provided in § 91.155(b)	1 statute mile	Clear of clouds.
More than 1,200 feet above the surface but less than 10,000 feet MSL
Day	1 statute mile	500 feet below.
		1,000 feet above.
		2,000 feet horizontal.
Night	3 statute miles	500 feet below.
		1,000 feet above.
		2,000 feet horizontal.
More than 1,200 feet above the surface and at or above 10,000 feet MSL	5 statute miles	1,000 feet below.
		1,000 feet above.
		1 statute mile horizontal.

(b) Class G Airspace. Notwithstanding the provisions of paragraph (a) of this section, the following operations may be conducted in Class G airspace below 1,200 feet above the surface:

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(1) Helicopter. A helicopter may be operated clear of clouds in an airport traffic pattern within 1/2 mile of the runway or helipad of intended landing if the flight visibility is not less than 1/2 statute mile. (2) Airplane, powered parachute, or weight-shift-control aircraft. If the visibility is less than 3 statute miles but not less than 1 statute mile during night hours and you are operating in an airport traffic pattern within 1/2 mile of the runway, you may operate an airplane, powered parachute, or weight-shift-control aircraft clear of clouds. (c) Except as provided in § 91.157, no person may operate an aircraft beneath the ceiling under VFR within the lateral boundaries of controlled airspace designated to the surface for an airport when the ceiling is less than 1,000 feet. (d) Except as provided in § 91.157 of this part, no person may take off or land an aircraft, or enter the traffic pattern of an airport, under VFR, within the lateral boundaries of the surface areas of Class B, Class C, Class D, or Class E airspace designated for an airport— (1) Unless ground visibility at that airport is at least 3 statute miles; or (2) If ground visibility is not reported at that airport, unless flight visibility during landing or takeoff, or while operating in the traffic pattern is at least 3 statute miles. (e) For the purpose of this section, an aircraft operating at the base altitude of a Class E airspace area is considered to be within the airspace directly below that area. [Docket 24458, 56 FR 65660, Dec. 17, 1991, as amended by Amdt. 91-235, 58 FR 51968, Oct. 5, 1993; Amdt. 91-282, 69 FR 44880, July 27, 2004; Amdt. 91-330, 79 FR 9972, Feb. 21, 2014; Amdt. 91-330A, 79 FR 41125, July 15, 2014] § 91.157 Special VFR weather minimums. (a) Except as provided in appendix D, section 3, of this part, special VFR operations may be conducted under the weather minimums and requirements of this section, instead of those contained in § 91.155, below 10,000 feet MSL within the airspace contained by the upward extension of the lateral boundaries of the controlled airspace designated to the surface for an airport. (b) Special VFR operations may only be conducted— (1) With an ATC clearance; (2) Clear of clouds; (3) Except for helicopters, when flight visibility is at least 1 statute mile; and (4) Except for helicopters, between sunrise and sunset (or in Alaska, when the sun is 6 degrees or less below the horizon) unless— (i) The person being granted the ATC clearance meets the applicable requirements for instrument flight under part 61 of this chapter; and (ii) The aircraft is equipped as required in § 91.205(d). (c) No person may take off or land an aircraft (other than a helicopter) under special VFR— (1) Unless ground visibility is at least 1 statute mile; or (2) If ground visibility is not reported, unless flight visibility is at least 1 statute mile. For the purposes of this paragraph, the term flight visibility includes the visibility from the cockpit of an aircraft in takeoff position if: (i) The flight is conducted under this part 91; and (ii) The airport at which the aircraft is located is a satellite airport that does not have weather reporting capabilities. (d) The determination of visibility by a pilot in accordance with paragraph (c)(2) of this section is not an official weather report or an official ground visibility report. [Amdt. 91-235, 58 FR 51968, Oct. 5, 1993, as amended by Amdt. 91-247, 60 FR 66874, Dec. 27, 1995; Amdt. 91-262, 65 FR 16116, Mar. 24, 2000; Docket FAA-2022-1355, Amdt. 91-366, 87 FR 75846, Dec. 9, 2022] § 91.159 VFR cruising altitude or flight level. Except while holding in a holding pattern of 2 minutes or less, or while turning, each person operating an aircraft under VFR in level cruising flight more than 3,000 feet above the surface shall maintain the appropriate altitude or flight level prescribed below, unless otherwise authorized by ATC: (a) When operating below 18,000 feet MSL and—

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(1) On a magnetic course of zero degrees through 179 degrees, any odd thousand foot MSL altitude + 500 feet (such as 3,500, 5,500, or 7,500); or (2) On a magnetic course of 180 degrees through 359 degrees, any even thousand foot MSL altitude + 500 feet (such as 4,500, 6,500, or 8,500). (b) When operating above 18,000 feet MSL, maintain the altitude or flight level assigned by ATC. [Docket 18334, 54 FR 34294, Aug. 18, 1989, as amended by Amdt. 91-276, 68 FR 61321, Oct. 27, 2003; 68 FR 70133, Dec. 17, 2003] § 91.161 Special awareness training required for pilots flying under visual flight rules within a 60-nautical mile radius of the Washington, DC VOR/DME. (a) Operations within a 60-nautical mile radius of the Washington, DC VOR/DME under visual flight rules (VFR). Except as provided under paragraph (e) of this section, no person may serve as a pilot in command or as second in command of an aircraft while flying within a 60-nautical mile radius of the DCA VOR/DME, under VFR, unless that pilot has completed Special Awareness Training and holds a certificate of training completion. (b) Special Awareness Training. The Special Awareness Training consists of information to educate pilots about the procedures for flying in the Washington, DC area and, more generally, in other types of special use airspace. This free training is available on the FAA's Web site. Upon completion of the training, each person will need to print out a copy of the certificate of training completion. (c) Inspection of certificate of training completion. Each person who holds a certificate for completing the Special Awareness Training must present it for inspection upon request from: (1) An authorized representative of the FAA; (2) An authorized representative of the National Transportation Safety Board; (3) Any Federal, State, or local law enforcement officer; or (4) An authorized representative of the Transportation Security Administration. (d) Emergency declared. The failure to complete the Special Awareness Training course on flying in and around the Washington, DC Metropolitan Area is not a violation of this section if an emergency is declared by the pilot, as described under § 91.3(b), or there was a failure of two-way radio communications when operating under IFR as described under § 91.185. (e) Exceptions. The requirements of this section do not apply if the flight is being performed in an aircraft of an air ambulance operator certificated to conduct part 135 operations under this chapter, the U.S. Armed Forces, or a law enforcement agency. [Docket FAA-2006-25250, 73 FR 46803, Aug. 12, 2008] §§ 91.162-91.165 [Reserved]
Instrument Flight Rules § 91.167 Fuel requirements for flight in IFR conditions. (a) No person may operate a civil aircraft in IFR conditions unless it carries enough fuel (considering weather reports and forecasts and weather conditions) to— (1) Complete the flight to the first airport of intended landing; (2) Except as provided in paragraph (b) of this section, fly from that airport to the alternate airport; and (3) Fly after that for 45 minutes at normal cruising speed or, for helicopters, fly after that for 30 minutes at normal cruising speed. (b) Paragraph (a)(2) of this section does not apply if: (1) Part 97 of this chapter prescribes a standard instrument approach procedure to, or a special instrument approach procedure has been issued by the Administrator to the operator for, the first airport of intended landing; and (2) Appropriate weather reports or weather forecasts, or a combination of them, indicate the following: (i) For aircraft other than helicopters. For at least 1 hour before and for 1 hour after the estimated time of arrival, the ceiling will be at least 2,000 feet above the airport elevation and the visibility will be at least 3 statute miles.

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(ii) For helicopters. At the estimated time of arrival and for 1 hour after the estimated time of arrival, the ceiling will be at least 1,000 feet above the airport elevation, or at least 400 feet above the lowest applicable approach minima, whichever is higher, and the visibility will be at least 2 statute miles. [Docket 98-4390, 65 FR 3546, Jan. 21, 2000] § 91.169 IFR flight plan: Information required. (a) Information required. Unless otherwise authorized by ATC, each person filing an IFR flight plan must include in it the following information: (1) Information required under § 91.153 (a) of this part; (2) Except as provided in paragraph (b) of this section, an alternate airport. (b) Paragraph (a)(2) of this section does not apply if : (1) Part 97 of this chapter prescribes a standard instrument approach procedure to, or a special instrument approach procedure has been issued by the Administrator to the operator for, the first airport of intended landing; and (2) Appropriate weather reports or weather forecasts, or a combination of them, indicate the following: (i) For aircraft other than helicopters. For at least 1 hour before and for 1 hour after the estimated time of arrival, the ceiling will be at least 2,000 feet above the airport elevation and the visibility will be at least 3 statute miles. (ii) For helicopters. At the estimated time of arrival and for 1 hour after the estimated time of arrival, the ceiling will be at least 1,000 feet above the airport elevation, or at least 400 feet above the lowest applicable approach minima, whichever is higher, and the visibility will be at least 2 statute miles. (c) IFR alternate airport weather minima. Unless otherwise authorized by the Administrator, no person may include an alternate airport in an IFR flight plan unless appropriate weather reports or weather forecasts, or a combination of them, indicate that, at the estimated time of arrival at the alternate airport, the ceiling and visibility at that airport will be at or above the following weather minima: (1) If an instrument approach procedure has been published in part 97 of this chapter, or a special instrument approach procedure has been issued by the Administrator to the operator, for that airport, the following minima: (i) For aircraft other than helicopters: The alternate airport minima specified in that procedure, or if none are specified the following standard approach minima: (A) For a precision approach procedure. Ceiling 600 feet and visibility 2 statute miles. (B) For a nonprecision approach procedure. Ceiling 800 feet and visibility 2 statute miles. (ii) For helicopters: Ceiling 200 feet above the minimum for the approach to be flown, and visibility at least 1 statute mile but never less than the minimum visibility for the approach to be flown, and (2) If no instrument approach procedure has been published in part 97 of this chapter and no special instrument approach procedure has been issued by the Administrator to the operator, for the alternate airport, the ceiling and visibility minima are those allowing descent from the MEA, approach, and landing under basic VFR. (d) Cancellation. When a flight plan has been activated, the pilot in command, upon canceling or completing the flight under the flight plan, shall notify an FAA Flight Service Station or ATC facility. [Docket 18334, 54 FR 34294, Aug. 18, 1989, as amended by Amdt. 91-259, 65 FR 3546, Jan. 21, 2000] § 91.171 VOR equipment check for IFR operations. (a) No person may operate a civil aircraft under IFR using the VOR system of radio navigation unless the VOR equipment of that aircraft— (1) Is maintained, checked, and inspected under an approved procedure; or (2) Has been operationally checked within the preceding 30 days, and was found to be within the limits of the permissible indicated bearing error set forth in paragraph (b) or (c) of this section.

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(b) Except as provided in paragraph (c) of this section, each person conducting a VOR check under paragraph (a)(2) of this section shall— (1) Use, at the airport of intended departure, an FAA-operated or approved test signal or a test signal radiated by a certificated and appropriately rated radio repair station or, outside the United States, a test signal operated or approved by an appropriate authority to check the VOR equipment (the maximum permissible indicated bearing error is plus or minus 4 degrees); or (2) Use, at the airport of intended departure, a point on the airport surface designated as a VOR system checkpoint by the Administrator, or, outside the United States, by an appropriate authority (the maximum permissible bearing error is plus or minus 4 degrees); (3) If neither a test signal nor a designated checkpoint on the surface is available, use an airborne checkpoint designated by the Administrator or, outside the United States, by an appropriate authority (the maximum permissible bearing error is plus or minus 6 degrees); or (4) If no check signal or point is available, while in flight— (i) Select a VOR radial that lies along the centerline of an established VOR airway; (ii) Select a prominent ground point along the selected radial preferably more than 20 nautical miles from the VOR ground facility and maneuver the aircraft directly over the point at a reasonably low altitude; and (iii) Note the VOR bearing indicated by the receiver when over the ground point (the maximum permissible variation between the published radial and the indicated bearing is 6 degrees). (c) If dual system VOR (units independent of each other except for the antenna) is installed in the aircraft, the person checking the equipment may check one system against the other in place of the check procedures specified in paragraph (b) of this section. Both systems shall be tuned to the same VOR ground facility and note the indicated bearings to that station. The maximum permissible variation between the two indicated bearings is 4 degrees. (d) Each person making the VOR operational check, as specified in paragraph (b) or (c) of this section, shall enter the date, place, bearing error, and sign the aircraft log or other record. In addition, if a test signal radiated by a repair station, as specified in paragraph (b)(1) of this section, is used, an entry must be made in the aircraft log or other record by the repair station certificate holder or the certificate holder's representative certifying to the bearing transmitted by the repair station for the check and the date of transmission. (Approved by the Office of Management and Budget under control number 2120-0005) § 91.173 ATC clearance and flight plan required. No person may operate an aircraft in controlled airspace under IFR unless that person has— (a) Filed an IFR flight plan; and (b) Received an appropriate ATC clearance. § 91.175 Takeoff and landing under IFR. (a) Instrument approaches to civil airports. Unless otherwise authorized by the FAA, when it is necessary to use an instrument approach to a civil airport, each person operating an aircraft must use a standard instrument approach procedure prescribed in part 97 of this chapter for that airport. This paragraph does not apply to United States military aircraft. (b) Authorized DA/DH or MDA. For the purpose of this section, when the approach procedure being used provides for and requires the use of a DA/DH or MDA, the authorized DA/DH or MDA is the highest of the following: (1) The DA/DH or MDA prescribed by the approach procedure. (2) The DA/DH or MDA prescribed for the pilot in command. (3) The DA/DH or MDA appropriate for the aircraft equipment available and used during the approach. (c) Operation below DA/DH or MDA. Except as provided in § 91.176 of this chapter, where a DA/DH or MDA is applicable, no pilot may operate an aircraft, except a military aircraft of the United States, below the authorized MDA or continue an approach below the authorized DA/DH unless—

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(1) The aircraft is continuously in a position from which a descent to a landing on the intended runway can be made at a normal rate of descent using normal maneuvers, and for operations conducted under part 121 or part 135 unless that descent rate will allow touchdown to occur within the touchdown zone of the runway of intended landing; (2) The flight visibility is not less than the visibility prescribed in the standard instrument approach being used; and (3) Except for a Category II or Category III approach where any necessary visual reference requirements are specified by the Administrator, at least one of the following visual references for the intended runway is distinctly visible and identifiable to the pilot: (i) The approach light system, except that the pilot may not descend below 100 feet above the touchdown zone elevation using the approach lights as a reference unless the red terminating bars or the red side row bars are also distinctly visible and identifiable. (ii) The threshold. (iii) The threshold markings. (iv) The threshold lights. (v) The runway end identifier lights. (vi) The visual glideslope indicator. (vii) The touchdown zone or touchdown zone markings. (viii) The touchdown zone lights. (ix) The runway or runway markings. (x) The runway lights. (d) Landing. No pilot operating an aircraft, except a military aircraft of the United States, may land that aircraft when— (1) For operations conducted under § 91.176 of this part, the requirements of paragraphs (a)(3)(iii) or (b)(3)(iii), as applicable, of that section are not met; or (2) For all other operations under this part and parts 121, 125, 129, and 135, the flight visibility is less than the visibility prescribed in the standard instrument approach procedure being used. (e) Missed approach procedures. Each pilot operating an aircraft, except a military aircraft of the United States, shall immediately execute an appropriate missed approach procedure when either of the following conditions exist: (1) Whenever operating an aircraft pursuant to paragraph (c) of this section or § 91.176 of this part, and the requirements of that paragraph or section are not met at either of the following times: (i) When the aircraft is being operated below MDA; or (ii) Upon arrival at the missed approach point, including a DA/DH where a DA/DH is specified and its use is required, and at any time after that until touchdown. (2) Whenever an identifiable part of the airport is not distinctly visible to the pilot during a circling maneuver at or above MDA, unless the inability to see an identifiable part of the airport results only from a normal bank of the aircraft during the circling approach. (f) Civil airport takeoff minimums. This paragraph applies to persons operating an aircraft under part 121, 125, 129, or 135 of this chapter. (1) Unless otherwise authorized by the FAA, no pilot may takeoff from a civil airport under IFR unless the weather conditions at time of takeoff are at or above the weather minimums for IFR takeoff prescribed for that airport under part 97 of this chapter. (2) If takeoff weather minimums are not prescribed under part 97 of this chapter for a particular airport, the following weather minimums apply to takeoffs under IFR: (i) For aircraft, other than helicopters, having two engines or less—1 statute mile visibility. (ii) For aircraft having more than two engines— 1/2 statute mile visibility. (iii) For helicopters— 1/2 statute mile visibility. (3) Except as provided in paragraph (f)(4) of this section, no pilot may takeoff under IFR from a civil airport having published obstacle departure procedures (ODPs) under part 97 of this chapter for the takeoff runway to be used, unless the pilot uses such ODPs or an alternative procedure or route assigned by air traffic control. (4) Notwithstanding the requirements of paragraph (f)(3) of this section, no pilot may takeoff from an airport under IFR unless:

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(i) For part 121 and part 135 operators, the pilot uses a takeoff obstacle clearance or avoidance procedure that ensures compliance with the applicable airplane performance operating limitations requirements under part 121, subpart I or part 135, subpart I for takeoff at that airport; or (ii) For part 129 operators, the pilot uses a takeoff obstacle clearance or avoidance procedure that ensures compliance with the airplane performance operating limitations prescribed by the State of the operator for takeoff at that airport. (g) Military airports. Unless otherwise prescribed by the Administrator, each person operating a civil aircraft under IFR into or out of a military airport shall comply with the instrument approach procedures and the takeoff and landing minimum prescribed by the military authority having jurisdiction of that airport. (h) Comparable values of RVR and ground visibility. (1) Except for Category II or Category III minimums, if RVR minimums for takeoff or landing are prescribed in an instrument approach procedure, but RVR is not reported for the runway of intended operation, the RVR minimum shall be converted to ground visibility in accordance with the table in paragraph (h)(2) of this section and shall be the visibility minimum for takeoff or landing on that runway. (2)

RVR (feet)	Visibility (statute miles)
1,600	1/4
2,400	1/2
3,200	5/8
4,000	3/4
4,500	7/8
5,000	1
6,000	1 1/4

(i) Operations on unpublished routes and use of radar in instrument approach procedures. When radar is approved at certain locations for ATC purposes, it may be used not only for surveillance and precision radar approaches, as applicable, but also may be used in conjunction with instrument approach procedures predicated on other types of radio navigational aids. Radar vectors may be authorized to provide course guidance through the segments of an approach to the final course or fix. When operating on an unpublished route or while being radar vectored, the pilot, when an approach clearance is received, shall, in addition to complying with § 91.177, maintain the last altitude assigned to that pilot until the aircraft is established on a segment of a published route or instrument approach procedure unless a different altitude is assigned by ATC. After the aircraft is so established, published altitudes apply to descent within each succeeding route or approach segment unless a different altitude is assigned by ATC. Upon reaching the final approach course or fix, the pilot may either complete the instrument approach in accordance with a procedure approved for the facility or continue a surveillance or precision radar approach to a landing. (j) Limitation on procedure turns. In the case of a radar vector to a final approach course or fix, a timed approach from a holding fix, or an approach for which the procedure specifies “No PT,” no pilot may make a procedure turn unless cleared to do so by ATC. (k) ILS components. The basic components of an ILS are the localizer, glide slope, and outer marker, and, when installed for use with Category II or Category III instrument approach procedures, an inner marker. The following means may be used to substitute for the outer marker: Compass locator; precision approach radar (PAR) or airport surveillance radar (ASR); DME, VOR, or nondirectional beacon fixes authorized in the standard instrument approach procedure; or a suitable RNAV system in conjunction with a fix identified in the standard instrument approach procedure. Applicability of, and substitution for, the inner marker for a Category II or III approach is determined by the appropriate 14 CFR part 97 approach procedure, letter of authorization, or operations specifications issued to an operator. [Docket 18334, 54 FR 34294, Aug. 18, 1989, as amended by Amdt. 91-267, 66 FR 21066, Apr. 27, 2001; Amdt. 91-281, 69 FR 1640, Jan. 9, 2004; Amdt. 91-296, 72 FR 31678, June 7, 2007; Amdt. 91-306, 74 FR 20205, May 1, 2009; Docket FAA-2013-0485, Amdt. 91-345, 81 FR 90172, Dec. 13, 2016; Amdt. 91-345B, 83 FR 10568, Mar. 12, 2018]

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§ 91.176 Straight-in landing operations below DA/DH or MDA using an enhanced flight vision system (EFVS) under IFR. (a) EFVS operations to touchdown and rollout. Unless otherwise authorized by the Administrator to use an MDA as a DA/DH with vertical navigation on an instrument approach procedure, or unless paragraph (d) of this section applies, no person may conduct an EFVS operation in an aircraft, except a military aircraft of the United States, at any airport below the authorized DA/DH to touchdown and rollout unless the minimums used for the particular approach procedure being flown include a DA or DH, and the following requirements are met: (1) Equipment. (i) The aircraft must be equipped with an operable EFVS that meets the applicable airworthiness requirements. The EFVS must: (A) Have an electronic means to provide a display of the forward external scene topography (the applicable natural or manmade features of a place or region especially in a way to show their relative positions and elevation) through the use of imaging sensors, including but not limited to forward-looking infrared, millimeter wave radiometry, millimeter wave radar, or low-light level image intensification. (B) Present EFVS sensor imagery, aircraft flight information, and flight symbology on a head up display, or an equivalent display, so that the imagery, information and symbology are clearly visible to the pilot flying in his or her normal position with the line of vision looking forward along the flight path. Aircraft flight information and flight symbology must consist of at least airspeed, vertical speed, aircraft attitude, heading, altitude, height above ground level such as that provided by a radio altimeter or other device capable of providing equivalent performance, command guidance as appropriate for the approach to be flown, path deviation indications, flight path vector, and flight path angle reference cue. Additionally, for aircraft other than rotorcraft, the EFVS must display flare prompt or flare guidance. (C) Present the displayed EFVS sensor imagery, attitude symbology, flight path vector, and flight path angle reference cue, and other cues, which are referenced to the EFVS sensor imagery and external scene topography, so that they are aligned with, and scaled to, the external view. (D) Display the flight path angle reference cue with a pitch scale. The flight path angle reference cue must be selectable by the pilot to the desired descent angle for the approach and be sufficient to monitor the vertical flight path of the aircraft. (E) Display the EFVS sensor imagery, aircraft flight information, and flight symbology such that they do not adversely obscure the pilot's outside view or field of view through the cockpit window. (F) Have display characteristics, dynamics, and cues that are suitable for manual control of the aircraft to touchdown in the touchdown zone of the runway of intended landing and during rollout. (ii) When a minimum flightcrew of more than one pilot is required, the aircraft must be equipped with a display that provides the pilot monitoring with EFVS sensor imagery. Any symbology displayed may not adversely obscure the sensor imagery of the runway environment. (2) Operations. (i) The pilot conducting the EFVS operation may not use circling minimums. (ii) Each required pilot flightcrew member must have adequate knowledge of, and familiarity with, the aircraft, the EFVS, and the procedures to be used. (iii) The aircraft must be equipped with, and the pilot flying must use, an operable EFVS that meets the equipment requirements of paragraph (a)(1) of this section. (iv) When a minimum flightcrew of more than one pilot is required, the pilot monitoring must use the display specified in paragraph (a)(1)(ii) to monitor and assess the safe conduct of the approach, landing, and rollout. (v) The aircraft must continuously be in a position from which a descent to a landing on the intended runway can be made at a normal rate of descent using normal maneuvers.

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(vi) The descent rate must allow touchdown to occur within the touchdown zone of the runway of intended landing. (vii) Each required pilot flightcrew member must meet the following requirements— (A) A person exercising the privileges of a pilot certificate issued under this chapter, any person serving as a required pilot flightcrew member of a U.S.-registered aircraft, or any person serving as a required pilot flightcrew member for a part 121, 125, or 135 operator, must be qualified in accordance with part 61 and, as applicable, the training, testing, and qualification provisions of subpart K of this part, part 121, 125, or 135 of this chapter that apply to the operation; or (B) Each person acting as a required pilot flightcrew member for a foreign air carrier subject to part 129, or any person serving as a required pilot flightcrew member of a foreign registered aircraft, must be qualified in accordance with the training requirements of the civil aviation authority of the State of the operator for the EFVS operation to be conducted. (viii) A person conducting operations under this part must conduct the operation in accordance with a letter of authorization for the use of EFVS unless the operation is conducted in an aircraft that has been issued an experimental certificate under § 21.191 of this chapter for the purpose of research and development or showing compliance with regulations, or the operation is being conducted by a person otherwise authorized to conduct EFVS operations under paragraphs (a)(2)(ix) through (xii) of this section. A person applying to the FAA for a letter of authorization must submit an application in a form and manner prescribed by the Administrator. (ix) A person conducting operations under subpart K of this part must conduct the operation in accordance with management specifications authorizing the use of EFVS. (x) A person conducting operations under part 121, 129, or 135 of this chapter must conduct the operation in accordance with operations specifications authorizing the use of EFVS. (xi) A person conducting operations under part 125 of this chapter must conduct the operation in accordance with operations specifications authorizing the use of EFVS or, for a holder of a part 125 letter of deviation authority, a letter of authorization for the use of EFVS. (xii) A person conducting an EFVS operation during an authorized Category II or Category III operation must conduct the operation in accordance with operations specifications, management specifications, or a letter of authorization authorizing EFVS operations during authorized Category II or Category III operations. (3) Visibility and visual reference requirements. No pilot operating under this section or §§ 121.651, 125.381, or 135.225 of this chapter may continue an approach below the authorized DA/DH and land unless: (i) The pilot determines that the enhanced flight visibility observed by use of an EFVS is not less than the visibility prescribed in the instrument approach procedure being used. (ii) From the authorized DA/DH to 100 feet above the touchdown zone elevation of the runway of intended landing, any approach light system or both the runway threshold and the touchdown zone are distinctly visible and identifiable to the pilot using an EFVS. (A) The pilot must identify the runway threshold using at least one of the following visual references— ( 1 ) The beginning of the runway landing surface; ( 2 ) The threshold lights; or ( 3 ) The runway end identifier lights. (B) The pilot must identify the touchdown zone using at least one of the following visual references— ( 1 ) The runway touchdown zone landing surface; ( 2 ) The touchdown zone lights; ( 3 ) The touchdown zone markings; or ( 4 ) The runway lights. (iii) At 100 feet above the touchdown zone elevation of the runway of intended landing and below that altitude, the enhanced flight visibility using EFVS must be sufficient for one of the following visual references to be distinctly visible and identifiable to the pilot—

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(A) The runway threshold; (B) The lights or markings of the threshold; (C) The runway touchdown zone landing surface; or (D) The lights or markings of the touchdown zone. (4) Additional requirements. The Administrator may prescribe additional equipment, operational, and visibility and visual reference requirements to account for specific equipment characteristics, operational procedures, or approach characteristics. These requirements will be specified in an operator's operations specifications, management specifications, or letter of authorization authorizing the use of EFVS. (b) EFVS operations to 100 feet above the touchdown zone elevation. Except as specified in paragraph (d) of this section, no person may conduct an EFVS operation in an aircraft, except a military aircraft of the United States, at any airport below the authorized DA/DH or MDA to 100 feet above the touchdown zone elevation unless the following requirements are met: (1) Equipment. (i) The aircraft must be equipped with an operable EFVS that meets the applicable airworthiness requirements. (ii) The EFVS must meet the requirements of paragraph (a)(1)(i)(A) through (F) of this section, but need not present flare prompt, flare guidance, or height above ground level. (2) Operations. (i) The pilot conducting the EFVS operation may not use circling minimums. (ii) Each required pilot flightcrew member must have adequate knowledge of, and familiarity with, the aircraft, the EFVS, and the procedures to be used. (iii) The aircraft must be equipped with, and the pilot flying must use, an operable EFVS that meets the equipment requirements of paragraph (b)(1) of this section. (iv) The aircraft must continuously be in a position from which a descent to a landing on the intended runway can be made at a normal rate of descent using normal maneuvers. (v) For operations conducted under part 121 or part 135 of this chapter, the descent rate must allow touchdown to occur within the touchdown zone of the runway of intended landing. (vi) Each required pilot flightcrew member must meet the following requirements— (A) A person exercising the privileges of a pilot certificate issued under this chapter, any person serving as a required pilot flightcrew member of a U.S.-registered aircraft, or any person serving as a required pilot flightcrew member for a part 121, 125, or 135 operator, must be qualified in accordance with part 61 and, as applicable, the training, testing, and qualification provisions of subpart K of this part, part 121, 125, or 135 of this chapter that apply to the operation; or (B) Each person acting as a required pilot flightcrew member for a foreign air carrier subject to part 129, or any person serving as a required pilot flightcrew member of a foreign registered aircraft, must be qualified in accordance with the training requirements of the civil aviation authority of the State of the operator for the EFVS operation to be conducted. (vii) A person conducting operations under subpart K of this part must conduct the operation in accordance with management specifications authorizing the use of EFVS. (viii) A person conducting operations under part 121, 129, or 135 of this chapter must conduct the operation in accordance with operations specifications authorizing the use of EFVS. (ix) A person conducting operations under part 125 of this chapter must conduct the operation in accordance with operations specifications authorizing the use of EFVS or, for a holder of a part 125 letter of deviation authority, a letter of authorization for the use of EFVS. (x) A person conducting an EFVS operation during an authorized Category II or Category III operation must conduct the operation in accordance with operations specifications, management specifications, or a letter of authorization authorizing EFVS operations during authorized Category II or Category III operations. (3) Visibility and Visual Reference Requirements. No pilot operating under this section or § 121.651, § 125.381, or § 135.225 of this chapter may continue an approach below the authorized MDA or continue an approach below the authorized DA/DH and land unless:

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(i) The pilot determines that the enhanced flight visibility observed by use of an EFVS is not less than the visibility prescribed in the instrument approach procedure being used. (ii) From the authorized MDA or DA/DH to 100 feet above the touchdown zone elevation of the runway of intended landing, any approach light system or both the runway threshold and the touchdown zone are distinctly visible and identifiable to the pilot using an EFVS. (A) The pilot must identify the runway threshold using at least one of the following visual references- ( 1 ) The beginning of the runway landing surface; ( 2 ) The threshold lights; or ( 3 ) The runway end identifier lights. (B) The pilot must identify the touchdown zone using at least one of the following visual references— ( 1 ) The runway touchdown zone landing surface; ( 2 ) The touchdown zone lights; ( 3 ) The touchdown zone markings; or ( 4 ) The runway lights. (iii) At 100 feet above the touchdown zone elevation of the runway of intended landing and below that altitude, the flight visibility must be sufficient for one of the following visual references to be distinctly visible and identifiable to the pilot without reliance on the EFVS— (A) The runway threshold; (B) The lights or markings of the threshold; (C) The runway touchdown zone landing surface; or (D) The lights or markings of the touchdown zone. (4) Compliance Date. Beginning on March 13, 2018, a person conducting an EFVS operation to 100 feet above the touchdown zone elevation must comply with the requirements of paragraph (b) of this section. (c) Public aircraft certification and training requirements. A public aircraft operator, other than the U.S. military, may conduct an EFVS operation under paragraph (a) or (b) of this section only if: (1) The aircraft meets all of the civil certification and airworthiness requirements of paragraph (a)(1) or (b)(1) of this section, as applicable to the EFVS operation to be conducted; and (2) The pilot flightcrew member, or any other person who manipulates the controls of an aircraft during an EFVS operation, meets the training, recent flight experience and refresher training requirements of § 61.66 of this chapter applicable to EFVS operations. (d) Exception for Experimental Aircraft. The requirement to use an EFVS that meets the applicable airworthiness requirements specified in paragraphs (a)(1)(i), (a)(2)(iii), (b)(1)(i), and (b)(2)(iii) of this section does not apply to operations conducted in an aircraft issued an experimental certificate under § 21.191 of this chapter for the purpose of research and development or showing compliance with regulations, provided the Administrator has determined that the operations can be conducted safely in accordance with operating limitations issued for that purpose. [Docket FAA-2013-0485, Amdt. 91-345, 81 FR 90172, Dec. 13, 2016; 82 FR 2193, Jan. 9, 2017] § 91.177 Minimum altitudes for IFR operations. (a) Operation of aircraft at minimum altitudes. Except when necessary for takeoff or landing, or unless otherwise authorized by the FAA, no person may operate an aircraft under IFR below— (1) The applicable minimum altitudes prescribed in parts 95 and 97 of this chapter. However, if both a MEA and a MOCA are prescribed for a particular route or route segment, a person may operate an aircraft below the MEA down to, but not below, the MOCA, provided the applicable navigation signals are available. For aircraft using VOR for navigation, this applies only when the aircraft is within 22 nautical miles of that VOR (based on the reasonable estimate by the pilot operating the aircraft of that distance); or (2) If no applicable minimum altitude is prescribed in parts 95 and 97 of this chapter, then— (i) In the case of operations over an area designated as a mountainous area in part 95 of this chapter, an altitude of 2,000 feet above the highest obstacle within a horizontal distance of 4 nautical miles from the course to be flown; or

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(ii) In any other case, an altitude of 1,000 feet above the highest obstacle within a horizontal distance of 4 nautical miles from the course to be flown. (b) Climb. Climb to a higher minimum IFR altitude shall begin immediately after passing the point beyond which that minimum altitude applies, except that when ground obstructions intervene, the point beyond which that higher minimum altitude applies shall be crossed at or above the applicable MCA. [Docket 18334, 54 FR 34294, Aug. 18, 1989, as amended by Amdt. 91-296, 72 FR 31678, June 7, 2007; Amdt. 91-315, 75 FR 30690, June 2, 2010] § 91.179 IFR cruising altitude or flight level. Unless otherwise authorized by ATC, the following rules apply— (a) In controlled airspace. Each person operating an aircraft under IFR in level cruising flight in controlled airspace shall maintain the altitude or flight level assigned that aircraft by ATC. However, if the ATC clearance assigns “VFR conditions on-top,” that person shall maintain an altitude or flight level as prescribed by § 91.159. (b) In uncontrolled airspace. Except while in a holding pattern of 2 minutes or less or while turning, each person operating an aircraft under IFR in level cruising flight in uncontrolled airspace shall maintain an appropriate altitude as follows: (1) When operating below 18,000 feet MSL and— (i) On a magnetic course of zero degrees through 179 degrees, any odd thousand foot MSL altitude (such as 3,000, 5,000, or 7,000); or (ii) On a magnetic course of 180 degrees through 359 degrees, any even thousand foot MSL altitude (such as 2,000, 4,000, or 6,000). (2) When operating at or above 18,000 feet MSL but below flight level 290, and— (i) On a magnetic course of zero degrees through 179 degrees, any odd flight level (such as 190, 210, or 230); or (ii) On a magnetic course of 180 degrees through 359 degrees, any even flight level (such as 180, 200, or 220). (3) When operating at flight level 290 and above in non-RVSM airspace, and— (i) On a magnetic course of zero degrees through 179 degrees, any flight level, at 4,000-foot intervals, beginning at and including flight level 290 (such as flight level 290, 330, or 370); or (ii) On a magnetic course of 180 degrees through 359 degrees, any flight level, at 4,000-foot intervals, beginning at and including flight level 310 (such as flight level 310, 350, or 390). (4) When operating at flight level 290 and above in airspace designated as Reduced Vertical Separation Minimum (RVSM) airspace and— (i) On a magnetic course of zero degrees through 179 degrees, any odd flight level, at 2,000-foot intervals beginning at and including flight level 290 (such as flight level 290, 310, 330, 350, 370, 390, 410); or (ii) On a magnetic course of 180 degrees through 359 degrees, any even flight level, at 2000-foot intervals beginning at and including flight level 300 (such as 300, 320, 340, 360, 380, 400). [Docket 18334, 54 FR 34294, Aug. 18, 1989, as amended by Amdt. 91-276, 68 FR 61321, Oct. 27, 2003; 68 FR 70133, Dec. 17, 2003; Amdt. 91-296, 72 FR 31679, June 7, 2007] § 91.180 Operations within airspace designated as Reduced Vertical Separation Minimum airspace. (a) Except as provided in paragraph (b) of this section, no person may operate a civil aircraft in airspace designated as Reduced Vertical Separation Minimum (RVSM) airspace unless: (1) The operator and the operator's aircraft comply with the minimum standards of appendix G of this part; and (2) The operator is authorized by the Administrator or the country of registry to conduct such operations. (b) The Administrator may authorize a deviation from the requirements of this section. [Amdt. 91-276, 68 FR 70133, Dec. 17, 2003] § 91.181 Course to be flown. Unless otherwise authorized by ATC, no person may operate an aircraft within controlled airspace under IFR except as follows: (a) On an ATS route, along the centerline of that airway.

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(b) On any other route, along the direct course between the navigational aids or fixes defining that route. However, this section does not prohibit maneuvering the aircraft to pass well clear of other air traffic or the maneuvering of the aircraft in VFR conditions to clear the intended flight path both before and during climb or descent. [Docket 18334, 54 FR 34294, Aug. 18, 1989, as amended by Amdt. 91-296, 72 FR 31679, June 7, 2007] § 91.183 IFR communications. Unless otherwise authorized by ATC, the pilot in command of each aircraft operated under IFR in controlled airspace must ensure that a continuous watch is maintained on the appropriate frequency and must report the following as soon as possible— (a) The time and altitude of passing each designated reporting point, or the reporting points specified by ATC, except that while the aircraft is under radar control, only the passing of those reporting points specifically requested by ATC need be reported; (b) Any unforecast weather conditions encountered; and (c) Any other information relating to the safety of flight. [Docket 18334, 54 FR 34294, Aug. 18, 1989, as amended by Amdt. 91-296, 72 FR 31679, June 7, 2007] § 91.185 IFR operations: Two-way radio communications failure. (a) General. Unless otherwise authorized by ATC, each pilot who has two-way radio communications failure when operating under IFR shall comply with the rules of this section. (b) VFR conditions. If the failure occurs in VFR conditions, or if VFR conditions are encountered after the failure, each pilot shall continue the flight under VFR and land as soon as practicable. (c) IFR conditions. If the failure occurs in IFR conditions, or if paragraph (b) of this section cannot be complied with, each pilot shall continue the flight according to the following: (1) Route. (i) By the route assigned in the last ATC clearance received; (ii) If being radar vectored, by the direct route from the point of radio failure to the fix, route, or airway specified in the vector clearance; (iii) In the absence of an assigned route, by the route that ATC has advised may be expected in a further clearance; or (iv) In the absence of an assigned route or a route that ATC has advised may be expected in a further clearance, by the route filed in the flight plan. (2) Altitude. At the highest of the following altitudes or flight levels for the route segment being flown: (i) The altitude or flight level assigned in the last ATC clearance received; (ii) The minimum altitude (converted, if appropriate, to minimum flight level as prescribed in § 91.121(c)) for IFR operations; or (iii) The altitude or flight level ATC has advised may be expected in a further clearance. (3) Leave clearance limit. (i) When the clearance limit is a fix from which an approach begins, commence descent or descent and approach as close as possible to the expect-further-clearance time if one has been received, or if one has not been received, as close as possible to the estimated time of arrival as calculated from the filed or amended (with ATC) estimated time en route. (ii) If the clearance limit is not a fix from which an approach begins, leave the clearance limit at the expect-further-clearance time if one has been received, or if none has been received, upon arrival over the clearance limit, and proceed to a fix from which an approach begins and commence descent or descent and approach as close as possible to the estimated time of arrival as calculated from the filed or amended (with ATC) estimated time en route. [Docket 18334, 54 FR 34294, Aug. 18, 1989; Amdt. 91-211, 54 FR 41211, Oct. 5, 1989] § 91.187 Operation under IFR in controlled airspace: Malfunction reports. (a) The pilot in command of each aircraft operated in controlled airspace under IFR shall report as soon as practical to ATC any malfunctions of navigational, approach, or communication equipment occurring in flight.

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(b) In each report required by paragraph (a) of this section, the pilot in command shall include the— (1) Aircraft identification; (2) Equipment affected; (3) Degree to which the capability of the pilot to operate under IFR in the ATC system is impaired; and (4) Nature and extent of assistance desired from ATC. § 91.189 Category II and III operations: General operating rules. (a) No person may operate a civil aircraft in a Category II or III operation unless— (1) The flight crew of the aircraft consists of a pilot in command and a second in command who hold the appropriate authorizations and ratings prescribed in § 61.3 of this chapter; (2) Each flight crewmember has adequate knowledge of, and familiarity with, the aircraft and the procedures to be used; and (3) The instrument panel in front of the pilot who is controlling the aircraft has appropriate instrumentation for the type of flight control guidance system that is being used. (b) Unless otherwise authorized by the Administrator, no person may operate a civil aircraft in a Category II or Category III operation unless each ground component required for that operation and the related airborne equipment is installed and operating. (c) Authorized DA/DH. For the purpose of this section, when the approach procedure being used provides for and requires the use of a DA/DH, the authorized DA/DH is the highest of the following: (1) The DA/DH prescribed by the approach procedure. (2) The DA/DH prescribed for the pilot in command. (3) The DA/DH for which the aircraft is equipped. (d) Except as provided in § 91.176 of this part or unless otherwise authorized by the Administrator, no pilot operating an aircraft in a Category II or Category III approach that provides and requires the use of a DA/DH may continue the approach below the authorized decision height unless the following conditions are met: (1) The aircraft is in a position from which a descent to a landing on the intended runway can be made at a normal rate of descent using normal maneuvers, and where that descent rate will allow touchdown to occur within the touchdown zone of the runway of intended landing. (2) At least one of the following visual references for the intended runway is distinctly visible and identifiable to the pilot: (i) The approach light system, except that the pilot may not descend below 100 feet above the touchdown zone elevation using the approach lights as a reference unless the red terminating bars or the red side row bars are also distinctly visible and identifiable. (ii) The threshold. (iii) The threshold markings. (iv) The threshold lights. (v) The touchdown zone or touchdown zone markings. (vi) The touchdown zone lights. (e) Except as provided in § 91.176 of this part or unless otherwise authorized by the Administrator, each pilot operating an aircraft shall immediately execute an appropriate missed approach whenever, prior to touchdown, the requirements of paragraph (d) of this section are not met. (f) No person operating an aircraft using a Category III approach without decision height may land that aircraft except in accordance with the provisions of the letter of authorization issued by the Administrator. (g) Paragraphs (a) through (f) of this section do not apply to operations conducted by certificate holders operating under part 121, 125, 129, or 135 of this chapter, or holders of management specifications issued in accordance with subpart K of this part. Holders of operations specifications or management specifications may operate a civil aircraft in a Category II or Category III operation only in accordance with their operations specifications or management specifications, as applicable. [Docket 18334, 54 FR 34294, Aug. 18, 1989, as amended by Amdt. 91-280, 68 FR 54560, Sept. 17, 2003; Amdt. 91-296, 72 FR 31679, June 7, 2007; Docket FAA-2013-0485, Amdt. 91-345, 81 FR 90175, Dec. 13, 2016]

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§ 91.191 Category II and Category III manual. (a) Except as provided in paragraph (c) of this section, after August 4, 1997, no person may operate a U.S.-registered civil aircraft in a Category II or a Category III operation unless— (1) There is available in the aircraft a current and approved Category II or Category III manual, as appropriate, for that aircraft; (2) The operation is conducted in accordance with the procedures, instructions, and limitations in the appropriate manual; and (3) The instruments and equipment listed in the manual that are required for a particular Category II or Category III operation have been inspected and maintained in accordance with the maintenance program contained in the manual. (b) Each operator must keep a current copy of each approved manual at its principal base of operations and must make each manual available for inspection upon request by the Administrator. (c) This section does not apply to operations conducted by a certificate holder operating under part 121 or part 135 of this chapter or a holder of management specifications issued in accordance with subpart K of this part. [Docket 26933, 61 FR 34560, July 2, 1996, as amended by Amdt. 91-280, 68 FR 54560, Sept. 17, 2003] § 91.193 Certificate of authorization for certain Category II operations. The Administrator may issue a certificate of authorization authorizing deviations from the requirements of §§ 91.189, 91.191, and 91.205(f) for the operation of small aircraft identified as Category A aircraft in § 97.3 of this chapter in Category II operations if the Administrator finds that the proposed operation can be safely conducted under the terms of the certificate. Such authorization does not permit operation of the aircraft carrying persons or property for compensation or hire. §§ 91.195-91.199 [Reserved]
Subpart C—Equipment, Instrument, and Certificate Requirements Source: Docket 18334, 54 FR 34304, Aug. 18, 1989, unless otherwise noted. § 91.201 [Reserved]
§ 91.203 Civil aircraft: Certifications required. (a) Except as provided in § 91.715, no person may operate a civil aircraft unless it has within it the following: (1) An appropriate and current airworthiness certificate. Each U.S. airworthiness certificate used to comply with this subparagraph (except a special flight permit, a copy of the applicable operations specifications issued under § 21.197(c) of this chapter, appropriate sections of the air carrier manual required by parts 121 and 135 of this chapter containing that portion of the operations specifications issued under § 21.197(c), or an authorization under § 91.611) must have on it the registration number assigned to the aircraft under part 47 or 48 of this chapter. However, the airworthiness certificate need not have on it an assigned special identification number before 10 days after that number is first affixed to the aircraft. A revised airworthiness certificate having on it an assigned special identification number, that has been affixed to an aircraft, may only be obtained upon application to the responsible Flight Standards office. (2) An effective U.S. registration certificate issued to its owner or, for operation within the United States, the second copy of the Aircraft registration Application as provided for in § 47.31(c), a Certificate of Aircraft registration as provided in part 48, or a registration certification issued under the laws of a foreign country. (b) No person may operate a civil aircraft unless the airworthiness certificate required by paragraph (a) of this section or a special flight authorization issued under § 91.715 is displayed at the cabin or cockpit entrance so that it is legible to passengers or crew. (c) No person may operate an aircraft with a fuel tank installed within the passenger compartment or a baggage compartment unless the installation was accomplished pursuant to part 43 of this chapter, and a copy of FAA Form 337 authorizing that installation is on board the aircraft.

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(d) No person may operate a civil airplane (domestic or foreign) into or out of an airport in the United States unless it complies with the fuel venting and exhaust emissions requirements of part 34 of this chapter. [Docket 18334, 54 FR 34292, Aug. 18, 1989, as amended by Amdt. 91-218, 55 FR 32861, Aug. 10, 1990; Amdt. 91-318, 75 FR 41983, July 20, 2010; Amdt. 91-338, 80 FR 78648, Dec. 16, 2015; Docket FAA-2018-0119, Amdt. 91-350, 83 FR 9171, Mar. 5, 2018; Docket FAA-2022-1355, Amdt. 91-366, 87 FR 75846, Dec. 9, 2022] § 91.205 Powered civil aircraft with standard category U.S. airworthiness certificates: Instrument and equipment requirements. (a) General. Except as provided in paragraphs (c)(3) and (e) of this section, no person may operate a powered civil aircraft with a standard category U.S. airworthiness certificate in any operation described in paragraphs (b) through (f) of this section unless that aircraft contains the instruments and equipment specified in those paragraphs (or FAA-approved equivalents) for that type of operation, and those instruments and items of equipment are in operable condition. (b) Visual-flight rules (day). For VFR flight during the day, the following instruments and equipment are required: (1) Airspeed indicator. (2) Altimeter. (3) Magnetic direction indicator. (4) Tachometer for each engine. (5) Oil pressure gauge for each engine using pressure system. (6) Temperature gauge for each liquid-cooled engine. (7) Oil temperature gauge for each air-cooled engine. (8) Manifold pressure gauge for each altitude engine. (9) Fuel gauge indicating the quantity of fuel in each tank. (10) Landing gear position indicator, if the aircraft has a retractable landing gear. (11) For small civil airplanes certificated after March 11, 1996, in accordance with part 23 of this chapter, an approved aviation red or aviation white anticollision light system. In the event of failure of any light of the anticollision light system, operation of the aircraft may continue to a location where repairs or replacement can be made. (12) If the aircraft is operated for hire over water and beyond power-off gliding distance from shore, approved flotation gear readily available to each occupant and, unless the aircraft is operating under part 121 of this subchapter, at least one pyrotechnic signaling device. As used in this section, “shore” means that area of the land adjacent to the water which is above the high water mark and excludes land areas which are intermittently under water. (13) An approved safety belt with an approved metal-to-metal latching device, or other approved restraint system for each occupant 2 years of age or older. (14) For small civil airplanes manufactured after July 18, 1978, an approved shoulder harness or restraint system for each front seat. For small civil airplanes manufactured after December 12, 1986, an approved shoulder harness or restraint system for all seats. Shoulder harnesses installed at flightcrew stations must permit the flightcrew member, when seated and with the safety belt and shoulder harness fastened, to perform all functions necessary for flight operations. For purposes of this paragraph— (i) The date of manufacture of an airplane is the date the inspection acceptance records reflect that the airplane is complete and meets the FAA-approved type design data; and (ii) A front seat is a seat located at a flightcrew member station or any seat located alongside such a seat. (15) An emergency locator transmitter, if required by § 91.207. (16) [Reserved] (17) For rotorcraft manufactured after September 16, 1992, a shoulder harness for each seat that meets the requirements of § 27.2 or § 29.2 of this chapter in effect on September 16, 1991. (c) Visual flight rules (night). For VFR flight at night, the following instruments and equipment are required:

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(1) Instruments and equipment specified in paragraph (b) of this section. (2) Approved position lights. (3) An approved aviation red or aviation white anticollision light system on all U.S.-registered civil aircraft. Anticollision light systems initially installed after August 11, 1971, on aircraft for which a type certificate was issued or applied for before August 11, 1971, must at least meet the anticollision light standards of part 23, 25, 27, or 29 of this chapter, as applicable, that were in effect on August 10, 1971, except that the color may be either aviation red or aviation white. In the event of failure of any light of the anticollision light system, operations with the aircraft may be continued to a stop where repairs or replacement can be made. (4) If the aircraft is operated for hire, one electric landing light. (5) An adequate source of electrical energy for all installed electrical and radio equipment. (6) One spare set of fuses, or three spare fuses of each kind required, that are accessible to the pilot in flight. (d) Instrument flight rules. For IFR flight, the following instruments and equipment are required: (1) Instruments and equipment specified in paragraph (b) of this section, and, for night flight, instruments and equipment specified in paragraph (c) of this section. (2) Two-way radio communication and navigation equipment suitable for the route to be flown. (3) Gyroscopic rate-of-turn indicator, except on the following aircraft: (i) Airplanes with a third attitude instrument system usable through flight attitudes of 360 degrees of pitch and roll and installed in accordance with the instrument requirements prescribed in § 121.305(j) of this chapter; and (ii) Rotorcraft with a third attitude instrument system usable through flight attitudes of ±80 degrees of pitch and ±120 degrees of roll and installed in accordance with § 29.1303(g) of this chapter. (4) Slip-skid indicator. (5) Sensitive altimeter adjustable for barometric pressure. (6) A clock displaying hours, minutes, and seconds with a sweep-second pointer or digital presentation. (7) Generator or alternator of adequate capacity. (8) Gyroscopic pitch and bank indicator (artificial horizon). (9) Gyroscopic direction indicator (directional gyro or equivalent). (e) Flight at and above 24,000 feet MSL (FL 240). If VOR navigation equipment is required under paragraph (d)(2) of this section, no person may operate a U.S.-registered civil aircraft within the 50 states and the District of Columbia at or above FL 240 unless that aircraft is equipped with approved DME or a suitable RNAV system. When the DME or RNAV system required by this paragraph fails at and above FL 240, the pilot in command of the aircraft must notify ATC immediately, and then may continue operations at and above FL 240 to the next airport of intended landing where repairs or replacement of the equipment can be made. (f) Category II operations. The requirements for Category II operations are the instruments and equipment specified in— (1) Paragraph (d) of this section; and (2) Appendix A to this part. (g) Category III operations. The instruments and equipment required for Category III operations are specified in paragraph (d) of this section. (h) Night vision goggle operations. For night vision goggle operations, the following instruments and equipment must be installed in the aircraft, functioning in a normal manner, and approved for use by the FAA: (1) Instruments and equipment specified in paragraph (b) of this section, instruments and equipment specified in paragraph (c) of this section; (2) Night vision goggles; (3) Interior and exterior aircraft lighting system required for night vision goggle operations; (4) Two-way radio communications system; (5) Gyroscopic pitch and bank indicator (artificial horizon); (6) Generator or alternator of adequate capacity for the required instruments and equipment; and (7) Radar altimeter.

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(i) Exclusions. Paragraphs (f) and (g) of this section do not apply to operations conducted by a holder of a certificate issued under part 121 or part 135 of this chapter. [Docket 18334, 54 FR 34292, Aug. 18, 1989, as amended by Amdt. 91-220, 55 FR 43310, Oct. 26, 1990; Amdt. 91-223, 56 FR 41052, Aug. 16, 1991; Amdt. 91-231, 57 FR 42672, Sept. 15, 1992; Amdt. 91-248, 61 FR 5171, Feb. 9, 1996; Amdt. 91-251, 61 FR 34560, July 2, 1996; Amdt. 91-285, 69 FR 77599, Dec. 27, 2004; Amdt. 91-296, 72 FR 31679, June 7, 2007; Amdt. 91-309, 74 FR 42563, Aug. 21, 2009; Docket FAA-2015-1621, Amdt. 91-346, 81 FR 96700, Dec. 30, 2016] Effective Date Note: Amendments to § 91.205 were published by Docket FAA-2023-1275, Amdt. 60-8, 89 FR 92486, Nov. 21, 2024, effective Jan. 21, 2025. § 91.207 Emergency locator transmitters. (a) Except as provided in paragraphs (e) and (f) of this section, no person may operate a U.S.-registered civil airplane unless— (1) There is attached to the airplane an approved automatic type emergency locator transmitter that is in operable condition for the following operations, except that after June 21, 1995, an emergency locator transmitter that meets the requirements of TSO-C91 may not be used for new installations: (i) Those operations governed by the supplemental air carrier and commercial operator rules of parts 121 and 125; (ii) Charter flights governed by the domestic and flag air carrier rules of part 121 of this chapter; and (iii) Operations governed by part 135 of this chapter; or (2) For operations other than those specified in paragraph (a)(1) of this section, there must be attached to the airplane an approved personal type or an approved automatic type emergency locator transmitter that is in operable condition, except that after June 21, 1995, an emergency locator transmitter that meets the requirements of TSO-C91 may not be used for new installations. (b) Each emergency locator transmitter required by paragraph (a) of this section must be attached to the airplane in such a manner that the probability of damage to the transmitter in the event of crash impact is minimized. Fixed and deployable automatic type transmitters must be attached to the airplane as far aft as practicable. (c) Batteries used in the emergency locator transmitters required by paragraphs (a) and (b) of this section must be replaced (or recharged, if the batteries are rechargeable)— (1) When the transmitter has been in use for more than 1 cumulative hour; or (2) When 50 percent of their useful life (or, for rechargeable batteries, 50 percent of their useful life of charge) has expired, as established by the transmitter manufacturer under its approval. The new expiration date for replacing (or recharging) the battery must be legibly marked on the outside of the transmitter and entered in the aircraft maintenance record. Paragraph (c)(2) of this section does not apply to batteries (such as water-activated batteries) that are essentially unaffected during probable storage intervals. (d) Each emergency locator transmitter required by paragraph (a) of this section must be inspected within 12 calendar months after the last inspection for— (1) Proper installation; (2) Battery corrosion; (3) Operation of the controls and crash sensor; and (4) The presence of a sufficient signal radiated from its antenna. (e) Notwithstanding paragraph (a) of this section, a person may— (1) Ferry a newly acquired airplane from the place where possession of it was taken to a place where the emergency locator transmitter is to be installed; and (2) Ferry an airplane with an inoperative emergency locator transmitter from a place where repairs or replacements cannot be made to a place where they can be made. No person other than required crewmembers may be carried aboard an airplane being ferried under paragraph (e) of this section. (f) Paragraph (a) of this section does not apply to— (1) Before January 1, 2004, turbojet-powered aircraft; (2) Aircraft while engaged in scheduled flights by scheduled air carriers;

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(3) Aircraft while engaged in training operations conducted entirely within a 50-nautical mile radius of the airport from which such local flight operations began; (4) Aircraft while engaged in flight operations incident to design and testing; (5) New aircraft while engaged in flight operations incident to their manufacture, preparation, and delivery; (6) Aircraft while engaged in flight operations incident to the aerial application of chemicals and other substances for agricultural purposes; (7) Aircraft certificated by the Administrator for research and development purposes; (8) Aircraft while used for showing compliance with regulations, crew training, exhibition, air racing, or market surveys; (9) Aircraft equipped to carry not more than one person. (10) An aircraft during any period for which the transmitter has been temporarily removed for inspection, repair, modification, or replacement, subject to the following: (i) No person may operate the aircraft unless the aircraft records contain an entry which includes the date of initial removal, the make, model, serial number, and reason for removing the transmitter, and a placard located in view of the pilot to show “ELT not installed.” (ii) No person may operate the aircraft more than 90 days after the ELT is initially removed from the aircraft; and (11) On and after January 1, 2004, aircraft with a maximum payload capacity of more than 18,000 pounds when used in air transportation. [Docket 18334, 54 FR 34304, Aug. 18, 1989, as amended by Amdt. 91-242, 59 FR 32057, June 21, 1994; 59 FR 34578, July 6, 1994; Amdt. 91-265, 65 FR 81319, Dec. 22, 2000; 66 FR 16316, Mar. 23, 2001] § 91.209 Aircraft lights. No person may: (a) During the period from sunset to sunrise (or, in Alaska, during the period a prominent unlighted object cannot be seen from a distance of 3 statute miles or the sun is more than 6 degrees below the horizon)— (1) Operate an aircraft unless it has lighted position lights; (2) Park or move an aircraft in, or in dangerous proximity to, a night flight operations area of an airport unless the aircraft— (i) Is clearly illuminated; (ii) Has lighted position lights; or (iii) is in an area that is marked by obstruction lights; (3) Anchor an aircraft unless the aircraft— (i) Has lighted anchor lights; or (ii) Is in an area where anchor lights are not required on vessels; or (b) Operate an aircraft that is equipped with an anticollision light system, unless it has lighted anticollision lights. However, the anticollision lights need not be lighted when the pilot-in-command determines that, because of operating conditions, it would be in the interest of safety to turn the lights off. [Docket 27806, 61 FR 5171, Feb. 9, 1996] § 91.211 Supplemental oxygen. (a) General. No person may operate a civil aircraft of U.S. registry— (1) At cabin pressure altitudes above 12,500 feet (MSL) up to and including 14,000 feet (MSL) unless the required minimum flight crew is provided with and uses supplemental oxygen for that part of the flight at those altitudes that is of more than 30 minutes duration; (2) At cabin pressure altitudes above 14,000 feet (MSL) unless the required minimum flight crew is provided with and uses supplemental oxygen during the entire flight time at those altitudes; and (3) At cabin pressure altitudes above 15,000 feet (MSL) unless each occupant of the aircraft is provided with supplemental oxygen. (b) Pressurized cabin aircraft. (1) No person may operate a civil aircraft of U.S. registry with a pressurized cabin— (i) At flight altitudes above flight level 250 unless at least a 10-minute supply of supplemental oxygen, in addition to any oxygen required to satisfy paragraph (a) of this section, is available for each occupant of the aircraft for use in the event that a descent is necessitated by loss of cabin pressurization; and

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(ii) At flight altitudes above flight level 350 unless one pilot at the controls of the airplane is wearing and using an oxygen mask that is secured and sealed and that either supplies oxygen at all times or automatically supplies oxygen whenever the cabin pressure altitude of the airplane exceeds 14,000 feet (MSL), except that the one pilot need not wear and use an oxygen mask while at or below flight level 410 if there are two pilots at the controls and each pilot has a quick-donning type of oxygen mask that can be placed on the face with one hand from the ready position within 5 seconds, supplying oxygen and properly secured and sealed. (2) Notwithstanding paragraph (b)(1)(ii) of this section, if for any reason at any time it is necessary for one pilot to leave the controls of the aircraft when operating at flight altitudes above flight level 350, the remaining pilot at the controls shall put on and use an oxygen mask until the other pilot has returned to that crewmember's station. § 91.213 Inoperative instruments and equipment. (a) Except as provided in paragraph (d) of this section, no person may take off an aircraft with inoperative instruments or equipment installed unless the following conditions are met: (1) An approved Minimum Equipment List exists for that aircraft. (2) The aircraft has within it a letter of authorization, issued by the responsible Flight Standards office, authorizing operation of the aircraft under the Minimum Equipment List. The letter of authorization may be obtained by written request of the airworthiness certificate holder. The Minimum Equipment List and the letter of authorization constitute a supplemental type certificate for the aircraft. (3) The approved Minimum Equipment List must— (i) Be prepared in accordance with the limitations specified in paragraph (b) of this section; and (ii) Provide for the operation of the aircraft with the instruments and equipment in an inoperable condition. (4) The aircraft records available to the pilot must include an entry describing the inoperable instruments and equipment. (5) The aircraft is operated under all applicable conditions and limitations contained in the Minimum Equipment List and the letter authorizing the use of the list. (b) The following instruments and equipment may not be included in a Minimum Equipment List: (1) Instruments and equipment that are either specifically or otherwise required by the airworthiness requirements under which the aircraft is type certificated and which are essential for safe operations under all operating conditions. (2) Instruments and equipment required by an airworthiness directive to be in operable condition unless the airworthiness directive provides otherwise. (3) Instruments and equipment required for specific operations by this part. (c) A person authorized to use an approved Minimum Equipment List issued for a specific aircraft under subpart K of this part, part 121, 125, or 135 of this chapter must use that Minimum Equipment List to comply with the requirements in this section. (d) Except for operations conducted in accordance with paragraph (a) or (c) of this section, a person may takeoff an aircraft in operations conducted under this part with inoperative instruments and equipment without an approved Minimum Equipment List provided— (1) The flight operation is conducted in a— (i) Rotorcraft, non-turbine-powered airplane, glider, lighter-than-air aircraft, powered parachute, or weight-shift-control aircraft, for which a master minimum equipment list has not been developed; or (ii) Small rotorcraft, nonturbine-powered small airplane, glider, or lighter-than-air aircraft for which a Master Minimum Equipment List has been developed; and (2) The inoperative instruments and equipment are not— (i) Part of the VFR-day type certification instruments and equipment prescribed in the applicable airworthiness regulations under which the aircraft was type certificated;

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(ii) Indicated as required on the aircraft's equipment list, or on the Kinds of Operations Equipment List for the kind of flight operation being conducted; (iii) Required by § 91.205 or any other rule of this part for the specific kind of flight operation being conducted; or (iv) Required to be operational by an airworthiness directive; and (3) The inoperative instruments and equipment are— (i) Removed from the aircraft, the cockpit control placarded, and the maintenance recorded in accordance with § 43.9 of this chapter; or (ii) Deactivated and placarded “Inoperative.” If deactivation of the inoperative instrument or equipment involves maintenance, it must be accomplished and recorded in accordance with part 43 of this chapter; and (4) A determination is made by a pilot, who is certificated and appropriately rated under part 61 of this chapter, or by a person, who is certificated and appropriately rated to perform maintenance on the aircraft, that the inoperative instrument or equipment does not constitute a hazard to the aircraft. An aircraft with inoperative instruments or equipment as provided in paragraph (d) of this section is considered to be in a properly altered condition acceptable to the Administrator. (e) Notwithstanding any other provision of this section, an aircraft with inoperable instruments or equipment may be operated under a special flight permit issued in accordance with §§ 21.197 and 21.199 of this chapter. [Docket 18334, 54 FR 34304, Aug. 18, 1989, as amended by Amdt. 91-280, 68 FR 54560, Sept. 17, 2003; Amdt. 91-282, 69 FR 44880, July 27, 2004; Docket FAA-2018-0119, Amdt. 91-350, 83 FR 9171, Mar. 5, 2018] § 91.215 ATC transponder and altitude reporting equipment and use. (a) All airspace: U.S.-registered civil aircraft. For operations not conducted under part 121 or 135 of this chapter, ATC transponder equipment installed must meet the performance and environmental requirements of any class of TSO-C74b (Mode A) or any class of TSO-C74c (Mode A with altitude reporting capability) as appropriate, or the appropriate class of TSO-C112 (Mode S). (b) All airspace. Unless otherwise authorized or directed by ATC, and except as provided in paragraph (e)(1) of this section, no person may operate an aircraft in the airspace described in paragraphs (b)(1) through (5) of this section, unless that aircraft is equipped with an operable coded radar beacon transponder having either Mode A 4096 code capability, replying to Mode A interrogations with the code specified by ATC, or a Mode S capability, replying to Mode A interrogations with the code specified by ATC and Mode S interrogations in accordance with the applicable provisions specified in TSO-C112, and that aircraft is equipped with automatic pressure altitude reporting equipment having a Mode C capability that automatically replies to Mode C interrogations by transmitting pressure altitude information in 100-foot increments. The requirements of this paragraph (b) apply to— (1) All aircraft. In Class A, Class B, and Class C airspace areas; (2) All aircraft. In all airspace within 30 nautical miles of an airport listed in appendix D, section 1 of this part from the surface upward to 10,000 feet MSL; (3) Notwithstanding paragraph (b)(2) of this section, any aircraft which was not originally certificated with an engine-driven electrical system or which has not subsequently been certified with such a system installed, balloon or glider may conduct operations in the airspace within 30 nautical miles of an airport listed in appendix D, section 1 of this part provided such operations are conducted— (i) Outside any Class A, Class B, or Class C airspace area; and (ii) Below the altitude of the ceiling of a Class B or Class C airspace area designated for an airport or 10,000 feet MSL, whichever is lower; and (4) All aircraft in all airspace above the ceiling and within the lateral boundaries of a Class B or Class C airspace area designated for an airport upward to 10,000 feet MSL; and (5) All aircraft except any aircraft which was not originally certificated with an engine-driven electrical system or which has not subsequently been certified with such a system installed, balloon, or glider—

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(i) In all airspace of the 48 contiguous states and the District of Columbia at and above 10,000 feet MSL, excluding the airspace at and below 2,500 feet above the surface; and (ii) In the airspace from the surface to 10,000 feet MSL within a 10-nautical-mile radius of any airport listed in appendix D, section 2 of this part, excluding the airspace below 1,200 feet outside of the lateral boundaries of the surface area of the airspace designated for that airport. (c) Transponder-on operation. Except as provided in paragraph (e)(2) of this section, while in the airspace as specified in paragraph (b) of this section or in all controlled airspace, each person operating an aircraft equipped with an operable ATC transponder maintained in accordance with § 91.413 shall operate the transponder, including Mode C equipment if installed, and shall reply on the appropriate code or as assigned by ATC, unless otherwise directed by ATC when transmitting would jeopardize the safe execution of air traffic control functions. (d) ATC authorized deviations. Requests for ATC authorized deviations must be made to the ATC facility having jurisdiction over the concerned airspace within the time periods specified as follows: (1) For operation of an aircraft with an operating transponder but without operating automatic pressure altitude reporting equipment having a Mode C capability, the request may be made at any time. (2) For operation of an aircraft with an inoperative transponder to the airport of ultimate destination, including any intermediate stops, or to proceed to a place where suitable repairs can be made or both, the request may be made at any time. (3) For operation of an aircraft that is not equipped with a transponder, the request must be made at least one hour before the proposed operation. (e) Unmanned aircraft. (1) The requirements of paragraph (b) of this section do not apply to a person operating an unmanned aircraft under this part unless the operation is conducted under a flight plan and the person operating the unmanned aircraft maintains two-way communication with ATC. (2) No person may operate an unmanned aircraft under this part with a transponder on unless: (i) The operation is conducted under a flight plan and the person operating the unmanned aircraft maintains two-way communication with ATC; or (ii) The use of a transponder is otherwise authorized by the Administrator. (Approved by the Office of Management and Budget under control number 2120-0005) [Docket 18334, 54 FR 34304, Aug. 18, 1989, as amended by Amdt. 91-221, 56 FR 469, Jan. 4, 1991; Amdt. 91-227, 56 FR 65660, Dec. 17, 1991; Amdt. 91-227, 7 FR 328, Jan. 3, 1992; Amdt. 91-229, 57 FR 34618, Aug. 5, 1992; Amdt. 91-267, 66 FR 21066, Apr. 27, 2001; Amdt. 91-355, 84 FR 34287, July 18, 2019; Amdt. 91-361, 86 FR 4512, Jan. 15, 2021; Docket FAA-2023-1836, Amdt. 91-371, 88 FR 71476, Oct. 17, 2023] § 91.217 Data correspondence between automatically reported pressure altitude data and the pilot's altitude reference. (a) No person may operate any automatic pressure altitude reporting equipment associated with a radar beacon transponder— (1) When deactivation of that equipment is directed by ATC; (2) Unless, as installed, that equipment was tested and calibrated to transmit altitude data corresponding within 125 feet (on a 95 percent probability basis) of the indicated or calibrated datum of the altimeter normally used to maintain flight altitude, with that altimeter referenced to 29.92 inches of mercury for altitudes from sea level to the maximum operating altitude of the aircraft; or (3) Unless the altimeters and digitizers in that equipment meet the standards of TSO-C10b and TSO-C88, respectively. (b) No person may operate any automatic pressure altitude reporting equipment associated with a radar beacon transponder or with ADS-B Out equipment unless the pressure altitude reported for ADS-B Out and Mode C/S is derived from the same source for aircraft equipped with both a transponder and ADS-B Out. [Docket 18334, 54 FR 34304, Aug. 18, 1989, as amended by Amdt. 91-314, 75 FR 30193, May 28, 2010]

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§ 91.219 Altitude alerting system or device: Turbojet-powered civil airplanes. (a) Except as provided in paragraph (d) of this section, no person may operate a turbojet-powered U.S.-registered civil airplane unless that airplane is equipped with an approved altitude alerting system or device that is in operable condition and meets the requirements of paragraph (b) of this section. (b) Each altitude alerting system or device required by paragraph (a) of this section must be able to— (1) Alert the pilot— (i) Upon approaching a preselected altitude in either ascent or descent, by a sequence of both aural and visual signals in sufficient time to establish level flight at that preselected altitude; or (ii) Upon approaching a preselected altitude in either ascent or descent, by a sequence of visual signals in sufficient time to establish level flight at that preselected altitude, and when deviating above and below that preselected altitude, by an aural signal; (2) Provide the required signals from sea level to the highest operating altitude approved for the airplane in which it is installed; (3) Preselect altitudes in increments that are commensurate with the altitudes at which the aircraft is operated; (4) Be tested without special equipment to determine proper operation of the alerting signals; and (5) Accept necessary barometric pressure settings if the system or device operates on barometric pressure. However, for operation below 3,000 feet AGL, the system or device need only provide one signal, either visual or aural, to comply with this paragraph. A radio altimeter may be included to provide the signal if the operator has an approved procedure for its use to determine DA/DH or MDA, as appropriate. (c) Each operator to which this section applies must establish and assign procedures for the use of the altitude alerting system or device and each flight crewmember must comply with those procedures assigned to him. (d) Paragraph (a) of this section does not apply to any operation of an airplane that has an experimental certificate or to the operation of any airplane for the following purposes: (1) Ferrying a newly acquired airplane from the place where possession of it was taken to a place where the altitude alerting system or device is to be installed. (2) Continuing a flight as originally planned, if the altitude alerting system or device becomes inoperative after the airplane has taken off; however, the flight may not depart from a place where repair or replacement can be made. (3) Ferrying an airplane with any inoperative altitude alerting system or device from a place where repairs or replacements cannot be made to a place where it can be made. (4) Conducting an airworthiness flight test of the airplane. (5) Ferrying an airplane to a place outside the United States for the purpose of registering it in a foreign country. (6) Conducting a sales demonstration of the operation of the airplane. (7) Training foreign flight crews in the operation of the airplane before ferrying it to a place outside the United States for the purpose of registering it in a foreign country. [Docket 18334, 54 FR 34304, Aug. 18, 1989, as amended by Amdt. 91-296, 72 FR 31679, June 7, 2007] § 91.221 Traffic alert and collision avoidance system equipment and use. (a) All airspace: U.S.-registered civil aircraft. Any traffic alert and collision avoidance system installed in a U.S.-registered civil aircraft must be approved by the Administrator. (b) Traffic alert and collision avoidance system, operation required. Each person operating an aircraft equipped with an operable traffic alert and collision avoidance system shall have that system on and operating. § 91.223 Terrain awareness and warning system. (a) Airplanes manufactured after March 29, 2002. Except as provided in paragraph (d) of this section, no person may operate a turbine-powered U.S.-registered airplane configured with six or more passenger seats, excluding any pilot seat, unless that airplane is equipped with an approved terrain awareness and warning system that as a minimum meets the requirements for Class B equipment in Technical Standard Order (TSO)-C151.

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(b) Airplanes manufactured on or before March 29, 2002. Except as provided in paragraph (d) of this section, no person may operate a turbine-powered U.S.-registered airplane configured with six or more passenger seats, excluding any pilot seat, after March 29, 2005, unless that airplane is equipped with an approved terrain awareness and warning system that as a minimum meets the requirements for Class B equipment in Technical Standard Order (TSO)-C151. (Approved by the Office of Management and Budget under control number 2120-0631) (c) Airplane Flight Manual. The Airplane Flight Manual shall contain appropriate procedures for— (1) The use of the terrain awareness and warning system; and (2) Proper flight crew reaction in response to the terrain awareness and warning system audio and visual warnings. (d) Exceptions. Paragraphs (a) and (b) of this section do not apply to— (1) Parachuting operations when conducted entirely within a 50 nautical mile radius of the airport from which such local flight operations began. (2) Firefighting operations. (3) Flight operations when incident to the aerial application of chemicals and other substances. [Docket 29312, 65 FR 16755, Mar. 29, 2000] § 91.225 Automatic Dependent Surveillance-Broadcast (ADS-B) Out equipment and use. (a) After January 1, 2020, unless otherwise authorized by ATC, no person may operate an aircraft in Class A airspace unless the aircraft has equipment installed that— (1) Meets the performance requirements in- (i) TSO-C166b and Section 2 of RTCA DO-260B (as referenced in TSO-C166b); or (ii) TSO-C166c and Section 2 of RTCA DO-260C as modified by DO-260C—Change 1 (as referenced in TSO-C166c); and (2) Meets the requirements of § 91.227. (b) After January 1, 2020, except as prohibited in paragraph (h)(2) of this section or unless otherwise authorized by ATC, no person may operate an aircraft below 18,000 feet MSL and in airspace described in paragraph (d) of this section unless the aircraft has equipment installed that— (1) Meets the performance requirements in— (i) TSO-C166b and Section 2 of RTCA DO-260B (as referenced in TSO-C166b); (ii) TSO-C166c and Section 2 of RTCA DO-260C as modified by DO-260C—Change 1 (as referenced in TSO-C166c); (iii) TSO-C154c and Section 2 of RTCA DO-282B (as referenced in TSO-C154c); or (iv) TSO-C154d and Section 2 of RTCA DO-282C (as referenced in TSO-C154d); (2) Meets the requirements of § 91.227. (c) Operators with equipment installed with an approved deviation under § 21.618 of this chapter also are in compliance with this section. (d) After January 1, 2020, except as prohibited in paragraph (h)(2) of this section or unless otherwise authorized by ATC, no person may operate an aircraft in the following airspace unless the aircraft has equipment installed that meets the requirements in paragraph (b) of this section: (1) Class B and Class C airspace areas; (2) Except as provided for in paragraph (e) of this section, within 30 nautical miles of an airport listed in appendix D, section 1 to this part from the surface upward to 10,000 feet MSL; (3) Above the ceiling and within the lateral boundaries of a Class B or Class C airspace area designated for an airport upward to 10,000 feet MSL; (4) Except as provided in paragraph (e) of this section, Class E airspace within the 48 contiguous states and the District of Columbia at and above 10,000 feet MSL, excluding the airspace at and below 2,500 feet above the surface; and (5) Class E airspace at and above 3,000 feet MSL over the Gulf of Mexico from the coastline of the United States out to 12 nautical miles.

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(e) The requirements of paragraph (b) of this section do not apply to any aircraft that was not originally certificated with an engine-driven electrical system, or that has not subsequently been certified with such a system installed, including balloons and gliders. These aircraft may conduct operations without ADS-B Out in the airspace specified in paragraph (d)(4) of this section. These aircraft may also conduct operations in the airspace specified in paragraph (d)(2) of this section if those operations are conducted— (1) Outside any Class B or Class C airspace area; and (2) Below the altitude of the ceiling of a Class B or Class C airspace area designated for an airport, or 10,000 feet MSL, whichever is lower. (f) Except as prohibited in paragraph (h)(2) of this section, each person operating an aircraft equipped with ADS-B Out must operate this equipment in the transmit mode at all times unless— (1) Otherwise authorized by the FAA when the aircraft is performing a sensitive government mission for national defense, homeland security, intelligence or law enforcement purposes and transmitting would compromise the operations security of the mission or pose a safety risk to the aircraft, crew, or people and property in the air or on the ground; or (2) Otherwise directed by ATC when transmitting would jeopardize the safe execution of air traffic control functions. (g) Requests for ATC authorized deviations from the requirements of this section must be made to the ATC facility having jurisdiction over the concerned airspace within the time periods specified as follows: (1) For operation of an aircraft with an inoperative ADS-B Out, to the airport of ultimate destination, including any intermediate stops, or to proceed to a place where suitable repairs can be made or both, the request may be made at any time. (2) For operation of an aircraft that is not equipped with ADS-B Out, the request must be made at least 1 hour before the proposed operation. (h) For unmanned aircraft: (1) No person may operate an unmanned aircraft under a flight plan and in two way communication with ATC unless: (i) That aircraft has equipment installed that meets the performance requirements in TSO-C166b (including Section 2 of RTCA DO-260B, as referenced in TSO-C166b), TSO-C166c (including Section 2 of RTCA DO-260C as modified by DO-260C—Change 1, as referenced in TSO-C166c), TSO-C154c (including Section 2 of RTCA DO-282B, as referenced in TSO-C154c), or TSO-C154d (including Section 2 of RTCA DO-282C, as referenced in TSO-C154d); and (ii) The equipment meets the requirements of § 91.227. (2) No person may operate an unmanned aircraft under this part with Automatic Dependent Surveillance-Broadcast Out equipment in transmit mode unless: (i) The operation is conducted under a flight plan and the person operating that unmanned aircraft maintains two-way communication with ATC; or (ii) The use of ADS-B Out is otherwise authorized by the Administrator. (i) The standards required in this section are incorporated by reference with the approval of the Director of the Office of the Federal Register under 5 U.S.C. 552(a) and 1 CFR part 51. This incorporation by reference (IBR) material is available for inspection at the FAA and the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). Contact the FAA at: Office of Rulemaking (ARM-1), 800 Independence Avenue SW, Washington, DC 20590 (telephone 202-267-9677). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, visit https://www.archives.gov/federal-register/cfr/ibr-locations.html or email fr.inspection@nara.gov. This material is also available from the following sources in this paragraph (i). (1) U.S. Department of Transportation, Subsequent Distribution Office, DOT Warehouse M30, Ardmore East Business Center, 3341 Q 75th Avenue, Landover, MD 20785; telephone (301) 322-5377; website: www.faa.gov/aircraft/air_cert/design_approvals/tso/ (select the link “Search Technical Standard Orders”). (i) TSO-C166b, Extended Squitter Automatic Dependent Surveillance-Broadcast (ADS-B) and Traffic Information Service-Broadcast (TIS-B) Equipment Operating on the Radio Frequency of 1090 Megahertz (MHz), December 2, 2009. (ii) TSO-C166c, Extended Squitter Automatic Dependent Surveillance-Broadcast (ADS-B) and Traffic Information Service-Broadcast (TIS-B) Equipment Operating on the Radio Frequency of 1090 Megahertz (MHz), March 10, 2023. (iii) TSO-C154c, Universal Access Transceiver (UAT) Automatic Dependent Surveillance-Broadcast (ADS-B) Equipment Operating on the Frequency of 978 MHz, December 2, 2009. (iv) TSO-C154d, Universal Access Transceiver (UAT) Automatic Dependent Surveillance-Broadcast (ADS-B) Equipment Operating on the Radio Frequency of 978 Megahertz (MHz), March 10, 2023. (2) RTCA, Inc., 1150 18th St. NW, Suite 910, Washington, DC 20036; telephone (202) 833-9339; website: www.rtca.org/products. (i) RTCA DO-260B, Minimum Operational Performance Standards for 1090 MHz Extended Squitter Automatic Dependent Surveillance-Broadcast (ADS-B) and Traffic Information Services-Broadcast (TIS-B), Section 2, Equipment Performance Requirements and Test Procedures, December 2, 2009. (ii) RTCA DO-260C, Minimum Operational Performance Standards for 1090 MHz Extended Squitter Automatic Dependent Surveillance-Broadcast (ADS-B) and Traffic Information Services-Broadcast (TIS-B), Section 2, Equipment Performance Requirements and Test Procedures, December 17, 2020. (iii) RTCA DO-260C, Minimum Operational Performance Standards for 1090 MHz Extended Squitter Automatic Dependent Surveillance—Broadcast (ADS-B) and Traffic Information Services—Broadcast (TIS-B), Change 1, January 25, 2022. (iv) RTCA DO-282B, Minimum Operational Performance Standards for Universal Access Transceiver (UAT) Automatic Dependent Surveillance-Broadcast (ADS-B), Section 2, Equipment Performance Requirements and Test Procedures, December 2, 2009. (v) RTCA DO-282C, Minimum Operational Performance Standards (MOPS) for Universal Access Transceiver (UAT) Automatic Dependent Surveillance-Broadcast (ADS-B), Section 2, Equipment Performance Requirements and Test Procedures, June 23, 2022. [Docket FAA-2007-29305, 75 FR 30193, May 28, 2010; Amdt. 91-314-A, 75 FR 37712, June 30, 2010, as amended by Amdt. 91-316, 75 FR 37712, June 30, 2010; Amdt. 91-336, 80 FR 6900, Feb. 9, 2015; Amdt. 91-336A, 80 FR 11537, Mar. 4, 2015; Amdt. 91-355, 84 FR 34287, July 18, 2019; Amdt. 91-361, 86 FR 4513, Jan. 15, 2021; Docket FAA-2023-1836, Amdt. 91-371, 88 FR 71476, Oct. 17, 2023; Amdt. 91-371B, 89 FR 33224, Apr. 29, 2024] § 91.227 Automatic Dependent Surveillance-Broadcast (ADS-B) Out equipment performance requirements. (a) Definitions. For the purposes of this section: ADS-B Out is a function of an aircraft's onboard avionics that periodically broadcasts the aircraft's state vector (3-dimensional position and 3-dimensional velocity) and other required information as described in this section. Navigation Accuracy Category for Position ( NAC P ) specifies the accuracy of a reported aircraft's position. Navigation Accuracy Category for Velocity ( NAC V ) specifies the accuracy of a reported aircraft's velocity. Navigation Integrity Category (NIC) specifies an integrity containment radius around an aircraft's reported position. Position Source refers to the equipment installed onboard an aircraft used to process and provide aircraft position (for example, latitude, longitude, and velocity) information. Source Integrity Level (SIL) indicates the probability of the reported horizontal position exceeding the containment radius defined by the NIC on a per sample or per hour basis. System Design Assurance (SDA) indicates the probability of an aircraft malfunction causing false or misleading information to be transmitted. Total latency is the total time between when the position is measured and when the position is transmitted by the aircraft. Uncompensated latency is the time for which the aircraft does not compensate for latency. (b) 1090 MHz ES and UAT Broadcast Links and Power Requirements —

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(1) Aircraft operating in Class A airspace must have equipment installed that meets the antenna and power output requirements of Class A1S, A1, A2, A3, B1S, or B1 equipment as defined in TSO-C166b and Section 2 of RTCA DO-260B (as referenced in TSO-C166b), or TSO-C166c and Section 2 of RTCA DO-260C as modified by DO-260C—Change 1 (as referenced in TSO-C166c). (2) Aircraft operating in airspace designated for ADS-B Out, but outside of Class A airspace, must have equipment installed that meets the antenna and output power requirements of either: (i) Class A1S, A1, A2, A3, B1S, or B1 as defined in TSO-C166b and Section 2 of RTCA DO-260B (as referenced in TSO-C166b) or TSO-C166c and Section 2 of RTCA DO-260C as modified by DO-260C—Change 1 (as referenced in TSO-C166c); or (ii) Class A1S, A1H, A2, A3, B1S, or B1 equipment as defined in TSO-C154c and Section 2 of RTCA DO-282B (as referenced in TSO-C154c), or TSO-C154d and Section 2 of RTCA DO-282C (as referenced in TSO-C154d). (c) ADS-B Out Performance Requirements for NAC P, NAC V , NIC, SDA , and SIL — (1) For aircraft broadcasting ADS-B Out as required under § 91.225 (a) and (b)— (i) The aircraft's NAC P must be less than 0.05 nautical miles; (ii) The aircraft's NAC V must be less than 10 meters per second; (iii) The aircraft's NIC must be less than 0.2 nautical miles; (iv) The aircraft's SDA must be less than or equal to 10 −5 per flight hour; and (v) The aircraft's SIL must be less than or equal to 10 −7 per flight hour or per sample. (2) Changes in NAC P , NAC V , SDA, and SIL must be broadcast within 10 seconds. (3) Changes in NIC must be broadcast within 12 seconds. (d) Minimum Broadcast Message Element Set for ADS-B Out. Each aircraft must broadcast the following information, as defined in TSO-C166b (including Section 2 of RTCA DO-260B, as referenced in TSO-C166b), TSO-C166c (including Section 2 of RTCA DO-260C as modified by DO-260C—Change 1, as referenced in TSO-C166c), TSO-C154c (including Section 2 of RTCA DO-282B, as referenced in TSO-C154c), or TSO-C154d (including Section 2 of RTCA DO-282C, as referenced in TSO-C154d). The pilot must enter information for message elements listed in paragraphs (d)(7) through (10) of this section during the appropriate phase of flight. (1) The length and width of the aircraft; (2) An indication of the aircraft's latitude and longitude; (3) An indication of the aircraft's barometric pressure altitude; (4) An indication of the aircraft's velocity; (5) An indication if a collision avoidance system is installed and operating in a mode that can generate resolution advisory alerts; (6) If an operable collision avoidance system is installed, an indication if a resolution advisory is in effect; (7) An indication of the Mode A transponder code specified by ATC; (8) An indication of the aircraft identification that is submitted on the flight plan or used for communicating with ATC, except when the pilot has not filed a flight plan, has not requested ATC services, and is using a TSO-C154c or TSO-C154d self-assigned temporary 24-bit address; (9) An indication if the flightcrew has identified an emergency, radio communication failure, or unlawful interference; (10) An indication of the aircraft's “IDENT” to ATC; (11) An indication of the aircraft assigned ICAO 24-bit address, except when the pilot has not filed a flight plan, has not requested ATC services, and is using a TSO-C154c or TSO-C154d self-assigned temporary 24-bit address; (12) An indication of the aircraft's emitter category; (13) An indication of whether an ADS-B In capability is available; (14) An indication of the aircraft's geometric altitude; (15) An indication of the Navigation Accuracy Category for Position (NAC P ); (16) An indication of the Navigation Accuracy Category for Velocity (NAC V );

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(17) An indication of the Navigation Integrity Category (NIC); (18) An indication of the System Design Assurance (SDA); and (19) An indication of the Source Integrity Level (SIL). (e) ADS-B Latency Requirements — (1) The aircraft must transmit its geometric position no later than 2.0 seconds from the time of measurement of the position to the time of transmission. (2) Within the 2.0 total latency allocation, a maximum of 0.6 seconds can be uncompensated latency. The aircraft must compensate for any latency above 0.6 seconds up to the maximum 2.0 seconds total by extrapolating the geometric position to the time of message transmission. (3) The aircraft must transmit its position and velocity at least once per second while airborne or while moving on the airport surface. (4) The aircraft must transmit its position at least once every 5 seconds while stationary on the airport surface. (f) Equipment with an approved deviation. Operators with equipment installed with an approved deviation under § 21.618 of this chapter also are in compliance with this section. (g) Incorporation by reference. The standards required in this section are incorporated by reference with the approval of the Director of the Office of the Federal Register under 5 U.S.C. 552(a) and 1 CFR part 51. This incorporation by reference (IBR) material is available for inspection at the FAA and the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). Contact the FAA at: Office of Rulemaking (ARM-1), 800 Independence Avenue SW, Washington, DC 20590 (telephone 202-267-9677). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, visit www.archives.gov/federal-register/cfr/ibr-locations.html or email fr.inspection@nara.gov. This material is also available from the following sources indicated in this paragraph (g). (1) U.S. Department of Transportation, Subsequent Distribution Office, DOT Warehouse M30, Ardmore East Business Center, 3341 Q 75th Avenue, Landover, MD 20785; telephone (301) 322-5377; website: www.faa.gov/aircraft/air_cert/design_approvals/tso/ (select the link “Search Technical Standard Orders”). (i) TSO-C166b, Extended Squitter Automatic Dependent Surveillance-Broadcast (ADS-B) and Traffic Information Service-Broadcast (TIS-B) Equipment Operating on the Radio Frequency of 1090 Megahertz (MHz), December 2, 2009. (ii) TSO-C166c, Extended Squitter Automatic Dependent Surveillance-Broadcast (ADS-B) and Traffic Information Service-Broadcast (TIS-B) Equipment Operating on the Radio Frequency of 1090 Megahertz (MHz), March 10, 2023. (iii) TSO-C154c, Universal Access Transceiver (UAT) Automatic Dependent Surveillance-Broadcast (ADS-B) Equipment Operating on the Frequency of 978 MHz, December 2, 2009. (iv) TSO-C154d, Universal Access Transceiver (UAT) Automatic Dependent Surveillance-Broadcast (ADS-B) Equipment Operating on the Radio Frequency of 978 Megahertz (MHz), March 10, 2023. (2) RTCA, Inc., 1150 18th St. NW, Suite 910, Washington, DC 20036; telephone (202) 833-9339; website: www.rtca.org/products. (i) RTCA DO-260B, Minimum Operational Performance Standards for 1090 MHz Extended Squitter Automatic Dependent Surveillance-Broadcast (ADS-B) and Traffic Information Services-Broadcast (TIS-B), Section 2, Equipment Performance Requirements and Test Procedures, December 2, 2009. (ii) RTCA DO-260C, Minimum Operational Performance Standards for 1090 MHz Extended Squitter Automatic Dependent Surveillance-Broadcast (ADS-B) and Traffic Information Services-Broadcast (TIS-B), Section 2, Equipment Performance Requirements and Test Procedures, December 17, 2020. (iii) RTCA DO-260C, Minimum Operational Performance Standards for 1090 MHz Extended Squitter Automatic Dependent Surveillance-Broadcast (ADS-B) and Traffic Information Services-Broadcast (TIS-B), Change 1, January 25, 2022. (iv) RTCA DO-282B, Minimum Operational Performance Standards for Universal Access Transceiver (UAT) Automatic Dependent Surveillance- Broadcast (ADS-B), Section 2, Equipment Performance Requirements and Test Procedures, December 2, 2009. (v) RTCA DO-282C, Minimum Operational Performance Standards (MOPS) for Universal Access Transceiver (UAT) Automatic Dependent Surveillance-Broadcast (ADS-B), Section 2, Equipment Performance Requirements and Test Procedures, June 23, 2022. [Docket FAA-2007-29305, 75 FR 30194, May 28, 2010; Amdt. 91-314-A, 75 FR 37712, June 30, 2010, as amended by Amdt. 91-316, 75 FR 37712, June 30, 2010; Docket FAA-2023-1836, Amdt. 91-371, 88 FR 71477, Oct. 17, 2023] §§ 91.228-91.299 [Reserved]
Subpart D—Special Flight Operations Source: Docket 18334, 54 FR 34308, Aug. 18, 1989, unless otherwise noted. § 91.301 [Reserved]
§ 91.303 Aerobatic flight. No person may operate an aircraft in aerobatic flight— (a) Over any congested area of a city, town, or settlement; (b) Over an open air assembly of persons; (c) Within the lateral boundaries of the surface areas of Class B, Class C, Class D, or Class E airspace designated for an airport; (d) Within 4 nautical miles of the center line of any Federal airway; (e) Below an altitude of 1,500 feet above the surface; or (f) When flight visibility is less than 3 statute miles. For the purposes of this section, aerobatic flight means an intentional maneuver involving an abrupt change in an aircraft's attitude, an abnormal attitude, or abnormal acceleration, not necessary for normal flight. [Docket 18834, 54 FR 34308, Aug. 18, 1989, as amended by Amdt. 91-227, 56 FR 65661, Dec. 17, 1991] § 91.305 Flight test areas. No person may flight test an aircraft except over open water, or sparsely populated areas, having light air traffic. § 91.307 Parachutes and parachuting. (a) No pilot of a civil aircraft may allow a parachute that is available for emergency use to be carried in that aircraft unless it is an approved type and has been packed by a certificated and appropriately rated parachute rigger— (1) Within the preceding 180 days, if its canopy, shrouds, and harness are composed exclusively of nylon, rayon, or other similar synthetic fiber or materials that are substantially resistant to damage from mold, mildew, or other fungi and other rotting agents propagated in a moist environment; or (2) Within the preceding 60 days, if any part of the parachute is composed of silk, pongee, or other natural fiber or materials not specified in paragraph (a)(1) of this section. (b) Except in an emergency, no pilot in command may allow, and no person may conduct, a parachute operation from an aircraft within the United States except in accordance with part 105 of this chapter. (c) Unless each occupant of the aircraft is wearing an approved parachute, no pilot of a civil aircraft carrying any person (other than a crewmember) may execute any intentional maneuver that exceeds— (1) A bank of 60 degrees relative to the horizon; or (2) A nose-up or nose-down attitude of 30 degrees relative to the horizon. (d) Paragraph (c) of this section does not apply to— (1) Flight tests for pilot certification or rating; or (2) Spins and other flight maneuvers required by the regulations for any certificate or rating when given by— (i) A certificated flight instructor; or (ii) An airline transport pilot instructing in accordance with § 61.67 of this chapter. (e) For the purposes of this section, approved parachute means— (1) A parachute manufactured under a type certificate or a technical standard order (C-23 series); or (2) A personnel-carrying military parachute identified by an NAF, AAF, or AN drawing number, an AAF order number, or any other military designation or specification number.

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[Docket 18334, 54 FR 34308, Aug. 18, 1989, as amended by Amdt. 91-255, 62 FR 68137, Dec. 30, 1997; Amdt. 91-268, 66 FR 23553, May 9, 2001; Amdt. 91-305, 73 FR 69530, Nov. 19, 2008] § 91.309 Towing: Gliders and unpowered ultralight vehicles. (a) No person may operate a civil aircraft towing a glider or unpowered ultralight vehicle unless— (1) The pilot in command of the towing aircraft is qualified under § 61.69 of this chapter; (2) The towing aircraft is equipped with a tow-hitch of a kind, and installed in a manner, that is approved by the Administrator; (3) The towline used has breaking strength not less than 80 percent of the maximum certificated operating weight of the glider or unpowered ultralight vehicle and not more than twice this operating weight. However, the towline used may have a breaking strength more than twice the maximum certificated operating weight of the glider or unpowered ultralight vehicle if— (i) A safety link is installed at the point of attachment of the towline to the glider or unpowered ultralight vehicle with a breaking strength not less than 80 percent of the maximum certificated operating weight of the glider or unpowered ultralight vehicle and not greater than twice this operating weight; (ii) A safety link is installed at the point of attachment of the towline to the towing aircraft with a breaking strength greater, but not more than 25 percent greater, than that of the safety link at the towed glider or unpowered ultralight vehicle end of the towline and not greater than twice the maximum certificated operating weight of the glider or unpowered ultralight vehicle; (4) Before conducting any towing operation within the lateral boundaries of the surface areas of Class B, Class C, Class D, or Class E airspace designated for an airport, or before making each towing flight within such controlled airspace if required by ATC, the pilot in command notifies the control tower. If a control tower does not exist or is not in operation, the pilot in command must notify the FAA flight service station serving that controlled airspace before conducting any towing operations in that airspace; and (5) The pilots of the towing aircraft and the glider or unpowered ultralight vehicle have agreed upon a general course of action, including takeoff and release signals, airspeeds, and emergency procedures for each pilot. (b) No pilot of a civil aircraft may intentionally release a towline, after release of a glider or unpowered ultralight vehicle, in a manner that endangers the life or property of another. [Docket 18834, 54 FR 34308, Aug. 18, 1989, as amended by Amdt. 91-227, 56 FR 65661, Dec. 17, 1991; Amdt. 91-282, 69 FR 44880, July 27, 2004] § 91.311 Towing: Other than under § 91.309. No pilot of a civil aircraft may tow anything with that aircraft (other than under § 91.309) except in accordance with the terms of a certificate of waiver issued by the Administrator. § 91.313 Restricted category civil aircraft: Operating limitations. (a) No person may operate a restricted category civil aircraft— (1) For other than the special purpose for which it is certificated; or (2) In an operation other than one necessary to accomplish the work activity directly associated with that special purpose. (b) For the purpose of paragraph (a) of this section, the following operations are considered necessary to accomplish the work activity directly associated with a special purpose operation: (1) Flights conducted for flight crewmember training in a special purpose operation for which the aircraft is certificated. (2) Flights conducted to satisfy proficiency check and recent flight experience requirements under part 61 of this chapter provided the flight crewmember holds the appropriate category, class, and type ratings and is employed by the operator to perform the appropriate special purpose operation.

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(3) Flights conducted to relocate the aircraft for delivery, repositioning, or maintenance. (c) No person may operate a restricted category civil aircraft carrying persons or property for compensation or hire. For the purposes of this paragraph (c), a special purpose operation involving the carriage of persons or material necessary to accomplish that operation, such as crop dusting, seeding, spraying, and banner towing (including the carrying of required persons or material to the location of that operation), an operation for the purpose of providing flight crewmember training in a special purpose operation, and an operation conducted under the authority provided in paragraph (h) of this section are not considered to be the carriage of persons or property for compensation or hire. (d) No person may be carried on a restricted category civil aircraft unless that person— (1) Is a flight crewmember; (2) Is a flight crewmember trainee; (3) Performs an essential function in connection with a special purpose operation for which the aircraft is certificated; (4) Is necessary to accomplish the work activity directly associated with that special purpose; or (5) Is necessary to accomplish an operation under paragraph (h) of this section. (e) Except when operating in accordance with the terms and conditions of a certificate of waiver or special operating limitations issued by the Administrator, no person may operate a restricted category civil aircraft within the United States— (1) Over a densely populated area; (2) In a congested airway; or (3) Near a busy airport where passenger transport operations are conducted. (f) This section does not apply to nonpassenger-carrying civil rotorcraft external-load operations conducted under part 133 of this chapter. (g) No person may operate a small restricted-category civil airplane manufactured after July 18, 1978, unless an approved shoulder harness or restraint system is installed for each front seat. The shoulder harness or restraint system installation at each flightcrew station must permit the flightcrew member, when seated and with the safety belt and shoulder harness fastened or the restraint system engaged, to perform all functions necessary for flight operation. For purposes of this paragraph— (1) The date of manufacture of an airplane is the date the inspection acceptance records reflect that the airplane is complete and meets the FAA-approved type design data; and (2) A front seat is a seat located at a flight crewmember station or any seat located alongside such a seat. (h)(1) An operator may apply for deviation authority from the provisions of paragraph (a) of this section to conduct operations for the following purposes: (i) Flight training and the practical test for issuance of a type rating provided— (A) The pilot being trained and tested holds at least a commercial pilot certificate with the appropriate category and class ratings for the aircraft type; (B) The pilot receiving flight training is employed by the operator to perform a special purpose operation; and (C) The flight training is conducted by the operator who employs the pilot to perform a special purpose operation. (ii) Flights to designate an examiner or qualify an FAA inspector in the aircraft type and flights necessary to provide continuing oversight and evaluation of an examiner. (2) The FAA will issue this deviation authority as a letter of deviation authority. (3) The FAA may cancel or amend a letter of deviation authority at any time. (4) An applicant must submit a request for deviation authority in a form and manner acceptable to the Administrator at least 60 days before the date of intended operations. A request for deviation authority must contain a complete description of the proposed operation and justification that establishes a level of safety equivalent to that provided under the regulations for the deviation requested.

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[Docket 18334, 54 FR 34308, Aug. 18, 1989, as amended by Docket FAA-2015-1621, Amdt. 91-346, 81 FR 96700, Dec. 30, 2016; Amdt. 60-6, 83 FR 30281, June 27, 2018] § 91.315 Limited category civil aircraft: Operating limitations. Except as provided in § 91.326, no person may operate a limited category civil aircraft carrying persons or property for compensation or hire in operations that: (a) Require an air carrier or commercial operator certificate issued under part 119 of this chapter; (b) Are listed in § 119.1(e) of this chapter; (c) Require management specifications for a fractional ownership program issued in accordance with subpart K of this part; or (d) Are conducted under part 129, 133, or 137 of this chapter. [Docket FAA-2023-1351, Amdt. 91-378, 89 FR 80340, Oct. 2, 2024] § 91.317 Provisionally certificated civil aircraft: Operating limitations. (a) No person may operate a provisionally certificated civil aircraft unless that person is eligible for a provisional airworthiness certificate under § 21.213 of this chapter. (b) No person may operate a provisionally certificated civil aircraft outside the United States unless that person has specific authority to do so from the Administrator and each foreign country involved. (c) Unless otherwise authorized by the Executive Director, Flight Standards Service, no person may operate a provisionally certificated civil aircraft in air transportation. (d) Unless otherwise authorized by the Administrator, no person may operate a provisionally certificated civil aircraft except— (1) In direct conjunction with the type or supplemental type certification of that aircraft; (2) For training flight crews, including simulated air carrier operations; (3) Demonstration flight by the manufacturer for prospective purchasers; (4) Market surveys by the manufacturer; (5) Flight checking of instruments, accessories, and equipment that do not affect the basic airworthiness of the aircraft; or (6) Service testing of the aircraft. (e) Each person operating a provisionally certificated civil aircraft shall operate within the prescribed limitations displayed in the aircraft or set forth in the provisional aircraft flight manual or other appropriate document. However, when operating in direct conjunction with the type or supplemental type certification of the aircraft, that person shall operate under the experimental aircraft limitations of § 21.191 of this chapter and when flight testing, shall operate under the requirements of § 91.305 of this part. (f) Each person operating a provisionally certificated civil aircraft shall establish approved procedures for— (1) The use and guidance of flight and ground personnel in operating under this section; and (2) Operating in and out of airports where takeoffs or approaches over populated areas are necessary. No person may operate that aircraft except in compliance with the approved procedures. (g) Each person operating a provisionally certificated civil aircraft shall ensure that each flight crewmember is properly certificated and has adequate knowledge of, and familiarity with, the aircraft and procedures to be used by that crewmember. (h) Each person operating a provisionally certificated civil aircraft shall maintain it as required by applicable regulations and as may be specially prescribed by the Administrator. (i) Whenever the manufacturer, or the Administrator, determines that a change in design, construction, or operation is necessary to ensure safe operation, no person may operate a provisionally certificated civil aircraft until that change has been made and approved. Section 21.99 of this chapter applies to operations under this section. (j) Each person operating a provisionally certificated civil aircraft— (1) May carry in that aircraft only persons who have a proper interest in the operations allowed by this section or who are specifically authorized by both the manufacturer and the Administrator; and

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(2) Shall advise each person carried that the aircraft is provisionally certificated. (k) The Administrator may prescribe additional limitations or procedures that the Administrator considers necessary, including limitations on the number of persons who may be carried in the aircraft. (Approved by the Office of Management and Budget under control number 2120-0005) [Docket 18334, 54 FR 34308, Aug. 18, 1989, as amended by Amdt. 91-212, 54 FR 39293, Sept. 25, 1989; Docket FAA-2018-0119, Amdt. 91-350, 83 FR 9171, Mar. 5, 2018] § 91.319 Aircraft having experimental certificates: Operating limitations. (a) Except as provided in § 91.326, no person may operate an aircraft that has an experimental certificate— (1) For other than the purpose for which the certificate was issued; or (2) Carrying persons or property for compensation or hire in operations that: (i) Require an air carrier or commercial operator certificate issued under part 119 of this chapter; (ii) Are listed in § 119.1(e) of this chapter; (iii) Require management specifications for a fractional ownership program issued in accordance with subpart K of this part; or (iv) Are conducted under part 129, 133, or 137 of this chapter. (b) No person may operate an aircraft that has an experimental certificate outside of an area assigned by the Administrator until it is shown that— (1) The aircraft is controllable throughout its normal range of speeds and throughout all the maneuvers to be executed; and (2) The aircraft has no hazardous operating characteristics or design features. (c) Unless otherwise authorized by the Administrator in special operating limitations, no person may operate an aircraft that has an experimental certificate over a densely populated area or in a congested airway. The Administrator may issue special operating limitations for particular aircraft to permit takeoffs and landings to be conducted over a densely populated area or in a congested airway, in accordance with terms and conditions specified in the authorization in the interest of safety in air commerce. (d) Each person operating an aircraft that has an experimental certificate shall— (1) Advise each person carried of the experimental nature of the aircraft; (2) Operate under VFR, day only, unless otherwise specifically authorized by the Administrator; and (3) Notify air traffic control of the experimental nature of the aircraft when utilizing air traffic services. (e) No person may operate a light-sport aircraft that is issued an experimental certificate under § 21.191 of this chapter for compensation or hire, except: (1) A person may operate an aircraft issued an experimental certificate under § 21.191(i)(1) of this chapter to tow a glider that is a light-sport aircraft or unpowered ultralight vehicle in accordance with § 91.309; or (2) A person may operate a light-sport aircraft issued an experimental certificate under § 21.191 of this chapter to conduct operations authorized under § 91.326. (f) No person may lease a light-sport aircraft that is issued an experimental certificate under § 21.191 of this chapter, except— (1) In accordance with paragraph (e)(1) of this section; or (2) To conduct a solo flight in accordance with a training program included as part of the deviation authority specified under § 91.326(b). (g) No person may operate an aircraft issued an experimental certificate under § 21.191(i)(1) of this chapter to tow a glider that is a light-sport aircraft or unpowered ultralight vehicle for compensation or hire or to conduct flight training for compensation or hire in an aircraft which that persons provides unless within the preceding 100 hours of time in service the aircraft has— (1) Been inspected by a certificated repairman (light-sport aircraft) with a maintenance rating, an appropriately rated mechanic, or an appropriately rated repair station in accordance with inspection procedures developed by the aircraft manufacturer or a person acceptable to the FAA; or

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(2) Received an inspection for the issuance of an airworthiness certificate in accordance with part 21 of this chapter. (h) [Reserved] (i) The Administrator may prescribe additional limitations that the Administrator considers necessary, including limitations on the persons that may be carried in the aircraft. (j) No person may operate an aircraft that has an experimental certificate under § 61.113(i) of this chapter unless the aircraft is carrying not more than 7 occupants. (Approved by the Office of Management and Budget under control number 2120-0005) [Docket 18334, 54 FR 34308, Aug. 18, 1989, as amended by Amdt. 91-282, 69 FR 44881, July 27, 2004; Docket FAA-2016-9157, Amdt. 91-347, 82 FR 3167, Jan. 11, 2017; Docket FAA-2024-2580, Amdt. 91-380, 89 FR 90578, Nov. 18, 2024; Docket FAA-2023-1351, Amdt. 91-378, 89 FR 80340, Oct. 2, 2024] § 91.321 Carriage of candidates in elections. (a) As an aircraft operator, you may receive payment for carrying a candidate, agent of a candidate, or person traveling on behalf of a candidate, running for Federal, State, or local election, without having to comply with the rules in parts 121, 125 or 135 of this chapter, under the following conditions: (1) Your primary business is not as an air carrier or commercial operator; (2) You carry the candidate, agent, or person traveling on behalf of a candidate, under the rules of part 91; and (3) By Federal, state or local law, you are required to receive payment for carrying the candidate, agent, or person traveling on behalf of a candidate. For federal elections, the payment may not exceed the amount required by the Federal Election Commission. For a state or local election, the payment may not exceed the amount required under the applicable state or local law. (b) For the purposes of this section, for Federal elections, the terms candidate and election have the same meaning as set forth in the regulations of the Federal Election Commission. For State or local elections, the terms candidate and election have the same meaning as provided by the applicable State or local law and those terms relate to candidates for election to public office in State and local government elections. [Docket FAA-2005-20168, 70 FR 4982, Jan. 31, 2005] § 91.323 Increased maximum certificated weights for certain airplanes operated in Alaska. (a) Notwithstanding any other provision of the Federal Aviation Regulations, the Administrator will approve, as provided in this section, an increase in the maximum certificated weight of an airplane type certificated under Aeronautics Bulletin No. 7-A of the U.S. Department of Commerce dated January 1, 1931, as amended, or under the normal category of part 4a of the former Civil Air Regulations (14 CFR part 4a, 1964 ed.) if that airplane is operated in the State of Alaska by— (1) A certificate holder conducting operations under part 121 or part 135 of this chapter; or (2) The U.S. Department of Interior in conducting its game and fish law enforcement activities or its management, fire detection, and fire suppression activities concerning public lands. (b) The maximum certificated weight approved under this section may not exceed— (1) 12,500 pounds; (2) 115 percent of the maximum weight listed in the FAA aircraft specifications; (3) The weight at which the airplane meets the positive maneuvering load factor n, where n =2.1+(24,000/(W+10,000)) and W=design maximum takeoff weight, except that n need not be more than 3.8; or (4) The weight at which the airplane meets the climb performance requirements under which it was type certificated. (c) In determining the maximum certificated weight, the Administrator considers the structural soundness of the airplane and the terrain to be traversed. (d) The maximum certificated weight determined under this section is added to the airplane's operation limitations and is identified as the maximum weight authorized for operations within the State of Alaska.

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[Docket 18334, 54 FR 34308, Aug. 18, 1989; Amdt. 91-211, 54 FR 41211, Oct. 5, 1989, as amended by Amdt. 91-253, 62 FR 13253, Mar. 19, 1997; Docket FAA-2015-1621, Amdt. 91-346, 81 FR 96700, Dec. 30, 2016] § 91.325 Primary category aircraft: Operating limitations. (a) Unless provided for in this section, no person may operate a primary category aircraft carrying persons or property for compensation or hire in operations that: (1) Require an air carrier or commercial operator certificate issued under part 119 of this chapter; (2) Are listed in § 119.1(e) of this chapter; (3) Require management specifications for a fractional ownership program issued in accordance with subpart K of this part; or (4) Are conducted under part 129, 133, or 137 of this chapter. (b) Except as provided in § 91.326(c), no person may operate a primary category aircraft that is maintained by the pilot-owner under an approved special inspection and maintenance program except— (1) The pilot-owner; or (2) A designee of the pilot-owner, provided that the pilot-owner does not receive compensation for the use of the aircraft. (c) A primary category aircraft that is maintained by an appropriately rated mechanic or an authorized certificated repair station in accordance with the applicable provisions of part 43 of this chapter may be used to conduct flight training, checking, and testing for compensation or hire. [Docket FAA-2023-1351, Amdt. 91-378, 89 FR 80340, Oct. 2, 2024] § 91.326 Exception to operating certain aircraft for the purposes of flight training, flightcrew member checking, or flightcrew member testing. (a) General. Notwithstanding the prohibitions in §§  91.315, 91.319(a), and 91.325, a person may conduct flight training, checking, or testing in a limited category aircraft, experimental aircraft, or primary category aircraft under the provisions of this section. (b) Operations requiring a letter of deviation authority. Except as provided in paragraphs (c) and (d) of this section, no person may conduct flight training, checking, or testing in a limited category or experimental aircraft without deviation authority issued under this paragraph (b). (1) No person may operate under this section without a letter of deviation authority (LODA) issued by the Administrator. (2) The FAA may deny an application for a letter of deviation authority if it determines the deviation would not be in the interest of safety or is unnecessary. The FAA may cancel or amend a letter of deviation authority if it determines that the deviation holder has failed to comply with the conditions and limitations or at any time if the Administrator determines that the deviation is no longer necessary or in the interest of safety. (3) An applicant must submit a request for deviation authority in a form and manner acceptable to the Administrator at least 60 days before the date of intended operations. A request for deviation authority must contain a complete description of the proposed operation that establishes a level of safety equivalent to that provided under the regulations for the deviation requested, including: (i) A letter identifying the name and address of the applicant; (ii) The name and contact information of the individual with ultimate responsibility for operations authorized under the deviation authority; (iii) Specific aircraft make(s), model(s), registration number(s), and serial number(s) to be used; (iv) Copies of each aircraft's airworthiness certificate, including the FAA-issued operating limitations, if applicable; (v) Ejection seat information, if applicable; (vi) A detailed training program that demonstrates the proposed activities will meet the intended training objectives; (vii) A description of the applicant's process to determine whether a trainee has a specific need for formation or aerobatic training, or training leading to the issuance of an endorsement, if those types of training are being requested; and

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(viii) Any other information that the Administrator deems necessary to evaluate the application. (4) The holder of a letter of deviation authority must comply with any conditions and limitations provided in that letter of deviation authority. Unless otherwise authorized by the Administrator, the deviation authority will include the following conditions and limitations: (i) The operator must use the aircraft-specific flight and ground training program for the training authorized by the letter of deviation authority. Demonstration flights, discovery flights, experience flights, and other flights not related to the training program are not authorized. (ii) As appropriate to the aircraft being flown, all trainees must hold category and class ratings; a type rating, Authorized Experimental Aircraft authorization, or temporary Letter of Authorization; and endorsements listed in § 61.31 of this chapter, as appropriate, with the following exceptions: (A) Persons receiving gyroplane training or training leading to the initial issuance of a sport pilot certificate or flight instructor certificate with a sport pilot rating in a low mass, high drag aircraft with an empty weight less than 650 pounds and a V H ≤87 Knots Calibrated Airspeed (KCAS) are not required to hold category or class ratings. For training leading to an endorsement for additional sport pilot privileges, the pilot receiving the training must hold at least a sport pilot certificate with appropriate category and class ratings and endorsements issued under § 61.31 of this chapter, as appropriate. (B) Persons with a specific need to receive training toward the issuance of an endorsement are not required to hold the § 61.31 of this chapter endorsement sought. Any endorsements being provided must be authorized in the LODA. (C) Persons receiving jet unusual attitude and upset recovery training, limited category type rating training, or authorized experimental aircraft authorization training, if required for the type of aircraft being flown, are not required to hold the applicable type rating, authorized experimental authorization rating, or a temporary Letter of Authorization prior to the commencement of training. (D) For ultralight-style training, the person receiving training is not required to meet category and class ratings or § 61.31 of this chapter endorsement requirements. However, if the flight training includes a solo flight segment, this does not relieve the person receiving training from the requirements of part 61, subpart C, of this chapter. This training is limited to a low mass, high drag aircraft with an empty weight less than 650 pounds and a maximum speed in level flight with maximum continuous power less than 87 KCAS. (iii) If the aircraft is equipped with ejection seats and systems, such systems must be rigged, maintained, and inspected in accordance with the manufacturer's recommendations. Before providing training in aircraft equipped with operable ejection systems, whether armed or not armed, all aircraft occupants must complete a course of ejection seat training. (iv) When conducting spin and upset training, the operator must maintain a minimum recovery altitude of 6,000 feet above ground level unless the Administrator authorizes a lower altitude. (v) A copy of the LODA must be carried on board the aircraft during flight training conducted under the LODA. (vi) The LODA holder must keep a record of the training given for a period of 36 calendar months from the completion date of the training. The authorized instructor must sign the trainee's training record certifying that the flight training or ground training was given. The training record must include the following: (A) The name and certificate number (if applicable) of the trainee; (B) The name, signature, and certificate number of the instructor; (C) The date trained; (D) The training received; (E) The trainee's specific need for training, if applicable. (vii) Notwithstanding § 43.1(b) of this chapter or § 91.409(c)(1), all aircraft must:

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(A) Except for turbine powered or large aircraft, within the preceding 100 hours of time in service, have received an annual, 100-hour, or condition inspection equivalent to the scope and detail of appendix D to part 43 of this chapter and been approved for return to service in accordance with part 43. The 100-hour limitation may be exceeded by not more than 10 hours while enroute to reach a place where the inspection can be done. The excess time used to reach a place where the inspection can be done must be included in computing the next 100 hours of time in service; or (B) Except for turbine powered or large aircraft, be inspected in accordance with an FAA-approved inspection program that includes provisions for ensuring continued airworthiness and recording the current status on life-limited parts and in accordance with the manufacturer's instructions. (C) For turbine-powered or large aircraft, be inspected in accordance with an FAA-approved inspection program that meets the scope and detail of the requirements of § 91.409(e), (f)(4), and (g) for ensuring continued airworthiness and recording time remaining on life-limited parts in accordance with the manufacturer's instructions. (viii) Notwithstanding any exception due to the experimental airworthiness certification of the aircraft, LODA holders with experimental aircraft must comply with FAA Airworthiness Directives applicable to any corresponding make or model aircraft holding a different type of airworthiness certificate or applicable to any article installed on the aircraft. The LODA holder must evaluate the aircraft and its articles to determine if compliance with the FAA Airworthiness Directive is necessary for the continued safe operation of the aircraft. LODA holders must keep a maintenance record entry of those FAA Airworthiness Directives evaluated. For those FAA Airworthiness Directives for which the LODA holder determined compliance was necessary for the continued safe operation of the aircraft, the record must also include the method of compliance, and if the FAA Airworthiness Directive requires recurring action, the time and date when the next action is required. (5) Only the following persons may be on board the aircraft during operations conducted under the deviation authority: (i) The authorized instructor, designated examiner, person receiving flight training or being checked or tested, or persons essential for the safe operation of the aircraft; and (ii) Notwithstanding any operating limitation applicable under § 91.9(a) that prohibits the carriage of passengers for compensation or hire, up to two persons enrolled in a LODA training course for the same aircraft may observe the flight training from a forwardmost observer seat with an unobstructed view of the flight deck, provided carriage of those persons is not prohibited by any other regulation. (6) The Administrator may limit the types of training, testing, and checking authorized under this deviation authority. Training, testing, and checking under this deviation authority must be conducted consistent with the training program submitted for FAA review. (c) Operations not requiring a letter of deviation authority. The following operations may be conducted without a letter of deviation authority. (1) An authorized instructor, registered owner, lessor, or lessee of an aircraft is not required to obtain a letter of deviation authority from the Administrator to allow, conduct, or receive flight training, checking, or testing in a limited category aircraft, experimental aircraft, or primary category aircraft if— (i) The authorized instructor is not providing both the training and the aircraft; (ii) No person advertises or broadly offers the aircraft as available for flight training, checking, or testing; and (iii) No person receives compensation for the use of the aircraft for any flight during which flight training, checking, or testing was received, other than expenses for owning, operating, and maintaining the aircraft. Compensation for the use of the aircraft for profit is prohibited.

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(2) A person may operate a limited category aircraft, experimental aircraft, or primary category aircraft to conduct flight training, checking, or testing without a letter of deviation authority if no person provides and no person receives compensation for the flight training, checking, or testing, or for the use of the aircraft. (d) Previously issued letters of deviation authority. For deviation authority issued under § 91.319 prior to December 2, 2024, the following requirements apply— (1) The deviation holder may continue to operate under the letter of deviation authority until December 1, 2026; (2) The deviation holder must continue to comply with the conditions and limitations in the letter of deviation authority when conducting an operation under the letter of deviation authority in accordance with paragraph (b)(1) of this section; (3) The letter of deviation authority may be cancelled or amended at any time; and (4) The letter of deviation authority terminates on December 1, 2026. [Docket FAA-2023-1351, Amdt. 91-378, 89 FR 80341, Oct. 2, 2024] § 91.327 Aircraft having a special airworthiness certificate in the light-sport category: Operating limitations. (a) No person may operate an aircraft that has a special airworthiness certificate in the light-sport category for compensation or hire except— (1) To tow a glider or an unpowered ultralight vehicle in accordance with § 91.309 of this chapter; or (2) To conduct flight training, checking, and testing. (b) No person may operate an aircraft that has a special airworthiness certificate in the light-sport category unless— (1) The aircraft is maintained by a certificated repairman with a light-sport aircraft maintenance rating, an appropriately rated mechanic, or an appropriately rated repair station in accordance with the applicable provisions of part 43 of this chapter and maintenance and inspection procedures developed by the aircraft manufacturer or a person acceptable to the FAA; (2) A condition inspection is performed once every 12 calendar months by a certificated repairman (light-sport aircraft) with a maintenance rating, an appropriately rated mechanic, or an appropriately rated repair station in accordance with inspection procedures developed by the aircraft manufacturer or a person acceptable to the FAA; (3) The owner or operator complies with all applicable airworthiness directives; (4) The owner or operator complies with each safety directive applicable to the aircraft that corrects an existing unsafe condition. In lieu of complying with a safety directive an owner or operator may— (i) Correct the unsafe condition in a manner different from that specified in the safety directive provided the person issuing the directive concurs with the action; or (ii) Obtain an FAA waiver from the provisions of the safety directive based on a conclusion that the safety directive was issued without adhering to the applicable consensus standard; (5) Each alteration accomplished after the aircraft's date of manufacture meets the applicable and current consensus standard and has been authorized by either the manufacturer or a person acceptable to the FAA; (6) Each major alteration to an aircraft product produced under a consensus standard is authorized, performed and inspected in accordance with maintenance and inspection procedures developed by the manufacturer or a person acceptable to the FAA; and (7) The owner or operator complies with the requirements for the recording of major repairs and major alterations performed on type-certificated products in accordance with § 43.9(d) of this chapter, and with the retention requirements in § 91.417. (c) No person may operate an aircraft issued a special airworthiness certificate in the light-sport category to tow a glider or unpowered ultralight vehicle for compensation or hire or conduct flight training for compensation or hire in an aircraft which that persons provides unless within the preceding 100 hours of time in service the aircraft has—

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(1) Been inspected by a certificated repairman with a light-sport aircraft maintenance rating, an appropriately rated mechanic, or an appropriately rated repair station in accordance with inspection procedures developed by the aircraft manufacturer or a person acceptable to the FAA and been approved for return to service in accordance with part 43 of this chapter; or (2) Received an inspection for the issuance of an airworthiness certificate in accordance with part 21 of this chapter. (d) Each person operating an aircraft issued a special airworthiness certificate in the light-sport category must operate the aircraft in accordance with the aircraft's operating instructions, including any provisions for necessary operating equipment specified in the aircraft's equipment list. (e) Each person operating an aircraft issued a special airworthiness certificate in the light-sport category must advise each person carried of the special nature of the aircraft and that the aircraft does not meet the airworthiness requirements for an aircraft issued a standard airworthiness certificate. (f) The FAA may prescribe additional limitations that it considers necessary. [Docket FAA-2001-11133, 69 FR 44881, July 27, 2004, as amended by Docket FAA-2023-1351, Amdt. 91-378, 89 FR 80342, Oct. 2, 2024] §§ 91.328-91.399 [Reserved]
Subpart E—Maintenance, Preventive Maintenance, and Alterations Source: Docket 18334, 54 FR 34311, Aug. 18, 1989, unless otherwise noted. § 91.401 Applicability. (a) This subpart prescribes rules governing the maintenance, preventive maintenance, and alterations of U.S.-registered civil aircraft operating within or outside of the United States. (b) Sections 91.405, 91.409, 91.411, 91.417, and 91.419 of this subpart do not apply to an aircraft maintained in accordance with a continuous airworthiness maintenance program as provided in part 121, 129, or §§ 91.1411 or 135.411(a)(2) of this chapter. (c) Sections 91.405 and 91.409 of this part do not apply to an airplane inspected in accordance with part 125 of this chapter. [Docket 18334, 54 FR 34311, Aug. 18, 1989, as amended by Amdt. 91-267, 66 FR 21066, Apr. 27, 2001; Amdt. 91-280, 68 FR 54560, Sept. 17, 2003] § 91.403 General. (a) The owner or operator of an aircraft is primarily responsible for maintaining that aircraft in an airworthy condition, including compliance with part 39 of this chapter. (b) No person may perform maintenance, preventive maintenance, or alterations on an aircraft other than as prescribed in this subpart and other applicable regulations, including part 43 of this chapter. (c) No person may operate an aircraft for which a manufacturer's maintenance manual or instructions for continued airworthiness has been issued that contains an airworthiness limitations section unless the mandatory replacement times, inspection intervals, and related procedures specified in that section or alternative inspection intervals and related procedures set forth in an operations specification approved by the Administrator under part 121 or 135 of this chapter or in accordance with an inspection program approved under § 91.409(e) have been complied with. (d) A person must not alter an aircraft based on a supplemental type certificate unless the owner or operator of the aircraft is the holder of the supplemental type certificate, or has written permission from the holder. [Docket 18334, 54 FR 34311, Aug. 18, 1989, as amended by Amdt. 91-267, 66 FR 21066, Apr. 27, 2001; Amdt. 91-293, 71 FR 56005, Sept. 26, 2006] § 91.405 Maintenance required. Each owner or operator of an aircraft— (a) Shall have that aircraft inspected as prescribed in subpart E of this part and shall between required inspections, except as provided in paragraph (c) of this section, have discrepancies repaired as prescribed in part 43 of this chapter;

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(b) Shall ensure that maintenance personnel make appropriate entries in the aircraft maintenance records indicating the aircraft has been approved for return to service; (c) Shall have any inoperative instrument or item of equipment, permitted to be inoperative by § 91.213(d)(2) of this part, repaired, replaced, removed, or inspected at the next required inspection; and (d) When listed discrepancies include inoperative instruments or equipment, shall ensure that a placard has been installed as required by § 43.11 of this chapter. § 91.407 Operation after maintenance, preventive maintenance, rebuilding, or alteration. (a) No person may operate any aircraft that has undergone maintenance, preventive maintenance, rebuilding, or alteration unless— (1) It has been approved for return to service by a person authorized under § 43.7 of this chapter; and (2) The maintenance record entry required by § 43.9 or § 43.11, as applicable, of this chapter has been made. (b) No person may carry any person (other than crewmembers) in an aircraft that has been maintained, rebuilt, or altered in a manner that may have appreciably changed its flight characteristics or substantially affected its operation in flight until an appropriately rated pilot with at least a private pilot certificate flies the aircraft, makes an operational check of the maintenance performed or alteration made, and logs the flight in the aircraft records. (c) The aircraft does not have to be flown as required by paragraph (b) of this section if, prior to flight, ground tests, inspection, or both show conclusively that the maintenance, preventive maintenance, rebuilding, or alteration has not appreciably changed the flight characteristics or substantially affected the flight operation of the aircraft. (Approved by the Office of Management and Budget under control number 2120-0005) § 91.409 Inspections. (a) Except as provided in paragraph (c) of this section, no person may operate an aircraft unless, within the preceding 12 calendar months, it has had— (1) An annual inspection in accordance with part 43 of this chapter and has been approved for return to service by a person authorized by § 43.7 of this chapter; or (2) An inspection for the issuance of an airworthiness certificate in accordance with part 21 of this chapter. No inspection performed under paragraph (b) of this section may be substituted for any inspection required by this paragraph unless it is performed by a person authorized to perform annual inspections and is entered as an “annual” inspection in the required maintenance records. (b) Except as provided in paragraph (c) of this section, no person may operate an aircraft carrying any person (other than a crewmember) for hire, and no person may give flight instruction for hire in an aircraft which that person provides, unless within the preceding 100 hours of time in service the aircraft has received an annual or 100-hour inspection and been approved for return to service in accordance with part 43 of this chapter or has received an inspection for the issuance of an airworthiness certificate in accordance with part 21 of this chapter. The 100-hour limitation may be exceeded by not more than 10 hours while en route to reach a place where the inspection can be done. The excess time used to reach a place where the inspection can be done must be included in computing the next 100 hours of time in service. (c) Paragraphs (a) and (b) of this section do not apply to— (1) An aircraft that carries a special flight permit, a current experimental certificate, or a light-sport or provisional airworthiness certificate; (2) An aircraft inspected in accordance with an approved aircraft inspection program under part 125 or 135 of this chapter and so identified by the registration number in the operations specifications of the certificate holder having the approved inspection program;

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(3) An aircraft subject to the requirements of paragraph (d) or (e) of this section; or (4) Turbine-powered rotorcraft when the operator elects to inspect that rotorcraft in accordance with paragraph (e) of this section. (d) Progressive inspection. Each registered owner or operator of an aircraft desiring to use a progressive inspection program must submit a written request to the responsible Flight Standards office, and shall provide— (1) A certificated mechanic holding an inspection authorization, a certificated airframe repair station, or the manufacturer of the aircraft to supervise or conduct the progressive inspection; (2) A current inspection procedures manual available and readily understandable to pilot and maintenance personnel containing, in detail— (i) An explanation of the progressive inspection, including the continuity of inspection responsibility, the making of reports, and the keeping of records and technical reference material; (ii) An inspection schedule, specifying the intervals in hours or days when routine and detailed inspections will be performed and including instructions for exceeding an inspection interval by not more than 10 hours while en route and for changing an inspection interval because of service experience; (iii) Sample routine and detailed inspection forms and instructions for their use; and (iv) Sample reports and records and instructions for their use; (3) Enough housing and equipment for necessary disassembly and proper inspection of the aircraft; and (4) Appropriate current technical information for the aircraft. The frequency and detail of the progressive inspection shall provide for the complete inspection of the aircraft within each 12 calendar months and be consistent with the manufacturer's recommendations, field service experience, and the kind of operation in which the aircraft is engaged. The progressive inspection schedule must ensure that the aircraft, at all times, will be airworthy and will conform to all applicable FAA aircraft specifications, type certificate data sheets, airworthiness directives, and other approved data. If the progressive inspection is discontinued, the owner or operator shall immediately notify the responsible Flight Standards office, in writing, of the discontinuance. After the discontinuance, the first annual inspection under § 91.409(a)(1) is due within 12 calendar months after the last complete inspection of the aircraft under the progressive inspection. The 100-hour inspection under § 91.409(b) is due within 100 hours after that complete inspection. A complete inspection of the aircraft, for the purpose of determining when the annual and 100-hour inspections are due, requires a detailed inspection of the aircraft and all its components in accordance with the progressive inspection. A routine inspection of the aircraft and a detailed inspection of several components is not considered to be a complete inspection. (e) Large airplanes (to which part 125 is not applicable), turbojet multiengine airplanes, turbopropeller-powered multiengine airplanes, and turbine-powered rotorcraft. No person may operate a large airplane, turbojet multiengine airplane, turbopropeller-powered multiengine airplane, or turbine-powered rotorcraft unless the replacement times for life-limited parts specified in the aircraft specifications, type data sheets, or other documents approved by the Administrator are complied with and the airplane or turbine-powered rotorcraft, including the airframe, engines, propellers, rotors, appliances, survival equipment, and emergency equipment, is inspected in accordance with an inspection program selected under the provisions of paragraph (f) of this section, except that, the owner or operator of a turbine-powered rotorcraft may elect to use the inspection provisions of § 91.409(a), (b), (c), or (d) in lieu of an inspection option of § 91.409(f). (f) Selection of inspection program under paragraph (e) of this section. The registered owner or operator of each airplane or turbine-powered rotorcraft described in paragraph (e) of this section must select, identify in the aircraft maintenance records, and use one of the following programs for the inspection of the aircraft:

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(1) A continuous airworthiness inspection program that is part of a continuous airworthiness maintenance program currently in use by a person holding an air carrier operating certificate or an operating certificate issued under part 121 or 135 of this chapter and operating that make and model aircraft under part 121 of this chapter or operating that make and model under part 135 of this chapter and maintaining it under § 135.411(a)(2) of this chapter. (2) An approved aircraft inspection program approved under § 135.419 of this chapter and currently in use by a person holding an operating certificate issued under part 135 of this chapter. (3) A current inspection program recommended by the manufacturer. (4) Any other inspection program established by the registered owner or operator of that airplane or turbine-powered rotorcraft and approved by the Administrator under paragraph (g) of this section. However, the Administrator may require revision of this inspection program in accordance with the provisions of § 91.415. Each operator shall include in the selected program the name and address of the person responsible for scheduling the inspections required by the program and make a copy of that program available to the person performing inspections on the aircraft and, upon request, to the Administrator. (g) Inspection program approved under paragraph (e) of this section. Each operator of an airplane or turbine-powered rotorcraft desiring to establish or change an approved inspection program under paragraph (f)(4) of this section must submit the program for approval to the responsible Flight Standards office. The program must be in writing and include at least the following information: (1) Instructions and procedures for the conduct of inspections for the particular make and model airplane or turbine-powered rotorcraft, including necessary tests and checks. The instructions and procedures must set forth in detail the parts and areas of the airframe, engines, propellers, rotors, and appliances, including survival and emergency equipment required to be inspected. (2) A schedule for performing the inspections that must be performed under the program expressed in terms of the time in service, calendar time, number of system operations, or any combination of these. (h) Changes from one inspection program to another. When an operator changes from one inspection program under paragraph (f) of this section to another, the time in service, calendar times, or cycles of operation accumulated under the previous program must be applied in determining inspection due times under the new program. (Approved by the Office of Management and Budget under control number 2120-0005) [Docket 18334, 54 FR 34311, Aug. 18, 1989; Amdt. 91-211, 54 FR 41211, Oct. 5, 1989; Amdt. 91-267, 66 FR 21066, Apr. 27, 2001; Amdt. 91-282, 69 FR 44882, July 27, 2004; Docket FAA-2018-0119, Amdt. 91-350, 83 FR 9171, Mar. 5, 2018] § 91.410 [Reserved]
§ 91.411 Altimeter system and altitude reporting equipment tests and inspections. (a) No person may operate an airplane, or helicopter, in controlled airspace under IFR unless— (1) Within the preceding 24 calendar months, each static pressure system, each altimeter instrument, and each automatic pressure altitude reporting system has been tested and inspected and found to comply with appendices E and F of part 43 of this chapter; (2) Except for the use of system drain and alternate static pressure valves, following any opening and closing of the static pressure system, that system has been tested and inspected and found to comply with paragraph (a), appendix E, of part 43 of this chapter; and (3) Following installation or maintenance on the automatic pressure altitude reporting system of the ATC transponder where data correspondence error could be introduced, the integrated system has been tested, inspected, and found to comply with paragraph (c), appendix E, of part 43 of this chapter. (b) The tests required by paragraph (a) of this section must be conducted by—

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(1) The manufacturer of the airplane, or helicopter, on which the tests and inspections are to be performed; (2) A certificated repair station properly equipped to perform those functions and holding— (i) An instrument rating, Class I; (ii) A limited instrument rating appropriate to the make and model of appliance to be tested; (iii) A limited rating appropriate to the test to be performed; (iv) An airframe rating appropriate to the airplane, or helicopter, to be tested; or (3) A certificated mechanic with an airframe rating (static pressure system tests and inspections only). (c) Altimeter and altitude reporting equipment approved under Technical Standard Orders are considered to be tested and inspected as of the date of their manufacture. (d) No person may operate an airplane, or helicopter, in controlled airspace under IFR at an altitude above the maximum altitude at which all altimeters and the automatic altitude reporting system of that airplane, or helicopter, have been tested. [Docket 18334, 54 FR 34308, Aug. 18, 1989, as amended by Amdt. 91-269, 66 FR 41116, Aug. 6, 2001; 72 FR 7739, Feb. 20, 2007] § 91.413 ATC transponder tests and inspections. (a) No persons may use an ATC transponder that is specified in 91.215(a), 121.345(c), or § 135.143(c) of this chapter unless, within the preceding 24 calendar months, the ATC transponder has been tested and inspected and found to comply with appendix F of part 43 of this chapter; and (b) Following any installation or maintenance on an ATC transponder where data correspondence error could be introduced, the integrated system has been tested, inspected, and found to comply with paragraph (c), appendix E, of part 43 of this chapter. (c) The tests and inspections specified in this section must be conducted by— (1) A certificated repair station properly equipped to perform those functions and holding— (i) A radio rating, Class III; (ii) A limited radio rating appropriate to the make and model transponder to be tested; (iii) A limited rating appropriate to the test to be performed; (2) A holder of a continuous airworthiness maintenance program as provided in part 121 or § 135.411(a)(2) of this chapter; or (3) The manufacturer of the aircraft on which the transponder to be tested is installed, if the transponder was installed by that manufacturer. [Docket 18334, 54 FR 34311, Aug. 18, 1989, as amended by Amdt. 91-267, 66 FR 21066, Apr. 27, 2001; Amdt. 91-269, 66 FR 41116, Aug. 6, 2001] § 91.415 Changes to aircraft inspection programs. (a) Whenever the Administrator finds that revisions to an approved aircraft inspection program under § 91.409(f)(4) or § 91.1109 are necessary for the continued adequacy of the program, the owner or operator must, after notification by the Administrator, make any changes in the program found to be necessary by the Administrator. (b) The owner or operator may petition the Administrator to reconsider the notice to make any changes in a program in accordance with paragraph (a) of this section. (c) The petition must be filed with the Executive Director, Flight Standards Service within 30 days after the certificate holder or fractional ownership program manager receives the notice. (d) Except in the case of an emergency requiring immediate action in the interest of safety, the filing of the petition stays the notice pending a decision by the Administrator. [Docket 18334, 54 FR 34311, Aug. 18, 1989, as amended by Amdt. 91-280, 68 FR 54560, Sept. 17, 2003; Docket FAA-2018-0119, Amdt. 91-350, 83 FR 9171, Mar. 5, 2018] § 91.417 Maintenance records. (a) Except for work performed in accordance with §§ 91.411 and 91.413, each registered owner or operator shall keep the following records for the periods specified in paragraph (b) of this section: (1) Records of the maintenance, preventive maintenance, and alteration and records of the 100-hour, annual, progressive, and other required or approved inspections, as appropriate, for each aircraft (including the airframe) and each engine, propeller, rotor, and appliance of an aircraft. The records must include—

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(i) A description (or reference to data acceptable to the Administrator) of the work performed; and (ii) The date of completion of the work performed; and (iii) The signature, and certificate number of the person approving the aircraft for return to service. (2) Records containing the following information: (i) The total time in service of the airframe, each engine, each propeller, and each rotor. (ii) The current status of life-limited parts of each airframe, engine, propeller, rotor, and appliance. (iii) The time since last overhaul of all items installed on the aircraft which are required to be overhauled on a specified time basis. (iv) The current inspection status of the aircraft, including the time since the last inspection required by the inspection program under which the aircraft and its appliances are maintained. (v) The current status of applicable airworthiness directives (AD) and safety directives including, for each, the method of compliance, the AD or safety directive number and revision date. If the AD or safety directive involves recurring action, the time and date when the next action is required. (vi) Copies of the forms prescribed by § 43.9(d) of this chapter for each major alteration to the airframe and currently installed engines, rotors, propellers, and appliances. (b) The owner or operator shall retain the following records for the periods prescribed: (1) The records specified in paragraph (a)(1) of this section shall be retained until the work is repeated or superseded by other work or for 1 year after the work is performed. (2) The records specified in paragraph (a)(2) of this section shall be retained and transferred with the aircraft at the time the aircraft is sold. (3) A list of defects furnished to a registered owner or operator under § 43.11 of this chapter shall be retained until the defects are repaired and the aircraft is approved for return to service. (c) The owner or operator shall make all maintenance records required to be kept by this section available for inspection by the Administrator or any authorized representative of the National Transportation Safety Board (NTSB). In addition, the owner or operator shall present Form 337 described in paragraph (d) of this section for inspection upon request of any law enforcement officer. (d) When a fuel tank is installed within the passenger compartment or a baggage compartment pursuant to part 43 of this chapter, a copy of FAA Form 337 shall be kept on board the modified aircraft by the owner or operator. (Approved by the Office of Management and Budget under control number 2120-0005) [Docket 18334, 54 FR 34311, Aug. 18, 1989, as amended by Amdt. 91-311, 75 FR 5223, Feb. 1, 2010; Amdt. 91-323, 76 FR 39260, July 6, 2011] § 91.419 Transfer of maintenance records. Any owner or operator who sells a U.S.-registered aircraft shall transfer to the purchaser, at the time of sale, the following records of that aircraft, in plain language form or in coded form at the election of the purchaser, if the coded form provides for the preservation and retrieval of information in a manner acceptable to the Administrator: (a) The records specified in § 91.417(a)(2). (b) The records specified in § 91.417(a)(1) which are not included in the records covered by paragraph (a) of this section, except that the purchaser may permit the seller to keep physical custody of such records. However, custody of records by the seller does not relieve the purchaser of the responsibility under § 91.417(c) to make the records available for inspection by the Administrator or any authorized representative of the National Transportation Safety Board (NTSB).

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§ 91.421 Rebuilt engine maintenance records. (a) The owner or operator may use a new maintenance record, without previous operating history, for an aircraft engine rebuilt by the manufacturer or by an agency approved by the manufacturer. (b) Each manufacturer or agency that grants zero time to an engine rebuilt by it shall enter in the new record— (1) A signed statement of the date the engine was rebuilt; (2) Each change made as required by airworthiness directives; and (3) Each change made in compliance with manufacturer's service bulletins, if the entry is specifically requested in that bulletin. (c) For the purposes of this section, a rebuilt engine is a used engine that has been completely disassembled, inspected, repaired as necessary, reassembled, tested, and approved in the same manner and to the same tolerances and limits as a new engine with either new or used parts. However, all parts used in it must conform to the production drawing tolerances and limits for new parts or be of approved oversized or undersized dimensions for a new engine. §§ 91.423-91.499 [Reserved]
Subpart F—Large and Turbine-Powered Multiengine Airplanes and Fractional Ownership Program Aircraft Source: Docket 18334, 54 FR 34314, Aug. 18, 1989, unless otherwise noted. § 91.501 Applicability. (a) This subpart prescribes operating rules, in addition to those prescribed in other subparts of this part, governing the operation of large airplanes of U.S. registry, turbojet-powered multiengine civil airplanes of U.S. registry, and fractional ownership program aircraft of U.S. registry that are operating under subpart K of this part in operations not involving common carriage. The operating rules in this subpart do not apply to those aircraft when they are required to be operated under parts 121, 125, 129, 135, and 137 of this chapter. (Section 91.409 prescribes an inspection program for large and for turbine-powered (turbojet and turboprop) multiengine airplanes and turbine-powered rotorcraft of U.S. registry when they are operated under this part or part 129 or 137.) (b) Operations that may be conducted under the rules in this subpart instead of those in parts 121, 129, 135, and 137 of this chapter when common carriage is not involved, include— (1) Ferry or training flights; (2) Aerial work operations such as aerial photography or survey, or pipeline patrol, but not including fire fighting operations; (3) Flights for the demonstration of an airplane to prospective customers when no charge is made except for those specified in paragraph (d) of this section; (4) Flights conducted by the operator of an airplane for his personal transportation, or the transportation of his guests when no charge, assessment, or fee is made for the transportation; (5) Carriage of officials, employees, guests, and property of a company on an airplane operated by that company, or the parent or a subsidiary of the company or a subsidiary of the parent, when the carriage is within the scope of, and incidental to, the business of the company (other than transportation by air) and no charge, assessment or fee is made for the carriage in excess of the cost of owning, operating, and maintaining the airplane, except that no charge of any kind may be made for the carriage of a guest of a company, when the carriage is not within the scope of, and incidental to, the business of that company; (6) The carriage of company officials, employees, and guests of the company on an airplane operated under a time sharing, interchange, or joint ownership agreement as defined in paragraph (c) of this section; (7) The carriage of property (other than mail) on an airplane operated by a person in the furtherance of a business or employment (other than transportation by air) when the carriage is within the scope of, and incidental to, that business or employment and no charge, assessment, or fee is made for the carriage other than those specified in paragraph (d) of this section;

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(8) The carriage on an airplane of an athletic team, sports group, choral group, or similar group having a common purpose or objective when there is no charge, assessment, or fee of any kind made by any person for that carriage; and (9) The carriage of persons on an airplane operated by a person in the furtherance of a business other than transportation by air for the purpose of selling them land, goods, or property, including franchises or distributorships, when the carriage is within the scope of, and incidental to, that business and no charge, assessment, or fee is made for that carriage. (10) Any operation identified in paragraphs (b)(1) through (b)(9) of this section when conducted— (i) By a fractional ownership program manager, or (ii) By a fractional owner in a fractional ownership program aircraft operated under subpart K of this part, except that a flight under a joint ownership arrangement under paragraph (b)(6) of this section may not be conducted. For a flight under an interchange agreement under paragraph (b)(6) of this section, the exchange of equal time for the operation must be properly accounted for as part of the total hours associated with the fractional owner's share of ownership. (c) As used in this section— (1) A time sharing agreement means an arrangement whereby a person leases his airplane with flight crew to another person, and no charge is made for the flights conducted under that arrangement other than those specified in paragraph (d) of this section; (2) An interchange agreement means an arrangement whereby a person leases his airplane to another person in exchange for equal time, when needed, on the other person's airplane, and no charge, assessment, or fee is made, except that a charge may be made not to exceed the difference between the cost of owning, operating, and maintaining the two airplanes; (3) A joint ownership agreement means an arrangement whereby one of the registered joint owners of an airplane employs and furnishes the flight crew for that airplane and each of the registered joint owners pays a share of the charge specified in the agreement. (d) The following may be charged, as expenses of a specific flight, for transportation as authorized by paragraphs (b) (3) and (7) and (c)(1) of this section: (1) Fuel, oil, lubricants, and other additives. (2) Travel expenses of the crew, including food, lodging, and ground transportation. (3) Hangar and tie-down costs away from the aircraft's base of operation. (4) Insurance obtained for the specific flight. (5) Landing fees, airport taxes, and similar assessments. (6) Customs, foreign permit, and similar fees directly related to the flight. (7) In flight food and beverages. (8) Passenger ground transportation. (9) Flight planning and weather contract services. (10) An additional charge equal to 100 percent of the expenses listed in paragraph (d)(1) of this section. [Docket 18334, 54 FR 34314, Aug. 18, 1989, as amended by Amdt. 91-280, 68 FR 54560, Sept. 17, 2003] § 91.503 Flying equipment and operating information. (a) The pilot in command of an airplane shall ensure that the following flying equipment and aeronautical charts and data, in current and appropriate form, are accessible for each flight at the pilot station of the airplane: (1) A flashlight having at least two size “D” cells, or the equivalent, that is in good working order. (2) A cockpit checklist containing the procedures required by paragraph (b) of this section. (3) Pertinent aeronautical charts. (4) For IFR, VFR over-the-top, or night operations, each pertinent navigational en route, terminal area, and approach and letdown chart. (5) In the case of multiengine airplanes, one-engine inoperative climb performance data. (b) Each cockpit checklist must contain the following procedures and shall be used by the flight crewmembers when operating the airplane:

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(1) Before starting engines. (2) Before takeoff. (3) Cruise. (4) Before landing. (5) After landing. (6) Stopping engines. (7) Emergencies. (c) Each emergency cockpit checklist procedure required by paragraph (b)(7) of this section must contain the following procedures, as appropriate: (1) Emergency operation of fuel, hydraulic, electrical, and mechanical systems. (2) Emergency operation of instruments and controls. (3) Engine inoperative procedures. (4) Any other procedures necessary for safety. (d) The equipment, charts, and data prescribed in this section shall be used by the pilot in command and other members of the flight crew, when pertinent. § 91.505 Familiarity with operating limitations and emergency equipment. (a) Each pilot in command of an airplane shall, before beginning a flight, become familiar with the Airplane Flight Manual for that airplane, if one is required, and with any placards, listings, instrument markings, or any combination thereof, containing each operating limitation prescribed for that airplane by the Administrator, including those specified in § 91.9(b). (b) Each required member of the crew shall, before beginning a flight, become familiar with the emergency equipment installed on the airplane to which that crewmember is assigned and with the procedures to be followed for the use of that equipment in an emergency situation. § 91.507 Equipment requirements: Over-the-top or night VFR operations. No person may operate an airplane over-the-top or at night under VFR unless that airplane is equipped with the instruments and equipment required for IFR operations under § 91.205(d) and one electric landing light for night operations. Each required instrument and item of equipment must be in operable condition. § 91.509 Survival equipment for overwater operations. (a) No person may take off an airplane for a flight over water more than 50 nautical miles from the nearest shore unless that airplane is equipped with a life preserver or an approved flotation means for each occupant of the airplane. (b) Except as provided in paragraph (c) of this section, no person may take off an airplane for flight over water more than 30 minutes flying time or 100 nautical miles from the nearest shore, whichever is less, unless it has on board the following survival equipment: (1) A life preserver, equipped with an approved survivor locator light, for each occupant of the airplane. (2) Enough liferafts (each equipped with an approved survival locator light) of a rated capacity and buoyancy to accommodate the occupants of the airplane. (3) At least one pyrotechnic signaling device for each liferaft. (4) One self-buoyant, water-resistant, portable emergency radio signaling device that is capable of transmission on the appropriate emergency frequency or frequencies and not dependent upon the airplane power supply. (5) A lifeline stored in accordance with § 25.1411(g) of this chapter. (c) A fractional ownership program manager under subpart K of this part may apply for a deviation from paragraphs (b)(2) through (5) of this section for a particular over water operation or the Administrator may amend the management specifications to require the carriage of all or any specific items of the equipment listed in paragraphs (b)(2) through (5) of this section. (d) The required life rafts, life preservers, and signaling devices must be installed in conspicuously marked locations and easily accessible in the event of a ditching without appreciable time for preparatory procedures. (e) A survival kit, appropriately equipped for the route to be flown, must be attached to each required life raft. (f) As used in this section, the term shore means that area of the land adjacent to the water that is above the high water mark and excludes land areas that are intermittently under water.

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[Docket 18334, 54 FR 34314, Aug. 18, 1989, as amended by Amdt. 91-280, 68 FR 54561, Sept. 17, 2003] § 91.511 Communication and navigation equipment for overwater operations. (a) Except as provided in paragraphs (c), (d), and (f) of this section, no person operating under this subpart may take off an airplane for a flight over water more than 30 minutes flying time or 100 nautical miles from the nearest shore unless it has at least the following operable equipment: (1) Radio communication equipment appropriate to the facilities to be used and able to transmit to, and receive from, at least one communication facility from any place along the route: (i) Two transmitters. (ii) Two microphones. (iii) Two headsets or one headset and one speaker. (iv) Two independent receivers. (2) Appropriate electronic navigational equipment consisting of at least two independent electronic navigation units capable of providing the pilot with the information necessary to navigate the airplane within the airspace assigned by air traffic control. However, a receiver that can receive both communications and required navigational signals may be used in place of a separate communications receiver and a separate navigational signal receiver or unit. (b) For the purposes of paragraphs (a)(1)(iv) and (a)(2) of this section, a receiver or electronic navigation unit is independent if the function of any part of it does not depend on the functioning of any part of another receiver or electronic navigation unit. (c) Notwithstanding the provisions of paragraph (a) of this section, a person may operate an airplane on which no passengers are carried from a place where repairs or replacement cannot be made to a place where they can be made, if not more than one of each of the dual items of radio communication and navigational equipment specified in paragraphs (a)(1) (i) through (iv) and (a)(2) of this section malfunctions or becomes inoperative. (d) Notwithstanding the provisions of paragraph (a) of this section, when both VHF and HF communications equipment are required for the route and the airplane has two VHF transmitters and two VHF receivers for communications, only one HF transmitter and one HF receiver is required for communications. (e) As used in this section, the term shore means that area of the land adjacent to the water which is above the high-water mark and excludes land areas which are intermittently under water. (f) Notwithstanding the requirements in paragraph (a)(2) of this section, a person may operate in the Gulf of Mexico, the Caribbean Sea, and the Atlantic Ocean west of a line which extends from 44°47′00″ N / 67°00′00″ W to 39°00′00″ N / 67°00′00″ W to 38°30′00″ N / 60°00′00″ W south along the 60°00′00″ W longitude line to the point where the line intersects with the northern coast of South America, when: (1) A single long-range navigation system is installed, operational, and appropriate for the route; and (2) Flight conditions and the aircraft's capabilities are such that no more than a 30-minute gap in two-way radio very high frequency communications is expected to exist. [Docket 18334, 54 FR 34314, Aug. 18, 1989, as amended by Amdt. 91-249, 61 FR 7190, Feb. 26, 1996; Amdt. 91-296, 72 FR 31679, June 7, 2007; Docket FAA-2022-1355, Amdt. 91-366, 87 FR 75846, Dec. 9, 2022] § 91.513 Emergency equipment. (a) No person may operate an airplane unless it is equipped with the emergency equipment listed in this section. (b) Each item of equipment— (1) Must be inspected in accordance with § 91.409 to ensure its continued serviceability and immediate readiness for its intended purposes; (2) Must be readily accessible to the crew; (3) Must clearly indicate its method of operation; and (4) When carried in a compartment or container, must have that compartment or container marked as to contents and date of last inspection.

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(c) Hand fire extinguishers must be provided for use in crew, passenger, and cargo compartments in accordance with the following: (1) The type and quantity of extinguishing agent must be suitable for the kinds of fires likely to occur in the compartment where the extinguisher is intended to be used. (2) At least one hand fire extinguisher must be provided and located on or near the flight deck in a place that is readily accessible to the flight crew. (3) At least one hand fire extinguisher must be conveniently located in the passenger compartment of each airplane accommodating more than six but less than 31 passengers, and at least two hand fire extinguishers must be conveniently located in the passenger compartment of each airplane accommodating more than 30 passengers. (4) Hand fire extinguishers must be installed and secured in such a manner that they will not interfere with the safe operation of the airplane or adversely affect the safety of the crew and passengers. They must be readily accessible and, unless the locations of the fire extinguishers are obvious, their stowage provisions must be properly identified. (d) First aid kits for treatment of injuries likely to occur in flight or in minor accidents must be provided. (e) Each airplane accommodating more than 19 passengers must be equipped with a crash axe. (f) Each passenger-carrying airplane must have a portable battery-powered megaphone or megaphones readily accessible to the crewmembers assigned to direct emergency evacuation, installed as follows: (1) One megaphone on each airplane with a seating capacity of more than 60 but less than 100 passengers, at the most rearward location in the passenger cabin where it would be readily accessible to a normal flight attendant seat. However, the Administrator may grant a deviation from the requirements of this subparagraph if the Administrator finds that a different location would be more useful for evacuation of persons during an emergency. (2) On each airplane with a seating capacity of 100 or more passengers, one megaphone installed at the forward end and one installed at the most rearward location where it would be readily accessible to a normal flight attendant seat. § 91.515 Flight altitude rules. (a) Notwithstanding § 91.119, and except as provided in paragraph (b) of this section, no person may operate an airplane under VFR at less than— (1) One thousand feet above the surface, or 1,000 feet from any mountain, hill, or other obstruction to flight, for day operations; and (2) The altitudes prescribed in § 91.177, for night operations. (b) This section does not apply— (1) During takeoff or landing; (2) When a different altitude is authorized by a waiver to this section under subpart J of this part; or (3) When a flight is conducted under the special VFR weather minimums of § 91.157 with an appropriate clearance from ATC. § 91.517 Passenger information. (a) Except as provided in paragraph (b) of this section, no person may operate an airplane carrying passengers unless it is equipped with signs that are visible to passengers and flight attendants to notify them when smoking is prohibited and when safety belts must be fastened. (1) The signs that notify when safety belts must be fastened must be so constructed that the crew can turn them on and off. (2) The signs that prohibit smoking and signs that notify when safety belts must be fastened must be illuminated during airplane movement on the surface, for each takeoff, for each landing, and when otherwise considered to be necessary by the pilot in command. (b) The pilot in command of an airplane that is not required, in accordance with applicable aircraft and equipment requirements of this chapter, to be equipped as provided in paragraph (a) of this section shall ensure that the passengers are notified orally each time that it is necessary to fasten their safety belts and when smoking is prohibited.

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(c) If passenger information signs are installed, no passenger or crewmember may smoke while any “no smoking” sign is lighted nor may any passenger or crewmember smoke in any lavatory. (d) Each passenger required by § 91.107(a)(3) to occupy a seat or berth shall fasten his or her safety belt about him or her and keep it fastened while any “fasten seat belt” sign is lighted. (e) Each passenger shall comply with instructions given him or her by crewmembers regarding compliance with paragraphs (b), (c), and (d) of this section. [Docket 26142, 57 FR 42672, Sept. 15, 1992, as amended by Docket FAA-2024-2052; Amdt. 91-377, 89 FR 68100, Aug. 23, 2024] § 91.519 Passenger briefing. (a) Before each takeoff the pilot in command of an airplane carrying passengers shall ensure that all passengers have been orally briefed on— (1) Smoking. Each passenger shall be briefed on when, where, and under what conditions smoking is prohibited. This briefing shall include a statement, as appropriate, that the Federal Aviation Regulations require passenger compliance with lighted passenger information signs and no smoking placards, prohibit smoking in lavatories, and require compliance with crewmember instructions with regard to these items; (2) Use of safety belts and shoulder harnesses. Each passenger shall be briefed on when, where, and under what conditions it is necessary to have his or her safety belt and, if installed, his or her shoulder harness fastened about him or her. This briefing shall include a statement, as appropriate, that Federal Aviation Regulations require passenger compliance with the lighted passenger sign and/or crewmember instructions with regard to these items; (3) Location and means for opening the passenger entry door and emergency exits; (4) Location of survival equipment; (5) Ditching procedures and the use of flotation equipment required under § 91.509 for a flight over water; and (6) The normal and emergency use of oxygen equipment installed on the airplane. (b) The oral briefing required by paragraph (a) of this section shall be given by the pilot in command or a member of the crew, but need not be given when the pilot in command determines that the passengers are familiar with the contents of the briefing. It may be supplemented by printed cards for the use of each passenger containing— (1) A diagram of, and methods of operating, the emergency exits; and (2) Other instructions necessary for use of emergency equipment. (c) Each card used under paragraph (b) must be carried in convenient locations on the airplane for the use of each passenger and must contain information that is pertinent only to the type and model airplane on which it is used. (d) For operations under subpart K of this part, the passenger briefing requirements of § 91.1035 apply, instead of the requirements of paragraphs (a) through (c) of this section. [Docket 18334, 54 FR 34314, Aug. 18, 1989, as amended by Amdt. 91-231, 57 FR 42672, Sept. 15, 1992; Amdt. 91-280, 68 FR 54561, Sept. 17, 2003] § 91.521 Shoulder harness. (a) No person may operate a transport category airplane that was type certificated after January 1, 1958, unless it is equipped at each seat at a flight deck station with a combined safety belt and shoulder harness that meets the applicable requirements specified in § 25.785 of this chapter, except that— (1) Shoulder harnesses and combined safety belt and shoulder harnesses that were approved and installed before March 6, 1980, may continue to be used; and (2) Safety belt and shoulder harness restraint systems may be designed to the inertia load factors established under the certification basis of the airplane. (b) No person may operate a transport category airplane unless it is equipped at each required flight attendant seat in the passenger compartment with a combined safety belt and shoulder harness that meets the applicable requirements specified in § 25.785 of this chapter, except that— (1) Shoulder harnesses and combined safety belt and shoulder harnesses that were approved and installed before March 6, 1980, may continue to be used; and

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(2) Safety belt and shoulder harness restraint systems may be designed to the inertia load factors established under the certification basis of the airplane. § 91.523 Carry-on baggage. No pilot in command of an airplane having a seating capacity of more than 19 passengers may permit a passenger to stow baggage aboard that airplane except— (a) In a suitable baggage or cargo storage compartment, or as provided in § 91.525; or (b) Under a passenger seat in such a way that it will not slide forward under crash impacts severe enough to induce the ultimate inertia forces specified in § 25.561(b)(3) of this chapter, or the requirements of the regulations under which the airplane was type certificated. Restraining devices must also limit sideward motion of under-seat baggage and be designed to withstand crash impacts severe enough to induce sideward forces specified in § 25.561(b)(3) of this chapter. § 91.525 Carriage of cargo. (a) No pilot in command may permit cargo to be carried in any airplane unless— (1) It is carried in an approved cargo rack, bin, or compartment installed in the airplane; (2) It is secured by means approved by the Administrator; or (3) It is carried in accordance with each of the following: (i) It is properly secured by a safety belt or other tiedown having enough strength to eliminate the possibility of shifting under all normally anticipated flight and ground conditions. (ii) It is packaged or covered to avoid possible injury to passengers. (iii) It does not impose any load on seats or on the floor structure that exceeds the load limitation for those components. (iv) It is not located in a position that restricts the access to or use of any required emergency or regular exit, or the use of the aisle between the crew and the passenger compartment. (v) It is not carried directly above seated passengers. (b) When cargo is carried in cargo compartments that are designed to require the physical entry of a crewmember to extinguish any fire that may occur during flight, the cargo must be loaded so as to allow a crewmember to effectively reach all parts of the compartment with the contents of a hand fire extinguisher. § 91.527 Operating in icing conditions. (a) No pilot may take off an airplane that has frost, ice, or snow adhering to any propeller, windshield, stabilizing or control surface; to a powerplant installation; or to an airspeed, altimeter, rate of climb, or flight attitude instrument system or wing, except that takeoffs may be made with frost under the wing in the area of the fuel tanks if authorized by the FAA. (b) No pilot may fly under IFR into known or forecast light or moderate icing conditions, or under VFR into known light or moderate icing conditions, unless— (1) The aircraft has functioning deicing or anti-icing equipment protecting each rotor blade, propeller, windshield, wing, stabilizing or control surface, and each airspeed, altimeter, rate of climb, or flight attitude instrument system; (2) The airplane has ice protection provisions that meet section 34 of Special Federal Aviation Regulation No. 23; or (3) The airplane meets transport category airplane type certification provisions, including the requirements for certification for flight in icing conditions. (c) Except for an airplane that has ice protection provisions that meet the requirements in section 34 of Special Federal Aviation Regulation No. 23, or those for transport category airplane type certification, no pilot may fly an airplane into known or forecast severe icing conditions. (d) If current weather reports and briefing information relied upon by the pilot in command indicate that the forecast icing conditions that would otherwise prohibit the flight will not be encountered during the flight because of changed weather conditions since the forecast, the restrictions in paragraphs (b) and (c) of this section based on forecast conditions do not apply.

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[Docket 18334, 54 FR 34314, Aug. 18, 1989, as amended by Amdt. 91-310, 74 FR 62696, Dec. 1, 2009] § 91.529 Flight engineer requirements. (a) No person may operate the following airplanes without a flight crewmember holding a current flight engineer certificate: (1) An airplane for which a type certificate was issued before January 2, 1964, having a maximum certificated takeoff weight of more than 80,000 pounds. (2) An airplane type certificated after January 1, 1964, for which a flight engineer is required by the type certification requirements. (b) No person may serve as a required flight engineer on an airplane unless, within the preceding 6 calendar months, that person has had at least 50 hours of flight time as a flight engineer on that type airplane or has been checked by the Administrator on that type airplane and is found to be familiar and competent with all essential current information and operating procedures. § 91.531 Second in command requirements. (a) Except as provided in paragraph (b) of this section, no person may operate the following airplanes without a pilot designated as second in command: (1) Any airplane that is type certificated for more than one required pilot. (2) Any large airplane. (3) Any commuter category airplane. (b) A person may operate the following airplanes without a pilot designated as second in command: (1) Any airplane certificated for operation with one pilot. (2) A large airplane or turbojet-powered multiengine airplane that holds a special airworthiness certificate, if: (i) The airplane was originally designed with only one pilot station; or (ii) The airplane was originally designed with more than one pilot station, but single pilot operations were permitted by the airplane flight manual or were otherwise permitted by a branch of the United States Armed Forces or the armed forces of a foreign contracting State to the Convention on International Civil Aviation. (c) No person may designate a pilot to serve as second in command, nor may any pilot serve as second in command, of an airplane required under this section to have two pilots unless that pilot meets the qualifications for second in command prescribed in § 61.55 of this chapter. [Docket FAA-2016-6142, Amdt. 91-351, 83 FR 30282, June 27, 2018] § 91.533 Flight attendant requirements. (a) No person may operate an airplane unless at least the following number of flight attendants are on board the airplane: (1) For airplanes having more than 19 but less than 51 passengers on board, one flight attendant. (2) For airplanes having more than 50 but less than 101 passengers on board, two flight attendants. (3) For airplanes having more than 100 passengers on board, two flight attendants plus one additional flight attendant for each unit (or part of a unit) of 50 passengers above 100. (b) No person may serve as a flight attendant on an airplane when required by paragraph (a) of this section unless that person has demonstrated to the pilot in command familiarity with the necessary functions to be performed in an emergency or a situation requiring emergency evacuation and is capable of using the emergency equipment installed on that airplane. § 91.535 Stowage of food, beverage, and passenger service equipment during aircraft movement on the surface, takeoff, and landing. (a) No operator may move an aircraft on the surface, take off, or land when any food, beverage, or tableware furnished by the operator is located at any passenger seat. (b) No operator may move an aircraft on the surface, take off, or land unless each food and beverage tray and seat back tray table is secured in its stowed position. (c) No operator may permit an aircraft to move on the surface, take off, or land unless each passenger serving cart is secured in its stowed position.

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(d) No operator may permit an aircraft to move on the surface, take off, or land unless each movie screen that extends into the aisle is stowed. (e) Each passenger shall comply with instructions given by a crewmember with regard to compliance with this section. [Docket 26142, 57 FR 42672, Sept. 15, 1992] §§ 91.536-91.599 [Reserved]
Subpart G—Additional Equipment and Operating Requirements for Large and Transport Category Aircraft Source: Docket 18334, 54 FR 34318, Aug. 18, 1989, unless otherwise noted. § 91.601 Applicability. This subpart applies to operation of large and transport category U.S.-registered civil aircraft. § 91.603 Aural speed warning device. No person may operate a transport category airplane in air commerce unless that airplane is equipped with an aural speed warning device that complies with § 25.1303(c)(1). § 91.605 Transport category civil airplane weight limitations. (a) No person may take off any transport category airplane (other than a turbine-engine-powered airplane certificated after September 30, 1958) unless— (1) The takeoff weight does not exceed the authorized maximum takeoff weight for the elevation of the airport of takeoff; (2) The elevation of the airport of takeoff is within the altitude range for which maximum takeoff weights have been determined; (3) Normal consumption of fuel and oil in flight to the airport of intended landing will leave a weight on arrival not in excess of the authorized maximum landing weight for the elevation of that airport; and (4) The elevations of the airport of intended landing and of all specified alternate airports are within the altitude range for which the maximum landing weights have been determined. (b) No person may operate a turbine-engine-powered transport category airplane certificated after September 30, 1958, contrary to the Airplane Flight Manual, or take off that airplane unless— (1) The takeoff weight does not exceed the takeoff weight specified in the Airplane Flight Manual for the elevation of the airport and for the ambient temperature existing at the time of takeoff; (2) Normal consumption of fuel and oil in flight to the airport of intended landing and to the alternate airports will leave a weight on arrival not in excess of the landing weight specified in the Airplane Flight Manual for the elevation of each of the airports involved and for the ambient temperatures expected at the time of landing; (3) The takeoff weight does not exceed the weight shown in the Airplane Flight Manual to correspond with the minimum distances required for takeoff, considering the elevation of the airport, the runway to be used, the effective runway gradient, the ambient temperature and wind component at the time of takeoff, and, if operating limitations exist for the minimum distances required for takeoff from wet runways, the runway surface condition (dry or wet). Wet runway distances associated with grooved or porous friction course runways, if provided in the Airplane Flight Manual, may be used only for runways that are grooved or treated with a porous friction course (PFC) overlay, and that the operator determines are designed, constructed, and maintained in a manner acceptable to the Administrator. (4) Where the takeoff distance includes a clearway, the clearway distance is not greater than one-half of— (i) The takeoff run, in the case of airplanes certificated after September 30, 1958, and before August 30, 1959; or (ii) The runway length, in the case of airplanes certificated after August 29, 1959. (c) No person may take off a turbine-engine-powered transport category airplane certificated after August 29, 1959, unless, in addition to the requirements of paragraph (b) of this section—

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(1) The accelerate-stop distance is no greater than the length of the runway plus the length of the stopway (if present); and (2) The takeoff distance is no greater than the length of the runway plus the length of the clearway (if present); and (3) The takeoff run is no greater than the length of the runway. [Docket 18334, 54 FR 34318, Aug. 18, 1989, as amended by Amdt. 91-256, 63 FR 8321, Feb. 18, 1998] § 91.607 Emergency exits for airplanes carrying passengers for hire. (a) Notwithstanding any other provision of this chapter, no person may operate a large airplane (type certificated under the Civil Air Regulations effective before April 9, 1957) in passenger-carrying operations for hire, with more than the number of occupants— (1) Allowed under Civil Air Regulations § 4b.362 (a), (b), and (c) as in effect on December 20, 1951; or (2) Approved under Special Civil Air Regulations SR-387, SR-389, SR-389A, or SR-389B, or under this section as in effect. However, an airplane type listed in the following table may be operated with up to the listed number of occupants (including crewmembers) and the corresponding number of exits (including emergency exits and doors) approved for the emergency exit of passengers or with an occupant-exit configuration approved under paragraph (b) or (c) of this section.

Airplane type	Maximum number of occupants including all crewmembers	Corresponding number of exits authorized for passenger use
B-307	61	4
B-377	96	9
C-46	67	4
CV-240	53	6
CV-340 and CV-440	53	6
DC-3	35	4
DC-3 (Super)	39	5
DC-4	86	5
DC-6	87	7
DC-6B	112	11
L-18	17	3
L-049, L-649, L-749	87	7
L-1049 series	96	9
M-202	53	6
M-404	53	7
Viscount 700 series	53	7

(b) Occupants in addition to those authorized under paragraph (a) of this section may be carried as follows: (1) For each additional floor-level exit at least 24 inches wide by 48 inches high, with an unobstructed 20-inch-wide access aisleway between the exit and the main passenger aisle, 12 additional occupants. (2) For each additional window exit located over a wing that meets the requirements of the airworthiness standards under which the airplane was type certificated or that is large enough to inscribe an ellipse 19 × 26 inches, eight additional occupants. (3) For each additional window exit that is not located over a wing but that otherwise complies with paragraph (b)(2) of this section, five additional occupants. (4) For each airplane having a ratio (as computed from the table in paragraph (a) of this section) of maximum number of occupants to number of exits greater than 14:1, and for each airplane that does not have at least one full-size, door-type exit in the side of the fuselage in the rear part of the cabin, the first additional exit must be a floor-level exit that complies with paragraph (b)(1) of this section and must be located in the rear part of the cabin on the opposite side of the fuselage from the main entrance door. However, no person may operate an airplane under this section carrying more than 115 occupants unless there is such an exit on each side of the fuselage in the rear part of the cabin. (c) No person may eliminate any approved exit except in accordance with the following: (1) The previously authorized maximum number of occupants must be reduced by the same number of additional occupants authorized for that exit under this section. (2) Exits must be eliminated in accordance with the following priority schedule: First, non-over-wing window exits; second, over-wing window exits; third, floor-level exits located in the forward part of the cabin; and fourth, floor-level exits located in the rear of the cabin. (3) At least one exit must be retained on each side of the fuselage regardless of the number of occupants.

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(4) No person may remove any exit that would result in a ratio of maximum number of occupants to approved exits greater than 14:1. (d) This section does not relieve any person operating under part 121 of this chapter from complying with § 121.291. § 91.609 Flight data recorders and cockpit voice recorders. (a) No holder of an air carrier operating certificate or an operating certificate may conduct any operation under this part with an aircraft listed in the holder's operations specifications or current list of aircraft used in air transportation unless that aircraft complies with any applicable flight recorder and cockpit voice recorder requirements of the part under which its certificate is issued except that the operator may— (1) Ferry an aircraft with an inoperative flight recorder or cockpit voice recorder from a place where repair or replacement cannot be made to a place where they can be made; (2) Continue a flight as originally planned, if the flight recorder or cockpit voice recorder becomes inoperative after the aircraft has taken off; (3) Conduct an airworthiness flight test during which the flight recorder or cockpit voice recorder is turned off to test it or to test any communications or electrical equipment installed in the aircraft; or (4) Ferry a newly acquired aircraft from the place where possession of it is taken to a place where the flight recorder or cockpit voice recorder is to be installed. (b) Notwithstanding paragraphs (c) and (e) of this section, an operator other than the holder of an air carrier or a commercial operator certificate may— (1) Ferry an aircraft with an inoperative flight recorder or cockpit voice recorder from a place where repair or replacement cannot be made to a place where they can be made; (2) Continue a flight as originally planned if the flight recorder or cockpit voice recorder becomes inoperative after the aircraft has taken off; (3) Conduct an airworthiness flight test during which the flight recorder or cockpit voice recorder is turned off to test it or to test any communications or electrical equipment installed in the aircraft; (4) Ferry a newly acquired aircraft from a place where possession of it was taken to a place where the flight recorder or cockpit voice recorder is to be installed; or (5) Operate an aircraft: (i) For not more than 15 days while the flight recorder and/or cockpit voice recorder is inoperative and/or removed for repair provided that the aircraft maintenance records contain an entry that indicates the date of failure, and a placard is located in view of the pilot to show that the flight recorder or cockpit voice recorder is inoperative. (ii) For not more than an additional 15 days, provided that the requirements in paragraph (b)(5)(i) are met and that a certificated pilot, or a certificated person authorized to return an aircraft to service under § 43.7 of this chapter, certifies in the aircraft maintenance records that additional time is required to complete repairs or obtain a replacement unit. (c)(1) No person may operate a U.S. civil registered, multiengine, turbine-powered airplane or rotorcraft having a passenger seating configuration, excluding any pilot seats of 10 or more that has been manufactured after October 11, 1991, unless it is equipped with one or more approved flight recorders that utilize a digital method of recording and storing data and a method of readily retrieving that data from the storage medium, that are capable of recording the data specified in appendix E to this part, for an airplane, or appendix F to this part, for a rotorcraft, of this part within the range, accuracy, and recording interval specified, and that are capable of retaining no less than 8 hours of aircraft operation. (2) All airplanes subject to paragraph (c)(1) of this section that are manufactured before April 7, 2010, by April 7, 2012, must meet the requirements of § 23.1459(a)(7) or § 25.1459(a)(8) of this chapter, as applicable. (3) All airplanes and rotorcraft subject to paragraph (c)(1) of this section that are manufactured on or after April 7, 2010, must meet the flight data recorder requirements of § 23.1459, § 25.1459, § 27.1459, or § 29.1459 of this chapter, as applicable, and retain at least the last 25 hours of recorded information using a recorder that meets the standards of TSO-C124a, or later revision.

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(d) Whenever a flight recorder, required by this section, is installed, it must be operated continuously from the instant the airplane begins the takeoff roll or the rotorcraft begins lift-off until the airplane has completed the landing roll or the rotorcraft has landed at its destination. (e) Unless otherwise authorized by the Administrator, after October 11, 1991, no person may operate a U.S. civil registered multiengine, turbine-powered airplane or rotorcraft having a passenger seating configuration of six passengers or more and for which two pilots are required by type certification or operating rule unless it is equipped with an approved cockpit voice recorder that: (1) Is installed in compliance with § 23.1457(a)(1) and (2), (b), (c), (d)(1)(i), (2) and (3), (e), (f), and (g); § 25.1457(a)(1) and (2), (b), (c), (d)(1)(i), (2) and (3), (e), (f), and (g); § 27.1457(a)(1) and (2), (b), (c), (d)(1)(i), (2) and (3), (e), (f), and (g); or § 29.1457(a)(1) and (2), (b), (c), (d)(1)(i), (2) and (3), (e), (f), and (g) of this chapter, as applicable; and (2) Is operated continuously from the use of the checklist before the flight to completion of the final checklist at the end of the flight. (f) In complying with this section, an approved cockpit voice recorder having an erasure feature may be used, so that at any time during the operation of the recorder, information recorded more than 15 minutes earlier may be erased or otherwise obliterated. (g) In the event of an accident or occurrence requiring immediate notification to the National Transportation Safety Board under 49 CFR part 830 of its regulations that results in the termination of the flight, any operator who has installed approved flight recorders and approved cockpit voice recorders shall keep the recorded information for at least 60 days or, if requested by the Administrator or the Board, for a longer period. Information obtained from the record is used to assist in determining the cause of accidents or occurrences in connection with the investigation under 49 CFR part 830. The Administrator does not use the cockpit voice recorder record in any civil penalty or certificate action. (h) All airplanes required by this section to have a cockpit voice recorder and a flight data recorder, that are manufactured before April 7, 2010, must by April 7, 2012, have a cockpit voice recorder that also— (1) Meets the requirements of § 23.1457(d)(6) or § 25.1457(d)(6) of this chapter, as applicable; and (2) If transport category, meets the requirements of § 25.1457(a)(3), (a)(4), and (a)(5) of this chapter. (i) All airplanes or rotorcraft required by this section to have a cockpit voice recorder and flight data recorder, that are manufactured on or after April 7, 2010, must have a cockpit voice recorder installed that also— (1) Is installed in accordance with the requirements of § 23.1457 (except for paragraphs (a)(6) and (d)(5)); § 25.1457 (except for paragraphs (a)(6) and (d)(5)); § 27.1457 (except for paragraphs (a)(6) and (d)(5)); or § 29.1457 (except for paragraphs (a)(6) and (d)(5)) of this chapter, as applicable; and (2) Retains at least the last 2 hours of recorded information using a recorder that meets the standards of TSO-C123a, or later revision. (3) For all airplanes or rotorcraft manufactured on or after April 6, 2012, also meets the requirements of § 23.1457(a)(6) and (d)(5); § 25.1457(a)(6) and (d)(5); § 27.1457(a)(6) and (d)(5); or § 29.1457(a)(6) and (d)(5) of this chapter, as applicable. (j) All airplanes or rotorcraft required by this section to have a cockpit voice recorder and a flight data recorder, that install datalink communication equipment on or after April 6, 2012, must record all datalink messages as required by the certification rule applicable to the aircraft. (k) An aircraft operated under this part under deviation authority from part 125 of this chapter must comply with all of the applicable flight data recorder requirements of part 125 applicable to the aircraft, notwithstanding such deviation authority.

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[Docket 18334, 54 FR 34318, Aug. 18, 1989, as amended by Amdt. 91-226, 56 FR 51621, Oct. 11, 1991; Amdt. 91-228, 57 FR 19353, May 5, 1992; Amdt. 91-300, 73 FR 12564, Mar. 7, 2008; Amdt. 91-304, 73 FR 73178, Dec. 2, 2008; Amdt. 91-300, 74 FR 32800, July 9, 2009; Amdt. 91-313, 75 FR 17045, Apr. 5, 2010; Docket FAA-2022-1355, Amdt. 91-366, 87 FR 75846, Dec. 9, 2022] § 91.611 Authorization for ferry flight with one engine inoperative. (a) General. The holder of an air carrier operating certificate or an operating certificate issued under part 125 may conduct a ferry flight of a four-engine airplane or a turbine-engine-powered airplane equipped with three engines, with one engine inoperative, to a base for the purpose of repairing that engine subject to the following: (1) The airplane model has been test flown and found satisfactory for safe flight in accordance with paragraph (b) or (c) of this section, as appropriate. However, each operator who before November 19, 1966, has shown that a model of airplane with an engine inoperative is satisfactory for safe flight by a test flight conducted in accordance with performance data contained in the applicable Airplane Flight Manual under paragraph (a)(2) of this section need not repeat the test flight for that model. (2) The approved Airplane Flight Manual contains the following performance data and the flight is conducted in accordance with that data: (i) Maximum weight. (ii) Center of gravity limits. (iii) Configuration of the inoperative propeller (if applicable). (iv) Runway length for takeoff (including temperature accountability). (v) Altitude range. (vi) Certificate limitations. (vii) Ranges of operational limits. (viii) Performance information. (ix) Operating procedures. (3) The operator has FAA approved procedures for the safe operation of the airplane, including specific requirements for— (i) Limiting the operating weight on any ferry flight to the minimum necessary for the flight plus the necessary reserve fuel load; (ii) A limitation that takeoffs must be made from dry runways unless, based on a showing of actual operating takeoff techniques on wet runways with one engine inoperative, takeoffs with full controllability from wet runways have been approved for the specific model aircraft and included in the Airplane Flight Manual: (iii) Operations from airports where the runways may require a takeoff or approach over populated areas; and (iv) Inspection procedures for determining the operating condition of the operative engines. (4) No person may take off an airplane under this section if— (i) The initial climb is over thickly populated areas; or (ii) Weather conditions at the takeoff or destination airport are less than those required for VFR flight. (5) Persons other than required flight crewmembers shall not be carried during the flight. (6) No person may use a flight crewmember for flight under this section unless that crewmember is thoroughly familiar with the operating procedures for one-engine inoperative ferry flight contained in the certificate holder's manual and the limitations and performance information in the Airplane Flight Manual. (b) Flight tests: reciprocating-engine-powered airplanes. The airplane performance of a reciprocating-engine-powered airplane with one engine inoperative must be determined by flight test as follows: (1) A speed not less than 1.3 V S1 must be chosen at which the airplane may be controlled satisfactorily in a climb with the critical engine inoperative (with its propeller removed or in a configuration desired by the operator and with all other engines operating at the maximum power determined in paragraph (b)(3) of this section. (2) The distance required to accelerate to the speed listed in paragraph (b)(1) of this section and to climb to 50 feet must be determined with— (i) The landing gear extended; (ii) The critical engine inoperative and its propeller removed or in a configuration desired by the operator; and

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(iii) The other engines operating at not more than maximum power established under paragraph (b)(3) of this section. (3) The takeoff, flight and landing procedures, such as the approximate trim settings, method of power application, maximum power, and speed must be established. (4) The performance must be determined at a maximum weight not greater than the weight that allows a rate of climb of at least 400 feet per minute in the en route configuration set forth in § 25.67(d) of this chapter in effect on January 31, 1977, at an altitude of 5,000 feet. (5) The performance must be determined using temperature accountability for the takeoff field length, computed in accordance with § 25.61 of this chapter in effect on January 31, 1977. (c) Flight tests: Turbine-engine-powered airplanes. The airplane performance of a turbine-engine-powered airplane with one engine inoperative must be determined by flight tests, including at least three takeoff tests, in accordance with the following: (1) Takeoff speeds V R and V 2 , not less than the corresponding speeds under which the airplane was type certificated under § 25.107 of this chapter, must be chosen at which the airplane may be controlled satisfactorily with the critical engine inoperative (with its propeller removed or in a configuration desired by the operator, if applicable) and with all other engines operating at not more than the power selected for type certification as set forth in § 25.101 of this chapter. (2) The minimum takeoff field length must be the horizontal distance required to accelerate and climb to the 35-foot height at V 2 speed (including any additional speed increment obtained in the tests) multiplied by 115 percent and determined with— (i) The landing gear extended; (ii) The critical engine inoperative and its propeller removed or in a configuration desired by the operator (if applicable); and (iii) The other engine operating at not more than the power selected for type certification as set forth in § 25.101 of this chapter. (3) The takeoff, flight, and landing procedures such as the approximate trim setting, method of power application, maximum power, and speed must be established. The airplane must be satisfactorily controllable during the entire takeoff run when operated according to these procedures. (4) The performance must be determined at a maximum weight not greater than the weight determined under § 25.121(c) of this chapter but with— (i) The actual steady gradient of the final takeoff climb requirement not less than 1.2 percent at the end of the takeoff path with two critical engines inoperative; and (ii) The climb speed not less than the two-engine inoperative trim speed for the actual steady gradient of the final takeoff climb prescribed by paragraph (c)(4)(i) of this section. (5) The airplane must be satisfactorily controllable in a climb with two critical engines inoperative. Climb performance may be shown by calculations based on, and equal in accuracy to, the results of testing. (6) The performance must be determined using temperature accountability for takeoff distance and final takeoff climb computed in accordance with § 25.101 of this chapter. For the purpose of paragraphs (c)(4) and (5) of this section, two critical engines means two adjacent engines on one side of an airplane with four engines, and the center engine and one outboard engine on an airplane with three engines. § 91.613 Materials for compartment interiors. (a) No person may operate an airplane that conforms to an amended or supplemental type certificate issued in accordance with SFAR No. 41 for a maximum certificated takeoff weight in excess of 12,500 pounds unless within 1 year after issuance of the initial airworthiness certificate under that SFAR the airplane meets the compartment interior requirements set forth in § 25.853 (a), (b), (b-1), (b-2), and (b-3) of this chapter in effect on September 26, 1978.

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(b) Thermal/acoustic insulation materials. For transport category airplanes type certificated after January 1, 1958: (1) For airplanes manufactured before September 2, 2005, when thermal/acoustic insulation is installed in the fuselage as replacements after September 2, 2005, the insulation must meet the flame propagation requirements of § 25.856 of this chapter, effective September 2, 2003, if it is: (i) Of a blanket construction or (ii) Installed around air ducting. (2) For airplanes manufactured after September 2, 2005, thermal/acoustic insulation materials installed in the fuselage must meet the flame propagation requirements of § 25.856 of this chapter, effective September 2, 2003. [Docket 18334, 54 FR 34318, Aug. 18, 1989, as amended by Amdt. 91-279, 68 FR 45083, July 31, 2003; Amdt. 91-290, 70 FR 77752, Dec. 30, 2005] §§ 91.615-91.699 [Reserved]
Subpart H—Foreign Aircraft Operations and Operations of U.S.-Registered Civil Aircraft Outside of the United States; and Rules Governing Persons on Board Such Aircraft Source: Docket 18334, 54 FR 34320, Aug. 18, 1989, unless otherwise noted. § 91.701 Applicability. (a) This subpart applies to the operations of civil aircraft of U.S. registry outside of the United States and the operations of foreign civil aircraft within the United States. (b) Section 91.702 of this subpart also applies to each person on board an aircraft operated as follows: (1) A U.S. registered civil aircraft operated outside the United States; (2) Any aircraft operated outside the United States— (i) That has its next scheduled destination or last place of departure in the United States if the aircraft next lands in the United States; or (ii) If the aircraft lands in the United States with the individual still on the aircraft regardless of whether it was a scheduled or otherwise planned landing site. [Docket FAA-1998-4954, 64 FR 1079, Jan. 7, 1999] § 91.702 Persons on board. Section 91.11 of this part (Prohibitions on interference with crewmembers) applies to each person on board an aircraft. [Docket FAA-1998-4954, 64 FR 1079, Jan. 7, 1999] § 91.703 Operations of civil aircraft of U.S. registry outside of the United States. (a) Each person operating a civil aircraft of U.S. registry outside of the United States shall— (1) When over the high seas, comply with Annex 2 (Rules of the Air) to the Convention on International Civil Aviation and with §§ 91.117(c), 91.127, 91.129, and 91.131; (2) When within a foreign country, comply with the regulations relating to the flight and maneuver of aircraft there in force; (3) Except for §§ 91.117(a), 91.307(b), 91.309, 91.323, and 91.711, comply with this part so far as it is not inconsistent with applicable regulations of the foreign country where the aircraft is operated or Annex 2 of the Convention on International Civil Aviation; and (4) When operating within airspace designated as Reduced Vertical Separation Minimum (RVSM) airspace, comply with § 91.706. (5) For aircraft subject to ICAO Annex 16, carry on board the aircraft documents that summarize the noise operating characteristics and certifications of the aircraft that demonstrate compliance with this part and part 36 of this chapter. (b) Annex 2 to the Convention on International Civil Aviation, Rules of the Air, Tenth Edition—July 2005, with Amendments through Amendment 45, applicable November 10, 2016, is incorporated by reference into this section with the approval of the Director of the Federal Register under 5 U.S.C. 552(a) and 1 CFR part 51. To enforce any edition other than that specified in this section, the FAA must publish a document in the Federal Register and the material must be available to the public. All approved material is available for inspection at U.S. Department of Transportation, Docket Operations, West Building Ground Floor, Room W12-140, 1200 New Jersey Avenue SE., Washington, DC 20590 and is available from the International Civil Aviation Organization (ICAO), Marketing and Customer Relations Unit, 999 Robert Bourassa Boulevard, Montreal, Quebec H3C 5H7, Canada; http://store1.icao.int/; or by contacting the ICAO Marketing and Customer Relations Unit by telephone at 514-954-8022 or by email at sales@icao.int. For questions about ICAO Annex 2, contact the FAA's Office of International Affairs at (202) 267-1000. It is also available for inspection at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to http://www.archives.gov/federal_register/code_of_federal_regulations/ibr_locations.html. [Docket 18834, 54 FR 34320, Aug. 18, 1989, as amended by Amdt. 91-227, 56 FR 65661, Dec. 17, 1991; Amdt. 91-254, 62 FR 17487, Apr. 9, 1997; 69 FR 18803, Apr. 9, 2004; Amdt. 91-299, 73 FR 10143, Feb. 26, 2008; Amdt. 91-312, 75 FR 9333, Mar. 2, 2010; Docket FAA-2016-9154, Amdt. 91-348, 82 FR 39664, Aug. 22, 2017] § 91.705 [Reserved]
§ 91.706 Operations within airspace designed as Reduced Vertical Separation Minimum Airspace. (a) Except as provided in paragraph (b) of this section, no person may operate a civil aircraft of U.S. registry in airspace designated as Reduced Vertical Separation Minimum (RVSM) airspace unless: (1) The operator and the operator's aircraft comply with the requirements of appendix G of this part; and (2) The operator is authorized by the Administrator to conduct such operations. (b) The Administrator may authorize a deviation from the requirements of this section in accordance with Section 5 of appendix G to this part. [Docket 28870, 62 FR 17487, Apr. 9, 1997] § 91.707 Flights between Mexico or Canada and the United States. Unless otherwise authorized by ATC, no person may operate a civil aircraft between Mexico or Canada and the United States without filing an IFR or VFR flight plan, as appropriate. § 91.709 Operations to Cuba. No person may operate a civil aircraft from the United States to Cuba unless— (a) Departure is from an international airport of entry designated in § 6.13 of the Air Commerce Regulations of the Bureau of Customs (19 CFR 6.13); and (b) In the case of departure from any of the 48 contiguous States or the District of Columbia, the pilot in command of the aircraft has filed— (1) A DVFR or IFR flight plan as prescribed in § 99.11 or § 99.13 of this chapter; and (2) A written statement, within 1 hour before departure, with the Office of Immigration and Naturalization Service at the airport of departure, containing— (i) All information in the flight plan; (ii) The name of each occupant of the aircraft; (iii) The number of occupants of the aircraft; and (iv) A description of the cargo, if any. This section does not apply to the operation of aircraft by a scheduled air carrier over routes authorized in operations specifications issued by the Administrator. (Approved by the Office of Management and Budget under control number 2120-0005) § 91.711 Special rules for foreign civil aircraft. (a) General. In addition to the other applicable regulations of this part, each person operating a foreign civil aircraft within the United States shall comply with this section. (b) VFR. No person may conduct VFR operations which require two-way radio communications under this part unless at least one crewmember of that aircraft is able to conduct two-way radio communications in the English language and is on duty during that operation.

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(c) IFR. No person may operate a foreign civil aircraft under IFR unless— (1) That aircraft is equipped with— (i) Radio equipment allowing two-way radio communication with ATC when it is operated in controlled airspace; and (ii) Navigation equipment suitable for the route to be flown. (2) Each person piloting the aircraft— (i) Holds a current United States instrument rating or is authorized by his foreign airman certificate to pilot under IFR; and (ii) Is thoroughly familiar with the United States en route, holding, and letdown procedures; and (3) At least one crewmember of that aircraft is able to conduct two-way radiotelephone communications in the English language and that crewmember is on duty while the aircraft is approaching, operating within, or leaving the United States. (d) Over water. Each person operating a foreign civil aircraft over water off the shores of the United States shall give flight notification or file a flight plan in accordance with the Supplementary Procedures for the ICAO region concerned. (e) Flight at and above FL 240. If VOR navigation equipment is required under paragraph (c)(1)(ii) of this section, no person may operate a foreign civil aircraft within the 50 States and the District of Columbia at or above FL 240, unless the aircraft is equipped with approved DME or a suitable RNAV system. When the DME or RNAV system required by this paragraph fails at and above FL 240, the pilot in command of the aircraft must notify ATC immediately and may then continue operations at and above FL 240 to the next airport of intended landing where repairs or replacement of the equipment can be made. A foreign civil aircraft may be operated within the 50 States and the District of Columbia at or above FL 240 without DME or an RNAV system when operated for the following purposes, and ATC is notified before each takeoff: (1) Ferry flights to and from a place in the United States where repairs or alterations are to be made. (2) Ferry flights to a new country of registry. (3) Flight of a new aircraft of U.S. manufacture for the purpose of— (i) Flight testing the aircraft; (ii) Training foreign flight crews in the operation of the aircraft; or (iii) Ferrying the aircraft for export delivery outside the United States. (4) Ferry, demonstration, and test flight of an aircraft brought to the United States for the purpose of demonstration or testing the whole or any part thereof. [Docket 18834, 54 FR 34320, Aug. 18, 1989, as amended by Amdt. 91-227, 56 FR 65661, Dec. 17, 1991; Amdt. 91-296, 72 FR 31679, June 7, 2007] § 91.713 Operation of civil aircraft of Cuban registry. No person may operate a civil aircraft of Cuban registry except in controlled airspace and in accordance with air traffic clearance or air traffic control instructions that may require use of specific airways or routes and landings at specific airports. § 91.715 Special flight authorizations for foreign civil aircraft. (a) Foreign civil aircraft may be operated without airworthiness certificates required under § 91.203 if a special flight authorization for that operation is issued under this section. Application for a special flight authorization must be made to the appropriate Flight Standards Division Manager, or Aircraft Certification Service Division Director. However, in the case of an aircraft to be operated in the U.S. for the purpose of demonstration at an airshow, the application may be made to the appropriate Flight Standards Division Manager or Aircraft Certification Service Division Director responsible for the airshow location. (b) The Administrator may issue a special flight authorization for a foreign civil aircraft subject to any conditions and limitations that the Administrator considers necessary for safe operation in the U.S. airspace. (c) No person may operate a foreign civil aircraft under a special flight authorization unless that operation also complies with part 375 of the Special Regulations of the Department of Transportation (14 CFR part 375).

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(Approved by the Office of Management and Budget under control number 2120-0005) [Docket 18334, 54 FR 34320, Aug. 18, 1989, as amended by Amdt. 91-212, 54 FR 39293, Sept. 25, 1989; Docket FAA-2018-0119, Amdt. 91-350, 83 FR 9171, Mar. 5, 2018] §§ 91.717-91.799 [Reserved]
Subpart I—Operating Noise Limits Source: Docket 18334, 54 FR 34321, Aug. 18, 1989, unless otherwise noted. § 91.801 Applicability: Relation to part 36. (a) This subpart prescribes operating noise limits and related requirements that apply, as follows, to the operation of civil aircraft in the United States. (1) Sections 91.803, 91.805, 91.807, 91.809, and 91.811 apply to civil subsonic jet (turbojet) airplanes with maximum weights of more than 75,000 pounds and— (i) If U.S. registered, that have standard airworthiness certificates; or (ii) If foreign registered, that would be required by this chapter to have a U.S. standard airworthiness certificate in order to conduct the operations intended for the airplane were it registered in the United States. Those sections apply to operations to or from airports in the United States under this part and parts 121, 125, 129, and 135 of this chapter. (2) Section 91.813 applies to U.S. operators of civil subsonic jet (turbojet) airplanes covered by this subpart. This section applies to operators operating to or from airports in the United States under this part and parts 121, 125, and 135, but not to those operating under part 129 of this chapter. (3) Sections 91.803, 91.819, and 91.821 apply to U.S.-registered civil supersonic airplanes having standard airworthiness certificates and to foreign-registered civil supersonic airplanes that, if registered in the United States, would be required by this chapter to have U.S. standard airworthiness certificates in order to conduct the operations intended for the airplane. Those sections apply to operations under this part and under parts 121, 125, 129, and 135 of this chapter. (b) Unless otherwise specified, as used in this subpart “part 36” refers to 14 CFR part 36, including the noise levels under appendix C of that part, notwithstanding the provisions of that part excepting certain airplanes from the specified noise requirements. For purposes of this subpart, the various stages of noise levels, the terms used to describe airplanes with respect to those levels, and the terms “subsonic airplane” and “supersonic airplane” have the meanings specified under part 36 of this chapter. For purposes of this subpart, for subsonic airplanes operated in foreign air commerce in the United States, the Administrator may accept compliance with the noise requirements under annex 16 of the International Civil Aviation Organization when those requirements have been shown to be substantially compatible with, and achieve results equivalent to those achievable under, part 36 for that airplane. Determinations made under these provisions are subject to the limitations of § 36.5 of this chapter as if those noise levels were part 36 noise levels. (c) Sections 91.851 through 91.877 of this subpart prescribe operating noise limits and related requirements that apply to any civil subsonic jet (turbojet) airplane (for which an airworthiness certificate other than an experimental certificate has been issued by the Administrator) with a maximum certificated takeoff weight of more than 75,000 pounds operating to or from an airport in the 48 contiguous United States and the District of Columbia under this part, parts 121, 125, 129, or 135 of this chapter on and after September 25, 1991. (d) Section 91.877 prescribes reporting requirements that apply to any civil subsonic jet (turbojet) airplane with a maximum weight of more than 75,000 pounds operated by an air carrier or foreign air carrier between the contiguous United States and the State of Hawaii, between the State of Hawaii and any point outside of the 48 contiguous United States, or between the islands of Hawaii in turnaround service, under part 121 or 129 of this chapter on or after November 5, 1990.

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(e) Sections 91.881 through 91.883 of this subpart prescribe operating noise limits and related requirements that apply to any civil subsonic jet airplane with a maximum takeoff weight of 75,000 pounds or less and for which an airworthiness certificate (other than an experimental certificate) has been issued, operating to or from an airport in the contiguous United States under this part, part 121, 125, 129, or 135 of this chapter on and after December 31, 2015. [Docket 18334, 54 FR 34321, Aug. 18, 1989; Amdt. 91-211, 54 FR 41211, Oct. 5, 1989, as amended by Amdt. 91-225, 56 FR 48658, Sept. 25, 1991; Amdt. 91-252, 61 FR 66185, Dec. 16, 1996; Amdt. 91-275, 67 FR 45237, July 8, 2002; Amdt. 91-276, 67 FR 46571, July 15, 2002; Amdt. 91-328, 78 FR 39583, July 2, 2013] § 91.803 Part 125 operators: Designation of applicable regulations. For airplanes covered by this subpart and operated under part 125 of this chapter, the following regulations apply as specified: (a) For each airplane operation to which requirements prescribed under this subpart applied before November 29, 1980, those requirements of this subpart continue to apply. (b) For each subsonic airplane operation to which requirements prescribed under this subpart did not apply before November 29, 1980, because the airplane was not operated in the United States under this part or part 121, 129, or 135 of this chapter, the requirements prescribed under § 91.805 of this subpart apply. (c) For each supersonic airplane operation to which requirements prescribed under this subpart did not apply before November 29, 1980, because the airplane was not operated in the United States under this part or part 121, 129, or 135 of this chapter, the requirements of §§ 91.819 and 91.821 of this subpart apply. (d) For each airplane required to operate under part 125 for which a deviation under that part is approved to operate, in whole or in part, under this part or part 121, 129, or 135 of this chapter, notwithstanding the approval, the requirements prescribed under paragraphs (a), (b), and (c) of this section continue to apply. [Docket 18334, 54 FR 34321, Aug. 18, 1989, as amended by Amdt. 91-276, 67 FR 46571, July 15, 2002] § 91.805 Final compliance: Subsonic airplanes. Except as provided in §§ 91.809 and 91.811, on and after January 1, 1985, no person may operate to or from an airport in the United States any subsonic airplane covered by this subpart unless that airplane has been shown to comply with Stage 2 or Stage 3 noise levels under part 36 of this chapter. §§ 91.807-91.813 [Reserved]
§ 91.815 Agricultural and fire fighting airplanes: Noise operating limitations. (a) This section applies to propeller-driven, small airplanes having standard airworthiness certificates that are designed for “agricultural aircraft operations” (as defined in § 137.3 of this chapter, as effective on January 1, 1966) or for dispensing fire fighting materials. (b) If the Airplane Flight Manual, or other approved manual material information, markings, or placards for the airplane indicate that the airplane has not been shown to comply with the noise limits under part 36 of this chapter, no person may operate that airplane, except— (1) To the extent necessary to accomplish the work activity directly associated with the purpose for which it is designed; (2) To provide flight crewmember training in the special purpose operation for which the airplane is designed; and (3) To conduct “nondispensing aerial work operations” in accordance with the requirements under § 137.29(c) of this chapter. § 91.817 Civil aircraft sonic boom. (a) No person may operate a civil aircraft in the United States at a true flight Mach number greater than 1 except in compliance with conditions and limitations in an authorization to exceed Mach 1 issued to the operator in accordance with § 91.818.

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(b) In addition, no person may operate a civil aircraft for which the maximum operating limit speed M M0 exceeds a Mach number of 1, to or from an airport in the United States, unless— (1) Information available to the flight crew includes flight limitations that ensure that flights entering or leaving the United States will not cause a sonic boom to reach the surface within the United States; and (2) The operator complies with the flight limitations prescribed in paragraph (b)(1) of this section or complies with conditions and limitations in an authorization to exceed Mach 1 issued in accordance with § 91.818. (Approved by the Office of Management and Budget under control number 2120-0005) [Docket 18334, 54 FR 34321, Aug. 18, 1989, as amended by Amdt. 91-362, 86 FR 3792, Jan. 15, 2021] § 91.818 Special flight authorization to exceed Mach 1. For all civil aircraft, any operation that exceeds Mach 1 may be conducted only in accordance with a special flight authorization issued to an operator in accordance with the requirements of this section. (a) Application. Application for a special flight authorization to exceed Mach 1 must be made to the FAA Office of Environment and Energy for consideration by the Administrator. Each application must include: (1) The name of the operator; (2) The number and model(s) of the aircraft to be operated; (3) The number of proposed flights; (4) The date range during which the flight(s) would be conducted; (5) The time of day the flight(s) would be conducted. Proposed night operations may require further justification for their necessity; (6) A description of the flight area requested by the applicant, including any environmental information required to be submitted pursuant to paragraph (c) of this section; (7) All conditions and limitations on the flight(s) that will ensure that no measurable sonic boom overpressure will reach the surface outside of the proposed flight area; and (8) The reason(s) that operation at a speed greater than Mach 1 is necessary. A special flight authorization to exceed Mach 1 may be granted only for operations that are intended to: (i) Show compliance with airworthiness requirements; (ii) Determine the sonic boom characteristics of an aircraft; (iii) Establish a means of reducing or eliminating the effects of sonic boom, including flight profiles and special features of an aircraft; (iv) Demonstrate the conditions and limitations under which speeds in excess of Mach 1 will not cause a measurable sonic boom overpressure to reach the surface; or (v) Measure the noise characteristics of an aircraft to demonstrate compliance with noise requirements imposed under this chapter, or to determine the limits for operation in accordance with § 91.817(b). (9) For any purpose listed in paragraph (a)(8) of this section, each applicant must indicate why its intended operation cannot be safely or properly accomplished over the ocean at a distance ensuring that no sonic boom overpressure reaches any land surface in the United States. (b) Operation outside a test area. An applicant may apply for an authorization to conduct flights outside a test area under certain conditions and limitations upon a conservative showing that: (1) Flight(s) within a test area have been conducted in accordance with an authorization issued for the purpose specified in paragraph (a)(8)(iv) of this section; (2) The results of the flight test(s) required by paragraph (b)(1) of this section demonstrate that a speed in excess of Mach 1 does not cause a measurable sonic boom overpressure to reach the surface; and (3) The conditions and limitations determined by the test(s) represent all foreseeable operating conditions and are effective on all flights conducted under an authorization. (c) Environmental findings. (1) No special flight authorization will be granted if the Administrator finds that such action is necessary to protect or enhance the environment.

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(2) The Administrator is required to consider the potential environmental impacts resulting from the issuance of an authorization for a particular flight area pursuant to the National Environmental Policy Act of 1969 (NEPA) (42 U.S.C 4321 et seq. ), all applicable regulations implementing NEPA, and related Executive orders and guidance. Accordingly, each applicant must provide information that sufficiently describes the potential environmental impact of any flight in excess of Mach 1, including the effect of a sonic boom reaching the surface in the proposed flight area, to enable the FAA to determine whether such impacts are significant within the meaning of NEPA. (d) Issuance. An authorization to operate a civil aircraft in excess of Mach 1 may be issued only after an applicant has submitted the information described in this section and the Administrator has taken the required action regarding the environmental findings described in paragraph (c) of this section. (e) Duration. (1) An authorization to exceed Mach 1 will be granted for the time the Administrator determines necessary to conduct the flights for the described purposes. (2) An authorization to exceed Mach 1 is effective until it expires or is surrendered. (3) An authorization to exceed Mach 1 may be terminated, suspended, or amended by the Administrator at any time the Administrator finds that such action is necessary to protect the environment. (4) The holder of an authorization to exceed Mach 1 may request reconsideration of a termination, amendment, or suspension issued under paragraph (e)(3) of this section within 30 days of notice of the action. Failure to request reconsideration and provide information why the Administrator's action is not appropriate will result in permanent termination of the authorization. (5) Findings made by and actions taken by the Administrator under this section do not affect any certificate issued under chapter 447 of Title 49 of the United States Code. [Docket FAA-2019-0451, Amdt. 91-362, 86 FR 3792, Jan. 15, 2021] § 91.819 Civil supersonic airplanes that do not comply with part 36. (a) Applicability. This section applies to civil supersonic airplanes that have not been shown to comply with the Stage 2 noise limits of part 36 in effect on October 13, 1977, using applicable trade-off provisions, and that are operated in the United States, after July 31, 1978. (b) Airport use. Except in an emergency, the following apply to each person who operates a civil supersonic airplane to or from an airport in the United States: (1) Regardless of whether a type design change approval is applied for under part 21 of this chapter, no person may land or take off an airplane covered by this section for which the type design is changed, after July 31, 1978, in a manner constituting an “acoustical change” under § 21.93 unless the acoustical change requirements of part 36 are complied with. (2) No flight may be scheduled, or otherwise planned, for takeoff or landing after 10 p.m. and before 7 a.m. local time. § 91.821 Civil supersonic airplanes: Noise limits. Except for Concorde airplanes having flight time before January 1, 1980, no person may operate in the United States, a civil supersonic airplane that does not comply with Stage 2 noise limits of part 36 in effect on October 13, 1977, using applicable trade-off provisions. §§ 91.823-91.849 [Reserved]
§ 91.851 Definitions. For the purposes of §§ 91.851 through 91.877 of this subpart: Chapter 4 noise level means a noise level at or below the maximum noise level prescribed in Chapter 4, Paragraph 4.4, Maximum Noise Levels, of the International Civil Aviation Organization (ICAO) Annex 16, Volume I, Amendment 7, effective March 21, 2002. The Director of the Federal Register in accordance with 5 U.S.C. 552(a) and 1 CFR part 51 approved the incorporation by reference of this document, which can be obtained from the International Civil Aviation Organization (ICAO), Document Sales Unit, 999 University Street, Montreal, Quebec H3C 5H7, Canada. Also, you may obtain documents on the Internet at http://www.ICAO.int/eshop/index.cfm. Copies may be reviewed at the U.S. Department of Transportation, Docket Operations, West Building Ground Floor, Room W12-140, 1200 New Jersey Avenue, SE., Washington, DC 20590 or at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to: http://www.archives.gov/federal_register/code_of_federal_regulations/ibr_locations.html.

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Contiguous United States means the area encompassed by the 48 contiguous United States and the District of Columbia. Fleet means those civil subsonic jet (turbojet) airplanes with a maximum certificated weight of more than 75,000 pounds that are listed on an operator's operations specifications as eligible for operation in the contiguous United States. Import means a change in ownership of an airplane from a non-U.S. person to a U.S. person when the airplane is brought into the United States for operation. Operations specifications means an enumeration of airplanes by type, model, series, and serial number operated by the operator or foreign air carrier on a given day, regardless of how or whether such airplanes are formally listed or designated by the operator. Owner means any person that has indicia of ownership sufficient to register the airplane in the United States pursuant to part 47 of this chapter. New entrant means an air carrier or foreign air carrier that, on or before November 5, 1990, did not conduct operations under part 121 or 129 of this chapter using an airplane covered by this subpart to or from any airport in the contiguous United States, but that initiates such operation after that date. Stage 2 noise levels mean the requirements for Stage 2 noise levels as defined in part 36 of this chapter in effect on November 5, 1990. Stage 3 noise levels mean the requirements for Stage 3 noise levels as defined in part 36 of this chapter in effect on November 5, 1990. Stage 4 noise level means a noise level at or below the Stage 4 noise limit prescribed in part 36 of this chapter. Stage 2 airplane means a civil subsonic jet (turbojet) airplane with a maximum certificated weight of 75,000 pounds or more that complies with Stage 2 noise levels as defined in part 36 of this chapter. Stage 3 airplane means a civil subsonic jet (turbojet) airplane with a maximum certificated weight of 75,000 pounds or more that complies with Stage 3 noise levels as defined in part 36 of this chapter. Stage 4 airplane means an airplane that has been shown not to exceed the Stage 4 noise limit prescribed in part 36 of this chapter. A Stage 4 airplane complies with all of the noise operating rules of this part. Stage 5 airplane means an airplane that has been shown not to exceed the Stage 5 noise limit prescribed in part 36 of this chapter. A Stage 5 airplane complies with all of the noise operating rules of this part. Stage 5 noise level means a noise level at or below the Stage 5 noise limit prescribed in part 36 of this chapter. [Docket 26433, 56 FR 48658, Sept. 25, 1991, as amended by Amdt. 91-252, 61 FR 66185, Dec. 16, 1996; Amdt. 91-275, 67 FR 45237, July 8, 2002; Amdt. 91-288, 70 FR 38749, July 5, 2005; 72 FR 68475, Dec. 5, 2007; Docket FAA-2015-3782, Amdt. 91-349, 82 FR 46132, Oct. 4, 2017] § 91.853 Final compliance: Civil subsonic airplanes. Except as provided in § 91.873, after December 31, 1999, no person shall operate to or from any airport in the contiguous United States any airplane subject to § 91.801(c), unless that airplane has been shown to comply with Stage 3, Stage 4, or Stage 5 noise levels. [Docket FAA-2015-3782, Amdt. 91-349, 82 FR 46132, Oct. 4, 2017] § 91.855 Entry and nonaddition rule. No person may operate any airplane subject to § 91.801(c) of this subpart to or from an airport in the contiguous United States unless one or more of the following apply:

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(a) The airplane complies with Stage 3, Stage 4, or Stage 5 noise levels. (b) The airplane complies with Stage 2 noise levels and was owned by a U.S. person on and since November 5, 1990. Stage 2 airplanes that meet these criteria and are leased to foreign airlines are also subject to the return provisions of paragraph (e) of this section. (c) The airplane complies with Stage 2 noise levels, is owned by a non-U.S. person, and is the subject of a binding lease to a U.S. person effective before and on September 25, 1991. Any such airplane may be operated for the term of the lease in effect on that date, and any extensions thereof provided for in that lease. (d) The airplane complies with Stage 2 noise levels and is operated by a foreign air carrier. (e) The airplane complies with Stage 2 noise levels and is operated by a foreign operator other than for the purpose of foreign air commerce. (f) The airplane complies with Stage 2 noise levels and— (1) On November 5, 1990, was owned by: (i) A corporation, trust, or partnership organized under the laws of the United States or any State (including individual States, territories, possessions, and the District of Columbia); (ii) An individual who is a citizen of the United States; or (iii) An entity owned or controlled by a corporation, trust, partnership, or individual described in paragraph (f)(1) (i) or (ii) of this section; and (2) Enters into the United States not later than 6 months after the expiration of a lease agreement (including any extensions thereof) between an owner described in paragraph (f)(1) of this section and a foreign airline. (g) The airplane complies with Stage 2 noise levels and was purchased by the importer under a written contract executed before November 5, 1990. (h) Any Stage 2 airplane described in this section is eligible for operation in the contiguous United States only as provided under § 91.865 or 91.867. [Docket 26433, 56 FR 48658, Sept. 25, 1991; 56 FR 51167, Oct. 10, 1991, as amended by Amdt. 91-288, 70 FR 38750, July 5, 2005; Docket FAA-2015-3782, Amdt. 91-349, 82 FR 46132, Oct. 4, 2017] § 91.857 Stage 2 operations outside of the 48 contiguous United States. An operator of a Stage 2 airplane that is operating only between points outside the contiguous United States on or after November 5, 1990, must include in its operations specifications a statement that such airplane may not be used to provide air transportation to or from any airport in the contiguous United States. [Docket FAA-2002-12771, 67 FR 46571, July 15, 2002] § 91.858 Special flight authorizations for non-revenue Stage 2 operations. (a) After December 31, 1999, any operator of a Stage 2 airplane over 75,000 pounds may operate that airplane in nonrevenue service in the contiguous United States only for the following purposes: (1) Sell, lease, or scrap the airplane; (2) Obtain modifications to meet Stage 3, Stage 4, or Stage 5 noise levels. (3) Obtain scheduled heavy maintenance or significant modifications; (4) Deliver the airplane to a lessee or return it to a lessor; (5) Park or store the airplane; and (6) Prepare the airplane for any of the purposes listed in paragraph (a)(1) thru (a)(5) of this section. (b) An operator of a Stage 2 airplane that needs to operate in the contiguous United States for any of the purposes listed above may apply to FAA's Office of Environment and Energy for a special flight authorization. The applicant must file in advance. Applications are due 30 days in advance of the planned flight and must provide the information necessary for the FAA to determine that the planned flight is within the limits prescribed in the law. [Docket FAA-2002-12771, 67 FR 46571, July 15, 2002, as amended by Docket FAA-2015-3782, Amdt. 91-349, 82 FR 46132, Oct. 4, 2017] § 91.859 Modification to meet Stage 3, Stage 4, or Stage 5 noise levels. For an airplane subject to § 91.801(c) of this subpart and otherwise prohibited from operation to or from an airport in the contiguous United States by § 91.855, any person may apply for a special flight authorization for that airplane to operate in the contiguous United States for the purpose of obtaining modifications to meet Stage 3, Stage 4, or Stage 5 noise levels.

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[Docket FAA-2015-3782, Amdt. 91-349, 82 FR 46132, Oct. 4, 2017] § 91.861 Base level. (a) U.S. Operators. The base level of a U.S. operator is equal to the number of owned or leased Stage 2 airplanes subject to § 91.801(c) of this subpart that were listed on that operator's operations specifications for operations to or from airports in the contiguous United States on any one day selected by the operator during the period January 1, 1990, through July 1, 1991, plus or minus adjustments made pursuant to paragraphs (a) (1) and (2). (1) The base level of a U.S. operator shall be increased by a number equal to the total of the following— (i) The number of Stage 2 airplanes returned to service in the United States pursuant to § 91.855(f); (ii) The number of Stage 2 airplanes purchased pursuant to § 91.855(g); and (iii) Any U.S. operator base level acquired with a Stage 2 airplane transferred from another person under § 91.863. (2) The base level of a U.S. operator shall be decreased by the amount of U.S. operator base level transferred with the corresponding number of Stage 2 airplanes to another person under § 91.863. (b) Foreign air carriers. The base level of a foreign air carrier is equal to the number of owned or leased Stage 2 airplanes that were listed on that carrier's U.S. operations specifications on any one day during the period January 1, 1990, through July 1, 1991, plus or minus any adjustments to the base levels made pursuant to paragraphs (b) (1) and (2). (1) The base level of a foreign air carrier shall be increased by the amount of foreign air carrier base level acquired with a Stage 2 airplane from another person under § 91.863. (2) The base level of a foreign air carrier shall be decreased by the amount of foreign air carrier base level transferred with a Stage 2 airplane to another person under § 91.863. (c) New entrants do not have a base level. [Docket 26433, 56 FR 48659, Sept. 25, 1991; 56 FR 51167, Oct. 10, 1991] § 91.863 Transfers of Stage 2 airplanes with base level. (a) Stage 2 airplanes may be transferred with or without the corresponding amount of base level. Base level may not be transferred without the corresponding number of Stage 2 airplanes. (b) No portion of a U.S. operator's base level established under § 91.861(a) may be used for operations by a foreign air carrier. No portion of a foreign air carrier's base level established under § 91.861(b) may be used for operations by a U.S. operator. (c) Whenever a transfer of Stage 2 airplanes with base level occurs, the transferring and acquiring parties shall, within 10 days, jointly submit written notification of the transfer to the FAA, Office of Environment and Energy. Such notification shall state: (1) The names of the transferring and acquiring parties; (2) The name, address, and telephone number of the individual responsible for submitting the notification on behalf of the transferring and acquiring parties; (3) The total number of Stage 2 airplanes transferred, listed by airplane type, model, series, and serial number; (4) The corresponding amount of base level transferred and whether it is U.S. operator or foreign air carrier base level; and (5) The effective date of the transaction. (d) If, taken as a whole, a transaction or series of transactions made pursuant to this section does not produce an increase or decrease in the number of Stage 2 airplanes for either the acquiring or transferring operator, such transaction or series of transactions may not be used to establish compliance with the requirements of § 91.865. [Docket 26433, 56 FR 48659, Sept. 25, 1991] § 91.865 Phased compliance for operators with base level. Except as provided in paragraph (a) of this section, each operator that operates an airplane under part 91, 121, 125, 129, or 135 of this chapter, regardless of the national registry of the airplane, shall comply with paragraph (b) or (d) of this section at each interim compliance date with regard to its subsonic airplane fleet covered by § 91.801(c) of this subpart.

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(a) This section does not apply to new entrants covered by § 91.867 or to foreign operators not engaged in foreign air commerce. (b) Each operator that chooses to comply with this paragraph pursuant to any interim compliance requirement shall reduce the number of Stage 2 airplanes it operates that are eligible for operation in the contiguous United States to a maximum of: (1) After December 31, 1994, 75 percent of the base level held by the operator; (2) After December 31, 1996, 50 percent of the base level held by the operator; (3) After December 31, 1998, 25 percent of the base level held by the operator. (c) Except as provided under § 91.871, the number of Stage 2 airplanes that must be reduced at each compliance date contained in paragraph (b) of this section shall be determined by reference to the amount of base level held by the operator on that compliance date, as calculated under § 91.861. (d) Each operator that chooses to comply with this paragraph pursuant to any interim compliance requirement shall operate a fleet that consists of: (1) After December 31, 1994, not less than 55 percent Stage 3 airplanes; (2) After December 31, 1996, not less than 65 percent Stage 3 airplanes; (3) After December 31, 1998, not less than 75 percent Stage 3 airplanes. (e) Calculations resulting in fractions may be rounded to permit the continued operation of the next whole number of Stage 2 airplanes. [Docket 26433, 56 FR 48659, Sept. 25, 1991] § 91.867 Phased compliance for new entrants. (a) New entrant U.S. air carriers. (1) A new entrant initiating operations under part 121 of this chapter on or before December 31, 1994, may initiate service without regard to the percentage of its fleet composed of Stage 3 airplanes. (2) After December 31, 1994, at least 25 percent of the fleet of a new entrant must comply with Stage 3 noise levels. (3) After December 31, 1996, at least 50 percent of the fleet of a new entrant must comply with Stage 3 noise levels. (4) After December 31, 1998, at least 75 percent of the fleet of a new entrant must comply with Stage 3 noise levels. (b) New entrant foreign air carriers. (1) A new entrant foreign air carrier initiating part 129 operations on or before December 31, 1994, may initiate service without regard to the percentage of its fleet composed of Stage 3 airplanes. (2) After December 31, 1994, at least 25 percent of the fleet on U.S. operations specifications of a new entrant foreign air carrier must comply with Stage 3 noise levels. (3) After December 31, 1996, at least 50 percent of the fleet on U.S. operations specifications of a new entrant foreign air carrier must comply with Stage 3 noise levels. (4) After December 31, 1998, at least 75 percent of the fleet on U.S. operations specifications of a new entrant foreign air carrier must comply with Stage 3 noise levels. (c) Calculations resulting in fractions may be rounded to permit the continued operation of the next whole number of Stage 2 airplanes. [Docket 26433, 56 FR 48659, Sept. 25, 1991, as amended by Amdt. 91-252, 61 FR 66185, Dec. 16, 1996] § 91.869 Carry-forward compliance. (a) Any operator that exceeds the requirements of paragraph (b) of § 91.865 of this part on or before December 31, 1994, or on or before December 31, 1996, may claim a credit that may be applied at a subsequent interim compliance date. (b) Any operator that eliminates or modifies more Stage 2 airplanes pursuant to § 91.865(b) than required as of December 31, 1994, or December 31, 1996, may count the number of additional Stage 2 airplanes reduced as a credit toward— (1) The number of Stage 2 airplanes it would otherwise be required to reduce following a subsequent interim compliance date specified in § 91.865(b); or

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(2) The number of Stage 3 airplanes it would otherwise be required to operate in its fleet following a subsequent interim compliance date to meet the percentage requirements specified in § 91.865(d). [Docket 26433, 56 FR 48659, Sept. 25, 1991; 56 FR 65783, Dec. 18, 1991] § 91.871 Waivers from interim compliance requirements. (a) Any U.S. operator or foreign air carrier subject to the requirements of § 91.865 or 91.867 of this subpart may request a waiver from any individual compliance requirement. (b) Applications must be filed with the Secretary of Transportation at least 120 days prior to the compliance date from which the waiver is requested. (c) Applicants must show that a grant of waiver would be in the public interest, and must include in its application its plans and activities for modifying its fleet, including evidence of good faith efforts to comply with the requirements of § 91.865 or § 91.867. The application should contain all information the applicant considers relevant, including, as appropriate, the following: (1) The applicant's balance sheet and cash flow positions; (2) The composition of the applicant's current fleet; and (3) The applicant's delivery position with respect to new airplanes or noise-abatement equipment. (d) Waivers will be granted only upon a showing by the applicant that compliance with the requirements of § 91.865 or 91.867 at a particular interim compliance date is financially onerous, physically impossible, or technologically infeasible, or that it would have an adverse effect on competition or on service to small communities. (e) The conditions of any waiver granted under this section shall be determined by the circumstances presented in the application, but in no case may the term extend beyond the next interim compliance date. (f) A summary of any request for a waiver under this section will be published in the Federal Register, and public comment will be invited. Unless the Secretary finds that circumstances require otherwise, the public comment period will be at least 14 days. [Docket 26433, 56 FR 48660, Sept. 25, 1991] § 91.873 Waivers from final compliance. (a) A U.S. air carrier or a foreign air carrier may apply for a waiver from the prohibition contained in § 91.853 of this part for its remaining Stage 2 airplanes, provided that, by July 1, 1999, at least 85 percent of the airplanes used by the carrier to provide service to or from an airport in the contiguous United States will comply with the Stage 3 noise levels. (b) An application for the waiver described in paragraph (a) of this section must be filed with the Secretary of Transportation no later than January 1, 1999, or, in the case of a foreign air carrier, no later than April 20, 2000. Such application must include a plan with firm orders for replacing or modifying all airplanes to comply with Stage 3 noise levels at the earliest practicable time. (c) To be eligible to apply for the waiver under this section, a new entrant U.S. air carrier must initiate service no later than January 1, 1999, and must comply fully with all provisions of this section. (d) The Secretary may grant a waiver under this section if the Secretary finds that granting such waiver is in the public interest. In making such a finding, the Secretary shall include consideration of the effect of granting such waiver on competition in the air carrier industry and the effect on small community air service, and any other information submitted by the applicant that the Secretary considers relevant. (e) The term of any waiver granted under this section shall be determined by the circumstances presented in the application, but in no case will the waiver permit the operation of any Stage 2 airplane covered by this subchapter in the contiguous United States after December 31, 2003. (f) A summary of any request for a waiver under this section will be published in the Federal Register, and public comment will be invited. Unless the secretary finds that circumstances require otherwise, the public comment period will be at least 14 days.

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[Docket 26433, 56 FR 48660, Sept. 25, 1991; 56 FR 51167 Oct. 10, 1991; Amdt. 91-276, 67 FR 46571, July 15, 2002] § 91.875 Annual progress reports. (a) Each operator subject to § 91.865 or § 91.867 of this chapter shall submit an annual report to the FAA, Office of Environment and Energy, on the progress it has made toward complying with the requirements of that section. Such reports shall be submitted no later than 45 days after the end of a calendar year. All progress reports must provide the information through the end of the calendar year, be certified by the operator as true and complete (under penalty of 18 U.S.C. 1001), and include the following information: (1) The name and address of the operator; (2) The name, title, and telephone number of the person designated by the operator to be responsible for ensuring the accuracy of the information in the report; (3) The operator's progress during the reporting period toward compliance with the requirements of § 91.853, § 91.865 or § 91.867. For airplanes on U.S. operations specifications, each operator shall identify the airplanes by type, model, series, and serial number. (i) Each Stage 2 airplane added or removed from operation or U.S. operations specifications (grouped separately by those airplanes acquired with and without base level); (ii) Each Stage 2 airplane modified to Stage 3 noise levels (identifying the manufacturer and model of noise abatement retrofit equipment; (iii) Each Stage 3 airplane on U.S. operations specifications as of the last day of the reporting period; and (iv) For each Stage 2 airplane transferred or acquired, the name and address of the recipient or transferor; and, if base level was transferred, the person to or from whom base level was transferred or acquired pursuant to Section 91.863 along with the effective date of each base level transaction, and the type of base level transferred or acquired. (b) Each operator subject to § 91.865 or § 91.867 of this chapter shall submit an initial progress report covering the period from January 1, 1990, through December 31, 1991, and provide: (1) For each operator subject to § 91.865: (i) The date used to establish its base level pursuant to § 91.861(a); and (ii) A list of those Stage 2 airplanes (by type, model, series and serial number) in its base level, including adjustments made pursuant to § 91.861 after the date its base level was established. (2) For each U.S. operator: (i) A plan to meet the compliance schedules in § 91.865 or § 91.867 and the final compliance date of § 91.853, including the schedule for delivery of replacement Stage 3 airplanes or the installation of noise abatement retrofit equipment; and (ii) A separate list (by type, model, series, and serial number) of those airplanes included in the operator's base level, pursuant to § 91.861(a)(1) (i) and (ii), under the categories “returned” or “purchased,” along with the date each was added to its operations specifications. (c) Each operator subject to § 91.865 or § 91.867 of this chapter shall submit subsequent annual progress reports covering the calendar year preceding the report and including any changes in the information provided in paragraphs (a) and (b) of this section; including the use of any carry-forward credits pursuant to § 91.869. (d) An operator may request, in any report, that specific planning data be considered proprietary. (e) If an operator's actions during any reporting period cause it to achieve compliance with § 91.853, the report should include a statement to that effect. Further progress reports are not required unless there is any change in the information reported pursuant to paragraph (a) of this section. (f) For each U.S. operator subject to § 91.865, progress reports submitted for calendar years 1994, 1996, and 1998, shall also state how the operator achieved compliance with the requirements of that section, i.e.— (1) By reducing the number of Stage 2 airplanes in its fleet to no more than the maximum permitted percentage of its base level under § 91.865(b), or

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(2) By operating a fleet that consists of at least the minimum required percentage of Stage 3 airplanes under § 91.865(d). (Approved by the Office of Management and Budget under control number 2120-0553) [Docket 26433, 56 FR 48660, Sept. 25, 1991; 56 FR 51168, Oct. 10, 1991, as amended by 57 FR 5977, Feb. 19, 1992] § 91.877 Annual reporting of Hawaiian operations. (a) Each air carrier or foreign air carrier subject to § 91.865 or § 91.867 of this part that conducts operations between the contiguous United States and the State of Hawaii, between the State of Hawaii and any point outside of the contiguous United States, or between the islands of Hawaii in turnaround service, on or since November 5, 1990, shall include in its annual report the information described in paragraph (c) of this section. (b) Each air carrier or foreign air carrier not subject to § 91.865 or § 91.867 of this part that conducts operations between the contiguous U.S. and the State of Hawaii, between the State of Hawaii and any point outside of the contiguous United States, or between the islands of Hawaii in turnaround service, on or since November 5, 1990, shall submit an annual report to the FAA, Office of Environment and Energy, on its compliance with the Hawaiian operations provisions of 49 U.S.C. 47528. Such reports shall be submitted no later than 45 days after the end of a calendar year. All progress reports must provide the information through the end of the calendar year, be certified by the operator as true and complete (under penalty of 18 U.S.C. 1001), and include the following information— (1) The name and address of the air carrier or foreign air carrier; (2) The name, title, and telephone number of the person designated by the air carrier or foreign air carrier to be responsible for ensuring the accuracy of the information in the report; and (3) The information specified in paragraph (c) of this section. (c) The following information must be included in reports filed pursuant to this section— (1) For operations conducted between the contiguous United States and the State of Hawaii— (i) The number of Stage 2 airplanes used to conduct such operations as of November 5, 1990; (ii) Any change to that number during the calendar year being reported, including the date of such change; (2) For air carriers that conduct inter-island turnaround service in the State of Hawaii— (i) The number of Stage 2 airplanes used to conduct such operations as of November 5, 1990; (ii) Any change to that number during the calendar year being reported, including the date of such change; (iii) For an air carrier that provided inter-island trunaround service within the state of Hawaii on November 5, 1990, the number reported under paragraph (c)(2)(i) of this section may include all Stage 2 airplanes with a maximum certificated takeoff weight of more than 75,000 pounds that were owned or leased by the air carrier on November 5, 1990, regardless of whether such airplanes were operated by that air carrier or foreign air carrier on that date. (3) For operations conducted between the State of Hawaii and a point outside the contiguous United States— (i) The number of Stage 2 airplanes used to conduct such operations as of November 5, 1990; and (ii) Any change to that number during the calendar year being reported, including the date of such change. (d) Reports or amended reports for years predating this regulation are required to be filed concurrently with the next annual report. [Docket 28213, 61 FR 66185, Dec. 16, 1996] §§ 91.879-91.880 [Reserved]
§ 91.881 Final compliance: Civil subsonic jet airplanes weighing 75,000 pounds or less. Except as provided in § 91.883, after December 31, 2015, a person may not operate to or from an airport in the contiguous United States a civil subsonic jet airplane subject to § 91.801(e) of this subpart that weighs less than 75,000 pounds unless that airplane has been shown to comply with Stage 3, Stage 4, or Stage 5 noise levels.

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[Docket FAA-2015-3782, Amdt. 91-349, 82 FR 46132, Oct. 4, 2017] § 91.883 Special flight authorizations for jet airplanes weighing 75,000 pounds or less. (a) After December 31, 2015, an operator of a jet airplane weighing 75,000 pounds or less that does not comply with Stage 3 noise levels may, when granted a special flight authorization by the FAA, operate that airplane in the contiguous United States only for one of the following purposes: (1) To sell, lease, or use the airplane outside the 48 contiguous States; (2) To scrap the airplane; (3) To obtain modifications to the airplane to meet Stage 3, Stage 4, or Stage 5 noise levels. (4) To perform scheduled heavy maintenance or significant modifications on the airplane at a maintenance facility located in the contiguous 48 States; (5) To deliver the airplane to an operator leasing the airplane from the owner or return the airplane to the lessor; (6) To prepare, park, or store the airplane in anticipation of any of the activities described in paragraphs (a)(1) through (a)(5) of this section; (7) To provide transport of persons and goods in the relief of an emergency situation; or (8) To divert the airplane to an alternative airport in the 48 contiguous States on account of weather, mechanical, fuel, air traffic control, or other safety reasons while conducting a flight in order to perform any of the activities described in paragraphs (a)(1) through (a)(7) of this section. (b) An operator of an affected airplane may apply for a special flight authorization for one of the purposes listed in paragraph (a) of this section by filing an application with the FAA's Office of Environment and Energy. Except for emergency relief authorizations sought under paragraph (a)(7) of this section, applications must be filed at least 30 days in advance of the planned flight. All applications must provide the information necessary for the FAA to determine that the planned flight is within the limits prescribed in the law. [Docket FAA-2013-0503, 78 FR 39583, July 2, 2013, as amended by Docket FAA-2015-3782, Amdt. 91-349, 82 FR 46132, Oct. 4, 2017] §§ 91.884-91.899 [Reserved]
Subpart J—Waivers § 91.901 [Reserved]
§ 91.903 Policy and procedures. (a) The Administrator may issue a certificate of waiver authorizing the operation of aircraft in deviation from any rule listed in this subpart if the Administrator finds that the proposed operation can be safely conducted under the terms of that certificate of waiver. (b) An application for a certificate of waiver under this part is made on a form and in a manner prescribed by the Administrator and may be submitted to any FAA office. (c) A certificate of waiver is effective as specified in that certificate of waiver. [Docket 18334, 54 FR 34325, Aug. 18, 1989] Effective Date Note: Amendments to § 91.903 were published by Docket FAA-2023-1275, Amdt. 60-8, 89 FR 92486, Nov. 21, 2024, effective Jan. 21, 2025. § 91.905 List of rules subject to waivers. Sec. 91.107 Use of safety belts. 91.111 Operating near other aircraft. 91.113 Right-of-way rules: Except water operations. 91.115 Right-of-way rules: Water operations. 91.117 Aircraft speed. 91.119 Minimum safe altitudes: General. 91.121 Altimeter settings. 91.123 Compliance with ATC clearances and instructions. 91.125 ATC light signals. 91.126 Operating on or in the vicinity of an airport in Class G airspace. 91.127 Operating on or in the vicinity of an airport in Class E airspace. 91.129 Operations in Class D airspace. 91.130 Operations in Class C airspace. 91.131 Operations in Class B airspace. 91.133 Restricted and prohibited areas. 91.135 Operations in Class A airspace. 91.137 Temporary flight restrictions. 91.141 Flight restrictions in the proximity of the Presidential and other parties.

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91.143 Flight limitation in the proximity of space flight operations. 91.153 VFR flight plan: Information required. 91.155 Basic VFR weather minimums 91.157 Special VFR weather minimums. 91.159 VFR cruising altitude or flight level. 91.169 IFR flight plan: Information required. 91.173 ATC clearance and flight plan required. 91.175 Takeoff and landing under IFR. 91.176 Operations below DA/DH or MDA using an enhanced flight vision system (EFVS) under IFR. 91.177 Minimum altitudes for IFR operations. 91.179 IFR cruising altitude or flight level. 91.181 Course to be flown. 91.183 IFR radio communications. 91.185 IFR operations: Two-way radio communications failure. 91.187 Operation under IFR in controlled airspace: Malfunction reports. 91.209 Aircraft lights. 91.303 Aerobatic flights. 91.305 Flight test areas. 91.311 Towing: Other than under § 91.309. 91.313(e) Restricted category civil aircraft: Operating limitations. 91.515 Flight altitude rules. 91.707 Flights between Mexico or Canada and the United States. 91.713 Operation of civil aircraft of Cuban registry. [Docket 18334, 54 FR 34325, Aug. 18, 1989, as amended by Amdt. 91-227, 56 FR 65661, Dec. 17, 1991; Docket FAA-2013-0485, Amdt. 91-345, 81 FR 90175, Dec. 13, 2016; Docket FAA-2016-9154, Amdt. 91-348, 82 FR 39664, Aug. 22, 2017] §§ 91.907-91.999 [Reserved]
Subpart K—Fractional Ownership Operations Source: Docket FAA-2001-10047, 68 FR 54561, Sept. 17, 2003, unless otherwise noted. § 91.1001 Applicability. (a) This subpart prescribes rules, in addition to those prescribed in other subparts of this part, that apply to fractional owners and fractional ownership program managers governing— (1) The provision of program management services in a fractional ownership program; (2) The operation of a fractional ownership program aircraft in a fractional ownership program; and (3) The operation of a program aircraft included in a fractional ownership program managed by an affiliate of the manager of the program to which the owner belongs. (b) As used in this part— (1) Affiliate of a program manager means a manager that, directly, or indirectly, through one or more intermediaries, controls, is controlled by, or is under common control with, another program manager. The holding of at least forty percent (40 percent) of the equity and forty percent (40 percent) of the voting power of an entity will be presumed to constitute control for purposes of determining an affiliation under this subpart. (2) A dry-lease aircraft exchange means an arrangement, documented by the written program agreements, under which the program aircraft are available, on an as needed basis without crew, to each fractional owner. (3) A fractional owner or owner means an individual or entity that possesses a minimum fractional ownership interest in a program aircraft and that has entered into the applicable program agreements; provided, however, that in the case of the flight operations described in paragraph (b)(6)(ii) of this section, and solely for purposes of requirements pertaining to those flight operations, the fractional owner operating the aircraft will be deemed to be a fractional owner in the program managed by the affiliate. (4) A fractional ownership interest means the ownership of an interest or holding of a multi-year leasehold interest and/or a multi-year leasehold interest that is convertible into an ownership interest in a program aircraft. (5) A fractional ownership program or program means any system of aircraft ownership and exchange that consists of all of the following elements: (i) The provision for fractional ownership program management services by a single fractional ownership program manager on behalf of the fractional owners. (ii) Two or more airworthy aircraft. (iii) One or more fractional owners per program aircraft, with at least one program aircraft having more than one owner. (iv) Possession of at least a minimum fractional ownership interest in one or more program aircraft by each fractional owner.

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(v) A dry-lease aircraft exchange arrangement among all of the fractional owners. (vi) Multi-year program agreements covering the fractional ownership, fractional ownership program management services, and dry-lease aircraft exchange aspects of the program. (6) A fractional ownership program aircraft or program aircraft means: (i) An aircraft in which a fractional owner has a minimal fractional ownership interest and that has been included in the dry-lease aircraft exchange pursuant to the program agreements, or (ii) In the case of a fractional owner from one program operating an aircraft in a different fractional ownership program managed by an affiliate of the operating owner's program manager, the aircraft being operated by the fractional owner, so long as the aircraft is: (A) Included in the fractional ownership program managed by the affiliate of the operating owner's program manager, and (B) Included in the operating owner's program's dry-lease aircraft exchange pursuant to the program agreements of the operating owner's program. (iii) An aircraft owned in whole or in part by the program manager that has been included in the dry-lease aircraft exchange and is used to supplement program operations. (7) A Fractional Ownership Program Flight or Program Flight means a flight under this subpart when one or more passengers or property designated by a fractional owner are on board the aircraft. (8) Fractional ownership program management services or program management services mean administrative and aviation support services furnished in accordance with the applicable requirements of this subpart or provided by the program manager on behalf of the fractional owners, including, but not limited to, the— (i) Establishment and implementation of program safety guidelines; (ii) Employment, furnishing, or contracting of pilots and other crewmembers; (iii) Training and qualification of pilots and other crewmembers and personnel; (iv) Scheduling and coordination of the program aircraft and crews; (v) Maintenance of program aircraft; (vi) Satisfaction of recordkeeping requirements; (vii) Development and use of a program operations manual and procedures; and (viii) Application for and maintenance of management specifications and other authorizations and approvals. (9) A fractional ownership program manager or program manager means the entity that offers fractional ownership program management services to fractional owners, and is designated in the multi-year program agreements referenced in paragraph (b)(5)(vi) of this section to fulfill the requirements of this chapter applicable to the manager of the program containing the aircraft being flown. When a fractional owner is operating an aircraft in a fractional ownership program managed by an affiliate of the owner's program manager, the references in this subpart to the flight-related responsibilities of the program manager apply, with respect to that particular flight, to the affiliate of the owner's program manager rather than to the owner's program manager. (10) A minimum fractional ownership interest means— (i) A fractional ownership interest equal to, or greater than, one-sixteenth ( 1/16 ) of at least one subsonic, fixed-wing or powered-lift program aircraft; or (ii) A fractional ownership interest equal to, or greater than, one-thirty-second ( 1/32 ) of at least one rotorcraft program aircraft. (c) The rules in this subpart that refer to a fractional owner or a fractional ownership program manager also apply to any person who engages in an operation governed by this subpart without the management specifications required by this subpart. [Docket FAA-2001-10047, 68 FR 54561, Sept. 17, 2003, as amended by Docket FAA-2022-1355, Amdt. 91-366, 87 FR 75846, Dec. 9, 2022] § 91.1002 Compliance date. No person that conducted flights before November 17, 2003 under a program that meets the definition of fractional ownership program in § 91.1001 may conduct such flights after February 17, 2005 unless it has obtained management specifications under this subpart.

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[Docket FAA-2001-10047, 68 FR 54561, Sept. 17, 2003; 69 FR 74413, Dec. 14, 2004] § 91.1003 Management contract between owner and program manager. Each owner must have a contract with the program manager that— (a) Requires the program manager to ensure that the program conforms to all applicable requirements of this chapter. (b) Provides the owner the right to inspect and to audit, or have a designee of the owner inspect and audit, the records of the program manager pertaining to the operational safety of the program and those records required to show compliance with the management specifications and all applicable regulations. These records include, but are not limited to, the management specifications, authorizations, approvals, manuals, log books, and maintenance records maintained by the program manager. (c) Designates the program manager as the owner's agent to receive service of notices pertaining to the program that the FAA seeks to provide to owners and authorizes the FAA to send such notices to the program manager in its capacity as the agent of the owner for such service. (d) Acknowledges the FAA's right to contact the owner directly if the Administrator determines that direct contact is necessary. § 91.1005 Prohibitions and limitations. (a) Except as provided in § 91.321 or § 91.501, no owner may carry persons or property for compensation or hire on a program flight. (b) During the term of the multi-year program agreements under which a fractional owner has obtained a minimum fractional ownership interest in a program aircraft, the flight hours used during that term by the owner on program aircraft must not exceed the total hours associated with the fractional owner's share of ownership. (c) No person may sell or lease an aircraft interest in a fractional ownership program that is smaller than that prescribed in the definition of “minimum fractional ownership interest” in § 91.1001(b)(10) unless flights associated with that interest are operated under part 121 or 135 of this chapter and are conducted by an air carrier or commercial operator certificated under part 119 of this chapter. § 91.1007 Flights conducted under part 121 or part 135 of this chapter. (a) Except as provided in § 91.501(b), when a nonprogram aircraft is used to substitute for a program flight, the flight must be operated in compliance with part 121 or part 135 of this chapter, as applicable. (b) A program manager who holds a certificate under part 119 of this chapter may conduct a flight for the use of a fractional owner under part 121 or part 135 of this chapter if the aircraft is listed on that certificate holder's operations specifications for part 121 or part 135, as applicable. (c) The fractional owner must be informed when a flight is being conducted as a program flight or is being conducted under part 121 or part 135 of this chapter. Operational Control § 91.1009 Clarification of operational control. (a) An owner is in operational control of a program flight when the owner— (1) Has the rights and is subject to the limitations set forth in §§ 91.1003 through 91.1013; (2) Has directed that a program aircraft carry passengers or property designated by that owner; and (3) The aircraft is carrying those passengers or property. (b) An owner is not in operational control of a flight in the following circumstances: (1) A program aircraft is used for a flight for administrative purposes such as demonstration, positioning, ferrying, maintenance, or crew training, and no passengers or property designated by such owner are being carried; or (2) The aircraft being used for the flight is being operated under part 121 or 135 of this chapter.

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§ 91.1011 Operational control responsibilities and delegation. (a) Each owner in operational control of a program flight is ultimately responsible for safe operations and for complying with all applicable requirements of this chapter, including those related to airworthiness and operations in connection with the flight. Each owner may delegate some or all of the performance of the tasks associated with carrying out this responsibility to the program manager, and may rely on the program manager for aviation expertise and program management services. When the owner delegates performance of tasks to the program manager or relies on the program manager's expertise, the owner and the program manager are jointly and individually responsible for compliance. (b) The management specifications, authorizations, and approvals required by this subpart are issued to, and in the sole name of, the program manager on behalf of the fractional owners collectively. The management specifications, authorizations, and approvals will not be affected by any change in ownership of a program aircraft, as long as the aircraft remains a program aircraft in the identified program. § 91.1013 Operational control briefing and acknowledgment. (a) Upon the signing of an initial program management services contract, or a renewal or extension of a program management services contract, the program manager must brief the fractional owner on the owner's operational control responsibilities, and the owner must review and sign an acknowledgment of these operational control responsibilities. The acknowledgment must be included with the program management services contract. The acknowledgment must define when a fractional owner is in operational control and the owner's responsibilities and liabilities under the program. These include: (1) Responsibility for compliance with the management specifications and all applicable regulations. (2) Enforcement actions for any noncompliance. (3) Liability risk in the event of a flight-related occurrence that causes personal injury or property damage. (b) The fractional owner's signature on the acknowledgment will serve as the owner's affirmation that the owner has read, understands, and accepts the operational control responsibilities described in the acknowledgment. (c) Each program manager must ensure that the fractional owner or owner's representatives have access to the acknowledgments for such owner's program aircraft. Each program manager must ensure that the FAA has access to the acknowledgments for all program aircraft. Program Management § 91.1014 Issuing or denying management specifications. (a) A person applying to the Administrator for management specifications under this subpart must submit an application— (1) In a form and manner prescribed by the Administrator; and (2) Containing any information the Administrator requires the applicant to submit. (b) Management specifications will be issued to the program manager on behalf of the fractional owners if, after investigation, the Administrator finds that the applicant: (1) Meets the applicable requirements of this subpart; and (2) Is properly and adequately equipped in accordance with the requirements of this chapter and is able to conduct safe operations under appropriate provisions of part 91 of this chapter and management specifications issued under this subpart. (c) An application for management specifications will be denied if the Administrator finds that the applicant is not properly or adequately equipped or is not able to conduct safe operations under this part. § 91.1015 Management specifications. (a) Each person conducting operations under this subpart or furnishing fractional ownership program management services to fractional owners must do so in accordance with management specifications issued by the Administrator to the fractional ownership program manager under this subpart. Management specifications must include:

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(1) The current list of all fractional owners and types of aircraft, registration markings and serial numbers; (2) The authorizations, limitations, and certain procedures under which these operations are to be conducted, (3) Certain other procedures under which each class and size of aircraft is to be operated; (4) Authorization for an inspection program approved under § 91.1109, including the type of aircraft, the registration markings and serial numbers of each aircraft to be operated under the program. No person may conduct any program flight using any aircraft not listed. (5) Time limitations, or standards for determining time limitations, for overhauls, inspections, and checks for airframes, engines, propellers, rotors, appliances, and emergency equipment of aircraft. (6) The specific location of the program manager's principal base of operations and, if different, the address that will serve as the primary point of contact for correspondence between the FAA and the program manager and the name and mailing address of the program manager's agent for service; (7) Other business names the program manager may use; (8) Authorization for the method of controlling weight and balance of aircraft; (9) Any authorized deviation and exemption that applies to the person conducting operations under this subpart; and (10) Any other information the Administrator determines is necessary. (b) The program manager may keep the current list of all fractional owners required by paragraph (a)(1) of this section at its principal base of operation or other location approved by the Administrator and referenced in its management specifications. Each program manager shall make this list of owners available for inspection by the Administrator. (c) Management specifications issued under this subpart are effective unless— (1) The management specifications are amended as provided in § 91.1017; or (2) The Administrator suspends or revokes the management specifications. (d) At least 30 days before it proposes to establish or change the location of its principal base of operations, its main operations base, or its main maintenance base, a program manager must provide written notification to the Flight Standards office that issued the program manager's management specifications. (e) Each program manager must maintain a complete and separate set of its management specifications at its principal base of operations, or at a place approved by the Administrator, and must make its management specifications available for inspection by the Administrator and the fractional owner(s) to whom the program manager furnishes its services for review and audit. (f) Each program manager must insert pertinent excerpts of its management specifications, or references thereto, in its program manual and must— (1) Clearly identify each such excerpt as a part of its management specifications; and (2) State that compliance with each management specifications requirement is mandatory. (g) Each program manager must keep each of its employees and other persons who perform duties material to its operations informed of the provisions of its management specifications that apply to that employee's or person's duties and responsibilities. (h) A program manager may obtain approval to provide a temporary document verifying a flightcrew member's airman certificate and medical certificate privileges under an approved certificate verification plan set forth in the program manager's management specifications. A document provided by the program manager may be carried as an airman certificate or medical certificate on flights within the United States for up to 72 hours.

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[Docket FAA-2001-10047, 68 FR 54561, Sept. 17, 2003, as amended by Docket FAA-2018-0119, Amdt. 91-350, 83 FR 9171, Mar. 5, 2018; Amdt. 60-6, 83 FR 30282, June 27, 2018; Docket FAA-2022-1563, Amdt. 91-370, 88 FR 48087, July 26, 2023] § 91.1017 Amending program manager's management specifications. (a) The Administrator may amend any management specifications issued under this subpart if— (1) The Administrator determines that safety and the public interest require the amendment of any management specifications; or (2) The program manager applies for the amendment of any management specifications, and the Administrator determines that safety and the public interest allows the amendment. (b) Except as provided in paragraph (e) of this section, when the Administrator initiates an amendment of a program manager's management specifications, the following procedure applies: (1) The Flight Standards office that issued the program manager's management specifications will notify the program manager in writing of the proposed amendment. (2) The Flight Standards office that issued the program manager's management specifications will set a reasonable period (but not less than 7 days) within which the program manager may submit written information, views, and arguments on the amendment. (3) After considering all material presented, the Flight Standards office that issued the program manager's management specifications will notify the program manager of— (i) The adoption of the proposed amendment, (ii) The partial adoption of the proposed amendment, or (iii) The withdrawal of the proposed amendment. (4) If the Flight Standards office that issued the program manager's management specifications issues an amendment of the management specifications, it becomes effective not less than 30 days after the program manager receives notice of it unless— (i) The Flight Standards office that issued the program manager's management specifications finds under paragraph (e) of this section that there is an emergency requiring immediate action with respect to safety; or (ii) The program manager petitions for reconsideration of the amendment under paragraph (d) of this section. (c) When the program manager applies for an amendment to its management specifications, the following procedure applies: (1) The program manager must file an application to amend its management specifications— (i) At least 90 days before the date proposed by the applicant for the amendment to become effective, unless a shorter time is approved, in cases such as mergers, acquisitions of operational assets that require an additional showing of safety (for example, proving tests or validation tests), and resumption of operations following a suspension of operations as a result of bankruptcy actions. (ii) At least 15 days before the date proposed by the applicant for the amendment to become effective in all other cases. (2) The application must be submitted to the Flight Standards office that issued the program manager's management specifications in a form and manner prescribed by the Administrator. (3) After considering all material presented, the Flight Standards office that issued the program manager's management specifications will notify the program manager of— (i) The adoption of the applied for amendment; (ii) The partial adoption of the applied for amendment; or (iii) The denial of the applied for amendment. The program manager may petition for reconsideration of a denial under paragraph (d) of this section. (4) If the Flight Standards office that issued the program manager's management specifications approves the amendment, following coordination with the program manager regarding its implementation, the amendment is effective on the date the Administrator approves it.

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(d) When a program manager seeks reconsideration of a decision of the Flight Standards office that issued the program manager's management specifications concerning the amendment of management specifications, the following procedure applies: (1) The program manager must petition for reconsideration of that decision within 30 days of the date that the program manager receives a notice of denial of the amendment of its management specifications, or of the date it receives notice of an FAA-initiated amendment of its management specifications, whichever circumstance applies. (2) The program manager must address its petition to the Executive Director, Flight Standards Service. (3) A petition for reconsideration, if filed within the 30-day period, suspends the effectiveness of any amendment issued by the Flight Standards office that issued the program manager's management specifications unless that office has found, under paragraph (e) of this section, that an emergency exists requiring immediate action with respect to safety. (4) If a petition for reconsideration is not filed within 30 days, the procedures of paragraph (c) of this section apply. (e) If the Flight Standards office that issued the program manager's management specifications finds that an emergency exists requiring immediate action with respect to safety that makes the procedures set out in this section impracticable or contrary to the public interest— (1) The Flight Standards office amends the management specifications and makes the amendment effective on the day the program manager receives notice of it; and (2) In the notice to the program manager, the Flight Standards office will articulate the reasons for its finding that an emergency exists requiring immediate action with respect to safety or that makes it impracticable or contrary to the public interest to stay the effectiveness of the amendment. [Docket FAA-2001-10047, 68 FR 54561, Sept. 17, 2003, as amended by Docket FAA-2018-0119, Amdt. 91-350, 83 FR 9171, Mar. 5, 2018] § 91.1019 Conducting tests and inspections. (a) At any time or place, the Administrator may conduct an inspection or test, other than an en route inspection, to determine whether a program manager under this subpart is complying with title 49 of the United States Code, applicable regulations, and the program manager's management specifications. (b) The program manager must— (1) Make available to the Administrator at the program manager's principal base of operations, or at a place approved by the Administrator, the program manager's management specifications; and (2) Allow the Administrator to make any test or inspection, other than an en route inspection, to determine compliance respecting any matter stated in paragraph (a) of this section. (c) Each employee of, or person used by, the program manager who is responsible for maintaining the program manager's records required by or necessary to demonstrate compliance with this subpart must make those records available to the Administrator. (d) The Administrator may determine a program manager's continued eligibility to hold its management specifications on any grounds listed in paragraph (a) of this section, or any other appropriate grounds. (e) Failure by any program manager to make available to the Administrator upon request, the management specifications, or any required record, document, or report is grounds for suspension of all or any part of the program manager's management specifications. § 91.1021 Internal safety reporting and incident/accident response. (a) Each program manager must establish an internal anonymous safety reporting procedure that fosters an environment of safety without any potential for retribution for filing the report. (b) Each program manager must establish procedures to respond to an aviation incident/accident.

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§ 91.1023 Program operating manual requirements. (a) Each program manager must prepare and keep current a program operating manual setting forth procedures and policies acceptable to the Administrator. The program manager's management, flight, ground, and maintenance personnel must use this manual to conduct operations under this subpart. However, the Administrator may authorize a deviation from this paragraph if the Administrator finds that, because of the limited size of the operation, part of the manual is not necessary for guidance of management, flight, ground, or maintenance personnel. (b) Each program manager must maintain at least one copy of the manual at its principal base of operations. (c) No manual may be contrary to any applicable U.S. regulations, foreign regulations applicable to the program flights in foreign countries, or the program manager's management specifications. (d) The program manager must make a copy of the manual, or appropriate portions of the manual (and changes and additions), available to its maintenance and ground operations personnel and must furnish the manual to— (1) Its crewmembers; and (2) Representatives of the Administrator assigned to the program manager. (e) Each employee of the program manager to whom a manual or appropriate portions of it are furnished under paragraph (d)(1) of this section must keep it up-to-date with the changes and additions furnished to them. (f) The program manager must ensure the appropriate parts of the manual are accessible to flight, ground, and maintenance personnel at all times when such personnel are performing their assigned duties. (g) The information and instructions contained in the manual must be displayed clearly and be retrievable in the English language. (h) Program managers that are also certificated to operate under part 121 or 135 of this chapter may be authorized to use the operating manual required by those parts to meet the manual requirements of subpart K, provided: (1) The policies and procedures are consistent for both operations, or (2) When policies and procedures are different, the applicable policies and procedures are identified and used. [Docket FAA-2001-10047, 68 FR 54561, Sept. 17, 2003, as amended by Docket FAA-2022-0912, Amdt. 91-368, 88 FR 34443, May 30, 2023] § 91.1025 Program operating manual contents. Each program operating manual accessed in paper format must display the date of last revision on each page. Each program operating manual accessed in electronic format must display the date of last revision in a manner in which a person can immediately ascertain it. Unless otherwise authorized by the Administrator, the manual must include the following: (a) Procedures for ensuring compliance with aircraft weight and balance limitations; (b) Copies of the program manager's management specifications or appropriate extracted information, including area of operations authorized, category and class of aircraft authorized, crew complements, and types of operations authorized; (c) Procedures for complying with accident notification requirements; (d) Procedures for ensuring that the pilot in command knows that required airworthiness inspections have been made and that the aircraft has been approved for return to service in compliance with applicable maintenance requirements; (e) Procedures for reporting and recording mechanical irregularities that come to the attention of the pilot in command before, during, and after completion of a flight; (f) Procedures to be followed by the pilot in command for determining that mechanical irregularities or defects reported for previous flights have been corrected or that correction of certain mechanical irregularities or defects have been deferred; (g) Procedures to be followed by the pilot in command to obtain maintenance, preventive maintenance, and servicing of the aircraft at a place where previous arrangements have not been made by the program manager or owner, when the pilot is authorized to so act for the operator;

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(h) Procedures under § 91.213 for the release of, and continuation of flight if any item of equipment required for the particular type of operation becomes inoperative or unserviceable en route; (i) Procedures for refueling aircraft, eliminating fuel contamination, protecting from fire (including electrostatic protection), and supervising and protecting passengers during refueling; (j) Procedures to be followed by the pilot in command in the briefing under § 91.1035. (k) Procedures for ensuring compliance with emergency procedures, including a list of the functions assigned each category of required crewmembers in connection with an emergency and emergency evacuation duties; (l) The approved aircraft inspection program, when applicable; (m) Procedures for the evacuation of persons who may need the assistance of another person to move expeditiously to an exit if an emergency occurs; (n) Procedures for performance planning that take into account take off, landing and en route conditions; (o) An approved Destination Airport Analysis, when required by § 91.1037(c), that includes the following elements, supported by aircraft performance data supplied by the aircraft manufacturer for the appropriate runway conditions— (1) Pilot qualifications and experience; (2) Aircraft performance data to include normal, abnormal and emergency procedures as supplied by the aircraft manufacturer; (3) Airport facilities and topography; (4) Runway conditions (including contamination); (5) Airport or area weather reporting; (6) Appropriate additional runway safety margins, if required; (7) Airplane inoperative equipment; (8) Environmental conditions; and (9) Other criteria that affect aircraft performance. (p) A suitable system (which may include a coded or electronic system) that provides for preservation and retrieval of maintenance recordkeeping information required by § 91.1113 in a manner acceptable to the Administrator that provides— (1) A description (or reference to date acceptable to the Administrator) of the work performed: (2) The name of the person performing the work if the work is performed by a person outside the organization of the program manager; and (3) The name or other positive identification of the individual approving the work. (q) Flight locating and scheduling procedures; and (r) Other procedures and policy instructions regarding program operations that are issued by the program manager or required by the Administrator. [Docket FAA-2001-10047, 68 FR 54561, Sept. 17, 2003, as amended by Docket FAA-2022-0912, Amdt. 91-368, 88 FR 34443, May 30, 2023] § 91.1027 Recordkeeping. (a) Each program manager must keep at its principal base of operations or at other places approved by the Administrator, and must make available for inspection by the Administrator all of the following: (1) The program manager's management specifications. (2) A current list of the aircraft used or available for use in operations under this subpart, the operations for which each is equipped (for example, RNP5/10, RVSM.). (3) An individual record of each pilot used in operations under this subpart, including the following information: (i) The full name of the pilot. (ii) The pilot certificate (by type and number) and ratings that the pilot holds. (iii) The pilot's aeronautical experience in sufficient detail to determine the pilot's qualifications to pilot aircraft in operations under this subpart. (iv) The pilot's current duties and the date of the pilot's assignment to those duties. (v) The effective date and class of the medical certificate that the pilot holds. (vi) The date and result of each of the initial and recurrent competency tests and proficiency checks required by this subpart and the type of aircraft flown during that test or check.

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(vii) The pilot's flight time in sufficient detail to determine compliance with the flight time limitations of this subpart. (viii) The pilot's check pilot authorization, if any. (ix) Any action taken concerning the pilot's release from employment for physical or professional disqualification; and (x) The date of the satisfactory completion of initial, transition, upgrade, and differences training and each recurrent training phase required by this subpart. (4) An individual record for each flight attendant used in operations under this subpart, including the following information: (i) The full name of the flight attendant, and (ii) The date and result of training required by § 91.1063, as applicable. (5) A current list of all fractional owners and associated aircraft. This list or a reference to its location must be included in the management specifications and should be of sufficient detail to determine the minimum fractional ownership interest of each aircraft. (b) Each program manager must keep each record required by paragraph (a)(2) of this section for at least 6 months, and must keep each record required by paragraphs (a)(3) and (a)(4) of this section for at least 12 months. When an employee is no longer employed or affiliated with the program manager or fractional owner, each record required by paragraphs (a)(3) and (a)(4) of this section must be retained for at least 12 months. (c) Each program manager is responsible for the preparation and accuracy of a load manifest in duplicate containing information concerning the loading of the aircraft. The manifest must be prepared before each takeoff and must include— (1) The number of passengers; (2) The total weight of the loaded aircraft; (3) The maximum allowable takeoff weight for that flight; (4) The center of gravity limits; (5) The center of gravity of the loaded aircraft, except that the actual center of gravity need not be computed if the aircraft is loaded according to a loading schedule or other approved method that ensures that the center of gravity of the loaded aircraft is within approved limits. In those cases, an entry must be made on the manifest indicating that the center of gravity is within limits according to a loading schedule or other approved method; (6) The registration number of the aircraft or flight number; (7) The origin and destination; and (8) Identification of crewmembers and their crew position assignments. (d) The pilot in command of the aircraft for which a load manifest must be prepared must carry a copy of the completed load manifest in the aircraft to its destination. The program manager must keep copies of completed load manifest for at least 30 days at its principal operations base, or at another location used by it and approved by the Administrator. (e) Each program manager is responsible for providing a written document that states the name of the entity having operational control on that flight and the part of this chapter under which the flight is operated. The pilot in command of the aircraft must carry a copy of the document in the aircraft to its destination. The program manager must keep a copy of the document for at least 30 days at its principal operations base, or at another location used by it and approved by the Administrator. (f) Records may be kept either in paper or other form acceptable to the Administrator. (g) Program managers that are also certificated to operate under part 121 or 135 of this chapter may satisfy the recordkeeping requirements of this section and of § 91.1113 with records maintained to fulfill equivalent obligations under part 121 or 135 of this chapter. [Docket FAA-2001-10047, 68 FR 54561, Sept. 17, 2003, as amended by Docket FAA-2016-9154, Amdt. 91-348, 82 FR 39664, Aug. 22, 2017]

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§ 91.1029 Flight scheduling and locating requirements. (a) Each program manager must establish and use an adequate system to schedule and release program aircraft. (b) Except as provided in paragraph (d) of this section, each program manager must have adequate procedures established for locating each flight, for which a flight plan is not filed, that— (1) Provide the program manager with at least the information required to be included in a VFR flight plan; (2) Provide for timely notification of an FAA facility or search and rescue facility, if an aircraft is overdue or missing; and (3) Provide the program manager with the location, date, and estimated time for reestablishing radio or telephone communications, if the flight will operate in an area where communications cannot be maintained. (c) Flight locating information must be retained at the program manager's principal base of operations, or at other places designated by the program manager in the flight locating procedures, until the completion of the flight. (d) The flight locating requirements of paragraph (b) of this section do not apply to a flight for which an FAA flight plan has been filed and the flight plan is canceled within 25 nautical miles of the destination airport. § 91.1031 Pilot in command or second in command: Designation required. (a) Each program manager must designate a— (1) Pilot in command for each program flight; and (2) Second in command for each program flight requiring two pilots. (b) The pilot in command, as designated by the program manager, must remain the pilot in command at all times during that flight. § 91.1033 Operating information required. (a) Each program manager must, for all program operations, provide the following materials, in current and appropriate form, accessible to the pilot at the pilot station, and the pilot must use them— (1) A cockpit checklist; (2) For multiengine aircraft or for aircraft with retractable landing gear, an emergency cockpit checklist containing the procedures required by paragraph (c) of this section, as appropriate; (3) At least one set of pertinent aeronautical charts; and (4) For IFR operations, at least one set of pertinent navigational en route, terminal area, and instrument approach procedure charts. (b) Each cockpit checklist required by paragraph (a)(1) of this section must contain the following procedures: (1) Before starting engines; (2) Before takeoff; (3) Cruise; (4) Before landing; (5) After landing; and (6) Stopping engines. (c) Each emergency cockpit checklist required by paragraph (a)(2) of this section must contain the following procedures, as appropriate: (1) Emergency operation of fuel, hydraulic, electrical, and mechanical systems. (2) Emergency operation of instruments and controls. (3) Engine inoperative procedures. (4) Any other emergency procedures necessary for safety. § 91.1035 Passenger awareness. (a) Prior to each takeoff, the pilot in command of an aircraft carrying passengers on a program flight must ensure that all passengers have been orally briefed on— (1) Smoking: Each passenger must be briefed on when, where, and under what conditions smoking is prohibited. This briefing must include a statement, as appropriate, that the regulations require passenger compliance with lighted passenger information signs and no smoking placards, prohibit smoking in lavatories, and require compliance with crewmember instructions with regard to these items; (2) Use of safety belts, shoulder harnesses, and child restraint systems: Each passenger must be briefed on when, where and under what conditions it is necessary to have his or her safety belt and, if installed, his or her shoulder harness fastened about him or her, and if a child is being transported, the appropriate use of child restraint systems, if available. This briefing must include a statement, as appropriate, that the regulations require passenger compliance with the lighted passenger information sign and/or crewmember instructions with regard to these items;

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(3) The placement of seat backs in an upright position before takeoff and landing; (4) Location and means for opening the passenger entry door and emergency exits; (5) Location of survival equipment; (6) Ditching procedures and the use of flotation equipment required under § 91.509 for a flight over water; (7) The normal and emergency use of oxygen installed in the aircraft; and (8) Location and operation of fire extinguishers. (b) Prior to each takeoff, the pilot in command of an aircraft carrying passengers on a program flight must ensure that each person who may need the assistance of another person to move expeditiously to an exit if an emergency occurs and that person's attendant, if any, has received a briefing as to the procedures to be followed if an evacuation occurs. This paragraph does not apply to a person who has been given a briefing before a previous leg of that flight in the same aircraft. (c) Prior to each takeoff, the pilot in command must advise the passengers of the name of the entity in operational control of the flight. (d) The oral briefings required by paragraphs (a), (b), and (c) of this section must be given by the pilot in command or another crewmember. (e) The oral briefing required by paragraph (a) of this section may be delivered by means of an approved recording playback device that is audible to each passenger under normal noise levels. (f) The oral briefing required by paragraph (a) of this section must be supplemented by printed cards that must be carried in the aircraft in locations convenient for the use of each passenger. The cards must— (1) Be appropriate for the aircraft on which they are to be used; (2) Contain a diagram of, and method of operating, the emergency exits; and (3) Contain other instructions necessary for the use of emergency equipment on board the aircraft. § 91.1037 Large transport category airplanes: Turbine engine powered; Limitations; Destination and alternate airports. (a) No program manager or any other person may permit a turbine engine powered large transport category airplane on a program flight to take off that airplane at a weight that (allowing for normal consumption of fuel and oil in flight to the destination or alternate airport) the weight of the airplane on arrival would exceed the landing weight in the Airplane Flight Manual for the elevation of the destination or alternate airport and the ambient temperature expected at the time of landing. (b) Except as provided in paragraph (c) of this section, no program manager or any other person may permit a turbine engine powered large transport category airplane on a program flight to take off that airplane unless its weight on arrival, allowing for normal consumption of fuel and oil in flight (in accordance with the landing distance in the Airplane Flight Manual for the elevation of the destination airport and the wind conditions expected there at the time of landing), would allow a full stop landing at the intended destination airport within 60 percent of the effective length of each runway described below from a point 50 feet above the intersection of the obstruction clearance plane and the runway. For the purpose of determining the allowable landing weight at the destination airport, the following is assumed: (1) The airplane is landed on the most favorable runway and in the most favorable direction, in still air. (2) The airplane is landed on the most suitable runway considering the probable wind velocity and direction and the ground handling characteristics of that airplane, and considering other conditions such as landing aids and terrain. (c) A program manager or other person flying a turbine engine powered large transport category airplane on a program flight may permit that airplane to take off at a weight in excess of that allowed by paragraph (b) of this section if all of the following conditions exist:

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(1) The operation is conducted in accordance with an approved Destination Airport Analysis in that person's program operating manual that contains the elements listed in § 91.1025(o). (2) The airplane's weight on arrival, allowing for normal consumption of fuel and oil in flight (in accordance with the landing distance in the Airplane Flight Manual for the elevation of the destination airport and the wind conditions expected there at the time of landing), would allow a full stop landing at the intended destination airport within 80 percent of the effective length of each runway described below from a point 50 feet above the intersection of the obstruction clearance plane and the runway. For the purpose of determining the allowable landing weight at the destination airport, the following is assumed: (i) The airplane is landed on the most favorable runway and in the most favorable direction, in still air. (ii) The airplane is landed on the most suitable runway considering the probable wind velocity and direction and the ground handling characteristics of that airplane, and considering other conditions such as landing aids and terrain. (3) The operation is authorized by management specifications. (d) No program manager or other person may select an airport as an alternate airport for a turbine engine powered large transport category airplane unless (based on the assumptions in paragraph (b) of this section) that airplane, at the weight expected at the time of arrival, can be brought to a full stop landing within 80 percent of the effective length of the runway from a point 50 feet above the intersection of the obstruction clearance plane and the runway. (e) Unless, based on a showing of actual operating landing techniques on wet runways, a shorter landing distance (but never less than that required by paragraph (b) or (c) of this section) has been approved for a specific type and model airplane and included in the Airplane Flight Manual, no person may take off a turbojet airplane when the appropriate weather reports or forecasts, or any combination of them, indicate that the runways at the destination or alternate airport may be wet or slippery at the estimated time of arrival unless the effective runway length at the destination airport is at least 115 percent of the runway length required under paragraph (b) or (c) of this section. § 91.1039 IFR takeoff, approach and landing minimums. (a) No pilot on a program aircraft operating a program flight may begin an instrument approach procedure to an airport unless— (1) Either that airport or the alternate airport has a weather reporting facility operated by the U.S. National Weather Service, a source approved by the U.S. National Weather Service, or a source approved by the Administrator; and (2) The latest weather report issued by the weather reporting facility includes a current local altimeter setting for the destination airport. If no local altimeter setting is available at the destination airport, the pilot must obtain the current local altimeter setting from a source provided by the facility designated on the approach chart for the destination airport. (b) For flight planning purposes, if the destination airport does not have a weather reporting facility described in paragraph (a)(1) of this section, the pilot must designate as an alternate an airport that has a weather reporting facility meeting that criteria. (c) The MDA or Decision Altitude and visibility landing minimums prescribed in part 97 of this chapter or in the program manager's management specifications are increased by 100 feet and 1/2 mile respectively, but not to exceed the ceiling and visibility minimums for that airport when used as an alternate airport, for each pilot in command of a turbine-powered aircraft who has not served at least 100 hours as pilot in command in that type of aircraft. (d) No person may take off an aircraft under IFR from an airport where weather conditions are at or above takeoff minimums but are below authorized IFR landing minimums unless there is an alternate airport within one hour's flying time (at normal cruising speed, in still air) of the airport of departure.

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(e) Except as provided in § 91.176 of this chapter, each pilot making an IFR takeoff or approach and landing at an airport must comply with applicable instrument approach procedures and takeoff and landing weather minimums prescribed by the authority having jurisdiction over the airport. In addition, no pilot may take off at that airport when the visibility is less than 600 feet, unless otherwise authorized in the program manager's management specifications for EFVS operations. [Docket FAA-2001-10047, 68 FR 54561, Sept. 17, 2003, as amended by Docket FAA-2013-0485, Amdt. 91-345, 81 FR 90175, Dec. 13, 2016] § 91.1041 Aircraft proving and validation tests. (a) No program manager may permit the operation of an aircraft, other than a turbojet aircraft, for which two pilots are required by the type certification requirements of this chapter for operations under VFR, if it has not previously proved such an aircraft in operations under this part in at least 25 hours of proving tests acceptable to the Administrator including— (1) Five hours of night time, if night flights are to be authorized; (2) Five instrument approach procedures under simulated or actual conditions, if IFR flights are to be authorized; and (3) Entry into a representative number of en route airports as determined by the Administrator. (b) No program manager may permit the operation of a turbojet airplane if it has not previously proved a turbojet airplane in operations under this part in at least 25 hours of proving tests acceptable to the Administrator including— (1) Five hours of night time, if night flights are to be authorized; (2) Five instrument approach procedures under simulated or actual conditions, if IFR flights are to be authorized; and (3) Entry into a representative number of en route airports as determined by the Administrator. (c) No program manager may carry passengers in an aircraft during proving tests, except those needed to make the tests and those designated by the Administrator to observe the tests. However, pilot flight training may be conducted during the proving tests. (d) Validation testing is required to determine that a program manager is capable of conducting operations safely and in compliance with applicable regulatory standards. Validation tests are required for the following authorizations: (1) The addition of an aircraft for which two pilots are required for operations under VFR or a turbojet airplane, if that aircraft or an aircraft of the same make or similar design has not been previously proved or validated in operations under this part. (2) Operations outside U.S. airspace. (3) Class II navigation authorizations. (4) Special performance or operational authorizations. (e) Validation tests must be accomplished by test methods acceptable to the Administrator. Actual flights may not be required when an applicant can demonstrate competence and compliance with appropriate regulations without conducting a flight. (f) Proving tests and validation tests may be conducted simultaneously when appropriate. (g) The Administrator may authorize deviations from this section if the Administrator finds that special circumstances make full compliance with this section unnecessary. § 91.1043 [Reserved]
§ 91.1045 Additional equipment requirements. No person may operate a program aircraft on a program flight unless the aircraft is equipped with the following— (a) Airplanes having a passenger-seat configuration of more than 30 seats or a payload capacity of more than 7,500 pounds:

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(1) A cockpit voice recorder as required by § 121.359 of this chapter as applicable to the aircraft specified in that section. (2) A flight recorder as required by § 121.343 or § 121.344 of this chapter as applicable to the aircraft specified in that section. (3) A terrain awareness and warning system as required by § 121.354 of this chapter as applicable to the aircraft specified in that section. (4) A traffic alert and collision avoidance system as required by § 121.356 of this chapter as applicable to the aircraft specified in that section. (5) Airborne weather radar as required by § 121.357 of this chapter, as applicable to the aircraft specified in that section. (b) Airplanes having a passenger-seat configuration of 30 seats or fewer, excluding each crewmember, and a payload capacity of 7,500 pounds or less, and any rotorcraft (as applicable): (1) A cockpit voice recorder as required by § 135.151 of this chapter as applicable to the aircraft specified in that section. (2) A flight recorder as required by § 135.152 of this chapter as applicable to the aircraft specified in that section. (3) A terrain awareness and warning system as required by § 135.154 of this chapter as applicable to the aircraft specified in that section. (4) A traffic alert and collision avoidance system as required by § 135.180 of this chapter as applicable to the aircraft specified in that section. (5) As applicable to the aircraft specified in that section, either: (i) Airborne thunderstorm detection equipment as required by § 135.173 of this chapter; or (ii) Airborne weather radar as required by § 135.175 of this chapter. § 91.1047 Drug and alcohol misuse education program. (a) Each program manager must provide each direct employee performing flight crewmember, flight attendant, flight instructor, or aircraft maintenance duties with drug and alcohol misuse education. (b) No program manager may use any contract employee to perform flight crewmember, flight attendant, flight instructor, or aircraft maintenance duties for the program manager unless that contract employee has been provided with drug and alcohol misuse education. (c) Program managers must disclose to their owners and prospective owners the existence of a company drug and alcohol misuse testing program. If the program manager has implemented a company testing program, the program manager's disclosure must include the following: (1) Information on the substances that they test for, for example, alcohol and a list of the drugs; (2) The categories of employees tested, the types of tests, for example, pre-employment, random, reasonable cause/suspicion, post accident, return to duty and follow-up; and (3) The degree to which the program manager's company testing program is comparable to the federally mandated drug and alcohol testing program required under part 120 of this chapter regarding the information in paragraphs (c)(1) and (c)(2) of this section. (d) If a program aircraft is operated on a program flight into an airport at which no maintenance personnel are available that are subject to the requirements of paragraphs (a) or (b) of this section and emergency maintenance is required, the program manager may use persons not meeting the requirements of paragraphs (a) or (b) of this section to provide such emergency maintenance under both of the following conditions: (1) The program manager must notify the Drug Abatement Program Division, AAM-800, 800 Independence Avenue, SW., Washington, DC 20591 in writing within 10 days after being provided emergency maintenance in accordance with this paragraph. The program manager must retain copies of all such written notifications for two years. (2) The aircraft must be reinspected by maintenance personnel who meet the requirements of paragraph (a) or (b) of this section when the aircraft is next at an airport where such maintenance personnel are available. (e) For purposes of this section, emergency maintenance means maintenance that— (1) Is not scheduled, and

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(2) Is made necessary by an aircraft condition not discovered prior to the departure for that location. (f) Notwithstanding paragraphs (a) and (b) of this section, drug and alcohol misuse education conducted under an FAA-approved drug and alcohol misuse prevention program may be used to satisfy these requirements. [Docket FAA-2001-10047, 68 FR 54561, Sept. 17, 2003, as amended by Amdt. 91-307, 74 FR 22653, May 14, 2009] § 91.1049 Personnel. (a) Each program manager and each fractional owner must use in program operations on program aircraft flight crews meeting § 91.1053 criteria and qualified under the appropriate regulations. The program manager must provide oversight of those crews. (b) Each program manager must employ (either directly or by contract) an adequate number of pilots per program aircraft. Flight crew staffing must be determined based on the following factors, at a minimum: (1) Number of program aircraft. (2) Program manager flight, duty, and rest time considerations, and in all cases within the limits set forth in §§ 91.1057 through 91.1061. (3) Vacations. (4) Operational efficiencies. (5) Training. (6) Single pilot operations, if authorized by deviation under paragraph (d) of this section. (c) Each program manager must publish pilot and flight attendant duty schedules sufficiently in advance to follow the flight, duty, and rest time limits in §§ 91.1057 through 91.1061 in program operations. (d) Unless otherwise authorized by the Administrator, when any program aircraft is flown in program operations with passengers onboard, the crew must consist of at least two qualified pilots employed or contracted by the program manager or the fractional owner. (e) The program manager must ensure that trained and qualified scheduling or flight release personnel are on duty to schedule and release program aircraft during all hours that such aircraft are available for program operations. § 91.1050 Employment of former FAA employees. (a) Except as specified in paragraph (c) of this section, no fractional owner or fractional ownership program manager may knowingly employ or make a contractual arrangement which permits an individual to act as an agent or representative of the fractional owner or fractional ownership program manager in any matter before the Federal Aviation Administration if the individual, in the preceding 2 years— (1) Served as, or was directly responsible for the oversight of, a Flight Standards Service aviation safety inspector; and (2) Had direct responsibility to inspect, or oversee the inspection of, the operations of the fractional owner or fractional ownership program manager. (b) For the purpose of this section, an individual shall be considered to be acting as an agent or representative of a fractional owner or fractional ownership program manager in a matter before the agency if the individual makes any written or oral communication on behalf of the fractional owner or fractional ownership program manager to the agency (or any of its officers or employees) in connection with a particular matter, whether or not involving a specific party and without regard to whether the individual has participated in, or had responsibility for, the particular matter while serving as a Flight Standards Service aviation safety inspector. (c) The provisions of this section do not prohibit a fractional owner or fractional ownership program manager from knowingly employing or making a contractual arrangement which permits an individual to act as an agent or representative of the fractional owner or fractional ownership program manager in any matter before the Federal Aviation Administration if the individual was employed by the fractional owner or fractional ownership program manager before October 21, 2011. [Docket FAA-2008-1154, 76 FR 52235, Aug. 22, 2011]

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§ 91.1053 Crewmember experience. (a) No program manager or owner may use any person, nor may any person serve, as a pilot in command or second in command of a program aircraft, or as a flight attendant on a program aircraft, in program operations under this subpart unless that person has met the applicable requirements of part 61 of this chapter and has the following experience and ratings: (1) Total flight time for all pilots: (i) Pilot in command—A minimum of 1,500 hours. (ii) Second in command—A minimum of 500 hours. (2) For multi-engine turbine-powered fixed-wing and powered-lift aircraft, the following FAA certification and ratings requirements: (i) Pilot in command—Airline transport pilot and applicable type ratings. (ii) Second in command—Commercial pilot and instrument ratings. (iii) Flight attendant (if required or used)—Appropriately trained personnel. (3) For all other aircraft, the following FAA certification and rating requirements: (i) Pilot in command—Commercial pilot and instrument ratings. (ii) Second in command—Commercial pilot and instrument ratings. (iii) Flight attendant (if required or used)—Appropriately trained personnel. (b) The Administrator may authorize deviations from paragraph (a)(1) of this section if the Flight Standards office that issued the program manager's management specifications finds that the crewmember has comparable experience, and can effectively perform the functions associated with the position in accordance with the requirements of this chapter. Grants of deviation under this paragraph may be granted after consideration of the size and scope of the operation, the qualifications of the intended personnel and the circumstances set forth in § 91.1055(b)(1) through (3). The Administrator may, at any time, terminate any grant of deviation authority issued under this paragraph. [Docket FAA-2001-10047, 68 FR 54561, Sept. 17, 2003, as amended by Docket FAA-2018-0119, Amdt. 91-350, 83 FR 9171, Mar. 5, 2018] Effective Date Note: Amendments to § 91.1053 were published by Docket FAA-2023-1275, Amdt. 60-8, 89 FR 92486, Nov. 21, 2024, effective Jan. 21, 2025. § 91.1055 Pilot operating limitations and pairing requirement. (a) If the second in command of a fixed-wing program aircraft has fewer than 100 hours of flight time as second in command flying in the aircraft make and model and, if a type rating is required, in the type aircraft being flown, and the pilot in command is not an appropriately qualified check pilot, the pilot in command shall make all takeoffs and landings in any of the following situations: (1) Landings at the destination airport when a Destination Airport Analysis is required by § 91.1037(c); and (2) In any of the following conditions: (i) The prevailing visibility for the airport is at or below 3/4 mile. (ii) The runway visual range for the runway to be used is at or below 4,000 feet. (iii) The runway to be used has water, snow, slush, ice or similar contamination that may adversely affect aircraft performance. (iv) The braking action on the runway to be used is reported to be less than “good.” (v) The crosswind component for the runway to be used is in excess of 15 knots. (vi) Windshear is reported in the vicinity of the airport. (vii) Any other condition in which the pilot in command determines it to be prudent to exercise the pilot in command's authority. (b) No program manager may release a program flight under this subpart unless, for that aircraft make or model and, if a type rating is required, for that type aircraft, either the pilot in command or the second in command has at least 75 hours of flight time, either as pilot in command or second in command. The Administrator may, upon application by the program manager, authorize deviations from the requirements of this paragraph by an appropriate amendment to the management specifications in any of the following circumstances: (1) A newly authorized program manager does not employ any pilots who meet the minimum requirements of this paragraph.

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(2) An existing program manager adds to its fleet a new category and class aircraft not used before in its operation. (3) An existing program manager establishes a new base to which it assigns pilots who will be required to become qualified on the aircraft operated from that base. (c) No person may be assigned in the capacity of pilot in command in a program operation to more than two aircraft types that require a separate type rating. § 91.1057 Flight, duty and rest time requirements: All crewmembers. (a) For purposes of this subpart— Augmented flight crew means at least three pilots. Calendar day means the period of elapsed time, using Coordinated Universal Time or local time that begins at midnight and ends 24 hours later at the next midnight. Duty period means the period of elapsed time between reporting for an assignment involving flight time and release from that assignment by the program manager. All time between these two points is part of the duty period, even if flight time is interrupted by nonflight-related duties. The time is calculated using either Coordinated Universal Time or local time to reflect the total elapsed time. Extension of flight time means an increase in the flight time because of circumstances beyond the control of the program manager or flight crewmember (such as adverse weather) that are not known at the time of departure and that prevent the flightcrew from reaching the destination within the planned flight time. Flight attendant means an individual, other than a flight crewmember, who is assigned by the program manager, in accordance with the required minimum crew complement under the program manager's management specifications or in addition to that minimum complement, to duty in an aircraft during flight time and whose duties include but are not necessarily limited to cabin-safety-related responsibilities. Multi-time zone flight means an easterly or westerly flight or multiple flights in one direction in the same duty period that results in a time zone difference of 5 or more hours and is conducted in a geographic area that is south of 60 degrees north latitude and north of 60 degrees south latitude. Reserve status means that status in which a flight crewmember, by arrangement with the program manager: Holds himself or herself fit to fly to the extent that this is within the control of the flight crewmember; remains within a reasonable response time of the aircraft as agreed between the flight crewmember and the program manager; and maintains a ready means whereby the flight crewmember may be contacted by the program manager. Reserve status is not part of any duty period or rest period. Rest period means a period of time required pursuant to this subpart that is free of all responsibility for work or duty prior to the commencement of, or following completion of, a duty period, and during which the flight crewmember or flight attendant cannot be required to receive contact from the program manager. A rest period does not include any time during which the program manager imposes on a flight crewmember or flight attendant any duty or restraint, including any actual work or present responsibility for work should the occasion arise. Standby means that portion of a duty period during which a flight crewmember is subject to the control of the program manager and holds himself or herself in a condition of readiness to undertake a flight. Standby is not part of any rest period. (b) A program manager may assign a crewmember and a crewmember may accept an assignment for flight time only when the applicable requirements of this section and §§ 91.1059-91.1062 are met. (c) No program manager may assign any crewmember to any duty during any required rest period. (d) Time spent in transportation, not local in character, that a program manager requires of a crewmember and provides to transport the crewmember to an airport at which he or she is to serve on a flight as a crewmember, or from an airport at which he or she was relieved from duty to return to his or her home station, is not considered part of a rest period.

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(e) A flight crewmember may continue a flight assignment if the flight to which he or she is assigned would normally terminate within the flight time limitations, but because of circumstances beyond the control of the program manager or flight crewmember (such as adverse weather conditions), is not at the time of departure expected to reach its destination within the planned flight time. The extension of flight time under this paragraph may not exceed the maximum time limits set forth in § 91.1059. (f) Each flight assignment must provide for at least 10 consecutive hours of rest during the 24-hour period that precedes the completion time of the assignment. (g) The program manager must provide each crewmember at least 13 rest periods of at least 24 consecutive hours each in each calendar quarter. (h) A flight crewmember may decline a flight assignment if, in the flight crewmember's determination, to do so would not be consistent with the standard of safe operation required under this subpart, this part, and applicable provisions of this title. (i) Any rest period required by this subpart may occur concurrently with any other rest period. (j) If authorized by the Administrator, a program manager may use the applicable unscheduled flight time limitations, duty period limitations, and rest requirements of part 121 or part 135 of this chapter instead of the flight time limitations, duty period limitations, and rest requirements of this subpart. § 91.1059 Flight time limitations and rest requirements: One or two pilot crews. (a) No program manager may assign any flight crewmember, and no flight crewmember may accept an assignment, for flight time as a member of a one- or two-pilot crew if that crewmember's total flight time in all commercial flying will exceed— (1) 500 hours in any calendar quarter; (2) 800 hours in any two consecutive calendar quarters; (3) 1,400 hours in any calendar year. (b) Except as provided in paragraph (c) of this section, during any 24 consecutive hours the total flight time of the assigned flight, when added to any commercial flying by that flight crewmember, may not exceed— (1) 8 hours for a flight crew consisting of one pilot; or (2) 10 hours for a flight crew consisting of two pilots qualified under this subpart for the operation being conducted. (c) No program manager may assign any flight crewmember, and no flight crewmember may accept an assignment, if that crewmember's flight time or duty period will exceed, or rest time will be less than—

	Normal duty	Extension of flight time
(1) Minimum Rest Immediately Before Duty	10 Hours	10 Hours.
(2) Duty Period	Up to 14 Hours	Up to 14 Hours.
(3) Flight Time For 1 Pilot	Up to 8 Hours	Exceeding 8 Hours up to 9 Hours.
(4) Flight Time For 2 Pilots	Up to 10 Hours	Exceeding 10 Hours up to 12 Hours.
(5) Minimum After Duty Rest	10 Hours	12 Hours.
(6) Minimum After Duty Rest Period for Multi-Time Zone Flights	14 Hours	18 Hours.

§ 91.1061 Augmented flight crews. (a) No program manager may assign any flight crewmember, and no flight crewmember may accept an assignment, for flight time as a member of an augmented crew if that crewmember's total flight time in all commercial flying will exceed— (1) 500 hours in any calendar quarter; (2) 800 hours in any two consecutive calendar quarters; (3) 1,400 hours in any calendar year. (b) No program manager may assign any pilot to an augmented crew, unless the program manager ensures: (1) Adequate sleeping facilities are installed on the aircraft for the pilots.

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(2) No more than 8 hours of flight deck duty is accrued in any 24 consecutive hours. (3) For a three-pilot crew, the crew must consist of at least the following: (i) A pilot in command (PIC) who meets the applicable flight crewmember requirements of this subpart and § 61.57 of this chapter. (ii) A PIC qualified pilot who meets the applicable flight crewmember requirements of this subpart and § 61.57(c) and (d) of this chapter. (iii) A second in command (SIC) who meets the SIC qualifications of this subpart. For flight under IFR, that person must also meet the recent instrument experience requirements of part 61 of this chapter. (4) For a four-pilot crew, at least three pilots who meet the conditions of paragraph (b)(3) of this section, plus a fourth pilot who meets the SIC qualifications of this subpart. For flight under IFR, that person must also meet the recent instrument experience requirements of part 61 of this chapter. (c) No program manager may assign any flight crewmember, and no flight crewmember may accept an assignment, if that crewmember's flight time or duty period will exceed, or rest time will be less than—

	3-Pilot crew	4-Pilot crew
(1) Minimum Rest Immediately Before Duty	10 Hours	10 Hours
(2) Duty Period	Up to 16 Hours	Up to 18 Hours
(3) Flight Time	Up to 12 Hours	Up to 16 Hours
(4) Minimum After Duty Rest	12 Hours	18 Hours
(5) Minimum After Duty Rest Period for Multi-Time Zone Flights	18 hours	24 hours

§ 91.1062 Duty periods and rest requirements: Flight attendants. (a) Except as provided in paragraph (b) of this section, a program manager may assign a duty period to a flight attendant only when the assignment meets the applicable duty period limitations and rest requirements of this paragraph. (1) Except as provided in paragraphs (a)(4), (a)(5), and (a)(6) of this section, no program manager may assign a flight attendant to a scheduled duty period of more than 14 hours. (2) Except as provided in paragraph (a)(3) of this section, a flight attendant scheduled to a duty period of 14 hours or less as provided under paragraph (a)(1) of this section must be given a scheduled rest period of at least 9 consecutive hours. This rest period must occur between the completion of the scheduled duty period and the commencement of the subsequent duty period. (3) The rest period required under paragraph (a)(2) of this section may be scheduled or reduced to 8 consecutive hours if the flight attendant is provided a subsequent rest period of at least 10 consecutive hours; this subsequent rest period must be scheduled to begin no later than 24 hours after the beginning of the reduced rest period and must occur between the completion of the scheduled duty period and the commencement of the subsequent duty period. (4) A program manager may assign a flight attendant to a scheduled duty period of more than 14 hours, but no more than 16 hours, if the program manager has assigned to the flight or flights in that duty period at least one flight attendant in addition to the minimum flight attendant complement required for the flight or flights in that duty period under the program manager's management specifications. (5) A program manager may assign a flight attendant to a scheduled duty period of more than 16 hours, but no more than 18 hours, if the program manager has assigned to the flight or flights in that duty period at least two flight attendants in addition to the minimum flight attendant complement required for the flight or flights in that duty period under the program manager's management specifications. (6) A program manager may assign a flight attendant to a scheduled duty period of more than 18 hours, but no more than 20 hours, if the scheduled duty period includes one or more flights that land or take off outside the 48 contiguous states and the District of Columbia, and if the program manager has assigned to the flight or flights in that duty period at least three flight attendants in addition to the minimum flight attendant complement required for the flight or flights in that duty period under the program manager's management specifications.

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(7) Except as provided in paragraph (a)(8) of this section, a flight attendant scheduled to a duty period of more than 14 hours but no more than 20 hours, as provided in paragraphs (a)(4), (a)(5), and (a)(6) of this section, must be given a scheduled rest period of at least 12 consecutive hours. This rest period must occur between the completion of the scheduled duty period and the commencement of the subsequent duty period. (8) The rest period required under paragraph (a)(7) of this section may be scheduled or reduced to 10 consecutive hours if the flight attendant is provided a subsequent rest period of at least 14 consecutive hours; this subsequent rest period must be scheduled to begin no later than 24 hours after the beginning of the reduced rest period and must occur between the completion of the scheduled duty period and the commencement of the subsequent duty period. (9) Notwithstanding paragraphs (a)(4), (a)(5), and (a)(6) of this section, if a program manager elects to reduce the rest period to 10 hours as authorized by paragraph (a)(8) of this section, the program manager may not schedule a flight attendant for a duty period of more than 14 hours during the 24-hour period commencing after the beginning of the reduced rest period. (b) Notwithstanding paragraph (a) of this section, a program manager may apply the flight crewmember flight time and duty limitations and rest requirements of this part to flight attendants for all operations conducted under this part provided that the program manager establishes written procedures that— (1) Apply to all flight attendants used in the program manager's operation; (2) Include the flight crewmember rest and duty requirements of §§ 91.1057, 91.1059, and 91.1061, as appropriate to the operation being conducted, except that rest facilities on board the aircraft are not required; (3) Include provisions to add one flight attendant to the minimum flight attendant complement for each flight crewmember who is in excess of the minimum number required in the aircraft type certificate data sheet and who is assigned to the aircraft under the provisions of § 91.1061; and (4) Are approved by the Administrator and described or referenced in the program manager's management specifications. § 91.1063 Testing and training: Applicability and terms used. (a) Sections 91.1065 through 91.1107: (1) Prescribe the tests and checks required for pilots and flight attendant crewmembers and for the approval of check pilots in operations under this subpart; (2) Prescribe the requirements for establishing and maintaining an approved training program for crewmembers, check pilots and instructors, and other operations personnel employed or used by the program manager in program operations; (3) Prescribe the requirements for the qualification, approval and use of aircraft simulators and flight training devices in the conduct of an approved training program; and (4) Permits training center personnel authorized under part 142 of this chapter who meet the requirements of § 91.1075 to conduct training, testing and checking under contract or other arrangements to those persons subject to the requirements of this subpart. (b) If authorized by the Administrator, a program manager may comply with the applicable training and testing sections of part 121, subparts N and O of this chapter instead of §§ 91.1065 through 91.1107, provided that the following additional limitations and allowances apply to program managers so authorized: (1) Operating experience and operations familiarization. Program managers are not required to comply with the operating experience requirements of § 121.434 or the operations familiarization requirements of § 121.435 of this chapter.

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(2) Upgrade training. (i) Each program manager must include in upgrade ground training for pilots, instruction in at least the subjects identified in § 121.419(a) of this chapter, as applicable to their assigned duties; and, for pilots serving in crews of two or more pilots, instruction and facilitated discussion in the subjects identified in § 121.419(c) of this chapter. (ii) Each program manager must include in upgrade flight training for pilots, flight training for the maneuvers and procedures required in § 121.424(a), (c), (e), and (f) of this chapter; and, for pilots serving in crews of two or more pilots, the flight training required in § 121.424(b) of this chapter. (3) Initial and recurrent leadership and command and mentoring training. Program managers are not required to include leadership and command training in §§ 121.409(b)(2)(ii)(B)( 6 ), 121.419(c)(1), 121.424(b) and 121.427(d)(1) of this chapter, and mentoring training in §§ 121.419(c)(2) and 121.427(d)(1) of this chapter in initial and recurrent training for pilots in command who serve in operations that use only one pilot. (4) One-time leadership and command and mentoring training. Section 121.429 of this chapter does not apply to program managers conducting operations under this subpart when those operations use only one pilot. (c) If authorized by the Administrator, a program manager may comply with the applicable training and testing sections of subparts G and H of part 135 of this chapter instead of §§ 91.1065 through 91.1107, except for the operating experience requirements of § 135.244 of this chapter. (d) For the purposes of this subpart, the following terms and definitions apply: (1) Initial training. The training required for crewmembers who have not qualified and served in the same capacity on an aircraft. (2) Transition training. The training required for crewmembers who have qualified and served in the same capacity on another aircraft. (3) Upgrade training. The training required for crewmembers who have qualified and served as second in command on a particular aircraft type, before they serve as pilot in command on that aircraft. (4) Differences training. The training required for crewmembers who have qualified and served on a particular type aircraft, when the Administrator finds differences training is necessary before a crewmember serves in the same capacity on a particular variation of that aircraft. (5) Recurrent training. The training required for crewmembers to remain adequately trained and currently proficient for each aircraft crewmember position, and type of operation in which the crewmember serves. (6) In flight. The maneuvers, procedures, or functions that will be conducted in the aircraft. (7) Training center. An organization governed by the applicable requirements of part 142 of this chapter that conducts training, testing, and checking under contract or other arrangement to program managers subject to the requirements of this subpart. (8) Requalification training. The training required for crewmembers previously trained and qualified, but who have become unqualified because of not having met within the required period any of the following: (i) Recurrent crewmember training requirements of § 91.1107. (ii) Instrument proficiency check requirements of § 91.1069. (iii) Testing requirements of § 91.1065. (iv) Recurrent flight attendant testing requirements of § 91.1067. [Docket FAA-2001-10047, 68 FR 54561, Sept. 17, 2003, as amended by Amdt. 61-144, 85 FR 10920, Feb. 25, 2020; Docket FAA-2019-0360, Amdt. 91-375, 89 FR 51424, June 18, 2024] § 91.1065 Initial and recurrent pilot testing requirements. (a) No program manager or owner may use a pilot, nor may any person serve as a pilot, unless, since the beginning of the 12th month before that service, that pilot has passed either a written or oral test (or a combination), given by the Administrator or an authorized check pilot, on that pilot's knowledge in the following areas— (1) The appropriate provisions of parts 61 and 91 of this chapter and the management specifications and the operating manual of the program manager;

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(2) For each type of aircraft to be flown by the pilot, the aircraft powerplant, major components and systems, major appliances, performance and operating limitations, standard and emergency operating procedures, and the contents of the accepted operating manual or equivalent, as applicable; (3) For each type of aircraft to be flown by the pilot, the method of determining compliance with weight and balance limitations for takeoff, landing and en route operations; (4) Navigation and use of air navigation aids appropriate to the operation or pilot authorization, including, when applicable, instrument approach facilities and procedures; (5) Air traffic control procedures, including IFR procedures when applicable; (6) Meteorology in general, including the principles of frontal systems, icing, fog, thunderstorms, and windshear, and, if appropriate for the operation of the program manager, high altitude weather; (7) Procedures for— (i) Recognizing and avoiding severe weather situations; (ii) Escaping from severe weather situations, in case of inadvertent encounters, including low-altitude windshear (except that rotorcraft aircraft pilots are not required to be tested on escaping from low-altitude windshear); and (iii) Operating in or near thunderstorms (including best penetration altitudes), turbulent air (including clear air turbulence), icing, hail, and other potentially hazardous meteorological conditions; and (8) New equipment, procedures, or techniques, as appropriate. (b) No program manager or owner may use a pilot, nor may any person serve as a pilot, in any aircraft unless, since the beginning of the 12th month before that service, that pilot has passed a competency check given by the Administrator or an authorized check pilot in that class of aircraft, if single-engine aircraft other than turbojet, or that type of aircraft, if rotorcraft, multiengine aircraft, or turbojet airplane, to determine the pilot's competence in practical skills and techniques in that aircraft or class of aircraft. The extent of the competency check will be determined by the Administrator or authorized check pilot conducting the competency check. The competency check may include any of the maneuvers and procedures currently required for the original issuance of the particular pilot certificate required for the operations authorized and appropriate to the category, class and type of aircraft involved. For the purposes of this paragraph, type, as to an airplane, means any one of a group of airplanes determined by the Administrator to have a similar means of propulsion, the same manufacturer, and no significantly different handling or flight characteristics. For the purposes of this paragraph, type, as to a rotorcraft, means a basic make and model. (c) The instrument proficiency check required by § 91.1069 may be substituted for the competency check required by this section for the type of aircraft used in the check. (d) For the purpose of this subpart, competent performance of a procedure or maneuver by a person to be used as a pilot requires that the pilot be the obvious master of the aircraft, with the successful outcome of the maneuver never in doubt. (e) The Administrator or authorized check pilot certifies the competency of each pilot who passes the knowledge or flight check in the program manager's pilot records. (f) All or portions of a required competency check may be given in an aircraft simulator or other appropriate training device, if approved by the Administrator. (g) If the program manager is authorized to conduct EFVS operations, the competency check in paragraph (b) of this section must include tasks appropriate to the EFVS operations the certificate holder is authorized to conduct. [Docket FAA-2001-10047, 68 FR 54561, Sept. 17, 2003, as amended by Docket FAA-2013-0485, Amdt. 91-345, 81 FR 90175, Dec. 13, 2016]

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§ 91.1067 Initial and recurrent flight attendant crewmember testing requirements. No program manager or owner may use a flight attendant crewmember, nor may any person serve as a flight attendant crewmember unless, since the beginning of the 12th month before that service, the program manager has determined by appropriate initial and recurrent testing that the person is knowledgeable and competent in the following areas as appropriate to assigned duties and responsibilities— (a) Authority of the pilot in command; (b) Passenger handling, including procedures to be followed in handling deranged persons or other persons whose conduct might jeopardize safety; (c) Crewmember assignments, functions, and responsibilities during ditching and evacuation of persons who may need the assistance of another person to move expeditiously to an exit in an emergency; (d) Briefing of passengers; (e) Location and operation of portable fire extinguishers and other items of emergency equipment; (f) Proper use of cabin equipment and controls; (g) Location and operation of passenger oxygen equipment; (h) Location and operation of all normal and emergency exits, including evacuation slides and escape ropes; and (i) Seating of persons who may need assistance of another person to move rapidly to an exit in an emergency as prescribed by the program manager's operations manual. § 91.1069 Flight crew: Instrument proficiency check requirements. (a) No program manager or owner may use a pilot, nor may any person serve, as a pilot in command of an aircraft under IFR unless, since the beginning of the 6th month before that service, that pilot has passed an instrument proficiency check under this section administered by the Administrator or an authorized check pilot. (b) No program manager or owner may use a pilot, nor may any person serve, as a second command pilot of an aircraft under IFR unless, since the beginning of the 12th month before that service, that pilot has passed an instrument proficiency check under this section administered by the Administrator or an authorized check pilot. (c) No pilot may use any type of precision instrument approach procedure under IFR unless, since the beginning of the 6th month before that use, the pilot satisfactorily demonstrated that type of approach procedure. No pilot may use any type of nonprecision approach procedure under IFR unless, since the beginning of the 6th month before that use, the pilot has satisfactorily demonstrated either that type of approach procedure or any other two different types of nonprecision approach procedures. The instrument approach procedure or procedures must include at least one straight-in approach, one circling approach, and one missed approach. Each type of approach procedure demonstrated must be conducted to published minimums for that procedure. (d) The instrument proficiency checks required by paragraphs (a) and (b) of this section consists of either an oral or written equipment test (or a combination) and a flight check under simulated or actual IFR conditions. The equipment test includes questions on emergency procedures, engine operation, fuel and lubrication systems, power settings, stall speeds, best engine-out speed, propeller and supercharger operations, and hydraulic, mechanical, and electrical systems, as appropriate. The flight check includes navigation by instruments, recovery from simulated emergencies, and standard instrument approaches involving navigational facilities which that pilot is to be authorized to use. (e) Each pilot taking the instrument proficiency check must show that standard of competence required by § 91.1065(d). (1) The instrument proficiency check must— (i) For a pilot in command of an aircraft requiring that the PIC hold an airline transport pilot certificate, include the procedures and maneuvers for an airline transport pilot certificate in the particular type of aircraft, if appropriate; and (ii) For a pilot in command of a rotorcraft or a second in command of any aircraft requiring that the SIC hold a commercial pilot certificate include the procedures and maneuvers for a commercial pilot certificate with an instrument rating and, if required, for the appropriate type rating.

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(2) The instrument proficiency check must be given by an authorized check pilot or by the Administrator. (f) If the pilot is assigned to pilot only one type of aircraft, that pilot must take the instrument proficiency check required by paragraph (a) of this section in that type of aircraft. (g) If the pilot in command is assigned to pilot more than one type of aircraft, that pilot must take the instrument proficiency check required by paragraph (a) of this section in each type of aircraft to which that pilot is assigned, in rotation, but not more than one flight check during each period described in paragraph (a) of this section. (h) If the pilot in command is assigned to pilot both single-engine and multiengine aircraft, that pilot must initially take the instrument proficiency check required by paragraph (a) of this section in a multiengine aircraft, and each succeeding check alternately in single-engine and multiengine aircraft, but not more than one flight check during each period described in paragraph (a) of this section. (i) All or portions of a required flight check may be given in an aircraft simulator or other appropriate training device, if approved by the Administrator. § 91.1071 Crewmember: Tests and checks, grace provisions, training to accepted standards. (a) If a crewmember who is required to take a test or a flight check under this subpart, completes the test or flight check in the month before or after the month in which it is required, that crewmember is considered to have completed the test or check in the month in which it is required. (b) If a pilot being checked under this subpart fails any of the required maneuvers, the person giving the check may give additional training to the pilot during the course of the check. In addition to repeating the maneuvers failed, the person giving the check may require the pilot being checked to repeat any other maneuvers that are necessary to determine the pilot's proficiency. If the pilot being checked is unable to demonstrate satisfactory performance to the person conducting the check, the program manager may not use the pilot, nor may the pilot serve, as a flight crewmember in operations under this subpart until the pilot has satisfactorily completed the check. If a pilot who demonstrates unsatisfactory performance is employed as a pilot for a certificate holder operating under part 121, 125, or 135 of this chapter, he or she must notify that certificate holder of the unsatisfactory performance. § 91.1073 Training program: General. (a) Each program manager must have a training program and must: (1) Establish, obtain the appropriate initial and final approval of, and provide a training program that meets this subpart and that ensures that each crewmember, including each flight attendant if the program manager uses a flight attendant crewmember, flight instructor, check pilot, and each person assigned duties for the carriage and handling of hazardous materials (as defined in 49 CFR 171.8) is adequately trained to perform these assigned duties. (2) Provide adequate ground and flight training facilities and properly qualified ground instructors for the training required by this subpart. (3) Provide and keep current for each aircraft type used and, if applicable, the particular variations within the aircraft type, appropriate training material, examinations, forms, instructions, and procedures for use in conducting the training and checks required by this subpart. (4) Provide enough flight instructors, check pilots, and simulator instructors to conduct required flight training and flight checks, and simulator training courses allowed under this subpart. (b) Whenever a crewmember who is required to take recurrent training under this subpart completes the training in the month before, or the month after, the month in which that training is required, the crewmember is considered to have completed it in the month in which it was required.

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(c) Each instructor, supervisor, or check pilot who is responsible for a particular ground training subject, segment of flight training, course of training, flight check, or competence check under this subpart must certify as to the proficiency and knowledge of the crewmember, flight instructor, or check pilot concerned upon completion of that training or check. That certification must be made a part of the crewmember's record. When the certification required by this paragraph is made by an entry in a computerized recordkeeping system, the certifying instructor, supervisor, or check pilot, must be identified with that entry. However, the signature of the certifying instructor, supervisor, or check pilot is not required for computerized entries. (d) Training subjects that apply to more than one aircraft or crewmember position and that have been satisfactorily completed during previous training while employed by the program manager for another aircraft or another crewmember position, need not be repeated during subsequent training other than recurrent training. (e) Aircraft simulators and other training devices may be used in the program manager's training program if approved by the Administrator. (f) Each program manager is responsible for establishing safe and efficient crew management practices for all phases of flight in program operations including crew resource management training for all crewmembers used in program operations. (g) If an aircraft simulator has been approved by the Administrator for use in the program manager's training program, the program manager must ensure that each pilot annually completes at least one flight training session in an approved simulator for at least one program aircraft. The training session may be the flight training portion of any of the pilot training or check requirements of this subpart, including the initial, transition, upgrade, requalification, differences, or recurrent training, or the accomplishment of a competency check or instrument proficiency check. If there is no approved simulator for that aircraft type in operation, then all flight training and checking must be accomplished in the aircraft. § 91.1075 Training program: Special rules. Other than the program manager, only the following are eligible under this subpart to conduct training, testing, and checking under contract or other arrangement to those persons subject to the requirements of this subpart. (a) Another program manager operating under this subpart: (b) A training center certificated under part 142 of this chapter to conduct training, testing, and checking required by this subpart if the training center— (1) Holds applicable training specifications issued under part 142 of this chapter; (2) Has facilities, training equipment, and courseware meeting the applicable requirements of part 142 of this chapter; (3) Has approved curriculums, curriculum segments, and portions of curriculum segments applicable for use in training courses required by this subpart; and (4) Has sufficient instructors and check pilots qualified under the applicable requirements of §§ 91.1089 through 91.1095 to conduct training, testing, and checking to persons subject to the requirements of this subpart. (c) A part 119 certificate holder operating under part 121 or part 135 of this chapter. (d) As authorized by the Administrator, a training center that is not certificated under part 142 of this chapter. § 91.1077 Training program and revision: Initial and final approval. (a) To obtain initial and final approval of a training program, or a revision to an approved training program, each program manager must submit to the Administrator— (1) An outline of the proposed or revised curriculum, that provides enough information for a preliminary evaluation of the proposed training program or revision; and

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(2) Additional relevant information that may be requested by the Administrator. (b) If the proposed training program or revision complies with this subpart, the Administrator grants initial approval in writing after which the program manager may conduct the training under that program. The Administrator then evaluates the effectiveness of the training program and advises the program manager of deficiencies, if any, that must be corrected. (c) The Administrator grants final approval of the proposed training program or revision if the program manager shows that the training conducted under the initial approval in paragraph (b) of this section ensures that each person who successfully completes the training is adequately trained to perform that person's assigned duties. (d) Whenever the Administrator finds that revisions are necessary for the continued adequacy of a training program that has been granted final approval, the program manager must, after notification by the Administrator, make any changes in the program that are found necessary by the Administrator. Within 30 days after the program manager receives the notice, it may file a petition to reconsider the notice with the Administrator. The filing of a petition to reconsider stays the notice pending a decision by the Administrator. However, if the Administrator finds that there is an emergency that requires immediate action in the interest of safety, the Administrator may, upon a statement of the reasons, require a change effective without stay. § 91.1079 Training program: Curriculum. (a) Each program manager must prepare and keep current a written training program curriculum for each type of aircraft for each crewmember required for that type aircraft. The curriculum must include ground and flight training required by this subpart. (b) Each training program curriculum must include the following: (1) A list of principal ground training subjects, including emergency training subjects, that are provided. (2) A list of all the training devices, mock-ups, systems trainers, procedures trainers, or other training aids that the program manager will use. (3) Detailed descriptions or pictorial displays of the approved normal, abnormal, and emergency maneuvers, procedures and functions that will be performed during each flight training phase or flight check, indicating those maneuvers, procedures and functions that are to be performed during the inflight portions of flight training and flight checks. § 91.1081 Crewmember training requirements. (a) Each program manager must include in its training program the following initial and transition ground training as appropriate to the particular assignment of the crewmember: (1) Basic indoctrination ground training for newly hired crewmembers including instruction in at least the— (i) Duties and responsibilities of crewmembers as applicable; (ii) Appropriate provisions of this chapter; (iii) Contents of the program manager's management specifications (not required for flight attendants); and (iv) Appropriate portions of the program manager's operating manual. (2) The initial and transition ground training in §§ 91.1101 and 91.1105, as applicable. (3) Emergency training in § 91.1083. (b) Each training program must provide the initial and transition flight training in § 91.1103, as applicable. (c) Each training program must provide recurrent ground and flight training as provided in § 91.1107. (d) Upgrade training in §§ 91.1101 and 91.1103 for a particular type aircraft may be included in the training program for crewmembers who have qualified and served as second in command on that aircraft. (e) In addition to initial, transition, upgrade and recurrent training, each training program must provide ground and flight training, instruction, and practice necessary to ensure that each crewmember— (1) Remains adequately trained and currently proficient for each aircraft, crewmember position, and type of operation in which the crewmember serves; and

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(2) Qualifies in new equipment, facilities, procedures, and techniques, including modifications to aircraft. § 91.1083 Crewmember emergency training. (a) Each training program must provide emergency training under this section for each aircraft type, model, and configuration, each crewmember, and each kind of operation conducted, as appropriate for each crewmember and the program manager. (b) Emergency training must provide the following: (1) Instruction in emergency assignments and procedures, including coordination among crewmembers. (2) Individual instruction in the location, function, and operation of emergency equipment including— (i) Equipment used in ditching and evacuation; (ii) First aid equipment and its proper use; and (iii) Portable fire extinguishers, with emphasis on the type of extinguisher to be used on different classes of fires. (3) Instruction in the handling of emergency situations including— (i) Rapid decompression; (ii) Fire in flight or on the surface and smoke control procedures with emphasis on electrical equipment and related circuit breakers found in cabin areas; (iii) Ditching and evacuation; (iv) Illness, injury, or other abnormal situations involving passengers or crewmembers; and (v) Hijacking and other unusual situations. (4) Review and discussion of previous aircraft accidents and incidents involving actual emergency situations. (c) Each crewmember must perform at least the following emergency drills, using the proper emergency equipment and procedures, unless the Administrator finds that, for a particular drill, the crewmember can be adequately trained by demonstration: (1) Ditching, if applicable. (2) Emergency evacuation. (3) Fire extinguishing and smoke control. (4) Operation and use of emergency exits, including deployment and use of evacuation slides, if applicable. (5) Use of crew and passenger oxygen. (6) Removal of life rafts from the aircraft, inflation of the life rafts, use of lifelines, and boarding of passengers and crew, if applicable. (7) Donning and inflation of life vests and the use of other individual flotation devices, if applicable. (d) Crewmembers who serve in operations above 25,000 feet must receive instruction in the following: (1) Respiration. (2) Hypoxia. (3) Duration of consciousness without supplemental oxygen at altitude. (4) Gas expansion. (5) Gas bubble formation. (6) Physical phenomena and incidents of decompression. § 91.1085 Hazardous materials recognition training. No program manager may use any person to perform, and no person may perform, any assigned duties and responsibilities for the handling or carriage of hazardous materials (as defined in 49 CFR 171.8), unless that person has received training in the recognition of hazardous materials. § 91.1087 Approval of aircraft simulators and other training devices. (a) Training courses using aircraft simulators and other training devices may be included in the program manager's training program if approved by the Administrator. (b) Each aircraft simulator and other training device that is used in a training course or in checks required under this subpart must meet the following requirements: (1) It must be specifically approved for— (i) The program manager; and (ii) The particular maneuver, procedure, or crewmember function involved. (2) It must maintain the performance, functional, and other characteristics that are required for approval. (3) Additionally, for aircraft simulators, it must be—

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(i) Approved for the type aircraft and, if applicable, the particular variation within type for which the training or check is being conducted; and (ii) Modified to conform with any modification to the aircraft being simulated that changes the performance, functional, or other characteristics required for approval. (c) A particular aircraft simulator or other training device may be used by more than one program manager. (d) In granting initial and final approval of training programs or revisions to them, the Administrator considers the training devices, methods, and procedures listed in the program manager's curriculum under § 91.1079. § 91.1089 Qualifications: Check pilots (aircraft) and check pilots (simulator). (a) For the purposes of this section and § 91.1093: (1) A check pilot (aircraft) is a person who is qualified to conduct flight checks in an aircraft, in a flight simulator, or in a flight training device for a particular type aircraft. (2) A check pilot (simulator) is a person who is qualified to conduct flight checks, but only in a flight simulator, in a flight training device, or both, for a particular type aircraft. (3) Check pilots (aircraft) and check pilots (simulator) are those check pilots who perform the functions described in § 91.1073(a)(4) and (c). (b) No program manager may use a person, nor may any person serve as a check pilot (aircraft) in a training program established under this subpart unless, with respect to the aircraft type involved, that person— (1) Holds the pilot certificates and ratings required to serve as a pilot in command in operations under this subpart; (2) Has satisfactorily completed the training phases for the aircraft, including recurrent training, that are required to serve as a pilot in command in operations under this subpart; (3) Has satisfactorily completed the proficiency or competency checks that are required to serve as a pilot in command in operations under this subpart; (4) Has satisfactorily completed the applicable training requirements of § 91.1093; (5) Holds at least a Class III medical certificate unless serving as a required crewmember, in which case holds a Class I or Class II medical certificate as appropriate; and (6) Has been approved by the Administrator for the check pilot duties involved. (c) No program manager may use a person, nor may any person serve as a check pilot (simulator) in a training program established under this subpart unless, with respect to the aircraft type involved, that person meets the provisions of paragraph (b) of this section, or— (1) Holds the applicable pilot certificates and ratings, except medical certificate, required to serve as a pilot in command in operations under this subpart; (2) Has satisfactorily completed the appropriate training phases for the aircraft, including recurrent training, that are required to serve as a pilot in command in operations under this subpart; (3) Has satisfactorily completed the appropriate proficiency or competency checks that are required to serve as a pilot in command in operations under this subpart; (4) Has satisfactorily completed the applicable training requirements of § 91.1093; and (5) Has been approved by the Administrator for the check pilot (simulator) duties involved. (d) Completion of the requirements in paragraphs (b)(2), (3), and (4) or (c)(2), (3), and (4) of this section, as applicable, must be entered in the individual's training record maintained by the program manager. (e) A check pilot who does not hold an appropriate medical certificate may function as a check pilot (simulator), but may not serve as a flightcrew member in operations under this subpart. (f) A check pilot (simulator) must accomplish the following— (1) Fly at least two flight segments as a required crewmember for the type, class, or category aircraft involved within the 12-month period preceding the performance of any check pilot duty in a flight simulator; or

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(2) Before performing any check pilot duty in a flight simulator, satisfactorily complete an approved line-observation program within the period prescribed by that program. (g) The flight segments or line-observation program required in paragraph (f) of this section are considered to be completed in the month required if completed in the month before or the month after the month in which they are due. § 91.1091 Qualifications: Flight instructors (aircraft) and flight instructors (simulator). (a) For the purposes of this section and § 91.1095: (1) A flight instructor (aircraft) is a person who is qualified to instruct in an aircraft, in a flight simulator, or in a flight training device for a particular type, class, or category aircraft. (2) A flight instructor (simulator) is a person who is qualified to instruct in a flight simulator, in a flight training device, or in both, for a particular type, class, or category aircraft. (3) Flight instructors (aircraft) and flight instructors (simulator) are those instructors who perform the functions described in § 91.1073(a)(4) and (c). (b) No program manager may use a person, nor may any person serve as a flight instructor (aircraft) in a training program established under this subpart unless, with respect to the type, class, or category aircraft involved, that person— (1) Holds the pilot certificates and ratings required to serve as a pilot in command in operations under this subpart or part 121 or 135 of this chapter; (2) Has satisfactorily completed the training phases for the aircraft, including recurrent training, that are required to serve as a pilot in command in operations under this subpart; (3) Has satisfactorily completed the proficiency or competency checks that are required to serve as a pilot in command in operations under this subpart; (4) Has satisfactorily completed the applicable training requirements of § 91.1095; and (5) Holds at least a Class III medical certificate. (c) No program manager may use a person, nor may any person serve as a flight instructor (simulator) in a training program established under this subpart, unless, with respect to the type, class, or category aircraft involved, that person meets the provisions of paragraph (b) of this section, or— (1) Holds the pilot certificates and ratings, except medical certificate, required to serve as a pilot in command in operations under this subpart or part 121 or 135 of this chapter; (2) Has satisfactorily completed the appropriate training phases for the aircraft, including recurrent training, that are required to serve as a pilot in command in operations under this subpart; (3) Has satisfactorily completed the appropriate proficiency or competency checks that are required to serve as a pilot in command in operations under this subpart; and (4) Has satisfactorily completed the applicable training requirements of § 91.1095. (d) Completion of the requirements in paragraphs (b)(2), (3), and (4) or (c)(2), (3), and (4) of this section, as applicable, must be entered in the individual's training record maintained by the program manager. (e) A pilot who does not hold a medical certificate may function as a flight instructor in an aircraft if functioning as a non-required crewmember, but may not serve as a flightcrew member in operations under this subpart. (f) A flight instructor (simulator) must accomplish the following— (1) Fly at least two flight segments as a required crewmember for the type, class, or category aircraft involved within the 12-month period preceding the performance of any flight instructor duty in a flight simulator; or (2) Satisfactorily complete an approved line-observation program within the period prescribed by that program preceding the performance of any flight instructor duty in a flight simulator. (g) The flight segments or line-observation program required in paragraph (f) of this section are considered completed in the month required if completed in the month before, or in the month after, the month in which they are due.

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[Docket FAA-2001-10047, 68 FR 54561, Sept. 17, 2003, as amended by Amdt. 91-322, 76 FR 31823, June 2, 2011] § 91.1093 Initial and transition training and checking: Check pilots (aircraft), check pilots (simulator). (a) No program manager may use a person nor may any person serve as a check pilot unless— (1) That person has satisfactorily completed initial or transition check pilot training; and (2) Within the preceding 24 months, that person satisfactorily conducts a proficiency or competency check under the observation of an FAA inspector or an aircrew designated examiner employed by the program manager. The observation check may be accomplished in part or in full in an aircraft, in a flight simulator, or in a flight training device. (b) The observation check required by paragraph (a)(2) of this section is considered to have been completed in the month required if completed in the month before or the month after the month in which it is due. (c) The initial ground training for check pilots must include the following: (1) Check pilot duties, functions, and responsibilities. (2) The applicable provisions of the Code of Federal Regulations and the program manager's policies and procedures. (3) The applicable methods, procedures, and techniques for conducting the required checks. (4) Proper evaluation of student performance including the detection of— (i) Improper and insufficient training; and (ii) Personal characteristics of an applicant that could adversely affect safety. (5) The corrective action in the case of unsatisfactory checks. (6) The approved methods, procedures, and limitations for performing the required normal, abnormal, and emergency procedures in the aircraft. (d) The transition ground training for a check pilot must include the approved methods, procedures, and limitations for performing the required normal, abnormal, and emergency procedures applicable to the aircraft to which the check pilot is in transition. (e) The initial and transition flight training for a check pilot (aircraft) must include the following— (1) The safety measures for emergency situations that are likely to develop during a check; (2) The potential results of improper, untimely, or nonexecution of safety measures during a check; (3) Training and practice in conducting flight checks from the left and right pilot seats in the required normal, abnormal, and emergency procedures to ensure competence to conduct the pilot flight checks required by this subpart; and (4) The safety measures to be taken from either pilot seat for emergency situations that are likely to develop during checking. (f) The requirements of paragraph (e) of this section may be accomplished in full or in part in flight, in a flight simulator, or in a flight training device, as appropriate. (g) The initial and transition flight training for a check pilot (simulator) must include the following: (1) Training and practice in conducting flight checks in the required normal, abnormal, and emergency procedures to ensure competence to conduct the flight checks required by this subpart. This training and practice must be accomplished in a flight simulator or in a flight training device. (2) Training in the operation of flight simulators, flight training devices, or both, to ensure competence to conduct the flight checks required by this subpart. § 91.1095 Initial and transition training and checking: Flight instructors (aircraft), flight instructors (simulator). (a) No program manager may use a person nor may any person serve as a flight instructor unless— (1) That person has satisfactorily completed initial or transition flight instructor training; and (2) Within the preceding 24 months, that person satisfactorily conducts instruction under the observation of an FAA inspector, a program manager check pilot, or an aircrew designated examiner employed by the program manager. The observation check may be accomplished in part or in full in an aircraft, in a flight simulator, or in a flight training device.

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(b) The observation check required by paragraph (a)(2) of this section is considered to have been completed in the month required if completed in the month before, or the month after, the month in which it is due. (c) The initial ground training for flight instructors must include the following: (1) Flight instructor duties, functions, and responsibilities. (2) The applicable Code of Federal Regulations and the program manager's policies and procedures. (3) The applicable methods, procedures, and techniques for conducting flight instruction. (4) Proper evaluation of student performance including the detection of— (i) Improper and insufficient training; and (ii) Personal characteristics of an applicant that could adversely affect safety. (5) The corrective action in the case of unsatisfactory training progress. (6) The approved methods, procedures, and limitations for performing the required normal, abnormal, and emergency procedures in the aircraft. (7) Except for holders of a flight instructor certificate— (i) The fundamental principles of the teaching-learning process; (ii) Teaching methods and procedures; and (iii) The instructor-student relationship. (d) The transition ground training for flight instructors must include the approved methods, procedures, and limitations for performing the required normal, abnormal, and emergency procedures applicable to the type, class, or category aircraft to which the flight instructor is in transition. (e) The initial and transition flight training for flight instructors (aircraft) must include the following— (1) The safety measures for emergency situations that are likely to develop during instruction; (2) The potential results of improper or untimely safety measures during instruction; (3) Training and practice from the left and right pilot seats in the required normal, abnormal, and emergency maneuvers to ensure competence to conduct the flight instruction required by this subpart; and (4) The safety measures to be taken from either the left or right pilot seat for emergency situations that are likely to develop during instruction. (f) The requirements of paragraph (e) of this section may be accomplished in full or in part in flight, in a flight simulator, or in a flight training device, as appropriate. (g) The initial and transition flight training for a flight instructor (simulator) must include the following: (1) Training and practice in the required normal, abnormal, and emergency procedures to ensure competence to conduct the flight instruction required by this subpart. These maneuvers and procedures must be accomplished in full or in part in a flight simulator or in a flight training device. (2) Training in the operation of flight simulators, flight training devices, or both, to ensure competence to conduct the flight instruction required by this subpart. § 91.1097 Pilot and flight attendant crewmember training programs. (a) Each program manager must establish and maintain an approved pilot training program, and each program manager who uses a flight attendant crewmember must establish and maintain an approved flight attendant training program, that is appropriate to the operations to which each pilot and flight attendant is to be assigned, and will ensure that they are adequately trained to meet the applicable knowledge and practical testing requirements of §§ 91.1065 through 91.1071. (b) Each program manager required to have a training program by paragraph (a) of this section must include in that program ground and flight training curriculums for— (1) Initial training; (2) Transition training; (3) Upgrade training; (4) Differences training;

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(5) Recurrent training; and (6) Requalification training. (c) Each program manager must provide current and appropriate study materials for use by each required pilot and flight attendant. (d) The program manager must furnish copies of the pilot and flight attendant crewmember training program, and all changes and additions, to the assigned representative of the Administrator. If the program manager uses training facilities of other persons, a copy of those training programs or appropriate portions used for those facilities must also be furnished. Curricula that follow FAA published curricula may be cited by reference in the copy of the training program furnished to the representative of the Administrator and need not be furnished with the program. § 91.1099 Crewmember initial and recurrent training requirements. No program manager may use a person, nor may any person serve, as a crewmember in operations under this subpart unless that crewmember has completed the appropriate initial or recurrent training phase of the training program appropriate to the type of operation in which the crewmember is to serve since the beginning of the 12th month before that service. § 91.1101 Pilots: Initial, transition, and upgrade ground training. Initial, transition, and upgrade ground training for pilots must include instruction in at least the following, as applicable to their duties: (a) General subjects— (1) The program manager's flight locating procedures; (2) Principles and methods for determining weight and balance, and runway limitations for takeoff and landing; (3) Enough meteorology to ensure a practical knowledge of weather phenomena, including the principles of frontal systems, icing, fog, thunderstorms, windshear and, if appropriate, high altitude weather situations; (4) Air traffic control systems, procedures, and phraseology; (5) Navigation and the use of navigational aids, including instrument approach procedures; (6) Normal and emergency communication procedures; (7) Visual cues before and during descent below Decision Altitude or MDA; and (8) Other instructions necessary to ensure the pilot's competence. (b) For each aircraft type— (1) A general description; (2) Performance characteristics; (3) Engines and propellers; (4) Major components; (5) Major aircraft systems (that is, flight controls, electrical, and hydraulic), other systems, as appropriate, principles of normal, abnormal, and emergency operations, appropriate procedures and limitations; (6) Knowledge and procedures for— (i) Recognizing and avoiding severe weather situations; (ii) Escaping from severe weather situations, in case of inadvertent encounters, including low-altitude windshear (except that rotorcraft pilots are not required to be trained in escaping from low-altitude windshear); (iii) Operating in or near thunderstorms (including best penetration altitudes), turbulent air (including clear air turbulence), inflight icing, hail, and other potentially hazardous meteorological conditions; and (iv) Operating airplanes during ground icing conditions, (that is, any time conditions are such that frost, ice, or snow may reasonably be expected to adhere to the aircraft), if the program manager expects to authorize takeoffs in ground icing conditions, including: (A) The use of holdover times when using deicing/anti-icing fluids; (B) Airplane deicing/anti-icing procedures, including inspection and check procedures and responsibilities; (C) Communications; (D) Airplane surface contamination (that is, adherence of frost, ice, or snow) and critical area identification, and knowledge of how contamination adversely affects airplane performance and flight characteristics; (E) Types and characteristics of deicing/anti-icing fluids, if used by the program manager;

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(F) Cold weather preflight inspection procedures; (G) Techniques for recognizing contamination on the airplane; (7) Operating limitations; (8) Fuel consumption and cruise control; (9) Flight planning; (10) Each normal and emergency procedure; and (11) The approved Aircraft Flight Manual or equivalent. § 91.1103 Pilots: Initial, transition, upgrade, requalification, and differences flight training. (a) Initial, transition, upgrade, requalification, and differences training for pilots must include flight and practice in each of the maneuvers and procedures contained in each of the curriculums that are a part of the approved training program. (b) The maneuvers and procedures required by paragraph (a) of this section must be performed in flight, except to the extent that certain maneuvers and procedures may be performed in an aircraft simulator, or an appropriate training device, as allowed by this subpart. (c) If the program manager's approved training program includes a course of training using an aircraft simulator or other training device, each pilot must successfully complete— (1) Training and practice in the simulator or training device in at least the maneuvers and procedures in this subpart that are capable of being performed in the aircraft simulator or training device; and (2) A flight check in the aircraft or a check in the simulator or training device to the level of proficiency of a pilot in command or second in command, as applicable, in at least the maneuvers and procedures that are capable of being performed in an aircraft simulator or training device. § 91.1105 Flight attendants: Initial and transition ground training. Initial and transition ground training for flight attendants must include instruction in at least the following— (a) General subjects— (1) The authority of the pilot in command; and (2) Passenger handling, including procedures to be followed in handling deranged persons or other persons whose conduct might jeopardize safety. (b) For each aircraft type— (1) A general description of the aircraft emphasizing physical characteristics that may have a bearing on ditching, evacuation, and inflight emergency procedures and on other related duties; (2) The use of both the public address system and the means of communicating with other flight crewmembers, including emergency means in the case of attempted hijacking or other unusual situations; and (3) Proper use of electrical galley equipment and the controls for cabin heat and ventilation. § 91.1107 Recurrent training. (a) Each program manager must ensure that each crewmember receives recurrent training and is adequately trained and currently proficient for the type aircraft and crewmember position involved. (b) Recurrent ground training for crewmembers must include at least the following: (1) A quiz or other review to determine the crewmember's knowledge of the aircraft and crewmember position involved. (2) Instruction as necessary in the subjects required for initial ground training by this subpart, as appropriate, including low-altitude windshear training and training on operating during ground icing conditions, as prescribed in § 91.1097 and described in § 91.1101, and emergency training. (c) Recurrent flight training for pilots must include, at least, flight training in the maneuvers or procedures in this subpart, except that satisfactory completion of the check required by § 91.1065 within the preceding 12 months may be substituted for recurrent flight training. § 91.1109 Aircraft maintenance: Inspection program. Each program manager must establish an aircraft inspection program for each make and model program aircraft and ensure each aircraft is inspected in accordance with that inspection program.

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(a) The inspection program must be in writing and include at least the following information: (1) Instructions and procedures for the conduct of inspections for the particular make and model aircraft, including necessary tests and checks. The instructions and procedures must set forth in detail the parts and areas of the airframe, engines, propellers, rotors, and appliances, including survival and emergency equipment required to be inspected. (2) A schedule for performing the inspections that must be accomplished under the inspection program expressed in terms of the time in service, calendar time, number of system operations, or any combination thereof. (3) The name and address of the person responsible for scheduling the inspections required by the inspection program. A copy of the inspection program must be made available to the person performing inspections on the aircraft and, upon request, to the Administrator. (b) Each person desiring to establish or change an approved inspection program under this section must submit the inspection program for approval to the Flight Standards office that issued the program manager's management specifications. The inspection program must be derived from one of the following programs: (1) An inspection program currently recommended by the manufacturer of the aircraft, aircraft engines, propellers, appliances, and survival and emergency equipment; (2) An inspection program that is part of a continuous airworthiness maintenance program currently in use by a person holding an air carrier or operating certificate issued under part 119 of this chapter and operating that make and model aircraft under part 121 or 135 of this chapter; (3) An aircraft inspection program approved under § 135.419 of this chapter and currently in use under part 135 of this chapter by a person holding a certificate issued under part 119 of this chapter; or (4) An airplane inspection program approved under § 125.247 of this chapter and currently in use under part 125 of this chapter. (5) An inspection program that is part of the program manager's continuous airworthiness maintenance program under §§ 91.1411 through 91.1443. (c) The Administrator may require revision of the inspection program approved under this section in accordance with the provisions of § 91.415. [Docket FAA-2001-10047, 68 FR 54561, Sept. 17, 2003, as amended by Docket FAA-2018-0119, Amdt. 91-350, 83 FR 9171, Mar. 5, 2018] § 91.1111 Maintenance training. The program manager must ensure that all employees who are responsible for maintenance related to program aircraft undergo appropriate initial and annual recurrent training and are competent to perform those duties. § 91.1113 Maintenance recordkeeping. Each fractional ownership program manager must keep (using the system specified in the manual required in § 91.1025) the records specified in § 91.417(a) for the periods specified in § 91.417(b). § 91.1115 Inoperable instruments and equipment. (a) No person may take off an aircraft with inoperable instruments or equipment installed unless the following conditions are met: (1) An approved Minimum Equipment List exists for that aircraft. (2) The program manager has been issued management specifications authorizing operations in accordance with an approved Minimum Equipment List. The flight crew must have direct access at all times prior to flight to all of the information contained in the approved Minimum Equipment List through printed or other means approved by the Administrator in the program manager's management specifications. An approved Minimum Equipment List, as authorized by the management specifications, constitutes an approved change to the type design without requiring recertification. (3) The approved Minimum Equipment List must:

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(i) Be prepared in accordance with the limitations specified in paragraph (b) of this section. (ii) Provide for the operation of the aircraft with certain instruments and equipment in an inoperable condition. (4) Records identifying the inoperable instruments and equipment and the information required by (a)(3)(ii) of this section must be available to the pilot. (5) The aircraft is operated under all applicable conditions and limitations contained in the Minimum Equipment List and the management specifications authorizing use of the Minimum Equipment List. (b) The following instruments and equipment may not be included in the Minimum Equipment List: (1) Instruments and equipment that are either specifically or otherwise required by the airworthiness requirements under which the airplane is type certificated and that are essential for safe operations under all operating conditions. (2) Instruments and equipment required by an airworthiness directive to be in operable condition unless the airworthiness directive provides otherwise. (3) Instruments and equipment required for specific operations by this part. (c) Notwithstanding paragraphs (b)(1) and (b)(3) of this section, an aircraft with inoperable instruments or equipment may be operated under a special flight permit under §§ 21.197 and 21.199 of this chapter. (d) A person authorized to use an approved Minimum Equipment List issued for a specific aircraft under part 121, 125, or 135 of this chapter must use that Minimum Equipment List to comply with this section. Effective Date Note: Amendments to § 91.1115 were published by Docket FAA-2023-1275, Amdt. 60-8, 89 FR 92486, Nov. 21, 2024, effective Jan. 21, 2025. § 91.1411 Continuous airworthiness maintenance program use by fractional ownership program manager. Fractional ownership program aircraft may be maintained under a continuous airworthiness maintenance program (CAMP) under §§ 91.1413 through 91.1443. Any program manager who elects to maintain the program aircraft using a continuous airworthiness maintenance program must comply with §§ 91.1413 through 91.1443. § 91.1413 CAMP: Responsibility for airworthiness. (a) For aircraft maintained in accordance with a Continuous Airworthiness Maintenance Program, each program manager is primarily responsible for the following: (1) Maintaining the airworthiness of the program aircraft, including airframes, aircraft engines, propellers, rotors, appliances, and parts. (2) Maintaining its aircraft in accordance with the requirements of this chapter. (3) Repairing defects that occur between regularly scheduled maintenance required under part 43 of this chapter. (b) Each program manager who maintains program aircraft under a CAMP must— (1) Employ a Director of Maintenance or equivalent position. The Director of Maintenance must be a certificated mechanic with airframe and powerplant ratings who has responsibility for the maintenance program on all program aircraft maintained under a continuous airworthiness maintenance program. This person cannot also act as Chief Inspector. (2) Employ a Chief Inspector or equivalent position. The Chief Inspector must be a certificated mechanic with airframe and powerplant ratings who has overall responsibility for inspection aspects of the CAMP. This person cannot also act as Director of Maintenance. (3) Have the personnel to perform the maintenance of program aircraft, including airframes, aircraft engines, propellers, rotors, appliances, emergency equipment and parts, under its manual and this chapter; or make arrangements with another person for the performance of maintenance. However, the program manager must ensure that any maintenance, preventive maintenance, or alteration that is performed by another person is performed under the program manager's operating manual and this chapter.

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§ 91.1415 CAMP: Mechanical reliability reports. (a) Each program manager who maintains program aircraft under a CAMP must report the occurrence or detection of each failure, malfunction, or defect in an aircraft concerning— (1) Fires during flight and whether the related fire-warning system functioned properly; (2) Fires during flight not protected by related fire-warning system; (3) False fire-warning during flight; (4) An exhaust system that causes damage during flight to the engine, adjacent structure, equipment, or components; (5) An aircraft component that causes accumulation or circulation of smoke, vapor, or toxic or noxious fumes in the crew compartment or passenger cabin during flight; (6) Engine shutdown during flight because of flameout; (7) Engine shutdown during flight when external damage to the engine or aircraft structure occurs; (8) Engine shutdown during flight because of foreign object ingestion or icing; (9) Shutdown of more than one engine during flight; (10) A propeller feathering system or ability of the system to control overspeed during flight; (11) A fuel or fuel-dumping system that affects fuel flow or causes hazardous leakage during flight; (12) An unwanted landing gear extension or retraction or opening or closing of landing gear doors during flight; (13) Brake system components that result in loss of brake actuating force when the aircraft is in motion on the ground; (14) Aircraft structure that requires major repair; (15) Cracks, permanent deformation, or corrosion of aircraft structures, if more than the maximum acceptable to the manufacturer or the FAA; and (16) Aircraft components or systems that result in taking emergency actions during flight (except action to shut down an engine). (b) For the purpose of this section, during flight means the period from the moment the aircraft leaves the surface of the earth on takeoff until it touches down on landing. (c) In addition to the reports required by paragraph (a) of this section, each program manager must report any other failure, malfunction, or defect in an aircraft that occurs or is detected at any time if, in the manager's opinion, the failure, malfunction, or defect has endangered or may endanger the safe operation of the aircraft. (d) Each program manager must send each report required by this section, in writing, covering each 24-hour period beginning at 0900 hours local time of each day and ending at 0900 hours local time on the next day to the Flight Standards office that issued the program manager's management specifications. Each report of occurrences during a 24-hour period must be mailed or transmitted to that office within the next 72 hours. However, a report that is due on Saturday or Sunday may be mailed or transmitted on the following Monday and one that is due on a holiday may be mailed or transmitted on the next workday. For aircraft operated in areas where mail is not collected, reports may be mailed or transmitted within 72 hours after the aircraft returns to a point where the mail is collected. (e) The program manager must transmit the reports required by this section on a form and in a manner prescribed by the Administrator, and must include as much of the following as is available: (1) The type and identification number of the aircraft. (2) The name of the program manager. (3) The date. (4) The nature of the failure, malfunction, or defect. (5) Identification of the part and system involved, including available information pertaining to type designation of the major component and time since last overhaul, if known. (6) Apparent cause of the failure, malfunction or defect (for example, wear, crack, design deficiency, or personnel error). (7) Other pertinent information necessary for more complete identification, determination of seriousness, or corrective action.

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(f) A program manager that is also the holder of a type certificate (including a supplemental type certificate), a Parts Manufacturer Approval, or a Technical Standard Order Authorization, or that is the licensee of a type certificate need not report a failure, malfunction, or defect under this section if the failure, malfunction, or defect has been reported by it under § 21.3 of this chapter or under the accident reporting provisions of part 830 of the regulations of the National Transportation Safety Board. (g) No person may withhold a report required by this section even when not all information required by this section is available. (h) When the program manager receives additional information, including information from the manufacturer or other agency, concerning a report required by this section, the program manager must expeditiously submit it as a supplement to the first report and reference the date and place of submission of the first report. [Docket FAA-2001-10047, 68 FR 54561, Sept. 17, 2003, as amended by Docket FAA-2018-0119, Amdt. 91-350, 83 FR 9171, Mar. 5, 2018] § 91.1417 CAMP: Mechanical interruption summary report. Each program manager who maintains program aircraft under a CAMP must mail or deliver, before the end of the 10th day of the following month, a summary report of the following occurrences in multiengine aircraft for the preceding month to the Flight Standards office that issued the management specifications: (a) Each interruption to a flight, unscheduled change of aircraft en route, or unscheduled stop or diversion from a route, caused by known or suspected mechanical difficulties or malfunctions that are not required to be reported under § 91.1415. (b) The number of propeller featherings in flight, listed by type of propeller and engine and aircraft on which it was installed. Propeller featherings for training, demonstration, or flight check purposes need not be reported. [Docket FAA-2001-10047, 68 FR 54561, Sept. 17, 2003, as amended by Docket FAA-2018-0119, Amdt. 91-350, 83 FR 9171, Mar. 5, 2018] § 91.1423 CAMP: Maintenance organization. (a) Each program manager who maintains program aircraft under a CAMP that has its personnel perform any of its maintenance (other than required inspections), preventive maintenance, or alterations, and each person with whom it arranges for the performance of that work, must have an organization adequate to perform the work. (b) Each program manager who has personnel perform any inspections required by the program manager's manual under § 91.1427(b) (2) or (3), (in this subpart referred to as required inspections), and each person with whom the program manager arranges for the performance of that work, must have an organization adequate to perform that work. (c) Each person performing required inspections in addition to other maintenance, preventive maintenance, or alterations, must organize the performance of those functions so as to separate the required inspection functions from the other maintenance, preventive maintenance, or alteration functions. The separation must be below the level of administrative control at which overall responsibility for the required inspection functions and other maintenance, preventive maintenance, or alterations is exercised. § 91.1425 CAMP: Maintenance, preventive maintenance, and alteration programs. Each program manager who maintains program aircraft under a CAMP must have an inspection program and a program covering other maintenance, preventive maintenance, or alterations that ensures that— (a) Maintenance, preventive maintenance, or alterations performed by its personnel, or by other persons, are performed under the program manager's manual; (b) Competent personnel and adequate facilities and equipment are provided for the proper performance of maintenance, preventive maintenance, or alterations; and (c) Each aircraft released to service is airworthy and has been properly maintained for operation under this part.

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§ 91.1427 CAMP: Manual requirements. (a) Each program manager who maintains program aircraft under a CAMP must put in the operating manual the chart or description of the program manager's organization required by § 91.1423 and a list of persons with whom it has arranged for the performance of any of its required inspections, and other maintenance, preventive maintenance, or alterations, including a general description of that work. (b) Each program manager must put in the operating manual the programs required by § 91.1425 that must be followed in performing maintenance, preventive maintenance, or alterations of that program manager's aircraft, including airframes, aircraft engines, propellers, rotors, appliances, emergency equipment, and parts, and must include at least the following: (1) The method of performing routine and nonroutine maintenance (other than required inspections), preventive maintenance, or alterations. (2) A designation of the items of maintenance and alteration that must be inspected (required inspections) including at least those that could result in a failure, malfunction, or defect endangering the safe operation of the aircraft, if not performed properly or if improper parts or materials are used. (3) The method of performing required inspections and a designation by occupational title of personnel authorized to perform each required inspection. (4) Procedures for the reinspection of work performed under previous required inspection findings (buy-back procedures). (5) Procedures, standards, and limits necessary for required inspections and acceptance or rejection of the items required to be inspected and for periodic inspection and calibration of precision tools, measuring devices, and test equipment. (6) Procedures to ensure that all required inspections are performed. (7) Instructions to prevent any person who performs any item of work from performing any required inspection of that work. (8) Instructions and procedures to prevent any decision of an inspector regarding any required inspection from being countermanded by persons other than supervisory personnel of the inspection unit, or a person at the level of administrative control that has overall responsibility for the management of both the required inspection functions and the other maintenance, preventive maintenance, or alterations functions. (9) Procedures to ensure that maintenance (including required inspections), preventive maintenance, or alterations that are not completed because of work interruptions are properly completed before the aircraft is released to service. (c) Each program manager must put in the manual a suitable system (which may include an electronic or coded system) that provides for the retention of the following information— (1) A description (or reference to data acceptable to the Administrator) of the work performed; (2) The name of the person performing the work if the work is performed by a person outside the organization of the program manager; and (3) The name or other positive identification of the individual approving the work. (d) For the purposes of this part, the program manager must prepare that part of its manual containing maintenance information and instructions, in whole or in part, in a format acceptable to the Administrator, that is retrievable in the English language. § 91.1429 CAMP: Required inspection personnel. (a) No person who maintains an aircraft under a CAMP may use any person to perform required inspections unless the person performing the inspection is appropriately certificated, properly trained, qualified, and authorized to do so. (b) No person may allow any person to perform a required inspection unless, at the time the work was performed, the person performing that inspection is under the supervision and control of the chief inspector. (c) No person may perform a required inspection if that person performed the item of work required to be inspected. (d) Each program manager must maintain, or must ensure that each person with whom it arranges to perform required inspections maintains, a current listing of persons who have been trained, qualified, and authorized to conduct required inspections. The persons must be identified by name, occupational title, and the inspections that they are authorized to perform. The program manager (or person with whom it arranges to perform its required inspections) must give written information to each person so authorized, describing the extent of that person's responsibilities, authorities, and inspectional limitations. The list must be made available for inspection by the Administrator upon request.

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§ 91.1431 CAMP: Continuing analysis and surveillance. (a) Each program manager who maintains program aircraft under a CAMP must establish and maintain a system for the continuing analysis and surveillance of the performance and effectiveness of its inspection program and the program covering other maintenance, preventive maintenance, and alterations and for the correction of any deficiency in those programs, regardless of whether those programs are carried out by employees of the program manager or by another person. (b) Whenever the Administrator finds that the programs described in paragraph (a) of this section does not contain adequate procedures and standards to meet this part, the program manager must, after notification by the Administrator, make changes in those programs requested by the Administrator. (c) A program manager may petition the Administrator to reconsider the notice to make a change in a program. The petition must be filed with the Executive Director, Flight Standards Service, within 30 days after the program manager receives the notice. Except in the case of an emergency requiring immediate action in the interest of safety, the filing of the petition stays the notice pending a decision by the Administrator. [Docket FAA-2001-10047, 68 FR 54561, Sept. 17, 2003, as amended by Docket FAA-2018-0119, Amdt. 91-350, 83 FR 9171, Mar. 5, 2018] § 91.1433 CAMP: Maintenance and preventive maintenance training program. Each program manager who maintains program aircraft under a CAMP or a person performing maintenance or preventive maintenance functions for it must have a training program to ensure that each person (including inspection personnel) who determines the adequacy of work done is fully informed about procedures and techniques and new equipment in use and is competent to perform that person's duties. § 91.1435 CAMP: Certificate requirements. (a) Except for maintenance, preventive maintenance, alterations, and required inspections performed by repair stations located outside the United States certificated under the provisions of part 145 of this chapter, each person who is directly in charge of maintenance, preventive maintenance, or alterations for a CAMP, and each person performing required inspections for a CAMP must hold an appropriate airman certificate. (b) For the purpose of this section, a person “directly in charge” is each person assigned to a position in which that person is responsible for the work of a shop or station that performs maintenance, preventive maintenance, alterations, or other functions affecting airworthiness. A person who is directly in charge need not physically observe and direct each worker constantly but must be available for consultation and decision on matters requiring instruction or decision from higher authority than that of the person performing the work. § 91.1437 CAMP: Authority to perform and approve maintenance. A program manager who maintains program aircraft under a CAMP may employ maintenance personnel, or make arrangements with other persons to perform maintenance and preventive maintenance as provided in its maintenance manual. Unless properly certificated, the program manager may not perform or approve maintenance for return to service.

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§ 91.1439 CAMP: Maintenance recording requirements. (a) Each program manager who maintains program aircraft under a CAMP must keep (using the system specified in the manual required in § 91.1427) the following records for the periods specified in paragraph (b) of this section: (1) All the records necessary to show that all requirements for the issuance of an airworthiness release under § 91.1443 have been met. (2) Records containing the following information: (i) The total time in service of the airframe, engine, propeller, and rotor. (ii) The current status of life-limited parts of each airframe, engine, propeller, rotor, and appliance. (iii) The time since last overhaul of each item installed on the aircraft that are required to be overhauled on a specified time basis. (iv) The identification of the current inspection status of the aircraft, including the time since the last inspections required by the inspection program under which the aircraft and its appliances are maintained. (v) The current status of applicable airworthiness directives, including the date and methods of compliance, and, if the airworthiness directive involves recurring action, the time and date when the next action is required. (vi) A list of current major alterations and repairs to each airframe, engine, propeller, rotor, and appliance. (b) Each program manager must retain the records required to be kept by this section for the following periods: (1) Except for the records of the last complete overhaul of each airframe, engine, propeller, rotor, and appliance the records specified in paragraph (a)(1) of this section must be retained until the work is repeated or superseded by other work or for one year after the work is performed. (2) The records of the last complete overhaul of each airframe, engine, propeller, rotor, and appliance must be retained until the work is superseded by work of equivalent scope and detail. (3) The records specified in paragraph (a)(2) of this section must be retained as specified unless transferred with the aircraft at the time the aircraft is sold. (c) The program manager must make all maintenance records required to be kept by this section available for inspection by the Administrator or any representative of the National Transportation Safety Board. § 91.1441 CAMP: Transfer of maintenance records. When a U.S.-registered fractional ownership program aircraft maintained under a CAMP is removed from the list of program aircraft in the management specifications, the program manager must transfer to the purchaser, at the time of the sale, the following records of that aircraft, in plain language form or in coded form that provides for the preservation and retrieval of information in a manner acceptable to the Administrator: (a) The records specified in § 91.1439(a)(2). (b) The records specified in § 91.1439(a)(1) that are not included in the records covered by paragraph (a) of this section, except that the purchaser may allow the program manager to keep physical custody of such records. However, custody of records by the program manager does not relieve the purchaser of its responsibility under § 91.1439(c) to make the records available for inspection by the Administrator or any representative of the National Transportation Safety Board. § 91.1443 CAMP: Airworthiness release or aircraft maintenance log entry. (a) No program aircraft maintained under a CAMP may be operated after maintenance, preventive maintenance, or alterations are performed unless qualified, certificated personnel employed by the program manager prepare, or cause the person with whom the program manager arranges for the performance of the maintenance, preventive maintenance, or alterations, to prepare— (1) An airworthiness release; or (2) An appropriate entry in the aircraft maintenance log. (b) The airworthiness release or log entry required by paragraph (a) of this section must— (1) Be prepared in accordance with the procedure in the program manager's manual;

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(2) Include a certification that— (i) The work was performed in accordance with the requirements of the program manager's manual; (ii) All items required to be inspected were inspected by an authorized person who determined that the work was satisfactorily completed; (iii) No known condition exists that would make the aircraft unairworthy; (iv) So far as the work performed is concerned, the aircraft is in condition for safe operation; and (3) Be signed by an authorized certificated mechanic. (c) Notwithstanding paragraph (b)(3) of this section, after maintenance, preventive maintenance, or alterations performed by a repair station certificated under the provisions of part 145 of this chapter, the approval for return to service or log entry required by paragraph (a) of this section may be signed by a person authorized by that repair station. (d) Instead of restating each of the conditions of the certification required by paragraph (b) of this section, the program manager may state in its manual that the signature of an authorized certificated mechanic or repairman constitutes that certification. Subpart L—Continued Airworthiness and Safety Improvements Source: Amdt. 91-297, 72 FR 63410, Nov. 8, 2007, unless otherwise noted. § 91.1501 Purpose and definition. (a) This subpart requires operators to support the continued airworthiness of each airplane. These requirements may include, but are not limited to, revising the inspection program, incorporating design changes, and incorporating revisions to Instructions for Continued Airworthiness. (b) [Reserved] [Amdt. 91-297, 72 FR 63410, Nov. 8, 2007, as amended by Docket FAA-2018-0119, Amdt. 91-350, 83 FR 9171, Mar. 5, 2018] § 91.1503 [Reserved]
§ 91.1505 Repairs assessment for pressurized fuselages. (a) No person may operate an Airbus Model A300 (excluding the -600 series), British Aerospace Model BAC 1-11, Boeing Model 707, 720, 727, 737 or 747, McDonnell Douglas Model DC-8, DC-9/MD-80 or DC-10, Fokker Model F28, or Lockheed Model L-1011 airplane beyond applicable flight cycle implementation time specified below, or May 25, 2001, whichever occurs later, unless repair assessment guidelines applicable to the fuselage pressure boundary (fuselage skin, door skin, and bulkhead webs) are incorporated within its inspection program. The repair assessment guidelines must be approved by the responsible Aircraft Certification Service office for the type certificate for the affected airplane. (1) For the Airbus Model A300 (excluding the -600 series), the flight cycle implementation time is: (i) Model B2: 36,000 flights. (ii) Model B4-100 (including Model B4-2C): 30,000 flights above the window line, and 36,000 flights below the window line. (iii) Model B4-200: 25,500 flights above the window line, and 34,000 flights below the window line. (2) For all models of the British Aerospace BAC 1-11, the flight cycle implementation time is 60,000 flights. (3) For all models of the Boeing 707, the flight cycle implementation time is 15,000 flights. (4) For all models of the Boeing 720, the flight cycle implementation time is 23,000 flights. (5) For all models of the Boeing 727, the flight cycle implementation time is 45,000 flights. (6) For all models of the Boeing 737, the flight cycle implementation time is 60,000 flights. (7) For all models of the Boeing 747, the flight cycle implementation time is 15,000 flights. (8) For all models of the McDonnell Douglas DC-8, the flight cycle implementation time is 30,000 flights. (9) For all models of the McDonnell Douglas DC-9/MD-80, the flight cycle implementation time is 60,000 flights.

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(10) For all models of the McDonnell Douglas DC-10, the flight cycle implementation time is 30,000 flights. (11) For all models of the Lockheed L-1011, the flight cycle implementation time is 27,000 flights. (12) For the Fokker F-28 Mark 1000, 2000, 3000, and 4000, the flight cycle implementation time is 60,000 flights. (b) [Reserved] [Docket 29104, 65 FR 24125, Apr. 25, 2000; 65 FR 35703, June 5, 2000; 65 FR 50744, Aug. 21, 2000, as amended by Amdt. 91-266, 66 FR 23130, May 7, 2001; Amdt. 91-277, 67 FR 72834, Dec. 9, 2002; Amdt. 91-283, 69 FR 45941, July 30, 2004. Redesignated and amended by Amdt. 91-297, 72 FR 63410, Nov. 8, 2007; Docket FAA-2018-0119, Amdt. 91-350, 83 FR 9171, Mar. 5, 2018] § 91.1507 Fuel tank system inspection program. (a) Except as provided in paragraph (g) of this section, this section applies to transport category, turbine-powered airplanes with a type certificate issued after January 1, 1958, that, as a result of original type certification or later increase in capacity, have— (1) A maximum type-certificated passenger capacity of 30 or more, or (2) A maximum payload capacity of 7,500 pounds or more. (b) For each airplane on which an auxiliary fuel tank is installed under a field approval, before June 16, 2008, the operator must submit to the responsible Aircraft Certification Service Office proposed maintenance instructions for the tank that meet the requirements of Special Federal Aviation Regulation No. 88 (SFAR 88) of this chapter. (c) After December 16, 2008, no operator may operate an airplane identified in paragraph (a) of this section unless the inspection program for that airplane has been revised to include applicable inspections, procedures, and limitations for fuel tank systems. (d) The proposed fuel tank system inspection program revisions specified in paragraph (c) of this section must be based on fuel tank system Instructions for Continued Airworthiness (ICA) that have been developed in accordance with the applicable provisions of SFAR 88 of this chapter or § 25.1529 and part 25, Appendix H, of this chapter, in effect on June 6, 2001 (including those developed for auxiliary fuel tanks, if any, installed under supplemental type certificates or other design approval) and that have been approved by the responsible Aircraft Certification Service Office. (e) After December 16, 2008, before returning an airplane to service after any alterations for which fuel tank ICA are developed under SFAR 88, or under § 25.1529 in effect on June 6, 2001, the operator must include in the inspection program for the airplane inspections and procedures for the fuel tank system based on those ICA. (f) The fuel tank system inspection program changes identified in paragraphs (d) and (e) of this section and any later fuel tank system revisions must be submitted to the Flight Standards office responsible for review and approval. (g) This section does not apply to the following airplane models: (1) Bombardier CL-44 (2) Concorde (3) deHavilland D.H. 106 Comet 4C (4) VFW-Vereinigte Flugtechnische Werk VFW-614 (5) Illyushin Aviation IL 96T (6) Bristol Aircraft Britannia 305 (7) Handley Page Herald Type 300 (8) Avions Marcel Dassault—Breguet Aviation Mercure 100C (9) Airbus Caravelle (10) Lockheed L-300 [Amdt. 91-297, 72 FR 63410, Nov. 8, 2007, as amended by Docket FAA-2018-0119, Amdt. 91-350, 83 FR 9172, Mar. 5, 2018] Subpart M—Special Federal Aviation Regulations § 91.1603 Special Federal Aviation Regulation No. 112—Prohibition Against Certain Flights in the Territory and Airspace of Libya. (a) Applicability. This Special Federal Aviation Regulation (SFAR) applies to the following persons: (1) All U.S. air carriers and U.S. commercial operators; (2) All persons exercising the privileges of an airman certificate issued by the FAA, except when such persons are operating U.S.-registered aircraft for a foreign air carrier; and (3) All operators of U.S.-registered civil aircraft, except when the operator of such aircraft is a foreign air carrier.

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(b) Flight prohibition. Except as provided in paragraphs (c) and (d) of this section, no person described in paragraph (a) of this section may conduct flight operations in the territory and airspace of Libya. (c) Permitted operations. This section does not prohibit persons described in paragraph (a) of this section from conducting flight operations in the territory and airspace of Libya, provided that such flight operations occur under a contract, grant, or cooperative agreement with a department, agency, or instrumentality of the U.S. Government (or under a subcontract between the prime contractor of the department, agency, or instrumentality and the person described in paragraph (a) of this section), with the approval of the FAA, or under an exemption issued by the FAA. The FAA will consider requests for approval or exemption in a timely manner, with the order of preference being: First, for those operations in support of U.S. Government-sponsored activities; second, for those operations in support of government-sponsored activities of a foreign country with the support of a U.S. Government department, agency, or instrumentality; and third, for all other operations. (d) Emergency situations. In an emergency that requires immediate decision and action for the safety of the flight, the pilot in command of an aircraft may deviate from this section to the extent required by that emergency. Except for U.S. air carriers and commercial operators that are subject to the requirements of 14 CFR part 119, 121, 125, or 135, each person who deviates from this section must, within 10 days of the deviation, excluding Saturdays, Sundays, and Federal holidays, submit to the responsible Flight Standards Office a complete report of the operations of the aircraft involved in the deviation, including a description of the deviation and the reasons for it. (e) Expiration. This SFAR will remain in effect until March 20, 2025. The FAA may amend, rescind, or extend this SFAR, as necessary. [Docket No FAA-2011-0246, Amdt.91-321E, 85 FR 45091, July 27, 2020, as amended by Docket FAA-2011-0246, Amdt. 91-321F, 88 FR 16878, Mar. 21, 2023] § 91.1605 Special Federal Aviation Regulation No. 77—Prohibition Against Certain Flights in the Baghdad Flight Information Region (FIR) (ORBB). (a) Applicability. This section applies to the following persons: (1) All U.S. air carriers and U.S. commercial operators; (2) All persons exercising the privileges of an airman certificate issued by the FAA, except when such persons are operating U.S.-registered aircraft for a foreign air carrier; and (3) All operators of civil aircraft registered in the United States, except when the operator of such aircraft is a foreign air carrier. (b) Flight prohibition. Except as provided in paragraphs (c) and (d) of this section, no person described in paragraph (a) of this section may conduct flight operations in the Baghdad Flight Information Region (FIR) (ORBB) at altitudes below Flight Level (FL) 320. (c) Permitted operations. This section does not prohibit persons described in paragraph (a) of this section from conducting flight operations in the Baghdad FIR (ORBB) at altitudes below FL320, provided that such flight operations occur under a contract, grant, or cooperative agreement with a department, agency, or instrumentality of the U.S. Government (or under a subcontract between the prime contractor of the department, agency, or instrumentality, and the person described in paragraph (a) of this section) with the approval of the FAA, or under an exemption issued by the FAA. The FAA will consider requests for approval or exemption in a timely manner, with the order of preference being: first, for those operations in support of U.S. Government-sponsored activities; second, for those operations in support of government-sponsored activities of a foreign country with the support of a U.S. Government department, agency, or instrumentality; and third, for all other operations. (d) Emergency situations. In an emergency that requires immediate decision and action for the safety of the flight, the pilot in command of an aircraft may deviate from this section to the extent required by that emergency. Except for U.S. air carriers and commercial operators that are subject to the requirements of part 119, 121, 125, or 135 of this chapter, each person who deviates from this section must, within 10 days of the deviation, excluding Saturdays, Sundays, and Federal holidays, submit to the responsible Flight Standards office a complete report of the operations of the aircraft involved in the deviation, including a description of the deviation and the reasons for it.

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(e) Expiration. This SFAR will remain in effect until October 26, 2027. The FAA may amend, rescind, or extend this SFAR, as necessary. [Docket FAA-2018-0927, Amdt. 91-353A, 85 FR 65693, Oct. 16, 2020, as amended by Amdt. 91-353B, 87 FR 57390, Sept. 20, 2022; Amdt. 91-353C, 89 FR 83427, Oct. 16, 2024] § 91.1607 [Reserved]
§ 91.1609 Special Federal Aviation Regulation No. 114—Prohibition Against Certain Flights in the Damascus Flight Information Region (FIR) (OSTT). (a) Applicability. This section applies to the following persons: (1) All U.S. air carriers and U.S. commercial operators; (2) All persons exercising the privileges of an airman certificate issued by the FAA, except when such persons are operating U.S.-registered aircraft for a foreign air carrier; and (3) All operators of U.S.-registered civil aircraft, except when the operator of such aircraft is a foreign air carrier. (b) Flight prohibition. Except as provided in paragraphs (c) and (d) of this section, no person described in paragraph (a) of this section may conduct flight operations in the Damascus Flight Information Region (FIR) (OSTT). (c) Permitted operations. This section does not prohibit persons described in paragraph (a) of this section from conducting flight operations in the Damascus Flight Information Region (FIR) (OSTT), provided that such flight operations are conducted under a contract, grant, or cooperative agreement with a department, agency, or instrumentality of the U.S. government (or under a subcontract between the prime contractor of the department, agency, or instrumentality and the person described in paragraph (a) of this section) with the approval of the FAA, or under an exemption issued by the FAA. The FAA will consider requests for approval or exemption in a timely manner, with the order of preference being: First, for those operations in support of U.S. government-sponsored activities; second, for those operations in support of government-sponsored activities of a foreign country with the support of a U.S. government department, agency, or instrumentality; and third, for all other operations. (d) Emergency situations. In an emergency that requires immediate decision and action for the safety of the flight, the pilot in command of an aircraft may deviate from this section to the extent required by that emergency. Except for U.S. air carriers and commercial operators that are subject to the requirements of 14 CFR part 119, 121, 125, or 135, each person who deviates from this section must, within 10 days of the deviation, excluding Saturdays, Sundays, and Federal holidays, submit to the responsible Flight Standards office a complete report of the operations of the aircraft involved in the deviation, including a description of the deviation and the reasons for it. (e) Expiration. This SFAR will remain in effect until December 30, 2028. The FAA may amend, rescind, or extend this SFAR, as necessary. [Docket FAA-2017-0768, Amdt. 91-348, 82 FR 40949, Aug. 29, 2017; Amdt. 91-348A, 82 FR 42592, Sept. 11, 2017, as amended by Amdt. 91-348B, 83 FR 63414, Dec. 10, 2018; Amdt. 91-348C, 85 FR 75845, Nov. 27, 2020; Amdt. 91-348D, 88 FR 89300, Dec. 27, 2023] § 91.1611 Special Federal Aviation Regulation No. 115—Prohibition Against Certain Flights in Specified Areas of the Sanaa Flight Information Region (FIR) (OYSC). (a) Applicability. This Special Federal Aviation Regulation (SFAR) applies to the following persons: (1) All U.S. air carriers and U.S. commercial operators; (2) All persons exercising the privileges of an airman certificate issued by the FAA, except when such persons are operating U.S.-registered aircraft for a foreign air carrier; and

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(3) All operators of U.S.-registered civil aircraft, except when the operator of such aircraft is a foreign air carrier. (b) Flight prohibition. Except as provided in paragraphs (c) and (d) of this section, no person described in paragraph (a) of this section may conduct flight operations in the portion of the Sanaa Flight Information Region (FIR) (OYSC) that is west of a line drawn direct from KAPET (163322N 0530614E) to NODMA (152603N 0533359E), northwest of a line drawn direct from NODMA to IMPAG (140638N 0503924E) then from IMPAG to TIMAD (115500N 0463500E), north of a line drawn direct from TIMAD to PARIM (123200N 0432720E), and east of a line drawn direct from PARIM to RIBOK (154700N 0415230E). Use of jet route UN303 is not authorized. (c) Permitted operations. This section does not prohibit persons described in paragraph (a) of this section from conducting flight operations in the Sanaa FIR (OYSC) under the following circumstances: (1) Permitted operations that do not require an approval or exemption from the FAA. Flight operations may be conducted in the Sanaa FIR (OYSC) in that airspace east of a line drawn direct from KAPET (163322N 0530614E) to NODMA (152603N 0533359E), southeast of a line drawn direct from NODMA to IMPAG (140638N 0503924E) then from IMPAG to TIMAD (115500N 0463500E), south of a line drawn direct from TIMAD to PARIM (123200N 0432720E), and west of a line drawn direct from PARIM to RIBOK (154700N 0415230E). Use of jet routes UT702 and M999 are authorized. All flight operations conducted under this subparagraph must be conducted subject to the approval of, and in accordance with the conditions established by, the appropriate authorities of Yemen. (2) Operations permitted under an approval or exemption issued by the FAA. Flight operations may be conducted in the Sanaa FIR (OYSC) in that airspace west of a line drawn direct from KAPET (163322N 0530614E) to NODMA (152603N 0533359E), northwest of a line drawn direct from NODMA to IMPAG (140638N 0503924E) then from IMPAG to TIMAD (115500N 0463500E), north of a line drawn direct from TIMAD to PARIM (123200N 0432720E), and east of a line drawn direct from PARIM to RIBOK (154700N 0415230E) if such flight operations are conducted under a contract, grant, or cooperative agreement with a department, agency, or instrumentality of the U.S. Government (or under a subcontract between the prime contractor of the U.S. Government department, agency, or instrumentality and the person subject to paragraph (a)), with the approval of the FAA, or under an exemption issued by the FAA. The FAA will consider requests for approval or exemption in a timely manner, with the order of preference being: First, for those operations in support of U.S. Government-sponsored activities; second, for those operations in support of government-sponsored activities of a foreign country with the support of a U.S. government department, agency, or instrumentality; and third, for all other operations. (d) Emergency situations. In an emergency that requires immediate decision and action for the safety of the flight, the pilot in command of an aircraft may deviate from this section to the extent required by that emergency. Except for U.S. air carriers and commercial operators that are subject to the requirements of 14 CFR part 119, 121, 125, or 135, each person who deviates from this section must, within 10 days of the deviation, excluding Saturdays, Sundays, and Federal holidays, submit to the responsible Flight Standards office a complete report of the operations of the aircraft involved in the deviation, including a description of the deviation and the reasons for it. (e) Expiration. This SFAR will remain in effect until January 7, 2028. The FAA may amend, rescind, or extend this SFAR, as necessary. [Amdt. 91-340B, 84 FR 67665, Dec. 11, 2019, as amended by Amdt. 91-340C, 86 FR 69173, Dec. 7, 2021; Docket FAA-2015-8672; Amdt. 91-340D, 88 FR 65320, Sept. 22, 2023; Amdt. 91-340E, 89 FR 106307, Dec. 30, 2024] § 91.1613 Special Federal Aviation Regulation No. 107—Prohibition Against Certain Flights in the Territory and Airspace of Somalia. (a) Applicability. This Special Federal Aviation Regulation (SFAR) applies to the following persons:

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(1) All U.S. air carriers and U.S. commercial operators; (2) All persons exercising the privileges of an airman certificate issued by the FAA, except when such persons are operating U.S.-registered aircraft for a foreign air carrier; and (3) All operators of U.S.-registered civil aircraft, except when the operator of such aircraft is a foreign air carrier. (b) Flight prohibition. Except as provided in paragraphs (c) and (d) of this section, no person described in paragraph (a) of this section may conduct flight operations in the territory and airspace of Somalia at altitudes below Flight Level (FL) 260. (c) Permitted operations. This section does not prohibit persons described in paragraph (a) of this section from conducting flight operations in the territory and airspace of Somalia under the following circumstances: (1) Overflights of Somalia may be conducted at altitudes at or above FL260 subject to the approval of, and in accordance with the conditions established by, the appropriate authorities of Somalia. (2) Aircraft departing from Djibouti Ambouli International Airport (International Civil Aviation Organization (ICAO) code: HDAM) may operate overwater in the territory and airspace of Somalia at altitudes below FL260 only to the extent necessary to permit a climb during takeoff if the operator of that aircraft: (i) Receives any necessary approval from the appropriate authorities of Djibouti; (ii) Conducts operations that comply with applicable conditions established by the appropriate authorities of Djibouti and air traffic control instructions; and (iii) Is either on a published instrument procedure or under the direction of air traffic control. (3) Aircraft descending into Djibouti Ambouli International Airport (HDAM) may operate overwater at altitudes below FL260 in the territory and airspace of Somalia only to the extent necessary to permit descent for landing at Djibouti Ambouli International Airport (HDAM), if the operator of that aircraft: (i) Receives any necessary approval from the appropriate authorities of Djibouti; (ii) Conducts operations that comply with applicable conditions established by the appropriate authorities of Djibouti and air traffic control instructions; and (iii) Is either on a published instrument procedure or under the direction of air traffic control. (4) Flight operations may be conducted in the territory and airspace of Somalia at altitudes below FL260 if such flight operations are conducted under a contract, grant, or cooperative agreement with a department, agency, or instrumentality of the U.S. Government (or under a subcontract between the prime contractor of the U.S. Government department, agency, or instrumentality and the person described in paragraph (a) of this section) with the approval of the FAA or under an exemption issued by the FAA. The FAA will consider requests for approval or exemption in a timely manner, with the order of preference being: First, for those operations in support of U.S. Government-sponsored activities; second, for those operations in support of government-sponsored activities of a foreign country with the support of a U.S. Government department, agency, or instrumentality; and third, for all other operations. (d) Emergency situations. In an emergency that requires immediate decision and action for the safety of the flight, the pilot in command of an aircraft may deviate from this section to the extent required by that emergency. Except for U.S. air carriers and commercial operators that are subject to the requirements of 14 CFR part 119, 121, 125, or 135, each person who deviates from this section must, within 10 days of the deviation, excluding Saturdays, Sundays, and Federal holidays, submit to the responsible Flight Standards office a complete report of the operations of the aircraft involved in the deviation, including a description of the deviation and the reasons for it. (e) Expiration. This SFAR will remain in effect until January 7, 2027. The FAA may amend, rescind, or extend this SFAR, as necessary.

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[Docket FAA-2007-27602, Amdt.91-339, 81 FR 726, Jan. 7, 2016, as amended by Amdt. 91-339A, 82 FR 58550, Dec. 13, 2017; Docket FAA-2018-0119, Amdt. 91-350, 83 FR 9172, Mar. 5, 2018; Amdt. 91-339B, 84 FR 67671, Dec. 11, 2019; Docket FAA-2007-27602, Amdt. 91-339C, 87 FR 79245, Dec. 27, 2022] § 91.1615 Special Federal Aviation Regulation No. 79—Prohibition Against Certain Flights in the Pyongyang Flight Information Region (FIR) (ZKKP). (a) Applicability. This Special Federal Aviation Regulation (SFAR) applies to the following persons: (1) All U.S. air carriers and U.S. commercial operators; (2) All persons exercising the privileges of an airman certificate issued by the FAA, except when such persons are operating U.S.-registered aircraft for a foreign air carrier; and (3) All operators of U.S.-registered civil aircraft, except when the operator of such aircraft is a foreign air carrier. (b) Flight prohibition. Except as provided in paragraphs (c) and (d) of this section, no person described in paragraph (a) of this section may conduct flight operations in the Pyongyang Flight Information Region (FIR) (ZKKP). (c) Permitted operations. This section does not prohibit persons described in paragraph (a) of this section from conducting flight operations in the Pyongyang Flight Information Region (FIR) (ZKKP), provided that such flight operations are conducted under a contract, grant, or cooperative agreement with a department, agency, or instrumentality of the U.S. government (or under a subcontract between the prime contractor of the department, agency, or instrumentality and the person described in paragraph (a) of this section) with the approval of the FAA, or under an exemption issued by the FAA. The FAA will consider requests for approval or exemption in a timely manner, with the order of preference being: First, for those operations in support of U.S. government-sponsored activities; second, for those operations in support of government-sponsored activities of a foreign country with the support of a U.S. Government department, agency, or instrumentality; and third, for all other operations. (d) Emergency situations. In an emergency that requires immediate decision and action for the safety of the flight, the pilot in command of an aircraft may deviate from this section to the extent required by that emergency. Except for U.S. air carriers and commercial operators that are subject to the requirements of 14 CFR part 119, 121, 125, or 135, each person who deviates from this section must, within 10 days of the deviation, excluding Saturdays, Sundays, and Federal holidays, submit to the responsible Flight Standards Office a complete report of the operations of the aircraft involved in the deviation, including a description of the deviation and the reasons for it. (e) Expiration. This SFAR will remain in effect until September 18, 2028. The FAA may amend, rescind, or extend this SFAR, as necessary. [Docket FAA-2018-0838, Amdt. 91-352, 83 FR 47064, Sept. 18, 2018, as amended by Amdt. 91-352A, 85 FR 55377, Sept. 8, 2020; Docket FAA-2018-0838, Amdt. 91-352B, 88 FR 63525, Sept. 15, 2023] § 91.1617 Special Federal Aviation Regulation No. 117—Prohibition Against Certain Flights in the Tehran Flight Information Region (FIR) (OIIX). (a) Applicability. This Special Federal Aviation Regulation (SFAR) applies to the following persons: (1) All U.S. air carriers and U.S. commercial operators; (2) All persons exercising the privileges of an airman certificate issued by the FAA, except when such persons are operating U.S.-registered aircraft for a foreign air carrier; and (3) All operators of U.S.-registered civil aircraft, except when the operator of such aircraft is a foreign air carrier. (b) Flight prohibition. Except as provided in paragraphs (c) and (d) of this section, no person described in paragraph (a) of this section may conduct flight operations in the Tehran Flight Information Region (FIR) (OIIX). (c) Permitted operations. This section does not prohibit persons described in paragraph (a) of this section from conducting flight operations in the Tehran FIR (OIIX), provided that such flight operations are conducted under a contract, grant, or cooperative agreement with a department, agency, or instrumentality of the U.S. Government (or under a subcontract between the prime contractor of the department, agency, or instrumentality and the person described in paragraph (a) of this section) with the approval of the FAA, or under an exemption issued by the FAA. The FAA will consider requests for approval or exemption in a timely manner, with the order of preference being: First, for those operations in support of U.S. Government-sponsored activities; second, for those operations in support of government-sponsored activities of a foreign country with the support of a U.S. Government department, agency, or instrumentality; and third, for all other operations.

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(d) Emergency situations. In an emergency that requires immediate decision and action for the safety of the flight, the pilot in command of an aircraft may deviate from this section to the extent required by that emergency. Except for U.S. air carriers and commercial operators that are subject to the requirements of 14 CFR parts 119, 121, 125, or 135, each person who deviates from this section must, within 10 days of the deviation, excluding Saturdays, Sundays, and Federal holidays, submit to the responsible Flight Standards Office a complete report of the operations of the aircraft involved in the deviation, including a description of the deviation and the reasons for it. (e) Expiration. This SFAR will remain in effect until October 31, 2027. The FAA may amend, rescind, or extend this SFAR as necessary. [Docket FAA-2020-0874, Amdt. 91-359, 85 FR 68440, Oct. 29, 2020, as amended by Amdt. 91-359A, 87 FR 57384, Sept. 20, 2022; Amdt. 91-359B, 89 FR 80390, Oct. 3, 2024] § 91.1619 Special Federal Aviation Regulation No. 119—Prohibition Against Certain Flights in the Kabul Flight Information Region (FIR) (OAKX). (a) Applicability. This Special Federal Aviation Regulation (SFAR) applies to the following persons: (1) All U.S. air carriers and U.S. commercial operators; (2) All persons exercising the privileges of an airman certificate issued by the FAA, except when such persons are operating U.S.-registered aircraft for a foreign air carrier; and (3) All operators of U.S.-registered civil aircraft, except when the operator of such aircraft is a foreign air carrier. (b) Flight prohibition. Except as provided in paragraphs (c) and (d) of this section, no person described in paragraph (a) of this section may conduct flight operations in the Kabul Flight Information Region (FIR) (OAKX). (c) Permitted operations. This section does not prohibit persons described in paragraph (a) of this section from conducting flight operations in the Kabul Flight Information Region (FIR) (OAKX) under the following circumstances: (1) Permitted operations that do not require an approval or exemption from the FAA. (i) Overflights of the Kabul Flight Information Region (FIR) (OAKX) may be conducted at altitudes at and above Flight Level (FL) 320, subject to the approval of, and in accordance with the conditions established by, the appropriate authorities of Afghanistan. (ii) Transiting overflights of the Kabul Flight Information Region (FIR) (OAKX) may be conducted on jet routes P500-G500 at altitudes at and above FL300, subject to the approval of, and in accordance with the conditions established by, the appropriate authorities of Afghanistan. (2) Operations permitted under an approval or exemption issued by the FAA. Flight operations may be conducted in the Kabul Flight Information Region (FIR) (OAKX) at altitudes below FL320, provided that such flight operations occur under a contract, grant, or cooperative agreement with a department, agency, or instrumentality of the U.S. Government (or under a subcontract between the prime contractor of the U.S. Government department, agency, or instrumentality and the person described in paragraph (a) of this section) with the approval of the FAA or under an exemption issued by the FAA. The FAA will consider requests for approval or exemption in a timely manner, with the order of preference being: first, for those operations in support of U.S. Government-sponsored activities; second, for those operations in support of government-sponsored activities of a foreign country with the support of a U.S. Government department, agency, or instrumentality; and third, for all other operations.

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(d) Emergency situations. In an emergency that requires immediate decision and action for the safety of the flight, the pilot in command of an aircraft may deviate from this section to the extent required by that emergency. Except for U.S. air carriers and commercial operators that are subject to the requirements of 14 CFR part 119, 121, 125, or 135, each person who deviates from this section must, within 10 days of the deviation, excluding Saturdays, Sundays, and Federal holidays, submit to the responsible Flight Standards Office a complete report of the operations of the aircraft involved in the deviation, including a description of the deviation and the reasons for it. (e) Expiration. This SFAR will remain in effect until July 25, 2025. The FAA may amend, rescind, or extend this SFAR as necessary. [Docket FAA-2023-1415, Amdt. 91-369, 88 FR 47771, July 25, 2023, as amended by Amdt. 91-369A, 89 FR 55507, July 5, 2024] Subpart N—Mitsubishi MU-2B Series Special Training, Experience, and Operating Requirements Source: Docket FAA-2006-24981, Amdt. 91-344, 81 FR 61591, Sept. 7, 2016, unless otherwise noted. § 91.1701 Applicability. (a) On and after November 7, 2016, all training conducted in an MU-2B must follow an approved MU-2B training program that meets the standards of this subpart. (b) This subpart applies to all persons who operate a Mitsubishi MU-2B series airplane, including those who act as pilot in command, act as second-in-command, or other persons who manipulate the controls while under the supervision of a pilot in command. (c) This subpart also applies to those persons who provide pilot training for a Mitsubishi MU-2B series airplane. The requirements in this subpart are in addition to the requirements of parts 61, 91, and 135 of this chapter. § 91.1703 Compliance and eligibility. (a) Except as provided in paragraph (b) of this section, no person may manipulate the controls, act as PIC, act as second-in-command, or provide pilot training for a Mitsubishi MU-2B series airplane unless that person meets the requirements of this subpart. (b) A person who does not meet the requirements of this subpart may manipulate the controls of a Mitsubishi MU-2B series airplane if a pilot in command who meets the requirements of this subpart is occupying a pilot station, no passengers or cargo are carried on board the airplane, and the flight is being conducted for one of the following reasons— (1) The pilot in command is providing pilot training to the manipulator of the controls; (2) The pilot in command is conducting a maintenance test flight with a second pilot or certificated mechanic; or (3) The pilot in command is conducting simulated instrument flight and is using a safety pilot other than the pilot in command who manipulates the controls for the purposes of § 91.109(b). (c) A person is required to complete Initial/transition training if that person has fewer than— (1) 50 hours of documented flight time manipulating the controls while serving as pilot in command of a Mitsubishi MU-2B series airplane in the preceding 24 months; or (2) 500 hours of documented flight time manipulating the controls while serving as pilot in command of a Mitsubishi MU-2B series airplane. (d) A person is eligible to receive Requalification training in lieu of Initial/transition training if that person has at least— (1) 50 hours of documented flight time manipulating the controls while serving as pilot in command of a Mitsubishi MU-2B series airplane in the preceding 24 months; or (2) 500 hours of documented flight time manipulating the controls while serving as pilot in command of a Mitsubishi MU-2B series airplane.

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(e) A person is required to complete Recurrent training within the preceding 12 months. Successful completion of Initial/transition or Requalification training within the preceding 12 months satisfies the requirement of Recurrent training. A person must successfully complete Initial/transition training or Requalification training before being eligible to receive Recurrent training. (f) Successful completion of Initial/transition training or Requalification training is a one-time requirement. A person may elect to retake Initial/transition training or Requalification training in lieu of Recurrent training. (g) A person is required to complete Differences training in accordance with an FAA approved MU-2B training program if that person operates more than one MU-2B model as specified in § 91.1707(c). § 91.1705 Required pilot training. (a) Except as provided in § 91.1703(b), no person may manipulate the controls, act as pilot in command, or act as second-in-command of a Mitsubishi MU-2B series airplane for the purpose of flight unless— (1) The requirements for ground and flight training on Initial/transition, Requalification, Recurrent, and Differences training have been completed in accordance with an FAA approved MU-2B training program that meets the standards of this subpart; and (2) That person's logbook has been endorsed in accordance with paragraph (f) of this section. (b) Except as provided in § 91.1703(b), no person may manipulate the controls, act as pilot in command, or act as second-in-command, of a Mitsubishi MU-2B series airplane for the purpose of flight unless— (1) That person satisfactorily completes, if applicable, annual Recurrent pilot training on the Special Emphasis Items, and all items listed in the Training Course Final Phase Check in accordance with an FAA approved MU-2B training program that meets the standards of this subpart; and (2) That person's logbook has been endorsed in accordance with paragraph (f) of this section. (c) Satisfactory completion of the competency check required by § 135.293 of this chapter within the preceding 12 calendar months may not be substituted for the Mitsubishi MU-2B series airplane annual recurrent flight training of this section. (d) Satisfactory completion of a Federal Aviation Administration sponsored pilot proficiency program, as described in § 61.56(e) of this chapter may not be substituted for the Mitsubishi MU-2B series airplane annual recurrent flight training of this section. (e) If a person complies with the requirements of paragraph (a) or (b) of this section in the calendar month before or the calendar month after the month in which compliance with these paragraphs are required, that person is considered to have accomplished the training requirement in the month the training is due. (f) The endorsement required under paragraph (a) and (b) of this section must be made by— (1) A certificated flight instructor or a simulator instructor authorized by a Training Center certificated under part 142 of this chapter and meeting the qualifications of § 91.1713; or (2) For persons operating the Mitsubishi MU-2B series airplane for a 14 CFR part 119 certificate holder within the last 12 calendar months, the part 119 certificate holder's flight instructor if authorized by the FAA and if that flight instructor meets the requirements of § 91.1713. (g) All training conducted for a Mitsubishi MU-2B series airplane must be completed in accordance with an MU-2B series airplane checklist that has been accepted by the Federal Aviation Administration's MU-2B Flight Standardization Board or the applicable MU-2B series checklist (incorporated by reference, see § 91.1721). (h) MU-2B training programs must contain ground training and flight training sufficient to ensure pilot proficiency for the safe operation of MU-2B aircraft, including: (1) A ground training curriculum sufficient to ensure pilot knowledge of MU-2B aircraft, aircraft systems, and procedures, necessary for safe operation; and

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(2) Flight training curriculum including flight training maneuver profiles sufficient in number and detail to ensure pilot proficiency in all MU-2B operations for each MU-2B model in correlation with MU-2B limitations, procedures, aircraft performance, and MU-2B Cockpit Checklist procedures applicable to the MU-2B model being trained. A MU-2B training program must contain, at a minimum, the following flight training maneuver profiles applicable to the MU-2B model being trained: (i) Normal takeoff with 5- and 20- degrees flaps; (ii) Takeoff engine failure with 5- and 20- degrees flaps; (iii) Takeoff engine failure on runway or rejected takeoff; (iv) Takeoff engine failure after liftoff—unable to climb (may be completed in classroom or flight training device only); (v) Steep turns; (vi) Slow flight maneuvers; (vii) One engine inoperative maneuvering with loss of directional control; (viii) Approach to stall in clean configuration and with wings level; (ix) Approach to stall in takeoff configuration with 15- to 30- degrees bank; (x) Approach to stall in landing configuration with gear down and 40-degrees of flaps; (xi) Accelerated stall with no flaps; (xii) Emergency descent at low speed; (xiii) Emergency descent at high speed; (xiv) Unusual attitude recovery with the nose high; (xv) Unusual attitude recovery with the nose low; (xvi) Normal landing with 20- and 40- degrees flaps; (xvii) Go around and rejected landing; (xviii) No flap or 5- degrees flaps landing; (xix) One engine inoperative landing with 5- and 20- degrees flaps; (xx) Crosswind landing; (xxi) Instrument landing system (ILS) and missed approach ; (xxii) Two engine missed approach; (xxiii) One engine inoperative ILS and missed approach; (xxiv) One engine inoperative missed approach; (xxv) Non-precision and missed approach; (xxvi) Non-precision continuous descent final approach and missed approach; (xxvii) One engine inoperative non-precision and missed approach; (xxviii) One engine inoperative non-precision CDFA and missed approach; (xxix) Circling approach at weather minimums; (xxx) One engine inoperative circling approach at weather minimums. (3) Flight training must include a final phase check sufficient to document pilot proficiency in the flight training maneuver profiles at the completion of training; and (4) Differences training for applicable MU-2B model variants sufficient to ensure pilot proficiency in each model operated. Current MU-2B differences requirements are specified in § 91.1707(c). A person must complete Differences training if a person operates more than one MU-2B model as specified in § 91.1707(c). Differences training between the factory type design K and M models of the MU-2B airplane, and the factory type design J and L models of the MU-2B airplane, may be accomplished with Level A training. All other factory type design differences training must be accomplished with Level B training unless otherwise specified in § 91.1707(c) . A Level A or B differences training is not a recurring annual requirement. Once a person has completed Initial Level A or B Differences training between the applicable different models, no additional differences training between those models is required. (5) Icing training sufficient to ensure pilot knowledge and safe operation of the MU-2B aircraft in icing conditions as established by the FAA; (6) Ground and flight training programs must include training hours identified by § 91.1707(a) for ground instruction, § 91.1707(b) for flight instruction, and § 91.1707(c) for differences training. (i) No training credit is given for second-in-command training and no credit is given for right seat time under this program. Only the sole manipulator of the controls of the MU-2B airplane, flight training device, or Level C or D simulator can receive training credit under this program;

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(ii) An MU-2B airplane must be operated in accordance with an FAA approved MU-2B training program that meets the standards of this subpart and the training hours in § 91.1707. (7) Endorsements given for compliance with paragraph (f) of this section must be appropriate to the content of that specific MU-2B training program's compliance with standards of this subpart. § 91.1707 Training program hours. (a) Ground instruction hours are listed in the following table:

Initial/transition	Requalification	Recurrent
20 hours	12 hours	8 hours.

(b) Flight instruction hours are listed in the following table:

Initial/transition	Requalification	Recurrent
12 hours with a minimum of 6 hours at level E	8 hours level C or level E	4 hours at level E, or 6 hours at level C.

(c) Differences training hours are listed in the following table:

2 factory type design models concurrently	1.5 hours required at level B.
More than 2 factory type design models concurrently	3 hours at level B.
Each additional factory type design model added separately	1.5 hours at level B.

(d) Definitions of levels of training as used in this subpart: (1) LEVEL A Training—Training that is conducted through self-instruction by the pilot. (2) LEVEL B Training—Training that is conducted in the classroom environment with the aid of a qualified instructor who meets the requirements of this subpart. (3) LEVEL C Training—Training that is accomplished in an FAA-approved Level 5 or 6 flight training device. In addition to the basic FTD requirements, the FTD must be representative of the MU-2B cockpit controls and be specifically approved by the FAA for the MU-2B airplane. (4) Level E Training—Training that must be accomplished in the MU-2B airplane, Level C simulator, or Level D simulator. § 91.1709 Training program approval. To obtain approval for an MU-2B training program, training providers must submit a proposed training program to the Administrator. (a) Only training programs approved by the Administrator may be used to satisfy the standards of this subpart. (b) For part 91 training providers, training programs will be approved for 24 months, unless sooner superseded or rescinded. (c) The Administrator may require revision of an approved MU-2B training program at any time. (d) A training provider must present its approved training program and FAA approval documentation to any representative of the Administrator, upon request. § 91.1711 Aeronautical experience. No person may act as a pilot in command of a Mitsubishi MU-2B series airplane for the purpose of flight unless that person holds an airplane category and multi-engine land class rating, and has logged a minimum of 100 flight hours of PIC time in multi-engine airplanes. § 91.1713 Instruction, checking, and evaluation. (a) Flight Instructor (Airplane). No flight instructor may provide instruction or conduct a flight review in a Mitsubishi MU-2B series airplane unless that flight instructor (1) Meets the pilot training and documentation requirements of § 91.1705 before giving flight instruction in the Mitsubishi MU-2B series airplane; (2) Meets the currency requirements of §§ 91.1715(a) and 91.1715(c) (3) Has a minimum total pilot time of 2,000 pilot-in-command hours and 800 pilot-in-command hours in multiengine airplanes; and

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(4) Has: (i) 300 pilot-in-command hours in the Mitsubishi MU-2B series airplane, 50 hours of which must have been within the preceding 12 months; or (ii) 100 pilot-in-command hours in the Mitsubishi MU-2B series airplane, 25 hours of which must have been within the preceding 12 months, and 300 hours providing instruction in a FAA-approved Mitsubishi MU-2B simulator or FAA-approved Mitsubishi MU-2B flight training device, 25 hours of which must have been within the preceding 12 months. (b) Flight Instructor (Simulator/Flight Training Device). No flight instructor may provide instruction for the Mitsubishi MU-2B series airplane unless that instructor meets the requirements of this paragraph— (1) Each flight instructor who provides flight training for the Mitsubishi MU-2B series airplane must meet the pilot training and documentation requirements of § 91.1705 before giving flight instruction for the Mitsubishi MU-2B series airplane; (2) Each flight instructor who provides flight training for the Mitsubishi MU-2B series airplane must meet the currency requirements of § 91.1715(c) before giving flight instruction for the Mitsubishi MU-2B series airplane; (3) Each flight instructor who provides flight training for the Mitsubishi MU-2B series airplane must have: (i) A minimum total pilot time of 2000 pilot-in-command hours and 800 pilot-in-command hours in multiengine airplanes; and (ii) Within the preceding 12 months, either 50 hours of Mitsubishi MU-2B series airplane pilot-in-command experience or 50 hours providing simulator or flight training device instruction for the Mitsubishi MU-2B. (c) Checking and evaluation. No person may provide checking or evaluation for the Mitsubishi MU-2B series airplane unless that person meets the requirements of this paragraph— (1) For the purpose of checking, designated pilot examiners, training center evaluators, and check airmen must have completed the appropriate training in the Mitsubishi MU-2B series airplane in accordance with § 91.1705; (2) For checking conducted in the Mitsubishi MU-2B series airplane, each designated pilot examiner and check airman must have 100 hours pilot-in-command flight time in the Mitsubishi MU-2B series airplane and maintain currency in accordance with § 91.1715. § 91.1715 Currency requirements and flight review. (a) The takeoff and landing currency requirements of § 61.57 of this chapter must be maintained in the Mitsubishi MU-2B series airplane. Takeoff and landings in other multiengine airplanes do not meet the takeoff and landing currency requirements for the Mitsubishi MU-2B series plane. Takeoff and landings in either the short-body or long-body Mitsubishi MU-2B model airplane may be credited toward takeoff and landing currency for both Mitsubishi MU-2B model groups. (b) Instrument experience obtained in other category and class of aircraft may be used to satisfy the instrument currency requirements of § 61.57 of this chapter for the Mitsubishi MU-2B series airplane. (c) Satisfactory completion of a flight review to satisfy the requirements of § 61.56 of this chapter is valid for operation of a Mitsubishi MU-2B series airplane only if that flight review is conducted in a Mitsubishi MU-2B series airplane or an MU-2B Simulator approved for landings with an approved course conducted under part 142 of this chapter. The flight review for Mitsubishi MU-2B series airplanes must include the Special Emphasis Items, and all items listed in the Training Course Final Phase Check in accordance with an approved MU-2B Training Program. (d) A person who successfully completes the Initial/transition, Requalification, or Recurrent training requirements under § 91.1705 of this chapter also meet the requirements of § 61.56 of this chapter and need not accomplish a separate flight review provided that at least 1 hour of the flight training was conducted in the Mitsubishi MU-2B series airplane or an MU-2B Simulator approved for landings with an approved course conducted under part 142 of this chapter.

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[Docket FAA-2006-24981, Amdt. 91-344, 81 FR 61591, Sept. 7, 2016; Amdt. 91-344A, 82 FR 21472, May 9, 2017] § 91.1717 Operating requirements. (a) Except as provided in paragraph (b) of this section, no person may operate a Mitsubishi MU-2B airplane in single pilot operations unless that airplane has a functional autopilot. (b) A person may operate a Mitsubishi MU-2B airplane in single pilot operations without a functional autopilot when— (1) Operating under day visual flight rule requirements; or (2) Authorized under a FAA approved minimum equipment list for that airplane, operating under instrument flight rule requirements in daytime visual meteorological conditions. (c) No person may operate a Mitsubishi MU-2B series airplane unless a copy of the appropriate Mitsubishi Heavy Industries MU-2B Airplane Flight Manual is carried on board the airplane and is accessible during each flight at the pilot station. (d) No person may operate a Mitsubishi MU-2B series airplane unless an MU-2B series airplane checklist, appropriate for the model being operated and accepted by the Federal Aviation Administration MU-2B Flight Standardization Board, is accessible for each flight at the pilot station and is used by the flight crewmembers when operating the airplane. (e) No person may operate a Mitsubishi MU-2B series airplane contrary to the standards of this subpart. (f) If there are any differences between the training and operating requirements of this subpart and the MU-2B Airplane Flight Manual's procedures sections (Normal, Abnormal, and Emergency) and the MU-2B airplane series checklist incorporated by reference in § 91.1721, the person operating the airplane must operate the airplane in accordance with the training specified in this subpart. § 91.1719 Credit for prior training. Initial/transition, requalification, recurrent or Level B differences training conducted prior to November 7, 2016, compliant with SFAR No. 108, Section 3 of this part, is considered to be compliant with this subpart, if the student met the eligibility requirements for the applicable category of training and the student's instructor met the experience requirements of this subpart. § 91.1721 Incorporation by reference. (a) The Mitsubishi Heavy Industries MU-2B Cockpit Checklists are incorporated by reference into this part. The Director of the Federal Register approved this incorporation by reference in accordance with 5 U.S.C. 552(a) and 1 CFR part 51. All approved material is available for inspection at U.S. Department of Transportation, Docket Management Facility, Room W 12-140, West Building Ground Floor, 1200 New Jersey Ave. SE., Washington, DC 20590-0001, or at the National Archives and Records Administration, call 202-741-6030, or go to: http://www.archives.gov/federal_register/code_of_federal_regulations/ibr_locations.html. (b) Mitsubishi Heavy Industries America, Inc., 4951 Airport Parkway, Suite 530, Addison, TX 75001. (1) Mitsubishi Heavy Industries MU-2B Checklists: (i) Cockpit Checklist, Model MU-2B-60, Type Certificate A10SW, MHI Document No. YET06220C, accepted by FSB on February 12, 2007. (ii) Cockpit Checklist, Model MU-2B-40, Type Certificate A10SW, MHI Document No. YET06256A, accepted by FSB on February 12, 2007. (iii) Cockpit Checklist, Model MU-2B-36A, Type Certificate A10SW, MHI Document No. YET06257B, accepted by FSB on February 12, 2007. (iv) Cockpit Checklist, Model MU-2B-36, Type Certificate A2PC, MHI Document No. YET06252B, accepted by FSB on February 12, 2007. (v) Cockpit Checklist, Model MU-2B-35, Type Certificate A2PC, MHI Document No. YET06251B, accepted by FSB on February 12, 2007. (vi) Cockpit Checklist, Model MU-2B-30, Type Certificate A2PC, MHI Document No. YET06250A, accepted by FSB on March 2, 2007. (vii) Cockpit Checklist, Model MU-2B-26A, Type Certificate A10SW, MHI Document No. YET06255A, accepted by FSB on February 12, 2007.

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(viii) Cockpit Checklist, Model MU-2B-26, Type Certificate A2PC, MHI Document No. YET06249A, accepted by FSB on March 2, 2007. (ix) Cockpit Checklist, Model MU-2B-26, Type Certificate A10SW, MHI Document No. YET06254A, accepted by FSB on March 2, 2007. (x) Cockpit Checklist, Model MU-2B-25, Type Certificate A10SW, MHI Document No. YET06253A, accepted by FSB on March 2, 2007. (xi) Cockpit Checklist, Model MU-2B-25, Type Certificate A2PC, MHI Document No. YET06248A, accepted by FSB on March 2, 2007. (xii) Cockpit Checklist, Model MU-2B-20, Type Certificate A2PC, MHI Document No. YET06247A, accepted by FSB on February 12, 2007. (xiii)-(xiv) [Reserved] (xv) Cockpit Checklist, Model MU-2B-15, Type Certificate A2PC, MHI Document No. YET06246A, accepted by FSB on March 2, 2007. (xvi) Cockpit Checklist, Model MU-2B-10, Type Certificate A2PC, MHI Document No. YET06245A, accepted by FSB on March 2, 2007. (xvii) Cockpit Checklist, Model MU-2B, Type Certificate A2PC, MHI Document No. YET06244A, accepted by FSB on March 2, 2007. (2) [Reserved] [Docket FAA-2006-24981, Amdt. 91-344, 81 FR 61591, Sept. 7, 2016; Amdt. 91-344A, 82 FR 21472, May 9, 2017]   Appendixes B—C [Reserved]
Pt. 91, App. A Appendix A to Part 91—Category II Operations: Manual, Instruments, Equipment, and Maintenance 1. Category II Manual (a) Application for approval. An applicant for approval of a Category II manual or an amendment to an approved Category II manual must submit the proposed manual or amendment to the responsible Flight Standards office. If the application requests an evaluation program, it must include the following: (1) The location of the aircraft and the place where the demonstrations are to be conducted; and (2) The date the demonstrations are to commence (at least 10 days after filing the application). (b) Contents. Each Category II manual must contain: (1) The registration number, make, and model of the aircraft to which it applies; (2) A maintenance program as specified in section 4 of this appendix; and (3) The procedures and instructions related to recognition of decision height, use of runway visual range information, approach monitoring, the decision region (the region between the middle marker and the decision height), the maximum permissible deviations of the basic ILS indicator within the decision region, a missed approach, use of airborne low approach equipment, minimum altitude for the use of the autopilot, instrument and equipment failure warning systems, instrument failure, and other procedures, instructions, and limitations that may be found necessary by the Administrator. 2. Required Instruments and Equipment The instruments and equipment listed in this section must be installed in each aircraft operated in a Category II operation. This section does not require duplication of instruments and equipment required by § 91.205 or any other provisions of this chapter. (a) Group I. (1) Two localizer and glide slope receiving systems. Each system must provide a basic ILS display and each side of the instrument panel must have a basic ILS display. However, a single localizer antenna and a single glide slope antenna may be used. (2) A communications system that does not affect the operation of at least one of the ILS systems. (3) A marker beacon receiver that provides distinctive aural and visual indications of the outer and the middle markers. (4) Two gyroscopic pitch and bank indicating systems. (5) Two gyroscopic direction indicating systems. (6) Two airspeed indicators. (7) Two sensitive altimeters adjustable for barometric pressure, each having a placarded correction for altimeter scale error and for the wheel height of the aircraft. After June 26, 1979, two sensitive altimeters adjustable for barometric pressure, having markings at 20-foot intervals and each having a placarded correction for altimeter scale error and for the wheel height of the aircraft. (8) Two vertical speed indicators. (9) A flight control guidance system that consists of either an automatic approach coupler or a flight director system. A flight director system must display computed information as steering command in relation to an ILS localizer and, on the same instrument, either computed information as pitch command in relation to an ILS glide slope or basic ILS glide slope information. An automatic approach coupler must provide at least automatic steering in relation to an ILS localizer. The flight control guidance system may be operated from one of the receiving systems required by subparagraph (1) of this paragraph.

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(10) For Category II operations with decision heights below 150 feet either a marker beacon receiver providing aural and visual indications of the inner marker or a radio altimeter. (b) Group II. (1) Warning systems for immediate detection by the pilot of system faults in items (1), (4), (5), and (9) of Group I and, if installed for use in Category III operations, the radio altimeter and autothrottle system. (2) Dual controls. (3) An externally vented static pressure system with an alternate static pressure source. (4) A windshield wiper or equivalent means of providing adequate cockpit visibility for a safe visual transition by either pilot to touchdown and rollout. (5) A heat source for each airspeed system pitot tube installed or an equivalent means of preventing malfunctioning due to icing of the pitot system. 3. Instruments and Equipment Approval (a) General. The instruments and equipment required by section 2 of this appendix must be approved as provided in this section before being used in Category II operations. Before presenting an aircraft for approval of the instruments and equipment, it must be shown that since the beginning of the 12th calendar month before the date of submission— (1) The ILS localizer and glide slope equipment were bench checked according to the manufacturer's instructions and found to meet those standards specified in RTCA Paper 23-63/DO-117 dated March 14, 1963, “Standard Adjustment Criteria for Airborne Localizer and Glide Slope Receivers,” which may be obtained from the RTCA Secretariat, 1425 K St., NW., Washington, DC 20005. (2) The altimeters and the static pressure systems were tested and inspected in accordance with appendix E to part 43 of this chapter; and (3) All other instruments and items of equipment specified in section 2(a) of this appendix that are listed in the proposed maintenance program were bench checked and found to meet the manufacturer's specifications. (b) Flight control guidance system. All components of the flight control guidance system must be approved as installed by the evaluation program specified in paragraph (e) of this section if they have not been approved for Category III operations under applicable type or supplemental type certification procedures. In addition, subsequent changes to make, model, or design of the components must be approved under this paragraph. Related systems or devices, such as the autothrottle and computed missed approach guidance system, must be approved in the same manner if they are to be used for Category II operations. (c) Radio altimeter. A radio altimeter must meet the performance criteria of this paragraph for original approval and after each subsequent alteration. (1) It must display to the flight crew clearly and positively the wheel height of the main landing gear above the terrain. (2) It must display wheel height above the terrain to an accuracy of plus or minus 5 feet or 5 percent, whichever is greater, under the following conditions: (i) Pitch angles of zero to plus or minus 5 degrees about the mean approach attitude. (ii) Roll angles of zero to 20 degrees in either direction. (iii) Forward velocities from minimum approach speed up to 200 knots. (iv) Sink rates from zero to 15 feet per second at altitudes from 100 to 200 feet. (3) Over level ground, it must track the actual altitude of the aircraft without significant lag or oscillation. (4) With the aircraft at an altitude of 200 feet or less, any abrupt change in terrain representing no more than 10 percent of the aircraft's altitude must not cause the altimeter to unlock, and indicator response to such changes must not exceed 0.1 seconds and, in addition, if the system unlocks for greater changes, it must reacquire the signal in less than 1 second. (5) Systems that contain a push-to-test feature must test the entire system (with or without an antenna) at a simulated altitude of less than 500 feet. (6) The system must provide to the flight crew a positive failure warning display any time there is a loss of power or an absence of ground return signals within the designed range of operating altitudes. (d) Other instruments and equipment. All other instruments and items of equipment required by § 2 of this appendix must be capable of performing as necessary for Category II operations. Approval is also required after each subsequent alteration to these instruments and items of equipment. (e) Evaluation program —(1) Application. Approval by evaluation is requested as a part of the application for approval of the Category II manual. (2) Demonstrations. Unless otherwise authorized by the Administrator, the evaluation program for each aircraft requires the demonstrations specified in this paragraph. At least 50 ILS approaches must be flown with at least five approaches on each of three different ILS facilities and no more than one half of the total approaches on any one ILS facility. All approaches shall be flown under simulated instrument conditions to a 100-foot decision height and 90 percent of the total approaches made must be successful. A successful approach is one in which—

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(i) At the 100-foot decision height, the indicated airspeed and heading are satisfactory for a normal flare and landing (speed must be plus or minus 5 knots of programmed airspeed, but may not be less than computed threshold speed if autothrottles are used); (ii) The aircraft at the 100-foot decision height, is positioned so that the cockpit is within, and tracking so as to remain within, the lateral confines of the runway extended; (iii) Deviation from glide slope after leaving the outer marker does not exceed 50 percent of full-scale deflection as displayed on the ILS indicator; (iv) No unusual roughness or excessive attitude changes occur after leaving the middle marker; and (v) In the case of an aircraft equipped with an approach coupler, the aircraft is sufficiently in trim when the approach coupler is disconnected at the decision height to allow for the continuation of a normal approach and landing. (3) Records. During the evaluation program the following information must be maintained by the applicant for the aircraft with respect to each approach and made available to the Adninistrator upon request: (i) Each deficiency in airborne instruments and equipment that prevented the initiation of an approach. (ii) The reasons for discontinuing an approach, including the altitude above the runway at which it was discontinued. (iii) Speed control at the 100-foot decision height if auto throttles are used. (iv) Trim condition of the aircraft upon disconnecting the auto coupler with respect to continuation to flare and landing. (v) Position of the aircraft at the middle marker and at the decision height indicated both on a diagram of the basic ILS display and a diagram of the runway extended to the middle marker. Estimated touchdown point must be indicated on the runway diagram. (vi) Compatibility of flight director with the auto coupler, if applicable. (vii) Quality of overall system performance. (4) Evaluation. A final evaluation of the flight control guidance system is made upon successful completion of the demonstrations. If no hazardous tendencies have been displayed or are otherwise known to exist, the system is approved as installed. 4. Maintenance program (a) Each maintenance program must contain the following: (1) A list of each instrument and item of equipment specified in § 2 of this appendix that is installed in the aircraft and approved for Category II operations, including the make and model of those specified in § 2(a). (2) A schedule that provides for the performance of inspections under subparagraph (5) of this paragraph within 3 calendar months after the date of the previous inspection. The inspection must be performed by a person authorized by part 43 of this chapter, except that each alternate inspection may be replaced by a functional flight check. This functional flight check must be performed by a pilot holding a Category II pilot authorization for the type aircraft checked. (3) A schedule that provides for the performance of bench checks for each listed instrument and item of equipment that is specified in section 2(a) within 12 calendar months after the date of the previous bench check. (4) A schedule that provides for the performance of a test and inspection of each static pressure system in accordance with appendix E to part 43 of this chapter within 12 calendar months after the date of the previous test and inspection. (5) The procedures for the performance of the periodic inspections and functional flight checks to determine the ability of each listed instrument and item of equipment specified in section 2(a) of this appendix to perform as approved for Category II operations including a procedure for recording functional flight checks. (6) A procedure for assuring that the pilot is informed of all defects in listed instruments and items of equipment. (7) A procedure for assuring that the condition of each listed instrument and item of equipment upon which maintenance is performed is at least equal to its Category II approval condition before it is returned to service for Category II operations. (8) A procedure for an entry in the maintenance records required by § 43.9 of this chapter that shows the date, airport, and reasons for each discontinued Category II operation because of a malfunction of a listed instrument or item of equipment. (b) Bench check. A bench check required by this section must comply with this paragraph. (1) It must be performed by a certificated repair station holding one of the following ratings as appropriate to the equipment checked: (i) An instrument rating. (ii) A radio rating. (2) It must consist of removal of an instrument or item of equipment and performance of the following: (i) A visual inspection for cleanliness, impending failure, and the need for lubrication, repair, or replacement of parts; (ii) Correction of items found by that visual inspection; and

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(iii) Calibration to at least the manufacturer's specifications unless otherwise specified in the approved Category II manual for the aircraft in which the instrument or item of equipment is installed. (c) Extensions. After the completion of one maintenance cycle of 12 calendar months, a request to extend the period for checks, tests, and inspections is approved if it is shown that the performance of particular equipment justifies the requested extension. [Docket 18334, 54 FR 34325, Aug. 18, 1989, as amended by Amdt. 91-269, 66 FR 41116, Aug. 6, 2001; Docket FAA-2018-0119, Amdt. 91-350, 83 FR 9172, Mar. 5, 2018] Pt. 91, App. D Appendix D to Part 91—Airports/Locations: Special Operating Restrictions Section 1. Locations at which the requirements of § 91.215(b)(2) and § 91.225(d)(2) apply. The requirements of §§ 91.215(b)(2) and 91.225(d)(2) apply below 10,000 feet MSL within a 30-nautical-mile radius of each location in the following list.

Atlanta, GA (Hartsfield-Jackson Atlanta International Airport) Baltimore, MD (Baltimore/Washington International Thurgood Marshall Airport) Boston, MA (General Edward Lawrence Logan International Airport) Camp Springs, MD (Joint Base Andrews) Chantilly, VA (Washington Dulles International Airport) Charlotte, NC (Charlotte/Douglas International Airport) Chicago, IL (Chicago-O'Hare International Airport) Cleveland, OH (Cleveland-Hopkins International Airport) Covington, KY (Cincinnati/Northern Kentucky International Airport) Dallas, TX (Dallas/Fort Worth International Airport) Denver, CO (Denver International Airport) Detroit, MI (Detroit Metropolitan Wayne County Airport) Honolulu, HI (Honolulu International Airport) Houston, TX (George Bush Intercontinental/Houston Airport) Houston, TX (William P. Hobby Airport) Kansas City, MO (Kansas City International Airport) Las Vegas, NV (McCarran International Airport) Los Angeles, CA (Los Angeles International Airport) Memphis, TN (Memphis International Airport) Miami, FL (Miami International Airport) Minneapolis, MN (Minneapolis-St. Paul International/Wold-Chamberlain Airport) Newark, NJ (Newark Liberty International Airport) New Orleans, LA (Louis Armstrong New Orleans International Airport) New York, NY (John F. Kennedy International Airport) New York, NY (LaGuardia Airport) Orlando, FL (Orlando International Airport) Philadelphia, PA (Philadelphia International Airport) Phoenix, AZ (Phoenix Sky Harbor International Airport) Pittsburgh, PA (Pittsburgh International Airport) St. Louis, MO (Lambert-St. Louis International Airport) Salt Lake City, UT (Salt Lake City International Airport) San Diego, CA (Miramar Marine Corps Air Station) San Diego, CA (San Diego International Airport) San Francisco, CA (San Francisco International Airport) Seattle, WA (Seattle-Tacoma International Airport) Tampa, FL (Tampa International Airport) Washington, DC (Ronald Reagan Washington National Airport) Section 2. Airports at which the requirements of § 91.215(b)(5)(ii) apply. [Reserved] Section 3. Locations at which fixed-wing Special VFR operations are prohibited. The Special VFR weather minimums of § 91.157 do not apply to the following airports: Atlanta, GA (Hartsfield-Jackson Atlanta International Airport) Baltimore, MD (Baltimore/Washington International Thurgood Marshall Airport) Boston, MA (General Edward Lawrence Logan International Airport) Buffalo, NY (Greater Buffalo International Airport) Camp Springs, MD (Joint Base Andrews) Chicago, IL (Chicago-O'Hare International Airport) Cleveland, OH (Cleveland-Hopkins International Airport) Columbus, OH (Port Columbus International Airport) Covington, KY (Cincinnati/Northern Kentucky International Airport) Dallas, TX (Dallas/Fort Worth International Airport) Dallas, TX (Dallas Love Field Airport) Denver, CO (Denver International Airport) Detroit, MI (Detroit Metropolitan Wayne County Airport) Honolulu, HI (Honolulu International Airport) Houston, TX (George Bush Intercontinental/Houston Airport) Indianapolis, IN (Indianapolis International Airport) Los Angeles, CA (Los Angeles International Airport)

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Louisville, KY (Louisville International Airport-Standiford Field) Memphis, TN (Memphis International Airport) Miami, FL (Miami International Airport) Minneapolis, MN (Minneapolis-St. Paul International/Wold-Chamberlain Airport) Newark, NJ (Newark Liberty International Airport) New York, NY (John F. Kennedy International Airport) New York, NY (LaGuardia Airport) New Orleans, LA (Louis Armstrong New Orleans International Airport) Philadelphia, PA (Philadelphia International Airport) Pittsburgh, PA (Pittsburgh International Airport) Portland, OR (Portland International Airport) San Francisco, CA (San Francisco International Airport) Seattle, WA (Seattle-Tacoma International Airport) St. Louis, MO (Lambert-St. Louis International Airport) Tampa, FL (Tampa International Airport) Washington, DC (Ronald Reagan Washington National Airport) Section 4. Locations at which solo student, sport, and recreational pilot activity is not permitted. Pursuant to § 91.131(b)(2), solo student, sport, and recreational pilot operations are not permitted at any of the following airports. Atlanta, GA (Hartsfield-Jackson Atlanta International Airport) Boston, MA (General Edward Lawrence Logan International Airport) Camp Springs, MD (Joint Base Andrews) Chicago, IL (Chicago-O'Hare International Airport) Dallas, TX (Dallas/Fort Worth International Airport) Los Angeles, CA (Los Angeles International Airport) Miami, FL (Miami International Airport) Newark, NJ (Newark Liberty International Airport) New York, NY (John F. Kennedy International Airport) New York, NY (LaGuardia Airport) San Francisco, CA (San Francisco International Airport) Washington, DC (Ronald Reagan Washington National Airport) [Amdt. 91-227, 56 FR 65661, Dec. 17, 1991] Editorial Note: For Federal Register citations affecting appendix D to part 91, see the List of CFR Sections Affected, which appears in the Finding Aids section of the printed volume and at www.govinfo.gov.

Effective Date Note: By Amdt. 91-236, 59 FR 2918, Jan. 19, 1994, as corrected by Amdt. 91-237, 59 FR 6547, Feb. 11, 1994, appendix D to part 91 was amended in sections 1 and 3 in the Denver, CO, entry by revising “Stapleton” to read “Denver” effective Mar. 9, 1994. By Amdt. 91-238, 59 FR 10958, Mar. 9, 1994, the effective date was delayed to May 15, 1994. By Amdt. 91-241, 59 FR 24916, May 13, 1994, the effective date was suspended indefinitely.

Pt. 91, App. E Appendix E to Part 91—Airplane Flight Recorder Specifications

Parameters	Range	Installed system  1 minimum accuracy (to recovered data)	Sampling interval (per second)	Resolution  4 read out
Relative Time (From Recorded on Prior to Takeoff)	8 hr minimum	±0.125% per hour	1	1 sec.
Indicated Airspeed	Vso to VD (KIAS)	±5% or ±10 kts., whichever is greater. Resolution 2 kts. below 175 KIAS	1	1%  3
Altitude	−1,000 ft. to max cert. alt. of A/C	±100 to ±700 ft. (see Table 1, TSO C51-a)	1	25 to 150 ft.
Magnetic Heading	360°	±5°	1	1°
Vertical Acceleration	−3g to + 6g	±0.2g in addition to ±0.3g maximum datum	4 (or 1 per second where peaks, ref. to 1g are recorded)	0.03g.
Longitudinal Acceleration	±1.0g	±1.5% max. range excluding datum error of ±5%	2	0.01g.
Pitch Attitude	100% of usable	±2°	1	0.8°
Roll Attitude	±60° or 100% of usable range, whichever is greater	±2°	1	0.8°
Stabilizer Trim Position, or	Full Range	±3% unless higher uniquely required	1	1%  3
Pitch Control Position  5
Engine Power, Each Engine:	Full Range	±3% unless higher uniquely required	1	1%  3
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Fan or N  1 Speed or EPR or Cockpit indications Used for Aircraft Certification OR	Maximum Range	±5%	1	1%  3
Prop. speed and Torque (Sample Once/Sec as Close together as Practicable)			1 (prop Speed) 1 (torque)	1% 3 1%  3
Altitude Rate  2 (need depends on altitude resolution)	±8,000 fpm	±10%. Resolution 250 fpm below 12,000 ft. indicated	1	250 fpm. below 12,000
Angle of Attack  2 (need depends on altitude resolution)	−20° to 40° or 100% of usable range	±2°	1	0.8% 3
Radio Transmitter Keying (Discrete)	On/Off		1
TE Flaps (Discrete or Analog)	Each discrete position (U, D, T/O, AAP) OR		1
LE Flaps (Discrete or Analog)	Analog 0-100% range	±3%	1	1% 3
	Each discrete position (U, D, T/O, AAP) OR		1
Thrust Reverser, Each Engine (Discrete)	Analog 0-100% range	±3°	1	1% 3
	Stowed or full reverse
Spoiler/Speedbrake (Discrete)	Stowed or out		1
Autopilot Engaged (Discrete)	Engaged or Disengaged		1
1  When data sources are aircraft instruments (except altimeters) of acceptable quality to fly the aircraft the recording system excluding these sensors (but including all other characteristics of the recording system) shall contribute no more than half of the values in this column.
2  If data from the altitude encoding altimeter (100 ft. resolution) is used, then either one of these parameters should also be recorded. If however, altitude is recorded at a minimum resolution of 25 feet, then these two parameters can be omitted.
3  Per cent of full range.
4  This column applies to aircraft manufactured after October 11, 1991.
5  For Pitch Control Position only, for all aircraft manufactured on or after April 6, 2012, the sampling interval (per second) is 8. Each input must be recorded at this rate. Alternately sampling inputs (interleaving) to meet this sampling interval is prohibited.

[Docket 18334, 54 FR 34327, Aug. 18, 1989, as amended by Amdt. 91-300, 73 FR 12565, Mar. 7, 2008; 73 FR 15280, Mar. 21, 2008; Amdt. 91-313, 75 FR 17046, Apr. 5, 2010; Amdt. 91-329, 78 FR 39971, July 3, 2013] Pt. 91, App. F Appendix F to Part 91—Helicopter Flight Recorder Specifications

Parameters	Range	Installed system  1 minimum accuracy (to recovered data)	Sampling interval (per second)	Resolution 3 read out
Relative Time (From Recorded on Prior to Takeoff)	4 hr minimum	±0.125% per hour	1	1 sec.
Indicated Airspeed	VM in to VD (KIAS) (minimum airspeed signal attainable with installed pilot-static system)	±5% or ±10 kts., whichever is greater	1	1 kt.
Altitude	−1,000 ft. to 20,000 ft. pressure altitude	±100 to ±700 ft. (see Table 1, TSO C51-a)	1	25 to 150 ft.
Magnetic Heading	360°	±5°	1	1°
Vertical Acceleration	−3g to + 6g	±0.2g in addition to ±0.3g maximum datum	4 (or 1 per second where peaks, ref. to 1g are recorded)	0.05g.
Longitudinal Acceleration	±1.0g	±1.5% max. range excluding datum error of ±5%	2	0.03g.
Pitch Attitude	100% of usable range	±2°	1	0.8°
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Roll Attitude	±60 or 100% of usable range, whichever is greater	±2°	1	0.8°
Altitude Rate	±8,000 fpm	±10% Resolution 250 fpm below 12,000 ft. indicated	1	250 fpm below 12,000.
Engine Power, Each Engine
Main Rotor Speed	Maximum Range	±5%	1	1%2.
Free or Power Turbine	Maximum Range	±5%	1	1%2.
Engine Torque	Maximum Range	±5%	1	1%2.
Flight Control Hydraulic Pressure
Primary (Discrete)	High/Low		1
Secondary—if applicable (Discrete)	High/Low		1
Radio Transmitter Keying (Discrete)	On/Off		1
Autopilot Engaged (Discrete)	Engaged or Disengaged		1
SAS Status-Engaged (Discrete)	Engaged or Disengaged		1
SAS Fault Status (Discrete)	Fault/OK		1
Flight Controls
Collective  4	Full range	±3%	2	1%2.
Pedal Position  4	Full range	±3%	2	1%2.
Lat. Cyclic  4	Full range	±3%	2	1%2.
Long. Cyclic  4	Full range	±3%	2	1%2.
Controllable Stabilator Position  4	Full range	±3%	2	1%2.
1  When data sources are aircraft instruments (except altimeters) of acceptable quality to fly the aircraft the recording system excluding these sensors (but including all other characteristics of the recording system) shall contribute no more than half of the values in this column.
2  Per cent of full range.
3  This column applies to aircraft manufactured after October 11, 1991.
4  For all aircraft manufactured on or after April 6, 2012, the sampling interval per second is 4.

[Docket 18334, 54 FR 34328, Aug. 18, 1989; 54 FR 41211, Oct. 5, 1989; 54 FR 53036, Dec. 26, 1989; Amdt. 91-300, 73 FR 12565, Mar. 7, 2008; 73 FR 15280, Mar. 21, 2008; Amdt. 91-313, 75 FR 17046, Apr. 5, 2010] Pt. 91, App. G Appendix G to Part 91—Operations in Reduced Vertical Separation Minimum (RVSM) Airspace Section 1. Definitions Reduced Vertical Separation Minimum (RVSM) Airspace. Within RVSM airspace, air traffic control (ATC) separates aircraft by a minimum of 1,000 feet vertically between FL 290 and FL 410 inclusive. Air-traffic control notifies operators of RVSM airspace by providing route planning information. RVSM Group Aircraft. Aircraft within a group of aircraft, approved as a group by the Administrator, in which each of the aircraft satisfy each of the following: (a) The aircraft have been manufactured to the same design, and have been approved under the same type certificate, amended type certificate, or supplemental type certificate. (b) The static system of each aircraft is installed in a manner and position that is the same as those of the other aircraft in the group. The same static source error correction is incorporated in each aircraft of the group. (c) The avionics units installed in each aircraft to meet the minimum RVSM equipment requirements of this appendix are: (1) Manufactured to the same manufacturer specification and have the same part number; or (2) Of a different manufacturer or part number, if the applicant demonstrates that the equipment provides equivalent system performance. RVSM Nongroup Aircraft. An aircraft that is approved for RVSM operations as an individual aircraft.

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RVSM Flight envelope. An RVSM flight envelope includes the range of Mach number, weight divided by atmospheric pressure ratio, and altitudes over which an aircraft is approved to be operated in cruising flight within RVSM airspace. RVSM flight envelopes are defined as follows: (a) The full RVSM flight envelope is bounded as follows: (1) The altitude flight envelope extends from FL 290 upward to the lowest altitude of the following: (i) FL 410 (the RVSM altitude limit); (ii) The maximum certificated altitude for the aircraft; or (iii) The altitude limited by cruise thrust, buffet, or other flight limitations. (2) The airspeed flight envelope extends: (i) From the airspeed of the slats/flaps-up maximum endurance (holding) airspeed, or the maneuvering airspeed, whichever is lower; (ii) To the maximum operating airspeed (V mo /M mo ), or airspeed limited by cruise thrust buffet, or other flight limitations, whichever is lower. (3) All permissible gross weights within the flight envelopes defined in paragraphs (1) and (2) of this definition. (b) The basic RVSM flight envelope is the same as the full RVSM flight envelope except that the airspeed flight envelope extends: (1) From the airspeed of the slats/flaps-up maximum endurance (holding) airspeed, or the maneuver airspeed, whichever is lower; (2) To the upper Mach/airspeed boundary defined for the full RVSM flight envelope, or a specified lower value not less than the long-range cruise Mach number plus .04 Mach, unless further limited by available cruise thrust, buffet, or other flight limitations. Section 2. Aircraft Approval (a) Except as specified in Section 9 of this appendix, an operator may be authorized to conduct RVSM operations if the Administrator finds that its aircraft comply with this section. (b) The applicant for authorization shall submit the appropriate data package for aircraft approval. The package must consist of at least the following: (1) An identification of the RVSM aircraft group or the nongroup aircraft; (2) A definition of the RVSM flight envelopes applicable to the subject aircraft; (3) Documentation that establishes compliance with the applicable RVSM aircraft requirements of this section; and (4) The conformity tests used to ensure that aircraft approved with the data package meet the RVSM aircraft requirements. (c) Altitude-keeping equipment: All aircraft. To approve an aircraft group or a nongroup aircraft, the Administrator must find that the aircraft meets the following requirements: (1) The aircraft must be equipped with two operational independent altitude measurement systems. (2) The aircraft must be equipped with at least one automatic altitude control system that controls the aircraft altitude— (i) Within a tolerance band of ±65 feet about an acquired altitude when the aircraft is operated in straight and level flight under nonturbulent, nongust conditions; or (ii) Within a tolerance band of ±130 feet under nonturbulent, nongust conditions for aircraft for which application for type certification occurred on or before April 9, 1997 that are equipped with an automatic altitude control system with flight management/performance system inputs. (3) The aircraft must be equipped with an altitude alert system that signals an alert when the altitude displayed to the flight crew deviates from the selected altitude by more than: (i) ±300 feet for aircraft for which application for type certification was made on or before April 9, 1997; or (ii) ±200 feet for aircraft for which application for type certification is made after April 9, 1997. (d) Altimetry system error containment: Group aircraft for which application for type certification was made on or before April 9, 1997. To approve group aircraft for which application for type certification was made on or before April 9, 1997, the Administrator must find that the altimetry system error (ASE) is contained as follows: (1) At the point in the basic RVSM flight envelope where mean ASE reaches its largest absolute value, the absolute value may not exceed 80 feet. (2) At the point in the basic RVSM flight envelope where mean ASE plus three standard deviations reaches its largest absolute value, the absolute value may not exceed 200 feet. (3) At the point in the full RVSM flight envelope where mean ASE reaches its largest absolute value, the absolute value may not exceed 120 feet. (4) At the point in the full RVSM flight envelope where mean ASE plus three standard deviations reaches its largest absolute value, the absolute value may not exceed 245 feet. (5) Necessary operating restrictions. If the applicant demonstrates that its aircraft otherwise comply with the ASE containment requirements, the Administrator may establish an operating restriction on that applicant's aircraft to restrict the aircraft from operating in areas of the basic RVSM flight envelope where the absolute value of mean ASE exceeds 80 feet, and/or the absolute value of mean ASE plus three standard deviations exceeds 200 feet; or from operating in areas of the full RVSM flight envelope where the absolute value of the mean ASE exceeds 120 feet and/or the absolute value of the mean ASE plus three standard deviations exceeds 245 feet.

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(e) Altimetry system error containment: Group aircraft for which application for type certification is made after April 9, 1997. To approve group aircraft for which application for type certification is made after April 9, 1997, the Administrator must find that the altimetry system error (ASE) is contained as follows: (1) At the point in the full RVSM flight envelope where mean ASE reaches its largest absolute value, the absolute value may not exceed 80 feet. (2) At the point in the full RVSM flight envelope where mean ASE plus three standard deviations reaches its largest absolute value, the absolute value may not exceed 200 feet. (f) Altimetry system error containment: Nongroup aircraft. To approve a nongroup aircraft, the Administrator must find that the altimetry system error (ASE) is contained as follows: (1) For each condition in the basic RVSM flight envelope, the largest combined absolute value for residual static source error plus the avionics error may not exceed 160 feet. (2) For each condition in the full RVSM flight envelope, the largest combined absolute value for residual static source error plus the avionics error may not exceed 200 feet. (g) Traffic Alert and Collision Avoidance System (TCAS) Compatibility With RVSM Operations: All aircraft. After March 31, 2002, unless otherwise authorized by the Administrator, if you operate an aircraft that is equipped with TCAS II in RVSM airspace, it must be a TCAS II that meets TSO C-119b (Version 7.0), or a later version. (h) If the Administrator finds that the applicant's aircraft comply with this section, the Administrator notifies the applicant in writing. Section 3. Operator Authorization (a) Except as specified in Section 9 of this appendix, authority for an operator to conduct flight in airspace where RVSM is applied is issued in operations specifications, a Letter of Authorization, or management specifications issued under subpart K of this part, as appropriate. To issue an RVSM authorization under this section, the Administrator must find that the operator's aircraft have been approved in accordance with Section 2 of this appendix and the operator complies with this section. (b) Except as specified in Section 9 of this appendix, an applicant seeking authorization to operate within RVSM airspace must apply in a form and manner prescribed by the Administrator. The application must include the following: (1) [Reserved] (2) For an applicant who operates under part 121 or 135 of this chapter or under subpart K of this part, initial and recurring pilot training requirements. (3) Policies and procedures: An applicant who operates under part 121 or 135 of this chapter or under subpart K of this part must submit RVSM policies and procedures that will enable it to conduct RVSM operations safely. (c) In a manner prescribed by the Administrator, an operator seeking authorization under this section must provide evidence that: (1) It is capable to operate and maintain each aircraft or aircraft group for which it applies for approval to operate in RVSM airspace; and (2) Each pilot has knowledge of RVSM requirements, policies, and procedures sufficient for the conduct of operations in RVSM airspace. Section 4. RVSM Operations (a) Each person requesting a clearance to operate within RVSM airspace shall correctly annotate the flight plan filed with air traffic control with the status of the operator and aircraft with regard to RVSM approval. Each operator shall verify RVSM applicability for the flight planned route through the appropriate flight planning information sources. (b) No person may show, on the flight plan filed with air traffic control, an operator or aircraft as approved for RVSM operations, or operate on a route or in an area where RVSM approval is required, unless: (1) The operator is authorized by the Administrator to perform such operations in accordance with Section 3 or Section 9 of this appendix, as applicable. (2) The aircraft— (i) Has been approved and complies with Section 2 this appendix; or (ii) Complies with Section 9 of this appendix. (3) Each pilot has knowledge of RVSM requirements, policies, and procedures sufficient for the conduct of operations in RVSM airspace. Section 5. Deviation Authority Approval The Administrator may authorize an aircraft operator to deviate from the requirements of §§ 91.180 or 91.706 for a specific flight in RVSM airspace if— (a) The operator submits a request in a time and manner acceptable to the Administrator; and (b) At the time of filing the flight plan for that flight, ATC determines that the aircraft may be provided appropriate separation and that the flight will not interfere with, or impose a burden on, RVSM operations.

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Section 6. Reporting Altitude-Keeping Errors Each operator shall report to the Administrator each event in which the operator's aircraft has exhibited the following altitude-keeping performance: (a) Total vertical error of 300 feet or more; (b) Altimetry system error of 245 feet or more; or (c) Assigned altitude deviation of 300 feet or more. Section 7. Removal or Amendment of Authority The Administrator may prohibit or restrict an operator from conducting operations in RVSM airspace, if the Administrator determines that the operator is not complying, or is unable to comply, with this appendix or subpart H of this part. Examples of reasons for amendment, revocation, or restriction include, but are not limited to, an operator's: (a) Committing one or more altitude-keeping errors in RVSM airspace; (b) Failing to make an effective and timely response to identify and correct an altitude-keeping error; or (c) Failing to report an altitude-keeping error. Section 8. Airspace Designation RVSM may be applied in all ICAO Flight Information Regions (FIRs). Section 9. Aircraft Equipped With Automatic Dependent Surveillance—Broadcast Out An operator is authorized to conduct flight in airspace in which RVSM is applied provided: (a) The aircraft is equipped with the following: (1) Two operational independent altitude measurement systems. (2) At least one automatic altitude control system that controls the aircraft altitude— (i) Within a tolerance band of ±65 feet about an acquired altitude when the aircraft is operated in straight and level flight under nonturbulent, nongust conditions; or (ii) Within a tolerance band of ±130 feet under nonturbulent, nongust conditions for aircraft for which application for type certification occurred on or before April 9, 1997, that are equipped with an automatic altitude control system with flight management/performance system inputs. (3) An altitude alert system that signals an alert when the altitude displayed to the flightcrew deviates from the selected altitude by more than— (i) ±300 feet for aircraft for which application for type certification was made on or before April 9, 1997; or (ii) ±200 feet for aircraft for which application for type certification is made after April 9, 1997. (4) A TCAS II that meets TSO C-119b (Version 7.0), or a later version, if equipped with TCAS II, unless otherwise authorized by the Administrator. (5) Unless authorized by ATC or the foreign country where the aircraft is operated, an ADS-B Out system that meets the equipment performance requirements of § 91.227 of this part. The aircraft must have its height-keeping performance monitored in a form and manner acceptable to the Administrator. (b) The altimetry system error (ASE) of the aircraft does not exceed 200 feet when operating in RVSM airspace. [Docket 28870, 62 FR 17487, Apr. 9, 1997, as amended by Amdt. 91-261, 65 FR 5942, Feb. 7, 2000; Amdt. 91-271, 66 FR 63895, Dec. 10, 2001; Amdt. 91-274, 68 FR 54584, Sept. 17, 2003; Amdt. 91-276, 68 FR 70133, Dec. 17, 2003; Docket FAA-2015-1746, Amdt. 91-342, 81 FR 47017, July 20, 2016; Docket FAA-2016-9154, Amdt. 91-348, 82 FR 39664, Aug. 22, 2017; Docket FAA-2017-0782, Amdt. 91-354, 83 FR 65492, Dec. 21, 2018] Pt. 93 PART 93—SPECIAL AIR TRAFFIC RULES Special Federal Aviation Regulation No. 60 [Note] Subpart A—General Sec. 93.1 Applicability. Subparts B-C [Reserved] Subpart D—Anchorage, Alaska, Terminal Area 93.51 Applicability. 93.53 Description of area. 93.55 Subdivision of Terminal Area. 93.57 General rules: All segments. 93.59 General rules: International segment. 93.61 General rules: Lake Hood segment. 93.63 General rules: Merrill segment. 93.65 General rules: Elmendorf segment. 93.67 General rules: Bryant segment. 93.68 General rules: Seward Highway segment. 93.69 Special requirements, Lake Campbell and Sixmile Lake Airports. Subpart E—Flight Restrictions in the Vicinity of Niagara Falls, New York 93.71 General operating procedures. Subpart F—Valparaiso, Florida, Terminal Area 93.80 Applicability. 93.81 Applicability and description of area. 93.83 Aircraft operations.

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Subpart G—Special Flight Rules in the Vicinity of Los Angeles International Airport 93.91 Applicability. 93.93 Description of area. 93.95 General operating procedures. 93.97 Operations in the SFRA. Subpart H—Mandatory Use of the New York North Shore Helicopter Route 93.101 Applicability 93.103 Helicopter operations. Subpart I [Reserved] Subpart J—Lorain County Regional Airport Traffic Rule 93.117 Applicability. 93.119 Aircraft operations. Subpart K—High Density Traffic Airports 93.121 Applicability. 93.123 High density traffic airports. 93.125 Arrival or departure reservation. 93.129 Additional operations. 93.130 Suspension of allocations. 93.133 Exceptions. Subpart L [Reserved] Subpart M—Ketchikan International Airport Traffic Rule 93.151 Applicability. 93.152 Description of area. 93.153 Communications. 93.155 Aircraft operations. Subpart N—Pearson Field (Vancouver, WA) Airport Traffic Rule 93.161 Applicability. 93.162 Description of area. 93.163 Aircraft operations. Subpart O—Special Flight Rules in the Vicinity of Luke AFB, AZ 93.175 Applicability. 93.176 Description of area. 93.177 Operations in the Special Air Traffic Rule Area. Subparts P-R [Reserved] Subpart S—Allocation of Commuter and Air Carrier IFR Operations at High Density Traffic Airports 93.211 Applicability. 93.213 Definitions and general provisions. 93.215 Initial allocation of slots. 93.217 Allocation of slots for international operations and applicable limitations. 93.218 Slots for transborder service to and from Canada. 93.219 Allocation of slots for essential air service operations and applicable limitations. 93.221 Transfer of slots. 93.223 Slot withdrawal. 93.224 Return of slots. 93.225 Lottery of available slots. 93.226 Allocation of slots in low-demand periods. 93.227 Slot use and loss. Subpart T—Ronald Reagan Washington National Airport Traffic Rules 93.251 Applicability. 93.253 Nonstop operations. Subpart U—Special Flight Rules in the Vicinity of Grand Canyon National Park, AZ 93.301 Applicability. 93.303 Definitions. 93.305 Flight-free zones and flight corridors. 93.307 Minimum flight altitudes. 93.309 General operating procedures. 93.311 Minimum terrain clearance. 93.313 Communications. 93.315 Limited category civil aircraft: Operating limitations. 93.316 [Reserved] 93.317 Commercial Special Flight Rules Area operation curfew. 93.319 Commercial air tour limitations. 93.321 Transfer and termination of allocations. 93.323 [Reserved] 93.325 Quarterly reporting. Appendix to Subpart U of Part 93—Special Flight Rules in the Vicinity of the Grand Canyon National Park, AZ Appendix A to Subpart U of Part 93—GCNP Quiet Aircraft Technology Designation Subpart V—Washington, DC Metropolitan Area Special Flight Rules Area 93.331 Purpose and applicability of this subpart. 93.333 Failure to comply with this subpart. 93.335 Definitions. 93.337 Requirements for operating in the DC SFRA. 93.339 Requirements for operating in the DC SFRA, including the DC FRZ. 93.341 Aircraft operations in the DC FRZ. 93.343 Requirements for aircraft operations to or from College Park Airport, Potomac Airfield, or Washington Executive/Hyde Field Airport.

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93.345 VFR outbound procedures for fringe airports. Subpart W—New York Class B Airspace Hudson River and East River Exclusion Special Flight Rules Area 93.350 Definitions. 93.351 General requirements for operating in the East River and/or Hudson River Exclusions. 93.352 Hudson River Exclusion specific operating procedures. 93.353 East River Exclusion specific operating procedures. Authority: 49 U.S.C. 106(f), 106(g), 40103, 40106, 40109, 40113, 44502, 44514, 44701, 44715, 44719, 46301. Pt. 93, SFAR No. 60, Nt. Special Federal Aviation Regulation No. 60 Editorial Note: For the text of SFAR No. 60, see part 91 of this chapter.

Subpart A—General § 93.1 Applicability. This part prescribes special air traffic rules for operating aircraft in certain areas described in this part, unless otherwise authorized by air traffic control. [Docket FAA-2002-13235, 68 FR 9795, Feb. 28, 2003] Subparts B-C [Reserved] Subpart D—Anchorage, Alaska, Terminal Area Source: Docket 29029, 64 FR 14976, Mar. 29, 1999, unless otherwise noted. § 93.51 Applicability. This subpart prescribes special air traffic rules for aircraft operating in the Anchorage, Alaska, Terminal Area. [Docket FAA-2002-13235, 68 FR 9795, Feb. 28, 2003] § 93.53 Description of area. The Anchorage, Alaska, Terminal Area is designated as that airspace extending upward from the surface to the upper limit of each of the segments described in § 93.55. It is bounded by a line beginning at Point MacKenzie, extending westerly along the bank of Knik Arm to a point intersecting the 350° bearing from the Anchorage International ATCT; thence north to intercept the 5.2-mile arc centered on the geographical center of Anchorage, Alaska, ATCT; thence counterclockwise along that arc to its intersection with a line bearing 180° from the intersection of the new Seward Highway and International Airport Road; thence due north to O'Malley Road; thence east along O'Malley Road to its intersection with Lake Otis Parkway; thence northerly along Lake Otis Parkway to its intersection with Abbott Road; thence east along Abbott Road to its intersection with Abbott Loop Road; thence north to its intersection with Tudor Road; thence easterly along Tudor Road to its intersection with Muldoon Road; thence northerly along Muldoon Road to the intersection of the Glenn Highway; thence north and east along the Glenn Highway to Ski Bowl Road; thence southeast along the Ski Bowl Road to a point one-half mile south of the Glenn Highway; thence north and east one-half mile south of and parallel to the Glenn Highway to its intersection with a line one-half mile east of and parallel to the Bryant Airport Runway 16/34 extended centerline; thence northeast along a line one-half mile east of and parallel to Bryant Airport Runway 16/34 extended centerline to lat. 61°17′13″ N., long. 149°37′35″ W.; thence west along lat. 61°17′13″ N., to long. 149°43′08″ W.; thence north along long. 149°43′08″ W., to lat. 61°17′30″ N.; thence to lat. 61°17′58″ N., long 149°44′08″ W.; thence to lat. 61°19′10″ N., long. 149°46′44″ W.; thence north along long. 149°46′44″ W., to intercept the 4.7-mile radius arc centered on Elmendorf Air Force Base (AFB), Alaska; thence counterclockwise along the 4.7-mile radius arc to its intersection with the west bank of Knik Arm; thence southerly along the west bank of Knik Arm to the point of beginning. [Docket 29029, 64 FR 14976, Mar. 29, 1999; Amdt. 93-77, 64 FR 17439, Apr. 9, 1999] § 93.55 Subdivision of Terminal Area. The Anchorage, Alaska, Terminal Area is subdivided as follows: (a) International segment. That area from the surface to and including 4,100 feet MSL, within a 5.2-mile radius of the Anchorage International ATCT; excluding that airspace east of the 350° bearing from the Anchorage International ATCT and north of the 090° bearing from the Anchorage International ATCT and east of a line bearing 180° and 360° from the intersection of the new Seward Highway and International Airport Road and the airspace extending upward from the surface to but not including 600 feet MSL, south of lat. 61°08′28″ N.

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(b) Merrill segment. That area from the surface to and including 2,500 feet MSL, within a line beginning at Point Noname; thence direct to the mouth of Ship Creek; thence direct to the intersection of the Glenn Highway and Muldoon Road; thence south along Muldoon Road to Tudor Road; thence west along Tudor Road to the new Seward Highway; thence direct to West Anchorage High School; thence direct to Point MacKenzie; thence via the north bank of Knik Arm to the point of beginning. (c) Lake Hood segment. That area from the surface to and including 2,500 feet MSL, within a line beginning at Point MacKenzie; thence direct to West Anchorage High School; thence direct to the intersection of Tudor Road and the new Seward Highway; thence south along the new Seward Highway to the 090° bearing from the Anchorage International ATCT; thence west direct to the Anchorage International ATCT; thence north along the 350° bearing from the Anchorage International ATCT to the north bank of Knik arm; thence via the north bank of Knik Arm to the point of beginning. (d) Elmendorf segment. That area from the surface to and including 3,000 feet MSL, within a line beginning at Point Noname; thence via the north bank of Knik Arm to the intersection of the 4.7-mile radius of Elmendorf AFB; thence clockwise along the 4.7-mile radius of Elmendorf AFB to long. 149°46′44″ W.; thence south along long. 149°46′44″ W. to lat. 61°19′10″ N.; thence to lat. 61°17′58″ N., long. 149°44′08″ W.; thence to lat. 61°17′30″ N., long. 149°43′08″ W.; thence south along long. 149°43′08″ W. to the Glenn Highway; thence south and west along the Glenn Highway to Muldoon Road; thence direct to the mouth of Ship Creek; thence direct to the point of beginning. (e) Bryant segment. That area from the surface to and including 2,000 feet MSL, within a line beginning at lat. 61°17′13″ N., long. 149°37′35″ W.; thence west along lat. 61°17′13″ N., to long. 149°43′08″ W.; thence south along long. 149°43′08″ W., to the Glenn Highway; thence north and east along the Glenn Highway to Ski Bowl Road; thence southeast along the Ski Bowl Road to a point one-half mile south of the Glenn Highway; thence north and east one-half mile south of and parallel to the Glenn Highway to its intersection with a line one-half mile east of and parallel to the Bryant Airport Runway 16/34 extended centerline; thence northeast along a line one-half mile east of and parallel to Bryant Airport runway 16/34 extended centerline to the point of beginning. (f) Seward Highway segment. That area from the surface to and including 4,100 feet MSL, within a line beginning at the intersection of a line bearing 180° from the intersection of the new Seward Highway and International Airport Road, and O'Malley Road; thence east along O'Malley Road to its intersection with Lake Otis Park Way, lat. 61°07′23″ N., long 149°50′03″ W.; thence northerly along Lake Otis Park Way to its intersection with Abbott Road, lat. 61°08′14″ N., long. 149°50′03″ W.; thence east along Abbott Road to its intersection with Abbott Loop Road, lat. 61°08′14″ N., long. 149°48′16″ W.; thence due north to intersect with Tudor Road, lat. 61°10′51″ N., long. 149°48′16″ W.; thence west along Tudor Road to its intersection with the new Seward Highway, lat. 61°10′51″ N., long. 149°51′38″ W.; thence south along the new Seward Highway to its intersection with a line bearing 180° and 360° from the intersection of the new Seward Highway and International Airport Road; thence south to the point of beginning. [Docket 29029, 64 FR 14976, Mar. 29, 1999; Amdt. 93-77, 64 FR 17439, Apr. 9, 1999] § 93.57 General rules: All segments. (a) Each person operating an aircraft to, from, or on an airport within the Anchorage, Alaska, Terminal Area shall operate that aircraft according to the rules set forth in this section and §§ 93.59, 93.61, 93.63, 93.65, 93.67, or 93.68 as applicable, unless otherwise authorized or required by ATC.

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(b) Each person operating an airplane within the Anchorage, Alaska Terminal Area shall conform to the flow of traffic depicted on the appropriate aeronautical charts. (c) Each person operating a helicopter shall operate it in a manner so as to avoid the flow of airplanes. (d) Except as provided in § 93.65 (d) and (e), and § 93.67(b), each person operating an aircraft in the Anchorage, Alaska, Terminal Area shall operate that aircraft only within the designated segment containing the arrival or departure airport. (e) Except as provided in §§ 93.63(d) and 93.67(b), each person operating an aircraft in the Anchorage, Alaska, Terminal Area shall maintain two-way radio communications with the ATCT serving the segment containing the arrival or departure airport. § 93.59 General rules: International segment. (a) No person may operate an aircraft at an altitude between 1,200 feet MSL and 2,000 feet MSL in that portion of this segment lying north of the midchannel of Knik Arm. (b) Each person operating an airplane at a speed of more than 105 knots within this segment (except that part described in paragraph (a) of this section) shall operate that airplane at an altitude of at least 1,600 feet MSL until maneuvering for a safe landing requires further descent. (c) Each person operating an airplane at a speed of 105 knots or less within this segment (except that part described in paragraph (a) of this section) shall operate that airplane at an altitude of at least 900 feet MSL until maneuvering for a safe landing requires further descent. § 93.61 General rules: Lake Hood segment. (a) No person may operate an aircraft at an altitude between 1,200 feet MSL and 2,000 feet MSL in that portion of this segment lying north of the midchannel of Knik Arm. (b) Each person operating an airplane within this segment (except that part described in paragraph (a) of this section) shall operate that airplane at an altitude of at least 600 feet MSL until maneuvering for a safe landing requires further descent. § 93.63 General rules: Merrill segment. (a) No person may operate an aircraft at an altitude between 600 feet MSL and 2,000 feet MSL in that portion of this segment lying north of the midchannel of Knik Arm. (b) Each person operating an airplane at a speed of more than 105 knots within this segment (except for that part described in paragraph (a) of this section) shall operate that airplane at an altitude of at least 1,200 feet MSL until maneuvering for a safe landing requires further descent. (c) Each person operating an airplane at a speed of 105 knots or less within this segment (except for that part described in paragraph (a) of this section) shall operate that airplane at an altitude of at least 900 feet MSL until maneuvering for a safe landing requires further descent. (d) Whenever the Merrill ATCT is not operating, each person operating an aircraft either in that portion of the Merrill segment north of midchannel of Knik Arm, or in the Seward Highway segment at or below 1200 feet MSL, shall contact Anchorage Approach Control for wake turbulence and other advisories. Aircraft operating within the remainder of the segment should self-announce intentions on the Merrill Field CTAF. § 93.65 General rules: Elmendorf segment. (a) Each person operating a turbine-powered aircraft within this segment shall operate that aircraft at an altitude of at least 1,700 feet MSL until maneuvering for a safe landing requires further descent. (b) Each person operating an airplane (other than turbine-powered aircraft) at a speed of more than 105 knots within this segment shall operate that airplane at an altitude of at least 1,200 feet MSL until maneuvering for a safe landing requires further descent.

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(c) Each person operating an airplane (other than turbine-powered aircraft) at a speed of 105 knots or less within the segment shall operate that airplane at an altitude of at least 800 feet MSL until maneuvering for a safe landing requires further descent. (d) A person landing or departing from Elmendorf AFB, may operate that aircraft at an altitude between 1,500 feet MSL and 1,700 feet MSL within that portion of the International and Lake Hood segments lying north of the midchannel of Knik Arm. (e) A person landing or departing from Elmendorf AFB, may operate that aircraft at an altitude between 900 feet MSL and 1,700 feet MSL within that portion of the Merrill segment lying north of the midchannel of Knik Arm. (f) A person operating in VFR conditions, at or below 600 feet MSL, north of a line beginning at the intersection of Farrell Road and the long. 149°43′08″ W.; thence west along Farrell Road to the east end of Sixmile Lake; thence west along a line bearing on the middle of Lake Lorraine to the northwest bank of Knik Arm; is not required to establish two-way radio communications with ATC. [Docket 29029, 64 FR 14977, Mar. 29, 1999; Amdt. 93-77, 64 FR 17439, Apr. 9, 1999] § 93.67 General rules: Bryant segment. (a) Each person operating an airplane to or from the Bryant Airport shall conform to the flow of traffic shown on the appropriate aeronautical charts, and while in the traffic pattern, shall operate that airplane at an altitude of at least 1,000 feet MSL until maneuvering for a safe landing requires further descent. (b) Each person operating an aircraft within the Bryant segment should self-announce intentions on the Bryant Airport CTAF. § 93.68 General rules: Seward Highway segment. (a) Each person operating an airplane in the Seward Highway segment shall operate that airplane at an altitude of at least 1,000 feet MSL unless maneuvering for a safe landing requires further descent. (b) Each person operating an aircraft at or below 1,200 feet MSL that will transition to or from the Lake Hood or Merrill segment shall contact the appropriate ATCT prior to entering the Seward Highway segment. All other persons operating an airplane at or below 1,200 feet MSL in this segment shall contact Anchorage Approach Control. (c) At all times, each person operating an aircraft above 1,200 MSL shall contact Anchorage Approach Control prior to entering the Seward Highway segment. § 93.69 Special requirements, Lake Campbell and Sixmile Lake Airports. Each person operating an aircraft to or from Lake Campbell or Sixmile Lake Airport shall conform to the flow of traffic for the Lake operations that are depicted on the appropriate aeronautical charts. Subpart E—Flight Restrictions in the Vicinity of Niagara Falls, New York § 93.71 General operating procedures. (a) Flight restrictions are in effect below 3,500 feet MSL in the airspace above Niagara Falls, New York, west of a line from latitude 43°06′33″ N., longitude 79°03′30″ W. (the Whirlpool Rapids Bridge) to latitude 43°04′47″ N., longitude 79°02′44″ W. (the Niagara River Inlet) to latitude 43°04′29″ N., longitude 79°03′30″ W. (the International Control Dam) to the United States/Canadian Border and thence along the border to the point of origin. (b) No flight is authorized below 3,500 feet MSL in the area described in paragraph (a) of this section, except for aircraft operations conducted directly to or from an airport/heliport within the area, aircraft operating on an ATC-approved IFR flight plan, aircraft operating the Scenic Falls Route pursuant to approval of Transport Canada, aircraft carrying law enforcement officials, or aircraft carrying properly accredited news representatives for which a flight plan has been filed with Buffalo NY (BUF) Automated Flight Service Station (AFSS). (c) Check with Transport Canada for flight restrictions in Canadian airspace. Commercial air tour operations approved by Transport Canada will be conducting a north/south orbit of the Niagara Falls area below 3,500 feet MSL over the Niagara River.

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(d) The minimum altitude for VFR flight over the Scenic Falls area is 3,500 feet MSL. (e) Comply with the following procedures when conducting flight over the area described in paragraph (a) of this section: (1) Fly a clockwise pattern; (2) Do not proceed north of the Rainbow Bridge; (3) Prior to joining the pattern, broadcast flight intentions on frequency 122.05 Mhz, giving altitude and position, and monitor the frequency while in the pattern; (4) Use the Niagara Falls airport altimeter setting. Contact Niagara Falls Airport Traffic Control Tower to obtain the current altimeter setting, to facilitate the exchange of traffic advisories/restrictions, and to reduce the risk of midair collisions between aircraft operating in the vicinity of the Falls. If the Control Tower is closed, use the appropriate Automatic Terminal Information Service (ATIS) Frequency; (5) Do not exceed 130 knots; (6) Anticipate heavy congestion of VFR traffic at or above 3,500 feet MSL; and (7) Use caution to avoid high-speed civil and military aircraft transiting the area to or from Niagara Falls Airport. (f) These procedures do not relieve pilots from the requirements of § 91.113 of this chapter to see and avoid other aircraft. (g) Flight following, to and from the area, is available through Buffalo Approach. [Docket FAA-2002-13235, 68 FR 9795, Feb. 28, 2003] Subpart F—Valparaiso, Florida, Terminal Area § 93.80 Applicability. This subpart prescribes special air traffic rules for aircraft operating in the Valparaiso, Florida, Terminal Area. [Docket FAA-2002-13235, 68 FR 9795, Feb. 28, 2003] § 93.81 Applicability and description of area. The Valparaiso, Florida Terminal Area is designated as follows: (a) North-South Corridor. The North-South Corridor includes the airspace extending upward from the surface up to, but not including, 18,000 feet MSL, bounded by a line beginning at: Latitude 30°42′51″ N., Longitude 86°38′02″ W.; to Latitude 30°43′18″ N., Longitude 86°27′37″ W.; to Latitude 30°37′01″ N., Longitude 86°27′37″ W.; to Latitude 30°37′01″ N., Longitude 86°25′30″ W.; to Latitude 30°33′01″ N., Longitude 86°25′30″ W.; to Latitude 30°33′01″ N., Longitude 86°25′00″ W.; to Latitude 30°25′01″ N., Longitude 86°25′00″ W.; to Latitude 30°25′01″ N., Longitude 86°38′12″ W.; to Latitude 30°29′02″ N., Longitude 86°38′02″ W.; to point of beginning. (b) East-West Corridor. The East-West Corridor is divided into three sections to accommodate the different altitudes as portions of the corridor underlie restricted areas R-2915C, R-2919B, and R-2914B. (1) The west section includes that airspace extending upward from the surface to but not including 8,500 feet MSL, bounded by a line beginning at: Latitude 30°22′47″ N, Longitude 86°51′30″ W: then along the shoreline to Latitude 30°23′46″ N, Longitude 86°38′15″ W; to Latitude 30°20′47″ N, Longitude-86°38′51″ W”; then 3 NM from and parallel to the shoreline to Latitude 30°19′45″ N, Longitude 86°51′30″ W”; to the beginning. (2) The center section would include that airspace extending upward from the surface to but not including 18,000 feet MSL, bounded by a line beginning at: Latitude 30°25′01″ N, Longitude 86°38′12″ W; to Latitude 30°25′01″ N, Longitude 86°25′00″ W; to Latitude 30°25′01″ N, Longitude 86°22′26″ W; to Latitude 30°19′41″ N, Longitude 86°23′46″ W; then 3 NM from and parallel to the shoreline to Latitude 30°20′47″ N, Longitude 86°38′51″ W; to Latitude 30°23′46″ N, Longitude 86°38′15″ W; to the beginning.

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(3) The east section includes that airspace extending upward from the surface to but not including 8,500 feet MSL, bounded by a line beginning at: Latitude 30°25′01″ N, Longitude 86°22′26″ W; to Latitude 30°22′01″ N, Longitude 86°08′00″ W; to Latitude 30°19′16″ N, Longitude 85°56′00″ W; to Latitude 30°11′08″ N, Longitude 85°56′00″ W; then 3 NM from and parallel to the shoreline to Latitude 30°19′41″ N, Longitude 86°23′46″ W; to the beginning. [Amdt. 93-70, 59 FR 46154, Sept. 6, 1994, as amended by Amdt. 93-82, 68 FR 9795, Feb. 28, 2003; Docket FAA-2024-1669, Amdt. 93-104, 89 FR 52362, June 24, 2024; Amdt. 93-104A, 89 FR 56821, July 11, 2024] § 93.83 Aircraft operations. (a) North-South Corridor. Unless otherwise authorized by ATC (including the Eglin Radar Control Facility), no person may operate an aircraft in flight within the North-South Corridor designated in § 93.81(b)(1) unless— (1) Before operating within the corridor, that person obtains a clearance from the Eglin Radar Control Facility or an appropriate FAA ATC facility; and (2) That person maintains two-way radio communication with the Eglin Radar Control Facility or an appropriate FAA ATC facility while within the corridor. (b) East-West Corridor. Unless otherwise authorized by ATC (including the Eglin Radar Control Facility), no person may operate an aircraft in flight within the East-West Corridor designated in § 93.81(b)(2) unless— (1) Before operating within the corridor, that person establishes two-way radio communications with Eglin Radar Control Facility or an appropriate FAA ATC facility and receives an ATC advisory concerning operations being conducted therein; and (2) That person maintains two-way radio communications with the Eglin Radar Control Facility or an appropriate FAA ATC facility while within the corridor. [Amdt. 93-70, 59 FR 46155, Sept. 6, 1994] Subpart G—Special Flight Rules in the Vicinity of Los Angeles International Airport Source: Docket FAA-2002-14149, 68 FR 41214, July 10, 2003, unless otherwise noted. § 93.91 Applicability. This subpart prescribes special air traffic rules for aircraft conducting VFR operations in the Los Angeles, California Special Flight Rules Area. § 93.93 Description of area. The Los Angeles Special Flight Rules Area is designated as that part of Area A of the Los Angeles Class B airspace area at 3,500 feet above mean sea level (MSL) and at 4,500 feet MSL, beginning at Ballona Creek/Pacific Ocean (lat. 33°57′42″ N, long. 118°27′23″ W), then eastbound along Manchester Blvd. to the intersection of Manchester/405 Freeway (lat. 33°57′42″ N, long. 118°22′10″ W), then southbound along the 405 Freeway to the intersection of the 405 Freeway/Imperial Highway (lat. 33°55′51″ N, long. 118°22′06″ W), then westbound along Imperial Highway to the intersection of Imperial Highway/Pacific Ocean (lat. 33°55′51″ N, long. 118°26′05″ W), then northbound along the shoreline to the point of beginning. § 93.95 General operating procedures. Unless otherwise authorized by the Administrator, no person may operate an aircraft in the airspace described in § 93.93 unless the operation is conducted in accordance with the following procedures: (a) The flight must be conducted under VFR and only when operation may be conducted in compliance with § 91.155(a) of this chapter. (b) The aircraft must be equipped as specified in § 91.215(b) of this chapter replying on code 1201 prior to entering and while operating in this area. (c) The pilot shall have a current Los Angeles Terminal Area Chart in the aircraft. (d) The pilot shall operate on the Santa Monica very high frequency omni-directional radio range (VOR) 132° radial.

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(e) Aircraft navigating in a southeasterly direction shall be in level flight at 3,500 feet MSL. (f) Aircraft navigating in a northwesterly direction shall be in level flight at 4,500 feet MSL. (g) Indicated airspeed shall not exceed 140 knots. (h) Anti-collision lights and aircraft position/navigation lights shall be on. Use of landing lights is recommended. (i) Turbojet aircraft are prohibited from VFR operations in this area. § 93.97 Operations in the SFRA. Notwithstanding the provisions of § 91.131(a) of this chapter, an air traffic control authorization is not required in the Los Angeles Special Flight Rules Area for operations in compliance with § 93.95. All other provisions of § 91.131 of this chapter apply to operations in the Los Angeles Special Flight Rules Area. Subpart H—Mandatory Use of the New York North Shore Helicopter Route Source: Dockets FAA-2020-0772 and FAA-2018-0954, Amdt. 93-103, 85 FR 47899, Aug. 7, 2020, unless otherwise noted. Effective Date Note: By Dockets FAA-2020-0772 and FAA-2018-0954, Amdt. 93-103, 85 FR 47899, Aug. 7, 2020, subpart H to part 93 was revised, effective Aug. 5, 2020, through Aug. 5, 2022. By Docket FAA-2022-1029; Amdt. 93-103A, 87 FR 47921, Aug. 5, 2022, this amendment was extended to July 29, 2026.

§ 93.101 Applicability. This subpart prescribes a special air traffic rule for civil helicopters operating VFR along the North Shore, Long Island, New York, between July 29, 2022, and July 29, 2026. [Docket FAA-2022-1029, Amdt. 93-103, 87 FR 45642, July 31, 2022] Effective Date Note: By Docket FAA-2022-1029, Amdt. 93-103, 87 FR 45642, July 31, 2022, § 93.101 was revised, effective July 29, 2022, through July 29, 2026.

§ 93.103 Helicopter operations. (a) Unless otherwise authorized, each person piloting a helicopter along Long Island, New York's northern shoreline between the VPLYD waypoint and Orient Point, shall utilize the North Shore Helicopter route and altitude, as published. (b) Pilots may deviate from the route and altitude requirements of paragraph (a) of this section when necessary for safety, weather conditions or transitioning to or from a destination or point of landing. Subpart I [Reserved] Subpart J—Lorain County Regional Airport Traffic Rule § 93.117 Applicability. This subpart prescribes a special air traffic rule for aircraft operating at the Lorain County Regional Airport, Lorain County, Ohio. [Docket FAA-2002-13235, 68 FR 9795, Feb. 28, 2003] § 93.119 Aircraft operations. Each person piloting an airplane landing at the Lorain County Regional Airport shall enter the traffic pattern north of the airport and shall execute a right traffic pattern for a landing to the southwest or a left traffic pattern for a landing to the northeast. Each person taking off from the airport shall execute a departure turn to the north as soon as practicable after take­off. [Docket 8669, 33 FR 11749, Aug. 20, 1968] Subpart K—High Density Traffic Airports § 93.121 Applicability. This subpart designates high density traffic airports and prescribes air traffic rules for operating aircraft, other than helicopters, to or from those airports. [Docket 9974, 35 FR 16592, Oct. 24, 1970, as amended by Amdt. 93-27, 38 FR 29464, Oct. 25, 1973] § 93.123 High density traffic airports. (a) Each of the following airports is designated as a high density traffic airport and, except as provided in § 93.129 and paragraph (b) of this section, or unless otherwise authorized by ATC, is limited to the hourly number of allocated IFR operations (takeoffs and landings) that may be reserved for the specified classes of users for that airport:

IFR Operations per Hour Airport

Class of user	LaGuardia  4 , 5	Newark	O'Hare  2 , 3 , 5	Ronald Reagan National  1
Air carriers	48	40	120	37
Commuters	14	10	25	11
Other	6	10	10	12

John F. Kennedy

	Air carriers	Commuters	Other
1500	69	15	2
1600	74	12	2
1700	80	13	0
1800	75	10	2
1900	63	12	2
1  Washington National Airport operations are subject to modifications per Section 93.124.
2  The hour period in effect at O'Hare begins at 6:45 a.m. and continues in 30-minute increments until 9:15 p.m.
3  Operations at O'Hare International Airport shall not—
(a) Except as provided in paragraph (c) of the note, exceed 62 for air carriers and 13 for commuters and 5 for “other” during any 30-minute period beginning at 6:45 a.m. and continuing every 30 minutes thereafter.
(b) Except as provided in paragraph (c) of the note, exceed more than 120 for air carriers, 25 for commuters, and 10 for “other” in any two consecutive 30-minute periods.
(c) For the hours beginning at 6:45 a.m., 7:45 a.m., 11:45 a.m., 7:45 p.m. and 8:45 p.m., the hourly limitations shall be 105 for air carriers, 40 for commuters and 10 for “other,” and the 30-minute limitations shall be 55 for air carriers, 20 for commuters and 5 for “other.” For the hour beginning at 3:45 p.m., the hourly limitations shall be 115 for air carriers, 30 for commuters and 10 for “others”, and the 30-minute limitations shall be 60 for air carriers, 15 for commuters and 5 for “other.”
4  Operations at LaGuardia Airport shall not—
(a) Exceed 26 for air carriers, 7 for commuters and 3 for “other” during any 30-minute period.
(b) Exceed 48 for air carriers, 14 for commuters, and 6 for “other” in any two consecutive 30-minute periods.
5  Pursuant to bilateral agreement, 14 slots at LaGuardia and 24 slots at O'Hare are allocated to the Canadian carriers. These slots are excluded from the hourly quotas set forth in § 93.123 above.

(b) The following exceptions apply to the allocations of reservations prescribed in paragraph (a) Of this section. (1) The allocations of reservations among the several classes of users do not apply from 12 midnight to 6 a.m. local time, but the total hourly limitation remains applicable. (2) [Reserved] (3) The allocation of 37 IFR reservations per hour for air carriers except commuters at Washington National Airport does not include charter flights, or other nonscheduled flights of scheduled or supplemental air carriers. These flights may be conducted without regard to the limitation of 37 IFR reservations per hour. (4) The allocation of IFR reservations for air carriers except commuters at LaGuardia, Newark, O'Hare, and Washington National Airports does not include extra sections of scheduled flights. The allocation of IFR reservations for scheduled commuters at Washington National Airport does not include extra sections of scheduled flights. These flights may be conducted without regard to the limitation upon the hourly IFR reservations at those airports. (5) Any reservation allocated to, but not taken by, air carrier operations (except commuters) is available for a scheduled commuter operation. (6) Any reservation allocated to, but not taken by, air carrier operations (except commuters) or scheduled commuter operations is available for other operations. (c) For purposes of this subpart— (1) The number of operations allocated to air carriers except commuters, as used in paragraph (a) of this section refers to the number of operations conducted by air carriers with turboprop and reciprocating engine aircraft having a certificated maximum passenger seating capacity of 75 or more or with turbojet powered aircraft having a certificated maximum passenger seating capacity of 56 or more, or, if used for cargo service in air transportation, with any aircraft having a maximum payload capacity of 18,000 pounds or more. (2) The number of operations allocated to scheduled commuters, as used in paragraph (a) of this section, refers to the number of operations conducted by air carriers with turboprop and reciprocating engine aircraft having a certificated maximum passenger seating capacity of less than 75 or by turbojet aircraft having a certificated maximum passenger seating capacity of less than 56, or if used for cargo service in air transportation, with any aircraft having a maximum payload capacity of less than 18,000 pounds. For purposes of aircraft operations at Ronald Reagan Washington National Airport, the term “commuters” means aircraft operations using aircraft having a certificated maximum seating capacity of 76 or less.

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(3) Notwithstanding the provisions of paragraph (c)(2) of this section, a limited number of operations allocated for “scheduled commuters” under paragraph (a) of this section may be conducted with aircraft described in § 93.221(e) of this part pursuant to the requirements of § 93.221(e). [Docket 9113, 34 FR 2603, Feb. 26, 1969, as amended by Amdt. 93-37, 45 FR 62408, Sept. 18, 1980; Amdt. 93-44, 46 FR 58048, Nov. 27, 1981; Amdt. 93-46, 49 FR 8244, Mar. 6, 1984; Amdt. 93-57, 54 FR 34906, Aug. 22, 1989; 54 FR 37303, Sept. 8, 1989; Amdt. 93-59, 54 FR 39843, Sept. 28, 1989; Amdt. 93-62, 56 FR 41207, Aug. 19, 1991; Amdt. 93-78, 64 FR 53564, Oct. 1, 1999; Amdt. 93-84, 70 FR 29063, May 19, 2005] § 93.125 Arrival or departure reservation. Except between 12 Midnight and 6 a.m. local time, no person may operate an aircraft to or from an airport designated as a high density traffic airport unless he has received, for that operation, an arrival or departure reservation from ATC. [Docket 9974, 37 FR 22794, Oct. 25, 1972] § 93.129 Additional operations. (a) IFR. The operator of an aircraft may take off or land the aircraft under IFR at a designated high density traffic airport without regard to the maximum number of operations allocated for that airport if the operation is not a scheduled operation to or from a high density airport and he obtains a departure or arrival reservation, as appropriate, from ATC. The reservation is granted by ATC whenever the aircraft may be accommodated without significant additional delay to the operations allocated for the airport for which the reservations is requested. (b) VFR. The operator of an aircraft may take off and land the aircraft under VFR at a designated high density traffic airport without regard to the maximum number of operations allocated for that airport if the operation is not a scheduled operation to or from a high density airport and he obtains a departure or arrival reservation, as appropriate, from ATC. The reservation is granted by ATC whenever the aircraft may be accommodated without significant additional delay to the operations allocated for the airport for which the reservation is requested and the ceiling reported at the airport is at least 1,000 feet and the ground visibility reported at the airport is at least 3 miles. (c) For the purpose of this section a scheduled operation to or from the high density airport is any operation regularly conducted by an air carrier or commuter between a high density airport and another point regularly served by that operator unless the service is conducted pursuant to irregular charter or hiring of aircraft or is a nonpassenger flight. (d) An aircraft operator must obtain an IFR reservation in accordance with procedures established by the Administrator. For IFR flights to or from a high density airport, reservations for takeoff and arrival shall be obtained prior to takeoff. [Docket 9113, 34 FR 2603, Feb. 26, 1969, as amended by Amdt. 93-25, 37 FR 22794, Oct. 25, 1972; Amdt. 93-44, 46 FR 58049, Nov. 27, 1981; Amdt. 93-46, 49 FR 8244, Mar. 6, 1984] § 93.130 Suspension of allocations. The Administrator may suspend the effectiveness of any allocation prescribed in § 93.123 and the reservation requirements prescribed in § 93.125 if he finds such action to be consistent with the efficient use of the airspace. Such suspension may be terminated whenever the Administrator determines that such action is necessary for the efficient use of the airspace. [Docket 9974, 35 FR 16592, Oct. 24, 1970, as amended by Amdt. 93-21, 35 FR 16636, Oct. 27, 1970; Amdt. 93-27, 38 FR 29464, Oct. 25, 1973] § 93.133 Exceptions. Except as provided in § 93.130, the provisions of §§ 93.123 and 93.125 do not apply to— (a) The Newark Airport, Newark, NJ; (b) The Kennedy International Airport, New York, NY, except during the hours from 3 p.m. through 7:59 p.m., local time; and (c) O'Hare International Airport from 9:15 p.m. to 6:44 a.m., local time. [Docket 24471, 49 FR 8244, Mar. 6, 1984] Subpart L [Reserved]

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Subpart M—Ketchikan International Airport Traffic Rule Source: Docket 14687, 41 FR 14879, Apr. 8, 1976, unless otherwise noted. § 93.151 Applicability. This subpart prescribes a special air traffic rule for aircraft conducting VFR operations in the vicinity of the Ketchikan International Airport or Ketchikan Harbor, Alaska. [Docket FAA-2002-13235, 68 FR 9795, Feb. 28, 2003] § 93.152 Description of area. Within that airspace below 3,000 feet MSL within the lateral boundary of the surface area of the Ketchikan Class E airspace regardless of whether that airspace is in effect. [Docket FAA-2002-13235, 68 FR 9795, Feb. 28, 2003] § 93.153 Communications. (a) When the Ketchikan Flight Service Station is in operation, no person may operate an aircraft within the airspace specified in § 93.151, or taxi onto the runway at Ketchikan International Airport, unless that person has established two-way radio communications with the Ketchikan Flight Service Station for the purpose of receiving traffic advisories and continues to monitor the advisory frequency at all times while operating within the specified airspace. (b) When the Ketchikan Flight Service Station is not in operation, no person may operate an aircraft within the airspace specified in § 93.151, or taxi onto the runway at Ketchikan International Airport, unless that person continuously monitors and communicates, as appropriate, on the designated common traffic advisory frequency as follows: (1) For inbound flights. Announces position and intentions when no less than 10 miles from Ketchikan International Airport, and monitors the designated frequency until clear of the movement area on the airport or Ketchikan Harbor. (2) For departing flights. Announces position and intentions prior to taxiing onto the active runway on the airport or onto the movement area of Ketchikan Harbor and monitors the designated frequency until outside the airspace described in § 93.151 and announces position and intentions upon departing that airspace. (c) Notwithstanding the provisions of paragraphs (a) and (b) of this section, if two-way radio communications failure occurs in flight, a person may operate an aircraft within the airspace specified in § 93.151, and land, if weather conditions are at or above basic VFR weather minimums. [Docket 26653, 56 FR 48094, Sept. 23, 1991] § 93.155 Aircraft operations. (a) When an advisory is received from the Ketchikan Flight Service Station stating that an aircraft is on final approach to the Ketchikan International Airport, no person may taxi onto the runway of that airport until the approaching aircraft has landed and has cleared the runway. (b) Unless otherwise authorized by ATC, each person operating a large airplane or a turbine engine powered airplane shall— (1) When approaching to land at the Ketchikan International Airport, maintain an altitude of at least 900 feet MSL until within three miles of the airport; and (2) After takeoff from the Ketchikan International Airport, maintain runway heading until reaching an altitude of 900 feet MSL. Subpart N—Pearson Field (Vancouver, WA) Airport Traffic Rule Source: Docket FAA-2015-3980, Amdt. 93-100, 81 FR 62806, Sept. 12, 2016, unless otherwise noted. § 93.161 Applicability. This subpart prescribes special air traffic rules for aircraft conducting VFR operations in the vicinity of the Pearson Field Airport in Vancouver, Washington. § 93.162 Description of area. The Pearson Field Airport Special Flight Rules Area is designated as that airspace extending upward from the surface to but not including 1,100 feet MSL in an area bounded by a line beginning at the point where the 019° bearing from Pearson Field intersects the 5-mile arc from Portland International Airport extending southeast to a point 1 1/2 miles east of Pearson Field on the extended centerline of Runway 8/26, thence south to the north shore of the Columbia River, thence west via the north shore of the Columbia River to the 5-mile arc from Portland International Airport, thence clockwise via the 5-mile arc to point of beginning.

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§ 93.163 Aircraft operations. (a) Unless otherwise authorized by ATC, no person may operate an aircraft within the airspace described in § 93.162, or taxi onto the runway at Pearson Field, unless- (1) That person establishes two-way radio communications with Pearson Advisory on the common traffic advisory frequency for the purpose of receiving air traffic advisories and continues to monitor the frequency at all times while operating within the specified airspace. (2) That person has obtained the Pearson Field weather prior to establishing two-way communications with Pearson Advisory. (b) Notwithstanding the provisions of paragraph (a) of this section, if two-way radio communications failure occurs in flight, a person may operate an aircraft within the airspace described in § 93.162, and land, if weather conditions are at or above basic VFR weather minimums. If two-way radio communications failure occurs while in flight under IFR, the pilot must comply with § 91.185. (c) Unless otherwise authorized by ATC, persons operating an aircraft within the airspace described in § 93.162 must— (1) When operating over the runway or extended runway centerline of Pearson Field Runway 8/26 maintain an altitude at or below 700 feet above mean sea level. (2) Remain outside Portland Class C Airspace. (3) Make a right traffic pattern when operating to/from Pearson Field Runway 26. Subpart O—Special Flight Rules in the Vicinity of Luke AFB, AZ Source: 74 FR 69278, Dec. 31, 2009, unless otherwise noted. § 93.175 Applicability. This subpart prescribes a Special Air Traffic Rule for aircraft conducting VFR operations in the vicinity of Luke Air Force Base, AZ. § 93.176 Description of area. The Luke Air Force Base, Arizona Terminal Area is designated during official daylight hours Monday through Friday while Luke pilot flight training is underway, as broadcast on the local Automatic Terminal Information Service (ATIS), and other times by Notice to Airmen (NOTAM), as follows: (a) East Sector: (1) South section includes airspace extending from 3,000 feet MSL to the base of the overlaying Phoenix Class B airspace bounded by a line beginning at: Lat. 33°23′56″ N; Long. 112°28′37″ W; to Lat. 33°22′32″ N; Long. 112°37′14″ W; to Lat. 33°25′39″ N; Long. 112°37′29″ W; to Lat. 33°31′55″ N; Long. 112°30′32″ W; to Lat. 33°28′00″ N; Long. 112°28′41″ W; to point of beginning. (2) South section lower includes airspace extending from 2,100 feet MSL to the base of the overlaying Phoenix Class B airspace, excluding the Luke Class D airspace area bounded by a line beginning at: Lat. 33°28′00″ N; Long. 112°28′41″ W; to Lat. 33°23′56″ N; Long. 112°28′37″ W; to Lat. 33°27′53″ N; Long. 112°24′12″ W; to point of beginning. (3) Center section includes airspace extending from surface to the base of the overlaying Phoenix Class B airspace, excluding the Luke Class D airspace area bounded by a line beginning at: Lat. 33°42′22″ N; Long. 112°19′16″ W; to Lat. 33°38′40″ N; Long. 112°14′03″ W; to Lat. 33°27′53″ N; Long. 112°24′12″ W; to Lat. 33°28′00″ N; Long. 112°28′41″ W; to Lat. 33°31′55″ N; Long. 112°30′32″ W; to point of beginning. (4) The north section includes that airspace extending upward from 3,000 feet MSL to 4,000 feet MSL, bounded by a line beginning at: Lat. 33°42′22″ N; Long. 112°19′16″ W; to Lat. 33°46′58″ N; Long. 112°16′41″ W; to Lat. 33°44′48″ N; Long. 112°10′59″ W; to Lat. 33°38′40″ N; Long. 112°14′03″ W; to point of beginning.

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(b) West Sector: (1) The north section includes that airspace extending upward from 3,000 feet MSL to 6,000 feet MSL, bounded by a line beginning at: Lat. 33°51′52″ N; Long. 112°37′54″ W; to Lat. 33°49′34″ N; Long. 112°23′34″ W; to Lat. 33°46′58″ N; Long. 112°16′41″ W; to Lat. 33°42′22″ N; Long. 112°19′16″ W; to Lat. 33°39′27″ N; Long. 112°22′27″ W; to point of beginning. (2) The south section includes that airspace extending upward from the surface to 6,000 feet MSL, bounded by a line beginning at: Lat. 33°39′27″ N; Long. 112°22′27″ W; to Lat. 33°38′06″ N; Long. 112°23′51″ W; to Lat. 33°38′07″ N; Long. 112°28′50″ W; to Lat. 33°39′34″ N; Long. 112°31′39″ W; to Lat. 33°39′32″ N; Long. 112°37′36″ W; to Lat. 33°51′52″ N; Long. 112°37′54″ W; to point of beginning. § 93.177 Operations in the Special Air Traffic Rule Area. (a) Unless otherwise authorized by Air Traffic Control (ATC), no person may operate an aircraft in flight within the Luke Terminal Area designated in § 93.176 unless— (1) Before operating within the Luke Terminal area, that person establishes radio contact with the Luke RAPCON; and (2) That person maintains two-way radio communication with the Luke RAPCON or an appropriate ATC facility while within the designated area. (b) Requests for deviation from the provisions of this section apply only to aircraft not equipped with an operational radio. The request must be submitted at least 24 hours before the proposed operation to Luke RAPCON. Subparts P-R [Reserved] Subpart S—Allocation of Commuter and Air Carrier IFR Operations at High Density Traffic Airports Source: Docket 24105, 50 FR 52195, Dec. 20, 1985, unless otherwise noted. § 93.211 Applicability. (a) This subpart prescribes rules applicable to the allocation and withdrawal of IFR operational authority (takeoffs and landings) to individual air carriers and commuter operators at the High Density Traffic Airports identified in subpart K of this part except for Newark Airport. (b) This subpart also prescribes rules concerning the transfer of allocated IFR operational authority and the use of that authority once allocated. § 93.213 Definitions and general provisions. (a) For purposes of this subpart— (1) New entrant carrier means a commuter operator or air carrier which does not hold a slot at a particular airport and has never sold or given up a slot at that airport after December 16, 1985. (2) Slot means the operational authority to conduct one IFR landing or takeoff operation each day during a specific hour or 30 minute period at one of the High Density Traffic Airports, as specified in subpart K of this part. (3) Summer season means the period of time from the first Sunday in April until the last Sunday in October. (4) Winter season means the period of time from the last Sunday in October until the first Sunday in April. (5) Limited incumbent carrier means an air carrier or commuter operator that holds or operates fewer than 12 air carrier or commuter slots, in any combination, at a particular airport, not including international slots, Essential Air Service Program slots, or slots between the hours of 2200 and 0659 at Washington National Airport or LaGuardia Airport. However, for the purposes of this paragraph (a)(5), the carrier is considered to hold the number of slots at that airport that the carrier has, since December 16, 1985: (i) Returned to the FAA; (ii) Had recalled by the FAA under § 93.227(a); or (iii) Transferred to another party other than by trade for one or more slots at the same airport. (b) The definitions specified in subpart K of this part also apply to this subpart.

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(c) For purposes of this subpart, if an air carrier, commuter operator, or other person has more than a 50-percent ownership or control of one or more other air carriers, commuter operators, or other persons, they shall be considered to be a single air carrier, commuter operator, or person. In addition, if a single company has more than a 50-percent ownership or control of two or more air carriers and/or commuter operators or any combination thereof, those air carriers and/or commuter operators shall be considered to be a single operator. A single operator may be considered to be both an air carrier and commuter operator for purposes of this subpart. [Docket 24105, 50 FR 52195, Dec. 20, 1985, as amended by Amdt. 93-52, 51 FR 21717, June 13, 1986; Amdt. 93-57, 54 FR 34906, Aug. 22, 1989; 54 FR 37303, Sept. 8, 1989; Amdt. 93-65, 57 FR 37314, Aug. 18, 1992] § 93.215 Initial allocation of slots. (a) Each air carrier and commuter operator holding a permanent slot on December 16, 1985, as evidenced by the records of the air carrier and commuter operator scheduling committees, shall be allocated those slots subject to withdrawal under the provisions of this subpart. The Chief Counsel of the FAA shall be the final decisionmaker for initial allocation determinations. (b) Any permanent slot whose use on December 16, 1985 is divided among different operators, by day of the week, or otherwise, as evidenced by records of the scheduling committees, shall be allocated in conformity with those records. The Chief Counsel of the FAA shall be the final decisionmaker for these determinations. (c) A carrier may permanently designate a slot it holds at Kennedy International Airport as a seasonal slot, to be held by the carrier only during the corresponding season in future years, if it notifies the FAA (at the address specified in § 93.225(e)), in writing, the preceding winter seasons or by October 15 of the preceding year for summer seasons. (d) Within 30 days after December 16, 1985, each U.S. air carrier and commuter operator must notify the office specified in § 93.221(a)(1), in writing, of those slots used for operations described in § 93.217(a)(1) on December 16, 1985. (e) Any slot not held by an operator on December 16, 1985 shall be allocated in accordance with the provisions of §§ 93.217, 93.219 or 93.225 of this subpart. [Docket 24105, 50 FR 52195, Dec. 20, 1985, as amended by Amdt. 93-52, 51 FR 21717, June 13, 1986] § 93.217 Allocation of slots for international operations and applicable limitations. (a) Any air carrier of commuter operator having the authority to conduct international operations shall be provided slots for those operations, excluding transborder service solely between HDR airports and Canada, subject to the following conditions and the other provisions of this section: (1) The slot may be used only for a flight segment in which either the takeoff or landing is at a foreign point or, for foreign operators, the flight segment is a continuation of a flight that begins or ends at a foreign point. Slots may be obtained and used under this section only for operations at Kennedy and O'Hare airports unless otherwise required by bilateral agreement and only for scheduled service unless the requesting carrier qualifies for the slot on the basis of historic seasonal operations, under § 93.217(a)(5). (2) Slots used for an operation described in paragraph (a)(1) of this section may not be bought, sold, leased, or otherwise transferred, except that such a slot may be traded to another slot-holder on a one-for-one basis for a slot at the same airport in a different hour or half-hour period if the trade is for the purpose of conducting such an operation in a different hour or half-hour period. (3) Slots used for operations described in paragraph (a)(1) of this section must be returned to the FAA if the slot will not be used for such operations for more than a 2-week period. (4) Each air carrier or commuter operator having a slot that is used for operations described in paragraph (a)(1) of this section but is not used every day of the week shall notify the office specified in § 93.221(a)(1) in writing of those days on which the slots will not be used.

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(5) Except as provided in paragraph (a)(10) of this section, at Kennedy and O'Hare Airports, a slot shall be allocated, upon request, for seasonal international operations, including charter operations, if the Chief Counsel of the FAA determines that the slot had been permanently allocated to and used by the requesting carrier in the same hour and for the same time period during the corresponding season of the preceding year. Requests for such slots must be submitted to the office specified in § 93.221(a)(1), by the deadline published in a Federal Register notice for each season. For operations during the 1986 summer season, requests under this paragraph must have been submitted to the FAA on or before February 1, 1986. Each carrier requesting a slot under this paragraph must submit its entire international schedule at the relevant airport for the particular season, noting which requests are in addition to or changes from the previous year. (6) Except as provided in paragraph (a)(10) of this section, additional slots shall be allocated at O'Hare Airport for international scheduled air carrier and commuter operations (beyond those slots allocated under §§ 93.215 and 93.217(a)(5) if a request is submitted to the office specified in § 93.221(a)(1) and filed by the deadline published in a Federal Register notice for each season. These slots will be allocated at the time requested unless a slot is available within one hour of the requested time, in which case the unallocated slots will be used to satisfy the request. (7) If required by bilateral agreement, additional slots shall be allocated at LaGuardia Airport for international scheduled passenger operations within the hour requested. (8) To the extent vacant slots are available, additional slots during the high density hours shall be allocated at Kennedy Airport for new international scheduled air carrier and commuter operations (beyond those operations for which slots have been allocated under §§ 93.215 and 93.217(a)(5)), if a request is submitted to the office specified in § 93.221(a)(1) by the deadline published in a Federal Register notice for each season. In addition, slots may be withdrawn from domestic operations for operations at Kennedy Airport under this paragraph if required by international obligations. (9) In determining the hour in which a slot request under §§ 93.217(a)(6) and 93.217(a)(8) will be granted, the following will be taken into consideration, among other things: (i) The availability of vacant slot times; (ii) International obligations; (iii) Airport terminal capacity, including facilities and personnel of the U.S. Customs Service and the U.S. Immigration and Naturalization Service; (iv) The extent and regularity of intended use of a slot; and (v) Schedule constraints of carriers requesting slots. (10) At O'Hare Airport, a slot will not be allocated under this section to a carrier holding or operating 100 or more permanent slots on the previous May 15 for a winter season or October 15 for a summer season unless: (i) Allocation of the slot does not result in a total allocation to that carrier under this section that exceeds the number of slots allocated to and scheduled by that carrier under this section on February 23, 1990, and as reduced by the number of slots reclassified under § 93.218, and does not exceed by more than 2 the number of slots allocated to and scheduled by that carrier during any half hour of that day, or (ii) Notwithstanding the number of slots allocated under paragraph (a)(10)(i) of this section, a slot is available for allocation without withdrawal of a permanent slot from any carrier. (b) If a slot allocated under § 93.215 was scheduled for an operation described in paragraph (a)(1) of this section on December 16, 1985, its use shall be subject to the requirements of paragraphs (a)(1) through (a)(4) of this section. The requirements also apply to slots used for international operations at LaGuardia Airport. (c) If a slot is offered to a carrier in other than the hour requested, the carrier shall have 14 days after the date of the offer to accept the newly offered slot. Acceptance must be in writing and sent to the office specified in § 93.221(a)(1) and must repeat the certified statements required by paragraph (e) of this section.

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(d) The Office of the Secretary of Transportation reserves the right not to apply the provisions of this section, concerning the allocation of slots, to any foreign air carrier or commuter operator of a country that provides slots to U.S. air carriers and commuter operators on a basis more restrictive than provided by this subpart. Decisions not to apply the provisions of this section will be made by the Office of the Secretary of Transportation. (e) Each request for slots under this section shall state the airport, days of the week and time of the day of the desired slots and the period of time the slots are to be used. Each request shall identify whether the slot is requested under paragraph (a)(5), (6), or (8) and identify any changes from the previous year if requested under both paragraphs. The request must be accompanied by a certified statement signed by an officer of the operator indicating that the operator has or has contracted for aircraft capable of being utilized in using the slots requested and that the operator has bona fide plans to use the requested slots for operations described in paragraph (a). [Docket 24105, 51 FR 21717, June 13, 1986, as amended by Amdt. 93-61, 55 FR 53243, Dec. 27, 1990; 56 FR 1059, Jan. 10, 1991; Amdt. 93-78, 64 FR 53565, Oct. 1, 1999] § 93.218 Slots for transborder service to and from Canada. (a) Except as otherwise provided in this subpart, international slots identified by U.S. carriers for international operations in December 1985 and the equivalent number of international slots held as of February 24, 1998, will be domestic slots. The Chief Counsel of the FAA shall be the final decisionmaker for these determinations. (b) Canadian carriers shall have a guaranteed base level of slots of 42 slots at LaGuardia, 36 slots at O'Hare for the Sumner season, and 32 slots at O'Hare in the Winter season. (c) Any modification to the slot base by the Government of Canada or the Canadian carriers that results in a decrease of the guaranteed base in paragraph (b) of this section shall permanently modify the base number of slots. [Docket FAA-1999-4971, 64 FR 53565, Oct. 1, 1999] § 93.219 Allocation of slots for essential air service operations and applicable limitations. Whenever the Office of the Secretary of Transportation determines that slots are needed for operations to or from a High Density Traffic Airport under the Department of Transportation's Essential Air Service (EAS) Program, those slots shall be provided to the designated air carrier or commuter operator subject to the following limitations: (a) Slots obtained under this section may not be bought, sold, leased or otherwise transferred, except that such slots may be traded for other slots on a one-for-one basis at the same airport. (b) Any slot obtained under this section must be returned to the FAA if it will not be used for EAS purposes for more than a 2-week period. A slot returned under this paragraph may be reallocated to the operator which returned it upon request to the FAA office specified in § 93.221(a)(1) if that slot has not been reallocated to an operator to provide substitute essential air service. (c) Slots shall be allocated for EAS purposes in a time period within 90 minutes of the time period requested. (d) The Department will not honor requests for slots for EAS purposes to a point if the requesting carrier has previously traded away or sold slots it had used or obtained for use in providing essential air service to that point. (e) Slots obtained under Civil Aeronautics Board Order No. 84-11-40 shall be considered to have been obtained under this section. § 93.221 Transfer of slots. (a) Except as otherwise provided in this subpart, effective April 1, 1986, slots may be bought, sold or leased for any consideration and any time period and they may be traded in any combination for slots at the same airport or any other high density traffic airport. Transfers, including leases, shall comply with the following conditions:

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(1) Requests for confirmation must be submitted in writing to Slot Administration Office, AGC-230, Office of the Chief Counsel, Federal Aviation Administration, 800 Independence Ave., SW., Washington, DC 20591, in a format to be prescribed by the Administrator. Requests will provide the names of the transferor and recipient; business address and telephone number of the persons representing the transferor and recipient; whether the slot is to be used for an arrival or departure; the date the slot was acquired by the transferor; the section of this subpart under which the slot was allocated to the transferor; whether the slot has been used by the transferor for international or essential air service operations; and whether the slot will be used by the recipient for international or essential air service operations. After withdrawal priorities have been established under § 93.223 of this part, the requests must include the slot designations of the transferred slots as described in § 93.223(b)(5). (2) The slot transferred must come from the transferor's then-current FAA-approved base. (3) Written evidence of each transferor's consent to the transfer must be provided to the FAA. (4) The recipient of a transferred slot may not use the slot until written confirmation has been received from the FAA. (5)(i) Until a slot obtained by a new entrant or limited incumbent carrier in a lottery held under § 93.225 after June 1, 1991, has been used by the carrier that obtained it for a continuous 24-month period after the lottery in accordance with § 93.227(a), that slot may be transferred only by trade for one or more slots at the same airport or to other new entrant or limited incumbent carriers under § 93.221(a)(5)(iii). This transfer restriction shall apply to the same extent to any slot or slots acquired by trading the slot obtained in a lottery. To remove the transfer restriction, documentation of 24 months' continuous use must be submitted to the FAA Office of the Chief Counsel. (ii) Failure to use a slot acquired by trading a slot obtained in a lottery for a continuous 24-month period after the lottery, shall void all trades involving the lottery slot, which shall be returned to the FAA. All use of the lottery slot shall be counted toward fulfilling the minimum use requirements under § 93.227(a) applicable to the slot or slots for which the lottery slot was traded, including subsequent trades. (iii) Slots obtained by new entrant or limited incumbent carriers in a lottery may be sold, leased, or otherwise transferred to another entrant or limited incumbent carrier after a minimum of 60 days of use by the obtaining carrier. The transfer restrictions of § 93.221(a)(5)(i) shall continue to apply to the slot until documentation of 24 months' continuous use has been submitted and the transfer restriction removed. (6) The Office of the Secretary of Transportation must determine that the transfer will not be injurious to the essential air service program. (b) A record of each slot transfer shall be kept on file by the office specified in paragraph (a)(1) of this section and will be made available to the public upon request. (c) Any person may buy or sell slots and any air carrier or commuter may use them. Notwithstanding § 93.123, air carrier slots may be used with aircraft of the kind described in § 93.123 (c)(1) or (c)(2) but commuter slots may only be used with aircraft of the kind described in § 93.0123(c)(2). (d) Air carriers and commuter operators considered to be a single operator under the provisions of § 93.213(c) of this subpart but operating under separate names shall report transfers of slots between them. (e) Notwithstanding § 93.123(c)(2) of this part, a commuter slot at O'Hare International Airport may be used with an aircraft described in § 93.123(c)(1) of this part on the following conditions: (1) Air carrier aircraft that may be operated under this paragraph are limited to aircraft: (i) Having an actual seating configuration of 110 or fewer passengers; and (ii) Having a maximum certificated takeoff weight of less than 126,000 pounds. (2) No more than 50 percent of the total number of commuter slots held by a slot holder at O'Hare International Airport may be used with aircraft described in paragraph (e)(1) of this section.

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(3) An air carrier or commuter operator planning to operate an aircraft described in paragraph (e)(1) of this section in a commuter slot shall notify ATC at least 75 days in advance of the planned start date of such operation. The notice shall include the slot number, proposed time of operation, aircraft type, aircraft series, actual aircraft seating configuration, and planned start date. ATC will approve or disapprove the proposed operation no later than 45 days prior to the planned start date. If an operator does not initiate operation of a commuter slot under this section within 30 days of the planned start date first submitted to the FAA, the ATC approval for that operation will expire. That operator may file a new or revised notice for the same half-hour slot time. (4) An operation may not be conducted under paragraph (e)(1) of this section unless a gate is available for that operation without planned waiting time. (5) For the purposes of this paragraph (e), notice to ATC shall be submitted in writing to: Director, Air Traffic System Management, ATM-1, Federal Aviation Administration, 800 Independence Avenue SW., Washington, DC 20591. [Docket 24105, 50 FR 52195, Dec. 20, 1985, as amended by Amdt. 93-52, 51 FR 21717, June 13, 1986; Amdt. 93-58, 54 FR 39293, Sept. 25, 1989; Amdt. 93-62, 56 FR 41208, Aug. 19, 1991; Amdt. 93-65, 57 FR 37314, Aug. 18, 1992; Amdt. 93-68, 58 FR 39616, July 23, 1993] § 93.223 Slot withdrawal. (a) Slots do not represent a property right but represent an operating privilege subject to absolute FAA control. Slots may be withdrawn at any time to fulfill the Department's operational needs, such as providing slots for international or essential air service operations or eliminating slots. Before withdrawing any slots under this section to provide them for international operations, essential air services or other operational needs, those slots returned under § 93.224 of this part and those recalled by the agency under § 93.227 will be allocated. (b) Separate slot pools shall be established for air carriers and commuter operators at each airport. The FAA shall assign, by random lottery, withdrawal priority numbers for the recall priority of slots at each airport. Each additional permanent slot, if any, will be assigned the next higher number for air carrier or commuter slots, as appropriate, at each airport. Each slot shall be assigned a designation consisting of the applicable withdrawal priority number; the airport code; a code indicating whether the slot is an air carrier or commuter operator slot; and the time period of the slot. The designation shall also indicate, as appropriate, if the slot is daily or for certain days of the week only; is limited to arrivals or departures; is allocated for international operations or for EAS purposes; and, at Kennedy International Airport, is a summer or winter slot. (c) Whenever slots must be withdrawn, they will be withdrawn in accordance with the priority list established under paragraph (b) of this section, except: (1) Slots obtained in a lottery held pursuant to § 93.225 of this part shall be subject to withdrawal pursuant to paragraph (i) of that section, and (2) Slots necessary for international and essential air service operations shall be exempt from withdrawal for use for other international or essential air service operations. (3) Except as provided in § 93.227(a), the FAA shall not withdraw slots held at an airport by an air carrier or commuter operator holding and operating 12 or fewer slots at that airport (excluding slots used for operations described in § 93.212(a)(1)), if withdrawal would reduce the number of slots held below the number of slots operated. (4) No slot comprising the guaranteed base of slots, as defined in section 93.318(b), shall be withdrawn for use for international operations or for new entrants. (d) The following withdrawal priority rule shall be used to permit application of the one-for-one trade provisions for international and essential air service slots and the slot withdrawal provisions where the slots are needed for other than international or essential air service operations. If an operator has more than one slot in a specific time period in which it also has a slot being used for international or essential air service operations, the international and essential air service slots will be considered to be those with the lowest withdrawal priority.

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(e) The operator(s) using each slot to be withdrawn shall be notified by the FAA of the withdrawal and shall cease operations using that slot on the date indicated in the notice. Generally, the FAA will provide at least 30 days after notification for the operator to cease operations unless exigencies require a shorter time period. (f) For 24 months following a lottery held after June 1, 1991, a slot acquired in that lottery shall be withdrawn by the FAA upon the sale, merger, or acquisition of more than 50 percent ownership or control of the carrier using that slot or one acquired by trade of that slot, if the resulting total of slots held or operated at the airport by the surviving entity would exceed 12 slots. [Docket 24105, 50 FR 52195, Dec. 20, 1985, as amended by Amdt. 93-52, 51 FR 21718, June 13, 1986; Amdt. 93-57, 54 FR 34906, Aug. 22, 1989; Amdt. 93-65, 57 FR 37314, Aug. 18, 1992; Amdt. 93-78, 64 FR 53565, Oct. 1, 1999] § 93.224 Return of slots. (a) Whenever a slot is required to be returned under this subpart, the holder must notify the office specified in § 93.221(a)(1) in writing of the date after which the slot will not be used. (b) Slots may be voluntarily returned for use by other operators by notifying the office specified in § 93.221(a)(1) in writing. § 93.225 Lottery of available slots. (a) Whenever the FAA determines that sufficient slots have become available for distribution for purposes other than international or essential air service operations, but generally not more than twice a year, they shall be allocated in accordance with the provisions of this section. (b) A random lottery shall be held to determine the order of slot selection. (c) Slot allocation lotteries shall be held on an airport-by-airport basis with separate lotteries for air carrier and commuter operator slots. The slots to be allocated in each lottery will be each unallocated slot not necessary for international or Essential Air Service Program operations, including any slot created by an increase in the operating limits set forth in § 93.123(a). (d) The FAA shall publish a notice in the Federal Register announcing any lottery dates. The notice may include special procedures to be in effect for the lotteries. (e) Participation in a lottery is open to each U.S. air carrier or commuter operator operating at the airport and providing scheduled passenger service at the airport, as well as where provided for by bilateral agreement. Any U.S. carrier, or foreign air carrier where provided for by bilateral agreement, that is not operating scheduled service at the airport and has not failed to operate slots obtained in the previous lottery, or slots traded for those obtained by lottery, but wishes to initiate scheduled passenger service at the airport, shall be included in the lottery if that operator notifies, in writing, the Slot Administration Office, AGC-230, Office of the Chief Counsel, Federal Aviation Administration, 800 Independence Avenue, SW., Washington, DC 20591. The notification must be received 15 days prior to the lottery date and state whether there is any common ownership or control of, by, or with any other air carrier or commuter operator as defined in § 93.213(c). New entrant and limited incumbent carriers will be permitted to complete their selections before participation by other incumbent carriers is initiated. (f) At the lottery, each operator must make its selection within 5 minutes after being called or it shall lose its turn. If capacity still remains after each operator has had an opportunity to select slots, the allocation sequence will be repeated in the same order. An operator may select any two slots available at the airport during each sequence, except that new entrant carriers may select four slots, if available, in the first sequence. (g) To select slots during a slot lottery session, a carrier must have appropriate economic authority for scheduled passenger service under Title IV of the Federal Aviation Act of 1958, as amended (49 U.S.C. App. 1371 et seq. ), and must hold FAA operating authority under part 121 or part 135 of this chapter as appropriate for the slots the operator seeks to select.

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(h) During the first selection sequence, 25 percent of the slots available but no less than two slots shall be reserved for selection by new entrant carriers. If new entrant carriers do not select all of the slots set aside for new entrant carriers, limited incumbent carriers may select the remaining slots. If every participating new entrant carrier and limited incumbent carrier has ceased selection of available slots or has obtained 12 slots at that airport, other incumbent carriers may participate in selecting the remaining slots; however, slots selected by non-limited incumbent carriers will be allocated only until the date of the next lottery. (i) Slots obtained under this section shall retain their withdrawal priority as established under § 93.223. If the slot is newly created, a withdrawal priority shall be assigned. That priority number shall be higher than any other slot assigned a withdrawal number previously. [Docket 24105, 50 FR 52195, Dec. 20, 1985, as amended by Amdt. 93-52, 51 FR 21718, June 13, 1986; Amdt. 93-58, 54 FR 39293, Sept. 25, 1989; Amdt. 93-65, 57 FR 37314, Aug. 18, 1992; 57 FR 47993, Oct. 21, 1992; Amdt. 93-78, 64 FR 53565, Oct. 1, 1999] § 93.226 Allocation of slots in low-demand periods. (a) If there are available slots in the following time periods and there are no pending requests for international or EAS operations at these times, FAA will allocate slots upon request on a first-come, first-served basis, as set forth in this section: (1) Any period for which a slot is available less than 5 days per week. (2) Any time period for which a slot is available for less than a full season. (3) For LaGuardia and Washington National Airports: (i) 6:00 a.m.-6:59 a.m. (ii) 10:00 p.m.-midnight. (b) Slots will be allocated only to operators with the economic and operating authority and aircraft required to use the slots. (c) Requests for allocations under this section shall be submitted in writing to the address listed in § 93.221(a)(1) and shall identify the request as made under this section. (d) The FAA may deny requests made under this section after a determination that all remaining slots in a particular category should be distributed by lottery. (e) Slots may be allocated on a seasonal or temporary basis under this provision. [Docket 24105, 51 FR 21718, June 13, 1986] § 93.227 Slot use and loss. (a) Except as provided in paragraphs (b), (c), (d), (g), and (l) of this section, any slot not utilized 80 percent of the time over a 2-month period shall be recalled by the FAA. (b) Paragraph (a) of this section does not apply to slots obtained under § 93.225 of this part during: (1) The first 90 days after they are allocated to a new entrant carrier; or (2) The first 60 days after they are allocated to a limited incumbent or other incumbent carrier. (c) Paragraph (a) of this section does not apply to slots of an operator forced by a strike to cease operations using those slots. (d) In the case of a carrier that files for protection under the Federal bankruptcy laws and has not received a Notice of Withdrawal from the FAA for the subject slot or slots, paragraph (a) of this section does not apply: (1) During a period after the initial petition in bankruptcy, to any slot held or operated by that carrier, for: (i) 60 days after the carrier files the initial petition in bankruptcy; and (ii) 30 days after the carrier, in anticipation of transferring slots, submits information to a Federal government agency in connection with a statutory antitrust, economic impact, or similar review of the transfer, provided that the information is submitted more than 30 days after filing the initial petition in bankruptcy, and provided further that any slot to be transferred has not become subject to withdrawal under any other provision of this § 93.227; and (2) During a period after a carrier ceases operations at an airport, to any slot held or operated by that carrier at that airport, for:

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(i) 30 days after the carrier ceases operations at that airport, provided that the slot has not become subject to withdrawal under any other provision of this § 93.227; and (ii) 30 days after the parties to a proposed transfer of any such slot comply with requests for additional information by a Federal government agency in connection with an antitrust, economic impact, or similar investigation of the transfer, provided that— (A) The original notice of the transfer is filed with the Federal agency within 30 days after the carrier ceases operation at the airport; (B) The request for additional information is made within 10 days of the filing of the notice by the carrier; (C) The carrier submits the additional information to the Federal agency within 15 days of the request by such agency; and (D) Any slot to be transferred has not become subject to withdrawal under any other provision of this § 93.227. (e) Persons having slots withdrawn pursuant to paragraph (a) of this section must cease all use of those slots upon receipt of notice from the FAA. (f) Persons holding slots but not using them pursuant to the provisions of paragraphs (b), (c) and (d) may lease those slots for use by others. A slot obtained in a lottery may not be leased after the expiration of the applicable time period specified in paragraph (b) of this section unless it has been operated for a 2-month period at least 65 percent of the time by the operator which obtained it in the lottery. (g) This section does not apply to slots used for the operations described in § 93.217(a)(1) except that a U.S. air carrier or commuter operator required to file a report under paragraph (i) of this section shall include all slots operated at the airport, including slots described in § 93.217(a)(1). (h) Within 30 days after an operator files for protection under the Federal bankruptcy laws, the FAA shall recall any slots of that operator, if—(1) the slots were formerly used for essential air service and (2) the Office of the Secretary of Transportation determines those slots are required to provide substitute essential air service to or from the same points. (i) Every air carrier and commuter operator or other person holding a slot at a high density airport shall, within 14 days after the last day of the 2-month period beginning January 1, 1986, and every 2 months thereafter, forward, in writing, to the address identified in § 93.221(a)(1), a list of all slots held by the air carrier, commuter operator or other person along with a listing of which air carrier or commuter operator actually operated the slot for each day of the 2-month period. The report shall identify the flight number for which the slot was used and the equipment used, and shall identify the flight as an arrival or departure. The report shall identify any common ownership or control of, by, or with any other carrier as defined in § 93.213(c) of this subpart. The report shall be signed by a senior official of the air carrier or commuter operator. If the slot is held by an “other person,” the report must be signed by an official representative. (j) The Chief Counsel of the FAA may waive the requirements of paragraph (a) of this section in the event of a highly unusual and unpredictable condition which is beyond the control of the slot-holder and which exists for a period of 9 or more days. Examples of conditions which could justify waiver under this paragraph are weather conditions which result in the restricted operation of an airport for an extended period of time or the grounding of an aircraft type. (k) The Chief Counsel of the FAA may, upon request, grant a waiver from the requirements of paragraph (a) of this section for a slot used for the domestic segment of an intercontinental all-cargo flight. To qualify for a waiver, a carrier must operate the slot a substantial percentage of the time and must return the slot to the FAA in advance for the time periods it will not be used. (l) The FAA will treat as used any slot held by a carrier at a High Density Traffic Airport on Thanksgiving Day, the Friday following Thanksgiving Day, and the period from December 24 through the first Saturday in January.

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[Docket 24105, 50 FR 52195, Dec. 20, 1985, as amended by Amdt. 93-52, 51 FR 21718, June 13, 1986; Amdt. 93-65, 57 FR 37315, Aug. 18, 1992; Amdt. 93-71, 59 FR 58771, Nov. 15, 1994] Subpart T—Ronald Reagan Washington National Airport Traffic Rules Source: Docket 25143, 51 FR 43587, Dec. 3, 1986; Amdt. 93-82, 68 FR 9795, Feb. 28, 2003, unless otherwise noted. § 93.251 Applicability. This subpart prescribes rules applicable to the operation of aircraft to or from Ronald Reagan Washington National Airport. § 93.253 Nonstop operations. No person may operate an aircraft nonstop in air transportation between Ronald Reagan Washington National Airport and another airport that is more than 1,250 miles away from Ronald Reagan Washington National Airport. Subpart U—Special Flight Rules in the Vicinity of Grand Canyon National Park, AZ Source: By Docket 28537, 61 FR 69330, Dec. 31, 1996, unless otherwise noted. § 93.301 Applicability. This subpart prescribes special operating rules for all persons operating aircraft in the following airspace, designated as the Grand Canyon National Park Special Flight Rules Area: That airspace extending from the surface up to but not including 18,000 feet MSL within an area bounded by a line beginning at Lat. 35°55′12″ N., Long. 112°04′05″ W.; east to Lat. 35°55′30″ N., Long. 111°45′00″ W.; to Lat. 35°59′02″ N., Long. 111°36′03″ W.; north to Lat. 36°15′30″ N., Long. 111°36′06″ W.; to Lat. 36°24′49″ N., Long. 111°47′45″ W.; to Lat. 36°52′23″ N., Long. 111°33′10″ W.; west-northwest to Lat. 36°53′37″ N., Long. 111°38′29″ W.; southwest to Lat. 36°35′02″ N., Long. 111°53′28″ W.; to Lat. 36°21′30″ N., Long. 112°00′03″ W.; west-northwest to Lat. 36°30′30″ N., Long. 112°35′59″ W.; southwest to Lat. 36°24′46″ N., Long. 112°51′10″ W., thence west along the boundary of Grand Canyon National Park (GCNP) to Lat. 36°14′08″ N., Long. 113°10′07″ W.; west-southwest to Lat. 36°09′30″ N., Long. 114°03′03″ W.; southeast to Lat. 36°05′11″ N., Long. 113°58′46″ W.; thence south along the boundary of GCNP to Lat. 35°58′23″ N., Long. 113°54′14″ W.; north to Lat. 36°00′10″ N., Long. 113°53′48″ W.; northeast to Lat. 36°02′14″ N., Long. 113°50′16″ W.; to Lat. 36°02′17″ N., Long. 113°53′48″ W.; northeast to Lat. 36°02′14″ N., Long. 113°50′16″ W.; to Lat. 36°02′17″ N., Long. 113°49′11″ W.; southeast to Lat. 36°01′22″ N., Long. 113°48′21″ W.; to Lat. 35°59′15″ N., Long. 113°47′13″ W.; to Lat. 35°57′51″ N., Long. 113°46′01″ W.; to Lat. 35°57′45″ N., Long. 113°45′23″ W.; southwest to Lat. 35°54′48″ N., Long. 113°50′24″ W.; southeast to Lat. 35°41′01″ N., Long. 113°35′27″ W.; thence clockwise via the 4.2-nautical mile radius of the Peach Springs VORTAC to Lat. 36°38′53″ N., Long. 113°27′49″ W.; northeast to Lat. 35°42′58″ N., Long. 113°10′57″ W.; north to Lat. 35°57′51″ N., Long. 113°11′06″ W.; east to Lat. 35°57′44″ N., Long. 112°14′04″ W.; thence clockwise via the 4.3-nautical mile radius of the Grand Canyon National Park Airport reference point (Lat. 35°57′08″ N., Long. 112°08′49″ W.) to the point of origin. [Docket 5926, 65 FR 17742, Apr. 4, 2000] § 93.303 Definitions. For the purposes of this subpart: Allocation means authorization to conduct a commercial air tour in the Grand Canyon National Park (GCNP) Special Flight Rules Area (SFRA). Commercial air tour means any flight conducted for compensation or hire in a powered aircraft where a purpose of the flight is sightseeing. If the operator of a flight asserts that the flight is not a commercial air tour, factors that can be considered by the Administrator in making a determination of whether the flight is a commercial air tour include, but are not limited to— (1) Whether there was a holding out to the public of willingness to conduct a sightseeing flight for compensation or hire; (2) Whether a narrative was provided that referred to areas or points of interest on the surface;

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(3) The area of operation; (4) The frequency of flights; (5) The route of flight; (6) The inclusion of sightseeing flights as part of any travel arrangement package; or (7) Whether the flight in question would or would not have been canceled based on poor visibility of the surface. Commercial Special Flight Rules Area Operation means any portion of any flight within the Grand Canyon National Park Special Flight Rules Area that is conducted by a certificate holder that has operations specifications authorizing flights within the Grand Canyon National Park Special Flight Rules Area. This term does not include operations conducted under an FAA Form 7711-1, Certificate of Waiver or Authorization. For more information on commercial special flight rules area operations, see “Grand Canyon National Park Special Flight Rules Area (GCNP SFRA) Procedures Manual,” which is available online or from the responsible Flight Standards Office. GCNP quiet aircraft technology designation means an aircraft that is subject to § 93.301 and has been shown to comply with the noise limit specified in appendix A of this part. Number of passenger seats means the number of passenger seats for which an individual aircraft is configured. Park means Grand Canyon National Park. Special Flight Rules Area means the Grand Canyon National Park Special Flight Rules Area. [65 FR 17732, Apr. 4, 2000, as amended at 70 FR 16092, Mar. 29, 2005; Amdt. 93-102, 83 FR 48212, Sept. 24, 2018] § 93.305 Flight-free zones and flight corridors. Except in an emergency or if otherwise necessary for safety of flight, or unless otherwise authorized by the responsible Flight Standards Office for a purpose listed in § 93.309, no person may operate an aircraft in the Special Flight Rules Area within the following flight-free zones: (a) Desert View Flight-free Zone. That airspace extending from the surface up to but not including 14,500 feet MSL within an area bounded by a line beginning at Lat. 35°59′58″ N., Long. 111°52′47″ W.; thence east to Lat. 36°00′00″ N., Long. 111°51′04″ W.; thence north to 36°00′24″ N., Long. 111°51′04″ W.; thence east to 36°00′24″ N., Long. 111°45′44″ W.; thence north along the GCNP boundary to Lat. 36°14′05″ N., Long. 111°48′34″ W.; thence southwest to Lat. 36°12′06″ N., Long. 111°51′14″ W.; to the point of origin; but not including the airspace at and above 10,500 feet MSL within 1 nautical mile of the western boundary of the zone. The corridor to the west between the Desert View and Bright Angel Flight-free Zones, is designated the “Zuni Point Corridor.” This corridor is 2 nautical miles wide for commercial air tour flights and 4 nautical miles wide for transient and general aviation operations. (b) Bright Angel Flight-free Zone. That airspace extending from the surface up to but not including 14,500 feet MSL within an area bounded by a line beginning at Lat. 35°58′39″ N., Long. 111°55′43″ W.; north to Lat. 36°12′41″ N., Long. 111°53′54″ W.; northwest to Lat. 36°18′18″ N., Long. 111°58′15″ W.; thence west along the GCNP boundary to Lat. 36°20′11″ N., Long. 112°06′25″ W.; south-southwest to Lat. 36°09′31″ N., Long. 112°11′15″ W.; to Lat. 36°04′16″ N., Long. 112°17′20″ W.; thence southeast along the GCNP boundary to Lat. 36°01′54″ N., Long. 112°11′24″ W.; thence clockwise via the 4.3-nautical mile radius of the Grand Canyon National Park Airport reference point (Lat. 35°57′08″ N., Long. 112°08′49″ W.) to Lat. 35°59′37″ N., Long. 112°04′29″ W.; thence east along the GCNP boundary to the point of origin; but not including the airspace at and above 10,500 feet MSL within 1 nautical mile of the eastern boundary or the airspace at and above 10,500 feet MSL within 2 nautical miles of the northwestern boundary. The corridor to the east, between this flight-free zone and the Desert View Flight-free Zone, is designated the “Zuni Point Corridor.” The corridor to the west, between the Bright Angel and Toroweap/Shinumo Flight-free Zones, is designated the “Dragon Corridor.” This corridor is 2 nautical miles wide for commercial air tour flights and 4 nautical miles wide for transient and general aviation operations. The Bright Angel Flight-free Zone does not include the following airspace designated as the Bright Angel Corridor: That airspace one-half nautical mile on either side of a line extending from Lat. 36°14′57″ N., Long. 112°08′45″ W. and Lat. 36°15′01″ N., Long. 111°55′39″ W.

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(c) Toroweap/Shinumo Flight-free Zone. That airspace extending from the surface up to but not including 14,500 feet MSL within an area bounded by a line beginning at Lat. 36°05′44″ N., Long. 112°19′27″ W.; north-northeast to Lat. 36°10′49″ N., Long. 112°13′19″ W.; to Lat. 36°21′02″ N., Long. 112°08′47″ W.; thence west and south along the GCNP boundary to Lat 36°10′58″ N., Long. 113°08′35″ W.; south to Lat. 36°10′12″ N., Long. 113°08′34″ W.; thence in an easterly direction along the park boundary to the point of origin; but not including the following airspace designated as the “Tuckup Corridor”: at or above 10,500 feet MSL within 2 nautical miles either side of a line extending between Lat. 36°24′42″ N., Long. 112°48′47″ W. and Lat. 36°14′17″ N., Long. 112°48′31″ W. The airspace designated as the “Fossil Canyon Corridor” is also excluded from the Toroweap/Shinumo Flight-free Zone at or above 10,500 feet MSL within 2 nautical miles either side of a line extending between Lat. 36°16′26″ N., Long. 112°34′35″ W. and Lat. 36°22′51″ N., Long. 112°18′18″ W. The Fossil Canyon Corridor is to be used for transient and general aviation operations only. (d) Sanup Flight-free Zone. That airspace extending from the surface up to but not including 8,000 feet MSL within an area bounded by a line beginning at Lat. 35°59′32″ N., Long. 113°20′28″ W.; west to Lat. 36°00′55″ N., Long. 113°42′09″ W.; southeast to Lat. 35°59′57″ N., Long. 113°41′09″ W.; to Lat. 35°59′09″ N., Long. 113°40′53″ W.; to Lat. 35°58′45″ N., Long. 113°40′15″ W.; to Lat. 35°57′52″ N., Long. 113°39′34″ W.; to Lat. 35°56′44″ N., Long. 113°39′07″ W.; to Lat. 35°56′04″ N., Long. 113°39′20″ W.; to Lat. 35°55′02″ N., Long. 113°40′43″ W.; to Lat. 35°54′47″ N., Long. 113°40′51″ W.; southeast to Lat. 35°50′16″ N., Long. 113°37′13″ W.; thence along the park boundary to the point of origin. [Docket 28537, 61 FR 69330, Dec. 31, 1996, as amended by Amdt. 93-80, 65 FR 17742, Apr. 4, 2000; Amdt. 93-102, 83 FR 48212, Sept. 24, 2018] § 93.307 Minimum flight altitudes. Except in an emergency, or if otherwise necessary for safety of flight, or unless otherwise authorized by the responsible Flight Standards Office for a purpose listed in § 93.309, no person may operate an aircraft in the Special Flight Rules Area at an altitude lower than the following: (a) Minimum sector altitudes —(1) Commercial air tours —(i) Marble Canyon Sector. Lees Ferry to Boundary Ridge: 6,000 feet MSL. (ii) Supai Sector. Boundary Ridge to Supai Point: 7,500 feet MSL. (iii) Diamond Creek Sector. Supai Point to Diamond Creek: 6,500 feet MSL. (iv) Pearce Ferry Sector. Diamond Creek to the Grand Wash Cliffs: 5,000 feet MSL. (2) Transient and general aviation operations —(i) Marble Canyon Sector. Lees Ferry to Boundary Ridge: 8,000 feet MSL. (ii) Supai Sector. Boundary Ridge to Supai Point: 10,000 feet MSL. (iii) Diamond Creek Sector. Supai Point to Diamond Creek: 9,000 feet MSL. (iv) Pearce Ferry Sector. Diamond Creek to the Grand Wash Cliffs: 8,000 feet MSL. (b) Minimum corridor altitudes —(1) Commercial air tours —(i) Zuni Point Corridors. 7,500 feet MSL. (ii) Dragon Corridor. 7,500 feet MSL. (2) Transient and general aviation operations —(i) Zuni Point Corridor. 10,500 feet MSL. (ii) Dragon Corridor. 10,500 feet MSL. (iii) Tuckup Corridor. 10,500 feet MSL. (iv) Fossil Canyon Corridor. 10,500 feet [Docket 28537, 61 FR 69330, Dec. 31, 1996, as amended by Amdt. 93-80, 65 FR 17742, 17743, Apr. 4, 2000; Amdt. 93-102, 83 FR 48212, Sept. 24, 2018] § 93.309 General operating procedures. Except in an emergency, no person may operate an aircraft in the Special Flight Rules Area unless the operation is conducted in accordance with the following procedures. ( Note: The following procedures do not relieve the pilot from see-and-avoid responsibility or compliance with the minimum safe altitude requirements specified in § 91.119 of this chapter.):

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(a) Unless necessary to maintain a safe distance from other aircraft or terrain remain clear of the flight-free zones described in § 93.305; (b) Unless necessary to maintain a safe distance from other aircraft or terrain, proceed through the Zuni Point, Dragon, Tuckup, and Fossil Canyon Flight Corridors described in § 93.305 at the following altitudes unless otherwise authorized in writing by the responsible Flight Standards Office: (1) Northbound. 11,500 or 13,500 feet MSL. (2) Southbound. 10,500 or 12,500 feet MSL. (c) For operation in the flight-free zones described in § 93.305, or flight below the altitudes listed in § 93.307, is authorized in writing by the responsible Flight Standards Office and is conducted in compliance with the conditions contained in that authorization. Normally authorization will be granted for operation in the areas described in § 93.305 or below the altitudes listed in § 93.307 only for operations of aircraft necessary for law enforcement, firefighting, emergency medical treatment/evacuation of persons in the vicinity of the Park; for support of Park maintenance or activities; or for aerial access to and maintenance of other property located within the Special Flight Rules Area. Authorization may be issued on a continuing basis; (d) Is conducted in accordance with a specific authorization to operate in that airspace incorporated in the operator's operations specifications and approved by the responsible Flight Standards Office in accordance with the provisions of this subpart; (e) Is a search and rescue mission directed by the U.S. Air Force Rescue Coordination Center; (f) Is conducted within 3 nautical miles of Grand Canyon Bar Ten Airstrip, Pearce Ferry Airstrip, Cliff Dwellers Airstrip, Marble Canyon Airstrip, or Tuweep Airstrip at an altitude less than 3,000 feet above airport elevation, for the purpose of landing at or taking off from that facility; or (g) Is conducted under an instrument flight rules (IFR) clearance and the pilot is acting in accordance with ATC instructions. An IFR flight plan may not be filed on a route or at an altitude that would require operation in an area described in § 93.305. [Docket 28537, 61 FR 69330, Dec. 31, 1996, as amended by Amdt. 93-80, 65 FR 17742, 17743, Apr. 4, 2000; Amdt. 93-102, 83 FR 48212, Sept. 24, 2018] § 93.311 Minimum terrain clearance. Except in an emergency, when necessary for takeoff or landing, or unless otherwise authorized by the responsible Flight Standards Office for a purpose listed in § 93.309(c), no person may operate an aircraft within 500 feet of any terrain or structure located between the north and south rims of the Grand Canyon. [Docket FAA-2018-0851, Amdt. 93-102, 83 FR 48212, Sept. 24, 2018] § 93.313 Communications. Except when in contact with the Grand Canyon National Park Airport Traffic Control Tower during arrival or departure or on a search and rescue mission directed by the U.S. Air Force Rescue Coordination Center, no person may operate an aircraft in the Special Flight Rules Area unless he monitors the appropriate frequency continuously while in that airspace. § 93.315 Requirements for commercial Special Flight Rules Area operations. Each person conducting commercial Special Flight Rules Area operations must be certificated in accordance with Part 119 for Part 135 or 121 operations and hold appropriate Grand Canyon National Park Special Flight Rules Area operations specifications. [65 FR 17732, Apr. 4, 2000] § 93.316 [Reserved]
§ 93.317 Commercial Special Flight Rules Area operation curfew. Unless otherwise authorized by the responsible Flight Standards Office, no person may conduct a commercial Special Flight Rules Area operation in the Dragon and Zuni Point corridors during the following flight-free periods: (a) Summer season (May 1-September 30)-6 p.m. to 8 a.m. daily; and

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(b) Winter season (October 1-April 30)-5 p.m. to 9 a.m. daily. [65 FR 17732, Apr. 4, 2000, as amended by Amdt. 93-102, 83 FR 48213, Sept. 24, 2018] § 93.319 Commercial air tour limitations. (a) Unless excepted under paragraph (f) or (g) of this section, no certificate holder certificated in accordance with part 119 for part 121 or 135 operations may conduct more commercial air tours in the Grand Canyon National Park in any calendar year than the number of allocations specified on the certificate holder's operations specifications. (b) The Administrator determines the number of initial allocations for each certificate holder based on the total number of commercial air tours conducted by the certificate holder and reported to the FAA during the period beginning on May 1, 1997 and ending on April 30, 1998, unless excepted under paragraph (g). (c) Certificate holders who conducted commercial air tours during the base year and reported them to the FAA receive an initial allocation. (d) A certificate holder must use one allocation for each flight that is a commercial air tour, unless excepted under paragraph (f) or (g) of this section. (e) Each certificate holder's operation specifications will identify the following information, as applicable: (1) Total SFRA allocations; and (2) Dragon corridor and Zuni Point corridor allocations. (f) Certificate holders satisfying the requirements of § 93.315 of this subpart are not required to use a commercial air tour allocation for each commercial air tour flight in the GCNP SFRA provided the following conditions are satisfied: (1) The certificate holder conducts its operations in conformance with the routes and airspace authorizations as specified in its Grand Canyon National Park Special Flight Rules Area operations specifications; (2) The certificate holder must have executed a written contract with the Hualapai Indian Nation which grants the certificate holder a trespass permit and specifies the maximum number of flights to be permitted to land at Grand Canyon West Airport and at other sites located in the vicinity of that airport and operates in compliance with that contract; and (3) The certificate holder must have a valid operations specification that authorizes the certificate holder to conduct the operations specified in the contract with the Hualapai Indian Nation and specifically approves the number of operations that may transit the Grand Canyon National Park Special Flight Rules Area under this exception. (g) Certificate holders conducting commercial air tours at or above 14,500 feet MSL but below 18,000 feet MSL who did not receive initial allocations in 1999 because they were not required to report during the base year may operate without an allocation when conducting air tours at those altitudes. Certificate holders conducting commercial air tours in the area affected by the eastward shift of the SFRA who did not receive initial allocations in 1999 because they were not required to report during the base year may continue to operate on the specified routes without an allocation in the area bounded by longitude line 111 degrees 42 minutes east and longitude line 111 degrees 36 minutes east. This exception does not include operation in the Zuni Point corridor. [65 FR 17732, Apr. 4, 2000] § 93.321 Transfer and termination of allocations. (a) Allocations are not a property interest; they are an operating privilege subject to absolute FAA control. (b) Allocations are subject to the following conditions: (1) The Administrator will re-authorize and re-distribute allocations no earlier than two years from the effective date of this rule. (2) Allocations that are held by the FAA at the time of reallocation may be distributed among remaining certificate holders, proportionate to the size of each certificate holder's allocation. (3) The aggregate SFRA allocations will not exceed the number of operations reported to the FAA for the base year beginning on May 1, 1997 and ending on April 30, 1998, except as adjusted to incorporate operations occurring for the base year of April 1, 2000 and ending on March 31, 2001, that operate at or above 14,500 feet MSL and below 18,000 feet MSL and operations in the area affected by the eastward shift of the SFRA bounded by longitude line 111 degrees 42 minutes east to longitude 111 degrees 36 minutes east.

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(4) Allocations may be transferred among Part 135 or Part 121 certificate holders, subject to all of the following: (i) Such transactions are subject to all other applicable requirements of this chapter. (ii) Allocations authorizing commercial air tours outside the Dragon and Zuni Point corridors may not be transferred into the Dragon and Zuni Point corridors. Allocations authorizing commercial air tours within the Dragon and Zuni Point corridors may be transferred outside of the Dragon and Zuni Point corridors. (iii) A certificate holder must notify in writing the responsible Flight Standards Office within 10 calendar days of a transfer of allocations. This notification must identify the parties involved, the type of transfer (permanent or temporary) and the number of allocations transferred. Permanent transfers are not effective until the responsible Flight Standards Office reissues the operations specifications reflecting the transfer. Temporary transfers are effective upon notification. (5) An allocation will revert to the FAA upon voluntary cessation of commercial air tours within the SFRA for any consecutive 180-day period unless the certificate holder notifies the FSDO in writing, prior to the expiration of the 180-day time period, of the following: the reason why the certificate holder has not conducted any commercial air tours during the consecutive 180-day period; and the date the certificate holder intends on resuming commercial air tours operations. The FSDO will notify the certificate holder of any extension to the consecutive 180-days. A certificate holder may be granted one extension. (6) The FAA retains the right to re-distribute, reduce, or revoke allocations based on: (i) Efficiency of airspace; (ii) Voluntary surrender of allocations; (iii) Involuntary cessation of operations; and (iv) Aviation safety. [65 FR 17733, Apr. 4, 2000 as amended by Amdt. 93-102, 83 FR 48213, Sept. 24, 2018] § 93.323 [Reserved
§ 93.325 Quarterly reporting. (a) Each certificate holder must submit in writing, within 30 days of the end of each calendar quarter, the total number of commercial SFRA operations conducted for that quarter. Quarterly reports must be filed with the responsible Flight Standards Office. (b) Each quarterly report must contain the following information. (1) Make and model of aircraft; (2) Identification number (registration number) for each aircraft; (3) Departure airport for each segment flown; (4) Departure date and actual Universal Coordinated Time, as applicable for each segment flown; (5) Type of operation; and (6) Route(s) flown. [65 FR 17733, Apr. 4, 2000 as amended by Amdt. 93-102, 83 FR 48213, Sept. 24, 2018]

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Pt. 93, Subpt. U, App. Appendix to Subpart U of Part 93—Special Flight Rules in the Vicinity of the Grand Canyon National Park, AZ [Please see PDF for image: EC26SE91.001] Pt. 93, Subpt. U, App. A Appendix A to Subpart U of Part 93—GCNP Quiet Aircraft Technology Designation This appendix contains procedures for determining the GCNP quiet aircraft technology designation status for each aircraft subject to § 93.301 determined during the noise certification process as prescribed under part 36 of this chapter. Where no certificated noise level is available, the Administrator may approve an alternative measurement procedure.

Aircraft Noise Limit for GCNP Quiet Aircraft Technology Designation

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A. For helicopters with a flyover noise level obtained in accordance with the measurement procedures prescribed in Appendix H of 14 CFR part 36, the limit is 80 dB for helicopters having a seating configuration of two or fewer passenger seats, increasing at 3 dB per doubling of the number of passenger seats for helicopters having a seating configuration of three or more passenger seats. The noise limit for helicopters with three or more passenger seats can be calculated by the formula: EPNL(H) = 80 + 10log(# PAX seats/2) dB B. For helicopters with a flyover noise level obtained in accordance with the measurement procedures prescribed in Appendix J of 14 CFR part 36, the limit is 77 dB for helicopters having a seating configuration of two or fewer passenger seats, increasing at 3 dB per doubling of the number of passenger seats for helicopters having a seating configuration of three or more passenger seats. The noise limit for helicopters with three or more passenger seats can be calculated by the formula: SEL(J) = 77 + 10log(# PAX seats/2) dB C. For propeller-driven airplanes with a measured flyover noise level obtained in accordance with the measurement procedures prescribed in Appendix F of 14 CFR part 36 without the performance correction defined in Sec. F35.201(c), the limit is 69 dB for airplanes having a seating configuration of two or fewer passenger seats, increasing at 3 dB per doubling of the number of passenger seats for airplanes having a seating configuration of three or more passenger seats. The noise limit for propeller-driven airplanes with three or more passenger seats can be calculated by the formula: LAmax(F) = 69 + 10log(# PAX seats/2) dB D. In the event that a flyover noise level is not available in accordance with Appendix F of 14 CFR part 36, the noise limit for propeller-driven airplanes with a takeoff noise level obtained in accordance with the measurement procedures prescribed in Appendix G is 74 dB or 77 dB, depending on 14 CFR part 36 amendment level, for airplanes having a seating configuration of two or fewer passenger seats, increasing at 3 dB per doubling of the number of passenger seats for airplanes having a seating configuration of three or more passenger seats. The noise limit for propeller-driven airplanes with three or more passenger seats can be calculated by the formula: LAmax(G) = 74 + 10log(# PAX seats/2) dB for certifications obtained under 14 CFR part 36, Amendment 21 or earlier; LAmax(G) = 77 + 10log(# PAX seats/2) dB for certifications obtained under 14 CFR part 36, Amendment 22 or later. [Docket FAA-2003-14715, 70 FR 16092, Mar. 29, 2005] Subpart V—Washington, DC Metropolitan Area Special Flight Rules Area Source: Docket FAA-2004-17005, 73 FR 76213, Dec. 16, 2008, unless otherwise noted. § 93.331 Purpose and applicability of this subpart. This subpart prescribes special air traffic rules for aircraft operating in the Washington, DC Metropolitan Area. Because identification and control of aircraft is required for reasons of national security, the areas described in this subpart constitute national defense airspace. The purpose of establishing this area is to facilitate the tracking of, and communication with, aircraft to deter persons who would use an aircraft as a weapon, or as a means of delivering weapons, to conduct an attack on persons, property, or buildings in the area. This subpart applies to pilots conducting any type of flight operations in the airspace designated as the Washington, DC Metropolitan Area Special Flight Rules Area (DC SFRA) (as defined in § 93.335), which includes the airspace designated as the Washington, DC Metropolitan Area Flight Restricted Zone (DC FRZ) (as defined in § 93.335). § 93.333 Failure to comply with this subpart. (a) Any violation. The FAA may take civil enforcement action against a pilot for violations, whether inadvertent or intentional, including imposition of civil penalties and suspension or revocation of airmen's certificates. (b) Knowing or willful violations. The DC FRZ and DC SFRA were established for reasons of national security under the provisions of 49 U.S.C. 40103(b)(3). Areas established by the FAA under that authority constitute “national defense airspace” as that term is used in 49 U.S.C. 46307. In addition to being subject to the provisions of paragraph (a) of this section, persons who knowingly or willfully violate national defense airspace established pursuant to 49 U.S.C. 40103(b)(3) may be subject to criminal prosecution.

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§ 93.335 Definitions. For purposes of this subpart— DC FRZ flight plan is a flight plan filed for the sole purpose of complying with the requirements for VFR operations into, out of, and through the DC FRZ. This flight plan is separate and distinct from a standard VFR flight plan, and does not include search and rescue services. DC SFRA flight plan is a flight plan filed for the sole purpose of complying with the requirements for VFR operations into, out of, and through the DC SFRA. This flight plan is separate and distinct from a standard VFR flight plan, and does not include search and rescue services. Fringe airports are the following airports located near the outer boundary of the Washington, DC Metropolitan Area Special Flight Rules Area: Barnes (MD47), Flying M Farms (MD77), Mountain Road (MD43), Robinson (MD14), and Skyview (51VA). Washington, DC Metropolitan Area Flight Restricted Zone (DC FRZ) is an area bounded by a line beginning at the Washington VOR/DME (DCA) 311° radial at 15 nautical miles (NM) (Lat. 38°59′31″ N., Long. 077°18′30″ W.); then clockwise along the DCA 15 nautical mile arc to the DCA 002° radial at 15 NM (Lat. 39°06′28″ N., Long 077°04′32″ W.); then southeast via a line drawn to the DCA 049° radial at 14 NM (Lat. 39°02′18″ N., Long. 076°50′38″ W.); thence south via a line drawn to the DCA 064° radial at 13 NM (Lat. 38°59′01″ N., Long. 076°48′32″ W.); thence clockwise along the 13 NM arc to the DCA 276° radial at 13 NM (Lat.38°50′53″ N., Long 077°18′48″ W.); thence north to the point of beginning, excluding the airspace within a one nautical mile radius of the Freeway Airport, W00, Mitchellville, MD from the surface up to but not including flight level (FL) 180. The DC FRZ is within and part of the Washington, DC Metropolitan Area SFRA. Washington, DC Metropolitan Area Special Flight Rules Area (DC SFRA) is an area of airspace over the surface of the earth where the ready identification, location, and control of aircraft is required in the interests of national security. Specifically, the DC SFRA is that airspace, from the surface to, but not including, FL 180, within a 30-mile radius of Lat. 38°51′34″ N., Long. 077°02′11″ W., or the DCA VOR/DME. The DC SFRA includes the DC FRZ. [Docket FAA-2004-17005, 73 FR 76213, Dec. 16, 2008; Amdt. 93-91, 73 FR 79314, Dec. 29, 2008] § 93.337 Requirements for operating in the DC SFRA. A pilot conducting any type of flight operation in the DC SFRA must comply with the restrictions listed in this subpart and all special instructions issued by the FAA in the interest of national security. Those special instructions may be issued in any manner the FAA considers appropriate, including a NOTAM. Additionally, a pilot must comply with all of the applicable requirements of this chapter. § 93.339 Requirements for operating in the DC SFRA, including the DC FRZ. (a) Except as provided in paragraphs (b) and (c) of this section and in § 93.345, or unless authorized by Air Traffic Control, no pilot may operate an aircraft, including an ultralight vehicle or any civil aircraft or public aircraft, in the DC SFRA, including the DC FRZ, unless— (1) The aircraft is equipped with an operable two-way radio capable of communicating with Air Traffic Control on appropriate radio frequencies; (2) Before operating an aircraft in the DC SFRA, including the DC FRZ, the pilot establishes two-way radio communications with the appropriate Air Traffic Control facility and maintains such communications while operating the aircraft in the DC SFRA, including the DC FRZ; (3) The aircraft is equipped with an operating automatic altitude reporting transponder; (4) Before operating an aircraft in the DC SFRA, including the DC FRZ, the pilot obtains and transmits a discrete transponder code from Air Traffic Control, and the aircraft's transponder continues to transmit the assigned code while operating within the DC SFRA;

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(5) For VFR operations, the pilot must file and activate a DC FRZ or DC SFRA flight plan by obtaining a discrete transponder code. The flight plan is closed upon landing at an airport within the DC SFRA or when the aircraft exits the DC SFRA; (6) Before operating the aircraft into, out of, or through the Washington, DC Tri-Area Class B Airspace Area, the pilot receives a specific Air Traffic Control clearance to operate in the Class B airspace area; and (7) Before operating the aircraft into, out of, or through Class D airspace area that is within the DC SFRA, the pilot complies with § 91.129 of this chapter. (b) Paragraph (a)(5) of this section does not apply to operators of Department of Defense aircraft, law enforcement operations, or lifeguard or air ambulance operations under an FAA/TSA airspace authorization, if the flight crew is in contact with Air Traffic Control and is transmitting an Air Traffic Control-assigned discrete transponder code. (c) When operating an aircraft in the VFR traffic pattern at an airport within the DC SFRA (but not within the DC FRZ) that does not have an airport traffic control tower, a pilot must— (1) File a DC SFRA flight plan for traffic pattern work; (2) Communicate traffic pattern position via the published Common Traffic Advisory Frequency (CTAF); (3) Monitor VHF frequency 121.5 or UHF frequency 243.0, if the aircraft is suitably equipped; (4) Obtain and transmit the Air Traffic Control-assigned discrete transponder code; and (5) When exiting the VFR traffic pattern, comply with paragraphs (a)(1) through (a)(7) of this section. (d) When operating an aircraft in the VFR traffic pattern at an airport within the DC SFRA (but not within the DC FRZ) that has an operating airport traffic control tower, a pilot must— (1) Before departure or before entering the traffic pattern, request to remain in the traffic pattern; (2) Remain in two-way radio communications with the tower. If the aircraft is suitably equipped, the pilot must also monitor VHF frequency 121.5 or UHF frequency 243.0; (3) Continuously operate the aircraft transponder on code 1234 unless Air Traffic Control assigns a different code; and (4) Before exiting the traffic pattern, comply with paragraphs (a)(1) through (a)(7) of this section. (e) Pilots must transmit the assigned transponder code. No pilot may use transponder code 1200 while in the DC SFRA. § 93.341 Aircraft operations in the DC FRZ. (a) Except as provided in paragraph (b) of this section, no pilot may conduct any flight operation under part 91, 101, 103, 105, 125, 133, 135, or 137 of this chapter in the DC FRZ, unless the specific flight is operating under an FAA/TSA authorization. (b) Department of Defense (DOD) operations, law enforcement operations, and lifeguard or air ambulance operations under an FAA/TSA airspace authorization are excepted from the prohibition in paragraph (a) of this section if the pilot is in contact with Air Traffic Control and operates the aircraft transponder on an Air Traffic Control-assigned beacon code. (c) The following aircraft operations are permitted in the DC FRZ: (1) Aircraft operations under the DCA Access Standard Security Program (DASSP) (49 CFR part 1562) with a Transportation Security Administration (TSA) flight authorization. (2) Law enforcement and other U.S. Federal aircraft operations with prior FAA approval. (3) Foreign-operated military and state aircraft operations with a State Department-authorized diplomatic clearance, with State Department notification to the FAA and TSA. (4) Federal, State, Federal DOD contract, local government agency aircraft operations and part 121, 129 or 135 air carrier flights with TSA-approved full aircraft operator standard security programs/procedures, if operating with DOD permission and notification to the FAA and the National Capital Regional Coordination Center (NCRCC). These flights may land and depart Andrews Air Force Base, MD, with prior permission, if required.

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(5) Aircraft operations maintaining radio contact with Air Traffic Control and continuously transmitting an Air Traffic Control-assigned discrete transponder code. The pilot must monitor VHF frequency 121.5 or UHF frequency 243.0. (d) Before departing from an airport within the DC FRZ, or before entering the DC FRZ, all aircraft, except DOD, law enforcement, and lifeguard or air ambulance aircraft operating under an FAA/TSA airspace authorization must file and activate an IFR or a DC FRZ flight plan and transmit a discrete transponder code assigned by an Air Traffic Control facility. Aircraft must transmit the discrete transponder code at all times while in the DC FRZ or DC SFRA. [Docket FAA-2004-17005, 73 FR 76213, Dec. 16, 2008, as amended by Amdt. 93-91A, 83 FR 13411, Mar. 29, 2018] § 93.343 Requirements for aircraft operations to or from College Park Airport, Potomac Airfield, or Washington Executive/Hyde Field Airport. (a) A pilot may not operate an aircraft to or from College Park Airport, MD, Potomac Airfield, MD, or Washington Executive/Hyde Field Airport, MD unless— (1) The aircraft and its crew and passengers comply with security rules issued by the TSA in 49 CFR part 1562, subpart A; (2) Before departing, the pilot files an IFR or DC FRZ flight plan with the Washington Air Route Traffic Control Center for each departure and arrival from/to College Park, Potomac Airfield, and Washington Executive/Hyde Field airports, whether or not the aircraft makes an intermediate stop; (3) When filing a flight plan with the Washington Air Route Traffic Control Center, the pilot identifies himself or herself by providing the assigned pilot identification code. The Washington Air Route Traffic Control Center will accept the flight plan only after verifying the code; and (4) The pilot complies with the applicable IFR or VFR egress procedures in paragraph (b), (c) or (d) of this section. (b) If using IFR procedures, a pilot must— (1) Obtain an Air Traffic Control clearance from the Potomac TRACON; and (2) Comply with Air Traffic Control departure instructions from Washington Executive/Hyde Field, Potomac Airport, or College Park Airport. The pilot must then proceed on the Air Traffic Control-assigned course and remain clear of the DC FRZ. (c) If using VFR egress procedures, a pilot must— (1) Depart as instructed by Air Traffic Control and expect a heading directly out of the DC FRZ until the pilot establishes two-way radio communication with Potomac Approach; and (2) Operate as assigned by Air Traffic Control until clear of the DC FRZ, the DC SFRA, and the Class B or Class D airspace area. (d) If using VFR ingress procedures, the aircraft must remain outside the DC SFRA until the pilot establishes communications with Air Traffic Control and receives authorization for the aircraft to enter the DC SFRA. (e) VFR arrivals: (1) If landing at College Park Airport a pilot may receive routing via the vicinity of Freeway Airport; or (2) If landing at Washington Executive/Hyde Field or Potomac Airport, the pilot may receive routing via the vicinity of Maryland Airport or the Nottingham VORTAC. [Docket FAA-2004-17005, 73 FR 76213, Dec. 16, 2008, as amended by Amdt. 93-91A, 83 FR 13411, Mar. 29, 2018] § 93.345 VFR outbound procedures for fringe airports. (a) A pilot may depart from a fringe airport as defined in § 93.335 without filing a flight plan or communicating with Air Traffic Control, unless requested, provided: (1) The aircraft's transponder transmits code 1205; (2) The pilot exits the DC SFRA by the most direct route before proceeding on course; and (3) The pilot monitors VHF frequency 121.5 or UHF frequency 243.0. (b) No pilot may operate an aircraft arriving at a fringe airport or transit the DC SFRA unless that pilot complies with the DC SFRA operating procedures in this subpart.

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Subpart W—New York Class B Airspace Hudson River and East River Exclusion Special Flight Rules Area Source: 74 FR 59910, Nov. 19, 2009, unless otherwise noted. § 93.350 Definitions. For the purposes of this subpart only the following definitions apply: (a) Local operation. Any aircraft within the Hudson River Exclusion that is conducting an operation other than as described in paragraph (b) of this section. Local operations include but are not limited to operations for sightseeing, electronic news gathering, and law enforcement. (b) Transient operation. Aircraft transiting the entire length of the Hudson River Class B Exclusion, as defined in paragraph (d) of this section, from one end to the other. (c) New York Class B airspace East River Exclusion is that airspace below 1,500 feet MSL between the east and west banks of, and overlying, the East River beginning at lat. 40°38′39″ N., long. 74°02′03″ W., thence north along a line drawn direct to the southwestern tip of Governors Island, thence north along a line direct to the southwest tip of Manhattan Island, thence north along the west bank of the East River to the LGA VOR/DME 6-mile arc, thence counterclockwise along the 6-mile arc to the east bank of the East River, thence south along the east bank of the East River to the point of beginning at lat. 40°38′39″ N., long 74°02′03″ W.; and that airspace 1,100 feet MSL and below between the east and west banks of, and overlying the East River, from the LGA VOR/DME 6-mile arc to the north tip of Roosevelt Island. (d) New York Class B airspace Hudson River Exclusion is that area from the surface up to but not including the overlying floor of the New York Class B airspace area, between the east and west banks of, and overlying, the Hudson River within the area beginning north of LaGuardia Airport on the west bank of the Hudson River at lat. 40°57′45″ N., long. 73°54′48″ W. (near Alpine Tower), thence south along the west bank of the Hudson River to intersect the Colts Neck VOR/DME 012° radial, thence southwest along the Colts Neck 012° radial to the Hudson River shoreline, thence south along the shoreline to the Verrazano-Narrows Bridge, thence east along the Bridge to the east bank of the Hudson River, thence north along the east bank of the Hudson River to lat. 40°38′39″ N., long. 74°02′03″ W., thence north along a line drawn direct to the southwesternmost point of Governors Island, thence north along a line drawn direct to the southwest tip of Manhattan Island, thence north along the east bank of the Hudson River to the LGA VOR/DME 11-mile arc, north of LaGuardia Airport, thence counterclockwise along the 11-mile arc to lat. 40°57′54″ N., long. 73°54′23″ W., thence to the point of beginning. § 93.351 General requirements for operating in the East River and/or Hudson River Exclusions. Pilots must adhere to the following requirements: (a) Maintain an indicated airspeed not to exceed 140 knots. (b) Anti-collision lights and aircraft position/navigation lights shall be on, if equipped. Use of landing lights is recommended. (c) Self announce position on the appropriate radio frequency for the East River or Hudson River as depicted on the New York VFR Terminal Area Chart (TAC) and/or New York Helicopter Route Chart. (d) Have a current New York TAC chart and/or New York Helicopter Route Chart in the aircraft and be familiar with the information contained therein. § 93.352 Hudson River Exclusion specific operating procedures. In addition to the requirements in § 93.351, the following procedures apply: (a) Pilots must self announce, at the charted mandatory reporting points, the following information: aircraft type, current position, direction of flight, and altitude.

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(b) Pilots must fly along the west shoreline of the Hudson River when southbound, and along the east shoreline of the Hudson River when northbound; while remaining within the boundaries of the Hudson River Exclusion as defined in § 93.350(d). (c) Aircraft transiting the area within the Hudson River Exclusion in accordance with § 93.350(b) must transit the Hudson River Exclusion at or above an altitude of 1,000 feet MSL up to, but not including, the floor of the overlying Class B airspace. § 93.353 East River Exclusion specific operating procedures. No person may operate an airplane in the East River Exclusion extending from the southwestern tip of Governors Island to the north tip of Roosevelt Island except: (a) Seaplanes landing on or taking off from the river; or (b) Airplanes authorized by ATC. Pilots must contact LaGuardia Airport Traffic Control Tower prior to Governors Island for authorization. Pt. 97 PART 97—STANDARD INSTRUMENT PROCEDURES Subpart A—General Sec. 97.1 Applicability. 97.3 Symbols and terms used in procedures. 97.5 Bearings, courses, tracks, headings, radials, miles. Subpart B—Procedures 97.10 [Reserved] Subpart C—TERPS Procedures 97.20 General. Authority: 49 U.S.C. 106(f), 106(g), 40103, 40106, 40113, 40114, 40120, 44502, 44514, 44701, 44719, and 44721-44722. Source: Docket 1580, 28 FR 6719, June 29, 1963, unless otherwise noted. Subpart A—General § 97.1 Applicability. (a) This part prescribes standard instrument approach procedures to civil airports in the United States and the weather minimums that apply to landings under IFR at those airports. (b) This part also prescribes obstacle departure procedures (ODPs) for certain civil airports in the United States and the weather minimums that apply to takeoffs under IFR at civil airports in the United States. [Docket FAA-2002-14002, 72 FR 31679, June 7, 2007] Effective Date Note: Amendments to § 97.1 were published by Docket FAA-2023-1275, Amdt. 60-8, 89 FR 92486, Nov. 21, 2024, effective Jan. 21, 2025. § 97.3 Symbols and terms used in procedures. As used in the standard instrument procedures prescribed in this part— Aircraft approach category means a grouping of aircraft based on a speed of VREF, if specified, or if VREF is not specified, 1.3 V so at the maximum certificated landing weight. VREF, V so , and the maximum certificated landing weight are those values as established for the aircraft by the certification authority of the country of registry. The categories are as follows— (1) Category A: Speed less than 91 knots. (2) Category B: Speed 91 knots or more but less than 121 knots. (3) Category C: Speed 121 knots or more but less than 141 knots. (4) Category D: Speed 141 knots or more but less than 166 knots. (5) Category E: Speed 166 knots or more.

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Approach procedure segments for which altitudes (minimum altitudes, unless otherwise specified) and paths are prescribed in procedures, are as follows— (1) Initial approach is the segment between the initial approach fix and the intermediate fix or the point where the aircraft is established on the intermediate course or final approach course. (2) Initial approach altitude is the altitude (or altitudes, in high altitude procedure) prescribed for the initial approach segment of an instrument approach. (3) Intermediate approach is the segment between the intermediate fix or point and the final approach fix. (4) Final approach is the segment between the final approach fix or point and the runway, airport, or missed approach point. (5) Missed approach is the segment between the missed approach point, or point of arrival at decision altitude or decision height (DA/DH), and the missed approach fix at the prescribed altitude. Ceiling means the minimum ceiling, expressed in feet above the airport elevation, required for takeoff or required for designating an airport as an alternate airport. Copter procedures means helicopter procedures, with applicable minimums as prescribed in § 97.35. Helicopters may also use other procedures prescribed in subpart C of this part and may use the Category A minimum descent altitude (MDA), or decision altitude or decision height (DA/DH). For other than “copter-only” approaches, the required visibility minimum for Category I approaches may be reduced to one-half the published visibility minimum for Category A aircraft, but in no case may it be reduced to less than one-quarter mile prevailing visibility, or, if reported, 1,200 feet RVR. Reduction of visibility minima on Category II instrument approach procedures is prohibited. FAF means final approach fix. HAA means height above airport and is expressed in feet. HAL means height above landing and is the height of the DA/MDA above a designated helicopter landing area elevation used for helicopter instrument approach procedures and is expressed in feet. HAS means height above the surface and is the height of the DA/MDA above the highest terrain/surface within a 5,200-foot radius of the missed approach point used in helicopter instrument approach procedures and is expressed in feet above ground level (AGL). HAT means height above touchdown. HCH means helipoint crossing height and is the computed height of the vertical guidance path above the helipoint elevation at the helipoint expressed in feet. Helipoint means the aiming point for the final approach course. It is normally the center point of the touchdown and lift-off area (TLOF). Hold in lieu of PT means a holding pattern established under applicable FAA criteria, and used in lieu of a procedure turn to execute a course reversal. MAP means missed approach point. More than 65 knots means an aircraft that has a stalling speed of more than 65 knots (as established in an approved flight manual) at maximum certificated landing weight with full flaps, landing gear extended, and power off. MSA means minimum safe altitude, expressed in feet above mean sea level, depicted on an approach chart that provides at least 1,000 feet of obstacle clearance for emergency use within a certain distance from the specified navigation facility or fix. NA means not authorized. NOPT means no procedure turn required. Altitude prescribed applies only if procedure turn is not executed. Procedure turn means the maneuver prescribed when it is necessary to reverse direction to establish the aircraft on an intermediate or final approach course. The outbound course, direction of turn, distance within which the turn must be completed, and minimum altitude are specified in the procedure. However, the point at which the turn may be begun, and the type and rate of turn, is left to the discretion of the pilot. RA means radio altimeter setting height. RVV means runway visibility value. SIAP means standard instrument approach procedure.

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65 knots or less means an aircraft that has a stalling speed of 65 knots or less (as established in an approved flight manual) at maximum certificated landing weight with full flaps, landing gear extended, and power off. T means nonstandard takeoff minimums or specified departure routes/procedures or both. TDZ means touchdown zone. Visibility minimum means the minimum visibility specified for approach, landing, or takeoff, expressed in statute miles, or in feet where RVR is reported. [Docket FAA-2002-14002, 72 FR 31679, June 7, 2007] § 97.5 Bearings, courses, tracks, headings, radials, miles. (a) All bearings, courses, tracks, headings, and radials in this part are magnetic, unless otherwise designated. (b) RVR values are stated in feet. Other visibility values are stated in statute miles. All other mileages are stated in nautical miles. [Docket 561, 32 FR 13912, Oct. 6, 1967, as amended by Amdt. 97-1336, 72 FR 31680, June 7, 2007] Subpart B—Procedures Editorial Note: The procedures set forth in this subpart were formerly carried as §§ 609.100 through 609.500 of this title and were transferred to part 97 as §§ 97.11 through 97.19, respectively, but are not carried in the Code of Federal Regulations. For Federal Register citations affecting these procedures, see the List of CFR Sections Affected, which appears in the Finding Aids section of the printed volume and at www.govinfo.gov.

§ 97.10 [Reserved]
Subpart C—TERPS Procedures Source: Docket 8130, 32 FR 13912, Oct. 6, 1967, unless otherwise noted. Editorial Note: The procedures for §§ 97.21 through 97.37, respectively, are not carried in the Code of Federal Regulations. For Federal Register citations affecting these procedures, see the List of CFR Sections Affected, which appears in the Finding Aids section of the printed volume and at www.govinfo.gov.

§ 97.20 General. (a) This subpart prescribes standard instrument approach procedures and takeoff minimums and obstacle departure procedures (ODPs) based on the criteria contained in FAA Order 8260.3, U.S. Standard for Terminal Instrument Procedures (TERPs), and other related Orders in the 8260 series that also address instrument procedure design criteria. (b) Standard instrument approach procedures and associated supporting data adopted by the FAA are documented on FAA Forms 8260-3, 8260-4, 8260-5. Takeoff minimums and obstacle departure procedures (ODPs) are documented on FAA Form 8260-15A. These forms are incorporated by reference. The Director of the Federal Register approved this incorporation by reference pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 552(a) and 1 CFR part 51. The standard instrument approach procedures and takeoff minimums and obstacle departure procedures (ODPs) are available for examination at the U.S. Department of Transportation, Docket Operations, 1200 New Jersey Avenue SE, West Building Ground Floor, Room W12-140, Washington, DC 20590, and at Aeronautical Information Services, 1305 East-West Highway, Silver Spring, MD 20910, or at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, email: fedreg.legal@nara.gov , or go to http://www.archives.gov/federal_register/code_of_federal_regulations/ibr_locations.html. (c) Standard instrument approach procedures and takeoff minimums and obstacle departure procedures (ODPs) are depicted on aeronautical charts published by the FAA. These charts are available from the FAA at https://www.faa.gov/air_traffic/flight_info/aeronav/digital_products/. [Docket FAA-2002-14002, 72 FR 31680, June 7, 2007, as amended by Docket FAA-2018-0119, Amdt. 97-1338, 83 FR 9172, Mar. 5, 2018; Docket FAA-2022-1355, Amdt. 97-1339, 87 FR 75846, Dec. 9, 2022]

Pt. 107 PART 107—SMALL UNMANNED AIRCRAFT SYSTEMS Subpart A—General Sec. 107.1 Applicability. 107.2 Applicability of certification procedures for products and articles. 107.3 Definitions. 107.5 Falsification, reproduction, or alteration. 107.7 Inspection, testing, and demonstration of compliance. 107.9 Safety event reporting. Subpart B—Operating Rules 107.11 Applicability. 107.12 Requirement for a remote pilot certificate with a small UAS rating. 107.13 Registration. 107.15 Condition for safe operation. 107.17 Medical condition. 107.19 Remote pilot in command. 107.21 In-flight emergency. 107.23 Hazardous operation. 107.25 Operation from a moving vehicle or aircraft. 107.27 Alcohol or drugs. 107.29 Operation at night. 107.31 Visual line of sight aircraft operation. 107.33 Visual observer. 107.35 Operation of multiple small unmanned aircraft. 107.36 Carriage of hazardous material. 107.37 Operation near aircraft; right-of-way rules. 107.39 Operation over human beings. 107.41 Operation in certain airspace. 107.43 Operation in the vicinity of airports. 107.45 Operation in prohibited or restricted areas. 107.47 Flight restrictions in the proximity of certain areas designated by notice to airmen. 107.49 Preflight familiarization, inspection, and actions for aircraft operation.

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107.51 Operating limitations for small unmanned aircraft. Subpart C—Remote Pilot Certification 107.52 ATC transponder equipment prohibition. 107.53 Automatic Dependent Surveillance-Broadcast (ADS-B) Out prohibition. 107.56 Applicability. 107.57 Offenses involving alcohol or drugs. 107.59 Refusal to submit to an alcohol test or to furnish test results. 107.61 Eligibility. 107.63 Issuance of a remote pilot certificate with a small UAS rating. 107.64 Temporary certificate. 107.65 Aeronautical knowledge recency. 107.67 Knowledge tests: General procedures and passing grades. 107.69 Knowledge tests: Cheating or other unauthorized conduct. 107.71 Retesting after failure. 107.73 Knowledge and training. 107.74 Small unmanned aircraft system training. 107.77 Change of name or address. 107.79 Voluntary surrender of certificate. Subpart D—Operations Over Human Beings 107.100 Applicability. 107.105 Limitations on operations over human beings. 107.110 Category 1 operations. 107.115 Category 2 operations: Operating requirements. 107.120 Category 2 operations: Eligibility of small unmanned aircraft and other applicant requirements. 107.125 Category 3 operations: Operating requirements. 107.130 Category 3 operations: Eligibility of small unmanned aircraft and other applicant requirements. 107.135 Labeling by remote pilot in command for Category 2 and 3 operations. 107.140 Category 4 operations. 107.145 Operations over moving vehicles. 107.150 Variable mode and variable configuration of small unmanned aircraft. 107.155 Means of compliance. 107.160 Declaration of compliance. 107.165 Record retention. Subpart E—Waivers 107.200 Waiver policy and requirements. 107.205 List of regulations subject to waiver. Authority: 49 U.S.C. 106(f), 40101 note, 40103(b), 44701(a)(5), 46105(c), 46110, 44807. Source: Docket FAA-2015-0150, Amdt. 107-1, 81 FR 42209, June 28, 2016, unless otherwise noted. Subpart A—General § 107.1 Applicability. (a) Except as provided in paragraph (b) of this section, this part applies to the registration, airman certification, and operation of civil small unmanned aircraft systems within the United States. This part also applies to the eligibility of civil small unmanned aircraft systems to operate over human beings in the United States. (b) This part does not apply to the following: (1) Air carrier operations; (2) Any aircraft subject to the provisions of 49 U.S.C. 44809; (3) Any operation that the holder of an exemption under section 333 of Public Law 112-95 or 49 U.S.C. 44807 elects to conduct pursuant to the exemption, unless otherwise specified in the exemption; or (4) Any operation that a person elects to conduct under part 91 of this chapter with a small unmanned aircraft system that has been issued an airworthiness certificate. [Amdt. 107-8, 86 FR 4381, Jan. 15, 2021] § 107.2 Applicability of certification procedures for products and articles. The provisions of part 21 of this chapter do not apply to small unmanned aircraft systems operated under this part unless the small unmanned aircraft system will operate over human beings in accordance with § 107.140. [Amdt. 107-8, 86 FR 4381, Jan. 15, 2021] § 107.3 Definitions. The following definitions apply to this part. If there is a conflict between the definitions of this part and definitions specified in § 1.1 of this chapter, the definitions in this part control for purposes of this part: Control station means an interface used by the remote pilot to control the flight path of the small unmanned aircraft. Corrective lenses means spectacles or contact lenses. Declaration of compliance means a record submitted to the FAA that certifies the small unmanned aircraft conforms to the Category 2 or Category 3 requirements under subpart D of this part.

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Small unmanned aircraft means an unmanned aircraft weighing less than 55 pounds on takeoff, including everything that is on board or otherwise attached to the aircraft. Small unmanned aircraft system (small UAS) means a small unmanned aircraft and its associated elements (including communication links and the components that control the small unmanned aircraft) that are required for the safe and efficient operation of the small unmanned aircraft in the national airspace system. Unmanned aircraft means an aircraft operated without the possibility of direct human intervention from within or on the aircraft. Visual observer means a person who is designated by the remote pilot in command to assist the remote pilot in command and the person manipulating the flight controls of the small UAS to see and avoid other air traffic or objects aloft or on the ground. [Docket FAA-2015-0150, Amdt. 107-1, 81 FR 42209, June 28, 2016, as amended by Amdt. 107-8, 86 FR 4381, Jan. 15, 2021] § 107.5 Falsification, reproduction, or alteration. (a) No person may make or cause to be made— (1) Any fraudulent or intentionally false record or report that is required to be made, kept, or used to show compliance with any requirement under this part. (2) Any reproduction or alteration, for fraudulent purpose, of any certificate, rating, authorization, record or report under this part. (b) The commission by any person of an act prohibited under paragraph (a) of this section is a basis for any of the following: (1) Denial of an application for a remote pilot certificate or a certificate of waiver; (2) Denial of a declaration of compliance; (3) Suspension or revocation of any certificate, waiver, or declaration of compliance issued or accepted by the Administrator under this part and held by that person; or (4) A civil penalty. [Docket FAA-2015-0150, Amdt. 107-1, 81 FR 42209, June 28, 2016, as amended by Amdt. 107-8, 86 FR 4381, Jan. 15, 2021] § 107.7 Inspection, testing, and demonstration of compliance. (a) A remote pilot in command, owner, or person manipulating the flight controls of a small unmanned aircraft system must— (1) Have in that person's physical possession and readily accessible the remote pilot certificate with a small UAS rating and identification when exercising the privileges of that remote pilot certificate. (2) Present his or her remote pilot certificate with a small UAS rating and identification that contains the information listed at § 107.67(b)(1) through (3) for inspection upon a request from— (i) The Administrator; (ii) An authorized representative of the National Transportation Safety Board; (iii) Any Federal, State, or local law enforcement officer; or (iv) An authorized representative of the Transportation Security Administration. (3) Make available, upon request, to the Administrator any document, record, or report required to be kept under the regulations of this chapter. (b) The remote pilot in command, visual observer, owner, operator, or person manipulating the flight controls of a small unmanned aircraft system must, upon request, allow the Administrator to make any test or inspection of the small unmanned aircraft system, the remote pilot in command, the person manipulating the flight controls of a small unmanned aircraft system, and, if applicable, the visual observer to determine compliance with this part. (c) Any person holding an FAA-accepted declaration of compliance under subpart D of this part must, upon request, make available to the Administrator: (1) The declaration of compliance required under subpart D of this part; and

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(2) Any other document, record, or report required to be kept under the regulations of this chapter. (d) Any person holding an FAA-accepted declaration of compliance under subpart D of this part must, upon request, allow the Administrator to inspect its facilities, technical data, and any manufactured small UAS and witness any tests necessary to determine compliance with that subpart. [Amdt. 107-8, 86 FR 4381, Jan. 15, 2021] § 107.9 Safety event reporting. No later than 10 calendar days after an operation that meets the criteria of either paragraph (a) or (b) of this section, a remote pilot in command must report to the FAA, in a manner acceptable to the Administrator, any operation of the small unmanned aircraft involving at least: (a) Serious injury to any person or any loss of consciousness; or (b) Damage to any property, other than the small unmanned aircraft, unless one of the following conditions is satisfied: (1) The cost of repair (including materials and labor) does not exceed $500; or (2) The fair market value of the property does not exceed $500 in the event of total loss. [Docket FAA-2015-0150, Amdt. 107-1, 81 FR 42209, June 28, 2016, as amended by Docket FAA-2022-1355, Amdt. 107-10, 87 FR 75846, Dec. 9 2022] Subpart B—Operating Rules § 107.11 Applicability. This subpart applies to the operation of all civil small unmanned aircraft systems subject to this part. § 107.12 Requirement for a remote pilot certificate with a small UAS rating. (a) Except as provided in paragraph (c) of this section, no person may manipulate the flight controls of a small unmanned aircraft system unless: (1) That person has a remote pilot certificate with a small UAS rating issued pursuant to subpart C of this part and satisfies the requirements of § 107.65; or (2) That person is under the direct supervision of a remote pilot in command and the remote pilot in command has the ability to immediately take direct control of the flight of the small unmanned aircraft. (b) Except as provided in paragraph (c) of this section, no person may act as a remote pilot in command unless that person has a remote pilot certificate with a small UAS rating issued pursuant to Subpart C of this part and satisfies the requirements of § 107.65. (c) The Administrator may, consistent with international standards, authorize an airman to operate a civil foreign-registered small unmanned aircraft without an FAA-issued remote pilot certificate with a small UAS rating. § 107.13 Registration. A person operating a civil small unmanned aircraft system for purposes of flight must comply with the provisions of § 91.203(a)(2) of this chapter. § 107.15 Condition for safe operation. (a) No person may operate a civil small unmanned aircraft system unless it is in a condition for safe operation. Prior to each flight, the remote pilot in command must check the small unmanned aircraft system to determine whether it is in a condition for safe operation. (b) No person may continue flight of the small unmanned aircraft when he or she knows or has reason to know that the small unmanned aircraft system is no longer in a condition for safe operation. § 107.17 Medical condition. No person may manipulate the flight controls of a small unmanned aircraft system or act as a remote pilot in command, visual observer, or direct participant in the operation of the small unmanned aircraft if he or she knows or has reason to know that he or she has a physical or mental condition that would interfere with the safe operation of the small unmanned aircraft system. § 107.19 Remote pilot in command. (a) A remote pilot in command must be designated before or during the flight of the small unmanned aircraft.

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(b) The remote pilot in command is directly responsible for and is the final authority as to the operation of the small unmanned aircraft system. (c) The remote pilot in command must ensure that the small unmanned aircraft will pose no undue hazard to other people, other aircraft, or other property in the event of a loss of control of the small unmanned aircraft for any reason. (d) The remote pilot in command must ensure that the small UAS operation complies with all applicable regulations of this chapter. (e) The remote pilot in command must have the ability to direct the small unmanned aircraft to ensure compliance with the applicable provisions of this chapter. [Docket FAA-2015-0150, Amdt. 107-1, 81 FR 42209, June 28, 2016, as amended by Amdt. 107-8, 86 FR 4382, Jan. 15, 2021] § 107.21 In-flight emergency. (a) In an in-flight emergency requiring immediate action, the remote pilot in command may deviate from any rule of this part to the extent necessary to meet that emergency. (b) Each remote pilot in command who deviates from a rule under paragraph (a) of this section must, upon request of the Administrator, send a written report of that deviation to the Administrator. § 107.23 Hazardous operation. No person may: (a) Operate a small unmanned aircraft system in a careless or reckless manner so as to endanger the life or property of another; or (b) Allow an object to be dropped from a small unmanned aircraft in a manner that creates an undue hazard to persons or property. § 107.25 Operation from a moving vehicle or aircraft. No person may operate a small unmanned aircraft system— (a) From a moving aircraft; or (b) From a moving land or water-borne vehicle unless the small unmanned aircraft is flown over a sparsely populated area and is not transporting another person's property for compensation or hire. § 107.27 Alcohol or drugs. A person manipulating the flight controls of a small unmanned aircraft system or acting as a remote pilot in command or visual observer must comply with the provisions of §§ 91.17 and 91.19 of this chapter. § 107.29 Operation at night. (a) Except as provided in paragraph (d) of this section, no person may operate a small unmanned aircraft system at night unless— (1) The remote pilot in command of the small unmanned aircraft has completed an initial knowledge test or training, as applicable, under § 107.65 after April 6, 2021; and (2) The small unmanned aircraft has lighted anti-collision lighting visible for at least 3 statute miles that has a flash rate sufficient to avoid a collision. The remote pilot in command may reduce the intensity of, but may not extinguish, the anti-collision lighting if he or she determines that, because of operating conditions, it would be in the interest of safety to do so. (b) No person may operate a small unmanned aircraft system during periods of civil twilight unless the small unmanned aircraft has lighted anti-collision lighting visible for at least 3 statute miles that has a flash rate sufficient to avoid a collision. The remote pilot in command may reduce the intensity of, but may not extinguish, the anti-collision lighting if he or she determines that, because of operating conditions, it would be in the interest of safety to do so. (c) For purposes of paragraph (b) of this section, civil twilight refers to the following: (1) Except for Alaska, a period of time that begins 30 minutes before official sunrise and ends at official sunrise; (2) Except for Alaska, a period of time that begins at official sunset and ends 30 minutes after official sunset; and (3) In Alaska, the period of civil twilight as defined in the Air Almanac. (d) After May 17, 2021, no person may operate a small unmanned aircraft system at night in accordance with a certificate of waiver issued prior to April 21, 2021 under § 107.200. The certificates of waiver issued prior to March 16, 2021 under § 107.200 that authorize deviation from § 107.29 terminate on May 17, 2021.

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[Docket FAA-2015-0150, Amdt. 107-1, 81 FR 42209, June 28, 2016, as amended by Amdt. 107-8, 86 FR 4382, Jan. 15, 2021; 86 FR 13631, Mar. 10, 2020] § 107.31 Visual line of sight aircraft operation. (a) With vision that is unaided by any device other than corrective lenses, the remote pilot in command, the visual observer (if one is used), and the person manipulating the flight control of the small unmanned aircraft system must be able to see the unmanned aircraft throughout the entire flight in order to: (1) Know the unmanned aircraft's location; (2) Determine the unmanned aircraft's attitude, altitude, and direction of flight; (3) Observe the airspace for other air traffic or hazards; and (4) Determine that the unmanned aircraft does not endanger the life or property of another. (b) Throughout the entire flight of the small unmanned aircraft, the ability described in paragraph (a) of this section must be exercised by either: (1) The remote pilot in command and the person manipulating the flight controls of the small unmanned aircraft system; or (2) A visual observer. § 107.33 Visual observer. If a visual observer is used during the aircraft operation, all of the following requirements must be met: (a) The remote pilot in command, the person manipulating the flight controls of the small unmanned aircraft system, and the visual observer must maintain effective communication with each other at all times. (b) The remote pilot in command must ensure that the visual observer is able to see the unmanned aircraft in the manner specified in § 107.31. (c) The remote pilot in command, the person manipulating the flight controls of the small unmanned aircraft system, and the visual observer must coordinate to do the following: (1) Scan the airspace where the small unmanned aircraft is operating for any potential collision hazard; and (2) Maintain awareness of the position of the small unmanned aircraft through direct visual observation. § 107.35 Operation of multiple small unmanned aircraft. A person may not manipulate flight controls or act as a remote pilot in command or visual observer in the operation of more than one unmanned aircraft at the same time. [Amdt. 107-8, 86 FR 4382, Jan. 15, 2021] § 107.36 Carriage of hazardous material. A small unmanned aircraft may not carry hazardous material. For purposes of this section, the term hazardous material is defined in 49 CFR 171.8. § 107.37 Operation near aircraft; right-of-way rules. (a) Each small unmanned aircraft must yield the right of way to all aircraft, airborne vehicles, and launch and reentry vehicles. Yielding the right of way means that the small unmanned aircraft must give way to the aircraft or vehicle and may not pass over, under, or ahead of it unless well clear. (b) No person may operate a small unmanned aircraft so close to another aircraft as to create a collision hazard. § 107.39 Operation over human beings. No person may operate a small unmanned aircraft over a human being unless— (a) That human being is directly participating in the operation of the small unmanned aircraft; (b) That human being is located under a covered structure or inside a stationary vehicle that can provide reasonable protection from a falling small unmanned aircraft; or (c) The operation meets the requirements of at least one of the operational categories specified in subpart D of this part. [Amdt. 107-8, 86 FR 4382, Jan. 15, 2021] § 107.41 Operation in certain airspace. No person may operate a small unmanned aircraft in Class B, Class C, or Class D airspace or within the lateral boundaries of the surface area of Class E airspace designated for an airport unless that person has prior authorization from Air Traffic Control (ATC).

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§ 107.43 Operation in the vicinity of airports. No person may operate a small unmanned aircraft in a manner that interferes with operations and traffic patterns at any airport, heliport, or seaplane base. § 107.45 Operation in prohibited or restricted areas. No person may operate a small unmanned aircraft in prohibited or restricted areas unless that person has permission from the using or controlling agency, as appropriate. § 107.47 Flight restrictions in the proximity of certain areas designated by notice to airmen. A person acting as a remote pilot in command must comply with the provisions of §§ 91.137 through 91.145 and 99.7 of this chapter. § 107.49 Preflight familiarization, inspection, and actions for aircraft operation. Prior to flight, the remote pilot in command must: (a) Assess the operating environment, considering risks to persons and property in the immediate vicinity both on the surface and in the air. This assessment must include: (1) Local weather conditions; (2) Local airspace and any flight restrictions; (3) The location of persons and property on the surface; and (4) Other ground hazards. (b) Ensure that all persons directly participating in the small unmanned aircraft operation are informed about the operating conditions, emergency procedures, contingency procedures, roles and responsibilities, and potential hazards; (c) Ensure that all control links between ground control station and the small unmanned aircraft are working properly; (d) If the small unmanned aircraft is powered, ensure that there is enough available power for the small unmanned aircraft system to operate for the intended operational time; (e) Ensure that any object attached or carried by the small unmanned aircraft is secure and does not adversely affect the flight characteristics or controllability of the aircraft; and (f) If the operation will be conducted over human beings under subpart D of this part, ensure that the aircraft meets the requirements of § 107.110, § 107.120(a), § 107.130(a), or § 107.140, as applicable. [Docket FAA-2015-0150, Amdt. 107-1, 81 FR 42209, June 28, 2016, as amended by Amdt. 107-8, 86 FR 4382, Jan. 15, 2021] § 107.51 Operating limitations for small unmanned aircraft. A remote pilot in command and the person manipulating the flight controls of the small unmanned aircraft system must comply with all of the following operating limitations when operating a small unmanned aircraft system: (a) The groundspeed of the small unmanned aircraft may not exceed 87 knots (100 miles per hour). (b) The altitude of the small unmanned aircraft cannot be higher than 400 feet above ground level, unless the small unmanned aircraft: (1) Is flown within a 400-foot radius of a structure; and (2) Does not fly higher than 400 feet above the structure's immediate uppermost limit. (c) The minimum flight visibility, as observed from the location of the control station must be no less than 3 statute miles. For purposes of this section, flight visibility means the average slant distance from the control station at which prominent unlighted objects may be seen and identified by day and prominent lighted objects may be seen and identified by night. (d) The minimum distance of the small unmanned aircraft from clouds must be no less than: (1) 500 feet below the cloud; and (2) 2,000 feet horizontally from the cloud.

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Subpart C—Remote Pilot Certification § 107.52 ATC transponder equipment prohibition. Unless otherwise authorized by the Administrator, no person may operate a small unmanned aircraft system under this part with a transponder on. [Amdt. 107-7, 86 FR 4513, Jan. 15, 2021] § 107.53 Automatic Dependent Surveillance-Broadcast (ADS-B) Out prohibition. Unless otherwise authorized by the Administrator, no person may operate a small unmanned aircraft system under this part with ADS-B Out equipment in transmit mode. [Amdt. 107-7, 86 FR 4513, Jan. 15, 2021] § 107.56 Applicability. This subpart prescribes the requirements for issuing a remote pilot certificate with a small UAS rating. [Docket FAA-2015-0150, Amdt. 107-1, 81 FR 42209, June 28, 2016. Redesignated by Amdt. 107-7, 86 FR 4513, Jan. 15, 2021] § 107.57 Offenses involving alcohol or drugs. (a) A conviction for the violation of any Federal or State statute relating to the growing, processing, manufacture, sale, disposition, possession, transportation, or importation of narcotic drugs, marijuana, or depressant or stimulant drugs or substances is grounds for: (1) Denial of an application for a remote pilot certificate with a small UAS rating for a period of up to 1 year after the date of final conviction; or (2) Suspension or revocation of a remote pilot certificate with a small UAS rating. (b) Committing an act prohibited by § 91.17(a) or § 91.19(a) of this chapter is grounds for: (1) Denial of an application for a remote pilot certificate with a small UAS rating for a period of up to 1 year after the date of that act; or (2) Suspension or revocation of a remote pilot certificate with a small UAS rating. § 107.59 Refusal to submit to an alcohol test or to furnish test results. A refusal to submit to a test to indicate the percentage by weight of alcohol in the blood, when requested by a law enforcement officer in accordance with § 91.17(c) of this chapter, or a refusal to furnish or authorize the release of the test results requested by the Administrator in accordance with § 91.17(c) or (d) of this chapter, is grounds for: (a) Denial of an application for a remote pilot certificate with a small UAS rating for a period of up to 1 year after the date of that refusal; or (b) Suspension or revocation of a remote pilot certificate with a small UAS rating. § 107.61 Eligibility. Subject to the provisions of §§ 107.57 and 107.59, in order to be eligible for a remote pilot certificate with a small UAS rating under this subpart, a person must: (a) Be at least 16 years of age; (b) Be able to read, speak, write, and understand the English language. If the applicant is unable to meet one of these requirements due to medical reasons, the FAA may place such operating limitations on that applicant's certificate as are necessary for the safe operation of the small unmanned aircraft; (c) Not know or have reason to know that he or she has a physical or mental condition that would interfere with the safe operation of a small unmanned aircraft system; and (d) Demonstrate aeronautical knowledge by satisfying one of the following conditions, in a manner acceptable to the Administrator: (1) Pass an initial aeronautical knowledge test covering the areas of knowledge specified in § 107.73; or (2) If a person holds a pilot certificate (other than a student pilot certificate) issued under part 61 of this chapter and meets the flight review requirements specified in § 61.56, complete training covering the areas of knowledge specified in § 107.74. [Docket FAA-2015-0150, Amdt. 107-1, 81 FR 42209, June 28, 2016, as amended by Amdt. 107-8, 86 FR 4382, Jan. 15, 2021]

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§ 107.63 Issuance of a remote pilot certificate with a small UAS rating. An applicant for a remote pilot certificate with a small UAS rating under this subpart must make the application in a form and manner acceptable to the Administrator. (a) The application must include either: (1) Evidence showing that the applicant passed an initial aeronautical knowledge test. If applying using a paper application, this evidence must be an airman knowledge test report showing passage of the knowledge test; or (2) If a person holds a pilot certificate (other than a student pilot certificate) issued under part 61 of this chapter and meets the flight review requirements specified in § 61.56, a certificate of completion of an initial training course under this part that covers the areas of knowledge specified in § 107.74. (b) If the application is being made pursuant to paragraph (a)(2) of this section: (1) The application must be submitted to the responsible Flight Standards office, a designated pilot examiner, an airman certification representative for a pilot school, a certificated flight instructor, or other person authorized by the Administrator; (2) The person accepting the application submission must verify the identity of the applicant in a manner acceptable to the Administrator; and (3) The person making the application must, by logbook endorsement or other manner acceptable to the Administrator, show the applicant meets the flight review requirements specified in § 61.56 of this chapter. [Docket FAA-2015-0150, Amdt. 107-1, 81 FR 42209, June 28, 2016, as amended by Docket FAA-2018-0119, Amdt. 107-2, 83 FR 9172, Mar. 5, 2018; Amdt. 107-8, 86 FR 4382, Jan. 15, 2021]] § 107.64 Temporary certificate. (a) A temporary remote pilot certificate with a small UAS rating is issued for up to 120 calendar days, at which time a permanent certificate will be issued to a person whom the Administrator finds qualified under this part. (b) A temporary remote pilot certificate with a small UAS rating expires: (1) On the expiration date shown on the certificate; (2) Upon receipt of the permanent certificate; or (3) Upon receipt of a notice that the certificate sought is denied or revoked. § 107.65 Aeronautical knowledge recency. A person may not exercise the privileges of a remote pilot in command with small UAS rating unless that person has accomplished one of the following in a manner acceptable to the Administrator within the previous 24 calendar months: (a) Passed an initial aeronautical knowledge test covering the areas of knowledge specified in § 107.73; (b) Completed recurrent training covering the areas of knowledge specified in § 107.73; or (c) If a person holds a pilot certificate (other than a student pilot certificate) issued under part 61 of this chapter and meets the flight review requirements specified in § 61.56, completed training covering the areas of knowledge specified in § 107.74. (d) A person who has passed a recurrent aeronautical knowledge test in a manner acceptable to the Administrator or who has satisfied the training requirement of paragraph (c) of this section prior to April 6, 2021 within the previous 24 calendar months is considered to be in compliance with the requirement of paragraph (b) or (c) of this section, as applicable. [Amdt. 107-8, 86 FR 4382, Jan. 15, 2021; 86 FR 13631, Mar. 10, 2021] § 107.67 Knowledge tests: General procedures and passing grades. (a) Knowledge tests prescribed by or under this part are given by persons and in the manner designated by the Administrator. (b) An applicant for a knowledge test must have proper identification at the time of application that contains the applicant's: (1) Photograph; (2) Signature;

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(3) Date of birth, which shows the applicant meets or will meet the age requirements of this part for the certificate and rating sought before the expiration date of the airman knowledge test report; and (4) Permanent mailing address. If the applicant's permanent mailing address is a post office box number, then the applicant must also provide a current residential address. (c) The minimum passing grade for the knowledge test will be specified by the Administrator. § 107.69 Knowledge tests: Cheating or other unauthorized conduct. (a) An applicant for a knowledge test may not: (1) Copy or intentionally remove any knowledge test; (2) Give to another applicant or receive from another applicant any part or copy of a knowledge test; (3) Give or receive assistance on a knowledge test during the period that test is being given; (4) Take any part of a knowledge test on behalf of another person; (5) Be represented by, or represent, another person for a knowledge test; (6) Use any material or aid during the period that the test is being given, unless specifically authorized to do so by the Administrator; and (7) Intentionally cause, assist, or participate in any act prohibited by this paragraph. (b) An applicant who the Administrator finds has committed an act prohibited by paragraph (a) of this section is prohibited, for 1 year after the date of committing that act, from: (1) Applying for any certificate, rating, or authorization issued under this chapter; and (2) Applying for and taking any test under this chapter. (c) Any certificate or rating held by an applicant may be suspended or revoked if the Administrator finds that person has committed an act prohibited by paragraph (a) of this section. § 107.71 Retesting after failure. An applicant for a knowledge test who fails that test may not reapply for the test for 14 calendar days after failing the test. § 107.73 Knowledge and training. An initial aeronautical knowledge test and recurrent training covers the following areas of knowledge: (a) Applicable regulations relating to small unmanned aircraft system rating privileges, limitations, and flight operation; (b) Airspace classification, operating requirements, and flight restrictions affecting small unmanned aircraft operation; (c) Aviation weather sources and effects of weather on small unmanned aircraft performance; (d) Small unmanned aircraft loading; (e) Emergency procedures; (f) Crew resource management; (g) Radio communication procedures; (h) Determining the performance of the small unmanned aircraft; (i) Physiological effects of drugs and alcohol; (j) Aeronautical decision-making and judgment; (k) Airport operations; (l) Maintenance and preflight inspection procedures; and (m) Operation at night. [Amdt. 107-8, 86 FR 4383, Jan. 15, 2021] § 107.74 Small unmanned aircraft system training. Training for pilots who hold a pilot certificate (other than a student pilot certificate) issued under part 61 of this chapter and meet the flight review requirements specified in § 61.56 covers the following areas of knowledge: (a) Applicable regulations relating to small unmanned aircraft system rating privileges, limitations, and flight operation; (b) Effects of weather on small unmanned aircraft performance; (c) Small unmanned aircraft loading; (d) Emergency procedures; (e) Crew resource management; (f) Determining the performance of the small unmanned aircraft; (g) Maintenance and preflight inspection procedures; and (h) Operation at night. [Amdt. 107-8, 86 FR 4383, Jan. 15, 2021] § 107.77 Change of name or address. (a) Change of name. An application to change the name on a certificate issued under this subpart must be accompanied by the applicant's:

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(1) Remote pilot certificate with small UAS rating; and (2) A copy of the marriage license, court order, or other document verifying the name change. (b) The documents in paragraph (a) of this section will be returned to the applicant after inspection. (c) Change of address. The holder of a remote pilot certificate with small UAS rating issued under this subpart who has made a change in permanent mailing address may not, after 30 days from that date, exercise the privileges of the certificate unless the holder has notified the FAA of the change in address using one of the following methods: (1) By letter to the FAA Airman Certification Branch, P.O. Box 25082, Oklahoma City, OK 73125 providing the new permanent mailing address, or if the permanent mailing address includes a post office box number, then the holder's current residential address; or (2) By using the FAA Web site portal at www.faa.gov providing the new permanent mailing address, or if the permanent mailing address includes a post office box number, then the holder's current residential address. § 107.79 Voluntary surrender of certificate. (a) The holder of a certificate issued under this subpart may voluntarily surrender it for cancellation. (b) Any request made under paragraph (a) of this section must include the following signed statement or its equivalent: “I voluntarily surrender my remote pilot certificate with a small UAS rating for cancellation. This request is made for my own reasons, with full knowledge that my certificate will not be reissued to me unless I again complete the requirements specified in §§ 107.61 and 107.63.” Subpart D—Operations Over Human Beings Source: Amdt. 107-8, 86 FR 4382, Jan. 15, 2021 § 107.100 Applicability. This subpart prescribes the eligibility and operating requirements for civil small unmanned aircraft to operate over human beings or over moving vehicles in the United States, in addition to those operations permitted by § 107.39(a) and (b). § 107.105 Limitations on operations over human beings. Except as provided in §§ 107.39(a) and (b) and 107.145, a remote pilot in command may conduct operations over human beings only in accordance with the following, as applicable: § 107.110 for Category 1 operations; §§ 107.115 and 107.120 for Category 2 operations; §§ 107.125 and 107.130 for Category 3 operations; or § 107.140 for Category 4 operations. § 107.110 Category 1 operations. To conduct Category 1 operations— (a) A remote pilot in command must use a small unmanned aircraft that— (1) Weighs 0.55 pounds or less on takeoff and throughout the duration of each operation under Category 1, including everything that is on board or otherwise attached to the aircraft; and (2) Does not contain any exposed rotating parts that would lacerate human skin upon impact with a human being. (b) No remote pilot in command may operate a small unmanned aircraft in sustained flight over open-air assemblies of human beings unless the operation meets the requirements of either § 89.110 or § 89.115(a) of this chapter. [Amdt. 107-8, 86 FR 4382, Jan. 15, 2021, as amended by 86 FR 62473, Nov. 10, 2021] § 107.115 Category 2 operations: Operating requirements. To conduct Category 2 operations— (a) A remote pilot in command must use a small unmanned aircraft that— (1) Is eligible for Category 2 operations pursuant to § 107.120(a); (2) Is listed on an FAA-accepted declaration of compliance as eligible for Category 2 operations in accordance with § 107.160; and (3) Is labeled as eligible to conduct Category 2 operations in accordance with § 107.120(b)(1).

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(b) No remote pilot in command may operate a small unmanned aircraft in sustained flight over open-air assemblies of human beings unless the operation meets the requirements of either § 89.110 or § 89.115(a) of this chapter. § 107.120 Category 2 operations: Eligibility of small unmanned aircraft and other applicant requirements. (a) To be eligible for use in Category 2 operations, the small unmanned aircraft must be designed, produced, or modified such that it— (1) Will not cause injury to a human being that is equivalent to or greater than the severity of injury caused by a transfer of 11 foot-pounds of kinetic energy upon impact from a rigid object; (2) Does not contain any exposed rotating parts that would lacerate human skin upon impact with a human being; and (3) Does not contain any safety defects. (b) The applicant for a declaration of compliance for a small unmanned aircraft that is eligible for use in Category 2 operations in accordance with paragraph (a) of this section, must meet all of the following requirements for the applicant's unmanned aircraft to be used in Category 2 operations: (1) Display a label on the small unmanned aircraft indicating eligibility to conduct Category 2 operations. The label must be in English and be legible, prominent, and permanently affixed to the small unmanned aircraft. (2) Have remote pilot operating instructions that apply to the operation of the small unmanned aircraft system. The applicant for a declaration of compliance must make available these instructions upon sale or transfer of the aircraft or use of the aircraft by someone other than the applicant who submitted a declaration of compliance pursuant to § 107.160. Such instructions must address, at a minimum— (i) A system description that includes the required small unmanned aircraft system components, any system limitations, and the declared category or categories of operation; (ii) Modifications that will not change the ability of the small unmanned aircraft system to meet the requirements for the category or categories of operation the small unmanned aircraft system is eligible to conduct; and (iii) Instructions for how to verify and change the mode or configuration of the small unmanned aircraft system, if they are variable. (3) Maintain a product support and notification process. The applicant for a declaration of compliance must maintain product support and notification procedures to notify the public and the FAA of— (i) Any defect or condition that causes the small unmanned aircraft to no longer meet the requirements of this subpart; and (ii) Any identified safety defect that causes the small unmanned aircraft to exceed a low probability of casualty. § 107.125 Category 3 operations: Operating requirements. To conduct Category 3 operations, a remote pilot in command— (a) Must use a small unmanned aircraft that— (1) Is eligible for Category 3 operations pursuant to § 107.130(a); (2) Is listed on an FAA-accepted declaration of compliance as eligible for Category 3 operations in accordance with § 107.160; and (3) Is labeled as eligible for Category 3 operations in accordance with § 107.130(b)(1); (b) Must not operate the small unmanned aircraft over open-air assemblies of human beings; and (c) May only operate the small unmanned aircraft above any human being if operation meets one of the following conditions: (1) The operation is within or over a closed- or restricted-access site and all human beings located within the closed- or restricted-access site must be on notice that a small unmanned aircraft may fly over them; or (2) The small unmanned aircraft does not maintain sustained flight over any human being unless that human being is— (i) Directly participating in the operation of the small unmanned aircraft; or (ii) Located under a covered structure or inside a stationary vehicle that can provide reasonable protection from a falling small unmanned aircraft.

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[Amdt. 107-8, 86 FR 4382, Jan. 15, 2021, as amended by 86 FR 62473, Nov. 10, 2021] § 107.130 Category 3 operations: Eligibility of small unmanned aircraft and other applicant requirements. (a) To be eligible for use in Category 3 operations, the small unmanned aircraft must be designed, produced, or modified such that it— (1) Will not cause injury to a human being that is equivalent to or greater than the severity of the injury caused by a transfer of 25 foot-pounds of kinetic energy upon impact from a rigid object; (2) Does not contain any exposed rotating parts that would lacerate human skin upon impact with a human being; and (3) Does not contain any safety defects. (b) The applicant for a declaration of compliance for a small unmanned aircraft that is eligible for use in Category 3 operations in accordance with paragraph (a) of this section, must meet all of the following requirements for the applicant's small unmanned aircraft to be used in Category 3 operations: (1) Display a label on the small unmanned aircraft indicating eligibility to conduct Category 3 operations. The label must be in English and be legible, prominent, and permanently affixed to the small unmanned aircraft. (2) Have remote pilot operating instructions that apply to the operation of the small unmanned aircraft system. The applicant for a declaration of compliance must make available these instructions upon sale or transfer of the aircraft or use of the aircraft by someone other than the applicant who submitted a declaration of compliance pursuant to § 107.160. Such instructions must address, at a minimum— (i) A system description that includes the required small unmanned aircraft system components, any system limitations, and the declared category or categories of operation; (ii) Modifications that will not change the ability of the small unmanned aircraft system to meet the requirements for the category or categories of operation the small unmanned aircraft system is eligible to conduct; and (iii) Instructions for how to verify and change the mode or configuration of the small unmanned aircraft system, if they are variable. (3) Maintain a product support and notification process. The applicant for a declaration of compliance must maintain product support and notification procedures to notify the public and the FAA of— (i) Any defect or condition that causes the small unmanned aircraft to no longer meet the requirements of this subpart; and (ii) Any identified safety defect that causes the small unmanned aircraft to exceed a low probability of fatality. § 107.135 Labeling by remote pilot in command for Category 2 and 3 operations. If a Category 2 or Category 3 label affixed to a small unmanned aircraft is damaged, destroyed, or missing, a remote pilot in command must label the aircraft in English such that the label is legible, prominent, and will remain on the small unmanned aircraft for the duration of the operation before conducting operations over human beings. The label must correctly identify the category or categories of operation over human beings that the small unmanned aircraft is qualified to conduct in accordance with this subpart. § 107.140 Category 4 operations. (a) Remote pilot in command requirements. To conduct Category 4 operations— (1) A remote pilot in command— (i) Must use a small unmanned aircraft that is eligible for Category 4 operations pursuant to paragraph (b) of this section; and (ii) Must operate the small unmanned aircraft in accordance with all operating limitations that apply to the small unmanned aircraft, as specified by the Administrator. (2) No remote pilot in command may operate a small unmanned aircraft in sustained flight over open-air assemblies of human beings unless the operation meets the requirements of either § 89.110 or § 89.115(a) of this chapter.

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(b) Small unmanned aircraft requirements for Category 4. To be eligible to operate over human beings under this section, the small unmanned aircraft must— (1) Have an airworthiness certificate issued under part 21 of this chapter. (2) Be operated in accordance with the operating limitations specified in the approved Flight Manual or as otherwise specified by the Administrator. The operating limitations must not prohibit operations over human beings. (3) Have maintenance, preventive maintenance, alterations, or inspections performed in accordance with paragraph (c)(1) of this section. (c) Maintenance requirements for Category 4. The owner must (unless the owner enters into an agreement with an operator to meet the requirements of this paragraph (c), then the operator must) meet the requirements of this paragraph (c): (1) Ensure the person performing any maintenance, preventive maintenance, alterations, or inspections: (i) Uses the methods, techniques, and practices prescribed in the manufacturer's current maintenance manual or Instructions for Continued Airworthiness that are acceptable to the Administrator, or other methods, techniques, and practices acceptable to the Administrator; (ii) Has the knowledge, skill, and appropriate equipment to perform the work; (iii) Performs the maintenance, preventive maintenance, or alterations on the small unmanned aircraft in a manner using the methods, techniques, and practices prescribed in the manufacturer's current maintenance manual or Instructions for Continued Airworthiness prepared by its manufacturer, or other methods, techniques, and practices acceptable to the Administrator; (iv) Inspects the small unmanned aircraft in accordance with the manufacturer's instructions or other instructions acceptable to the Administrator; and (v) Performs the maintenance, preventive maintenance, or alterations using parts of such a quality that the condition of the aircraft will be at least equal to its original or properly altered condition. (2) Maintain all records of maintenance, preventive maintenance, and alterations performed on the aircraft and ensure the records are documented in a manner acceptable to the Administrator. The records must contain the description of the work performed, the date the work was completed, and the name of the person who performed the work. (3) Maintain all records containing— (i) The status of life-limited parts that are installed on, or part of, the small unmanned aircraft; (ii) The inspection status of the aircraft; and (iii) The status of applicable airworthiness directives including the method of compliance, the airworthiness directive number, and revision date. If the airworthiness directive involves recurring action, the record must contain the time and date of the next required action. (4) Retain the records required under paragraphs (c)(2) and (3) of this section, as follows: (i) The records documenting maintenance, preventive maintenance, or alterations performed must be retained for 1 year from when the work is completed or until the maintenance is repeated or superseded by other work. (ii) The records documenting the status of life-limited parts, compliance with airworthiness directives, and inspection status of the small unmanned aircraft must be retained and transferred with the aircraft upon change in ownership. (5) Ensure all records under paragraphs (c)(2) and (3) of this section are available for inspection upon request from the Administrator or any authorized representative of the National Transportation Safety Board (NTSB). (d) Compliance with parts 43 and 91 of this chapter. Compliance with part 43 and part 91, subpart E, of this chapter fulfills the requirements in paragraphs (b)(3) and (c) of this section. [Amdt. 107-8, 86 FR 4383, Jan. 15, 2021; 86 FR 13633, Mar. 10, 2021]

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§ 107.145 Operations over moving vehicles. No person may operate a small unmanned aircraft over a human being located inside a moving vehicle unless the following conditions are met: (a) The operation occurs in accordance with § 107.110 for Category 1 operations; § 107.115 for Category 2 operations; § 107.125 for Category 3 operations; or § 107.140 for Category 4 operations. (b) For an operation under Category 1, Category 2, or Category 3, the small unmanned aircraft, throughout the operation— (1) Must remain within or over a closed- or restricted-access site, and all human beings located inside a moving vehicle within the closed- or restricted-access site must be on notice that a small unmanned aircraft may fly over them; or (2) Must not maintain sustained flight over moving vehicles. (c) For a Category 4 operation, the small unmanned aircraft must— (1) Have an airworthiness certificate issued under part 21 of this chapter. (2) Be operated in accordance with the operating limitations specified in the approved Flight Manual or as otherwise specified by the Administrator. The operating limitations must not prohibit operations over human beings located inside moving vehicles. § 107.150 Variable mode and variable configuration of small unmanned aircraft systems. A small unmanned aircraft system may be eligible for one or more categories of operation over human beings under this subpart, as long as a remote pilot in command cannot inadvertently switch between modes or configurations. § 107.155 Means of compliance. (a) Establishment of compliance. To meet the requirements of § 107.120(a) for operations in Category 2, or the requirements of § 107.130(a) for operations in Category 3, the means of compliance must consist of test, analysis, or inspection. (b) Required information. An applicant requesting FAA acceptance of a means of compliance must submit the following information to the FAA in a manner specified by the Administrator: (1) Procedures. Detailed description of the means of compliance, including applicable test, analysis, or inspection procedures to demonstrate how the small unmanned aircraft meets the requirements of § 107.120(a) for operations in Category 2 or the requirements of § 107.130(a) for operations in Category 3. The description should include conditions, environments, and methods, as applicable. (2) Compliance explanation. Explanation of how application of the means of compliance fulfills the requirements of § 107.120(a) for operations in Category 2 or the requirements of § 107.130(a) for operations in Category 3. (c) FAA acceptance. If the FAA determines the applicant has demonstrated compliance with paragraphs (a) and (b) of this section, it will notify the applicant that it has accepted the means of compliance. (d) Rescission. (1) A means of compliance is subject to ongoing review by the Administrator. The Administrator may rescind its acceptance of a means of compliance if the Administrator determines that a means of compliance does not meet any or all of the requirements of this subpart. (2) The Administrator will publish a notice of rescission in the Federal Register . (e) Inapplicability of part 13, subpart D, of this chapter. Part 13, subpart D, of this chapter does not apply to the procedures of paragraph (a) of this section. § 107.160 Declaration of compliance. (a) Required information. In order for an applicant to declare a small unmanned aircraft is compliant with the requirements of this subpart for Category 2 or Category 3 operations, an applicant must submit a declaration of compliance for acceptance by the FAA, in a manner specified by the Administrator, that includes the following information: (1) Applicant's name; (2) Applicant's physical address; (3) Applicant's email address; (4) The small unmanned aircraft make and model name, and series, if applicable;

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(5) The small unmanned aircraft serial number or range of serial numbers that are the subject of the declaration of compliance; (6) Whether the declaration of compliance is an initial declaration or an amended declaration; (7) If the declaration of compliance is an amended declaration, the reason for the re-submittal; (8) The accepted means of compliance the applicant used to fulfill requirements of § 107.120(a) or § 107.130(a) or both; (9) A declaration that the applicant— (i) Has demonstrated that the small unmanned aircraft, or specific configurations of that aircraft, satisfies § 107.120(a) or § 107.130(a) or both, through the accepted means of compliance identified in paragraph (a)(8) of this section; (ii) Has verified that the unmanned aircraft does not contain any safety defects; (iii) Has satisfied § 107.120(b)(3) or § 107.130(b)(3), or both; and (iv) Will, upon request, allow the Administrator to inspect its facilities, technical data, and any manufactured small unmanned aircraft and witness any tests necessary to determine compliance with this subpart; and (10) Other information as required by the Administrator. (b) FAA acceptance. If the FAA determines the applicant has demonstrated compliance with the requirements of this subpart, it will notify the applicant that it has accepted the declaration of compliance. (c) Notification of a safety issue. Prior to initiating rescission proceedings pursuant to paragraphs (d)(1) through (3) of this section, the FAA will notify the applicant if a safety issue has been identified for the declaration of compliance. (d) Rescission. (1) No person may operate a small unmanned aircraft identified on a declaration of compliance that the FAA has rescinded pursuant to this subpart while that declaration of compliance is rescinded. (2) The FAA may rescind a declaration of compliance if any of the following conditions occur: (i) A small unmanned aircraft for which a declaration of compliance was accepted no longer complies with § 107.120(a) or § 107.130(a); (ii) The FAA finds a declaration of compliance is in violation of § 107.5(a); or (iii) The Administrator determines an emergency exists related to safety in accordance with the authority in 49 U.S.C. 46105. (3) If a safety issue identified under paragraph (c) of this section has not been resolved, the FAA may rescind the declaration of compliance as follows: (i) The FAA will issue a notice proposing to rescind the declaration of compliance. The notice will set forth the Agency's basis for the proposed rescission and provide the holder of the declaration of compliance with 30 calendar days from the date of issuance of the proposed notice to submit evidentiary information to refute the proposed notice. (ii) The holder of the declaration of compliance must submit information demonstrating how the small unmanned aircraft meets the requirements of this subpart within 30 calendar days from the date of issuance of the proposed notice. (iii) If the FAA does not receive the information required by paragraph (d)(3)(ii) of this section within 30 calendar days from the date of the issuance of the proposed notice, the FAA will issue a notice rescinding the declaration of compliance. (4) If the Administrator determines that an emergency exists in accordance with paragraph (d)(2)(iii) of this section, the FAA will exercise its authority under 49 U.S.C. 46105(c) to issue an order rescinding a declaration of compliance without initiating the process in paragraph (d)(3) of this section. (e) Petition to reconsider the rescission of a declaration of compliance. A person subject to an order of rescission under paragraph (d)(3) of this section may petition the FAA to reconsider the rescission of a declaration of compliance by submitting a request to the FAA in a manner specified by the Administrator within 60 days of the date of issuance of the rescission. (1) A petition to reconsider the rescission of a declaration of compliance must demonstrate at least one of the following:

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(i) A material fact that was not present in the original response to the notification of the safety issue and an explanation for why it was not present in the original response; (ii) The FAA made a material factual error in the decision to rescind the declaration of compliance; or (iii) The FAA did not correctly interpret a law, regulation, or precedent. (2) Upon consideration of the information submitted under paragraph (e)(1) of this section, the FAA will issue a notice either affirming the rescission or withdrawing the rescission. (f) Inapplicability of part 13, subpart D, of this chapter. Part 13, subpart D, of this chapter does not apply to the procedures of paragraphs (d) and (e) of this section. § 107.165 Record retention. (a) A person who submits a declaration of compliance under this subpart must retain and make available to the Administrator, upon request, the information described in paragraph (a)(1) of this section for the period of time described in paragraph (a)(2) of this section. (1) All supporting information used to demonstrate the small unmanned aircraft meets the requirements of §§ 107.120(a), for operations in Category 2, and 107.130(a), for operations in Category 3. (2) The following time periods apply: (i) If the person who submits a declaration of compliance produces a small unmanned aircraft, that person must retain the information described in paragraph (a)(1) of this section for two years after the cessation of production of the small unmanned aircraft system for which the person declared compliance. (ii) If the person who submits a declaration of compliance designs or modifies a small unmanned aircraft, that person must retain the information described in paragraph (a)(1) of this section for two years after the person submitted the declaration of compliance. (b) A person who submits a means of compliance under this subpart must retain and make available to the Administrator, upon request, and for as long as the means of compliance remains accepted, the detailed description of the means of compliance and justification showing how the means of compliance meets the requirements of §§ 107.120(a), for operations in Category 2, and 107.130(a), for operations in Category 3. Subpart E—Waivers § 107.200 Waiver policy and requirements. (a) The Administrator may issue a certificate of waiver authorizing a deviation from any regulation specified in § 107.205 if the Administrator finds that a proposed small UAS operation can safely be conducted under the terms of that certificate of waiver. (b) A request for a certificate of waiver must contain a complete description of the proposed operation and justification that establishes that the operation can safely be conducted under the terms of a certificate of waiver. (c) The Administrator may prescribe additional limitations that the Administrator considers necessary. (d) A person who receives a certificate of waiver issued under this section: (1) May deviate from the regulations of this part to the extent specified in the certificate of waiver; and (2) Must comply with any conditions or limitations that are specified in the certificate of waiver. § 107.205 List of regulations subject to waiver. A certificate of waiver issued pursuant to § 107.200 may authorize a deviation from the following regulations of this part: (a) Section 107.25—Operation from a moving vehicle or aircraft. However, no waiver of this provision will be issued to allow the carriage of property of another by aircraft for compensation or hire. (b) Section 107.29(a)(2) and (b)—Anti-collision light required for operations at night and during periods of civil twilight. (c) Section 107.31—Visual line of sight aircraft operation. However, no waiver of this provision will be issued to allow the carriage of property of another by aircraft for compensation or hire.

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(d) Section 107.33—Visual observer. (e) Section 107.35—Operation of multiple small unmanned aircraft systems. (f) Section 107.37(a)—Yielding the right of way. (g) Section 107.39—Operation over people. (h) Section 107.41—Operation in certain airspace. (i) Section 107.51—Operating limitations for small unmanned aircraft. (j) Section 107.145—Operations over moving vehicles. [Docket FAA-2015-0150, Amdt. 107-1, 81 FR 42209, June 28, 2016, as amended by Amdt. 107-8, 86 FR 4387, Jan. 15, 2021] 14 Aeronautics and Space 3 2025-01-01 false 2025-01-01 FEDERAL AVIATION ADMINISTRATION, DEPARTMENT OF TRANSPORTATION (CONTINUED) Aeronautics and Space

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CHAPTER I—FEDERAL AVIATION ADMINISTRATION, DEPARTMENT OF TRANSPORTATION (CONTINUED) Part Page 110 General requirements 7

111 Pilot Records Database 10

112-116 [Reserved]
117 Flight and duty limitations and rest requirements: flightcrew members 22

118 [Reserved]
119 Certification: Air carriers and commercial operators 30

120 Drug and alcohol testing program 49

121 Operating requirements: Domestic, flag, and supplemental operations 81

125 Certification and operations: Aircraft having a seating capacity of 20 or more passengers or a maximum payload capacity of 6,000 pounds or more; and rules governing persons on board such aircraft 328

129 Operations: Foreign air carriers and foreign operators of U.S.-registered aircraft engaged in common carriage 396

133 Rotorcraft external-load operations 415

135 Operating requirements: Commuter and on demand operations and rules governing persons on board such aircraft 422

136 Commercial air tours and National Parks air tour management 560

137 Agricultural aircraft operations 568

139 Certification of airports 576

140 [Reserved]

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141 Pilot schools 602

142 Training centers 651

143 [Reserved]
145 Repair stations 665

147 Aviation maintenance technician schools 679

150 Airport noise compatibility planning 682

151 Federal aid to airports 696

152 Airport aid program 733

153 Airport operations 768

155 Release of airport property from surplus property disposal restrictions 769

156 State block grant pilot program 772

157 Notice of construction, alteration, activation, and deactivation of airports 774

158 Passenger facility charges (PFC's) 776

161 Notice and approval of airport noise and access restrictions 801

169 Expenditure of Federal funds for nonmilitary airports or air navigation facilities thereon 821

170 Establishment and discontinuance criteria for air traffic control services and navigational facilities 823

171 Non-Federal navigation facilities 825

183 Representatives of the Administrator 905

185 Testimony by employees and production of records in legal proceedings, and service of legal process and pleadings 913

187 Fees 913

189 Use of Federal Aviation Administration communications system 918

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193 Protection of voluntarily submitted information 919

194 Special federal aviation regulation no. 120—powered-lift: pilot certification and training; operations requirements 924

198 Aviation insurance 989

199 [Reserved]

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SUBCHAPTER G—AIR CARRIERS AND OPERATORS FOR COMPENSATION OR HIRE: CERTIFICATION AND OPERATIONS Pt. 121 PART 121—OPERATING REQUIREMENTS: DOMESTIC, FLAG, AND SUPPLEMENTAL OPERATIONS Special Federal Aviation Regulation No. 50-2 [Note] Special Federal Aviation Regulation No. 71 [Note] Special Federal Aviation Regulation No. 97 [Note] Subpart A—General Sec. 121.1 Applicability. 121.2 Compliance schedule for operators that transition to part 121; certain new entrant operators. 121.4 Applicability of rules to unauthorized operators. 121.7 Definitions. 121.9 Fraud and falsification. 121.11 Rules applicable to operations in a foreign country. 121.15 Carriage of narcotic drugs, marihuana, and depressant or stimulant drugs or substances. Subpart B—Certification Rules for Domestic and Flag Air Carriers [Reserved] Subpart C—Certification Rules for Supplemental Air Carriers and Commercial Operators [Reserved] Subpart D—Rules Governing All Certificate Holders Under This Part [Reserved] Subpart E—Approval of Routes: Domestic and Flag Operations 121.91 Applicability. 121.93 Route requirements: General. 121.95 Route width. 121.97 Airports: Required data. 121.99 Communications facilities—domestic and flag operations. 121.101 Weather reporting facilities. 121.103 En route navigation facilities. 121.105 Servicing and maintenance facilities. 121.106 ETOPS Alternate Airport: Rescue and fire fighting service. 121.107 Dispatch centers. Subpart F—Approval of Areas and Routes for Supplemental Operations 121.111 Applicability. 121.113 Area and route requirements: General. 121.115 Route width. 121.117 Airports: Required data. 121.119 Weather reporting facilities. 121.121 En route navigation facilities. 121.122 Communications facilities—supplemental operations. 121.123 Servicing maintenance facilities. 121.125 Flight following system. 121.127 Flight following system; requirements. Subpart G—Manual Requirements 121.131 Applicability. 121.133 Preparation. 121.135 Manual contents. 121.137 Distribution and availability. 121.139 Manual accessibility: Supplemental operations. 121.141 Airplane flight manual. Subpart H—Aircraft Requirements 121.151 Applicability. 121.153 Aircraft requirements: General. 121.155 [Reserved] 121.157 Aircraft certification and equipment requirements. 121.159 Single-engine airplanes prohibited. 121.161 Airplane limitations: Type of route. 121.162 ETOPS Type Design Approval Basis. 121.163 Aircraft proving tests. Subpart I—Airplane Performance Operating Limitations 121.171 Applicability. 121.173 General. 121.175 Airplanes: Reciprocating engine-powered: Weight limitations. 121.177 Airplanes: Reciprocating engine-powered: Takeoff limitations. 121.179 Airplanes: Reciprocating engine-powered: En route limitations: All engines operating. 121.181 Airplanes: Reciprocating engine-powered: En route limitations: One engine inoperative. 121.183 Part 25 airplanes with four or more engines: Reciprocating engine powered: En route limitations: Two engines inoperative. 121.185 Airplanes: Reciprocating engine-powered: Landing limitations: Destination airport. 121.187 Airplanes: Reciprocating engine-powered: Landing limitations: Alternate airport. 121.189 Airplanes: Turbine engine powered: Takeoff limitations. 121.191 Airplanes: Turbine engine powered: En route limitations: One engine inoperative. 121.193 Airplanes: Turbine engine powered: En route limitations: Two engines inoperative. 121.195 Airplanes: Turbine engine powered: Landing limitations: Destination airports. 121.197 Airplanes: Turbine engine powered: Landing limitations: Alternate airports.

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121.198 Cargo service airplanes: Increased zero fuel and landing weights. 121.199 Nontransport category airplanes: Takeoff limitations. 121.201 Nontransport category airplanes: En route limitations: One engine inoperative. 121.203 Nontransport category airplanes: Landing limitations: Destination airport. 121.205 Nontransport category airplanes: Landing limitations: Alternate airport. 121.207 Provisionally certificated airplanes: Operating limitations. Subpart J—Special Airworthiness Requirements 121.211 Applicability. 121.213 [Reserved] 121.215 Cabin interiors. 121.217 Internal doors. 121.219 Ventilation. 121.221 Fire precautions. 121.223 Proof of compliance with § 121.221. 121.225 Propeller deicing fluid. 121.227 Pressure cross-feed arrangements. 121.229 Location of fuel tanks. 121.231 Fuel system lines and fittings. 121.233 Fuel lines and fittings in designated fire zones. 121.235 Fuel valves. 121.237 Oil lines and fittings in designated fire zones. 121.239 Oil valves. 121.241 Oil system drains. 121.243 Engine breather lines. 121.245 Fire walls. 121.247 Fire-wall construction. 121.249 Cowling. 121.251 Engine accessory section diaphragm. 121.253 Powerplant fire protection. 121.255 Flammable fluids. 121.257 Shutoff means. 121.259 Lines and fittings. 121.261 Vent and drain lines. 121.263 Fire-extinguishing systems. 121.265 Fire-extinguishing agents. 121.267 Extinguishing agent container pressure relief. 121.269 Extinguishing agent container compartment temperature. 121.271 Fire-extinguishing system materials. 121.273 Fire-detector systems. 121.275 Fire detectors. 121.277 Protection of other airplane components against fire. 121.279 Control of engine rotation. 121.281 Fuel system independence. 121.283 Induction system ice prevention. 121.285 Carriage of cargo in passenger compartments. 121.287 Carriage of cargo in cargo compartments. 121.289 Landing gear: Aural warning device. 121.291 Demonstration of emergency evacuation procedures. 121.293 Special airworthiness requirements for nontransport category airplanes type certificated after December 31, 1964. 121.295 Location for a suspect device. Subpart K—Instrument and Equipment Requirements 121.301 Applicability. 121.303 Airplane instruments and equipment. 121.305 Flight and navigational equipment. 121.306 Portable electronic devices. 121.307 Engine instruments. 121.308 Lavatory fire protection. 121.309 Emergency equipment. 121.310 Additional emergency equipment. 121.311 Seats, safety belts, and shoulder harnesses. 121.312 Materials for compartment interiors. 121.313 Miscellaneous equipment. 121.314 Cargo and baggage compartments. 121.315 Cockpit check procedure. 121.316 Fuel tanks. 121.317 Passenger information requirements, smoking prohibitions, and additional seat belt requirements. 121.318 Public address system. 121.319 Crewmember interphone system. 121.321 Operations in icing. 121.323 Instruments and equipment for operations at night. 121.325 Instruments and equipment for operations under IFR or over-the-top. 121.327 Supplemental oxygen: Reciprocating engine powered airplanes. 121.329 Supplemental oxygen for sustenance: Turbine engine powered airplanes. 121.331 Supplemental oxygen requirements for pressurized cabin airplanes: Reciprocating engine powered airplanes. 121.333 Supplemental oxygen for emergency descent and for first aid; turbine engine powered airplanes with pressured cabins. 121.335 Equipment standards. 121.337 Protective breathing equipment. 121.339 Emergency equipment for extended over-water operations. 121.340 Emergency flotation means. 121.341 Equipment for operations in icing conditions. 121.342 Pitot heat indication systems. 121.343 Flight data recorders. 121.344 Digital flight data recorders for transport category airplanes. 121.344a Digital flight data recorders for 10-19 seat airplanes. 121.345 Radio equipment. 121.346 Flight data recorders: filtered data. 121.347 Communication and navigation equipment for operations under VFR over routes navigated by pilotage. 121.349 Communication and navigation equipment for operations under VFR over routes not navigated by pilotage or for operations under IFR or over the top.

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121.351 Communication and navigation equipment for extended over-water operations and for certain other operations. 121.353 Emergency equipment for operations over uninhabited terrain areas: Flag, supplemental, and certain domestic operators. 121.354 Terrain awareness and warning system. 121.355 Equipment for operations on which specialized means of navigation are used. 121.356 Collision Avoidance System. 121.357 Airborne weather radar equipment requirements. 121.358 Low-altitude windshear system equipment requirements. 121.359 Cockpit voice recorders. 121.360 [Reserved] Subpart L—Maintenance, Preventive Maintenance, and Alterations 121.361 Applicability. 121.363 Responsibility for airworthiness. 121.365 Maintenance, preventive maintenance, and alteration organization. 121.367 Maintenance, preventive maintenance, and alterations programs. 121.368 Contract maintenance. 121.369 Manual requirements. 121.370-121.370a [Reserved] 121.371 Required inspection personnel. 121.373 Continuing analysis and surveillance. 121.374 Continuous airworthiness maintenance program (CAMP) for two-engine ETOPS. 121.375 Maintenance and preventive maintenance training program. 121.377 Maintenance and preventive maintenance personnel duty time limitations. 121.378 Certificate requirements. 121.379 Authority to perform and approve maintenance, preventive maintenance, and alterations. 121.380 Maintenance recording requirements. 121.380a Transfer of maintenance records. Subpart M—Airman and Crewmember Requirements 121.381 Applicability. 121.383 Airman: Limitations on use of services. 121.385 Composition of flight crew. 121.387 Flight engineer. 121.389 Flight navigator and specialized navigation equipment. 121.391 Flight attendants. 121.392 Personnel identified as flight attendants. 121.393 Crewmember requirements at stops where passengers remain on board. 121.394 Flight attendant requirements during passenger boarding and deplaning. 121.395 Aircraft dispatcher: Domestic and flag operations. 121.397 Emergency and emergency evacuation duties. Subpart N—Training Program 121.400 Applicability and terms used. 121.401 Training program: General. 121.402 Training program: Special rules. 121.403 Training program: Curriculum. 121.404 Crew and dispatcher resource management training. 121.405 Training program and revision: Initial and final approval. 121.406 Credit for previous CRM/DRM training. 121.407 Training program: Approval of flight simulation training devices. 121.408 Training eqipment other than flight simulation training devices. 121.409 Training courses using flight simulation training devices. 121.410 Airline transport pilot certification training program. 121.411 Qualifications: Check pilots and check flight engineers. 121.412 Qualifications: Flight instructors. 121.413 Initial, transition and recurrent training and checking requirements: Check pilots and check flight engineers. 121.414 Initial, transition and recurrent training and checking requirements: Flight instructors. 121.415 Crewmember and dispatcher training program requirements. 121.417 Crewmember emergency training. 121.418 Differences training and related aircraft differences training. 121.419 Pilots and flight engineers: Initial, transition, conversion and upgrade ground training. 121.420 Pilots: Upgrade ground training. 121.421 Flight attendants: Initial and transition ground training. 121.422 Aircraft dispatchers: Initial and transition ground training. 121.423 Pilots: Extended Envelope Training. 121.424 Pilots: Initial, transition, conversion, and upgrade flight training. 121.425 Flight engineers: Initial and transition flight training. 121.426 Pilots: Upgrade flight training. 121.427 Recurrent training. 121.429 Pilots in command: Leadership and command and mentoring training. Subpart O—Crewmember Qualifications 121.431 Applicability. 121.432 General. 121.433 Training required. 121.434 Operating experience, operating cycles, and consolidation of knowledge and skills. 121.435 Pilots: Operations Familiarization. 121.436 Pilot Qualification: Certificates and experience requirements.

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121.438 Pilot operating limitations and pairing requirements. 121.439 Pilot qualification: Recent experience. 121.440 Line checks. 121.441 Proficiency checks. 121.443 Pilot in command qualification: Route and airports. 121.445 Pilot in command airport qualification: Special areas and airports. 121.447 [Reserved] 121.453 Flight engineer qualifications. 121.455-121.459 [Reserved] Subpart P—Aircraft Dispatcher Qualifications and Duty Time Limitations: Domestic and Flag Operations; Flight Attendant Duty Period Limitations and Rest Requirements: Domestic, Flag, and Supplemental Operations 121.461 Applicability. 121.463 Aircraft dispatcher qualifications. 121.465 Aircraft dispatcher duty time limitations: Domestic and flag operations. 121.467 Flight attendant duty period limitations and rest requirements: Domestic, flag, and supplemental operations. Subpart Q—Flight Time Limitations and Rest Requirements: Domestic Operations 121.470 Applicability. 121.471 Flight time limitations and rest requirements: All flight crewmembers. 121.473 Fatigue risk management system. Subpart R—Flight Time Limitations: Flag Operations 121.480 Applicability. 121.481 Flight time limitations: One or two pilot crews. 121.483 Flight time limitations: Two pilots and one additional flight crewmember. 121.485 Flight time limitations: Three or more pilots and an additional flight crewmember. 121.487 Flight time limitations: Pilots not regularly assigned. 121.489 Flight time limitations: Other commercial flying. 121.491 Flight time limitations: Deadhead transportation. 121.493 Flight time limitations: Flight engineers and flight navigators. 121.495 Fatigue risk management system. Subpart S—Flight Time Limitations: Supplemental Operations 121.500 Applicability. 121.503 Flight time limitations: Pilots: airplanes. 121.505 Flight time limitations: Two pilot crews: airplanes. 121.507 Flight time limitations: Three pilot crews: airplanes. 121.509 Flight time limitations: Four pilot crews: airplanes. 121.511 Flight time limitations: Flight engineers: airplanes. 121.513 Flight time limitations: Overseas and international operations: airplanes. 121.515 Flight time limitations: All airmen: airplanes. 121.517 Flight time limitations: Other commercial flying: airplanes. 121.519 Flight time limitations: Deadhead transportation: airplanes. 121.521 Flight time limitations: Crew of two pilots and one additional airman as required. 121.523 Flight time limitations: Crew of three or more pilots and additional airmen as required. 121.525 Flight time limitations: Pilots serving in more than one kind of flight crew. 121.527 Fatigue risk management system. Subpart T—Flight Operations 121.531 Applicability. 121.533 Responsibility for operational control: Domestic operations. 121.535 Responsibility for operational control: Flag operations. 121.537 Responsibility for operational control: Supplemental operations. 121.538 Aircraft security. 121.539 Operations notices. 121.541 Operations schedules: Domestic and flag operations. 121.542 Flight crewmember duties. 121.543 Flight crewmembers at controls. 121.544 Pilot monitoring. 121.545 Manipulation of controls. 121.547 Admission to flight deck. 121.548 Aviation safety inspector's credentials: Admission to pilot's compartment. 121.548a DOD Commercial Air Carrier Evaluator's Credential. 121.549 Flying equipment. 121.550 Secret Service Agents: Admission to flight deck. 121.551 Restriction or suspension of operation: Domestic and flag operations. 121.553 Restriction or suspension of operation: Supplemental operations. 121.555 Compliance with approved routes and limitations: Domestic and flag operations. 121.557 Emergencies: Domestic and flag operations. 121.559 Emergencies: Supplemental operations. 121.561 Reporting potentially hazardous meteorological conditions and irregularities of ground facilities or navigation aids. 121.563 Reporting mechanical irregularities. 121.565 Engine inoperative: Landing; reporting.

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121.567 Instrument approach procedures and IFR landing minimums. 121.569 Equipment interchange: Domestic and flag operations. 121.570 Airplane evacuation capability. 121.571 Briefing passengers before takeoff. 121.573 Briefing passengers: Extended overwater operations. 121.574 Oxygen and portable oxygen concentrators for medical use by passengers. 121.575 Alcoholic beverages. 121.576 Retention of items of mass in passenger and crew compartments. 121.577 Stowage of food, beverage, and passenger service equipment during airplane movement on the surface, takeoff, and landing. 121.578 Cabin ozone concentration. 121.579 Minimum altitudes for use of auto-pilot. 121.580 Prohibition on interference with crewmembers. 121.581 Observer's seat: En route inspections. 121.582 Means to discreetly notify a flightcrew. 121.583 Carriage of persons without compliance with the passenger-carrying requirements of this part. 121.584 Requirement to view the area outside the flightdeck door. 121.585 Exit seating. 121.586 Authority to refuse transportation. 121.587 Closing and locking of flight crew compartment door. 121.589 Carry-on baggage. 121.590 Use of certificated land airports in the United States. Subpart U—Dispatching and Flight Release Rules 121.591 Applicability. 121.593 Dispatching authority: Domestic operations. 121.595 Dispatching authority: Flag operations. 121.597 Flight release authority: Supplemental operations. 121.599 Familiarity with weather conditions. 121.601 Aircraft dispatcher information to pilot in command: Domestic and flag operations. 121.603 Facilities and services: Supplemental operations. 121.605 Airplane equipment. 121.607 Communication and navigation facilities: Domestic and flag operations. 121.609 Communication and navigation facilities: Supplemental operations. 121.611 Dispatch or flight release under VFR. 121.613 Dispatch or flight release under IFR or over the top. 121.615 Dispatch or flight release over water: Flag and supplemental operations. 121.617 Alternate airport for departure. 121.619 Alternate airport for destination: IFR or over-the-top: Domestic operations. 121.621 Alternate airport for destination: Flag operations. 121.623 Alternate airport for destination: IFR or over-the-top: Supplemental operations. 121.624 ETOPS Alternate Airports.. 121.625 Alternate Airport weather minima. 121.627 Continuing flight in unsafe conditions. 121.628 Inoperable instruments and equipment. 121.629 Operation in icing conditions. 121.631 Original dispatch or flight release, redispatch or amendment of dispatch or flight release. 121.633 Considering time-limited systems in planning ETOPS alternates. 121.635 Dispatch to and from refueling or provisional airports: Domestic and flag operations. 121.637 Takeoffs from unlisted and alternate airports: Domestic and flag operations. 121.639 Fuel supply: All domestic operations. 121.641 Fuel supply: Nonturbine and turbo-propeller-powered airplanes: Flag operations. 121.643 Fuel supply: Nonturbine and turbo-propeller-powered airplanes: Supplemental operations. 121.645 Fuel supply: Turbine-engine powered airplanes, other than turbo propeller: Flag and supplemental operations. 121.646 En-route fuel supply: flag and supplemental operations. 121.647 Factors for computing fuel required. 121.649 Takeoff and landing weather minimums: VFR: Domestic operations. 121.651 Takeoff and landing weather minimums: IFR: All certificate holders. 121.652 Landing weather minimums: IFR: All certificate holders. 121.653 [Reserved] 121.655 Applicability of reported weather minimums. 121.657 Flight altitude rules. 121.659 Initial approach altitude: Domestic and supplemental operations. 121.661 Initial approach altitude: Flag operations. 121.663 Responsibility for dispatch release: Domestic and flag operations. 121.665 Load manifest. 121.667 Flight plan: VFR and IFR: Supplemental operations. Subpart V—Records and Reports 121.681 Applicability. 121.683 Crewmember and dispatcher record. 121.685 Aircraft record: Domestic and flag operations.

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121.687 Dispatch release: Flag and domestic operations. 121.689 Flight release form: Supplemental operations. 121.691 [Reserved] 121.693 Load manifest: All certificate holders. 121.695 Disposition of load manifest, dispatch release, and flight plans: Domestic and flag operations. 121.697 Disposition of load manifest, flight release, and flight plans: Supplemental operations. 121.698-121.699 [Reserved] 121.701 Maintenance log: Aircraft. 121.703 Service difficulty reports. 121.705 Mechanical interruption summary report. 121.707 Alteration and repair reports. 121.709 Airworthiness release or aircraft log entry. 121.711 Communication records: Domestic and flag operations. 121.713 Retention of contracts and amendments: Commercial operators who conduct intrastate operations for compensation or hire. Subpart W—Crewmember Certificate: International 121.721 Applicability. 121.723 Surrender of international crewmember certificate. Subpart X—Emergency Medical Equipment and Training 121.801 Applicability. 121.803 Emergency medical equipment. 121.805 Crewmember training for in-flight medical events. Subpart Y—Advanced Qualification Program 121.901 Purpose and eligibility. 121.903 General requirements for Advanced Qualification Programs. 121.905 Confidential commercial information 121.907 Definitions. 121.909 Approval of Advanced Qualification Program. 121.911 Indoctrination curriculum. 121.913 Qualification curriculum. 121.915 Continuing qualification curriculum. 121.917 Other requirements. 121.919 Certification. 121.921 Training devices and simulators. 121.923 Approval of training, qualification, or evaluation by a person who provides training by arrangement. 121.925 Recordkeeping requirements. Subpart Z—Hazardous Materials Training Program 121.1001 Applicability and definitions. 121.1003 Hazardous materials training: General. 121.1005 Hazardous materials training required. 121.1007 Hazardous materials training records. Subpart AA—Continued Airworthiness and Safety Improvements 121.1101 Purpose and definition. 121.1103 [Reserved] 121.1105 Aging airplane inspections and records reviews. 121.1107 Repairs assessment for pressurized fuselages. 121.1109 Supplemental inspections. 121.1111 Electrical wiring interconnection systems (EWIS) maintenance program. 121.1113 Fuel tank system maintenance program. 121.1115 Limit of validity. 121.1117 Flammability reduction means. 121.1119 Fuel tank vent explosion protection. Subpart BB [Reserved] 121.1200-121.1399 [Reserved] Subpart CC [Reserved] 121.1400-121.1499 [Reserved] Subpart DD—Special Federal Aviation Regulations 121.1500 SFAR No. 111—Lavatory Oxygen Systems. Appendix A to Part 121—First-Aid Kits and Emergency Medical Kits Appendix B to Part 121—Aircraft Flight Recorder Specifications Appendix C to Part 121—C-46 Nontransport Category Airplanes Appendix D to Part 121—Criteria for Demonstration of Emergency Evacuation Procedures Under § 121.291 Appendix E to Part 121—Flight Training Requirements Appendix F to Part 121—Proficiency Check Requirements Appendix G to Part 121—Doppler Radar and Inertial Navigation System (INS): Request for Evaluation; Equipment and Equipment Installation; Training Program; Equipment Accuracy and Reliability; Evaluation Program Appendix H to Part 121—Advanced Simulation Appendixes I-J to Part 121 [Reserved] Appendix K to Part 121—Performance Requirements for Certain Turbopropeller Powered Airplanes

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Appendix L to Part 121—Type Certification Regulations Made Previously Effective Appendix M to Part 121—Airplane Flight Recorder Specifications Appendix N to Part 121 [Reserved] Appendix O to Part 121—Hazardous Materials Training Requirements For Certificate Holders Appendix P to Part 121—Requirements for ETOPS and Polar Operations Authority: 49 U.S.C. 106(f), 106(g), 40103, 40113, 40119, 41706, 42301 preceding note added by Pub. L. 112-95, sec. 412, 126 Stat. 89, 44101, 44701-44702, 44705, 44709-44711, 44713, 44716-44717, 44722, 44729, 44732; 46105; Pub. L. 111-216, 124 Stat. 2348 (49 U.S.C. 44701 note); Pub. L. 112-95, 126 Stat. 62 (49 U.S.C. 44732 note); Pub. L. 115-254, 132 Stat. 3186 (49 U.S.C. 44701 note). Pt. 121, SFAR No. 50-2, Nt. Special Federal Aviation Regulation No. 50-2 Editorial Note: For the text of SFAR No. 50-2, see part 91 of this chapter.

Pt. 121, SFAR No. 71, Nt. Special Federal Aviation Regulation No. 71 Editorial Note: For the text of SFAR No. 71, see part 91 of this chapter.

Pt. 121, SFAR No. 97, Nt. Special Federal Aviation Regulation No. 97 Editorial Note: For the text of SFAR No. 97, see part 91 of this chapter.

Subpart A—General § 121.1 Applicability. This part prescribes rules governing— (a) The domestic, flag, and supplemental operations of each person who holds or is required to hold an Air Carrier Certificate or Operating Certificate under part 119 of this chapter. (b) Each person employed or used by a certificate holder conducting operations under this part including maintenance, preventive maintenance, and alteration of aircraft. (c) Each person who applies for provisional approval of an Advanced Qualification Program curriculum, curriculum segment, or portion of a curriculum segment under subpart Y of this part, and each person employed or used by an air carrier or commercial operator under this part to perform training, qualification, or evaluation functions under an Advanced Qualification Program under subpart Y of this part. (d) Nonstop Commercial Air Tours conducted for compensation or hire in accordance with § 119.1(e)(2) of this chapter must comply with drug and alcohol requirements in §§ 121.455, 121.457, 121.458 and 121.459, and with the provisions of part 136, subpart A of this chapter by September 11, 2007. An operator who does not hold an air carrier certificate or an operating certificate is permitted to use a person who is otherwise authorized to perform aircraft maintenance or preventive maintenance duties and who is not subject to anti-drug and alcohol misuse prevention programs to perform— (1) Aircraft maintenance or preventive maintenance on the operator's aircraft if the operator would otherwise be required to transport the aircraft more than 50 nautical miles further than the repair point closest to the operator's principal base of operations to obtain these services; or (2) Emergency repairs on the operator's aircraft if the aircraft cannot be safely operated to a location where an employee subject to FAA-approved programs can perform the repairs. (e) Each person who is on board an aircraft being operated under this part. (f) Each person who is an applicant for an Air Carrier Certificate or an Operating Certificate under part 119 of this chapter, when conducting proving tests. (g) This part also establishes requirements for operators to take actions to support the continued airworthiness of each aircraft. [Docket 28154, 60 FR 65925, Dec. 20, 1995, as amended by Amdt. 121-328, 72 FR 6912, Feb. 13, 2007; Amdt. 121-336, 72 FR 63411, Nov. 8, 2007; Docket FAA-2022-1563, Amdt. 121-390, 88 FR 48090, July 26, 2023] § 121.2 Compliance schedule for operators that transition to part 121; certain new entrant operators. (a) Applicability. This section applies to the following: (1) Each certificate holder that was issued an air carrier or operating certificate and operations specifications under the requirements of part 135 of this chapter or under SFAR No. 38-2 of 14 CFR part 121 before January 19, 1996, and that conducts scheduled passenger-carrying operations with:

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(i) Nontransport category turbopropeller powered airplanes type certificated after December 31, 1964, that have a passenger seat configuration of 10-19 seats; (ii) Transport category turbopropeller powered airplanes that have a passenger seat configuration of 20-30 seats; or (iii) Turbojet engine powered airplanes having a passenger seat configuration of 1-30 seats. (2) Each person who, after January 19, 1996, applies for or obtains an initial air carrier or operating certificate and operations specifications to conduct scheduled passenger-carrying operations in the kinds of airplanes described in paragraphs (a)(1)(i), (a)(1)(ii), or paragraph (a)(1)(iii) of this section. (b) Obtaining operations specifications. A certificate holder described in paragraph (a)(1) of this section may not, after March 20, 1997, operate an airplane described in paragraphs (a)(1)(i), (a)(1)(ii), or (a)(1)(iii) of this section in scheduled passenger-carrying operations, unless it obtains operations specifications to conduct its scheduled operations under this part on or before March 20, 1997. (c) Regular or accelerated compliance. Except as provided in paragraphs (d), (e), and (i) of this section, each certificate holder described in paragraphs (a)(1) of this section shall comply with each applicable requirement of this part on and after March 20, 1997 or on and after the date on which the certificate holder is issued operations specifications under this part, whichever occurs first. Except as provided in paragraphs (d) and (e) of this section, each person described in paragraph (a)(2) of this section shall comply with each applicable requirement of this part on and after the date on which that person is issued a certificate and operations specifications under this part. (d) Delayed compliance dates. Unless paragraph (e) of this section specifies an earlier compliance date, no certificate holder that is covered by paragraph (a) of this section may operate an airplane in 14 CFR part 121 operations on or after a date listed in this paragraph (d) unless that airplane meets the applicable requirement of this paragraph (d): (1) Nontransport category turbopropeller powered airplanes type certificated after December 31, 1964, that have a passenger seat configuration of 10-19 seats. No certificate holder may operate under this part an airplane that is described in paragraph (a)(1)(i) of this section on or after a date listed in paragraph (d)(1) of this section unless that airplane meets the applicable requirement listed in paragraph (d)(1) of this section: (i) December 20, 1997: (A) Section 121.289, Landing gear aural warning. (B) Section 121.308, Lavatory fire protection. (C) Section 121.310(e), Emergency exit handle illumination. (D) Section 121.337(b)(8), Protective breathing equipment. (E) Section 121.340, Emergency flotation means. (ii) December 20, 1999: Section 121.342, Pitot heat indication system. (iii) December 20, 2010: (A) For airplanes described in § 121.157(f), the Airplane Performance Operating Limitations in §§ 121.189 through 121.197. (B) Section 121.161(b), Ditching approval. (C) Section 121.305(j), Third attitude indicator. (D) Section 121.312(c), Passenger seat cushion flammability. (iv) March 12, 1999: Section 121.310(b)(1), Interior emergency exit locating sign. (2) Transport category turbopropeller powered airplanes that have a passenger seat configuration of 20-30 seats. No certificate holder may operate under this part an airplane that is described in paragraph (a)(1)(ii) of this section on or after a date listed in paragraph (d)(2) of this section unless that airplane meets the applicable requirement listed in paragraph (d)(2) of this section: (i) December 20, 1997: (A) Section 121.308, Lavatory fire protection. (B) Section 121.337(b) (8) and (9), Protective breathing equipment. (C) Section 121.340, Emergency flotation means.

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(ii) December 20, 2010: § 121.305(j), third attitude indicator. (e) Newly manufactured airplanes. No certificate holder that is described in paragraph (a) of this section may operate under this part an airplane manufactured on or after a date listed in this paragraph unless that airplane meets the applicable requirement listed in this paragraph (e). (1) For nontransport category turbopropeller powered airplanes type certificated after December 31, 1964, that have a passenger seat configuration of 10-19 seats: (i) Manufactured on or after March 20, 1997: (A) Section 121.305(j), Third attitude indicator. (B) Section 121.311(f), Safety belts and shoulder harnesses. (ii) Manufactured on or after December 20, 1997; Section 121.317(a), Fasten seat belt light. (iii) Manufactured on or after December 20, 1999: Section 121.293, Takeoff warning system. (iv) Manufactured on or after March 12, 1999: Section 121.310(b)(1), Interior emergency exit locating sign. (2) For transport category turbopropeller powered airplanes that have a passenger seat configuration of 20-30 seats manufactured on or after March 20, 1997: Section 121.305(j), Third attitude indicator. (f) New type certification requirements. No person may operate an airplane for which the application for a type certificate was filed after March 29, 1995, in 14 CFR part 121 operations unless that airplane is type certificated under part 25 of this chapter. (g) Transition plan. Before March 19, 1996 each certificate holder described in paragraph (a)(1) of this section must submit to the FAA a transition plan (containing a calendar of events) for moving from conducting its scheduled operations under the commuter requirements of part 135 of this chapter to the requirements for domestic or flag operations under this part. Each transition plan must contain details on the following: (1) Plans for obtaining new operations specifications authorizing domestic or flag operations; (2) Plans for being in compliance with the applicable requirements of this part on or before March 20, 1997; and (3) Plans for complying with the compliance date schedules contained in paragraphs (d) and (e) of this section. (h) Continuing requirements. A certificate holder described in paragraph (a) of this section shall comply with the applicable airplane operating and equipment requirements of part 135 of this chapter for the airplanes described in paragraph (a)(1) of this section, until the airplane meets the specific compliance dates in paragraphs (d) and (e) of this section. (i) Any training or qualification obtained by a crewmember under part 135 of this chapter before March 20, 1997, is entitled to credit under this part for the purpose of meeting the requirements of this part, as determined by the Administrator. Records kept by a certificate holder under part 135 of this chapter before March 20, 1997, can be annotated, with the approval of the Administrator, to reflect crewmember training and qualification credited toward part 121 requirements. [Docket 28154, 60 FR 65925, Dec. 20, 1995, as amended by Amdt. 121-253, 61 FR 2609, Jan. 26, 1996; Amdt. 121-256, 61 FR 30434, June 14, 1996; Amdt. 121-262, 62 FR 13256, Mar. 19, 1997; Amdt. 121-344, 74 FR 34234, July 15, 2009] § 121.4 Applicability of rules to unauthorized operators. The rules in this part which refer to a person certificated under part 119 of this chapter apply also to any person who engages in an operation governed by this part without the appropriate certificate and operations specifications required by part 119 of this chapter. [Docket 11675, 37 FR 20937, Oct. 5, 1972, as amended by Amdt. 121-251, 60 FR 65926, Dec. 20, 1995] § 121.7 Definitions. The following definitions apply to those sections of part 121 that apply to ETOPS: Adequate Airport means an airport that an airplane operator may list with approval from the FAA because that airport meets the landing limitations of § 121.197 and is either—

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(1) An airport that meets the requirements of part 139, subpart D of this chapter, excluding those that apply to aircraft rescue and firefighting service, or (2) A military airport that is active and operational. ETOPS Alternate Airport means an adequate airport listed in the certificate holder's operations specifications that is designated in a dispatch or flight release for use in the event of a diversion during ETOPS. This definition applies to flight planning and does not in any way limit the authority of the pilot-in-command during flight. ETOPS Area of Operation means one of the following areas: (1) For turbine-engine-powered airplanes with two engines, an area beyond 60 minutes from an adequate airport, computed using a one-engine-inoperative cruise speed under standard conditions in still air. (2) For turbine-engine-powered passenger-carrying airplanes with more than two engines, an area beyond 180 minutes from an adequate airport, computed using a one-engine-inoperative cruise speed under standard conditions in still air. ETOPS Entry Point means the first point on the route of an ETOPS flight, determined using a one-engine-inoperative cruise speed under standard conditions in still air, that is— (1) More than 60 minutes from an adequate airport for airplanes with two engines; (2) More than 180 minutes from an adequate airport for passenger-carrying airplanes with more than two engines. ETOPS Qualified Person means a person, performing maintenance for the certificate holder, who has satisfactorily completed the certificate holder's ETOPS training program. Maximum Diversion Time means, for the purposes of ETOPS route planning, the longest diversion time authorized for a flight under the operator's ETOPS authority. It is calculated under standard conditions in still air at a one-engine-inoperative cruise speed. North Pacific Area of Operation means Pacific Ocean areas north of 40° N latitudes including NOPAC ATS routes, and published PACOTS tracks between Japan and North America. North Polar Area means the entire area north of 78° N latitude. One-engine-inoperative-Cruise Speed means a speed within the certified operating limits of the airplane that is specified by the certificate holder and approved by the FAA for — (1) Calculating required fuel reserves needed to account for an inoperative engine; or (2) Determining whether an ETOPS alternate is within the maximum diversion time authorized for an ETOPS flight. South Polar Area means the entire area South of 60° S latitude. [Docket FAA-2002-6717, 72 FR 1878, Jan. 16, 2007] § 121.9 Fraud and falsification. (a) No person may make, or cause to be made, any of the following: (1) A fraudulent or intentionally false statement in any application or any amendment thereto, or in any other record or test result required by this part. (2) A fraudulent or intentionally false statement in, or a known omission from, any record or report that is kept, made, or used to show compliance with this part, or to exercise any privileges under this chapter. (b) The commission by any person of any act prohibited under paragraph (a) of this section is a basis for any one or any combination of the following: (1) A civil penalty. (2) Suspension or revocation of any certificate held by that person that was issued under this chapter. (3) The denial of an application for any approval under this part. (4) The removal of any approval under this part. [Docket FAA-2008-0677, 78 FR 67836, Nov. 12, 2013] § 121.11 Rules applicable to operations in a foreign country. Each certificate holder shall, while operating an airplane within a foreign country, comply with the air traffic rules of the country concerned and the local airport rules, except where any rule of this part is more restrictive and may be followed without violating the rules of that country.

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[Docket 16383, 43 FR 22641, May 25, 1978] § 121.15 Carriage of narcotic drugs, marihuana, and depressant or stimulant drugs or substances. If a certificate holder operating under this part permits any aircraft owned or leased by that holder to be engaged in any operation that the certificate holder knows to be in violation of § 91.19(a) of this chapter, that operation is a basis for suspending or revoking the certificate. [Docket 28154, 60 FR 65926, Dec. 20, 1995] Subpart B—Certification Rules for Domestic and Flag Air Carriers [Reserved] Subpart C—Certification Rules for Supplemental Air Carriers and Commercial Operators [Reserved] Subpart D—Rules Governing All Certificate Holders Under This Part [Reserved] Subpart E—Approval of Routes: Domestic and Flag Operations Source: Docket 6258, 29 FR 19194, Dec. 31, 1964, unless otherwise noted. § 121.91 Applicability. This subpart prescribes rules for obtaining approval of routes by certificate holders conducting domestic or flag operations. [Docket 28154, 61 FR 2610, Jan. 26, 1996] § 121.93 Route requirements: General. (a) Each certificate holder conducting domestic or flag operations seeking a route approval must show— (1) That it is able to conduct satisfactorily scheduled operations between each regular, provisional, and refueling airport over that route or route segment; and (2) That the facilities and services required by §§ 121.97 through 121.107 are available and adequate for the proposed operation. The Administrator approves a route outside of controlled airspace if he determines that traffic density is such that an adequate level of safety can be assured. (b) Paragraph (a) of this section does not require actual flight over a route or route segment if the certificate holder shows that the flight is not essential to safety, considering the availability and adequacy of airports, lighting, maintenance, communication, navigation, fueling, ground, and airplane radio facilities, and the ability of the personnel to be used in the proposed operation. [Docket 6258, 29 FR 19194, Dec. 31, 1964, as amended by Amdt. 121-3, 30 FR 3638, Mar. 19, 1965; Amdt. 121-253, 61 FR 2610, Jan. 26, 1996] § 121.95 Route width. (a) Approved routes and route segments over U.S. Federal airways or foreign airways (and advisory routes in the case of certificate holders conducting flag operations) have a width equal to the designated width of those airways or routes. Whenever the Administrator finds it necessary to determine the width of other approved routes, he considers the following: (1) Terrain clearance. (2) Minimum en route altitudes. (3) Ground and airborne navigation aids. (4) Air traffic density. (5) ATC procedures. (b) Any route widths of other approved routes determined by the Administrator are specified in the certificate holder's operations specifications. [Docket 6258, 29 FR 19194, Dec. 31, 1964, as amended by Amdt. 121-253, 61 FR 2610, Jan. 26, 1996] § 121.97 Airports: Required data. (a) Each certificate holder conducting domestic or flag operations must show that each route it submits for approval has enough airports that are properly equipped and adequate for the proposed operation, considering such items as size, surface, obstructions, facilities, public protection, lighting, navigational and communications aids, and ATC. (b) Each certificate holder conducting domestic or flag operations must show that it has an approved system for obtaining, maintaining, and distributing to appropriate personnel current aeronautical data for each airport it uses to ensure a safe operation at that airport. The aeronautical data must include the following:

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(1) Airports. (i) Facilities. (ii) Public protection. After February 15, 2008, for ETOPS beyond 180 minutes or operations in the North Polar area and South Polar area, this includes facilities at each airport or in the immediate area sufficient to protect the passengers from the elements and to see to their welfare. (iii) Navigational and communications aids. (iv) Construction affecting takeoff, landing, or ground operations. (v) Air traffic facilities. (2) Runways, clearways and stopways. (i) Dimensions. (ii) Surface. (iii) Marking and lighting systems. (iv) Elevation and gradient. (3) Displaced thresholds. (i) Location. (ii) Dimensions. (iii) Takeoff or landing or both. (4) Obstacles. (i) Those affecting takeoff and landing performance computations in accordance with Subpart I of this part. (ii) Controlling obstacles. (5) Instrument flight procedures. (i) Departure procedure. (ii) Approach procedure. (iii) Missed approach procedure. (6) Special information. (i) Runway visual range measurement equipment. (ii) Prevailing winds under low visibility conditions. (c) If the responsible Flight Standards office charged with the overall inspection of the certificate holder's operations finds that revisions are necessary for the continued adequacy of the certificate holder's system for collection, dissemination, and usage of aeronautical data that has been granted approval, the certificate holder shall, after notification by the responsible Flight Standards office, make those revisions in the system. Within 30 days after the certificate holder receives such notice, the certificate holder may file a petition to reconsider the notice with the Executive Director, Flight Standards Service. This filing of a petition to reconsider stays the notice pending a decision by the Executive Director, Flight Standards Service. However, if the responsible Flight Standards office finds that there is an emergency that requires immediate action in the interest of safety in air transportation, the Executive Director, Flight Standards Service may, upon statement of the reasons, require a change effective without stay. [Docket 6258, 29 FR 19194, Dec. 31, 1964, as amended by Amdt. 121-162, 45 FR 46738, July 10, 1980; Amdt. 121-207, 54 FR 39293, Sept. 25, 1989; Amdt. 121-253, 61 FR 2610, Jan. 26, 1996; Amdt. 121-329, 72 FR 1878, Jan. 16, 2007; Docket FAA-2018-0119, Amdt. 121-380, 83 FR 9172, 9173, Mar. 5, 2018] § 121.99 Communications facilities—domestic and flag operations. (a) Each certificate holder conducting domestic or flag operations must show that a two-way communication system, or other means of communication approved by the responsible Flight Standards office, is available over the entire route. The communications may be direct links or via an approved communication link that will provide reliable and rapid communications under normal operating conditions between each airplane and the appropriate dispatch office, and between each airplane and the appropriate air traffic control unit. (b) Except in an emergency, for all flag and domestic kinds of operations, the communications systems between each airplane and the dispatch office must be independent of any system operated by the United States. (c) Each certificate holder conducting flag operations must provide voice communications for ETOPS where voice communication facilities are available. In determining whether facilities are available, the certificate holder must consider potential routes and altitudes needed for diversion to ETOPS Alternate Airports. Where facilities are not available or are of such poor quality that voice communication is not possible, another communication system must be substituted.

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(d) Except as provided in paragraph (e) of this section, after February 15, 2008 for ETOPS beyond 180 minutes, each certificate holder conducting flag operations must have a second communication system in addition to that required by paragraph (c) of this section. That system must be able to provide immediate satellite-based voice communications of landline-telephone fidelity. The system must be able to communicate between the flight crew and air traffic services, and the flight crew and the certificate holder. In determining whether such communications are available, the certificate holder must consider potential routes and altitudes needed for diversion to ETOPS Alternate Airports. Where immediate, satellite-based voice communications are not available, or are of such poor quality that voice communication is not possible, another communication system must be substituted. (e) Operators of two-engine turbine-powered airplanes with 207 minute ETOPS approval in the North Pacific Area of Operation must comply with the requirements of paragraph (d) of this section as of February 15, 2007. [Docket 28154, 62 FR 13256, Mar. 19, 1997, as amended by Amdt. 121-329, 72 FR 1878, Jan. 16, 2007; Amdt. 121-333, 72 FR 31680, June 7, 2007; Docket FAA-2018-0119, Amdt. 121-380, 83 FR 9173, Mar. 5, 2018] § 121.101 Weather reporting facilities. (a) Each certificate holder conducting domestic or flag operations must show that enough weather reporting services are available along each route to ensure weather reports and forecasts necessary for the operation. (b) Except as provided in paragraph (d) of this section, no certificate holder conducting domestic or flag operations may use any weather report to control flight unless— (1) For operations within the 48 contiguous States and the District of Columbia, it was prepared by the U.S. National Weather Service or a source approved by the U.S. National Weather Service; or (2) For operations conducted outside the 48 contiguous States and the District of Columbia, it was prepared by a source approved by the Administrator. (c) Each certificate holder conducting domestic or flag operations that uses forecasts to control flight movements shall use forecasts prepared from weather reports specified in paragraph (b) of this section and from any source approved under its system adopted pursuant to paragraph (d) of this section. (d) Each certificate holder conducting domestic or flag operations shall adopt and put into use an approved system for obtaining forecasts and reports of adverse weather phenomena, such as clear air turbulence, thunderstorms, and low altitude wind shear, that may affect safety of flight on each route to be flown and at each airport to be used. [Docket 6258, 29 FR 19194, Dec. 31, 1964, as amended by Amdt. 121-27, 36 FR 13911, July 28, 1971; Amdt. 121-134, 42 FR 27573, May 31, 1977; Amdt. 121-253, 61 FR 2610, Jan. 26, 1996] § 121.103 En route navigation facilities. (a) Except as provided in paragraph (b) of this section, each certificate holder conducting domestic or flag operations must show, for each proposed route (including to any regular, provisional, refueling or alternate airports), that suitable navigation aids are available to navigate the airplane along the route within the degree of accuracy required for ATC. Navigation aids required for approval of routes outside of controlled airspace are listed in the certificate holder's operations specifications except for those aids required for routes to alternate airports. (b) Navigation aids are not required for any of the following operations— (1) Day VFR operations that the certificate holder shows can be conducted safely by pilotage because of the characteristics of the terrain; (2) Night VFR operations on routes that the certificate holder shows have reliably lighted landmarks adequate for safe operation; and (3) Other operations approved by the responsible Flight Standards office. [Docket FAA-2002-14002, 72 FR 31681, June 7, 2007, as amended by Docket FAA-2018-0119, Amdt. 121-380, 83 FR 9173, Mar. 5, 2018]

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§ 121.105 Servicing and maintenance facilities. Each certificate holder conducting domestic or flag operations must show that competent personnel and adequate facilities and equipment (including spare parts, supplies, and materials) are available at such points along the certificate holder's route as are necessary for the proper servicing, maintenance, and preventive maintenance of airplanes and auxiliary equipment. [Docket 28154, 61 FR 2610, Jan. 26, 1996] § 121.106 ETOPS Alternate Airport: Rescue and fire fighting service. (a) Except as provided in paragraph (b) of this section, the following rescue and fire fighting service (RFFS) must be available at each airport listed as an ETOPS Alternate Airport in a dispatch or flight release. (1) For ETOPS up to 180 minutes, each designated ETOPS Alternate Airport must have RFFS equivalent to that specified by ICAO as Category 4, or higher. (2) For ETOPS beyond 180 minutes, each designated ETOPS Alternate Airport must have RFFS equivalent to that specified by ICAO Category 4, or higher. In addition, the aircraft must remain within the ETOPS authorized diversion time from an Adequate Airport that has RFFS equivalent to that specified by ICAO Category 7, or higher. (b) If the equipment and personnel required in paragraph (a) of this section are not immediately available at an airport, the certificate holder may still list the airport on the dispatch or flight release if the airport's RFFS can be augmented to meet paragraph (a) of this section from local fire fighting assets. A 30-minute response time for augmentation is adequate if the local assets can be notified while the diverting airplane is en route. The augmenting equipment and personnel must be available on arrival of the diverting airplane and must remain as long as the diverting airplane needs RFFS. [Docket FAA-2002-6717, 72 FR 1879, Jan. 16, 2007] § 121.107 Dispatch centers. Each certificate holder conducting domestic or flag operations must show that it has enough dispatch centers, adequate for the operations to be conducted, that are located at points necessary to ensure proper operational control of each flight. [Docket 28154, 61 FR 2610, Jan. 26, 1996] Subpart F—Approval of Areas and Routes for Supplemental Operations Source: Docket 6258, 29 FR 19195, Dec. 31, 1964, unless otherwise noted. § 121.111 Applicability. This subpart prescribes rules for obtaining approval of areas and routes by certificate holders conducting supplemental operations. [Docket 28154, 61 FR 2610, Jan. 26, 1996] § 121.113 Area and route requirements: General. (a) Each certificate holder conducting supplemental operations seeking route and area approval must show— (1) That it is able to conduct operations within the United States in accordance with paragraphs (a) (3) and (4) of this section; (2) That it is able to conduct operations in accordance with the applicable requirements for each area outside the United States for which authorization is requested; (3) That it is equipped and able to conduct operations over, and use the navigational facilities associated with, the Federal airways, foreign airways, or advisory routes (ADR's) to be used; and (4) That it will conduct all IFR and night VFR operations over Federal airways, foreign airways, controlled airspace, or advisory routes (ADR's). (b) Notwithstanding paragraph (a)(4) of this section, the Administrator may approve a route outside of controlled airspace if the certificate holder conducting supplemental operations shows the route is safe for operations and the Administrator finds that traffic density is such that an adequate level of safety can be assured. The certificate holder may not use such a route unless it is approved by the Administrator and is listed in the certificate holder's operations specifications.

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[Docket 6258, 29 FR 19195, Dec. 31, 1964, as amended by Amdt. 121-253, 61 FR 2610, Jan. 26, 1996] § 121.115 Route width. (a) Routes and route segments over Federal airways, foreign airways, or advisory routes have a width equal to the designated width of those airways or advisory routes. Whenever the Administrator finds it necessary to determine the width of other routes, he considers the following: (1) Terrain clearance. (2) Minimum en route altitudes. (3) Ground and airborne navigation aids. (4) Air traffic density. (5) ATC procedures. (b) Any route widths of other routes determined by the Administrator are specified in the certificate holder's operations specifications. [Docket 6258, 29 FR 19195, Dec. 31, 1964, as amended by Amdt. 121-253, 61 FR 2610, Jan. 26, 1996] § 121.117 Airports: Required data. (a) No certificate holder conducting supplemental operations may use any airport unless it is properly equipped and adequate for the proposed operation, considering such items as size, surface, obstructions, facilities, public protection, lighting, navigational and communications aids, and ATC. (b) Each certificate holder conducting supplemental operations must show that it has an approved system for obtaining, maintaining, and distributing to appropriate personnel current aeronautical data for each airport it uses to ensure a safe operation at that airport. The aeronautical data must include the following: (1) Airports. (i) Facilities. (ii) Public protection. (iii) Navigational and communications aids. (iv) Construction affecting takeoff, landing, or ground operations. (v) Air traffic facilities. (2) Runways, clearways, and stopways. (i) Dimensions. (ii) Surface. (iii) Marking and lighting systems. (iv) Elevation and gradient. (3) Displaced thresholds. (i) Location. (ii) Dimensions. (iii) Takeoff or landing or both. (4) Obstacles. (i) Those affecting takeoff and landing performance computations in accordance with Subpart I of this part. (ii) Controlling obstacles. (5) Instrument flight procedures. (i) Departure procedure. (ii) Approach procedure. (iii) Missed approach procedure. (6) Special information. (i) Runway visual range measurement equipment. (ii) Prevailing winds under low visibility conditions. (c) If the responsible Flight Standards office charged with the overall inspection of the certificate holder's operations finds that revisions are necessary for the continued adequacy of the certificate holder's system for collection, dissemination, and usage of aeronautical data that has been granted approval, the certificate holder shall, after notification by the responsible Flight Standards office, make those revisions in the system. Within 30 days after the certificate holder receives such notice, the certificate holder may file a petition to reconsider the notice with the Executive Director, Flight Standards Service. This filing of a petition to reconsider stays the notice pending a decision by the Director, Flight Standards Service. However, if the responsible Flight Standards office finds that there is an emergency that requires immediate action in the interest of safety in air transportation, the Executive Director, Flight Standards Service may, upon a statement of the reasons, require a change effective without stay. [Docket 6258, 29 FR 19195, Dec. 31, 1964, as amended by Amdt. 121-162, 45 FR 46738, July 10, 1980; Amdt. 121-207, 54 FR 39293, Sept. 25, 1989; Amdt. 121-253, 61 FR 2610, Jan. 26, 1996; Docket FAA-2018-0119, Amdt. 121-380, 83 FR 9172, 9173, Mar. 5, 2018]

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§ 121.119 Weather reporting facilities. (a) No certificate holder conducting supplemental operations may use any weather report to control flight unless it was prepared and released by the U.S. National Weather Service or a source approved by the Weather Bureau. For operations outside the U.S., or at U.S. Military airports, where those reports are not available, the certificate holder must show that its weather reports are prepared by a source found satisfactory by the Administrator. (b) Each certificate holder conducting supplemental operations that uses forecasts to control flight movements shall use forecasts prepared from weather reports specified in paragraph (a) of this section. [Docket 6258, 29 FR 19195, Dec. 31, 1964, as amended by Amdt. 121-76, 36 FR 13911, July 28, 1971; Amdt. 121-253, 61 FR 2611, Jan. 26, 1996] § 121.121 En route navigation facilities. (a) Except as provided in paragraph (b) of this section, no certificate holder conducting supplemental operations may conduct any operation over a route (including to any destination, refueling or alternate airports) unless suitable navigation aids are available to navigate the airplane along the route within the degree of accuracy required for ATC. Navigation aids required for routes outside of controlled airspace are listed in the certificate holder's operations specifications except for those aids required for routes to alternate airports. (b) Navigation aids are not required for any of the following operations— (1) Day VFR operations that the certificate holder shows can be conducted safely by pilotage because of the characteristics of the terrain; (2) Night VFR operations on routes that the certificate holder shows have reliably lighted landmarks adequate for safe operation; and (3) Other operations approved by the responsible Flight Standards office. [Docket FAA-2002-14002, 72 FR 31681, June 7, 2007, as amended by Docket FAA-2018-0119, Amdt. 121-380, 83 FR 9173, Mar. 5, 2018] § 121.122 Communications facilities—supplemental operations. (a) Each certificate holder conducting supplemental operations other than all-cargo operations in an airplane with more than two engines must show that a two-way radio communication system or other means of communication approved by the FAA is available. It must ensure reliable and rapid communications under normal operating conditions over the entire route (either direct or via approved point-to-point circuits) between each airplane and the certificate holder, and between each airplane and the appropriate air traffic services, except as specified in § 121.351(c). (b) Except as provided in paragraph (d) of this section, each certificate holder conducting supplemental operations other than all-cargo operations in an airplane with more than two engines must provide voice communications for ETOPS where voice communication facilities are available. In determining whether facilities are available, the certificate holder must consider potential routes and altitudes needed for diversion to ETOPS Alternate Airports. Where facilities are not available or are of such poor quality that voice communication is not possible, another communication system must be substituted. (c) Except as provided in paragraph (d) of this section, for ETOPS beyond 180 minutes each certificate holder conducting supplemental operations other than all-cargo operations in an airplane with more than two engines must have a second communication system in addition to that required by paragraph (b) of this section. That system must be able to provide immediate satellite-based voice communications of landline telephone-fidelity. The system must provide communication capabilities between the flight crew and air traffic services and the flight crew and the certificate holder. In determining whether such communications are available, the certificate holder must consider potential routes and altitudes needed for diversion to ETOPS Alternate Airports. Where immediate, satellite-based voice communications are not available, or are of such poor quality that voice communication is not possible, another communication system must be substituted.

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(d) Operators of turbine engine powered airplanes do not need to meet the requirements of paragraphs (b) and (c) of this section until February 15, 2008. [Docket FAA-2002-6717, 72 FR 1879, Jan. 16, 2007] § 121.123 Servicing maintenance facilities. Each certificate holder conducting supplemental operations must show that competent personnel and adequate facilities and equipment (including spare parts, supplies, and materials) are available for the proper servicing, maintenance, and preventive maintenance of aircraft and auxiliary equipment. [Docket 28154, 61 FR 2611, Jan. 26, 1996] § 121.125 Flight following system. (a) Each certificate holder conducting supplemental operations must show that it has— (1) An approved flight following system established in accordance with subpart U of this part and adequate for the proper monitoring of each flight, considering the operations to be conducted; and (2) Flight following centers located at those points necessary— (i) To ensure the proper monitoring of the progress of each flight with respect to its departure at the point of origin and arrival at its destination, including intermediate stops and diversions therefrom, and maintenance or mechanical delays encountered at those points or stops; and (ii) To ensure that the pilot in command is provided with all information necessary for the safety of the flight. (b) A certificate holder conducting supplemental operations may arrange to have flight following facilities provided by persons other than its employees, but in such a case the certificate holder continues to be primarily responsible for operational control of each flight. (c) A flight following system need not provide for in-flight monitoring by a flight following center. (d) The certificate holder's operations specifications specify the flight following system it is authorized to use and the location of the centers. [Docket 6258, 29 FR 19195, Dec. 31, 1964, as amended by Amdt. 121-253, 61 FR 2611, Jan. 26, 1996] § 121.127 Flight following system; requirements. (a) Each certificate holder conducting supplemental operations using a flight following system must show that— (1) The system has adequate facilities and personnel to provide the information necessary for the initiation and safe conduct of each flight to— (i) The flight crew of each aircraft; and (ii) The persons designated by the certificate holder to perform the function of operational control of the aircraft; and (2) The system has a means of communication by private or available public facilities (such as telephone, telegraph, or radio) to monitor the progress of each flight with respect to its departure at the point of origin and arrival at its destination, including intermediate stops and diversions therefrom, and maintenance or mechanical delays encountered at those points or stops. (b) The certificate holder conducting supplemental operations must show that the personnel specified in paragraph (a) of this section, and those it designates to perform the function of operational control of the aircraft, are able to perform their required duties. [Docket 6258, 29 FR 19195, Dec. 31, 1964, as amended by Amdt. 121-253, 61 FR 2611, Jan. 26, 1996] Subpart G—Manual Requirements § 121.131 Applicability. This subpart prescribes requirements for preparing and maintaining manuals by all certificate holders. [Docket 6258, 29 FR 19196, Dec. 31, 1964] § 121.133 Preparation. (a) Each certificate holder shall prepare and keep current a manual for the use and guidance of flight, ground operations, and management personnel in conducting its operations.

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(b) For the purpose of this subpart, the certificate holder may prepare that part of the manual containing maintenance information and instructions, in whole or in part, in printed form or other form acceptable to the Administrator. [Docket 28154, 60 FR 65926, Dec. 20, 1995] § 121.135 Manual contents. (a) Each manual accessed in paper format must display the date of last revision on each page. Each manual accessed in electronic format must display the date of last revision in a manner in which a person can immediately ascertain it. Each manual required by § 121.133 must: (1) Include instructions and information necessary to allow the personnel concerned to perform their duties and responsibilities with a high degree of safety; (2) Be in a form that is easy to revise and; (3) Not be contrary to any applicable Federal regulation and, in the case of a flag or supplemental operation, any applicable foreign regulation, or the certificate holder's operations specifications or operating certificate. (b) The manual may be in two or more separate parts, containing together all of the following information, but each part must contain that part of the information that is appropriate for each group of personnel: (1) General policies. (2) Duties and responsibilities of each crewmember, appropriate members of the ground organization, and management personnel. (3) Reference to appropriate Federal Aviation Regulations. (4) Flight dispatching and operational control, including procedures for coordinated dispatch or flight control or flight following procedures, as applicable. (5) En route flight, navigation, and communication procedures, including procedures for the dispatch or release or continuance of flight if any item of equipment required for the particular type of operation becomes inoperative or unserviceable en route. (6) For domestic or flag operations, appropriate information from the en route operations specifications, including for each approved route the types of airplanes authorized, the type of operation such as VFR, IFR, day, night, etc., and any other pertinent information. (7) For supplemental operations, appropriate information from the operations specifications, including the area of operations authorized, the types of airplanes authorized, the type of operation such as VFR, IFR, day, night, etc., and any other pertinent information. (8) Appropriate information from the airport operations specifications, including for each airport— (i) Its location (domestic and flag operations only); (ii) Its designation (regular, alternate, provisional, etc.) (domestic and flag operations only); (iii) The types of airplanes authorized (domestic and flag operations only); (iv) Instrument approach procedures; (v) Landing and takeoff minimums; and (vi) Any other pertinent information. (9) Takeoff, en route, and landing weight limitations. (10) For ETOPS, airplane performance data to support all phases of these operations. (11) Procedures for familiarizing passengers with the use of emergency equipment, during flight. (12) Emergency equipment and procedures. (13) The method of designating succession of command of flight crewmembers. (14) Procedures for determining the usability of landing and takeoff areas, and for disseminating pertinent information thereon to operations personnel. (15) Procedures for operating in periods of ice, hail, thunderstorms, turbulence, or any potentially hazardous meteorological condition. (16) Each training program curriculum required by § 121.403. (17) Instructions and procedures for maintenance, preventive maintenance, and servicing. (18) Time limitations, or standards for determining time limitations, for overhauls, inspections, and checks of airframes, engines, propellers, appliances and emergency equipment.

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(19) Procedures for refueling aircraft, eliminating fuel contamination, protection from fire (including electrostatic protection), and supervising and protecting passengers during refueling. (20) Airworthiness inspections, including instructions covering procedures, standards, responsibilities, and authority of inspection personnel. (21) Methods and procedures for maintaining the aircraft weight and center of gravity within approved limits. (22) Where applicable, pilot and dispatcher route and airport qualification procedures. (23) Accident notification procedures. (24) After February 15, 2008, for passenger flag operations and for those supplemental operations that are not all-cargo operations outside the 48 contiguous States and Alaska, (i) For ETOPS greater than 180 minutes a specific passenger recovery plan for each ETOPS Alternate Airport used in those operations, and (ii) For operations in the North Polar Area and South Polar Area a specific passenger recovery plan for each diversion airport used in those operations. (25)(i) Procedures and information, as described in paragraph (b)(25)(ii) of this section, to assist each crewmember and person performing or directly supervising the following job functions involving items for transport on an aircraft: (A) Acceptance; (B) Rejection; (C) Handling; (D) Storage incidental to transport; (E) Packaging of company material; or (F) Loading. (ii) Ensure that the procedures and information described in this paragraph are sufficient to assist the person in identifying packages that are marked or labeled as containing hazardous materials or that show signs of containing undeclared hazardous materials. The procedures and information must include: (A) Procedures for rejecting packages that do not conform to the Hazardous Materials Regulations in 49 CFR parts 171 through 180 or that appear to contain undeclared hazardous materials; (B) Procedures for complying with the hazardous materials incident reporting requirements of 49 CFR 171.15 and 171.16 and discrepancy reporting requirements of 49 CFR 175.31 (C) The certificate holder's hazmat policies and whether the certificate holder is authorized to carry, or is prohibited from carrying, hazardous materials; and (D) If the certificate holder's operations specifications permit the transport of hazardous materials, procedures and information to ensure the following: ( 1 ) That packages containing hazardous materials are properly offered and accepted in compliance with 49 CFR parts 171 through 180; ( 2 ) That packages containing hazardous materials are properly handled, stored, packaged, loaded, and carried on board an aircraft in compliance with 49 CFR parts 171 through 180; ( 3 ) That the requirements for Notice to the Pilot in Command (49 CFR 175.33) are complied with; and ( 4 ) That aircraft replacement parts, consumable materials or other items regulated by 49 CFR parts 171 through 180 are properly handled, packaged, and transported. (26) Other information or instructions relating to safety. (c) Each certificate holder shall maintain at least one complete copy of the manual at its principal base of operations. [Docket 6258, 29 FR 19196, Dec. 31, 1964, as amended by Amdt. 121-104, 38 FR 14915, June 7, 1973; Amdt. 121-106, 38 FR 22377, Aug. 20, 1973; Amdt. 121-143, 43 FR 22641, May 25, 1978; Amdt. 121-162, 45 FR 46739, July 10, 1980; Amdt. 121-251, 60 FR 65926, Dec. 20, 1995; Amdt. 121-250, 60 FR 65948, Dec. 20, 1995; Amdt. 121-316, 70 FR 58823, Oct. 7, 2005; Amdt. 121-329, 72 FR 1879, Jan. 16, 2007; Docket FAA-2022-0912, Amdt. 121-388, 88 FR 34443, May 30, 2023] § 121.137 Distribution and availability. (a) Each certificate holder shall furnish copies of the manual required by § 121.133 (and the changes and additions thereto) or appropriate parts of the manual to— (1) Its appropriate ground operations and maintenance personnel; (2) Crewmembers; and

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(3) Representatives of the Administrator assigned to it. (b) Each person to whom a manual or appropriate parts of it are furnished under paragraph (a) of this section shall keep it up-to-date with the changes and additions furnished to that person and shall have the manual or appropriate parts of it accessible when performing assigned duties. (c) For the purpose of complying with paragraph (a) of this section, a certificate holder may furnish the persons listed therein the maintenance part of the manual in printed form or other form, acceptable to the Administrator, that is retrievable in the English language. [Docket 6258, 29 FR 19196, Dec. 31, 1964, as amended by Amdt. 121-71, 35 FR 17176, Nov. 7, 1970; Amdt. 121-162, 45 FR 46739, July 10, 1980; Amdt. 121-262, 62 FR 13256, Mar. 19, 1997] § 121.139 Manual accessibility: Supplemental operations. Each certificate holder conducting supplemental operations must ensure the appropriate parts of the manual are accessible to flight, ground, and maintenance personnel at all times when such personnel are performing their assigned duties. The information and instructions contained in the manual must be displayed clearly and be retrievable in the English language. [Docket FAA-2022-0912, Amdt. 121-388, 88 FR 34443, May 30, 2023] § 121.141 Airplane flight manual. (a) Each certificate holder shall keep a current approved airplane flight manual for each type of airplane that it operates except for nontransport category airplanes certificated before January 1, 1965. (b) In each airplane required to have an airplane flight manual in paragraph (a) of this section, the certificate holder shall carry either the manual required by § 121.133, if it contains the information required for the applicable flight manual and this information is clearly identified as flight manual requirements, or an approved Airplane Manual. If the certificate holder elects to carry the manual required by § 121.133, the certificate holder may revise the operating procedures sections and modify the presentation of performance data, except for the information required by § 38.23 of this chapter identifying compliance with the fuel efficiency requirements of part 38 of this chapter, from the applicable flight manual if the revised operating procedures and modified performance data presentation are— (1) Approved by the Administrator; and (2) Clearly identified as airplane flight manual requirements. [Docket 28154, 60 FR 65927, Dec. 20, 1995, as amended by Docket FAA-2022-0241, Amdt. 121-391, 89 FR 12663, Feb. 16, 2024] Subpart H—Aircraft Requirements Source: Docket 6258, 29 FR 19197, Dec. 31, 1964, unless otherwise noted. § 121.151 Applicability. This subpart prescribes aircraft requirements for all certificate holders. § 121.153 Aircraft requirements: General. (a) Except as provided in paragraph (c) of this section, no certificate holder may operate an aircraft unless that aircraft— (1) Is registered as a civil aircraft of the United States and carries an appropriate current airworthiness certificate issued under this chapter; and (2) Is in an airworthy condition and meets the applicable airworthiness requirements of this chapter, including those relating to identification and equipment. (b) A certificate holder may use an approved weight and balance control system based on average, assumed, or estimated weight to comply with applicable airworthiness requirements and operating limitations. (c) A certificate holder may operate in common carriage, and for the carriage of mail, a civil aircraft which is leased or chartered to it without crew and is registered in a country which is a party to the Convention on International Civil Aviation if— (1) The aircraft carries an appropriate airworthiness certificate issued by the country of registration and meets the registration and identification requirements of that country;

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(2) The aircraft is of a type design which is approved under a U.S. type certificate and complies with all of the requirements of this chapter (14 CFR Chapter 1) that would be applicable to that aircraft were it registered in the United States, including the requirements which must be met for issuance of a U.S. standard airworthiness certificate (including type design conformity, condition for safe operation, and the noise, fuel venting, and engine emission requirements of this chapter), except that a U.S. registration certificate and a U.S. standard airworthiness certificate will not be issued for the aircraft; (3) The aircraft is operated by U.S.-certificated airmen employed by the certificate holder; and (4) The certificate holder files a copy of the aircraft lease or charter agreement with the FAA Aircraft Registry, Department of Transportation, 6400 South MacArthur Boulevard, Oklahoma City, OK (Mailing address: P.O. Box 25504, Oklahoma City, OK 73125). [Docket 6258, 29 FR 19197, Dec. 31, 1964, as amended by Amdt. 121-165, 45 FR 68649, Oct. 16, 1980] § 121.155 [Reserved]
§ 121.157 Aircraft certification and equipment requirements. (a) Airplanes certificated before July 1, 1942. No certificate holder may operate an airplane that was type certificated before July 1, 1942, unless— (1) That airplane meets the requirements of § 121.173(c), or (2) That airplane and all other airplanes of the same or related type operated by that certificate holder meet the performance requirements of sections 4a.737-T through 4a.750-T of the Civil Air Regulations as in effect on January 31, 1965; or §§ 25.45 through 25.75 and § 121.173(a), (b), (d), and (e) of this title. (b) Airplanes certificated after June 30, 1942. Except as provided in paragraphs (c), (d), (e), and (f) of this section, no certificate holder may operate an airplane that was type certificated after June 30, 1942, unless it is certificated as a transport category airplane and meets the requirements of § 121.173(a), (b), (d), and (e). (c) C-46 type airplanes: passenger-carrying operations. No certificate holder may operate a C-46 airplane in passenger-carrying operations unless that airplane is operated in accordance with the operating limitations for transport category airplanes and meets the requirements of paragraph (b) of this section or meets the requirements of part 4b, as in effect July 20, 1950, and the requirements of § 121.173 (a), (b), (d) and (e), except that— (1) The requirements of sections 4b.0 through 4b.19 as in effect May 18, 1954, must be complied with; (2) The birdproof windshield requirements of section 4b.352 need not be complied with; (3) The provisions of sections 4b.480 through 4b.490 (except sections 4b.484(a)(1) and 4b.487(e)), as in effect May 16, 1953, must be complied with; and (4) The provisions of paragraph 4b.484(a)(1), as in effect July 20, 1950, must be complied with. In determining the takeoff path in accordance with section 4b.116 and the one-engine inoperative climb in accordance with section 4b.120 (a) and (b), the propeller of the inoperative engine may be assumed to be feathered if the airplane is equipped with either an approved means for automatically indicating when the particular engine has failed or an approved means for automatically feathering the propeller of the inoperative engine. The Administrator may authorize deviations from compliance with the requirements of sections 4b.130 through 4b.190 and subparts C, D, E, and F of part 4b (as designated in this paragraph) if he finds that (considering the effect of design changes) compliance is extremely difficult to accomplish and that service experience with the C-46 airplane justifies the deviation. (d) C-46 type airplanes: cargo operations. No certificate holder may use a nontransport category C-46 type airplane in cargo operations unless— (1) It is certificated at a maximum gross weight that is not greater than 48,000 pounds; (2) It meets the requirements of §§ 121.199 through 121.205 using the performance data in appendix C to this part;

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(3) Before each flight, each engine contains at least 25 gallons of oil; and (4) After December 31, 1964— (i) It is powered by a type and model engine as set forth in appendix C of this part, when certificated at a maximum gross takeoff weight greater than 45,000 pounds; and (ii) It complies with the special airworthiness requirement set forth in §§ 121.213 through 121.287 of this part or in appendix C of this part. (e) Commuter category airplanes. Except as provided in paragraph (f) of this section, no certificate holder may operate under this part a nontransport category airplane type certificated after December 31, 1964, and before March 30, 1995, unless it meets the applicable requirements of § 121.173 (a), (b), (d), and (e), and was type certificated in the commuter category. (f) Other nontransport category airplanes. No certificate holder may operate under this part a nontransport category airplane type certificated after December 31, 1964, unless it meets the applicable requirements of § 121.173 (a), (b), (d), and (e), was manufactured before March 20, 1997, and meets one of the following: (1) Until December 20, 2010: (i) The airplane was type certificated in the normal category before July 1, 1970, and meets special conditions issued by the Administrator for airplanes intended for use in operations under part 135 of this chapter. (ii) The airplane was type certificated in the normal category before July 19, 1970, and meets the additional airworthiness standards in SFAR No. 23, 14 CFR part 23. (iii) The airplane was type certificated in the normal category and meets the additional airworthiness standards in appendix A of part 135 of this chapter. (iv) The airplane was type certificated in the normal category and complies with either section 1.(a) or 1.(b) of SFAR No. 41 of 14 CFR part 21. (2) The airplane was type certificated in the normal category, meets the additional requirements described in paragraphs (f)(1)(i) through (f)(1)(iv) of this section, and meets the performance requirements in appendix K of this part. (g) Certain newly manufactured airplanes. No certificate holder may operate an airplane under this part that was type certificated as described in paragraphs (f)(1)(i) through (f)(1)(iv) of this section and that was manufactured after March 20, 1997, unless it meets the performance requirements in appendix K of this part. (h) Newly type certificated airplanes. No person may operate under this part an airplane for which the application for a type certificate is submitted after March 29, 1995, unless the airplane is type certificated under part 25 of this chapter. [Docket 6258, 29 FR 19197, Dec. 31, 1964, as amended by Amdt. 121-251, 60 FR 65927, Dec. 20, 1995; Amdt. 121-256, 61 FR 30434, June 14, 1996] § 121.159 Single-engine airplanes prohibited. No certificate holder may operate a single-engine airplane under this part. [Docket 28154, 60 FR 65927, Dec. 20, 1995] § 121.161 Airplane limitations: Type of route. (a) Except as provided in paragraph (e) of this section, unless approved by the Administrator in accordance with Appendix P of this part and authorized in the certificate holder's operations specifications, no certificate holder may operate a turbine-engine-powered airplane over a route that contains a point— (1) Farther than a flying time from an Adequate Airport (at a one-engine-inoperative cruise speed under standard conditions in still air) of 60 minutes for a two-engine airplane or 180 minutes for a passenger-carrying airplane with more than two engines; (2) Within the North Polar Area; or (3) Within the South Polar Area. (b) Except as provided in paragraph (c) of this section, no certificate holder may operate a land airplane (other than a DC-3, C-46, CV-240, CV-340, CV-440, CV-580, CV-600, CV-640, or Martin 404) in an extended overwater operation unless it is certificated or approved as adequate for ditching under the ditching provisions of part 25 of this chapter.

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(c) Until December 20, 2010, a certificate holder may operate, in an extended overwater operation, a nontransport category land airplane type certificated after December 31, 1964, that was not certificated or approved as adequate for ditching under the ditching provisions of part 25 of this chapter. (d) Unless authorized by the Administrator based on the character of the terrain, the kind of operation, or the performance of the airplane to be used, no certificate holder may operate a reciprocating-engine-powered airplane over a route that contains a point farther than 60 minutes flying time (at a one-engine-inoperative cruise speed under standard conditions in still air) from an Adequate Airport. (e) Operators of turbine-engine powered airplanes with more than two engines do not need to meet the requirements of paragraph (a)(1) of this section until February 15, 2008. [Docket 7329, 31 FR 13078, Oct. 8, 1966, as amended by Amdt. 121-162, 45 FR 46739, July 10, 1980; Amdt. 121-251, 60 FR 65927, Dec. 20, 1995; Amdt. 121-329, 72 FR 1879, Jan. 16, 2007] § 121.162 ETOPS Type Design Approval Basis. Except for a passenger-carrying airplane with more than two engines manufactured prior to February 17, 2015 and except for a two-engine airplane that, when used in ETOPS, is only used for ETOPS of 75 minutes or less, no certificate holder may conduct ETOPS unless the airplane has been type design approved for ETOPS and each airplane used in ETOPS complies with its CMP document as follows: (a) For a two-engine airplane, that is of the same model airplane-engine combination that received FAA approval for ETOPS up to 180 minutes prior to February 15, 2007, the CMP document for that model airplane-engine combination in effect on February 14, 2007. (b) For a two-engine airplane, that is not of the same model airplane-engine combination that received FAA approval for ETOPS up to 180 minutes before February 15, 2007, the CMP document for that new model airplane-engine combination issued in accordance with § 25.3(b)(1) of this chapter. (c) For a two-engine airplane approved for ETOPS beyond 180 minutes, the CMP document for that model airplane-engine combination issued in accordance with § 25.3(b)(2) of this chapter. (d) For an airplane with more than 2 engines manufactured on or after February 17, 2015, the CMP document for that model airplane-engine combination issued in accordance with § 25.3(c) of this chapter. [Docket FAA-2002-6717, 72 FR 1879, Jan. 16, 2007] § 121.163 Aircraft proving tests. (a) Initial airplane proving tests. No person may operate an airplane not before proven for use in a kind of operation under this part or part 135 of this chapter unless an airplane of that type has had, in addition to the airplane certification tests, at least 100 hours of proving tests acceptable to the Administrator, including a representative number of flights into en route airports. The requirement for at least 100 hours of proving tests may be reduced by the Administrator if the Administrator determines that a satisfactory level of proficiency has been demonstrated to justify the reduction. At least 10 hours of proving flights must be flown at night; these tests are irreducible. (b) Proving tests for kinds of operations. Unless otherwise authorized by the Administrator, for each type of airplane, a certificate holder must conduct at least 50 hours of proving tests acceptable to the Administrator for each kind of operation it intends to conduct, including a representative number of flights into en route airports. (c) Proving tests for materially altered airplanes. Unless otherwise authorized by the Administrator, for each type of airplane that is materially altered in design, a certificate holder must conduct at least 50 hours of proving tests acceptable to the Administrator for each kind of operation it intends to conduct with that airplane, including a representative number of flights into en route airports. (d) Definition of materially altered. For the purposes of paragraph (c) of this section, a type of airplane is considered to be materially altered in design if the alteration includes—

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(1) The installation of powerplants other than those of a type similar to those with which it is certificated; or (2) Alterations to the aircraft or its components that materially affect flight characteristics. (e) No certificate holder may carry passengers in an aircraft during proving tests, except for those needed to make the test and those designated by the Administrator. However, it may carry mail, express, or other cargo, when approved. [Docket 6258, 29 FR 19197, Dec. 31, 1964, as amended by Amdt. 121-42, 33 FR 10330, July 19, 1968; 34 FR 13468, Aug. 21, 1969; Amdt. 121-162, 45 FR 46739, July 10, 1980; Amdt. 121-251, 60 FR 65927, Dec. 20, 1995] Subpart I—Airplane Performance Operating Limitations Source: Docket 6258, 29 FR 19198, Dec. 31, 1964; 30 FR 130, Jan. 7, 1965, unless otherwise noted. Editorial Note: Nomenclature changes to subpart I of part 121 appear at 60 FR 65928, Dec. 20, 1995.

§ 121.171 Applicability. (a) This subpart prescribes airplane performance operating limitations for all certificate holders. (b) For purposes of this part, effective length of the runway for landing means the distance from the point at which the obstruction clearance plane associated with the approach end of the runway intersects the centerline of the runway to the far end thereof. (c) For the purposes of this subpart, obstruction clearance plane means a plane sloping upward from the runway at a slope of 1:20 to the horizontal, and tangent to or clearing all obstructions within a specified area surrounding the runway as shown in a profile view of that area. In the plan view, the centerline of the specified area coincides with the centerline of the runway, beginning at the point where the obstruction clearance plane intersects the centerline of the runway and proceeding to a point at least 1,500 feet from the beginning point. Thereafter the centerline coincides with the takeoff path over the ground for the runway (in the case of takeoffs) or with the instrument approach counterpart (for landings), or, where the applicable one of these paths has not been established, it proceeds consistent with turns of at least 4,000 foot radius until a point is reached beyond which the obstruction clearance plane clears all obstructions. This area extends laterally 200 feet on each side of the centerline at the point where the obstruction clearance plane intersects the runway and continues at this width to the end of the runway; then it increases uniformly to 500 feet on each side of the centerline at a point 1,500 feet from the intersection of the obstruction clearance plane with the runway; thereafter it extends laterally 500 feet on each side of the centerline. [Docket 6258, 29 FR 19198, Dec. 31, 1964, as amended by Amdt. 121-132, 41 FR 55475, Dec. 20, 1976] § 121.173 General. (a) Except as provided in paragraph (c) of this section, each certificate holder operating a reciprocating-engine-powered airplane shall comply with §§ 121.175 through 121.187. (b) Except as provided in paragraph (c) of this section, each certificate holder operating a turbine-engine-powered airplane shall comply with the applicable provisions of §§ 121.189 through 121.197, except that when it operates— (1) A turbo-propeller-powered airplane type certificated after August 29, 1959, but previously type certificated with the same number of reciprocating engines, the certificate holder may comply with §§ 121.175 through 121.187; or (2) Until December 20, 2010, a turbo-propeller-powered airplane described in § 121.157(f), the certificate holder may comply with the applicable performance requirements of appendix K of this part. (c) Each certificate holder operating a large nontransport category airplane type certificated before January 1, 1965, shall comply with §§ 121.199 through 121.205 and any determination of compliance must be based only on approved performance data. (d) The performance data in the Airplane Flight Manual applies in determining compliance with §§ 121.175 through 121.197. Where conditions are different from those on which the performance data is based, compliance is determined by interpolation or by computing the effects of changes in the specific variables if the results of the interpolation or computations are substantially as accurate as the results of direct tests.

(e) Except as provided in paragraph (c) of this section, no person may take off a reciprocating-engine-powered airplane at a weight that is more than the allowable weight for the runway being used (determined under the runway takeoff limitations of the operating rules of 14 CFR part 121, subpart I) after taking into account the temperature operating correction factors in the applicable Airplane Flight Manual. (f) The Administrator may authorize in the operations specifications deviations from the requirements in the subpart if special circumstances make a literal observance of a requirement unnecessary for safety. (g) The ten-mile width specified in §§ 121.179 through 121.183 may be reduced to five miles, for not more than 20 miles, when operating VFR or where navigation facilities furnish reliable and accurate identification of high ground and obstructions located outside of five miles, but within ten miles, on each side of the intended track. [Docket 6258, 29 FR 19198, Dec. 31, 1964, as amended by Amdt. 121-251, 60 FR 65928, Dec. 20, 1995] § 121.175 Airplanes: Reciprocating engine-powered: Weight limitations. (a) No person may take off a reciprocating engine powered airplane from an airport located at an elevation outside of the range for which maximum takeoff weights have been determined for that airplane. (b) No person may take off a reciprocating engine powered airplane for an airport of intended destination that is located at an elevation outside of the range for which maximum landing weights have been determined for that airplane. (c) No person may specify, or have specified, an alternate airport that is located at an elevation outside of the range for which maximum landing weights have been determined for the reciprocating engine powered airplane concerned. (d) No person may take off a reciprocating engine powered airplane at a weight more than the maximum authorized takeoff weight for the elevation of the airport. (e) No person may take off a reciprocating engine powered airplane if its weight on arrival at the airport of destination will be more than the maximum authorized landing weight for the elevation of that airport, allowing for normal consumption of fuel and oil en route. (f) This section does not apply to large nontransport category airplanes operated under § 121.173(c). [Docket 6258, 29 FR 19198, Dec. 31, 1964, as amended by Amdt. 121-251, 60 FR 65928, Dec. 20, 1995] § 121.177 Airplanes: Reciprocating engine-powered: Takeoff limitations. (a) No person operating a reciprocating engine powered airplane may takeoff that airplane unless it is possible— (1) To stop the airplane safely on the runway, as shown by the accelerate stop distance data, at any time during takeoff until reaching critical-engine failure speed; (2) If the critical engine fails at any time after the airplane reaches critical-engine failure speed V 1 , to continue the takeoff and reach a height of 50 feet, as indicated by the takeoff path data, before passing over the end of the runway; and (3) To clear all obstacles either by at least 50 feet vertically (as shown by the takeoff path data) or 200 feet horizontally within the airport boundaries and 300 feet horizontally beyond the boundaries, without banking before reaching a height of 50 feet (as shown by the takeoff path data) and thereafter without banking more than 15 degrees. (b) In applying this section, corrections must be made for the effective runway gradient. To allow for wind effect, takeoff data based on still air may be corrected by taking into account not more than 50 percent of any reported headwind component and not less than 150 percent of any reported tailwind component.

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(c) This section does not apply to large nontransport category airplanes operated under § 121.173(c). [Docket 6258, 29 FR 19198, Dec. 31, 1964, as amended by Amdt. 121-159, 45 FR 41593, June 19, 1980; Amdt. 121-251, 60 FR 65928, Dec. 20, 1995] § 121.179 Airplanes: Reciprocating engine-powered: En route limitations: All engines operating. (a) No person operating a reciprocating engine powered airplane may take off that airplane at a weight, allowing for normal consumption of fuel and oil, that does not allow a rate of climb (in feet per minute), with all engines operating, of at least 6.90 V So (that is, the number of feet per minute is obtained by multiplying the number of knots by 6.90) at an altitude of at least 1,000 feet above the highest ground or obstruction within ten miles of each side of the intended track. (b) This section does not apply to airplanes certificated under part 4a of the Civil Air Regulations. (c) This section does not apply to large nontransport category airplanes operated under § 121.173(c). [Docket 6258, 29 FR 19198, Dec. 31, 1964, as amended by Amdt. 121-251, 60 FR 65928, Dec. 20, 1995] § 121.181 Airplanes: Reciprocating engine-powered: En route limitations: One engine inoperative. (a) Except as provided in paragraph (b) of this section, no person operating a reciprocating engine powered airplane may take off that airplane at a weight, allowing for normal consumption of fuel and oil, that does not allow a rate of climb (in feet per minute), with one engine inoperative, of at least (0.079-0.106/N) V so 2 (where N is the number of engines installed and V So is expressed in knots) at an altitude of at least 1,000 feet above the highest ground or obstruction within 10 miles of each side of the intended track. However, for the purposes of this paragraph the rate of climb for airplanes certificated under part 4a of the Civil Air Regulations is 0.026 V so 2. (b) In place of the requirements of paragraph (a) of this section, a person may, under an approved procedure, operate a reciprocating engine powered airplane, at an all-engines-operating altitude that allows the airplane to continue, after an engine failure, to an alternate airport where a landing can be made in accordance with § 121.187, allowing for normal consumption of fuel and oil. After the assumed failure, the flight path must clear the ground and any obstruction within five miles on each side of the intended track by at least 2,000 feet. (c) If an approved procedure under paragraph (b) of this section is used, the certificate holder shall comply with the following: (1) The rate of climb (as prescribed in the Airplane Flight Manual for the appropriate weight and altitude) used in calculating the airplane's flight path shall be diminished by an amount, in feet per minute, equal to (0.079-0.106/N) V so 2 (when N is the number of engines installed and V S o is expressed in knots) for airplanes certificated under part 25 of this chapter and by 0.026 V so 2 for airplanes certificated under part 4a of the Civil Air Regulations. (2) The all-engines-operating altitude shall be sufficient so that in the event the critical engine becomes inoperative at any point along the route, the flight will be able to proceed to a predetermined alternate airport by use of this procedure. In determining the takeoff weight, the airplane is assumed to pass over the critical obstruction following engine failure at a point no closer to the critical obstruction than the nearest approved radio navigational fix, unless the Administrator approves a procedure established on a different basis upon finding that adequate operational safeguards exist. (3) The airplane must meet the provisions of paragraph (a) of this section at 1,000 feet above the airport used as an alternate in this procedure. (4) The procedure must include an approved method of accounting for winds and temperatures that would otherwise adversely affect the flight path.

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(5) In complying with this procedure fuel jettisoning is allowed if the certificate holder shows that it has an adequate training program, that proper instructions are given to the flight crew, and all other precautions are taken to insure a safe procedure. (6) The certificate holder shall specify in the dispatch or flight release an alternate airport that meets the requirements of § 121.625. (d) This section does not apply to large nontransport category airplanes operated under § 121.173(c). [Docket 6258, 29 FR 19198, Dec. 31, 1964; 30 FR 130, Jan. 7, 1965, as amended by Amdt. 121-251, 60 FR 65928, Dec. 20, 1995] § 121.183 Part 25 airplanes with four or more engines: Reciprocating engine powered: En route limitations: Two engines inoperative. (a) No person may operate an airplane certificated under part 25 and having four or more engines unless— (1) There is no place along the intended track that is more than 90 minutes (with all engines operating at cruising power) from an airport that meets the requirements of § 121.187; or (2) It is operated at a weight allowing the airplane, with the two critical engines inoperative, to climb at 0.013 V so 2 feet per minute (that is, the number of feet per minute is obtained by multiplying the number of knots squared by 0.013) at an altitude of 1,000 feet above the highest ground or obstruction within 10 miles on each side of the intended track, or at an altitude of 5,000 feet, whichever is higher. (b) For the purposes of paragraph (a)(2) of this section, it is assumed that— (1) The two engines fail at the point that is most critical with respect to the takeoff weight: (2) Consumption of fuel and oil is normal with all engines operating up to the point where the two engines fail and with two engines operating beyond that point; (3) Where the engines are assumed to fail at an altitude above the prescribed minimum altitude, compliance with the prescribed rate of climb at the prescribed minimum altitude need not be shown during the descent from the cruising altitude to the prescribed minimum altitude, if those requirements can be met once the prescribed minimum altitude is reached, and assuming descent to be along a net flight path and the rate of descent to be 0.013 V so 2 greater than the rate in the approved performance data; and (4) If fuel jettisoning is provided, the airplane's weight at the point where the two engines fail is considered to be not less than that which would include enough fuel to proceed to an airport meeting the requirements of § 121.187 and to arrive at an altitude of at least 1,000 feet directly over that airport. [Docket 6258, 29 FR 19198, Dec. 31, 1964; 30 FR 130, Jan. 7, 1965, as amended by Amdt. 121-251, 60 FR 65928, Dec. 20, 1995] § 121.185 Airplanes: Reciprocating engine-powered: Landing limitations: Destination airport. (a) Except as provided in paragraph (b) of this section no person operating a reciprocating engine powered airplane may take off that airplane, unless its weight on arrival, allowing for normal consumption of fuel and oil in flight, would allow a full stop landing at the intended destination within 60 percent of the effective length of each runway described below from a point 50 feet directly above the intersection of the obstruction clearance plane and the runway. For the purposes of determining the allowable landing weight at the destination airport the following is assumed: (1) The airplane is landed on the most favorable runway and in the most favorable direction in still air. (2) The airplane is landed on the most suitable runway considering the probable wind velocity and direction (forecast for the expected time of arrival), the ground handling characteristics of the type of airplane, and other conditions such as landing aids and terrain, and allowing for the effect of the landing path and roll of not more than 50 percent of the headwind component or not less than 150 percent of the tailwind component. (b) An airplane that would be prohibited from being taken off because it could not meet the requirements of paragraph (a)(2) of this section may be taken off if an alternate airport is specified that meets all of the requirements of this section except that the airplane can accomplish a full stop landing within 70 percent of the effective length of the runway.

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(c) This section does not apply to large nontransport category airplanes operated under § 121.173(c). [Docket 6258, 29 FR 19198, Dec. 31, 1964; 30 FR 130, Jan. 7, 1965, as amended by Amdt. 121-251, 60 FR 65928, Dec. 20, 1995] § 121.187 Airplanes: Reciprocating engine-powered: Landing limitations: Alternate airport. (a) No person may list an airport as an alternate airport in a dispatch or flight release unless the airplane (at the weight anticipated at the time of arrival at the airport), based on the assumptions in § 121.185, can be brought to a full stop landing, within 70 percent of the effective length of the runway. (b) This section does not apply to large nontransport category airplanes operated under § 121.173(c). [Docket 6258, 29 FR 19198, Dec. 31, 1964; 30 FR 130, Jan. 7, 1965, as amended by Amdt. 121-251, 60 FR 65928, Dec. 20, 1995] § 121.189 Airplanes: Turbine engine powered: Takeoff limitations. (a) No person operating a turbine engine powered airplane may take off that airplane at a weight greater than that listed in the Airplane Flight Manual for the elevation of the airport and for the ambient temperature existing at takeoff. (b) No person operating a turbine engine powered airplane certificated after August 26, 1957, but before August 30, 1959 (SR422, 422A), may take off that airplane at a weight greater than that listed in the Airplane Flight Manual for the minimum distances required for takeoff. In the case of an airplane certificated after September 30, 1958 (SR422A, 422B), the takeoff distance may include a clearway distance but the clearway distance included may not be greater than 1/2 of the takeoff run. (c) No person operating a turbine engine powered airplane certificated after August 29, 1959 (SR422B), may take off that airplane at a weight greater than that listed in the Airplane Flight Manual at which compliance with the following may be shown: (1) The accelerate-stop distance must not exceed the length of the runway plus the length of any stopway. (2) The takeoff distance must not exceed the length of the runway plus the length of any clearway except that the length of any clearway included must not be greater than one-half the length of the runway. (3) The takeoff run must not be greater than the length of the runway. (d) No person operating a turbine engine powered airplane may take off that airplane at a weight greater than that listed in the Airplane Flight Manual— (1) In the case of an airplane certificated after August 26, 1957, but before October 1, 1958 (SR422), that allows a takeoff path that clears all obstacles either by at least (35 + 0.01D) feet vertically (D is the distance along the intended flight path from the end of the runway in feet), or by at least 200 feet horizontally within the airport boundaries and by at least 300 feet horizontally after passing the boundaries; or (2) In the case of an airplane certificated after September 30, 1958 (SR 422A, 422B), that allows a net takeoff flight path that clears all obstacles either by a height of at least 35 feet vertically, or by at least 200 feet horizontally within the airport boundaries and by at least 300 feet horizontally after passing the boundaries. (e) In determining maximum weights, minimum distances, and flight paths under paragraphs (a) through (d) of this section, correction must be made for the runway to be used, the elevation of the airport, the effective runway gradient, the ambient temperature and wind component at the time of takeoff, and, if operating limitations exist for the minimum distances required for takeoff from wet runways, the runway surface condition (dry or wet). Wet runway distances associated with grooved or porous friction course runways, if provided in the Airplane Flight Manual, may be used only for runways that are grooved or treated with a porous friction course (PFC) overlay, and that the operator determines are designed, constructed, and maintained in a manner acceptable to the Administrator.

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(f) For the purposes of this section, it is assumed that the airplane is not banked before reaching a height of 50 feet, as shown by the takeoff path or net takeoff flight path data (as appropriate) in the Airplane Flight Manual, and thereafter that the maximum bank is not more than 15 degrees. (g) For the purposes of this section the terms, takeoff distance, takeoff run, net takeoff flight path and takeoff path have the same meanings as set forth in the rules under which the airplane was certificated. [Docket 6258, 29 FR 19198, Dec. 31, 1964, as amended by Amdt. 121-268, 63 FR 8321, Feb. 18, 1998] § 121.191 Airplanes: Turbine engine powered: En route limitations: One engine inoperative. (a) No person operating a turbine engine powered airplane may take off that airplane at a weight, allowing for normal consumption of fuel and oil, that is greater than that which (under the approved, one engine inoperative, en route net flight path data in the Airplane Flight Manual for that airplane) will allow compliance with paragraph (a) (1) or (2) of this section, based on the ambient temperatures expected en route: (1) There is a positive slope at an altitude of at least 1,000 feet above all terrain and obstructions within five statute miles on each side of the intended track, and, in addition, if that airplane was certificated after August 29, 1959 (SR 422B) there is a positive slope at 1,500 feet above the airport where the airplane is assumed to land after an engine fails. (2) The net flight path allows the airplane to continue flight from the cruising altitude to an airport where a landing can be made under § 121.197, clearing all terrain and obstructions within five statute miles of the intended track by at least 2,000 feet vertically and with a positive slope at 1,000 feet above the airport where the airplane lands after an engine fails, or, if that airplane was certificated after September 30, 1958 (SR 422A, 422B), with a positive slope at 1,500 feet above the airport where the airplane lands after an engine fails. (b) For the purposes of paragraph (a)(2) of this section, it is assumed that— (1) The engine fails at the most critical point en route; (2) The airplane passes over the critical obstruction, after engine failure at a point that is no closer to the obstruction than the nearest approved radio navigation fix, unless the Administrator authorizes a different procedure based on adequate operational safeguards; (3) An approved method is used to allow for adverse winds: (4) Fuel jettisoning will be allowed if the certificate holder shows that the crew is properly instructed, that the training program is adequate, and that all other precautions are taken to insure a safe procedure; (5) The alternate airport is specified in the dispatch or flight release and meets the prescribed weather minimums; and (6) The consumption of fuel and oil after engine failure is the same as the consumption that is allowed for in the approved net flight path data in the Airplane Flight Manual. [Docket 6258, 29 FR 19198, Dec. 31, 1964; 30 FR 130, Jan. 7, 1965, as amended by Amdt. 121-143, 43 FR 22641, May 25, 1978] § 121.193 Airplanes: Turbine engine powered: En route limitations: Two engines inoperative. (a) Airplanes certificated after August 26, 1957, but before October 1, 1958 (SR 422). No person may operate a turbine engine powered airplane along an intended route unless he complies with either of the following: (1) There is no place along the intended track that is more than 90 minutes (with all engines operating at cruising power) from an airport that meets the requirements of § 121.197. (2) Its weight, according to the two-engine-inoperative, en route, net flight path data in the Airplane Flight Manual, allows the airplane to fly from the point where the two engines are assumed to fail simultaneously to an airport that meets the requirements of § 121.197, with a net flight path (considering the ambient temperature anticipated along the track) having a positive slope at an altitude of at least 1,000 feet above all terrain and obstructions within five miles on each side of the intended track, or at an altitude of 5,000 feet, whichever is higher.

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For the purposes of paragraph (a)(2) of this section, it is assumed that the two engines fail at the most critical point en route, that if fuel jettisoning is provided, the airplane's weight at the point where the engines fail includes enough fuel to continue to the airport and to arrive at an altitude of at least 1,000 feet directly over the airport, and that the fuel and oil consumption after engine failure is the same as the consumption allowed for in the net flight path data in the Airplane Flight Manual. (b) Aircraft certificated after September 30, 1958, but before August 30, 1959 (SR 422A). No person may operate a turbine engine powered airplane along an intended route unless he complies with either of the following: (1) There is no place along the intended track that is more than 90 minutes (with all engines operating at cruising power) from an airport that meets the requirements of § 121.197. (2) Its weight, according to the two-engine-inoperative, en route, net flight path data in the Airplane Flight Manual, allows the airplane to fly from the point where the two engines are assumed to fail simultaneously to an airport that meets the requirements of § 121.197, with a net flight path (considering the ambient temperatures anticipated along the track) having a positive slope at an altitude of at least 1,000 feet above all terrain and obstructions within 5 miles on each side of the intended track, or at an altitude of 2,000 feet, whichever is higher. For the purposes of paragraph (b)(2) of this section, it is assumed that the two engines fail at the most critical point en route, that the airplane's weight at the point where the engines fail includes enough fuel to continue to the airport, to arrive at an altitude of at least 1,500 feet directly over the airport, and thereafter to fly for 15 minutes at cruise power or thrust, or both, and that the consumption of fuel and oil after engine failure is the same as the consumption allowed for in the net flight path data in the Airplane Flight Manual. (c) Aircraft certificated after August 29, 1959 (SR 422B). No person may operate a turbine engine powered airplane along an intended route unless he complies with either of the following: (1) There is no place along the intended track that is more than 90 minutes (with all engines operating at cruising power) from an airport that meets the requirements of § 121.197. (2) Its weight, according to the two-engine inoperative, en route, net flight path data in the Airplane Flight Manual, allows the airplane to fly from the point where the two engines are assumed to fail simultaneously to an airport that meets the requirements of § 121.197, with the net flight path (considering the ambient temperatures anticipated along the track) clearing vertically by at least 2,000 feet all terrain and obstructions within five statute miles (4.34 nautical miles) on each side of the intended track. For the purposes of this subparagraph, it is assumed that— (i) The two engines fail at the most critical point en route; (ii) The net flight path has a positive slope at 1,500 feet above the airport where the landing is assumed to be made after the engines fail; (iii) Fuel jettisoning will be approved if the certificate holder shows that the crew is properly instructed, that the training program is adequate, and that all other precautions are taken to ensure a safe procedure; (iv) The airplane's weight at the point where the two engines are assumed to fail provides enough fuel to continue to the airport, to arrive at an altitude of at least 1,500 feet directly over the airport, and thereafter to fly for 15 minutes at cruise power or thrust, or both; and (v) The consumption of fuel and oil after the engine failure is the same as the consumption that is allowed for in the net flight path data in the Airplane Flight Manual.

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§ 121.195 Airplanes: Turbine engine powered: Landing limitations: Destination airports. (a) No person operating a turbine engine powered airplane may take off that airplane at such a weight that (allowing for normal consumption of fuel and oil in flight to the destination or alternate airport) the weight of the airplane on arrival would exceed the landing weight set forth in the Airplane Flight Manual for the elevation of the destination or alternate airport and the ambient temperature anticipated at the time of landing. (b) Except as provided in paragraph (c), (d), or (e) of this section, no person operating a turbine engine powered airplane may take off that airplane unless its weight on arrival, allowing for normal consumption of fuel and oil in flight (in accordance with the landing distance set forth in the Airplane Flight Manual for the elevation of the destination airport and the wind conditions anticipated there at the time of landing), would allow a full stop landing at the intended destination airport within 60 percent of the effective length of each runway described below from a point 50 feet above the intersection of the obstruction clearance plane and the runway. For the purpose of determining the allowable landing weight at the destination airport the following is assumed: (1) The airplane is landed on the most favorable runway and in the most favorable direction, in still air. (2) The airplane is landed on the most suitable runway considering the probable wind velocity and direction and the ground handling characteristics of the airplane, and considering other conditions such as landing aids and terrain. (c) A turbopropeller powered airplane that would be prohibited from being taken off because it could not meet the requirements of paragraph (b)(2) of this section, may be taken off if an alternate airport is specified that meets all the requirements of this section except that the airplane can accomplish a full stop landing within 70 percent of the effective length of the runway. (d) Unless, based on a showing of actual operating landing techniques on wet runways, a shorter landing distance (but never less than that required by paragraph (b) of this section) has been approved for a specific type and model airplane and included in the Airplane Flight Manual, no person may takeoff a turbojet powered airplane when the appropriate weather reports and forecasts, or a combination thereof, indicate that the runways at the destination airport may be wet or slippery at the estimated time of arrival unless the effective runway length at the destination airport is at least 115 percent of the runway length required under paragraph (b) of this section. (e) A turbojet powered airplane that would be prohibited from being taken off because it could not meet the requirements of paragraph (b)(2) of this section may be taken off if an alternate airport is specified that meets all the requirements of paragraph (b) of this section. [Docket 6258, 29 FR 19198, Dec. 31, 1964, as amended by Amdt. 121-9, 30 FR 8572, July 7, 1965] § 121.197 Airplanes: Turbine engine powered: Landing limitations: Alternate airports. No person may list an airport as an alternate airport in a dispatch or flight release for a turbine engine powered airplane unless (based on the assumptions in § 121.195 (b)) that airplane at the weight anticipated at the time of arrival can be brought to a full stop landing within 70 percent of the effective length of the runway for turbopropeller powered airplanes and 60 percent of the effective length of the runway for turbojet powered airplanes, from a point 50 feet above the intersection of the obstruction clearance plane and the runway. In the case of an alternate airport for departure, as provided in § 121.617, allowance may be made for fuel jettisoning in addition to normal consumption of fuel and oil when determining the weight anticipated at the time of arrival. [Docket 6258, 29 FR 19198, Dec. 31, 1964, as amended by Amdt. 121-9, 30 FR 8572, July 7, 1965; Amdt. 121-179, 47 FR 33390, Aug. 2, 1982]

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§ 121.198 Cargo service airplanes: Increased zero fuel and landing weights. (a) Notwithstanding the applicable structural provisions of the airworthiness regulations but subject to paragraphs (b) through (g) of this section, a certificate holder may operate (for cargo service only) any of the following airplanes (certificated under part 4b of the Civil Air Regulations effective before March 13, 1956) at increased zero fuel and landing weights— (1) DC-6A, DC-6B, DC-7B, and DC-7C; and (2) L1049B, C, D, E, F, G, and H, and the L1649A when modified in accordance with supplemental type certificate SA 4-1402. (b) The zero fuel weight (maximum weight of the airplane with no disposable fuel and oil) and the structural landing weight may be increased beyond the maximum approved in full compliance with applicable regulations only if the Administrator finds that— (1) The increase is not likely to reduce seriously the structural strength; (2) The probability of sudden fatigue failure is not noticeably increased; (3) The flutter, deformation, and vibration characteristics do not fall below those required by applicable regulations; and (4) All other applicable weight limitations will be met. (c) No zero fuel weight may be increased by more than five percent, and the increase in the structural landing weight may not exceed the amount, in pounds, of the increase in zero fuel weight. (d) Each airplane must be inspected in accordance with the approved special inspection procedures, for operations at increased weights, established and issued by the manufacturer of the type of airplane. (e) Each airplane operated under this section must be operated in accordance with the passenger-carrying performance operating limitations prescribed in this part. (f) The Airplane Flight Manual for each airplane operated under this section must be appropriately revised to include the operating limitations and information needed for operation at the increased weights. (g) Except as provided for the carrying of persons under § 121.583 each airplane operated at an increased weight under this section must, before it is used in passenger service, be inspected under the special inspection procedures for return to passenger service established and issued by the manufacturer and approved by the Administrator. § 121.199 Nontransport category airplanes: Takeoff limitations. (a) No person operating a nontransport category airplane may take off that airplane at a weight greater than the weight that would allow the airplane to be brought to a safe stop within the effective length of the runway, from any point during the takeoff before reaching 105 percent of minimum control speed (the minimum speed at which an airplane can be safely controlled in flight after an engine becomes inoperative) or 115 percent of the power off stalling speed in the takeoff configuration, whichever is greater. (b) For the purposes of this section— (1) It may be assumed that takeoff power is used on all engines during the acceleration; (2) Not more than 50 percent of the reported headwind component, or not less than 150 percent of the reported tailwind component, may be taken into account; (3) The average runway gradient (the difference between the elevations of the endpoints of the runway divided by the total length) must be considered if it is more than one-half of 1 percent; (4) It is assumed that the airplane is operating in standard atmosphere; and (5) The effective length of the runway for takeoff means the distance from the end of the runway at which the takeoff is started to a point at which the obstruction clearance plane associated with the other end of the runway intersects the runway centerline. [Docket 6258, 29 FR 19198, Dec. 31, 1964, as amended by Amdt. 121-132, 41 FR 55475, Dec. 20, 1976]

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§ 121.201 Nontransport category airplanes: En route limitations: One engine inoperative. (a) Except as provided in paragraph (b) of this section, no person operating a nontransport category airplane may take off that airplane at a weight that does not allow a rate of climb of at least 50 feet a minute, with the critical engine inoperative, at an altitude of at least 1,000 feet above the highest obstruction within five miles on each side of the intended track, or 5,000 feet, whichever is higher. (b) Notwithstanding paragraph (a) of this section, if the Administrator finds that safe operations are not impaired, a person may operate the airplane at an altitude that allows the airplane, in case of engine failure, to clear all obstructions within 5 miles on each side of the intended track by 1,000 feet. If this procedure is used, the rate of descent for the appropriate weight and altitude is assumed to be 50 feet a minute greater than the rate in the approved performance data. Before approving such a procedure, the Administrator considers the following for the route, route segment, or area concerned: (1) The reliability of wind and weather forecasting. (2) The location and kinds of navigation aids. (3) The prevailing weather conditions, particularly the frequency and amount of turbulence normally encountered. (4) Terrain features. (5) Air traffic control problems. (6) Any other operational factors that affect the operation. (c) For the purposes of this section, it is assumed that— (1) The critical engine is inoperative; (2) The propeller of the inoperative engine is in the minimum drag position; (3) The wing flaps and landing gear are in the most favorable position; (4) The operating engines are operating at the maximum continuous power available; (5) The airplane is operating in standard atmosphere; and (6) The weight of the airplane is progressively reduced by the anticipated consumption of fuel and oil. § 121.203 Nontransport category airplanes: Landing limitations: Destination airport. (a) No person operating a nontransport category airplane may take off that airplane at a weight that— (1) Allowing for anticipated consumption of fuel and oil, is greater than the weight that would allow a full stop landing within 60 percent of the effective length of the most suitable runway at the destination airport; and (2) Is greater than the weight allowable if the landing is to be made on the runway— (i) With the greatest effective length in still air; and (ii) Required by the probable wind, taking into account not more than 50 percent of the headwind component or not less than 150 percent of the tailwind component. (b) For the purposes of this section, it is assumed that— (1) The airplane passes directly over the intersection of the obstruction clearance plane and the runway at a height of 50 feet in a steady gliding approach at a true indicated airspeed of at least 1.3 V S o ; (2) The landing does not require exceptional pilot skill; and (3) The airplane is operating in standard atmosphere. § 121.205 Nontransport category airplanes: Landing limitations: Alternate airport. No person may list an airport as an alternate airport in a dispatch or flight release for a nontransport category airplane unless that airplane (at the weight anticipated at the time of arrival) based on the assumptions contained in § 121.203, can be brought to a full stop landing within 70 percent of the effective length of the runway. § 121.207 Provisionally certificated airplanes: Operating limitations. In addition to the limitations in § 91.317 of this chapter, the following limitations apply to the operation of provisionally certificated airplanes by certificate holders: (a) In addition to crewmembers, each certificate holder may carry on such an airplane only those persons who are listed in § 121.547(c) or who are specifically authorized by both the certificate holder and the Administrator.

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(b) Each certificate holder shall keep a log of each flight conducted under this section and shall keep accurate and complete records of each inspection made and all maintenance performed on the airplane. The certificate holder shall make the log and records made under this section available to the manufacturer and the Administrator. [Docket 28154, 61 FR 2611, Jan. 26, 1996] Subpart J—Special Airworthiness Requirements Source: Docket 6258, 29 FR 19202, Dec. 31, 1964, unless otherwise noted. § 121.211 Applicability. (a) This subpart prescribes special airworthiness requirements applicable to certificate holders as stated in paragraphs (b) through (e) of this section. (b) Except as provided in paragraph (d) of this section, each airplane type certificated under Aero Bulletin 7A or part 04 of the Civil Air Regulations in effect before November 1, 1946 must meet the special airworthiness requirements in §§ 121.215 through 121.283. (c) Each certificate holder must comply with the requirements of §§ 121.285 through 121.291. (d) If the Administrator determines that, for a particular model of airplane used in cargo service, literal compliance with any requirement under paragraph (b) of this section would be extremely difficult and that compliance would not contribute materially to the objective sought, he may require compliance only with those requirements that are necessary to accomplish the basic objectives of this part. (e) No person may operate under this part a nontransport category airplane type certificated after December 31, 1964, unless the airplane meets the special airworthiness requirements in § 121.293. [Docket 28154, 60 FR 65928, Dec. 20, 1995] § 121.213 [Reserved]
§ 121.215 Cabin interiors. (a) Except as provided in § 121.312, each compartment used by the crew or passengers must meet the requirements of this section. (b) Materials must be at least flash resistant. (c) The wall and ceiling linings and the covering of upholstering, floors, and furnishings must be flame resist­ant. (d) Each compartment where smoking is to be allowed must be equipped with self-contained ash trays that are completely removable and other compartments must be placarded against smoking. (e) Each receptacle for used towels, papers, and wastes must be of fire-resistant material and must have a cover or other means of containing possible fires started in the receptacles. [Docket 6258, 29 FR 19202, Dec. 31, 1964, as amended by Amdt. 121-84, 37 FR 3974, Feb. 24, 1972] § 121.217 Internal doors. In any case where internal doors are equipped with louvres or other ventilating means, there must be a means convenient to the crew for closing the flow of air through the door when necessary. § 121.219 Ventilation. Each passenger or crew compartment must be suitably ventilated. Carbon monoxide concentration may not be more than one part in 20,000 parts of air, and fuel fumes may not be present. In any case where partitions between compartments have louvres or other means allowing air to flow between compartments, there must be a means convenient to the crew for closing the flow of air through the partitions, when necessary. § 121.221 Fire precautions. (a) Each compartment must be designed so that, when used for storing cargo or baggage, it meets the following requirements: (1) No compartment may include controls, wiring, lines, equipment, or accessories that would upon damage or failure, affect the safe operation of the airplane unless the item is adequately shielded, isolated, or otherwise protected so that it cannot be damaged by movement of cargo in the compartment and so that damage to or failure of the item would not create a fire hazard in the compartment.

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(2) Cargo or baggage may not interfere with the functioning of the fire-protective features of the compartment. (3) Materials used in the construction of the compartments, including tie-down equipment, must be at least flame resistant. (4) Each compartment must include provisions for safeguarding against fires according to the classifications set forth in paragraphs (b) through (f) of this section. (b) Class A. Cargo and baggage compartments are classified in the “A” category if— (1) A fire therein would be readily discernible to a member of the crew while at his station; and (2) All parts of the compartment are easily accessible in flight. There must be a hand fire extinguisher available for each Class A compartment. (c) Class B. Cargo and baggage compartments are classified in the “B” category if enough access is provided while in flight to enable a member of the crew to effectively reach all of the compartment and its contents with a hand fire extinguisher and the compartment is so designed that, when the access provisions are being used, no hazardous amount of smoke, flames, or extinguishing agent enters any compartment occupied by the crew or passengers. Each Class B compartment must comply with the following: (1) It must have a separate approved smoke or fire detector system to give warning at the pilot or flight engineer station. (2) There must be a hand fire extinguisher available for the compartment. (3) It must be lined with fire-resistant material, except that additional service lining of flame-resistant material may be used. (d) Class C. Cargo and baggage compartments are classified in the “C” category if they do not conform with the requirements for the “A”, “B”, “D”, or “E” categories. Each Class C compartment must comply with the following: (1) It must have a separate approved smoke or fire detector system to give warning at the pilot or flight engineer station. (2) It must have an approved built-in fire-extinguishing system controlled from the pilot or flight engineer station. (3) It must be designed to exclude hazardous quantities of smoke, flames, or extinguishing agents from entering into any compartment occupied by the crew or passengers. (4) It must have ventilation and draft controlled so that the extinguishing agent provided can control any fire that may start in the compartment. (5) It must be lined with fire-resistant material, except that additional service lining of flame-resistant material may be used. (e) Class D. Cargo and baggage compartments are classified in the “D” category if they are so designed and constructed that a fire occurring therein will be completely confined without endangering the safety of the airplane or the occupants. Each Class D compartment must comply with the following: (1) It must have a means to exclude hazardous quantities of smoke, flames, or noxious gases from entering any compartment occupied by the crew or passengers. (2) Ventilation and drafts must be controlled within each compartment so that any fire likely to occur in the compartment will not progress beyond safe limits. (3) It must be completely lined with fire-resistant material. (4) Consideration must be given to the effect of heat within the compartment on adjacent critical parts of the airplane. (f) Class E. On airplanes used for the carriage of cargo only, the cabin area may be classified as a Class “E” compartment. Each Class E compartment must comply with the following: (1) It must be completely lined with fire-resistant material.

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(2) It must have a separate system of an approved type smoke or fire detector to give warning at the pilot or flight engineer station. (3) It must have a means to shut off the ventilating air flow to or within the compartment and the controls for that means must be accessible to the flight crew in the crew compartment. (4) It must have a means to exclude hazardous quantities of smoke, flames, or noxious gases from entering the flight crew compartment. (5) Required crew emergency exits must be accessible under all cargo loading conditions. § 121.223 Proof of compliance with § 121.221. Compliance with those provisions of § 121.221 that refer to compartment accessibility, the entry of hazardous quantities of smoke or extinguishing agent into compartments occupied by the crew or passengers, and the dissipation of the extinguishing agent in Class “C” compartments must be shown by tests in flight. During these tests it must be shown that no inadvertent operation of smoke or fire detectors in other compartments within the airplane would occur as a result of fire contained in any one compartment, either during the time it is being extinguished, or thereafter, unless the extinguishing system floods those compartments simultaneously. § 121.225 Propeller deicing fluid. If combustible fluid is used for propeller deicing, the certificate holder must comply with § 121.255. § 121.227 Pressure cross-feed arrangements. (a) Pressure cross-feed lines may not pass through parts of the airplane used for carrying persons or cargo unless— (1) There is a means to allow crewmembers to shut off the supply of fuel to these lines; or (2) The lines are enclosed in a fuel and fume-proof enclosure that is ventilated and drained to the exterior of the airplane. However, such an enclosure need not be used if those lines incorporate no fittings on or within the personnel or cargo areas and are suitably routed or protected to prevent accidental damage. (b) Lines that can be isolated from the rest of the fuel system by valves at each end must incorporate provisions for relieving excessive pressures that may result from exposure of the isolated line to high temperatures. § 121.229 Location of fuel tanks. (a) Fuel tanks must be located in accordance with § 121.255. (b) No part of the engine nacelle skin that lies immediately behind a major air outlet from the engine compartment may be used as the wall of an integral tank. (c) Fuel tanks must be isolated from personnel compartments by means of fume- and fuel-proof enclosures. § 121.231 Fuel system lines and fittings. (a) Fuel lines must be installed and supported so as to prevent excessive vibration and so as to be adequate to withstand loads due to fuel pressure and accelerated flight conditions. (b) Lines connected to components of the airplanes between which there may be relative motion must incorporate provisions for flexibility. (c) Flexible connections in lines that may be under pressure and subject to axial loading must use flexible hose assemblies rather than hose clamp connections. (d) Flexible hose must be of an acceptable type or proven suitable for the particular application. § 121.233 Fuel lines and fittings in designated fire zones. Fuel lines and fittings in each designated fire zone must comply with § 121.259. § 121.235 Fuel valves. Each fuel valve must— (a) Comply with § 121.257; (b) Have positive stops or suitable index provisions in the “on” and “off” positions; and (c) Be supported so that loads resulting from its operation or from accelerated flight conditions are not transmitted to the lines connected to the valve.

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§ 121.237 Oil lines and fittings in designated fire zones. Oil line and fittings in each designated fire zone must comply with § 121.259. § 121.239 Oil valves. (a) Each oil valve must— (1) Comply with § 121.257; (2) Have positive stops or suitable index provisions in the “on” and “off” positions; and (3) Be supported so that loads resulting from its operation or from accelerated flight conditions are not transmitted to the lines attached to the valve. (b) The closing of an oil shutoff means must not prevent feathering the propeller, unless equivalent safety provisions are incorporated. § 121.241 Oil system drains. Accessible drains incorporating either a manual or automatic means for positive locking in the closed position, must be provided to allow safe drainage of the entire oil system. § 121.243 Engine breather lines. (a) Engine breather lines must be so arranged that condensed water vapor that may freeze and obstruct the line cannot accumulate at any point. (b) Engine breathers must discharge in a location that does not constitute a fire hazard in case foaming occurs and so that oil emitted from the line does not impinge upon the pilots' windshield. (c) Engine breathers may not discharge into the engine air induction system. § 121.245 Fire walls. Each engine, auxiliary power unit, fuel-burning heater, or other item of combustion equipment that is intended for operation in flight must be isolated from the rest of the airplane by means of firewalls or shrouds, or by other equivalent means. § 121.247 Fire-wall construction. Each fire wall and shroud must— (a) Be so made that no hazardous quantity of air, fluids, or flame can pass from the engine compartment to other parts of the airplane; (b) Have all openings in the fire wall or shroud sealed with close-fitting fire-proof grommets, bushings, or firewall fittings; (c) Be made of fireproof material; and (d) Be protected against corrosion. § 121.249 Cowling. (a) Cowling must be made and supported so as to resist the vibration inertia, and air loads to which it may be normally subjected. (b) Provisions must be made to allow rapid and complete drainage of the cowling in normal ground and flight attitudes. Drains must not discharge in locations constituting a fire hazard. Parts of the cowling that are subjected to high temperatures because they are near exhaust system parts or because of exhaust gas impingement must be made of fireproof material. Unless otherwise specified in these regulations all other parts of the cowling must be made of material that is at least fire resistant. § 121.251 Engine accessory section diaphragm. Unless equivalent protection can be shown by other means, a diaphragm that complies with § 121.247 must be provided on air-cooled engines to isolate the engine power section and all parts of the exhaust system from the engine accessory compartment. § 121.253 Powerplant fire protection. (a) Designated fire zones must be protected from fire by compliance with §§ 121.255 through 121.261. (b) Designated fire zones are— (1) Engine accessory sections; (2) Installations where no isolation is provided between the engine and accessory compartment; and (3) Areas that contain auxiliary power units, fuel-burning heaters, and other combustion equipment. § 121.255 Flammable fluids. (a) No tanks or reservoirs that are a part of a system containing flammable fluids or gases may be located in designated fire zones, except where the fluid contained, the design of the system, the materials used in the tank, the shutoff means, and the connections, lines, and controls provide equivalent safety.

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(b) At least one-half inch of clear airspace must be provided between any tank or reservoir and a firewall or shroud isolating a designated fire zone. § 121.257 Shutoff means. (a) Each engine must have a means for shutting off or otherwise preventing hazardous amounts of fuel, oil, deicer, and other flammable fluids from flowing into, within, or through any designated fire zone. However, means need not be provided to shut off flow in lines that are an integral part of an engine. (b) The shutoff means must allow an emergency operating sequence that is compatible with the emergency operation of other equipment, such as feathering the propeller, to facilitate rapid and effective control of fires. (c) Shutoff means must be located outside of designated fire zones, unless equivalent safety is provided, and it must be shown that no hazardous amount of flammable fluid will drain into any designated fire zone after a shut off. (d) Adequate provisions must be made to guard against inadvertent operation of the shutoff means and to make it possible for the crew to reopen the shutoff means after it has been closed. § 121.259 Lines and fittings. (a) Each line, and its fittings, that is located in a designated fire zone, if it carries flammable fluids or gases under pressure, or is attached directly to the engine, or is subject to relative motion between components (except lines and fittings forming an integral part of the engine), must be flexible and fire-resistant with fire-resistant, factory-fixed, detachable, or other approved fire-resistant ends. (b) Lines and fittings that are not subject to pressure or to relative motion between components must be of fire-resistant materials. § 121.261 Vent and drain lines. All vent and drain lines and their fittings, that are located in a designated fire zone must, if they carry flammable fluids or gases, comply with § 121.259, if the Administrator finds that the rupture or breakage of any vent or drain line may result in a fire hazard. § 121.263 Fire-extinguishing systems. (a) Unless the certificate holder shows that equivalent protection against destruction of the airplane in case of fire is provided by the use of fireproof materials in the nacelle and other components that would be subjected to flame, fire-extinguishing systems must be provided to serve all designated fire zones. (b) Materials in the fire-extinguishing system must not react chemically with the extinguishing agent so as to be a hazard. § 121.265 Fire-extinguishing agents. Only methyl bromide, carbon dioxide, or another agent that has been shown to provide equivalent extinguishing action may be used as a fire-extinguishing agent. If methyl bromide or any other toxic extinguishing agent is used, provisions must be made to prevent harmful concentrations of fluid or fluid vapors from entering any personnel compartment either because of leakage during normal operation of the airplane or because of discharging the fire extinguisher on the ground or in flight when there is a defect in the extinguishing system. If a methyl bromide system is used, the containers must be charged with dry agent and sealed by the fire-extinguisher manufacturer or some other person using satisfactory recharging equipment. If carbon dioxide is used, it must not be possible to discharge enough gas into the personnel compartments to create a danger of suffocating the occupants. § 121.267 Extinguishing agent container pressure relief. Extinguishing agent containers must be provided with a pressure relief to prevent bursting of the container because of excessive internal pressures. The discharge line from the relief connection must terminate outside the airplane in a place convenient for inspection on the ground. An indicator must be provided at the discharge end of the line to provide a visual indication when the container has discharged.

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§ 121.269 Extinguishing agent container compartment temperature. Precautions must be taken to insure that the extinguishing agent containers are installed in places where reasonable temperatures can be maintained for effective use of the extinguishing system. § 121.271 Fire-extinguishing system materials. (a) Except as provided in paragraph (b) of this section, each component of a fire-extinguishing system that is in a designated fire zone must be made of fireproof materials. (b) Connections that are subject to relative motion between components of the airplane must be made of flexible materials that are at least fire-resistant and be located so as to minimize the probability of failure. § 121.273 Fire-detector systems. Enough quick-acting fire detectors must be provided in each designated fire zone to assure the detection of any fire that may occur in that zone. § 121.275 Fire detectors. Fire detectors must be made and installed in a manner that assures their ability to resist, without failure, all vibration, inertia, and other loads to which they may be normally subjected. Fire detectors must be unaffected by exposure to fumes, oil, water, or other fluids that may be present. § 121.277 Protection of other airplane components against fire. (a) Except as provided in paragraph (b) of this section, all airplane surfaces aft of the nacelles in the area of one nacelle diameter on both sides of the nacelle centerline must be made of material that is at least fire resistant. (b) Paragraph (a) of this section does not apply to tail surfaces lying behind nacelles unless the dimensional configuration of the airplane is such that the tail surfaces could be affected readily by heat, flames, or sparks emanating from a designated fire zone or from the engine compartment of any nacelle. § 121.279 Control of engine rotation. (a) Except as provided in paragraph (b) of this section, each airplane must have a means of individually stopping and restarting the rotation of any engine in flight. (b) In the case of turbine engine installations, a means of stopping the rotation need be provided only if the Administrator finds that rotation could jeopardize the safety of the airplane. § 121.281 Fuel system independence. (a) Each airplane fuel system must be arranged so that the failure of any one component does not result in the irrecoverable loss of power of more than one engine. (b) A separate fuel tank need not be provided for each engine if the certificate holder shows that the fuel system incorporates features that provide equivalent safety. § 121.283 Induction system ice prevention. A means for preventing the malfunctioning of each engine due to ice accumulation in the engine air induction system must be provided for each airplane. § 121.285 Carriage of cargo in passenger compartments. (a) Except as provided in paragraph (b), (c), or (d) or this section, no certificate holder may carry cargo in the passenger compartment of an airplane. (b) Cargo may be carried anywhere in the passenger compartment if it is carried in an approved cargo bin that meets the following requirements: (1) The bin must withstand the load factors and emergency landing conditions applicable to the passenger seats of the airplane in which the bin is installed, multiplied by a factor of 1.15, using the combined weight of the bin and the maximum weight of cargo that may be carried in the bin. (2) The maximum weight of cargo that the bin is approved to carry and any instructions necessary to insure proper weight distribution within the bin must be conspicuously marked on the bin.

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(3) The bin may not impose any load on the floor or other structure of the airplane that exceeds the load limitations of that structure. (4) The bin must be attached to the seat tracks or to the floor structure of the airplane, and its attachment must withstand the load factors and emergency landing conditions applicable to the passenger seats of the airplane in which the bin is installed, multiplied by either the factor 1.15 or the seat attachment factor specified for the airplane, whichever is greater, using the combined weight of the bin and the maximum weight of cargo that may be carried in the bin. (5) The bin may not be installed in a position that restricts access to or use of any required emergency exit, or of the aisle in the passenger compartment. (6) The bin must be fully enclosed and made of material that is at least flame resistant. (7) Suitable safeguards must be provided within the bin to prevent the cargo from shifting under emergency landing conditions. (8) The bin may not be installed in a position that obscures any passenger's view of the “seat belt” sign “no smoking” sign, or any required exit sign, unless an auxiliary sign or other approved means for proper notification of the passenger is provided. (c) Cargo may be carried aft of a bulkhead or divider in any passenger compartment provided the cargo is restrained to the load factors in § 25.561(b)(3) and is loaded as follows: (1) It is properly secured by a safety belt or other tiedown having enough strength to eliminate the possibility of shifting under all normally anticipated flight and ground conditions. (2) It is packaged or covered in a manner to avoid possible injury to passengers and passenger compartment occupants. (3) It does not impose any load on seats or the floor structure that exceeds the load limitation for those components. (4) Its location does not restrict access to or use of any required emergency or regular exit, or of the aisle in the passenger compartment. (5) Its location does not obscure any passenger's view of the “seat belt” sign, “no smoking” sign, or required exit sign, unless an auxiliary sign or other approved means for proper notification of the passenger is provided. (d) Cargo, including carry-on baggage, may be carried anywhere in the passenger compartment of a nontransport category airplane type certificated after December 31, 1964, if it is carried in an approved cargo rack, bin, or compartment installed in or on the airplane, if it is secured by an approved means, or if it is carried in accordance with each of the following: (1) For cargo, it is properly secured by a safety belt or other tie-down having enough strength to eliminate the possibility of shifting under all normally anticipated flight and ground conditions, or for carry-on baggage, it is restrained so as to prevent its movement during air turbulence. (2) It is packaged or covered to avoid possible injury to occupants. (3) It does not impose any load on seats or in the floor structure that exceeds the load limitation for those components. (4) It is not located in a position that obstructs the access to, or use of, any required emergency or regular exit, or the use of the aisle between the crew and the passenger compartment, or is located in a position that obscures any passenger's view of the “seat belt” sign, “no smoking” sign or placard, or any required exit sign, unless an auxiliary sign or other approved means for proper notification of the passengers is provided. (5) It is not carried directly above seated occupants. (6) It is stowed in compliance with this section for takeoff and landing. (7) For cargo-only operations, paragraph (d)(4) of this section does not apply if the cargo is loaded so that at least one emergency or regular exit is available to provide all occupants of the airplane a means of unobstructed exit from the airplane if an emergency occurs. [Docket 6258, 29 FR 19202, Dec. 31, 1964, as amended by Amdt. 121-179, 47 FR 33390, Aug. 2, 1982; Amdt. 121-251, 60 FR 65928, Dec. 20, 1995]

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§ 121.287 Carriage of cargo in cargo compartments. When cargo is carried in cargo compartments that are designed to require the physical entry of a crewmember to extinguish any fire that may occur during flight, the cargo must be loaded so as to allow a crewmember to effectively reach all parts of the compartment with the contents of a hand fire extinguisher. § 121.289 Landing gear: Aural warning device. (a) Except for airplanes that comply with the requirements of § 25.729 of this chapter on or after January 6, 1992, each airplane must have a landing gear aural warning device that functions continuously under the following conditions: (1) For airplanes with an established approach wing-flap position, whenever the wing flaps are extended beyond the maximum certificated approach climb configuration position in the Airplane Flight Manual and the landing gear is not fully extended and locked. (2) For airplanes without an established approach climb wing-flap position, whenever the wing flaps are extended beyond the position at which landing gear extension is normally performed and the landing gear is not fully extended and locked. (b) The warning system required by paragraph (a) of this section— (1) May not have a manual shutoff; (2) Must be in addition to the throttle-actuated device installed under the type certification airworthiness requirements; and (3) May utilize any part of the throttle-actuated system including the aural warning device. (c) The flap position sensing unit may be installed at any suitable place in the airplane. [Docket 6258, 29 FR 19202, Dec. 31, 1964, as amended by Amdt. 121-3, 30 FR 3638, Mar. 19, 1965; Amdt. 121-130, 41 FR 47229, Oct. 28, 1976; Amdt. 121-227, 56 FR 63762, Dec. 5, 1991; Amdt. 121-251, 60 FR 65929, Dec. 20, 1995] § 121.291 Demonstration of emergency evacuation procedures. (a) Except as provided in paragraph (a)(1) of this section, each certificate holder must conduct an actual demonstration of emergency evacuation procedures in accordance with paragraph (a) of appendix D to this part to show that each type and model of airplane with a seating capacity of more than 44 passengers to be used in its passenger-carrying operations allows the evacuation of the full capacity, including crewmembers, in 90 seconds or less. (1) An actual demonstration need not be conducted if that airplane type and model has been shown to be in compliance with this paragraph in effect on or after October 24, 1967, or, if during type certification, with § 25.803 of this chapter in effect on or after December 1, 1978. (2) Any actual demonstration conducted after September 27, 1993, must be in accordance with paragraph (a) of appendix D to this part in effect on or after that date or with § 25.803 in effect on or after that date. (b) Each certificate holder conducting operations with airplanes with a seating capacity of more than 44 passengers must conduct a partial demonstration of emergency evacuation procedures in accordance with paragraph (c) of this section upon: (1) Initial introduction of a type and model of airplane into passenger-carrying operation; (2) Changing the number, location, or emergency evacuation duties or procedures of flight attendants who are required by § 121.391; or (3) Changing the number, location, type of emergency exits, or type of opening mechanism on emergency exits available for evacuation. (c) In conducting the partial demonstration required by paragraph (b) of this section, each certificate holder must: (1) Demonstrate the effectiveness of its crewmember emergency training and evacuation procedures by conducting a demonstration, not requiring passengers and observed by the Administrator, in which the flight attendants for that type and model of airplane, using that operator's line operating procedures, open 50 percent of the required floor-level emergency exits and 50 percent of the required non-floor-level emergency exits whose opening by a flight attendant is defined as an emergency evacuation duty under § 121.397, and deploy 50 percent of the exit slides. The exits and slides will be selected by the administrator and must be ready for use within 15 seconds;

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(2) Apply for and obtain approval from the responsible Flight Standards office before conducting the demonstration; (3) Use flight attendants in this demonstration who have been selected at random by the Administrator, have completed the certificate holder's FAA-approved training program for the type and model of airplane, and have passed a written or practical examination on the emergency equipment and procedures; and (4) Apply for and obtain approval from the responsible Flight Standards office before commencing operations with this type and model airplane. (d) Each certificate holder operating or proposing to operate one or more landplanes in extended overwater operations, or otherwise required to have certain equipment under § 121.339, must show, by simulated ditching conducted in accordance with paragraph (b) of appendix D to this part, that it has the ability to efficiently carry out its ditching procedures. For certificate holders subject to § 121.2(a)(1), this paragraph applies only when a new type or model airplane is introduced into the certificate holder's operations after January 19, 1996. (e) For a type and model airplane for which the simulated ditching specified in paragraph (d) has been conducted by a part 121 certificate holder, the requirements of paragraphs (b)(2), (b)(4), and (b)(5) of appendix D to this part are complied with if each life raft is removed from stowage, one life raft is launched and inflated (or one slide life raft is inflated) and crewmembers assigned to the inflated life raft display and describe the use of each item of required emergency equipment. The life raft or slide life raft to be inflated will be selected by the Administrator. [Docket 21269, 46 FR 61453, Dec. 17, 1981, as amended by Amdt. 121-233, 58 FR 45230, Aug. 26, 1993; Amdt. 121-251, 60 FR 65929, Dec. 20, 1995; Amdt. 121-307, 69 FR 67499, Nov. 17, 2004; Docket FAA-2018-0119, Amdt. 121-380, 83 FR 9172, Mar. 5, 2018] § 121.293 Special airworthiness requirements for nontransport category airplanes type certificated after December 31, 1964. No certificate holder may operate a nontransport category airplane manufactured after December 20, 1999 unless the airplane contains a takeoff warning system that meets the requirements of 14 CFR 25.703. However, the takeoff warning system does not have to cover any device for which it has been demonstrated that takeoff with that device in the most adverse position would not create a hazardous condition. [Docket 28154, 60 FR 65929, Dec. 20, 1995] § 121.295 Location for a suspect device. After November 28, 2009, all airplanes with a maximum certificated passenger seating capacity of more than 60 persons must have a location where a suspected explosive or incendiary device found in flight can be placed to minimize the risk to the airplane. [Docket FAA-2006-26722, 73 FR 63880, Oct. 28, 2008] Subpart K—Instrument and Equipment Requirements Source: Docket 6258, 29 FR 19205, Dec. 31, 1964, unless otherwise noted. § 121.301 Applicability. This subpart prescribes instrument and equipment requirements for all certificate holders. § 121.303 Airplane instruments and equipment. (a) Unless otherwise specified, the instrument and equipment requirements of this subpart apply to all operations under this part. (b) Instruments and equipment required by §§ 121.305 through 121.359 and 121.803 must be approved and installed in accordance with the airworthiness requirements applicable to them. (c) Each airspeed indicator must be calibrated in knots, and each airspeed limitation and item of related information in the Airplane Flight Manual and pertinent placards must be expressed in knots. (d) Except as provided in §§ 121.627(b) and 121.628, no person may take off any airplane unless the following instruments and equipment are in operable condition:

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(1) Instruments and equipment required to comply with airworthiness requirements under which the airplane is type certificated and as required by §§ 121.213 through 121.283 and 121.289. (2) Instruments and equipment specified in §§ 121.305 through 121.321, 121.359, 121.360, and 121.803 for all operations, and the instruments and equipment specified in §§ 121.323 through 121.351 for the kind of operation indicated, wherever these items are not already required by paragraph (d)(1) of this section. [Docket 6258, 29 FR 19202, Dec. 31, 1964, as amended by Amdt. 121-44, 33 FR 14406, Sept. 25, 1968; Amdt. 121-65, 35 FR 12709, Aug. 11, 1970; Amdt. 121-114, 39 FR 44440, Dec. 24, 1974; Amdt. 121-126, 40 FR 55314, Nov. 28, 1975; Amdt. 121-222, 56 FR 12310, Mar. 22, 1991; Amdt. 121-253, 61 FR 2611, Jan. 26, 1996; Amdt. 121-281, 66 FR 19043, Apr. 12, 2001] § 121.305 Flight and navigational equipment. No person may operate an airplane unless it is equipped with the following flight and navigational instruments and equipment: (a) An airspeed indicating system with heated pitot tube or equivalent means for preventing malfunctioning due to icing. (b) A sensitive altimeter. (c) A sweep-second hand clock (or approved equivalent). (d) A free-air temperature indicator. (e) A gyroscopic bank and pitch indicator (artificial horizon). (f) A gyroscopic rate-of-turn indicator combined with an integral slip-skid indicator (turn-and-bank indicator) except that only a slip-skid indicator is required when a third attitude instrument system usable through flight attitudes of 360° of pitch and roll is installed in accordance with paragraph (k) of this section. (g) A gyroscopic direction indicator (directional gyro or equivalent). (h) A magnetic compass. (i) A vertical speed indicator (rate-of-climb indicator). (j) On the airplane described in this paragraph, in addition to two gyroscopic bank and pitch indicators (artificial horizons) for use at the pilot stations, a third such instrument is installed in accordance with paragraph (k) of this section: (1) On each turbojet powered airplane. (2) On each turbopropeller powered airplane having a passenger-seat configuration of more than 30 seats, excluding each crewmember seat, or a payload capacity of more than 7,500 pounds. (3) On each turbopropeller powered airplane having a passenger-seat configuration of 30 seats or fewer, excluding each crewmember seat, and a payload capacity of 7,500 pounds or less that is manufactured on or after March 20, 1997. (4) After December 20, 2010, on each turbopropeller powered airplane having a passenger seat configuration of 10-30 seats and a payload capacity of 7,500 pounds or less that was manufactured before March 20, 1997. (k) When required by paragraph (j) of this section, a third gyroscopic bank-and-pitch indicator (artificial horizon) that: (1) Is powered from a source independent of the electrical generating system; (2) Continues reliable operation for a minimum of 30 minutes after total failure of the electrical generating system; (3) Operates independently of any other attitude indicating system; (4) Is operative without selection after total failure of the electrical generating system; (5) Is located on the instrument panel in a position acceptable to the Administrator that will make it plainly visible to and usable by each pilot at his or her station; and (6) Is appropriately lighted during all phases of operation. [Docket 6258, 29 FR 19205, Dec. 31, 1964, as amended by Amdt. 121-57, 35 FR 304, Jan. 8, 1970; Amdt. 121-60, 35 FR 7108, May 6, 1970; Amdt. 121-81, 36 FR 23050, Dec. 3, 1971; Amdt. 121-130, 41 FR 47229, Oct. 28, 1976; Amdt. 121-230, 58 FR 12158, Mar. 3, 1993; Amdt. 121-251, 60 FR 65929, Dec. 20, 1995; Amdt. 121-262, 62 FR 13256, Mar. 19, 1997] § 121.306 Portable electronic devices. (a) Except as provided in paragraph (b) of this section, no person may operate, nor may any operator or pilot in command of an aircraft allow the operation of, any portable electronic device on any U.S.-registered civil aircraft operating under this part.

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(b) Paragraph (a) of this section does not apply to— (1) Portable voice recorders; (2) Hearing aids; (3) Heart pacemakers; (4) Electric shavers; (5) Portable oxygen concentrators that comply with the requirements in § 121.574; or (6) Any other portable electronic device that the part 119 certificate holder has determined will not cause interference with the navigation or communication system of the aircraft on which it is to be used. (c) The determination required by paragraph (b)(6) of this section shall be made by that part 119 certificate holder operating the particular device to be used. [Docket FAA-1998-4954, 64 FR 1080, Jan. 7, 1999, as amended by Docket FAA-2014-0554, Amdt. 121-374, 81 FR 33118, May 24, 2016] § 121.307 Engine instruments. Unless the Administrator allows or requires different instrumentation for turbine engine powered airplanes to provide equivalent safety, no person may conduct any operation under this part without the following engine instruments: (a) A carburetor air temperature indicator for each engine. (b) A cylinder head temperature indicator for each air-cooled engine. (c) A fuel pressure indicator for each engine. (d) A fuel flowmeter or fuel mixture indicator for each engine not equipped with an automatic altitude mixture control. (e) A means for indicating fuel quantity in each fuel tank to be used. (f) A manifold pressure indicator for each engine. (g) An oil pressure indicator for each engine. (h) An oil quantity indicator for each oil tank when a transfer or separate oil reserve supply is used. (i) An oil-in temperature indicator for each engine. (j) A tachometer for each engine. (k) An independent fuel pressure warning device for each engine or a master warning device for all engines with a means for isolating the individual warning circuits from the master warning device. (l) A device for each reversible propeller, to indicate to the pilot when the propeller is in reverse pitch, that complies with the following: (1) The device may be actuated at any point in the reversing cycle between the normal low pitch stop position and full reverse pitch, but it may not give an indication at or above the normal low pitch stop position. (2) The source of indication must be actuated by the propeller blade angle or be directly responsive to it. § 121.308 Lavatory fire protection. (a) Except as provided in paragraphs (c) and (d) of this section, no person may operate a passenger-carrying airplane unless each lavatory in the airplane is equipped with a smoke detector system or equivalent that provides a warning light in the cockpit or provides a warning light or audio warning in the passenger cabin which would be readily detected by a flight attendant, taking into consideration the positioning of flight attendants throughout the passenger compartment during various phases of flight. (b) Except as provided in paragraph (c) of this section, no person may operate a passenger-carrying airplane unless each lavatory in the airplane is equipped with a built-in fire extinguisher for each disposal receptacle for towels, paper, or waste located within the lavatory. The built-in fire extinguisher must be designed to discharge automatically into each disposal receptacle upon occurrence of a fire in the receptacle. (c) Until December 22, 1997, a certificate holder described in § 121.2(a) (1) or (2) may operate an airplane with a passenger seat configuration of 30 or fewer seats that does not comply with the smoke detector system requirements described in paragraph (a) of this section and the fire extinguisher requirements described in paragraph (b) of this section. (d) After December 22, 1997, no person may operate a nontransport category airplane type certificated after December 31, 1964, with a passenger seat configuration of 10-19 seats unless that airplane complies with the smoke detector system requirements described in paragraph (a) of this section, except that the smoke detector system or equivalent must provide a warning light in the cockpit or an audio warning that would be readily detected by the flightcrew.

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[Docket 28154, 60 FR 65929, Dec. 20, 1995] § 121.309 Emergency equipment. (a) General: No person may operate an airplane unless it is equipped with the emergency equipment listed in this section and in § 121.310. (b) Each item of emergency and flotation equipment listed in this section and in §§ 121.310, 121.339, and 121.340— (1) Must be inspected regularly in accordance with inspection periods established in the operations specifications to ensure its condition for continued serviceability and immediate readiness to perform its intended emergency purposes; (2) Must be readily accessible to the crew and, with regard to equipment located in the passenger compartment, to passengers; (3) Must be clearly identified and clearly marked to indicate its method of operation; and (4) When carried in a compartment or container, must be carried in a compartment or container marked as to contents and the compartment or container, or the item itself, must be marked as to date of last inspection. (c) Hand fire extinguishers for crew, passenger, cargo, and galley compartments. Hand fire extinguishers of an approved type must be provided for use in crew, passenger, cargo, and galley compartments in accordance with the following: (1) The type and quantity of extinguishing agent must be suitable for the kinds of fires likely to occur in the compartment where the extinguisher is intended to be used and, for passenger compartments, must be designed to minimize the hazard of toxic gas concentrations. (2) Cargo compartments. At least one hand fire extinguisher must be conveniently located for use in each class E cargo compartment that is accessible to crewmembers during flight. (3) Galley compartments. At least one hand fire extinguisher must be conveniently located for use in each galley located in a compartment other than a passenger, cargo, or crew compartment. (4) Flightcrew compartment. At least one hand fire extinguisher must be conveniently located on the flight deck for use by the flightcrew. (5) Passenger compartments. Hand fire extinguishers for use in passenger compartments must be conveniently located and, when two or more are required, uniformly distributed throughout each compartment. Hand fire extinguishers shall be provided in passenger compartments as follows: (i) For airplanes having passenger seats accommodating more than 6 but fewer than 31 passengers, at least one. (ii) For airplanes having passenger seats accommodating more than 30 but fewer than 61 passengers, at least two. (iii) For airplanes having passenger seats accommodating more than 60 passengers, there must be at least the following number of hand fire extinguishers: Minimum Number of Hand Fire Extinguishers

Passenger seating accommodations:
61 through 200	3
201 through 300	4
301 through 400	5
401 through 500	6
501 through 600	7
601 or more	8

(6) Notwithstanding the requirement for uniform distribution of hand fire extinguishers as prescribed in paragraph (c)(5) of this section, for those cases where a galley is located in a passenger compartment, at least one hand fire extinguisher must be conveniently located and easily accessible for use in the galley. (7) At least two of the required hand fire extinguisher installed in passenger-carrying airplanes must contain Halon 1211 (bromochlorofluoromethane) or equivalent as the extinguishing agent. At least one hand fire extinguisher in the passenger compartment must contain Halon 1211 or equivalent. (d) [Reserved]

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(e) Crash ax. Except for nontransport category airplanes type certificated after December 31, 1964, each airplane must be equipped with a crash ax. (f) Megaphones. Each passenger-carrying airplane must have a portable battery-powered megaphone or megaphones readily accessible to the crewmembers assigned to direct emergency evacuation, installed as follows: (1) One megaphone on each airplane with a seating capacity of more than 60 and less than 100 passengers, at the most rearward location in the passenger cabin where it would be readily accessible to a normal flight attendant seat. However, the Administrator may grant a deviation from the requirements of this subparagraph if he finds that a different location would be more useful for evacuation of persons during an emergency. (2) Two megaphones in the passenger cabin on each airplane with a seating capacity of more than 99 passengers, one installed at the forward end and the other at the most rearward location where it would be readily accessible to a normal flight attendant seat. [Docket 6258, 29 FR 19205, Dec. 31, 1964] Editorial Note: For Federal Register citations affecting § 121.309, see the List of CFR Sections Affected, which appears in the Finding Aids section of the printed volume and at www.govinfo.gov.

§ 121.310 Additional emergency equipment. (a) Means for emergency evacuation. Each passenger-carrying landplane emergency exit (other than over-the-wing) that is more than 6 feet from the ground with the airplane on the ground and the landing gear extended, must have an approved means to assist the occupants in descending to the ground. The assisting means for a floor-level emergency exit must meet the requirements of § 25.809(f)(1) of this chapter in effect on April 30, 1972, except that, for any airplane for which the application for the type certificate was filed after that date, it must meet the requirements under which the airplane was type certificated. An assisting means that deploys automatically must be armed during taxiing, takeoffs, and landings. However, if the Administrator finds that the design of the exit makes compliance impractical, he may grant a deviation from the requirement of automatic deployment if the assisting means automatically erects upon deployment and, with respect to required emergency exits, if an emergency evacuation demonstration is conducted in accordance with § 121.291(a). This paragraph does not apply to the rear window emergency exit of DC-3 airplanes operated with less than 36 occupants, including crewmembers and less than five exits authorized for passenger use. (b) Interior emergency exit marking. The following must be complied with for each passenger-carrying airplane: (1) Each passenger emergency exit, its means of access, and its means of opening must be conspicuously marked. The identity and location of each passenger emergency exit must be recognizable from a distance equal to the width of the cabin. The location of each passenger emergency exit must be indicated by a sign visible to occupants approaching along the main passenger aisle. There must be a locating sign— (i) Above the aisle near each over-the-wing passenger emergency exit, or at another ceiling location if it is more practical because of low headroom; (ii) Next to each floor level passenger emergency exit, except that one sign may serve two such exits if they both can be seen readily from that sign; and (iii) On each bulkhead or divider that prevents fore and aft vision along the passenger cabin, to indicate emergency exits beyond and obscured by it, except that if this is not possible the sign may be placed at another appropriate location. (2) Each passenger emergency exit marking and each locating sign must meet the following: (i) Except as provided in paragraph (b)(2)(iii) of this section, for an airplane for which the application for the type certificate was filed prior to May 1, 1972, each passenger emergency exit marking and each locating sign must be manufactured to meet the requirements of § 25.812(b) of this chapter in effect on April 30, 1972. On these airplanes, no sign may continue to be used if its luminescence (brightness) decreases to below 100 microlamberts. The colors may be reversed if it increases the emergency illumination of the passenger compartment. However, the Administrator may authorize deviation from the 2-inch background requirements if he finds that special circumstances exist that make compliance impractical and that the proposed deviation provides an equivalent level of safety.

(ii) For a transport category airplane for which the application for the type certificate was filed on or after May 1, 1972, each passenger emergency exit marking and each locating sign must be manufactured to meet the interior emergency exit marking requirements under which the airplane was type certificated. On these airplanes, no sign may continue to be used if its luminescence (brightness) decreases to below 250 microlamberts. (iii) For a nontransport category turbopropellerpowered airplane type certificated after December 31, 1964, each passenger emergency exit marking and each locating sign must be manufactured to have white letters 1 inch high on a red background 2 inches high, be self-illuminated or independently, internally electrically illuminated, and have a minimum brightness of at least 160 microlamberts. The color may be reversed if the passenger compartment illumination is essentially the same. On these airplanes, no sign may continue to be used if its luminescence (brightness) decreases to below 100 microlamberts. (c) Lighting for interior emergency exit markings. Except for nontransport category airplanes type certificated after December 31, 1964, each passenger-carrying airplane must have an emergency lighting system, independent of the main lighting system. However, sources of general cabin illumination may be common to both the emergency and the main lighting systems if the power supply to the emergency lighting system is independent of the power supply to the main lighting system. The emergency lighting system must— (1) Illuminate each passenger exit marking and locating sign; (2) Provide enough general lighting in the passenger cabin so that the average illumination when measured at 40-inch intervals at seat armrest height, on the centerline of the main passenger aisle, is at least 0.05 foot-candles; and (3) For airplanes type certificated after January 1, 1958, after November 26, 1986, include floor proximity emergency escape path marking which meets the requirements of § 25.812(e) of this chapter in effect on November 26, 1984. (d) Emergency light operation. Except for lights forming part of emergency lighting subsystems provided in compliance with § 25.812(h) of this chapter (as prescribed in paragraph (h) of this section) that serve no more than one assist means, are independent of the airplane's main emergency lighting systems, and are automatically activated when the assist means is deployed, each light required by paragraphs (c) and (h) of this section must comply with the following: (1) Each light must— (i) Be operable manually both from the flightcrew station and, for airplanes on which a flight attendant is required, from a point in the passenger compartment that is readily accessible to a normal flight attendant seat; (ii) Have a means to prevent inadvertent operation of the manual controls; and (iii) When armed or turned on at either station, remain lighted or become lighted upon interruption of the airplane's normal electric power. (2) Each light must be armed or turned on during taxiing, takeoff, and landing. In showing compliance with this paragraph a transverse vertical separation of the fuselage need not be considered. (3) Each light must provide the required level of illumination for at least 10 minutes at the critical ambient conditions after emergency landing. (4) Each light must have a cockpit control device that has an “on,” “off,” and “armed” position. (e) Emergency exit operating handles. (1) For a passenger-carrying airplane for which the application for the type certificate was filed prior to May 1, 1972, the location of each passenger emergency exit operating handle, and instructions for opening the exit, must be shown by a marking on or near the exit that is readable from a distance of 30 inches. In addition, for each Type I and Type II emergency exit with a locking mechanism released by rotary motion of the handle, the instructions for opening must be shown by—

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(i) A red arrow with a shaft at least three-fourths inch wide and a head twice the width of the shaft, extending along at least 70° of arc at a radius approximately equal to three-fourths of the handle length; and (ii) The word “open” in red letters 1 inch high placed horizontally near the head of the arrow. (2) For a passenger-carrying airplane for which the application for the type certificate was filed on or after May 1, 1972, the location of each passenger emergency exit operating handle and instructions for opening the exit must be shown in accordance with the requirements under which the airplane was type certificated. On these airplanes, no operating handle or operating handle cover may continue to be used if its luminescence (brightness) decreases to below 100 microlamberts. (f) Emergency exit access. Access to emergency exits must be provided as follows for each passenger-carrying transport category airplane: (1) Each passage way between individual passenger areas, or leading to a Type I or Type II emergency exit, must be unobstructed and at least 20 inches wide. (2) For each Type I or Type II emergency exit equipped with an assist means, there must be enough space next to the exit to allow a crewmember to assist in the evacuation of passengers without reducing the unobstructed width of the passageway below that required in paragraph (f)(1) of this section. In addition, all airplanes manufactured on or after November 26, 2008 must comply with the provisions of §§ 25.813(b)(1), (b)(2), (b)(3) and (b)(4) in effect on November 26, 2004. However, a deviation from this requirement may be authorized for an airplane certificated under the provisions of part 4b of the Civil Air Regulations in effect before December 20, 1951, if the Administrator finds that special circumstances exist that provide an equivalent level of safety. (3) There must be access from the main aisle to each Type III and Type IV exit. The access from the aisle to these exits must not be obstructed by seats, berths, or other protrusions in a manner that would reduce the effectiveness of the exit. In addition— (i) For an airplane for which the application for the type certificate was filed prior to May 1, 1972, the access must meet the requirements of § 25.813(c) of this chapter in effect on April 30, 1972; and (ii) For an airplane for which the application for the type certificate was filed on or after May 1, 1972, the access must meet the emergency exit access requirements under which the airplane was type certificated; except that, (iii) After December 3, 1992, the access for an airplane type certificated after January 1, 1958, must meet the requirements of § 25.813(c) of this chapter, effective June 3, 1992. (iv) Contrary provisions of this section notwithstanding, the Director of the division of the Aircraft Certification Service responsible for the airworthiness rules may authorize deviation from the requirements of paragraph (f)(3)(iii) of this section if it is determined that special circumstances make compliance impractical. Such special circumstances include, but are not limited to, the following conditions when they preclude achieving compliance with § 25.813(c)(1)(i) or (ii) without a reduction in the total number of passenger seats: emergency exits located in close proximity to each other; fixed installations such as lavatories, galleys, etc.; permanently mounted bulkheads; an insufficient number of rows ahead of or behind the exit to enable compliance without a reduction in the seat row pitch of more than one inch; or an insufficient number of such rows to enable compliance without a reduction in the seat row pitch to less than 30 inches. A request for such grant of deviation must include credible reasons as to why literal compliance with § 25.813(c)(1)(i) or (ii) is impractical and a description of the steps taken to achieve a level of safety as close to that intended by § 25.813(c)(1)(i) or (ii) as is practical. (v) The Director of the division of the Aircraft Certification Service responsible for the airworthiness rules may also authorize a compliance date later than December 3, 1992, if it is determined that special circumstances make compliance by that date impractical. A request for such grant of deviation must outline the airplanes for which compliance will be achieved by December 3, 1992, and include a proposed schedule for incremental compliance of the remaining airplanes in the operator's fleet. In addition, the request must include credible reasons why compliance cannot be achieved earlier.

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(4) If it is necessary to pass through a passageway between passenger compartments to reach any required emergency exit from any seat in the passenger cabin, the passageway must not be obstructed. However, curtains may be used if they allow free entry through the passageway. (5) No door may be installed in any partition between passenger compartments. (6) No person may operate an airplane manufactured after November 27, 2006, that incorporates a door installed between any passenger seat occupiable for takeoff and landing and any passenger emergency exit, such that the door crosses any egress path (including aisles, crossaisles and passageways). (7) If it is necessary to pass through a doorway separating the passenger cabin from other areas to reach required emergency exit from any passenger seat, the door must have a means to latch it in open position, and the door must be latched open during each takeoff and landing. The latching means must be able to withstand the loads imposed upon it when the door is subjected to the ultimate inertia forces, relative to the surrounding structure, listed in § 25.561(b) of this chapter. (g) Exterior exit markings. Each passenger emergency exit and the means of opening that exit from the outside must be marked on the outside of the airplane. There must be a 2-inch colored band outlining each passenger emergency exit on the side of the fuselage. Each outside marking, including the band, must be readily distinguishable from the surrounding fuselage area by contrast in color. The markings must comply with the following: (1) If the reflectance of the darker color is 15 percent or less, the reflectance of the lighter color must be at least 45 percent. (2) If the reflectance of the darker color is greater than 15 percent, at least a 30 percent difference between its reflectance and the reflectance of the lighter color must be provided. (3) Exits that are not in the side of the fuselage must have the external means of opening and applicable instructions marked conspicuously in red or, if red is inconspicuous against the background color, in bright chrome yellow and, when the opening means for such an exit is located on only one side of the fuselage, a conspicuous marking to that effect must be provided on the other side. Reflectance is the ratio of the luminous flux reflected by a body to the luminous flux it receives. (h) Exterior emergency lighting and escape route. (1) Except for nontransport category airplanes certificated after December 31, 1964, each passenger-carrying airplane must be equipped with exterior lighting that meets the following requirements: (i) For an airplane for which the application for the type certificate was filed prior to May 1, 1972, the requirements of § 25.812 (f) and (g) of this chapter in effect on April 30, 1972. (ii) For an airplane for which the application for the type certificate was filed on or after May 1, 1972, the exterior emergency lighting requirements under which the airplane was type certificated. (2) Each passenger-carrying airplane must be equipped with a slip-resistant escape route that meets the following requirements: (i) For an airplane for which the application for the type certificate was filed prior to May 1, 1972, the requirements of § 25.803(e) of this chapter in effect on April 30, 1972. (ii) For an airplane for which the application for the type certificate was filed on or after May 1, 1972, the slip-resistant escape route requirements under which the airplane was type certificated. (i) Floor level exits. Each floor level door or exit in the side of the fuselage (other than those leading into a cargo or baggage compartment that is not accessible from the passenger cabin) that is 44 or more inches high and 20 or more inches wide, but not wider than 46 inches, each passenger ventral exit (except the ventral exits on M-404 and CV-240 airplanes), and each tail cone exit, must meet the requirements of this section for floor level emergency exits. However, the Administrator may grant a deviation from this paragraph if he finds that circumstances make full compliance impractical and that an acceptable level of safety has been achieved.

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(j) Additional emergency exits. Approved emergency exits in the passenger compartments that are in excess of the minimum number of required emergency exits must meet all of the applicable provisions of this section except paragraphs (f)(1), (2), and (3) of this section and must be readily accessible. (k) On each large passenger-carrying turbojet-powered airplane, each ventral exit and tailcone exit must be— (1) Designed and constructed so that it cannot be opened during flight; and (2) Marked with a placard readable from a distance of 30 inches and installed at a conspicuous location near the means of opening the exit, stating that the exit has been designed and constructed so that it cannot be opened during flight. (l) Emergency exit features. (1) Each transport category airplane manufactured after November 26, 2007 must comply with the provisions of § 25.809(i) and (2) After November 26, 2007 each transport category airplane must comply with the provisions of § 25.813(b)(6)(ii) in effect on November 26, 2007. (m) Except for an airplane used in operations under this part on October 16, 1987, and having an emergency exit configuration installed and authorized for operation prior to October 16, 1987, for an airplane that is required to have more than one passenger emergency exit for each side of the fuselage, no passenger emergency exit shall be more than 60 feet from any adjacent passenger emergency exit on the same side of the same deck of the fuselage, as measured parallel to the airplane's longitudinal axis between the nearest exit edges. (n) Portable lights. No person may operate a passenger-carrying airplane unless it is equipped with flashlight stowage provisions accessible from each flight attendant seat. [Docket 2033, 30 FR 3205, Mar. 9, 1965] Editorial Note: For Federal Register citations affecting § 121.310, see the List of CFR Sections Affected, which appears in the Finding Aids section of the printed volume and at www.govinfo.gov.

§ 121.311 Seats, safety belts, and shoulder harnesses. (a) No person may operate an airplane unless there are available during the takeoff, en route flight, and landing— (1) An approved seat or berth for each person on board the airplane who has reached his second birthday; and (2) An approved safety belt for separate use by each person on board the airplane who has reached his second birthday, except that two persons occupying a berth may share one approved safety belt and two persons occupying a multiple lounge or divan seat may share one approved safety belt during en route flight only. (b) Except as provided in this paragraph, each person on board an airplane operated under this part shall occupy an approved seat or berth with a separate safety belt properly secured about him or her during movement on the surface, takeoff, and landing. A safety belt provided for the occupant of a seat may not be used by more than one person who has reached his or her second birthday. Notwithstanding the preceding requirements, a child may: (1) Be held by an adult who is occupying an approved seat or berth, provided the child has not reached his or her second birthday and the child does not occupy or use any restraining device; or (2) Notwithstanding any other requirement of this chapter, occupy an approved child restraint system furnished by the certificate holder or one of the persons described in paragraph (b)(2)(i) of this section, provided: (i) The child is accompanied by a parent, guardian, or attendant designated by the child's parent or guardian to attend to the safety of the child during the flight;

(ii) Except as provided in paragraph (b)(2)(ii)(D) of this section, the approved child restraint system bears one or more labels as follows: (A) Seats manufactured to U.S. standards between January 1, 1981, and February 25, 1985, must bear the label: “This child restraint system conforms to all applicable Federal motor vehicle safety standards.” (B) Seats manufactured to U.S. standards on or after February 26, 1985, must bear two labels: ( 1 ) “This child restraint system conforms to all applicable Federal motor vehicle safety standards”; and ( 2 ) “THIS RESTRAINT IS CERTIFIED FOR USE IN MOTOR VEHICLES AND AIRCRAFT” in red lettering; (C) Seats that do not qualify under paragraphs (b)(2)(ii)(A) and (b)(2)(ii)(B) of this section must bear a label or markings showing: ( 1 ) That the seat was approved by a foreign government; ( 2 ) That the seat was manufactured under the standards of the United Nations; ( 3 ) That the seat or child restraint device furnished by the certificate holder was approved by the FAA through Type Certificate or Supplemental Type Certificate; or ( 4 ) That the seat or child restraint device furnished by the certificate holder, or one of the persons described in paragraph (b)(2)(i) of this section, was approved by the FAA in accordance with § 21.8(d) of this chapter or Technical Standard Order C-100b, or a later version. The child restraint device manufactured by AmSafe, Inc. (CARES, Part No. 4082) and approved by the FAA in accordance with § 21.305(d) (2010 ed.) of this chapter may continue to bear a label or markings showing FAA approval in accordance with § 21.305(d) (2010 ed.) of this chapter. (D) Except as provided in § 121.311(b)(2)(ii)(C)( 3 ) and § 121.311(b)(2)(ii)(C)( 4 ), booster-type child restraint systems (as defined in Federal Motor Vehicle Safety Standard No. 213 (49 CFR 571.213)), vest- and harness-type child restraint systems, and lap held child restraints are not approved for use in aircraft; and (iii) The certificate holder complies with the following requirements: (A) The restraint system must be properly secured to an approved forward-facing seat or berth; (B) The child must be properly secured in the restraint system and must not exceed the specified weight limit for the restraint system; and (C) The restraint system must bear the appropriate label(s). (c) Except as provided in paragraph (c)(3) of this section, the following prohibitions apply to certificate holders: (1) Except as provided in § 121.311(b)(2)(ii)(C)( 3 ) and § 121.311(b)(2)(ii)(C)( 4 ), no certificate holder may permit a child, in an aircraft, to occupy a booster-type child restraint system, a vest-type child restraint system, a harness-type child restraint system, or a lap held child restraint system during take off, landing, and movement on the surface. (2) Except as required in paragraph (c)(1) of this section, no certificate holder may prohibit a child, if requested by the child's parent, guardian, or designated attendant, from occupying a child restraint system furnished by the child's parent, guardian, or designated attendant provided— (i) The child holds a ticket for an approved seat or berth or such seat or berth is otherwise made available by the certificate holder for the child's use; (ii) The requirements of paragraph (b)(2)(i) of this section are met; (iii) The requirements of paragraph (b)(2)(iii) of this section are met; and (iv) The child restraint system has one or more of the labels described in paragraphs (b)(2)(ii)(A) through (b)(2)(ii)(C) of this section. (3) This section does not prohibit the certificate holder from providing child restraint systems authorized by this section or, consistent with safe operating practices, determining the most appropriate passenger seat location for the child restraint system. (d) Each sideward facing seat must comply with the applicable requirements of § 25.785(c) of this chapter. (e) Except as provided in paragraphs (e)(1) through (e)(3) of this section, no certificate holder may take off or land an airplane unless each passenger seat back is in the upright position. Each passenger shall comply with instructions given by a crewmember in compliance with this paragraph.

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(1) This paragraph does not apply to seat backs placed in other than the upright position in compliance with § 121.310(f)(3). (2) This paragraph does not apply to seats on which cargo or persons who are unable to sit erect for a medical reason are carried in accordance with procedures in the certificate holder's manual if the seat back does not obstruct any passenger's access to the aisle or to any emergency exit. (3) On airplanes with no flight attendant, the certificate holder may take off or land as long as the flightcrew instructs each passenger to place his or her seat back in the upright position for takeoff and landing. (f) No person may operate a transport category airplane that was type certificated after January 1, 1958, or a nontransport category airplane manufactured after March 20, 1997, unless it is equipped at each flight deck station with a combined safety belt and shoulder harness that meets the applicable requirements specified in § 25.785 of this chapter, effective March 6, 1980, except that— (1) Shoulder harnesses and combined safety belt and shoulder harnesses that were approved and installed before March 6, 1980, may continue to be used; and (2) Safety belt and shoulder harness restraint systems may be designed to the inertia load factors established under the certification basis of the airplane. (g) Each flight attendant must have a seat for takeoff and landing in the passenger compartment that meets the requirements of § 25.785 of this chapter, effective March 6, 1980, except that— (1) Combined safety belt and shoulder harnesses that were approved and installed before March, 6, 1980, may continue to be used; and (2) Safety belt and shoulder harness restraint systems may be designed to the inertia load factors established under the certification basis of the airplane. (3) The requirements of § 25.785(h) do not apply to passenger seats occupied by flight attendants not required by § 121.391. (h) Each occupant of a seat equipped with a shoulder harness or with a combined safety belt and shoulder harness must have the shoulder harness or combined safety belt and shoulder harness properly secured about that occupant during takeoff and landing, except that a shoulder harness that is not combined with a safety belt may be unfastened if the occupant cannot perform the required duties with the shoulder harness fastened. (i) At each unoccupied seat, the safety belt and shoulder harness, if installed, must be secured so as not to interfere with crewmembers in the performance of their duties or with the rapid egress of occupants in an emergency. (j) After October 27, 2009, no person may operate a transport category airplane type certificated after January 1, 1958 and manufactured on or after October 27, 2009 in passenger-carrying operations under this part unless all passenger and flight attendant seats on the airplane meet the requirements of § 25.562 in effect on or after June 16, 1988. (k) Seat dimension disclosure. (1) Each air carrier that conducts operations under this part and that has a Web site must make available on its Web site the width of the narrowest and widest passenger seats in each class of service for each airplane make, model and series operated by that air carrier in passenger-carrying operations. (2) For purposes of paragraph (k)(1) of this section, the width of a passenger seat means the distance between the inside of the armrests for that seat. [Docket 7522, 32 FR 13267, Sept. 20, 1967] Editorial Note: For Federal Register citations affecting § 121.311, see the List of CFR Sections Affected, which appears in the Finding Aids section of the printed volume and at www.govinfo.gov.

§ 121.312 Materials for compartment interiors. (a) All interior materials; transport category airplanes and nontransport category airplanes type certificated before

January 1, 1965. Except for the materials covered by paragraph (b) of this section, all materials in each compartment of a transport category airplane, or a nontransport category airplane type certificated before January 1, 1965, used by the crewmembers and passengers, must meet the requirements of § 25.853 of this chapter in effect as follows, or later amendment thereto: (1) Airplane with passenger seating capacity of 20 or more —(i) Manufactured after August 19, 1988, but prior to August 20, 1990. Except as provided in paragraph (a)(3)(ii) of this section, each airplane with a passenger capacity of 20 or more and manufactured after August 19, 1988, but prior to August 20, 1990, must comply with the heat release rate testing provisions of § 25.853(d) in effect March 6, 1995 (formerly § 25.853(a-1) in effect on August 20, 1986) (see App. L of this part), except that the total heat release over the first 2 minutes of sample exposure must not exceed 100 kilowatt minutes per square meter and the peak heat release rate must not exceed 100 kilowatts per square meter. (ii) Manufactured after August 19, 1990. Each airplane with a passenger capacity of 20 or more and manufactured after August 19, 1990, must comply with the heat release rate and smoke testing provisions of § 25.853(d) in effect March 6, 1995 (formerly § 25.853(a-1)(see app. L of this part) in effect on September 26, 1988). (2) Substantially complete replacement of the cabin interior on or after May 1, 1972 —(i) Airplane for which the application for type certificate was filed prior to May 1, 1972. Except as provided in paragraph (a)(3)(i) or (a)(3)(ii) of this section, each airplane for which the application for type certificate was filed prior to May 1, 1972, must comply with the provisions of § 25.853 in effect on April 30, 1972, regardless of passenger capacity, if there is a substantially complete replacement of the cabin interior after April 30, 1972. (ii) Airplane for which the application for type certificate was filed on or after May 1, 1972. Except as provided in paragraph (a)(3)(i) or (a)(3)(ii) of this section, each airplane for which the application for type certificate was filed on or after May 1, 1972, must comply with the material requirements under which the airplane was type certificated, regardless of passenger capacity, if there is a substantially complete replacement of the cabin interior on or after that date. (3) Airplane type certificated after January 1, 1958, with passenger capacity of 20 or more —(i) Substantially complete replacement of the cabin interior on or after March 6, 1995. Except as provided in paragraph (a)(3)(ii) of this section, each airplane that was type certificated after January 1, 1958, and has a passenger capacity of 20 or more, must comply with the heat release rate testing provisions of § 25.853(d) in effect March 6, 1995 (formerly § 25.853(a-1) in effect on August 20, 1986)(see app. L of this part), if there is a substantially complete replacement of the cabin interior components identified in § 25.853(d), on or after that date, except that the total heat release over the first 2 minutes of sample exposure shall not exceed 100 kilowatt-minutes per square meter and the peak heat release rate must not exceed 100 kilowatts per square meter. (ii) Substantially complete replacement of the cabin interior on or after August 20, 1990. Each airplane that was type certificated after January 1, 1958, and has a passenger capacity of 20 or more, must comply with the heat release rate and smoke testing provisions of § 25.853(d) in effect March 6, 1995 (formerly § 25.853(a-1) in effect on September 26, 1988)(see app. L of this part), if there is a substantially complete replacement of the cabin interior components identified in § 25.853(d), on or after August 20, 1990. (4) Contrary provisions of this section notwithstanding, the Director of the division of the Aircraft Certification Service responsible for the airworthiness rules may authorize deviation from the requirements of paragraph (a)(1)(i), (a)(1)(ii), (a)(3)(i), or (a)(3)(ii) of this section for specific components of the cabin interior that do not meet applicable flammability and smoke emission requirements, if the determination is made that special circumstances exist that make compliance impractical. Such grants of deviation will be limited to those airplanes manufactured within 1 year after the applicable date specified in this section and those airplanes in which the interior is replaced within 1 year of that date. A request for such grant of deviation must include a thorough and accurate analysis of each component subject to § 25.853(a-1), the steps being taken to achieve compliance, and, for the few components for which timely compliance will not be achieved, credible reasons for such noncompliance.

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(5) Contrary provisions of this section notwithstanding, galley carts and galley standard containers that do not meet the flammability and smoke emission requirements of § 25.853(d) in effect March 6, 1995 (formerly § 25.853(a-1)) (see app. L of this part) may be used in airplanes that must meet the requirements of paragraphs (a)(1)(i), (a)(1)(ii), (a)(3)(i), or (a)(3)(ii) of this section, provided the galley carts or standard containers were manufactured prior to March 6, 1995. (b) Seat cushions. Seat cushions, except those on flight crewmember seats, in each compartment occupied by crew or passengers, must comply with the requirements pertaining to seat cushions in § 25.853(c) effective on November 26, 1984, on each airplane as follows: (1) Each transport category airplane type certificated after January 1, 1958; and (2) On or after December 20, 2010, each nontransport category airplane type certificated after December 31, 1964. (c) All interior materials; airplanes type certificated in accordance with SFAR No. 41 of 14 CFR part 21. No person may operate an airplane that conforms to an amended or supplemental type certificate issued in accordance with SFAR No. 41 of 14 CFR part 21 for a maximum certificated takeoff weight in excess of 12,500 pounds unless the airplane meets the compartment interior requirements set forth in § 25.853(a) in effect March 6, 1995 (formerly § 25.853(a), (b), (b-1), (b-2), and (b-3) of this chapter in effect on September 26, 1978)(see app. L of this part). (d) All interior materials; other airplanes. For each material or seat cushion to which a requirement in paragraphs (a), (b), or (c) of this section does not apply, the material and seat cushion in each compartment used by the crewmembers and passengers must meet the applicable requirement under which the airplane was type certificated. (e) Thermal/acoustic insulation materials. For transport category airplanes type certificated after January 1, 1958: (1) For airplanes manufactured before September 2, 2005, when thermal/acoustic insulation is installed in the fuselage as replacements after September 2, 2005, the insulation must meet the flame propagation requirements of § 25.856 of this chapter, effective September 2, 2003, if it is: (i) Of a blanket construction or (ii) Installed around air ducting. (2) For airplanes manufactured after September 2, 2005, thermal/acoustic insulation materials installed in the fuselage must meet the flame propagation requirements of § 25.856 of this chapter, effective September 2, 2003. (3) For airplanes with a passenger capacity of 20 or greater, manufactured after September 2, 2009, thermal/acoustic insulation materials installed in the lower half of the fuselage must meet the flame penetration resistance requirements of § 25.856 of this chapter, effective September 2, 2003. [Docket 28154, 60 FR 65930, Dec. 20, 1995, as amended by Amdt. 121-301, 68 FR 45083, July 31, 2003; Amdt. 121-320, 70 FR 77752, Dec. 30, 2005; Amdt. 121-330, 72 FR 1442, Jan. 12, 2007; Docket FAA-2018-0119, Amdt. 121-380, 83 FR 9173, Mar. 5, 2018] § 121.313 Miscellaneous equipment. No person may conduct any operation unless the following equipment is installed in the airplane: (a) If protective fuses are installed on an airplane, the number of spare fuses approved for that airplane and appropriately described in the certificate holder's manual. (b) A windshield wiper or equivalent for each pilot station. (c) A power supply and distribution system that meets the requirements of §§ 25.1309, 25.1331, 25.1351(a) and (b)(1) through (4), 25.1353, 25.1355, and 25.1431(b) or that is able to produce and distribute the load for the required instruments and equipment, with use of an external power supply if any one power source or component of the power distribution system fails. The use of common elements in the system may be approved if the Administrator finds that they are designed to be reasonably protected against malfunctioning. Engine-driven sources of energy, when used, must be on separate engines.

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(d) A means for indicating the adequacy of the power being supplied to required flight instruments. (e) Two independent static pressure systems, vented to the outside atmospheric pressure so that they will be least affected by air flow variation or moisture or other foreign matter, and installed so as to be airtight except for the vent. When a means is provided for transferring an instrument from its primary operating system to an alternate system, the means must include a positive positioning control and must be marked to indicate clearly which system is being used. (f) A door between the passenger and pilot compartments ( i.e. , flightdeck door), with a locking means to prevent passengers from opening it without the pilot's permission, except that nontransport category airplanes certificated after December 31, 1964, are not required to comply with this paragraph. For airplanes equipped with a crew rest area having separate entries from the flightdeck and the passenger compartment, a door with such a locking means must be provided between the crew rest area and the passenger compartment. (g) A key for each door that separates a passenger compartment from another compartment that has emergency exit provisions. Except for flightdeck doors, a key must be readily available for each crewmember. Except as provided below, no person other than a person who is assigned to perform duty on the flightdeck may have a key to the flightdeck door. Before April 22, 2003, any crewmember may have a key to the flightdeck door but only if the flightdeck door has an internal flightdeck locking device installed, operative, and in use. Such “internal flightdeck locking device” has to be designed so that it can only be unlocked from inside the flightdeck. (h) A placard on each door that is the means of access to a required passenger emergency exit, to indicate that it must be open during takeoff and landing. (i) A means for the crew, in an emergency to unlock each door that leads to a compartment that is normally accessible to passengers and that can be locked by passengers. (j) After April 9, 2003, for airplanes required by paragraph (f) of this section to have a door between the passenger and pilot or crew rest compartments, and for transport category, all-cargo airplanes that have a door installed between the pilot compartment and any other occupied compartment on January 15, 2002; (1) After April 9, 2003, for airplanes required by paragraph (f) of this section to have a door between the passenger and pilot or crew rest compartments, (i) Each such door must meet the requirements of § 25.795(a)(1) and (2) in effect on January 15, 2002; and (ii) Each operator must establish methods to enable a flight attendant to enter the pilot compartment in the event that a flightcrew member becomes incapacitated. Any associated signal or confirmation system must be operable by each flightcrew member from that flightcrew member's duty station. (2) After October 1, 2003, for transport category, all-cargo airplanes that had a door installed between the pilot compartment and any other occupied compartment on or after January 15, 2002, each such door must meet the requirements of § 25.795(a)(1) and (2) in effect on January 15, 2002; or the operator must implement a security program approved by the Transportation Security Administration (TSA) for the operation of all airplanes in that operator's fleet. (k) Except for all-cargo operations as defined in § 110.2 of this chapter, for all passenger-carrying airplanes that require a lockable flightdeck door in accordance with paragraph (f) of this section, a means to monitor from the flightdeck side of the door the area outside the flightdeck door to identify persons requesting entry and to detect suspicious behavior and potential threats. (l) For airplanes required by paragraph (f) of this section to have a door between the passenger and pilot or crew rest compartments, and for passenger-carrying transport category airplanes that have a door installed between the pilot compartment and any other occupied compartment, that were manufactured after August 25, 2025, an installed physical secondary barrier (IPSB) that meets the requirements of § 25.795(a)(4) of this chapter in effect on August 25, 2023.

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[Docket 6258, 29 FR 19205, Dec. 31, 1964, as amended by Amdt. 121-5, 30 FR 6113, Apr. 30, 1965; Amdt. 121-251, 60 FR 65931, Dec. 20, 1995; Amdt. 121-288, 67 FR 2127, Jan. 15, 2002; Amdt. 121-299, 68 FR 42881, July 18, 2003; Amdt. 121-334, 72 FR 45635, Aug. 15, 2007; Amdt. 121-353, 76 FR 7488, Feb. 10, 2011; Amdt. 121-389, 88 FR 41308, June 26, 2023] § 121.314 Cargo and baggage compartments. For each transport category airplane type certificated after January 1, 1958: (a) Each Class C or Class D compartment, as defined in § 25.857 of this Chapter in effect on June 16, 1986 (see Appendix L to this part), that is greater than 200 cubic feet in volume must have ceiling and sidewall liner panels which are constructed of: (1) Glass fiber reinforced resin; (2) Materials which meet the test requirements of part 25, appendix F, part III of this chapter; or (3) In the case of liner installations approved prior to March 20, 1989, aluminum. (b) For compliance with paragraph (a) of this section, the term “liner” includes any design feature, such as a joint or fastener, which would affect the capability of the liner to safely contain a fire. (c) After March 19, 2001, each Class D compartment, regardless of volume, must meet the standards of §§ 25.857(c) and 25.858 of this Chapter for a Class C compartment unless the operation is an all-cargo operation in which case each Class D compartment may meet the standards in § 25.857(e) for a Class E compartment. (d) Reports of conversions and retrofits. (1) Until such time as all Class D compartments in aircraft operated under this part by the certificate have been converted or retrofitted with appropriate detection and suppression systems, each certificate holder must submit written progress reports to the FAA that contain the information specified below. (i) The serial number of each airplane listed in the operations specifications issued to the certificate holder for operation under this part in which all Class D compartments have been converted to Class C or Class E compartments; (ii) The serial number of each airplane listed in the operations specification issued to the certificate holder for operation under this part, in which all Class D compartments have been retrofitted to meet the fire detection and suppression requirements for Class C or the fire detection requirements for Class E; and (iii) The serial number of each airplane listed in the operations specifications issued to the certificate holder for operation under this part that has at least one Class D compartment that has not been converted or retrofitted. (2) The written report must be submitted to the responsible Flight Standards office by July 1, 1998, and at each three-month interval thereafter. [Docket 28937, 63 FR 8049, Feb. 17, 1998, as amended by Docket FAA-2018-0119, Amdt. 121-380, 83 FR 9173, Mar. 5, 2018] § 121.315 Cockpit check procedure. (a) Each certificate holder shall provide an approved cockpit check procedure for each type of aircraft. (b) The approved procedures must include each item necessary for flight crewmembers to check for safety before starting engines, taking off, or landing, and in engine and systems emergencies. The procedures must be designed so that a flight crewmember will not need to rely upon his memory for items to be checked. (c) The approved procedures must be readily usable in the cockpit of each aircraft and the flight crew shall follow them when operating the aircraft. § 121.316 Fuel tanks. Each turbine powered transport category airplane operated after October 30, 1991, must meet the requirements of § 25.963(e) of this chapter in effect on October 30, 1989. [Docket 25614, 54 FR 40354, Sept. 29, 1989]

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§ 121.317 Passenger information requirements, smoking prohibitions, and additional seat belt requirements. (a) Except as provided in paragraph (l) of this section, no person may operate an airplane unless it is equipped with passenger information signs that meet the requirements of § 25.791 of this chapter. (b) Except as provided in paragraph (l) of this section, the “Fasten Seat Belt” sign shall be turned on during any movement on the surface, for each takeoff, for each landing, and at any other time considered necessary by the pilot in command. (c) No person may operate an airplane on a flight on which smoking is prohibited by part 252 of this title unless either the “No Smoking” passenger information signs are lighted during the entire flight, or one or more “No Smoking” placards meeting the requirements of § 25.1541 of this chapter are posted during the entire flight segment. If both the lighted signs and the placards are used, the signs must remain lighted during the entire flight segment. (d) No person may operate a passenger-carrying airplane under this part unless at least one legible sign or placard that reads “Fasten Seat Belt While Seated” is visible from each passenger seat. These signs or placards need not meet the requirements of paragraph (a) of this section. (e) No person may operate an airplane unless there is installed in each lavatory a sign or placard that reads: “Federal law provides for a penalty of up to $2,000 for tampering with the smoke detector installed in this lavatory.” These signs or placards need not meet the requirements of paragraph (a) of this section. (f) Each passenger required by § 121.311(b) to occupy a seat or berth shall fasten his or her safety belt about him or her and keep it fastened while the “Fasten Seat Belt” sign is lighted. (g) No person may smoke while a “No Smoking” sign is lighted or while “No Smoking” placards are posted, except as follows: (1) Supplemental operations. The pilot in command of an airplane engaged in a supplemental operation may authorize smoking on the flight deck (if it is physically separated from any passenger compartment), but not in any of the following situations: (i) During airplane movement on the surface or during takeoff or landing; (ii) During scheduled passenger-carrying public charter operations conducted under part 380 of this title; or (iii) During any operation where smoking is prohibited by part 252 of this title or by international agreement. (2) Certain intrastate domestic operations. Except during airplane movement on the surface or during takeoff or landing, a pilot in command of an airplane engaged in a domestic operation may authorize smoking on the flight deck (if it is physically separated from the passenger compartment) if— (i) Smoking on the flight deck is not otherwise prohibited by part 252 of this title; (ii) The flight is conducted entirely within the same State of the United States (a flight from one place in Hawaii to another place in Hawaii through the airspace over a place outside of Hawaii is not entirely within the same State); and (iii) The airplane is either not turbojet-powered or the airplane is not capable of carrying at least 30 passengers. (h) No person may smoke in any airplane lavatory. (i) No person may tamper with, disable, or destroy any smoke detector installed in any airplane lavatory. (j) On flight segments other than those described in paragraph (c) of this section, the “No Smoking” sign must be turned on during any movement on the surface, for each takeoff, for each landing, and at any other time considered necessary by the pilot in command. (k) Each passenger shall comply with instructions given him or her by a crewmember regarding compliance with paragraphs (f), (g), (h), and (l) of this section. (l) A certificate holder may operate a nontransport category airplane type certificated after December 31, 1964, that is manufactured before December 20, 1997, if it is equipped with at least one placard that is legible to each person seated in the cabin that states “Fasten Seat Belt,” and if, during any movement on the surface, for each takeoff, for each landing, and at any other time considered necessary by the pilot in command, a crewmember orally instructs the passengers to fasten their seat belts.

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[Docket 25590, 53 FR 12361, Apr. 13, 1988, as amended by Amdt. 121-196, 53 FR 44182, Nov. 2, 1988; Amdt. 121-213, 55 FR 8367, Mar. 7, 1990; Amdt. 121-230, 57 FR 42673, Sept. 15, 1992; Amdt. 121-251, 60 FR 65931, Dec. 20, 1995; Amdt. 121-256, 61 FR 30434, June 14, 1996; Amdt. 121-277, 65 FR 36779, June 9, 2000; Docket FAA-2024-2052, Amdt. 121-393, 89 FR 68100, Aug. 23, 2024] § 121.318 Public address system. No person may operate an airplane with a seating capacity of more than 19 passengers unless it is equipped with a public address system which— (a) Is capable of operation independent of the crewmember interphone system required by § 121.319, except for handsets, headsets, microphones, selector switches, and signaling devices; (b) Is approved in accordance with § 21.305 of this chapter; (c) Is accessible for immediate use from each of two flight crewmember stations in the pilot compartment; (d) For each required floor-level passenger emergency exit which has an adjacent flight attendant seat, has a microphone which is readily accessible to the seated flight attendant, except that one microphone may serve more than one exit, provided the proximity of the exits allows unassisted verbal communication between seated flight attendants; (e) Is capable of operation within 10 seconds by a flight attendant at each of those stations in the passenger compartment from which its use is accessible; (f) Is audible at all passenger seats, lavatories, and flight attendant seats and work stations; and (g) For transport category airplanes manufactured on or after November 27, 1990, meets the requirements of § 25.1423 of this chapter. [Docket 24995, 54 FR 43926, Oct. 27, 1989] § 121.319 Crewmember interphone system. (a) No person may operate an airplane with a seating capacity of more than 19 passengers unless the airplane is equipped with a crewmember interphone system that: (1) [Reserved] (2) Is capable of operation independent of the public address system required by § 121.318(a) except for handsets, headsets, microphones, selector switches, and signaling devices; and (3) Meets the requirements of paragraph (b) of this section. (b) The crewmember interphone system required by paragraph (a) of this section must be approved in accordance with § 21.305 of this chapter and meet the following requirements: (1) It must provide a means of two-way communication between the pilot compartment and— (i) Each passenger compartment; and (ii) Each galley located on other than the main passenger deck level. (2) It must be accessible for immediate use from each of two flight crewmember stations in the pilot compartment; (3) It must be accessible for use from at least one normal flight attendant station in each passenger compartment; (4) It must be capable of operation within 10 seconds by a flight attendant at those stations in each passenger compartment from which its use is accessible; and (5) For large turbojet-powered airplanes: (i) It must be accessible for use at enough flight attendant stations so that all floor-level emergency exits (or entryways to those exits in the case of exits located within galleys) in each passenger compartment are observable from one or more of those stations so equipped; (ii) It must have an alerting system incorporating aural or visual signals for use by flight crewmembers to alert flight attendants and for use by flight attendants to alert flight crewmembers; (iii) The alerting system required by paragraph (b)(5)(ii) of this section must have a means for the recipient of a call to determine whether it is a normal call or an emergency call; and

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(iv) When the airplane is on the ground, it must provide a means of two-way communication between ground personnel and either of at least two flight crewmembers in the pilot compartment. The interphone system station for use by ground personnel must be so located that personnel using the system may avoid visible detection from within the airplane. [Docket 10865, 38 FR 21494, Aug. 9, 1973, as amended by Amdt. 121-121, 40 FR 42186, Sept. 11, 1975; Amdt. 121-149, 43 FR 50602, Oct. 30, 1978; Amdt. 121-178, 47 FR 13316, Mar. 29, 1982; Amdt. 121-253, 61 FR 2611, Jan. 26, 1996] § 121.321 Operations in icing. After October 21, 2013, no person may operate an airplane with a certificated maximum takeoff weight less than 60,000 pounds in conditions conducive to airframe icing unless it complies with this section. As used in this section, the phrase “conditions conducive to airframe icing” means visible moisture at or below a static air temperature of 5 °C or a total air temperature of 10 °C, unless the approved Airplane Flight Manual provides another definition. (a) When operating in conditions conducive to airframe icing, compliance must be shown with paragraph (a)(1), or (2), or (3) of this section. (1) The airplane must be equipped with a certificated primary airframe ice detection system. (i) The airframe ice protection system must be activated automatically, or manually by the flightcrew, when the primary ice detection system indicates activation is necessary. (ii) When the airframe ice protection system is activated, any other procedures in the Airplane Flight Manual for operating in icing conditions must be initiated. (2) Visual cues of the first sign of ice formation anywhere on the airplane and a certificated advisory airframe ice detection system must be provided. (i) The airframe ice protection system must be activated when any of the visual cues are observed or when the advisory airframe ice detection system indicates activation is necessary, whichever occurs first. (ii) When the airframe ice protection system is activated, any other procedures in the Airplane Flight Manual for operating in icing conditions must be initiated. (3) If the airplane is not equipped to comply with the provisions of paragraph (a)(1) or (2) of this section, then the following apply: (i) When operating in conditions conducive to airframe icing, the airframe ice protection system must be activated prior to, and operated during, the following phases of flight: (A) Takeoff climb after second segment, (B) En route climb, (C) Go-around climb, (D) Holding, (E) Maneuvering for approach and landing, and (F) Any other operation at approach or holding airspeeds. (ii) During any other phase of flight, the airframe ice protection system must be activated and operated at the first sign of ice formation anywhere on the airplane, unless the Airplane Flight Manual specifies that the airframe ice protection system should not be used or provides other operational instructions. (iii) Any additional procedures for operation in conditions conducive to icing specified in the Airplane Flight Manual or in the manual required by § 121.133 must be initiated. (b) If the procedures specified in paragraph (a)(3)(i) of this section are specifically prohibited in the Airplane Flight Manual, compliance must be shown with the requirements of paragraph (a)(1) or (2) of this section. (c) Procedures necessary for safe operation of the airframe ice protection system must be established and documented in: (1) The Airplane Flight Manual for airplanes that comply with paragraph (a)(1) or (2) of this section, or (2) The Airplane Flight Manual or in the manual required by § 121.133 for airplanes that comply with paragraph (a)(3) of this section. (d) Procedures for operation of the airframe ice protection system must include initial activation, operation after initial activation, and deactivation. Procedures for operation after initial activation of the ice protection system must address—

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(1) Continuous operation, (2) Automatic cycling, (3) Manual cycling if the airplane is equipped with an ice detection system that alerts the flightcrew each time the ice protection system must be cycled, or (4) Manual cycling based on a time interval if the airplane type is not equipped with features necessary to implement (d)(1)-(3) of this section. (e) System installations used to comply with paragraph (a)(1) or (a)(2) of this section must be approved through an amended or supplemental type certificate in accordance with part 21 of this chapter. [Docket FAA-2009-0675, 78 FR 15876, Mar. 13, 2013] § 121.323 Instruments and equipment for operations at night. No person may operate an airplane at night under this part unless it is equipped with the following instruments and equipment in addition to those required by §§ 121.305 through 121.321 and 121.803: (a) Position lights. (b) An anti-collision light. (c) Two landing lights, except that only one landing light is required for nontransport category airplanes type certificated after December 31, 1964. (d) Instrument lights providing enough light to make each required instrument, switch, or similar instrument, easily readable and installed so that the direct rays are shielded from the flight crewmembers' eyes and that no objectionable reflections are visible to them. There must be a means of controlling the intensity of illumination unless it is shown that nondimming instrument lights are satisfactory. (e) An airspeed-indicating system with heated pitot tube or equivalent means for preventing malfunctioning due to icing. (f) A sensitive altimeter. [Docket 6258, 29 FR 19205, Dec. 31, 1964, as amended by Amdt. 121-251, 60 FR 65932, Dec. 20, 1995; Amdt. 121-281, 66 FR 19043, Apr. 12, 2001] § 121.325 Instruments and equipment for operations under IFR or over-the-top. No person may operate an airplane under IFR or over-the-top conditions under this part unless it is equipped with the following instruments and equipment, in addition to those required by §§ 121.305 through 121.321 and 121.803: (a) An airspeed indicating system with heated pitot tube or equivalent means for preventing malfunctioning due to icing. (b) A sensitive altimeter. (c) Instrument lights providing enough light to make each required instrument, switch, or similar instrument, easily readable and so installed that the direct rays are shielded from the flight crewmembers' eyes and that no objectionable reflections are visible to them, and a means of controlling the intensity of illumination unless it is shown that nondimming instrument lights are satisfactory. [Docket 6258, 29 FR 19205, Dec. 31, 1964, as amended by Amdt. 121-281, 66 FR 19043, Apr. 12, 2001] § 121.327 Supplemental oxygen: Reciprocating engine powered airplanes. (a) General. Except where supplemental oxygen is provided in accordance with § 121.331, no person may operate an airplane unless supplemental oxygen is furnished and used as set forth in paragraphs (b) and (c) of this section. The amount of supplemental oxygen required for a particular operation is determined on the basis of flight altitudes and flight duration, consistent with the operation procedures established for each operation and route. (b) Crewmembers. (1) At cabin pressure altitudes above 10,000 feet up to and including 12,000 feet, oxygen must be provided for, and used by, each member of the flight crew on flight deck duty, and must be provided for other crewmembers, for that part of the flight at those altitudes that is of more than 30 minutes duration. (2) At cabin pressure altitudes above 12,000 feet, oxygen must be provided for, and used by, each member of the flight crew on flight deck duty, and must be provided for other crewmembers, during the entire flight time at those altitudes.

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(3) When a flight crewmember is required to use oxygen, he must use it continuously, except when necessary to remove the oxygen mask or other dispenser in connection with his regular duties. Standby crewmembers who are on call or are definitely going to have flight deck duty before completing the flight must be provided with an amount of supplemental oxygen equal to that provided for crewmembers on duty other than on flight deck duty. If a standby crewmember is not on call and will not be on flight deck duty during the remainder of the flight, he is considered to be a passenger for the purposes of supplemental oxygen requirements. (c) Passengers. Each certificate holder shall provide a supply of oxygen, approved for passenger safety, in accordance with the following: (1) For flights of more than 30 minutes duration at cabin pressure altitudes above 8,000 feet up to and including 14,000 feet, enough oxygen for 30 minutes for 10 percent of the passengers. (2) For flights at cabin pressure altitudes above 14,000 feet up to and including 15,000 feet, enough oxygen for that part of the flight at those altitudes for 30 percent of the passengers. (3) For flights at cabin pressure altitudes above 15,000 feet, enough oxygen for each passenger carried during the entire flight at those altitudes. (d) For the purposes of this subpart cabin pressure altitude means the pressure altitude corresponding with the pressure in the cabin of the airplane, and flight altitude means the altitude above sea level at which the airplane is operated. For airplanes without pressurized cabins, “cabin pressure altitude” and “flight altitude” mean the same thing. § 121.329 Supplemental oxygen for sustenance: Turbine engine powered airplanes. (a) General. When operating a turbine engine powered airplane, each certificate holder shall equip the airplane with sustaining oxygen and dispensing equipment for use as set forth in this section: (1) The amount of oxygen provided must be at least the quantity necessary to comply with paragraphs (b) and (c) of this section. (2) The amount of sustaining and first-aid oxygen required for a particular operation to comply with the rules in this part is determined on the basis of cabin pressure altitudes and flight duration, consistent with the operating procedures established for each operation and route. (3) The requirements for airplanes with pressurized cabins are determined on the basis of cabin pressure altitude and the assumption that a cabin pressurization failure will occur at the altitude or point of flight that is most critical from the standpoint of oxygen need, and that after the failure the airplane will descend in accordance with the emergency procedures specified in the Airplane Flight Manual, without exceeding its operating limitations, to a flight altitude that will allow successful termination of the flight. (4) Following the failure, the cabin pressure altitude is considered to be the same as the flight altitude unless it is shown that no probable failure of the cabin or pressurization equipment will result in a cabin pressure altitude equal to the flight altitude. Under those circumstances, the maximum cabin pressure altitude attained may be used as a basis for certification or determination of oxygen supply, or both. (b) Crewmembers. Each certificate holder shall provide a supply of oxygen for crewmembers in accordance with the following: (1) At cabin pressure altitudes above 10,000 feet, up to and including 12,000 feet, oxygen must be provided for and used by each member of the flight crew on flight deck duty and must be provided for other crewmembers for that part of the flight at those altitudes that is of more than 30 minutes duration. (2) At cabin pressure altitudes above 12,000 feet, oxygen must be provided for, and used by, each member of the flight crew on flight deck duty, and must be provided for other crewmembers during the entire flight at those altitudes.

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(3) When a flight crewmember is required to use oxygen, he must use it continuously except when necessary to remove the oxygen mask or other dispenser in connection with his regular duties. Standby crewmembers who are on call or are definitely going to have flight deck duty before completing the flight must be provided with an amount of supplemental oxygen equal to that provided for crewmembers on duty other than on flight duty. If a standby crewmember is not on call and will not be on flight deck duty during the remainder of the flight, he is considered to be a passenger for the purposes of supplemental oxygen requirements. (c) Passengers. Each certificate holder shall provide a supply of oxygen for passengers in accordance with the following: (1) For flights at cabin pressure altitudes above 10,000 feet, up to and including 14,000 feet, enough oxygen for that part of the flight at those altitudes that is of more than 30 minutes duration, for 10 percent of the passengers. (2) For flights at cabin pressure altitudes above 14,000 feet, up to and including 15,000 feet, enough oxygen for that part of the flight at those altitudes for 30 percent of the passengers. (3) For flights at cabin pressure altitudes above 15,000 feet, enough oxygen for each passenger carried during the entire flight at those altitudes. § 121.331 Supplemental oxygen requirements for pressurized cabin airplanes: Reciprocating engine powered airplanes. (a) When operating a reciprocating engine powered airplane pressurized cabin, each certificate holder shall equip the airplane to comply with paragraphs (b) through (d) of this section in the event of cabin pressurization failure. (b) For crewmembers. When operating at flight altitudes above 10,000 feet, the certificate holder shall provide enough oxygen for each crewmember for the entire flight at those altitudes and not less than a two-hour supply for each flight crewmember on flight deck duty. The required two hours supply is that quantity of oxygen necessary for a constant rate of descent from the airplane's maximum certificated operating altitude to 10,000 feet in ten minutes and followed by 110 minutes at 10,000 feet. The oxygen required by § 121.337 may be considered in determining the supplemental breathing supply required for flight crewmembers on flight deck duty in the event of cabin pressurization failure. (c) For passengers. When operating at flight altitudes above 8,000 feet, the certificate holder shall provide oxygen as follows: (1) When an airplane is not flown at a flight altitude above flight level 250, enough oxygen for 30 minutes for 10 percent of the passengers, if at any point along the route to be flown the airplane can safely descend to a flight altitude of 14,000 feet or less within four minutes. (2) If the airplane cannot descend to a flight altitude of 14,000 feet or less within four minutes, the following supply of oxygen must be provided: (i) For that part of the flight that is more than four minutes duration at flight altitudes above 15,000 feet, the supply required by § 121.327(c)(3). (ii) For that part of the flight at flight altitudes above 14,000 feet, up to and including 15,000 feet, the supply required by § 121.327(c)(2). (iii) For flight at flight altitudes above 8,000 feet up to and including 14,000 feet, enough oxygen for 30 minutes for 10 percent of the passengers. (3) When an airplane is flown at a flight altitude above flight level 250, enough oxygen for 30 minutes for 10 percent of the passengers for the entire flight (including emergency descent) above 8,000 feet, up to and including 14,000 feet, and to comply with § 121.327(c) (2) and (3) for flight above 14,000 feet. (d) For the purposes of this section it is assumed that the cabin pressurization failure occurs at a time during flight that is critical from the standpoint of oxygen need and that after the failure the airplane will descend, without exceeding its normal operating limitations, to flight altitudes allowing safe flight with respect to terrain clearance.

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[Docket 6258, 29 FR 19205, Dec. 31, 1964, as amended by Amdt. 121-132, 41 FR 55475, Dec. 20, 1976] § 121.333 Supplemental oxygen for emergency descent and for first aid; turbine engine powered airplanes with pressurized cabins. (a) General. When operating a turbine engine powered airplane with a pressurized cabin, the certificate holder shall furnish oxygen and dispensing equipment to comply with paragraphs (b) through (e) of this section in the event of cabin pressurization failure. (b) Crewmembers. When operating at flight altitudes above 10,000 feet, the certificate holder shall supply enough oxygen to comply with § 121.329, but not less than a two-hour supply for each flight crewmember on flight deck duty. The required two hours supply is that quantity of oxygen necessary for a constant rate of descent from the airplane's maximum certificated operating altitude to 10,000 feet in ten minutes and followed by 110 minutes at 10,000 feet. The oxygen required in the event of cabin pressurization failure by § 121.337 may be included in determining the supply required for flight crewmembers on flight deck duty. (c) Use of oxygen masks by flight crewmembers. (1) When operating at flight altitudes above flight level 250, each flight crewmember on flight deck duty must be provided with an oxygen mask so designed that it can be rapidly placed on his face from its ready position, properly secured, sealed, and supplying oxygen upon demand; and so designed that after being placed on the face it does not prevent immediate communication between the flight crewmember and other crewmembers over the airplane intercommunication system. When it is not being used at flight altitudes above flight level 250, the oxygen mask must be kept in condition for ready use and located so as to be within the immediate reach of the flight crewmember while at his duty station. (2) When operating at flight altitudes above flight level 250, one pilot at the controls of the airplane shall at all times wear and use an oxygen mask secured, sealed, and supplying oxygen, in accordance with the following: (i) The one pilot need not wear and use an oxygen mask at or below the following flight levels if each flight crewmember on flight deck duty has a quick-donning type of oxygen mask that the certificate holder has shown can be placed on the face from its ready position, properly secured, sealed, and supplying oxygen upon demand, with one hand and within five seconds: (A) For airplanes having a passenger seat configuration of more than 30 seats, excluding any required crewmember seat, or a payload capacity of more than 7,500 pounds, at or below flight level 410. (B) For airplanes having a passenger seat configuration of less than 31 seats, excluding any required crewmember seat, and a payload capacity of 7,500 pounds or less, at or below flight level 350. (ii) Whenever a quick-donning type of oxygen mask is to be used under this section, the certificate holder shall also show that the mask can be put on without disturbing eye glasses and without delaying the flight crewmember from proceeding with his assigned emergency duties. The oxygen mask after being put on must not prevent immediate communication between the flight crewmember and other crewmembers over the airplane intercommunication system. (3) Notwithstanding paragraph (c)(2) of this section, if for any reason at any time it is necessary for one pilot to leave his station at the controls of the airplane when operating at flight altitudes above flight level 410, the remaining pilot at the controls shall put on and use his oxygen mask until the other pilot has returned to his duty station. (4) Before the takeoff of a flight, each flight crewmember shall personally preflight his oxygen equipment to insure that the oxygen mask is functioning, fitted properly, and connected to appropriate supply terminals, and that the oxygen supply and pressure are adequate for use. (d) Use of portable oxygen equipment by cabin attendants. After November 28, 2005 each mask used for portable oxygen equipment must be connected to its oxygen supply. Above flight level 250, one of the following is required:

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(1) Each attendant shall carry portable oxygen equipment with a 15 minute supply of oxygen; or (2) There must be sufficient portable oxygen equipment (including masks and spare outlets) distributed throughout the cabin so that such equipment is immediately available to each attendant, regardless of their location in the cabin; or (3) There are sufficient spare outlets and masks distributed throughout the cabin to ensure immediate availability of oxygen to each cabin attendant, regardless of their location in the cabin. (e) Passenger cabin occupants. When the airplane is operating at flight altitudes above 10,000 feet, the following supply of oxygen must be provided for the use of passenger cabin occupants: (1) When an airplane certificated to operate at flight altitudes up to and including flight level 250, can at any point along the route to be flown, descend safely to a flight altitude of 14,000 feet or less within four minutes, oxygen must be available at the rate prescribed by this part for a 30-minute period for at least 10 percent of the passenger cabin occupants. (2) When an airplane is operated at flight altitudes up to and including flight level 250 and cannot descend safely to a flight altitude of 14,000 feet within four minutes, or when an airplane is operated at flight altitudes above flight level 250, oxygen must be available at the rate prescribed by this part for not less than 10 percent of the passenger cabin occupants for the entire flight after cabin depressurization, at cabin pressure altitudes above 10,000 feet up to and including 14,000 feet and, as applicable, to allow compliance with § 121.329(c) (2) and (3), except that there must be not less than a 10-minute supply for the passenger cabin occupants. (3) For first-aid treatment of occupants who for physiological reasons might require undiluted oxygen following descent from cabin pressure altitudes above flight level 250, a supply of oxygen in accordance with the requirements of § 25.1443(d) must be provided for two percent of the occupants for the entire flight after cabin depressurization at cabin pressure altitudes above 8,000 feet, but in no case to less than one person. An appropriate number of acceptable dispensing units, but in no case less than two, must be provided, with a means for the cabin attendants to use this supply. (f) Passenger briefing. Before flight is conducted above flight level 250, a crewmember shall instruct the passengers on the necessity of using oxygen in the event of cabin depressurization and shall point out to them the location and demonstrate the use of the oxygen-dispensing equipment. [Docket 6258, 29 FR 19205, Dec. 31, 1964, as amended by Amdt. 121-11, 30 FR 12466, Sept. 30, 1965; Amdt. 121-132, 41 FR 55475, Dec. 20, 1976; Amdt. 121-262, 62 FR 13256, Mar. 19, 1997; 62 FR 15570, Apr. 1, 1997; Amdt. 121-306, 69 FR 62789, Oct. 27, 2004; Amdt. 121-383, 85 FR 16900, Mar. 25, 2020] § 121.335 Equipment standards. (a) Reciprocating engine powered airplanes. The oxygen apparatus, the minimum rates of oxygen flow, and the supply of oxygen necessary to comply with § 121.327 must meet the standards established in section 4b.651 of the Civil Air Regulations as in effect on July 20, 1950, except that if the certificate holder shows full compliance with those standards to be impracticable, the Administrator may authorize any change in those standards that he finds will provide an equivalent level of safety. (b) Turbine engine powered airplanes. The oxygen apparatus, the minimum rate of oxygen flow, and the supply of oxygen necessary to comply with §§ 121.329 and 121.333 must meet the standards established in section 4b.651 of the Civil Air Regulations as in effect on September 1, 1958, except that if the certificate holder shows full compliance with those standards to be impracticable, the Administrator may authorize any changes in those standards that he finds will provide an equivalent level of safety. § 121.337 Protective breathing equipment. (a) The certificate holder shall furnish approved protective breathing equipment (PBE) meeting the equipment, breathing gas, and communication requirements contained in paragraph (b) of this section.

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(b) Pressurized and nonpressurized cabin airplanes. Except as provided in paragraph (f) of this section, no person may operate an airplane unless protective breathing equipment meeting the requirements of this section is provided as follows: (1) General. The equipment must protect the flightcrew from the effects of smoke, carbon dioxide or other harmful gases or an oxygen deficient environment caused by other than an airplane depressurization while on flight deck duty and must protect crewmembers from the above effects while combatting fires on board the airplane. (2) The equipment must be inspected regularly in accordance with inspection guidelines and the inspection periods established by the equipment manufacturer to ensure its condition for continued serviceability and immediate readiness to perform its intended emergency purposes. The inspection periods may be changed upon a showing by the certificate holder that the changes would provide an equivalent level of safety. (3) That part of the equipment protecting the eyes must not impair the wearer's vision to the extent that a crewmember's duties cannot be accomplished and must allow corrective glasses to be worn without impairment of vision or loss of the protection required by paragraph (b)(1) of this section. (4) The equipment, while in use, must allow the flightcrew to communicate using the airplane radio equipment and to communicate by interphone with each other while at their assigned duty stations. The equipment, while in use, must also allow crewmember interphone communications between each of two flight crewmember stations in the pilot compartment and at least one normal flight attendant station in each passenger compartment. (5) The equipment, while in use, must allow any crewmember to use the airplane interphone system at any of the flight attendant stations referred to in paragraph (b)(4) of this section. (6) The equipment may also be used to meet the supplemental oxygen requirements of this part provided it meets the oxygen equipment standards of § 121.335 of this part. (7) Protective breathing gas duration and supply system equipment requirements are as follows: (i) The equipment must supply breathing gas for 15 minutes at a pressure altitude of 8,000 feet for the following: (A) Flight crewmembers while performing flight deck duties; and (B) Crewmembers while combatting an in-flight fire. (ii) The breathing gas system must be free from hazards in itself, in its method of operation, and in its effect upon other components. (iii) For breathing gas systems other than chemical oxygen generators, there must be a means to allow the crew to readily determine, during the equipment preflight described in paragraph (c) of this section, that the gas supply is fully charged. (iv) For each chemical oxygen generator, the supply system equipment must meet the requirements of § 25.1450 (b) and (c) of this chapter. (8) Smoke and fume protection. Protective breathing equipment with a fixed or portable breathing gas supply meeting the requirements of this section must be conveniently located on the flight deck and be easily accessible for immediate use by each required flight crewmember at his or her assigned duty station. (9) Fire combatting. Except for nontransport category airplanes type certificated after December 31, 1964, protective breathing equipment with a portable breathing gas supply meeting the requirements of this section must be easily accessible and conveniently located for immediate use by crewmembers in combatting fires as follows: (i) One PBE is required for each hand fire extinguisher located for use in a galley other than a galley located in a passenger, cargo, or crew compartment. (ii) One on the flight deck, except that the Administrator may authorize another location for this PBE if special circumstances exist that make compliance impractical and the proposed deviation would provide an equivalent level of safety.

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(iii) In each passenger compartment, one for each hand fire extinguisher required by § 121.309 of this part, to be located within 3 feet of each required hand fire extinguisher, except that the Administrator may authorize a deviation allowing locations of PBE more than 3 feet from required hand fire extinguisher locations if special circumstances exist that make compliance impractical and if the proposed deviation provides an equivalent level of safety. (c) Equipment preflight. (1) Before each flight, each item of PBE at flight crewmember duty stations must be checked by the flight crewmember who will use the equipment to ensure that the equipment— (i) For other than chemical oxygen generator systems, is functioning, is serviceable, fits properly (unless a universal-fit type), and is connected to supply terminals and that the breathing gas supply and pressure are adequate for use; and (ii) For chemical oxygen generator systems, is serviceable and fits properly (unless a universal-fit type). (2) Each item of PBE located at other than a flight crewmember duty station must be checked by a designated crewmember to ensure that each is properly stowed and serviceable, and, for other than chemical oxygen generator systems, the breathing gas supply is fully charged. Each certificate holder, in its operations manual, must designate at least one crewmember to perform those checks before he or she takes off in that airplane for his or her first flight of the day. [Docket 24792, 52 FR 20957, June 3, 1987, as amended by Amdt. 121-204, 54 FR 22271, May 22, 1989; Amdt. 121-212, 55 FR 5551, Feb. 15, 1990; Amdt. 121-218, 55 FR 31565, Aug. 2, 1990; Amdt. 121-230, 57 FR 42674, Sept. 15, 1992; Amdt. 121-251, 60 FR 65932, Dec. 20, 1995; Amdt. 121-261, 61 FR 43921, Aug. 26, 1996] § 121.339 Emergency equipment for extended over-water operations. (a) Except where the Administrator, by amending the operations specifications of the certificate holder, requires the carriage of all or any specific items of the equipment listed below for any overwater operation, or upon application of the certificate holder, the Administrator allows deviation for a particular extended overwater operation, no person may operate an airplane in extended overwater operations without having on the airplane the following equipment: (1) A life preserver equipped with an approved survivor locator light, for each occupant of the airplane. (2) Enough life rafts (each equipped with an approved survivor locator light) of a rated capacity and buoyancy to accommodate the occupants of the airplane. Unless excess rafts of enough capacity are provided, the buoyancy and seating capacity beyond the rated capacity of the rafts must accommodate all occupants of the airplane in the event of a loss of one raft of the largest rated capacity. (3) At least one pyrotechnic signaling device for each life raft. (4) An approved survival type emergency locator transmitter. Batteries used in this transmitter must be replaced (or recharged, if the battery is rechargeable) when the transmitter has been in use for more than 1 cumulative hour, or when 50 percent of their useful life (or for rechargeable batteries, 50 percent of their useful life of charge) has expired, as established by the transmitter manufacturer under its approval. The new expiration date for replacing (or recharging) the battery must be legibly marked on the outside of the transmitter. The battery useful life (or useful life of charge) requirements of this paragraph do not apply to batteries (such as water-activated batteries) that are essentially unaffected during probable storage intervals. (b) The required life rafts, life preservers, and survival type emergency locator transmitter must be easily accessible in the event of a ditching without appreciable time for preparatory procedures. This equipment must be installed in conspicuously marked, approved locations. (c) A survival kit, appropriately equipped for the route to be flown, must be attached to each required life raft.

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[Docket 6258, 29 FR 19205, Dec. 31, 1964, as amended by Amdt. 121-53, 34 FR 15244, Sept. 30, 1969; Amdt. 121-79, 36 FR 18724, Sept. 21, 1971; Amdt. 121-93, 37 FR 14294, June 19, 1972 Amdt. 121-106, 38 FR 22378, Aug. 20, 1973; Amdt. 121-149, 43 FR 50603, Oct. 30, 1978; Amdt. 121-158, 45 FR 38348, June 9, 1980; Amdt. 121-239, 59 FR 32057, June 21, 1994] § 121.340 Emergency flotation means. (a) Except as provided in paragraph (b) of this section, no person may operate an airplane in any overwater operation unless it is equipped with life preservers in accordance with § 121.339(a)(1) or with an approved flotation means for each occupant. This means must be within easy reach of each seated occupant and must be readily removable from the airplane. (b) Upon application by the air carrier or commercial operator, the Administrator may approve the operation of an airplane over water without the life preservers or flotation means required by paragraph (a) of this section, if the air carrier or commercial operator shows that the water over which the airplane is to be operated is not of such size and depth that life preservers or flotation means would be required for the survival of its occupants in the event the flight terminates in that water. [Docket 6713, 31 FR 1147, Jan. 28, 1966, as amended by Amdt. 121-25, 32 FR 3223, Feb. 24, 1967; Amdt. 121-251, 60 FR 65932, Dec. 20, 1995] § 121.341 Equipment for operations in icing conditions. (a) Except as permitted in paragraph (c)(2) of this section, unless an airplane is type certificated under the transport category airworthiness requirements relating to ice protection, or unless an airplane is a non-transport category airplane type certificated after December 31, 1964, that has the ice protection provisions that meet section 34 of appendix A of part 135 of this chapter, no person may operate an airplane in icing conditions unless it is equipped with means for the prevention or removal of ice on windshields, wings, empennage, propellers, and other parts of the airplane where ice formation will adversely affect the safety of the airplane. (b) No person may operate an airplane in icing conditions at night unless means are provided for illuminating or otherwise determining the formation of ice on the parts of the wings that are critical from the standpoint of ice accumulation. Any illuminating that is used must be of a type that will not cause glare or reflection that would handicap crewmembers in the performance of their duties. (c) Non-transport category airplanes type certificated after December 31, 1964. Except for an airplane that has ice protection provisions that meet section 34 of appendix A of part 135 of this chapter, or those for transport category airplane type certification, no person may operate— (1) Under IFR into known or forecast light or moderate icing conditions; (2) Under VFR into known light or moderate icing conditions; unless the airplane has functioning deicing anti-icing equipment protecting each propeller, windshield, wing, stabilizing or control surface, and each airspeed, altimeter, rate of climb, or flight attitude instrument system; or (3) Into known or forecast severe icing conditions. (d) If current weather reports and briefing information relied upon by the pilot in command indicate that the forecast icing condition that would otherwise prohibit the flight will not be encountered during the flight because of changed weather conditions since the forecast, the restrictions in paragraph (c) of this section based on forecast conditions do not apply. [Docket 6258, 29 FR 18205, Dec. 31, 1964, as amended by Amdt. 121-251, 60 FR 65929, Dec. 20, 1995] § 121.342 Pitot heat indication systems. No person may operate a transport category airplane or, after December 20, 1999, a nontransport category airplane type certificated after December 31, 1964, that is equipped with a flight instrument pitot heating system unless the airplane is also equipped with an operable pitot heat indication system that complies § 25.1326 of this chapter in effect on April 12, 1978.

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[Docket 28154, 60 FR 65932, Dec. 20, 1995] § 121.343 Flight data recorders. (a) Except as provided in paragraphs (b), (c), (d), (e), and (f) of this section, no person may operate a large airplane that is certificated for operations above 25,000 feet altitude or is turbine-engine powered unless it is equipped with one or more approved flight recorders that record data from which the following may be determined within the ranges, accuracies, and recording intervals specified in appendix B of this part: (1) Time; (2) Altitude; (3) Airspeed; (4) Vertical acceleration; (5) Heading; and (6) Time of each radio transmission either to or from air traffic control. (b) No person may operate a large airplane type certificated up to and including September 30, 1969, for operations above 25,000 feet altitude, or a turbine-engine powered airplane certificated before the same date, unless it is equipped before May 26, 1989 with one or more approved flight recorders that utilize a digital method of recording and storing data and a method of readily retrieving that data from the storage medium. The following information must be able to be determined within the ranges, accuracies, and recording intervals specified in appendix B of this part: (1) Time; (2) Altitude; (3) Airspeed; (4) Vertical acceleration; (5) Heading; and (6) Time of each radio transmission either to or from air traffic control. (c) Except as provided in paragraph (l) of this section, no person may operate an airplane specified in paragraph (b) of this section unless it is equipped, before May 26, 1995, with one or more approved flight recorders that utilize a digital method of recording and storing data and a method of readily retrieving that data from the storage medium. The following information must be able to be determined within the ranges, accuracies and recording intervals specified in appendix B of this part: (1) Time; (2) Altitude; (3) Airspeed; (4) Vertical acceleration; (5) Heading; (6) Time of each radio transmission either to or from air traffic control; (7) Pitch attitude; (8) Roll attitude; (9) Longitudinal acceleration; (10) Control column or pitch control surface position; and (11) Thrust of each engine. (d) No person may operate an airplane specified in paragraph (b) of this section that is manufactured after May 26, 1989, as well as airplanes specified in paragraph (a) of this section that have been type certificated after September 30, 1969, unless it is equipped with one or more approved flight recorders that utlitize a digital method of recording and storing data and a method of readily retrieving that data from the storage medium. The following information must be able to be determined within the ranges, accuracies, and recording intervals specified in appendix B of this part: (1) Time; (2) Altitude; (3) Airspeed; (4) Vertical acceleration; (5) Heading; (6) Time of each radio transmission either to or from air traffic control; (7) Pitch attitude; (8) Roll attitude; (9) Longitudinal acceleration; (10) Pitch trim position; (11) Control column or pitch control surface position; (12) Control wheel or lateral control surface position; (13) Rudder pedal or yaw control surface position; (14) Thrust of each engine; (15) Position of each thrust reverser; (16) Trailing edge flap or cockpit flap control position; and (17) Leading edge flap or cockpit flap control position. For the purpose of this section, manufactured means the point in time at which the airplane inspection acceptance records reflect that the airplane is

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complete and meets the FAA-approved type design data. (e) After October 11, 1991, no person may operate a large airplane equipped with a digital data bus and ARINC 717 digital flight data acquisition unit (DFDAU) or equivalent unless it is equipped with one or more approved flight recorders that utilize a digital method of recording and storing data and a method of readily retrieving that data from the storage medium. Any parameters specified in appendix B of this part that are available on the digital data bus must be recorded within the ranges, accuracies, resolutions, and sampling intervals specified. (f) After October 11, 1991, no person may operate an airplane specified in paragraph (b) of this section that is manufactured after October 11, 1991, nor an airplane specified in paragraph (a) of this section that has been type certificated after September 30, 1969, and manufactured after October 11, 1991, unless it is equipped with one or more flight recorders that utilize a digital method of recording and storing data and a method of readily retrieving that data from the storage medium. The parameters specified in appendix B of this part must be recorded within the ranges, accuracies, resolutions, and sampling intervals specified. (g) Whenever a flight recorder required by this section is installed, it must be operated continuously from the instant the airplane begins the takeoff roll until it has completed the landing roll at an airport. (h) Except as provided in paragraph (i) of this section, and except for recorded data erased as authorized in this paragraph, each certificate holder shall keep the recorded data prescribed in paragraph (a), (b), (c), or (d) of this section, as appropriate, until the airplane has been operated for at least 25 hours of the operating time specified in § 121.359(a). A total of 1 hour of recorded data may be erased for the purpose of testing the flight recorder or the flight recorder system. Any erasure made in accordance with this paragraph must be of the oldest recorded data accumulated at the time of testing. Except as provided in paragraph (i) of this section, no record need be kept more than 60 days. (i) In the event of an accident or occurrence that requires immediate notification of the National Transportation Safety Board under part 830 of its regulations and that results in termination of the flight, the certificate holder shall remove the recording media from the airplane and keep the recorded data required by paragraph (a), (b), (c), or (d) of this section, as appropriate, for at least 60 days or for a longer period upon the request of the Board or the Administrator. (j) Each flight recorder required by this section must be installed in accordance with the requirements of § 25.1459 of this chapter in effect on August 31, 1977. The correlation required by § 25.1459(c) of this chapter need be established only on one airplane of any group of airplanes— (1) That are of the same type; (2) On which the model flight recorder and its installation are the same; and (3) On which there is no difference in the type design with respect to the installation of those first pilot's instruments associated with the flight recorder. The most recent instrument calibration, including the recording medium from which this calibration is derived, and the recorder correlation must be retained by the certificate holder. (k) Each flight recorder required by this section that records the data specified in paragraph (a), (b), (c), or (d) of this section, as appropriate, must have an approved device to assist in locating that recorder under water. (l) No person may operate an airplane specified in paragraph (b) of this section that meets the Stage 2 noise levels of part 36 of this chapter and is subject to § 91.801(c) of this chapter unless it is equipped with one or more approved flight data recorders that utilize a digital method of recording and storing data and a method of readily retrieving that data from the storage medium. The information specified in paragraphs (c)(1) through (c)(11) of this section must be able to be determined within the ranges, accuracies and recording intervals specified in appendix B of this part. In addition—

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(1) This flight data recorder must be installed at the next heavy maintenance check after May 26, 1994, but no later than May 26, 1995. A heavy maintenance check is considered to be any time an aircraft is scheduled to be out of service for 4 or more days. (2) By June 23, 1994, each carrier must submit to the FAA Flight Standards Service, Air Transportation Division (AFS-200), documentation listing those airplanes covered under this paragraph and evidence that it has ordered a sufficient number of flight data recorders to meet the May 26, 1995, compliance date for all aircraft on that list. (3) After May 26, 1994, any aircraft that is modified to meet Stage 3 noise levels must have the flight data recorder described in paragraph (c) of this section installed before operating under this part. (m) After August 20, 2001, this section applies only to the airplane models listed in § 121.344(l)(2). All other airplanes must comply with the requirements of § 121.344, as applicable. [Docket 24418, 52 FR 9636, Mar. 25, 1987, as amended by Amdt. 121-197, 53 FR 26147, July 11, 1988; Amdt. 121-238, 59 FR 26900, May 24, 1994; Amdt. 121-338, 73 FR 12565, Mar. 7, 2008] § 121.344 Digital flight data recorders for transport category airplanes. (a) Except as provided in paragraph (l) of this section, no person may operate under this part a turbine-engine-powered transport category airplane unless it is equipped with one or more approved flight recorders that use a digital method of recording and storing data and a method of readily retrieving that data from the storage medium. The operational parameters required to be recorded by digital flight data recorders required by this section are as follows: The phrase “when an information source is installed” following a parameter indicates that recording of that parameter is not intended to require a change in installed equipment: (1) Time; (2) Pressure altitude; (3) Indicated airspeed; (4) Heading—primary flight crew reference (if selectable, record discrete, true or magnetic); (5) Normal acceleration (Vertical); (6) Pitch attitude; (7) Roll attitude; (8) Manual radio transmitter keying, or CVR/DFDR synchronization reference; (9) Thrust/power of each engine—primary flight crew reference; (10) Autopilot engagement status; (11) Longitudinal acceleration; (12) Pitch control input; (13) Lateral control input; (14) Rudder pedal input; (15) Primary pitch control surface position; (16) Primary lateral control surface position; (17) Primary yaw control surface position; (18) Lateral acceleration; (19) Pitch trim surface position or parameters of paragraph (a)(82) of this section if currently recorded; (20) Trailing edge flap or cockpit flap control selection (except when parameters of paragraph (a)(85) of this section apply); (21) Leading edge flap or cockpit flap control selection (except when parameters of paragraph (a)(86) of this section apply); (22) Each Thrust reverser position (or equivalent for propeller airplane); (23) Ground spoiler position or speed brake selection (except when parameters of paragraph (a)(87) of this section apply); (24) Outside or total air temperature; (25) Automatic Flight Control System (AFCS) modes and engagement status, including autothrottle; (26) Radio altitude (when an information source is installed); (27) Localizer deviation, MLS Azimuth; (28) Glideslope deviation, MLS Elevation; (29) Marker beacon passage; (30) Master warning; (31) Air/ground sensor (primary airplane system reference nose or main gear); (32) Angle of attack (when information source is installed); (33) Hydraulic pressure low (each system); (34) Ground speed (when an information source is installed); (35) Ground proximity warning system;

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(36) Landing gear position or landing gear cockpit control selection; (37) Drift angle (when an information source is installed); (38) Wind speed and direction (when an information source is installed); (39) Latitude and longitude (when an information source is installed); (40) Stick shaker/pusher (when an information source is installed); (41) Windshear (when an information source is installed); (42) Throttle/power lever position; (43) Additional engine parameters (as designated in Appendix M of this part); (44) Traffic alert and collision avoidance system; (45) DME 1 and 2 distances; (46) Nav 1 and 2 selected frequency; (47) Selected barometric setting (when an information source is installed); (48) Selected altitude (when an information source is installed); (49) Selected speed (when an information source is installed); (50) Selected mach (when an information source is installed); (51) Selected vertical speed (when an information source is installed); (52) Selected heading (when an information source is installed); (53) Selected flight path (when an information source is installed); (54) Selected decision height (when an information source is installed); (55) EFIS display format; (56) Multi-function/engine/alerts display format; (57) Thrust command (when an information source is installed); (58) Thrust target (when an information source is installed); (59) Fuel quantity in CG trim tank (when an information source is installed); (60) Primary Navigation System Reference; (61) Icing (when an information source is installed); (62) Engine warning each engine vibration (when an information source is installed); (63) Engine warning each engine over temp. (when an information source is installed); (64) Engine warning each engine oil pressure low (when an information source is installed); (65) Engine warning each engine over speed (when an information source is installed); (66) Yaw trim surface position; (67) Roll trim surface position; (68) Brake pressure (selected system); (69) Brake pedal application (left and right); (70) Yaw or sideslip angle (when an information source is installed); (71) Engine bleed valve position (when an information source is installed); (72) De-icing or anti-icing system selection (when an information source is installed); (73) Computed center of gravity (when an information source is installed); (74) AC electrical bus status; (75) DC electrical bus status; (76) APU bleed valve position (when an information source is installed); (77) Hydraulic pressure (each system); (78) Loss of cabin pressure; (79) Computer failure; (80) Heads-up display (when an information source is installed); (81) Para-visual display (when an information source is installed); (82) Cockpit trim control input position—pitch; (83) Cockpit trim control input position—roll; (84) Cockpit trim control input position—yaw; (85) Trailing edge flap and cockpit flap control position; (86) Leading edge flap and cockpit flap control position; (87) Ground spoiler position and speed brake selection; (88) All cockpit flight control input forces (control wheel, control column, rudder pedal); (89) Yaw damper status; (90) Yaw damper command; and (91) Standby rudder valve status. (b) For all turbine-engine powered transport category airplanes manufactured on or before October 11, 1991, by August 20, 2001. (1) For airplanes not equipped as of July 16, 1996, with a flight data acquisition unit (FDAU), the parameters listed in paragraphs (a)(1) through (a)(18) of this section must be recorded within the ranges and accuracies specified in Appendix B of this part, and—

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(i) For airplanes with more than two engines, the parameter described in paragraph (a)(18) is not required unless sufficient capacity is available on the existing recorder to record that parameter; (ii) Parameters listed in paragraphs (a)(12) through (a)(17) each may be recorded from a single source. (2) For airplanes that were equipped as of July 16, 1996, with a flight data acquisition unit (FDAU), the parameters listed in paragraphs (a)(1) through (a)(22) of this section must be recorded within the ranges, accuracies, and recording intervals specified in Appendix M of this part. Parameters listed in paragraphs (a)(12) through (a)(17) each may be recorded from a single source. (3) The approved flight recorder required by this section must be installed at the earliest time practicable, but no later than the next heavy maintenance check after August 18, 1999 and no later than August 20, 2001. A heavy maintenance check is considered to be any time an airplane is scheduled to be out of service for 4 or more days and is scheduled to include access to major structural components. (c) For all turbine-engine powered transport category airplanes manufactured on or before October 11, 1991— (1) That were equipped as of July 16, 1996, with one or more digital data bus(es) and an ARINC 717 digital flight data acquisition unit (DFDAU) or equivalent, the parameters specified in paragraphs (a)(1) through (a)(22) of this section must be recorded within the ranges, accuracies, resolutions, and sampling intervals specified in Appendix M of this part by August 20, 2001. Parameters listed in paragraphs (a)(12) through (a)(14) each may be recorded from a single source. (2) Commensurate with the capacity of the recording system (DFDAU or equivalent and the DFDR), all additional parameters for which information sources are installed and which are connected to the recording system must be recorded within the ranges, accuracies, resolutions, and sampling intervals specified in Appendix M of this part by August 20, 2001. (3) That were subject to § 121.343(e) of this part, all conditions of § 121.343(e) must continue to be met until compliance with paragraph (c)(1) of this section is accomplished. (d) For all turbine-engine-powered transport category airplanes that were manufactured after October 11, 1991— (1) The parameters listed in paragraph (a)(1) through (a)(34) of this section must be recorded within the ranges, accuracies, resolutions, and recording intervals specified in Appendix M of this part by August 20, 2001. Parameters listed in paragraphs (a)(12) through (a)(14) each may be recorded from a single source. (2) Commensurate with the capacity of the recording system, all additional parameters for which information sources are installed and which are connected to the recording system must be recorded within the ranges, accuracies, resolutions, and sampling intervals specified in Appendix M of this part by August 20, 2001. (e) For all turbine-engine-powered transport category airplanes that are manufactured after August 18, 2000— (1) The parameters listed in paragraph (a)(1) through (57) of this section must be recorded within the ranges, accuracies, resolutions, and recording intervals specified in Appendix M of this part. (2) Commensurate with the capacity of the recording system, all additional parameters for which information sources are installed and which are connected to the recording system, must be recorded within the ranges, accuracies, resolutions, and sampling intervals specified in Appendix M of this part. (3) In addition to the requirements of paragraphs (e)(1) and (e)(2) of this section, all Boeing 737 model airplanes must also comply with the requirements of paragraph (n) of this section, as applicable. (f) For all turbine-engine-powered transport category airplanes manufactured after August 19, 2002— (1) The parameters listed in paragraphs (a)(1) through (a)(88) of this section must be recorded within the ranges, accuracies, resolutions, and recording intervals specified in appendix M to this part.

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(2) In addition to the requirements of paragraphs (f)(1) of this section, all Boeing 737 model airplanes must also comply with the requirements of paragraph (n) of this section. (g) Whenever a flight data recorder required by this section is installed, it must be operated continuously from the instant the airplane begins its takeoff roll until it has completed its landing roll. (h) Except as provided in paragraph (i) of this section, and except for recorded data erased as authorized in this paragraph, each certificate holder shall keep the recorded data prescribed by this section, as appropriate, until the airplane has been operated for at least 25 hours of the operating time specified in § 121.359(a) of this part. A total of 1 hour of recorded data may be erased for the purpose of testing the flight recorder or the flight recorder system. Any erasure made in accordance with this paragraph must be of the oldest recorded data accumulated at the time of testing. Except as provided in paragraph (i) of this section, no record need be kept more than 60 days. (i) In the event of an accident or occurrence that requires immediate notification of the National Transportation Safety Board under 49 CFR 830 of its regulations and that results in termination of the flight, the certificate holder shall remove the recorder from the airplane and keep the recorder data prescribed by this section, as appropriate, for at least 60 days or for a longer period upon the request of the Board or the Administrator. (j) Each flight data recorder system required by this section must be installed in accordance with the requirements of § 25.1459(a) (except paragraphs (a)(3)(ii) and (a)(7)), (b), (d) and (e) of this chapter. A correlation must be established between the values recorded by the flight data recorder and the corresponding values being measured. The correlation must contain a sufficient number of correlation points to accurately establish the conversion from the recorded values to engineering units or discrete state over the full operating range of the parameter. Except for airplanes having separate altitude and airspeed sensors that are an integral part of the flight data recorder system, a single correlation may be established for any group of airplanes— (1) That are of the same type; (2) On which the flight recorder system and its installation are the same; and (3) On which there is no difference in the type design with respect to the installation of those sensors associated with the flight data recorder system. Documentation sufficient to convert recorded data into the engineering units and discrete values specified in the applicable appendix must be maintained by the certificate holder. (k) Each flight data recorder required by this section must have an approved device to assist in locating that recorder under water. (l) The following airplanes that were manufactured before August 18, 1997 need not comply with this section, but must continue to comply with applicable paragraphs of § 121.343 of this chapter, as appropriate: (1) Airplanes that meet the State 2 noise levels of part 36 of this chapter and are subject to § 91.801(c) of this chapter, until January 1, 2000. On and after January 1, 2000, any Stage 2 airplane otherwise allowed to be operated under Part 91 of this chapter must comply with the applicable flight data recorder requirements of this section for that airplane. (2) British Aerospace 1-11, General Dynamics Convair 580, General Dynamics Convair 600, General Dynamics Convair 640, deHavilland Aircraft Company Ltd. DHC-7, Fairchild Industries FH 227, Fokker F-27 (except Mark 50), F-28 Mark 1000 and Mark 4000, Gulfstream Aerospace G-159, Jetstream 4100 Series, Lockheed Aircraft Corporation Electra 10-A, Lockheed Aircraft Corporation Electra 10-B, Lockheed Aircraft Corporation Electra 10-E, Lockheed Aircraft Corporation Electra L-188, Lockheed Martin Model 382 (L-100) Hercules, Maryland Air Industries, Inc. F27, Mitsubishi Heavy Industries, Ltd. YS-11, Short Bros. Limited SD3-30, Short Bros. Limited SD3-60. (m) All aircraft subject to the requirements of this section that are manufactured on or after April 7, 2010, must have a digital flight data recorder installed that also—

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(1) Meets the requirements of § 25.1459(a)(3), (a)(7), and (a)(8) of this chapter; and (2) Retains the 25 hours of recorded information required in paragraph (h) of this section using a recorder that meets the standards of TSO-C124a, or later revision. (n) In addition to all other applicable requirements of this section, all Boeing 737 model airplanes manufactured after August 18, 2000 must record the parameters listed in paragraphs (a)(88) through (a)(91) of this section within the ranges, accuracies, resolutions, and recording intervals specified in Appendix M to this part. Compliance with this paragraph is required no later than February 2, 2011. [Docket 28109, 62 FR 38378, July 17, 1997; 62 FR 48135, Sept. 12, 1997, as amended by Amdt. 121-300, 68 FR 42936, July 18, 2003; 68 FR 50069, Aug. 20, 2003; Amdt. 121-338, 73 FR 12565, Mar. 7, 2008; Amdt. 121-342, 73 FR 73178, Dec. 2, 2008; Amdt. 121-338, 74 FR 32800, July 9, 2009] § 121.344a Digital flight data recorders for 10-19 seat airplanes. (a) Except as provided in paragraph (f) of this section, no person may operate under this part a turbine-engine-powered airplane having a passenger seating configuration, excluding any required crewmember seat, of 10 to 19 seats, that was brought onto the U.S. register after, or was registered outside the United States and added to the operator's U.S. operations specifications after, October 11, 1991, unless it is equipped with one or more approved flight recorders that use a digital method of recording and storing data and a method of readily retrieving that data from the storage medium. On or before August 20, 2001, airplanes brought onto the U.S. register after October 11, 1991, must comply with either the requirements in this section or the applicable paragraphs in § 135.152 of this chapter. In addition, by August 20, 2001. (1) The parameters listed in §§ 121.344(a)(1) through 121.344(a)(18) of this part must be recorded with the ranges, accuracies, and resolutions specified in Appendix B of part 135 of this chapter, except that— (i) Either the parameter listed in § 121.344 (a)(12) or (a)(15) of this part must be recorded; either the parameters listed in § 121.344(a)(13) or (a)(16) of this part must be recorded; and either the parameter listed in § 121.344(a)(14) or (a)(17) of this part must be recorded. (ii) For airplanes with more than two engines, the parameter described in § 121.344(a)(18) of this part must also be recorded if sufficient capacity is available on the existing recorder to record that parameter; (iii) Parameters listed in §§ 121.344(a)(12) through 121.344(a)(17) of this part each may be recorded from a single source; (iv) Any parameter for which no value is contained in Appendix B of part 135 of this chapter must be recorded within the ranges, accuracies, and resolutions specified in Appendix M of this part. (2) Commensurate with the capacity of the recording system (FDAU or equivalent and the DFDR), the parameters listed in §§ 121.344(a)(19) through 121.344(a)(22) of this part also must be recorded within the ranges, accuracies, resolutions, and recording intervals specified in Appendix B of part 135 of this chapter. (3) The approved flight recorder required by this section must be installed as soon as practicable, but no later than the next heavy maintenance check or equivalent after August 18, 1999. A heavy maintenance check is considered to be any time an airplane is scheduled to be out of service for 4 more days and is scheduled to include access to major structural components. (b) For a turbine-engine-powered airplanes having a passenger seating configuration, excluding any required crewmember seat, of 10 to 19 seats, that are manufactured after August 18, 2000. (1) The parameters listed in §§ 121.344(a)(1) through 121.344(a)(57) of this part, must be recorded within the ranges, accuracies, resolutions, and recording intervals specified in Appendix M of this part. (2) Commensurate with the capacity of the recording system, all additional parameters listed in § 121.344(a) of this part for which information sources are installed and which are connected to the recording system, must be recorded within the ranges, accuracies, resolutions, and sampling intervals specified in Appendix M of this part by August 20, 2001.

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(c) For all turbine-engine-powered airplanes having a passenger seating configuration, excluding any required crewmember seats, of 10 to 19 seats, that are manufactured after August 19, 2002, the parameters listed in § 121.344(a)(1) through (a)(88) of this part must be recorded within the ranges, accuracies, resolutions, and recording intervals specified in Appendix M of this part. (d) Each flight data recorder system required by this section must be installed in accordance with the requirements of § 23.1459(a) (except paragraphs (a)(3)(ii) and (6)), (b), (d) and (e) of this chapter. A correlation must be established between the values recorded by the flight data recorder and the corresponding values being measured. The correlation must contain a sufficient number of correlation points to accurately establish the conversion from the recorded values to engineering units or discrete state over the full operating range of the parameter. A single correlation may be established for any group of airplanes— (1) That are of the same type; (2) On which the flight recorder system and its installation are the same; and (3) On which there is no difference in the type design with respect to the installation of those sensors associated with the flight data recorder system. Correlation documentation must be maintained by the certificate holder. (e) All airplanes subject to this section are also subject to the requirements and exceptions stated in § 121.344(g) through (k) and § 121.346. (f) For airplanes that were manufactured before August 18, 1997, the following airplane types need not comply with this section, but must continue to comply with applicable paragraphs of § 135.152 of this chapter, as appropriate: Beech Aircraft-99 Series, Beech Aircraft 1300, Beech Aircraft 1900C, Construcciones Aeronauticas, S.A. (CASA) C-212, deHavilland DHC-6, Dornier 228, HS-748, Embraer EMB 110, Jetstream 3101, Jetstream 3201, Fairchild Aircraft SA-226, Fairchild Metro SA-227. (g) All airplanes subject to the requirements of this section that are manufactured on or after April 7, 2010, must have a digital flight data recorder installed that also— (1) Meets the requirements in § 23.1459(a)(3), (a)(6), and (a)(7) or § 25.1459(a)(3), (a)(7), and (a)(8) of this chapter, as applicable; and (2) Retains the 25 hours of recorded information required in § 121.344(g) using a recorder that meets the standards of TSO-C124a, or later revision. [Docket 28109, 62 FR 38380, July 17, 1997; 62 FR 48135, Sept. 12, 1997; 62 FR 65202, Dec. 11, 1997, as amended by Amdt. 121-300, 68 FR 42936, July 18, 2003; Amdt. 121-338, 73 FR 12566, Mar. 7, 2008; Amdt. 121-338, 74 FR 32801, July 9, 2009; Amdt. 121-347, 75 FR 7356, Feb. 19, 2010] § 121.345 Radio equipment. (a) No person may operate an airplane unless it is equipped with radio equipment required for the kind of operation being conducted. (b) Where two independent (separate and complete) radio systems are required by §§ 121.347 and 121.349, each system must have an independent antenna installation except that, where rigidly supported nonwire antennas or other antenna installations of equivalent reliability are used, only one antenna is required. (c) ATC transponder equipment installed within the time periods indicated below must meet the performance and environmental requirements of the following TSO's: (1) Through January 1, 1992: (i) Any class of TSO-C74b or any class of TSO-C74c as appropriate, provided that the equipment was manufactured before January 1, 1990; or (ii) The appropriate class of TSO-C112 (Mode S). (2) After January 1, 1992: The appropriate class of TSO-C112 (Mode S). For purposes of paragraph (c) (2) of this section, “installation” does not include— (i) Temporary installation of TSO-C74b or TSO-C74c substitute equipment, as appropriate, during maintenance of the permanent equipment; (ii) Reinstallation of equipment after temporary removal for maintenance; or (iii) For fleet operations, installation of equipment in a fleet aircraft after removal of the equipment for maintenance from another aircraft in the same operator's fleet.

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[Docket 6258, 29 FR 19205, Dec. 31, 1964, as amended by Amdt. 121-101, 37 FR 28499, Dec. 27, 1972; Amdt. 121-190, 52 FR 3391, Feb. 3, 1987] § 121.346 Flight data recorders: filtered data. (a) A flight data signal is filtered when an original sensor signal has been changed in any way, other than changes necessary to: (1) Accomplish analog to digital conversion of the signal; (2) Format a digital signal to be DFDR compatible; or (3) Eliminate a high frequency component of a signal that is outside the operational bandwidth of the sensor. (b) An original sensor signal for any flight recorder parameter required to be recorded under § 121.344 may be filtered only if the recorded signal value continues to meet the requirements of Appendix B or M of this part, as applicable. (c) For a parameter described in § 121.344(a) (12) through (17), (42), or (88), or the corresponding parameter in Appendix B of this part, if the recorded signal value is filtered and does not meet the requirements of Appendix B or M of this part, as applicable, the certificate holder must: (1) Remove the filtering and ensure that the recorded signal value meets the requirements of Appendix B or M of this part, as applicable; or (2) Demonstrate by test and analysis that the original sensor signal value can be reconstructed from the recorded data. This demonstration requires that: (i) The FAA determine that the procedure and the test results submitted by the certificate holder as its compliance with paragraph (c)(2) of this section are repeatable; and (ii) The certificate holder maintains documentation of the procedure required to reconstruct the original sensor signal value. This documentation is also subject to the requirements of § 121.344(i). (d) Compliance. Compliance is required as follows: (1) No later than October 20, 2011, each operator must determine, for each airplane on its operations specifications, whether the airplane's DFDR system is filtering any of the parameters listed in paragraph (c) of this section. The operator must create a record of this determination for each airplane it operates, and maintain it as part of the correlation documentation required by § 121.344(j)(3) of this part. (2) For airplanes that are not filtering any listed parameter, no further action is required unless the airplane's DFDR system is modified in a manner that would cause it to meet the definition of filtering on any listed parameter. (3) For airplanes found to be filtering a parameter listed in paragraph (c) of this section, the operator must either: (i) No later than April 21, 2014, remove the filtering; or (ii) No later than April 22, 2013, submit the necessary procedure and test results required by paragraph (c)(2) of this section. (4) After April 21, 2014, no aircraft flight data recording system may filter any parameter listed in paragraph (c) of this section that does not meet the requirements of Appendix B or M of this part, unless the certificate holder possesses test and analysis procedures and the test results that have been approved by the FAA. All records of tests, analysis and procedures used to comply with this section must be maintained as part of the correlation documentation required by § 121.344(j)(3) of this part. [Docket FAA-2006-26135, 75 FR 7356, Feb. 19, 2010] § 121.347 Communication and navigation equipment for operations under VFR over routes navigated by pilotage. (a) No person may operate an airplane under VFR over routes that can be navigated by pilotage unless the airplane is equipped with the radio communication equipment necessary under normal operating conditions to fulfill the following: (1) Communicate with at least one appropriate station from any point on the route;

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(2) Communicate with appropriate air traffic control facilities from any point within Class B, Class C, or Class D airspace, or within a Class E surface area designated for an airport in which flights are intended; and (3) Receive meteorological information from any point en route by either of two independent systems. One of the means provided to comply with this subparagraph may be used to comply with paragraphs (a)(1) and (2) of this section. (b) No person may operate an airplane at night under VFR over routes that can be navigated by pilotage unless that airplane is equipped with— (1) Radio communication equipment necessary under normal operating conditions to fulfill the functions specified in paragraph (a) of this section; and (2) Navigation equipment suitable for the route to be flown. [Docket 6258, 29 FR 19205, Dec. 31, 1964, as amended by Amdt. 121-226, 56 FR 65663, Dec. 17, 1991; Amdt. 121-333, 72 FR 31681, June 7, 2007] § 121.349 Communication and navigation equipment for operations under VFR over routes not navigated by pilotage or for operations under IFR or over the top. (a) Navigation equipment requirements—General. No person may conduct operations under VFR over routes that cannot be navigated by pilotage, or operations conducted under IFR or over the top, unless— (1) The en route navigation aids necessary for navigating the airplane along the route (e.g., ATS routes, arrival and departure routes, and instrument approach procedures, including missed approach procedures if a missed approach routing is specified in the procedure) are available and suitable for use by the aircraft navigation systems required by this section; (2) The airplane used in those operations is equipped with at least— (i) Except as provided in paragraph (c) of this section, two approved independent navigation systems suitable for navigating the airplane along the route to be flown within the degree of accuracy required for ATC; (ii) One marker beacon receiver providing visual and aural signals; and (iii) One ILS receiver; and (3) Any RNAV system used to meet the navigation equipment requirements of this section is authorized in the certificate holder's operations specifications. (b) Communication equipment requirements. No person may operate an airplane under VFR over routes that cannot be navigated by pilotage, and no person may operate an airplane under IFR or over the top, unless the airplane is equipped with— (1) At least two independent communication systems necessary under normal operating conditions to fulfill the functions specified in § 121.347 (a); and (2) At least one of the communication systems required by paragraph (b)(1) of this section must have two-way voice communication capability. (c) Use of a single independent navigation system for operations under VFR over routes that cannot be navigated by pilotage, or operations conducted under IFR or over the top. Notwithstanding the requirements of paragraph (a)(2)(i) of this section, the airplane may be equipped with a single independent navigation system suitable for navigating the airplane along the route to be flown within the degree of accuracy required for ATC if: (1) It can be shown that the airplane is equipped with at least one other independent navigation system suitable, in the event of loss of the navigation capability of the single independent navigation system permitted by this paragraph at any point along the route, for proceeding safely to a suitable airport and completing an instrument approach; and (2) The airplane has sufficient fuel so that the flight may proceed safely to a suitable airport by use of the remaining navigation system, and complete an instrument approach and land. (d) Use of VOR navigation equipment. If VOR navigation equipment is used to comply with paragraph (a) or (c) of this section, no person may operate an airplane unless it is equipped with at least one approved DME or suitable RNAV system. (e) Additional communication system equipment requirements for operators subject to § 121.2. In addition to the requirements in paragraph (b) of this section, no person may operate an airplane having a passenger seat configuration of 10 to 30 seats, excluding each crewmember seat, and a maximum payload capacity of 7,500 pounds or less, under IFR, over the top, or in extended over-water operations unless it is equipped with at least—

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(1) Two microphones; and (2) Two headsets, or one headset and one speaker. [Docket FAA-2002-14002, 72 FR 31681, June 7, 2007] § 121.351 Communication and navigation equipment for extended over-water operations and for certain other operations. (a) Except as provided in paragraph (c) of this section, no person may conduct an extended over-water operation unless the airplane is equipped with at least two independent long-range navigation systems and at least two independent long-range communication systems necessary under normal operating conditions to fulfill the following functions— (1) Communicate with at least one appropriate station from any point on the route; (2) Receive meteorological information from any point on the route by either of two independent communication systems. One of the communication systems used to comply with this paragraph may be used to comply with paragraphs (a)(1) and (a)(3) of this section; and (3) At least one of the communication systems must have two-way voice communication capability. (b) No certificate holder conducting a flag or supplemental operation or a domestic operation within the State of Alaska may conduct an operation without the equipment specified in paragraph (a) of this section, if the Administrator finds that equipment to be necessary for search and rescue operations because of the nature of the terrain to be flown over. (c) Notwithstanding the requirements of paragraph (a) of this section, installation and use of a single LRNS and a single LRCS may be authorized by the Administrator and approved in the certificate holder's operations specifications for operations and routes in certain geographic areas. The following are among the operational factors the Administrator may consider in granting an authorization: (1) The ability of the flightcrew to navigate the airplane along the route within the degree of accuracy required for ATC, (2) The length of the route being flown, and (3) The duration of the very high frequency communications gap. [Docket 6258, 29 FR 19205, Dec. 31, 1964, as amended by Amdt. 121-253, 61 FR 2611, Jan. 26, 1996; Amdt. 121-254, 61 FR 7191, Feb. 26, 1996; Amdt. 121-333, 72 FR 31682, June 7, 2007] § 121.353 Emergency equipment for operations over uninhabited terrain areas: Flag, supplemental, and certain domestic operations. Unless the airplane has the following equipment, no person may conduct a flag or supplemental operation or a domestic operation within the States of Alaska or Hawaii over an uninhabited area or any other area that (in its operations specifications) the Administrator specifies required equipment for search and rescue in case of an emergency: (a) Suitable pyrotechnic signaling devices. (b) An approved survival type emergency locator transmitter. Batteries used in this transmitter must be replaced (or recharged, if the battery is rechargeable) when the transmitter has been in use for more than 1 cumulative hour, or when 50 percent of their useful life (or for rechargeable batteries, 50 percent of their useful life of charge) has expired, as established by the transmitter manufacturer under its approval. The new expiration date for replacing (or recharging) the battery must be legibly marked on the outside of the transmitter. The battery useful life (or useful life of charge) requirements of this paragraph do not apply to batteries (such as water-activated batteries) that are essentially unaffected during probable storage intervals. (c) Enough survival kits, appropriately equipped for the route to be flown for the number of occupants of the airplane.

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[Docket 6258, 29 FR 19205, Dec. 31, 1964, as amended by Amdt. 121-79, 36 FR 18724, Sept. 21, 1971; Amdt. 121-106, 38 FR 22378 Aug. 20, 1973; Amdt. 121-158, 45 FR 38348, June 9, 1980; Amdt. 121-239, 59 FR 32057, June 21, 1994; Amdt. 121-251, 60 FR 65932, Dec. 20, 1995] § 121.354 Terrain awareness and warning system. (a) Airplanes manufactured after March 29, 2002. No person may operate a turbine-powered airplane unless that airplane is equipped with an approved terrain awareness and warning system that meets the requirements for Class A equipment in Technical Standard Order (TSO)-C151. The airplane must also include an approved terrain situational awareness display. (b) Airplanes manufactured on or before March 29, 2002. No person may operate a turbine-powered airplane after March 29, 2005, unless that airplane is equipped with an approved terrain awareness and warning system that meets the requirements for Class A equipment in Technical Standard Order (TSO)-C151. The airplane must also include an approved terrain situational awareness display. (Approved by the Office of Management and Budget under control number 2120-0631) (c) Airplane Flight Manual. The Airplane Flight Manual shall contain appropriate procedures for— (1) The use of the terrain awareness and warning system; and (2) Proper flight crew reaction in response to the terrain awareness and warning system audio and visual warnings. [Docket 29312, 65 FR 16755, Mar. 29, 2000] § 121.355 Equipment for operations on which specialized means of navigation are used. (a) No certificate holder may conduct an operation— (1) Using Doppler Radar or an Inertial Navigation System outside the 48 contiguous States and the District of Columbia, unless such systems have been approved in accordance with appendix G to this part; or (2) Using Doppler Radar or an Inertial Navigation System within the 48 contiguous States and the District of Columbia, or any other specialized means of navigation, unless it shows that an adequate airborne system is provided for the specialized navigation authorized for the particular operation. (b) Notwithstanding paragraph (a) of this section, Doppler Radar and Inertial Navigation Systems, and the training programs, maintenance programs, relevant operations manual material, and minimum equipment lists prepared in accordance therewith, approved before April 29, 1972, are not required to be approved in accordance with that paragraph. [Docket 10204, 37 FR 6464, Mar. 30, 1972] § 121.356 Collision avoidance system. Effective January 1, 2005, any airplane you operate under this part must be equipped and operated according to the following table: Collision Avoidance Systems

If you operate any—	Then you must operate that airplane with—
(a) Turbine-powered airplane of more than 33,000 pounds maximum certificated takeoff weight	(1) An appropriate class of Mode S transponder that meets Technical Standard Order (TSO) C-112, or a later version, and one of the following approved units: (i) TCAS II that meets TSO C-119b (version 7.0), or takeoff weight a later version.
	(ii) TCAS II that meets TSO C-119a (version 6.04A Enhanced) that was installed in that airplane before May 1, 2003. If that TCAS II version 6.04A Enhanced no longer can be repaired to TSO C-119a standards, it must be replaced with a TCAS II that meets TSO C-119b (version 7.0), or a later version. (iii) A collision avoidance system equivalent to TSO C-119b (version 7.0), or a later version, capable of coordinating with units that meet TSO C-119a (version 6.04A Enhanced), or a later version.
(b) Passenger or combination cargo/passenger (combi) airplane that has a passenger seat configuration of 10-30 seats	(1) TCAS I that meets TSO C-118, or a later version, or (2) A collision avoidance system equivalent to has a TSO C-118, or a later version, or (3) A collision avoidance system and Mode S transponder that meet paragraph (a)(1) of this section.
(c) Piston-powered airplane of more than 33,000 pounds maximum certificated takeoff weight	(1) TCAS I that meets TSO C-118, or a later version, or (2) A collision avoidance system equivalent to maximum TSO C-118, or a later version, or (3) A collision avoidance system and Mode S transponder that meet paragraph (a)(1) of this section.

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[Docket FAA-2001-10910, 68 FR 15902, Apr. 1, 2003] § 121.357 Airborne weather radar equipment requirements. (a) No person may operate any transport category airplane (except C-46 type airplanes) or a nontransport category airplane certificated after December 31, 1964, unless approved airborne weather radar equipment has been installed in the airplane. (b) [Reserved] (c) Each person operating an airplane required to have approved airborne weather radar equipment installed shall, when using it under this part, operate it in accordance with the following: (1) Dispatch. No person may dispatch an airplane (or begin the flight of an airplane in the case of a certificate holder, that does not use a dispatch system) under IFR or night VFR conditions when current weather reports indicate that thunderstorms, or other potentially hazardous weather conditions that can be detected with airborne weather radar, may reasonably be expected along the route to be flown, unless the airborne weather radar equipment is in satisfactory operating condition. (2) If the airborne weather radar becomes inoperative en route, the airplane must be operated in accordance with the approved instructions and procedures specified in the operations manual for such an event. (d) This section does not apply to airplanes used solely within the State of Hawaii or within the State of Alaska and that part of Canada west of longitude 130 degrees W, between latitude 70 degrees N, and latitude 53 degrees N, or during any training, test, or ferry flight. (e) Notwithstanding any other provision of this chapter, an alternate electrical power supply is not required for airborne weather radar equipment. [Docket 6258, 29 FR 19205, Dec. 31, 1964, as amended by Amdt. 121-18, 31 FR 5825, Apr. 15, 1966; Amdt. 121-130, 41 FR 47229, Oct. 28, 1976; Amdt. 121-251, 60 FR 65932, Dec. 20, 1995] § 121.358 Low-altitude windshear system equipment requirements. (a) Airplanes manufactured after January 2, 1991. No person may operate a turbine-powered airplane manufactured after January 2, 1991, unless it is equipped with either an approved airborne windshear warning and flight guidance system, an approved airborne detection and avoidance system, or an approved combination of these systems. (b) Airplanes manufactured before January 3, 1991. Except as provided in paragraph (c) of this section, after January 2, 1991, no person may operate a turbine-powered airplane manufactured before January 3, 1991 unless it meets one of the following requirements as applicable. (1) The makes/models/series listed below must be equipped with either an approved airborne windshear warning and flight guidance system, an approved airborne detection and avoidance system, or an approved combination of these systems: (i) A-300-600; (ii) A-310—all series; (iii) A-320—all series; (iv) B-737-300, 400, and 500 series; (v) B-747-400; (vi) B-757—all series; (vii) B-767—all series; (viii) F-100—all series; (ix) MD-11—all series; and (x) MD-80 series equipped with an EFIS and Honeywell-970 digital flight guidance computer. (2) All other turbine-powered airplanes not listed above must be equipped with as a minimum requirement, an approved airborne windshear warning system. These airplanes may be equipped with an approved airborne windshear detection and avoidance system, or an approved combination of these systems. (c) Extension of the compliance date. A certificate holder may obtain an extension of the compliance date in paragraph (b) of this section if it obtains FAA approval of a retrofit schedule. To obtain approval of a retrofit schedule and show continued compliance with that schedule, a certificate holder must do the following: (1) Submit a request for approval of a retrofit schedule by June 1, 1990, to the appropriate Flight Standards division manager in the responsible Flight Standards office.

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(2) Show that all of the certificate holder's airplanes required to be equipped in accordance with this section will be equipped by the final compliance date established for TCAS II retrofit. (3) Comply with its retrofit schedule and submit status reports containing information acceptable to the Administrator. The initial report must be submitted by January 2, 1991, and subsequent reports must be submitted every six months thereafter until completion of the schedule. The reports must be submitted to the certificate holder's assigned Principal Avionics Inspector. (d) Definitions. For the purposes of this section the following definitions apply— (1) Turbine-powered airplane includes, e.g., turbofan-, turbojet-, propfan-, and ultra-high bypass fan-powered airplanes. The definition specifically excludes turbopropeller-powered airplanes. (2) An airplane is considered manufactured on the date the inspection acceptance records reflect that the airplane is complete and meets the FAA Approved Type Design data. [Docket 25954, 55 FR 13242, Apr. 9, 1990, as amended by Docket FAA-2018-0119, Amdt. 121-380, 83 FR 9173, Mar. 5, 2018] § 121.359 Cockpit voice recorders. (a) No certificate holder may operate a large turbine engine powered airplane or a large pressurized airplane with four reciprocating engines unless an approved cockpit voice recorder is installed in that airplane and is operated continuously from the start of the use of the checklist (before starting engines for the purpose of flight), to completion of the final checklist at the termination of the flight. (b) [Reserved] (c) The cockpit voice recorder required by paragraph (a) of this section must meet the following application standards: (1) The requirements of part 25 of this chapter in affect on August 31, 1977. (2) After September 1, 1980, each recorder container must— (i) Be either bright orange or bright yellow; (ii) Have reflective tape affixed to the external surface to facilitate its location under water; and (iii) Have an approved underwater locating device on or adjacent to the container which is secured in such a manner that they are not likely to be separated during crash impact, unless the cockpit voice recorder, and the flight recorder required by § 121.343, are installed adjacent to each other in such a manner that they are not likely to be separated during crash impact. (d) No person may operate a multiengine, turbine-powered airplane having a passenger seat configuration of 10-19 seats unless it is equipped with an approved cockpit voice recorder that: (1) Is installed in compliance with § 23.1457(a)(1) and (2), (b), (c), (d)(1)(i), (2) and (3), (e), (f), and (g); or § 25.1457(a)(1) and (2), (b), (c), (d)(1)(i), (2) and (3), (e), (f), and (g) of this chapter, as applicable; and (2) Is operated continuously from the use of the checklist before the flight to completion of the final checklist at the end of the flight. (e) No person may operate a multiengine, turbine-powered airplane having a passenger seat configuration of 20 to 30 seats unless it is equipped with an approved cockpit voice recorder that— (1) Is installed in accordance with the requirements of § 23.1457 (except paragraphs (a)(6), (d)(1)(ii), (4), and (5)) or § 25.1457 (except paragraphs (a)(6), (d)(1)(ii), (4), and (5)) of this chapter, as applicable; and (2) Is operated continuously from the use of the checklist before the flight to completion of the final checklist at the end of the flight. (f) In complying with this section, an approved cockpit voice recorder having an erasure feature may be used, so that at any time during the operation of the recorder, information recorded more than 30 minutes earlier may be erased or otherwise obliterated. (g) For those aircraft equipped to record the uninterrupted audio signals received by a boom or a mask microphone, the flight crewmembers are required to use the boom microphone below 18,000 feet mean sea level. No person may operate a large turbine engine powered airplane or a large pressurized airplane with four reciprocating engines manufactured after October 11, 1991, or on which a cockpit voice recorder has been installed after October 11, 1991, unless it is equipped to record the uninterrupted audio signal received by a boom or mask microphone in accordance with § 25.1457(c)(5) of this chapter.

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(h) In the event of an accident or occurrence requiring immediate notification of the National Transportation Safety Board under 49 CFR part 830 of its regulations, which results in the termination of the flight, the certificate holder shall keep the recorded information for at least 60 days or, if requested by the Administrator or the Board, for a longer period. Information obtained from the record is used to assist in determining the cause of accidents or occurrences in connection with investigations under 49 CFR part 830. The Administrator does not use the record in any civil penalty or certificate action. (i) By April 7, 2012, all turbine engine-powered airplanes subject to this section that are manufactured before April 7, 2010, must have a cockpit voice recorder installed that also— (1) Meets the requirements of § 23.1457(d)(6) or § 25.1457(d)(6) of this chapter, as applicable; (2) Retains at least the last 2 hours of recorded information using a recorder that meets the standards of TSO-C123a, or later revision; and (3) Is operated continuously from the use of the checklist before the flight to completion of the final checklist at the end of the flight. (4) If transport category, meets the requirements in § 25.1457(a)(3), (a)(4), and (a)(5) of this chapter. (j) All turbine engine-powered airplanes subject to this section that are manufactured on or after April 7, 2010, must have a cockpit voice recorder installed that also— (1) Is installed in accordance with the requirements of § 23.1457 (except for paragraph (a)(6) or § 25.1457 (except for paragraph (a)(6)) of this chapter, as applicable; (2) Retains at least the last 2 hours of recorded information using a recorder that meets the standards of TSO-C123a, or later revision; and (3) Is operated continuously from the use of the checklist before the flight to completion of the final checklist at the end of the flight. (4) For all airplanes manufactured on or after December 6, 2010, also meets the requirements of § 23.1457(a)(6) or § 25.1457(a)(6) of this chapter, as applicable. (k) All airplanes required by this part to have a cockpit voice recorder and a flight data recorder, that install datalink communication equipment on or after December 6, 2010, must record all datalink messages as required by the certification rule applicable to the airplane. [Docket 6258, 29 FR 19205, Dec. 31, 1964] Editorial Note: For Federal Register citations affecting § 121.359, see the List of CFR Sections Affected, which appears in the Finding Aids section of the printed volume and at www.govinfo.gov.

§ 121.360 [Reserved]
Subpart L—Maintenance, Preventive Maintenance, and Alterations Source: Docket 6258, 29 FR 19210, Dec. 31, 1964, unless otherwise noted. § 121.361 Applicability. (a) Except as provided by paragraph (b) of this section, this subpart prescribes requirements for maintenance, preventive maintenance, and alterations for all certificate holders. (b) The Administrator may amend a certificate holder's operations specifications to permit deviation from those provisions of this subpart that would prevent the return to service and use of airframe components, powerplants, appliances, and spare parts thereof because those items have been maintained, altered, or inspected by persons employed outside the United States who do not hold U.S. airman certificates. Each certificate holder who uses parts under this deviation must provide for surveillance of facilities and practices to assure that all work performed on these parts is accomplished in accordance with the certificate holder's manual.

[Docket 8754, 33 FR 14406, Sept. 25, 1968] § 121.363 Responsibility for airworthiness. (a) Each certificate holder is primarily responsible for— (1) The airworthiness of its aircraft, including airframes, aircraft engines, propellers, appliances, and parts thereof; and (2) The performance of the maintenance, preventive maintenance, and alteration of its aircraft, including airframes, aircraft engines, propellers, appliances, emergency equipment, and parts thereof, in accordance with its manual and the regulations of this chapter. (b) A certificate holder may make arrangements with another person for the performance of any maintenance, preventive maintenance, or alterations. However, this does not relieve the certificate holder of the responsibility specified in paragraph (a) of this section. [Docket 6258, 29 FR 19210, Dec. 31, 1964, as amended by Amdt. 121-106, 38 FR 22378, Aug. 20, 1973] § 121.365 Maintenance, preventive maintenance, and alteration organization. (a) Each certificate holder that performs any of its maintenance (other than required inspections), preventive maintenance, or alterations, and each person with whom it arranges for the performance of that work must have an organization adequate to perform the work. (b) Each certificate holder that performs any inspections required by its manual in accordance with § 121.369(b)(2) or (3) (in this subpart referred to as required inspections ) and each person with whom it arranges for the performance of that work must have an organization adequate to perform that work. (c) Each person performing required inspections in addition to other maintenance, preventive maintenance, or alterations, shall organize the performance of those functions so as to separate the required inspection functions from the other maintenance, preventive maintenance, and alteration functions. The separation shall be below the level of administrative control at which overall responsibility for the required inspection functions and other maintenance, preventive maintenance, and alteration functions are exercised. [Docket 6258, 29 FR 19210, Dec. 31, 1964, as amended by Amdt. 121-3, 30 FR 3639, Mar. 19, 1965] § 121.367 Maintenance, preventive maintenance, and alterations programs. Each certificate holder shall have an inspection program and a program covering other maintenance, preventive maintenance, and alterations that ensures that— (a) Maintenance, preventive maintenance, and alterations performed by it, or by other persons, are performed in accordance with the certificate holder's manual; (b) Competent personnel and adequate facilities and equipment are provided for the proper performance of maintenance, preventive maintenance, and alterations; and (c) Each aircraft released to service is airworthy and has been properly maintained for operation under this part. [Docket 6258, 29 FR 19210, Dec. 31, 1964, as amended by Amdt. 121-100, 37 FR 28053, Dec. 20, 1972] § 121.368 Contract maintenance. (a) A certificate holder may arrange with another person for the performance of maintenance, preventive maintenance, and alterations as authorized in § 121.379(a) only if the certificate holder has met all the requirements in this section. For purposes of this section— (1) A maintenance provider is any person who performs maintenance, preventive maintenance, or an alteration for a certificate holder other than a person who is trained by and employed directly by that certificate holder. (2) Covered work means any of the following: (i) Essential maintenance that could result in a failure, malfunction, or defect endangering the safe operation of an aircraft if not performed properly or if improper parts or materials are used;

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(ii) Regularly scheduled maintenance; or (iii) A required inspection item on an aircraft. (3) Directly in charge means having responsibility for covered work performed by a maintenance provider. A representative of the certificate holder directly in charge of covered work does not need to physically observe and direct each maintenance provider constantly, but must be available for consultation on matters requiring instruction or decision. (b) Each certificate holder must be directly in charge of all covered work done for it by a maintenance provider. (c) Each maintenance provider must perform all covered work in accordance with the certificate holder's maintenance manual. (d) No maintenance provider may perform covered work unless that work is carried out under the supervision and control of the certificate holder. (e) Each certificate holder who contracts for maintenance, preventive maintenance, or alterations must develop and implement policies, procedures, methods, and instructions for the accomplishment of all contracted maintenance, preventive maintenance, and alterations. These policies, procedures, methods, and instructions must provide for the maintenance, preventive maintenance, and alterations to be performed in accordance with the certificate holder's maintenance program and maintenance manual. (f) Each certificate holder who contracts for maintenance, preventive maintenance, or alterations must ensure that its system for the continuing analysis and surveillance of the maintenance, preventive maintenance, and alterations carried out by the maintenance provider, as required by § 121.373(a), contains procedures for oversight of all contracted covered work. (g) The policies, procedures, methods, and instructions required by paragraphs (e) and (f) of this section must be acceptable to the FAA and included in the certificate holder's maintenance manual as required by§ 121.369(b)(10). (h) Each certificate holder who contracts for maintenance, preventive maintenance, or alterations must provide to its responsible Flight Standards office, in a format acceptable to the FAA, a list that includes the name and physical (street) address, or addresses, where the work is carried out for each maintenance provider that performs work for the certificate holder, and a description of the type of maintenance, preventive maintenance, or alteration that is to be performed at each location. The list must be updated with any changes, including additions or deletions, and the updated list provided to the FAA in a format acceptable to the FAA by the last day of each calendar month. [Docket FAA-2011-1136, Amdt. 121-371, 80 FR 11546, Mar. 4, 2015, as amended by Docket FAA-2018-0119, Amdt. 121-380, 83 FR 9173, Mar. 5, 2018] § 121.369 Manual requirements. (a) The certificate holder shall put in its manual a chart or description of the certificate holder's organization required by § 121.365 and a list of persons with whom it has arranged for the performance of any of its required inspections, other maintenance, preventive maintenance, or alterations, including a general description of that work. (b) The certificate holder's manual must contain the programs required by § 121.367 that must be followed in performing maintenance, preventive maintenance, and alterations of that certificate holder's airplanes, including airframes, aircraft engines, propellers, appliances, emergency equipment, and parts thereof, and must include at least the following: (1) The method of performing routine and nonroutine maintenance (other than required inspections), preventive maintenance, and alterations. (2) A designation of the items of maintenance and alteration that must be inspected (required inspections), including at least those that could result in a failure, malfunction, or defect endangering the safe operation of the aircraft, if not performed properly or if improper parts or materials are used. (3) The method of performing required inspections and a designation by occupational title of personnel authorized to perform each required inspection.

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(4) Procedures for the reinspection of work performed pursuant to previous required inspection findings ( buy-back procedures ). (5) Procedures, standards, and limits necessary for required inspections and acceptance or rejection of the items required to be inspected and for periodic inspection and calibration of precision tools, measuring devices, and test equipment. (6) Procedures to ensure that all required inspections are performed. (7) Instructions to prevent any person who performs any item of work from performing any required inspection of that work. (8) Instructions and procedures to prevent any decision of an inspector, regarding any required inspection from being countermanded by persons other than supervisory personnel of the inspection unit, or a person at that level of administrative control that has overall responsibility for the management of both the required inspection functions and the other maintenance, preventive maintenance, and alterations functions. (9) Procedures to ensure that required inspections, other maintenance, preventive maintenance, and alterations that are not completed as a result of shift changes or similar work interruptions are properly completed before the aircraft is released to service. (10) Policies, procedures, methods, and instructions for the accomplishment of all maintenance, preventive maintenance, and alterations carried out by a maintenance provider. These policies, procedures, methods, and instructions must be acceptable to the FAA and provide for the maintenance, preventive maintenance, and alterations to be performed in accordance with the certificate holder's maintenance program and maintenance manual. (c) The certificate holder must set forth in its manual a suitable system (which may include a coded system) that provides for preservation and retrieval of information in a manner acceptable to the Administrator and that provides— (1) A description (or reference to data acceptable to the Administrator) of the work performed; (2) The name of the person performing the work if the work is performed by a person outside the organization of the certificate holder; and (3) The name or other positive identification of the individual approving the work. [Docket 6258, 29 FR 19210, Dec. 31, 1964, as amended by Amdt. 121-94, 37 FR 15983, Aug. 9, 1972; Amdt. 121-106, 38 FR 22378, Aug. 20, 1973; Docket FAA-2011-1136, Amdt. 121-371, 80 FR 11546, Mar. 4, 2015] §§ 121.370-121.370a [Reserved]
§ 121.371 Required inspection personnel. (a) No person may use any person to perform required inspections unless the person performing the inspection is appropriately certificated, properly trained, qualified, and authorized to do so. (b) No person may allow any person to perform a required inspection unless, at that time, the person performing that inspection is under the supervision and control of an inspection unit. (c) No person may perform a required inspection if he performed the item of work required to be inspected. (d) Each certificate holder shall maintain, or shall determine that each person with whom it arranges to perform its required inspections maintains, a current listing of persons who have been trained, qualified, and authorized to conduct required inspections. The persons must be identified by name, occupational title, and the inspections that they are authorized to perform. The certificate holder (or person with whom it arranges to perform its required inspections) shall give written information to each person so authorized describing the extent of his responsibilities, authorities, and inspectional limitations. The list shall be made available for inspection by the Administrator upon request.

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§ 121.373 Continuing analysis and surveillance. (a) Each certificate holder shall establish and maintain a system for the continuing analysis and surveillance of the performance and effectiveness of its inspection program and the program covering other maintenance, preventive maintenance, and alterations and for the correction of any deficiency in those programs, regardless of whether those programs are carried out by the certificate holder or by another person. (b) Whenever the Administrator finds that either or both of the programs described in paragraph (a) of this section does not contain adequate procedures and standards to meet the requirements of this part, the certificate holder shall, after notification by the Administrator, make any changes in those programs that are necessary to meet those requirements. (c) A certificate holder may petition the Administrator to reconsider the notice to make a change in a program. The petition must be filed with the responsible Flight Standards office charged with the overall inspection of the certificate holder's operations within 30 days after the certificate holder receives the notice. Except in the case of an emergency requiring immediate action in the interest of safety, the filing of the petition stays the notice pending a decision by the Administrator. [Docket 6258, 29 FR 19210, Dec. 31, 1964, as amended by Amdt. 121-207, 54 FR 39293, Sept. 25, 1989; Amdt. 121-253, 61 FR 2611, Jan. 26, 1996; Docket FAA-2018-0119, Amdt. 121-380, 83 FR 9173, Mar. 5, 2018] § 121.374 Continuous airworthiness maintenance program (CAMP) for two-engine ETOPS. In order to conduct an ETOPS flight using a two-engine airplane, each certificate holder must develop and comply with the ETOPS continuous airworthiness maintenance program, as authorized in the certificate holder's operations specifications, for each airplane-engine combination used in ETOPS. The certificate holder must develop this ETOPS CAMP by supplementing the manufacturer's maintenance program or the CAMP currently approved for the certificate holder. This ETOPS CAMP must include the following elements: (a) ETOPS maintenance document. The certificate holder must have an ETOPS maintenance document for use by each person involved in ETOPS. (1) The document must— (i) List each ETOPS significant system, (ii) Refer to or include all of the ETOPS maintenance elements in this section, (iii) Refer to or include all supportive programs and procedures, (iv) Refer to or include all duties and responsibilities, and (v) Clearly state where referenced material is located in the certificate holder's document system. (b) ETOPS pre-departure service check. Except as provided in Appendix P of this part, the certificate holder must develop a pre-departure check tailored to their specific operation. (1) The certificate holder must complete a pre-departure service check immediately before each ETOPS flight. (2) At a minimum, this check must— (i) Verify the condition of all ETOPS Significant Systems; (ii) Verify the overall status of the airplane by reviewing applicable maintenance records; and (iii) Include an interior and exterior inspection to include a determination of engine and APU oil levels and consumption rates. (3) An appropriately trained maintenance person, who is ETOPS qualified, must accomplish and certify by signature ETOPS specific tasks. Before an ETOPS flight may commence, an ETOPS pre-departure service check (PDSC) Signatory Person, who has been authorized by the certificate holder, must certify by signature, that the ETOPS PDSC has been completed. (4) For the purposes of this paragraph (b) only, the following definitions apply: (i) ETOPS qualified person: A person is ETOPS qualified when that person satisfactorily completes the operator's ETOPS training program and is authorized by the certificate holder. (ii) ETOPS PDSC Signatory Person: A person is an ETOPS PDSC Signatory Person when that person is ETOPS qualified and that person:

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(A) When certifying the completion of the ETOPS PDSC in the United States: ( 1 ) Works for an operator authorized to engage in part 121 operation or works for a part 145 repair station; and ( 2 ) Holds a U.S. Mechanic's Certificate with airframe and powerplant ratings. (B) When certifying the completion of the ETOPS PDSC outside of the U.S. holds a certificate in accordance with § 43.17(c)(1) of this chapter; or (C) When certifying the completion of the ETOPS PDSC outside the U.S. holds the certificates needed or has the requisite experience or training to return aircraft to service on behalf of an ETOPS maintenance entity. (iii) ETOPS maintenance entity: An entity authorized to perform ETOPS maintenance and complete ETOPS PDSC and that entity is: (A) Certificated to engage in part 121 operations; (B) Repair station certificated under part 145 of this chapter; or (C) Entity authorized pursuant to § 43.17(c)(2) of this chapter. (c) Limitations on dual maintenance. (1) Except as specified in paragraph (c)(2), the certificate holder may not perform scheduled or unscheduled dual maintenance during the same maintenance visit on the same or a substantially similar ETOPS Significant System listed in the ETOPS maintenance document, if the improper maintenance could result in the failure of an ETOPS Significant System. (2) In the event dual maintenance as defined in paragraph (c)(1) of this section cannot be avoided, the certificate holder may perform maintenance provided: (i) The maintenance action on each affected ETOPS Significant System is performed by a different technician, or (ii) The maintenance action on each affected ETOPS Significant System is performed by the same technician under the direct supervision of a second qualified individual; and (iii) For either paragraph (c)(2)(i) or (ii) of this section, a qualified individual conducts a ground verification test and any in-flight verification test required under the program developed pursuant to paragraph (d) of this section. (d) Verification program. The certificate holder must develop and maintain a program for the resolution of discrepancies that will ensure the effectiveness of maintenance actions taken on ETOPS Significant Systems. The verification program must identify potential problems and verify satisfactory corrective action. The verification program must include ground verification and in-flight verification policy and procedures. The certificate holder must establish procedures to indicate clearly who is going to initiate the verification action and what action is necessary. The verification action may be performed on an ETOPS revenue flight provided the verification action is documented as satisfactorily completed upon reaching the ETOPS Entry Point. (e) Task identification. The certificate holder must identify all ETOPS-specific tasks. An appropriately trained mechanic who is ETOPS qualified must accomplish and certify by signature that the ETOPS-specific task has been completed. (f) Centralized maintenance control procedures. The certificate holder must develop and maintain procedures for centralized maintenance control for ETOPS. (g) Parts control program. The certificate holder must develop an ETOPS parts control program to ensure the proper identification of parts used to maintain the configuration of airplanes used in ETOPS. (h) Reliability program. The certificate holder must have an ETOPS reliability program. This program must be the certificate holder's existing reliability program or its Continuing Analysis and Surveillance System (CASS) supplemented for ETOPS. This program must be event-oriented and include procedures to report the events listed below, as follows: (1) The certificate holder must report the following events within 96 hours of the occurrence to its responsible Flight Standards office: (i) IFSDs, except planned IFSDs performed for flight training.

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(ii) Diversions and turnbacks for failures, malfunctions, or defects associated with any airplane or engine system. (iii) Uncommanded power or thrust changes or surges. (iv) Inability to control the engine or obtain desired power or thrust. (v) Inadvertent fuel loss or unavailability, or uncorrectable fuel imbalance in flight. (vi) Failures, malfunctions or defects associated with ETOPS Significant Systems. (vii) Any event that would jeopardize the safe flight and landing of the airplane on an ETOPS flight. (2) The certificate holder must investigate the cause of each event listed in paragraph (h)(1) of this section and submit findings and a description of corrective action to its responsible Flight Standards office. The report must include the information specified in § 121.703(e). The corrective action must be acceptable to its responsible Flight Standards office. (i) Propulsion system monitoring. (1) If the IFSD rate (computed on a 12-month rolling average) for an engine installed as part of an airplane-engine combination exceeds the following values, the certificate holder must do a comprehensive review of its operations to identify any common cause effects and systemic errors. The IFSD rate must be computed using all engines of that type in the certificate holder's entire fleet of airplanes approved for ETOPS. (i) A rate of 0.05 per 1,000 engine hours for ETOPS up to and including 120 minutes. (ii) A rate of 0.03 per 1,000 engine hours for ETOPS beyond 120-minutes up to and including 207 minutes in the North Pacific Area of Operation and up to and including 180 minutes elsewhere. (iii) A rate of 0.02 per 1,000 engine hours for ETOPS beyond 207 minutes in the North Pacific Area of Operation and beyond 180 minutes elsewhere. (2) Within 30 days of exceeding the rates above, the certificate holder must submit a report of investigation and any necessary corrective action taken to its responsible Flight Standards office. (j) Engine condition monitoring. (1) The certificate holder must have an engine condition monitoring program to detect deterioration at an early stage and to allow for corrective action before safe operation is affected. (2) This program must describe the parameters to be monitored, the method of data collection, the method of analyzing data, and the process for taking corrective action. (3) The program must ensure that engine-limit margins are maintained so that a prolonged engine-inoperative diversion may be conducted at approved power levels and in all expected environmental conditions without exceeding approved engine limits. This includes approved limits for items such as rotor speeds and exhaust gas temperatures. (k) Oil-consumption monitoring. The certificate holder must have an engine oil consumption monitoring program to ensure that there is enough oil to complete each ETOPS flight. APU oil consumption must be included if an APU is required for ETOPS. The operator's oil consumption limit may not exceed the manufacturer's recommendation. Monitoring must be continuous and include oil added at each ETOPS departure point. The program must compare the amount of oil added at each ETOPS departure point with the running average consumption to identify sudden increases. (l) APU in-flight start program. If the airplane type certificate requires an APU but does not require the APU to run during the ETOPS portion of the flight, the certificate holder must develop and maintain a program acceptable to the FAA for cold soak in-flight start-and-run reliability. (m) Maintenance training. For each airplane-engine combination, the certificate holder must develop a maintenance training program that provides training adequate to support ETOPS. It must include ETOPS specific training for all persons involved in ETOPS maintenance that focuses on the special nature of ETOPS. This training must be in addition to the operator's maintenance training program used to qualify individuals to perform work on specific airplanes and engines. (n) Configuration, maintenance, and procedures (CMP) document. If an airplane-engine combination has a CMP document, the certificate holder must use a system that ensures compliance with the applicable FAA-approved document.

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(o) Procedural changes. Each substantial change to the maintenance or training procedures that were used to qualify the certificate holder for ETOPS, must be submitted to the CHDO for review. The certificate holder cannot implement a change until its responsible Flight Standards office notifies the certificate holder that the review is complete. [Docket FAA-2002-6717, 72 FR 1880, Jan. 16, 2007, as amended by Amdt. 121-329, 72 FR 7348, Feb. 15, 2007; Amdt. 121-329, 72 FR 26541, May 10, 2007; Amdt. 121-339, 73 FR 33881, June 16, 2008; Docket FAA-2018-0119, Amdt. 121-380, 83 FR 9173, Mar. 5, 2018] § 121.375 Maintenance and preventive maintenance training program. Each certificate holder or person performing maintenance or preventive maintenance functions for it shall have a training program to ensure that each person (including inspection personnel) who determines the adequacy of work done is fully informed about procedures and techniques and new equipment in use and is competent to perform his duties. § 121.377 Maintenance and preventive maintenance personnel duty time limitations. Within the United States, each certificate holder (or person performing maintenance or preventive maintenance functions for it) shall relieve each person performing maintenance or preventive maintenance from duty for a period of at least 24 consecutive hours during any seven consecutive days, or the equivalent thereof within any one calendar month. § 121.378 Certificate requirements. (a) Except for maintenance, preventive maintenance, alterations, and required inspections performed by a certificated repair station that is located outside the United States, each person who is directly in charge of maintenance, preventive maintenance, or alterations, and each person performing required inspections must hold an appropriate airman certificate. (b) For the purposes of this section, a person directly in charge is each person assigned to a position in which he is responsible for the work of a shop or station that performs maintenance, preventive maintenance, alterations, or other functions affecting aircraft airworthiness. A person who is directly in charge need not physically observe and direct each worker constantly but must be available for consultation and decision on matters requiring instruction or decision from higher authority than that of the persons performing the work. [Docket 6258, 29 FR 19210, Dec. 31, 1964, as amended by Amdt. 121-21, 31 FR 10618, Aug. 9, 1966; Amdt. 121-286, 66 FR 41116, Aug. 6, 2001] § 121.379 Authority to perform and approve maintenance, preventive maintenance, and alterations. (a) A certificate holder may perform, or it may make arrangements with other persons to perform, maintenance, preventive maintenance, and alterations as provided in its continuous airworthiness maintenance program and its maintenance manual. In addition, a certificate holder may perform these functions for another certificate holder as provided in the continuous airworthiness maintenance program and maintenance manual of the other certificate holder. (b) A certificate holder may approve any aircraft, airframe, aircraft engine, propeller, or appliance for return to service after maintenance, preventive maintenance, or alterations that are performed under paragraph (a) of this section. However, in the case of a major repair or major alteration, the work must have been done in accordance with technical data approved by the Administrator. [Docket 10289, 35 FR 16793, Oct. 30, 1970] § 121.380 Maintenance recording requirements. (a) Each certificate holder shall keep (using the system specified in the manual required in § 121.369) the following records for the periods specified in paragraph (c) of this section: (1) All the records necessary to show that all requirements for the issuance of an airworthiness release under § 121.709 have been met.

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(2) Records containing the following information: (i) The total time in service of the airframe. (ii) Except as provided in paragraph (b) of this section, the total time in service of each engine and propeller. (iii) The current status of life-limited parts of each airframe, engine, propeller, and appliance. (iv) The time since last overhaul of all items installed on the aircraft which are required to be overhauled on a specified time basis. (v) The identification of the current inspection status of the aircraft, including the times since the last inspections required by the inspection program under which the aircraft and its appliances are maintained. (vi) The current status of applicable airworthiness directives, including the date and methods of compliance, and, if the airworthiness directive involves recurring action, the time and date when the next action is required. (vii) A list of current major alterations to each airframe, engine, propeller, and appliance. (b) A certificate holder need not record the total time in service of an engine or propeller on a transport category cargo airplane, a transport category airplane that has a passenger seat configuration of more than 30 seats, or a nontransport category airplane type certificated before January 1, 1958, until the following, whichever occurs first: (1) March 20, 1997; or (2) The date of the first overhaul of the engine or propeller, as applicable, after January 19, 1996. (c) Each certificate holder shall retain the records required to be kept by this section for the following periods: (1) Except for the records of the last complete overhaul of each airframe, engine, propeller, and appliance, the records specified in paragraph (a)(1) of this section shall be retained until the work is repeated or superseded by other work or for one year after the work is performed. (2) The records of the last complete overhaul of each airframe, engine, propeller, and appliance shall be retained until the work is superseded by work of equivalent scope and detail. (3) The records specified in paragraph (a)(2) of this section shall be retained and transferred with the aircraft at the time the aircraft is sold. (d) The certificate holder shall make all maintenance records required to be kept by this section available for inspection by the Administrator or any authorized representative of the National Transportation Safety Board (NTSB). [Docket 10658, 37 FR 15983, Aug. 9, 1972, as amended by Amdt. 121-251, 60 FR 65933, Dec. 20, 1995; Amdt. 121-321, 71 FR 536, Jan. 4, 2006] § 121.380a Transfer of maintenance ­records. Each certificate holder who sells a U.S. registered aircraft shall transfer to the purchaser, at the time of sale, the following records of that aircraft, in plain language form or in coded form at the election of the purchaser, if the coded form provides for the preservation and retrieval of information in a manner acceptable to the Administrator: (a) The record specified in § 121.380(a)(2). (b) The records specified in § 121.380(a)(1) which are not included in the records covered by paragraph (a) of this section, except that the purchaser may permit the seller to keep physical custody of such records. However, custody of records in the seller does not relieve the purchaser of his responsibility under § 121.380(c) to make the records available for inspection by the Administrator or any authorized representative of the National Transportation Safety Board (NTSB). [Docket 10658, 37 FR 15984, Aug. 9, 1972] Subpart M—Airman and Crewmember Requirements Source: Docket 6258, 29 FR 19212, Dec. 31, 1964, unless otherwise noted. § 121.381 Applicability. This subpart prescribes airman and crewmember requirements for all certificate holders.

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§ 121.383 Airman: Limitations on use of services. (a) No certificate holder may use any person as an airman nor may any person serve as an airman unless that person— (1) Holds an appropriate current airman certificate issued by the FAA; (2) Has in his or her possession while engaged in operations under this part— (i) Any required appropriate current airman and medical certificates; or (ii) A temporary document issued in accordance with paragraph (c) of this section; and (3) Is otherwise qualified for the operation for which he is to be used. (b) Each airman covered by paragraph (a)(2) of this section shall present his or her certificates or temporary document for inspection upon request of the Administrator. (c) A certificate holder may obtain approval to provide a temporary document verifying a flightcrew member's airman certificate and medical certificate privileges under an approved certificate verification plan set forth in the certificate holder's operations specifications. A document provided by the certificate holder may be carried as an airman certificate or medical certificate on flights within the United States for up to 72 hours. (d) No certificate holder may use the services of any person as a pilot on an airplane engaged in operations under this part if that person has reached his or her 65th birthday. (e) No pilot may serve as a pilot in operations under this part if that person has reached his or her 65th birthday. [Docket 6258, 29 FR 19212, Dec. 31, 1964, as amended by Amdt. 121-144, 43 FR 22646, May 25, 1978; Amdt. 121-344, 74 FR 34234, July 15, 2009; Amdt. 121-372, 80 FR 33401, June 12, 2015; Amdt. 121-381, 83 FR 30282, June 27, 2018] § 121.385 Composition of flight crew. (a) No certificate holder may operate an airplane with less than the minimum flight crew in the airworthiness certificate or the airplane Flight Manual approved for that type airplane and required by this part for the kind of operation being conducted. (b) In any case in which this part requires the performance of two or more functions for which an airman certificate is necessary, that requirement is not satisfied by the performance of multiple functions at the same time by one airman. (c) The minimum pilot crew is two pilots and the certificate holder shall designate one pilot as pilot in command and the other second in command. (d) On each flight requiring a flight engineer at least one flight crewmember, other than the flight engineer, must be qualified to provide emergency performance of the flight engineer's functions for the safe completion of the flight if the flight engineer becomes ill or is otherwise incapacitated. A pilot need not hold a flight engineer's certificate to perform the flight engineer's functions in such a situation. [Docket 6258, 29 FR 19212, Dec. 31, 1964, as amended by Amdt. 121-178, 47 FR 13316, Mar. 29, 1982; Amdt. 121-256, 61 FR 30434, June 14, 1996] § 121.387 Flight engineer. No certificate holder may operate an airplane for which a type certificate was issued before January 2, 1964, having a maximum certificated takeoff weight of more than 80,000 pounds without a flight crewmember holding a current flight engineer certificate. For each airplane type certificated after January 1, 1964, the requirement for a flight engineer is determined under the type certification requirements of § 25.1523. [Docket 5025, 30 FR 6067, Apr. 29, 1965] § 121.389 Flight navigator and specialized navigation equipment. (a) No certificate holder may operate an airplane outside the 48 contiguous States and the District of Columbia, when its position cannot be reliably fixed for a period of more than 1 hour, without— (1) A flight crewmember who holds a current flight navigator certificate; or (2) Specialized means of navigation approved in accordance with § 121.355 which enables a reliable determination to be made of the position of the airplane by each pilot seated at his duty station.

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(b) Notwithstanding paragraph (a) of this section, the Administrator may also require a flight navigator or special navigation equipment, or both, when specialized means of navigation are necessary for 1 hour or less. In making this determination, the Administrator considers— (1) The speed of the airplane; (2) Normal weather conditions en route; (3) Extent of air traffic control; (4) Traffic congestion; (5) Area of navigational radio coverage at destination; (6) Fuel requirements; (7) Fuel available for return to point of departure or alternates; (8) Predication of flight upon operation beyond the point of no return; and (9) Any other factors he determines are relevant in the interest of safety. (c) Operations where a flight navigator or special navigation equipment, or both, are required are specified in the operations specifications of the air carrier or commercial operator. [Docket 10204, 37 FR 6464, Mar. 30, 1972, as amended by Amdt. 121-178, 47 FR 13316, Mar. 29, 1982] § 121.391 Flight attendants. (a) Except as specified in § 121.393 and § 121.394, each certificate holder must provide at least the following flight attendants on board each passenger-carrying airplane when passengers are on board: (1) For airplanes having a maximum payload capacity of more than 7,500 pounds and having a seating capacity of more than 9 but less than 51 passengers—one flight attendant. (2) For airplanes having a maximum payload capacity of 7,500 pounds or less and having a seating capacity of more than 19 but less than 51 passengers—one flight attendant. (3) For airplanes having a seating capacity of more than 50 but less than 101 passengers—two flight attendants. (4) For airplanes having a seating capacity of more than 100 passengers—two flight attendants plus one additional flight attendant for each unit (or part of a unit) of 50 passenger seats above a seating capacity of 100 passengers. (b) If, in conducting the emergency evacuation demonstration required under § 121.291 (a) or (b), the certificate holder used more flight attendants than is required under paragraph (a) of this section for the maximum seating capacity of the airplane used in the demonstration, he may not, thereafter, take off that airplane— (1) In its maximum seating capacity configuration with fewer flight attendants than the number used during the emergency evacuation demonstration; or (2) In any reduced seating capacity configuration with fewer flight attendants than the number required by paragraph (a) of this section for that seating capacity plus the number of flight attendants used during the emergency evacuation demonstration that were in excess of those required under paragraph (a) of this section. (c) The number of flight attendants approved under paragraphs (a) and (b) of this section are set forth in the certificate holder's operations specifications. (d) During takeoff and landing, flight attendants required by this section shall be located as near as practicable to required floor level exits and shall be uniformly distributed throughout the airplane in order to provide the most effective egress of passengers in event of an emergency evacuation. During taxi, flight attendants required by this section must remain at their duty stations with safety belts and shoulder harnesses fastened except to perform duties related to the safety of the airplane and its occupants. [Docket 2033, 30 FR 3206, Mar. 9, 1965] Editorial Note: For Federal Register citations affecting § 121.391, see the List of CFR Sections Affected, which appears in the Finding Aids section of the printed volume and at www.govinfo.gov.

§ 121.392 Personnel identified as flight attendants. (a) Any person identified by the certificate holder as a flight attendant on an aircraft in operations under this part must be trained and qualified in accordance with subparts N and O of this part. This includes:

(1) Flight attendants provided by the certificate holder in excess of the number required by § 121.391(a); and (2) Flight attendants provided by the certificate holder when flight attendants are not required by § 121.391(a). (b) A qualifying flight attendant who is receiving operating experience on an aircraft in operations under subpart O of this part must be identified to passengers as a qualifying flight attendant. [Docket FAA-2008-0677, 78 FR 67836, Nov. 12, 2013] § 121.393 Crewmember requirements at stops where passengers remain on board. At stops where passengers remain on board, the certificate holder must meet the following requirements: (a) On each airplane for which a flight attendant is not required by § 121.391(a), the certificate holder must ensure that a person who is qualified in the emergency evacuation procedures for the airplane, as required in § 121.417, and who is identified to the passengers, remains: (1) On board the airplane; or (2) Nearby the airplane, in a position to adequately monitor passenger safety, and: (i) The airplane engines are shut down; and (ii) At least one floor level exit remains open to provide for the deplaning of passengers. (b) On each airplane for which flight attendants are required by § 121.391(a), but the number of flight attendants remaining on board is fewer than required by § 121.391(a), the certificate holder must meet the following requirements: (1) The certificate holder shall ensure that: (i) The airplane engines are shut down; (ii) At least one floor level exit remains open to provide for the deplaning of passengers; and (iii) the number of flight attendants on board is at least half the number required by § 121.391(a), rounded down to the next lower number in the case of fractions, but never fewer than one. (2) The certificate holder may substitute for the required flight attendants other persons qualified in the emergency evacuation procedures for that aircraft as required in § 121.417, if these persons are identified to the passengers. (3) If only one flight attendant or other qualified person is on board during a stop, that flight attendant or other qualified person shall be located in accordance with the certificate holder's FAA-approved operating procedures. If more than one flight attendant or other qualified person is on board, the flight attendants or other qualified persons shall be spaced throughout the cabin to provide the most effective assistance for the evacuation in case of an emergency. [Docket 28154, 60 FR 65934, Dec. 20, 1995] § 121.394 Flight attendant requirements during passenger boarding and deplaning. (a) During passenger boarding, on each airplane for which more than one flight attendant is required by § 121.391, the certificate holder may: (1) Reduce the number of required flight attendants by one, provided that: (i) The flight attendant that leaves the aircraft remains within the immediate vicinity of the door through which passengers are boarding; (ii) The flight attendant that leaves the aircraft only conducts safety duties related to the flight being boarded; (iii) The airplane engines are shut down; and (iv) At least one floor level exit remains open to provide for passenger egress; or (2) Substitute a pilot or flight engineer employed by the certificate holder and trained and qualified on that type airplane for one flight attendant, provided the certificate holder— (i) Describes in the manual required by § 121.133: (A) The necessary functions to be performed by the substitute pilot or flight engineer in an emergency, to include a situation requiring an emergency evacuation. The certificate holder must show those functions are realistic, can be practically accomplished, and will meet any reasonably anticipated emergency; and (B) How other regulatory functions performed by a flight attendant will be accomplished by the substitute pilot or flight engineer on the airplane.

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(ii) Ensures that the following requirements are met: (A) The substitute pilot or flight engineer is not assigned to operate the flight for which that person is substituting for a required flight attendant. (B) The substitute pilot or flight engineer is trained in all assigned flight attendant duties regarding passenger handling. (C) The substitute pilot or flight engineer meets the emergency training requirements for flight attendants in evacuation management and evacuation commands, as appropriate, and frequency of performance drills regarding operation of exits in the normal and emergency modes on that type aircraft. (D) The substitute pilot or flight engineer is in possession of all items required for duty. (E) The substitute pilot or flight engineer is located in the passenger cabin. (F) The substitute pilot or flight engineer is identified to the passengers. (G) The substitution of a pilot or flight engineer for a required flight attendant does not interfere with the safe operation of the flight. (H) The airplane engines are shut down. (I) At least one floor-level exit remains open to provide for passenger egress. (b) During passenger deplaning, on each airplane for which more than one flight attendant is required by § 121.391, the certificate holder may reduce the number of flight attendants required by that paragraph provided: (1) The airplane engines are shut down; (2) At least one floor level exit remains open to provide for passenger egress; and (3) The number of flight attendants on board is at least half the number required by § 121.391, rounded down to the next lower number in the case of fractions, but never fewer than one. (c) If only one flight attendant is on the airplane during passenger boarding or deplaning, that flight attendant must be located in accordance with the certificate holder's FAA-approved operating procedures. If more than one flight attendant is on the airplane during passenger boarding or deplaning, the flight attendants must be evenly distributed throughout the airplane cabin, in the vicinity of the floor-level exits, to provide the most effective assistance in the event of an emergency. (d) The time spent by any crewmember conducting passenger boarding or deplaning duties is considered duty time. [Docket FAA-2009-0022, 75 FR 68198, Nov. 5, 2010] § 121.395 Aircraft dispatcher: Domestic and flag operations. Each certificate holder conducting domestic or flag operations shall provide enough qualified aircraft dispatchers at each dispatch center to ensure proper operational control of each flight. [Docket 28154, 61 FR 2611, Jan. 26, 1996] § 121.397 Emergency and emergency evacuation duties. (a) Each certificate holder shall, for each type and model of airplane, assigned to each category of required crewmember, as appropriate, the necessary functions to be performed in an emergency or a situation requiring emergency evacuation. The certificate holder shall show those functions are realistic, can be practically accomplished, and will meet any reasonably anticipated emergency including the possible incapacitation of individual crewmembers or their inability to reach the passenger cabin because of shifting cargo in combination cargo-passenger airplanes. (b) The certificate holder shall describe in its manual the functions of each category of required crewmembers under paragraph (a) of this section. [Docket 2033, 30 FR 3206, Mar. 9, 1965, as amended by Amdt. 121-7, 30 FR 6727, May 18, 1965] Subpart N—Training Program Source: Docket 9509, 35 FR 90, Jan. 3, 1970, unless otherwise noted.

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§ 121.400 Applicability and terms used. (a) This subpart prescribes the requirements applicable to each certificate holder for establishing and maintaining a training program for crewmembers, aircraft dispatchers, and other operations personnel, and for the approval and use of flight simulation training devices and training equipment in the conduct of the program. (b) For the purpose of this subpart, airplane groups are as follows: (1) Group I. Propeller driven, including— (i) Reciprocating powered; and (ii) Turbopropeller powered. (2) Group II. Turbojet powered. (c) For the purpose of this subpart, the following terms and definitions apply: (1) Initial training. The training required for crewmembers and dispatchers who have not qualified and served in the same capacity on another airplane of the same group. (2) Transition training. The training required for crewmembers and dispatchers who have qualified and served in the same capacity on another airplane of the same group. (3) Upgrade training. The training required for flightcrew members who have qualified and served as second in command on a particular airplane type, before they serve as pilot in command on that airplane. (4) Conversion training. The training required for flightcrew members who have qualified and served as flight engineer on a particular airplane type, before they serve as second in command on that airplane. (5) Differences training. The training required for crewmembers and dispatchers who have qualified and served on a particular type airplane, when the Administrator finds differences training is necessary before a crewmember serves in the same capacity on a particular variation of that airplane. (6) Programmed hours. The hours of training prescribed in this subpart which may be reduced by the Administrator upon a showing by the certificate holder that circumstances justify a lesser amount. (7) Inflight. Refers to maneuvers, procedures, or functions that must be conducted in the airplane. (8) Training center. An organization governed by the applicable requirements of part 142 of this chapter that provides training, testing, and checking under contract or other arrangement to certificate holders subject to the requirements of this part. (9) Requalification training. The training required for crewmembers previously trained and qualified, but who have become unqualified due to not having met within the required period the recurrent training requirements of § 121.427 or the proficiency check requirements of § 121.441. (10) Related aircraft. Any two or more aircraft of the same make with either the same or different type certificates that have been demonstrated and determined by the Administrator to have commonality to the extent that credit between those aircraft may be applied for flightcrew member training, checking, recent experience, operating experience, operating cycles, and line operating flight time for consolidation of knowledge and skills. (11) Related aircraft differences training. The flightcrew member training required for aircraft with different type certificates that have been designated as related by the Administrator. (12) Base aircraft. An aircraft identified by a certificate holder for use as a reference to compare differences with another aircraft. [Docket 9509, 35 FR 90, Jan. 3, 1970; 35 FR 2819, Feb. 11, 1970, as amended by Amdt. 121-104, 38 FR 14915, June 7, 1973; Amdt. 121-259, 61 FR 34560, July 2, 1996; Amdt. 121-366, 78 FR 67836, Nov. 12, 2013; Amdt. 121-382, 85 FR 10921, Feb. 25, 2020] § 121.401 Training program: General. (a) Each certificate holder shall: (1) Establish and implement a training program that satisfies the requirements of this subpart and appendices E and F of this part and that ensures that each crewmember, aircraft dispatcher, flight instructor, check pilot, and check flight engineer is adequately trained to perform his or her assigned duties. Prior to implementation, the certificate holder must obtain initial and final FAA approval of the training program. (2) Provide adequate ground and flight training facilities and properly qualified ground instructors for the training required by this subpart;

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(3) Provide and keep current with respect to each airplane type and, if applicable, the particular variations within that airplane type, appropriate training material, examinations, forms, instructions, and procedures for use in conducting the training and checks required by this part; and (4) Provide enough flight instructors and approved check pilots and check flight engineers to conduct the flight training and checks required under this part. (b) Whenever a crewmember or aircraft dispatcher who is required to take recurrent training, a flight check, or a competence check, takes the check or completes the training in the calendar month before or after the calendar month in which that training or check is required, he is considered to have taken or completed it in the calendar month in which it was required. (c) Each instructor, supervisor, check pilot, or check flight engineer who is responsible for a particular ground training subject, segment of flight training, course of training, flight check, or competence check under this part shall certify as to the proficiency and knowledge of the crewmember, aircraft dispatcher, flight instructor, check pilot, or check flight engineer concerned upon completion of that training or check. That certification shall be made a part of the crewmember's or dispatcher's record. When the certification required by this paragraph is made by an entry in a computerized recordkeeping system, the certifying instructor, supervisor, check pilot, or check flight engineer must be identified with that entry. However, the signature of the certifying instructor, supervisor, check pilot, or check flight engineer is not required for computerized entries. (d) Training subjects that are applicable to more than one airplane or crewmember position and that have been satisfactorily completed in connection with prior training for another airplane or another crewmember position, need not be repeated during subsequent training other than recurrent training. (e) A person who progresses successfully through flight training; is recommended by his instructor, check pilot, or check flight engineer; and successfully completes the appropriate flight check for a check pilot, check flight engineer, or the Administrator need not complete the programmed hours of flight training for the particular airplane. However, whenever the Administrator finds that 20 percent of the flight checks given at a particular training base during the previous 6 months under this paragraph are unsuccessful, this paragraph may not be used by the certificate holder at that base until the Administrator finds that the effectiveness of the flight training there has improved. [Docket 9509, 35 FR 90, Jan. 3, 1970, as amended by Amdt. 121-104, 38 FR 14915, June 7, 1973; Amdt. 121-108, 38 FR 35446, Dec. 28, 1973; Amdt. 121-143, 43 FR 22642, May 25, 1978; Amdt. 121-316, 70 FR 58823, Oct. 7, 2005; Amdt. 121-382, 85 FR 10921, Feb. 25, 2020; Docket FAA-2019-0360, Amdt. 121-392, 89 FR 51425, June 18, 2024] § 121.402 Training program: Special rules. (a) Other than the certificate holder, only another certificate holder certificated under this part or a flight training center certificated under part 142 of this chapter is eligible under this subpart to provide flight training, testing, and checking under contract or other arrangement to those persons subject to the requirements of this subpart. (b) A certificate holder may contract with, or otherwise arrange to use the services of, a training center certificated under part 142 of this chapter to provide training, testing, and checking required by this part only if the training center— (1) Holds applicable training specifications issued under part 142 of this chapter; (2) Has facilities, training equipment, and courseware meeting the applicable requirements of part 142 of this chapter; (3) Has approved curriculums, curriculum segments, and portions of curriculum segments applicable for use in training courses required by this subpart; and (4) Has sufficient instructors, check pilots, and check flight engineers qualified under the applicable requirements of §§ 121.411 or 121.412 to provide training, testing, and checking to persons subject to the requirements of this subpart.

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[Docket 26933, 61 FR 34560, July 2, 1996, as amended by Amdt. 121-263, 62 FR 13791, Mar. 21, 1997; Docket FAA-2019-0360, Amdt. 121-392, 89 FR 51425, June 18, 2024] § 121.403 Training program: Curriculum. (a) Each certificate holder must prepare and keep current a written training program curriculum for each type of airplane with respect to dispatchers and each crewmember required for that type airplane. The curriculum must include ground and flight training required by this subpart. (b) Each training program curriculum must include: (1) A list of principal ground training subjects, including emergency training subjects, that are provided. (2) A list of all the training equipment approved under § 121.408 as well as other training aids that the certificate holder will use. (3) Detailed descriptions or pictorial displays of the approved normal, abnormal, and emergency maneuvers, procedures and functions that will be performed during each flight training phase or flight check, indicating those maneuvers, procedures and functions that are to be performed during the inflight portions of flight training and flight checks. (4) A list of FSTDs approved under § 121.407, including approvals for particular maneuvers, procedures, or functions. (5) The programmed hours of training that will be applied to each phase of training. (6) A copy of each statement issued by the Administrator under § 121.405(d) for reduction of programmed hours of training. [Docket 9509, 35 FR 90, Jan. 3, 1970, as amended by Amdt. 121-366, 78 FR 67836, Nov. 12, 2013; Amdt. 121-382, 85 FR 10921, Feb. 25, 2020; Docket FAA-2019-0360, Amdt. 121-392, 89 FR 51425, June 18, 2024] § 121.404 Crew and dispatcher resource management training. No certificate holder may use a person as a flightcrew member, flight attendant, or aircraft dispatcher unless that person has completed approved crew resource management (CRM) or dispatcher resource management (DRM) initial training, as applicable, with that certificate holder or with another certificate holder. [Docket FAA-2019-0360, Amdt. 121-392, 89 FR 51425, June 18, 2024] § 121.405 Training program and revision: Initial and final approval. (a) To obtain initial and final approval of a training program, or a revision to an approved training program, each certificate holder must submit to the Administrator— (1) An outline of the proposed program or revision, including an outline of the proposed or revised curriculum, that provides enough information for a preliminary evaluation of the proposed training program or revised training program; and (2) Additional relevant information as may be requested by the Administrator. (b) If the proposed training program or revision complies with this subpart the Administrator grants initial approval in writing after which the certificate holder may conduct the training in accordance with that program. The Administrator then evaluates the effectiveness of the training program and advises the certificate holder of deficiencies, if any, that must be corrected. (c) The Administrator grants final approval of the training program or revision if the certificate holder shows that the training conducted under the initial approval set forth in paragraph (b) of this section ensures that each person that successfully completes the training is adequately trained to perform his assigned duties. (d) In granting initial and final approval of training programs or revisions, including reductions in programmed hours specified in this subpart, the Administrator considers the training aids, devices, methods, and procedures listed in the certificate holder's curriculum as set forth in § 121.403 that increase the quality and effectiveness of the teaching-learning process.

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If approval of reduced programmed hours of training is granted, the Administrator provides the certificate holder with a statement of the basis for the approval. (e) Whenever the Administrator finds that revisions are necessary for the continued adequacy of a training program that has been granted final approval, the certificate holder shall, after notification by the Administrator, make any changes in the program that are found necessary by the Administrator. Within 30 days after the certificate holder receives such notice, it may file a petition to reconsider the notice with the responsible Flight Standards office. The filing of a petition to reconsider stays the notice pending a decision by the Administrator. However, if the Administrator finds that there is an emergency that requires immediate action in the interest of safety in air transportation, he may, upon a statement of the reasons, require a change effective without stay. (f) Each certificate holder described in § 135.3 (b) and (c) of this chapter must include the material required by § 121.403 in the manual required by § 135.21 of this chapter. (g) The Administrator may grant a deviation to certificate holders described in § 135.3 (b) and (c) of this chapter to allow reduced programmed hours of ground training required by § 121.419 if it is found that a reduction is warranted based on the certificate holder's operations and the complexity of the make, model, and series of the aircraft used. [Docket 9509, 35 FR 90, Jan. 3, 1970, as amended by Amdt. 121-207, 54 FR 39293, Sept. 25, 1989; Amdt. 121-250, 60 FR 65948, Dec. 20, 1995; Amdt. 121-253, 61 FR 2612, Jan. 26, 1996; Docket FAA-2018-0119, Amdt. 121-380, 83 FR 9172, Mar. 5, 2018] § 121.406 Credit for previous CRM/DRM training. (a) For flightcrew members, the Administrator may credit CRM training received before March 19, 1998 toward all or part of the initial ground CRM training required by § 121.419. (b) For flight attendants, the Administrator may credit CRM training received before March 19, 1999 toward all or part of the initial ground CRM training required by § 121.421. (c) For aircraft dispatchers, the Administrator may credit CRM training received before March 19, 1999 toward all or part of the initial ground CRM training required by § 121.422. (d) In granting credit for initial ground CRM or DRM training, the Administrator considers training aids, devices, methods, and procedures used by the certificate holder in a voluntary CRM or DRM program or in an AQP program that effectively meets the quality of an approved CRM or DRM initial ground training program under section 121.419, 121.421, or 121.422 as appropriate. [Docket 27993, 60 FR 65949, Dec. 20, 1995] § 121.407 Training program: Approval of flight simulation training devices. (a) Each FSTD used to satisfy a training requirement of this part in an approved training program, must meet all of the following requirements: (1) Be specifically approved by the Administrator for— (i) Use in the certificate holder's approved training program; (ii) The type airplane and, if applicable, the particular variation within type, for which the training or check is being conducted; and (iii) The particular maneuver, procedure, or flightcrew member function involved. (2) Maintain the performance, function, and other characteristics that are required for qualification in accordance with part 60 of this chapter or a previously qualified device, as permitted in accordance with § 60.17 of this chapter. (3) Be modified in accordance with part 60 of this chapter to conform with any modification to the airplane being simulated that results in changes to performance, function, or other characteristics required for qualification. (4) Be given a daily functional preflight check before being used. (5) Have a daily discrepancy log kept with each discrepancy entered in that log by the appropriate instructor, check pilot, or check flight engineer at the end of each training or check flight.

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(b) A particular FSTD may be approved for use by more than one certificate holder. (c) A Level B or higher FFS may be used instead of the airplane to satisfy the inflight requirements of §§ 121.439 and 121.441 and appendices E and F of this part, if the FFS— (1) Is approved under this section and meets the appropriate FFS requirements of appendix H of this part; and (2) Is used as part of an approved program that meets the training requirements of §§ 121.424 (a) and (c), 121.426, and appendix H of this part. (d) An FFS approved under this section must be used instead of the airplane to satisfy the pilot flight training requirements prescribed in the certificate holder's approved low-altitude windshear flight training program set forth in § 121.409(d) of this part. (e) An FFS approved under this section must be used instead of the airplane to satisfy the pilot flight training requirements prescribed in the extended envelope training set forth in § 121.423 of this part. [Docket 9509, 35 FR 90, Jan. 3, 1970, as amended by Amdt. 121-161, 45 FR 44183, June 30, 1980; Amdt. 121-199, 53 FR 37696, Sept. 27, 1988; Amdt. 121-366, 78 FR 67836, Nov. 12, 2013; Amdt. 121-382, 85 FR 10921, Feb. 25, 2020; Docket FAA-2019-0360, Amdt. 121-392, 89 FR 51425, June 18, 2024] § 121.408 Training equipment other than flight simulation training devices. (a) The Administrator must approve training equipment used in a training program approved under this part and that functionally replicates aircraft equipment for the certificate holder and the crewmember duty or procedure. Training equipment does not include FSTDs qualified under part 60 of this chapter. (b) The certificate holder must demonstrate that the training equipment described in paragraph (a) of this section, used to meet the training requirements of this subpart, meets all of the following: (1) The form, fit, function, and weight, as appropriate, of the aircraft equipment. (2) Replicates the normal operation (and abnormal and emergency operation, if appropriate) of the aircraft equipment including the following: (i) The required force, actions and travel of the aircraft equipment. (ii) Variations in aircraft equipment operated by the certificate holder, if applicable. (3) Replicates the operation of the aircraft equipment under adverse conditions, if appropriate. (c) Training equipment must be modified to ensure that it maintains the performance and function of the aircraft type or aircraft equipment replicated. (d) All training equipment must have a record of discrepancies. The documenting system must be readily available for review by each instructor, check pilot, check flight engineer, or supervisor prior to conducting training or checking with that equipment. (1) Each instructor, check pilot, check flight engineer or supervisor conducting training or checking, and each person conducting an inspection of the equipment who discovers a discrepancy, including any missing, malfunctioning, or inoperative components, must record a description of that discrepancy and the date that the discrepancy was identified. (2) All corrections to discrepancies must be recorded when the corrections are made. This record must include the date of the correction. (3) A record of a discrepancy must be maintained for at least 60 days. (e) No person may use, allow the use of, or offer the use of training equipment with a missing, malfunctioning, or inoperative component to meet the crewmember training or checking requirements of this chapter for tasks that require the use of the correctly operating component. [Docket FAA-2008-0677, 78 FR 67837, Nov. 12, 2013, as amended by Docket FAA-2019-0360, Amdt. 121-392, 89 FR 51425, June 18, 2024] § 121.409 Training courses using flight simulation training devices. (a) Training courses utilizing FSTDs may be included in the certificate holder's approved training program for use as provided in this section.

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(b) Except for the airline transport pilot certification training program approved to satisfy the requirements of § 61.156 of this chapter, a course of training in an FFS may be included for use as provided in § 121.441 if that course— (1) Provides at least 4 hours of training at the pilot controls of an FFS as well as a proper briefing before and after the training. (2) Provides training in at least the following: (i) The procedures and maneuvers set forth in appendix F to this part; or (ii) Line-oriented flight training (LOFT) that— (A) Utilizes a complete flight crew; (B) Includes at least the maneuvers and procedures (abnormal and emergency) that may be expected in line operations; (C) Includes scenario-based or maneuver-based stall prevention training before, during or after the LOFT scenario for each pilot; (D) Is representative of two flight segments appropriate to the operations being conducted by the certificate holder; (E) Provides an opportunity to demonstrate workload management and pilot monitoring skills; and (F) Provides an opportunity for each pilot in command to demonstrate leadership and command skills. (3) Is given by an instructor who meets the applicable requirements of § 121.412. (c) The programmed hours of flight training set forth in this subpart do not apply if the training program for the airplane type includes— (1) A course of pilot training in an FFS as provided in § 121.424(e); or (2) A course of flight engineer training in an FSTD as provided in § 121.425(d). (d) Each certificate holder required to comply with § 121.358 of this part must use an approved FFS for each airplane type in each of its pilot training courses that provides training in at least the procedures and maneuvers set forth in the certificate holder's approved low-altitude windshear flight training program. The approved low-altitude windshear flight training, if applicable, must be included in each of the pilot flight training courses prescribed in §§ 121.409(b), 121.418, 121.424, 121.426, and 121.427 of this part. [Docket 9509, 35 FR 90, Jan. 3, 1970, as amended by Amdt. 121-130, 41 FR 47229, Oct. 28, 1976; Amdt. 121-144, 43 FR 22646, May 25, 1978; Amdt. 121-199, 53 FR 37696, Sept. 27, 1988; Amdt. 121-264, 62 FR 23120, Apr. 28, 1997; Amdt. 121-365, 78 FR 42377, July 15, 2013; Amdt. 121-366, 78 FR 67837, Nov. 12, 2013; Amdt. 121-382, 85 FR 10921, Feb. 25, 2020; Amdt. 121-384, 85 FR 39070, June 30, 2020; Docket FAA-2019-0360, Amdt. 121-392, 89 FR 51425, June 18, 2024] § 121.410 Airline transport pilot certification training program. (a) A certificate holder may obtain approval to establish and implement a training program to satisfy the requirements of § 61.156 of this chapter. The training program must be separate from the air carrier training program required by this part. (b) No certificate holder may use a person nor may any person serve as an instructor in a training program approved to meet the requirements of § 61.156 of this chapter unless the instructor: (1) Holds an airline transport pilot certificate with an airplane category multiengine class rating; (2) Has at least 2 years of experience as a pilot in command in operations conducted under § 91.1053(a)(2)(i) or § 135.243(a)(1) of this chapter, or as a pilot in command or second in command in any operation conducted under this part; (3) Except for the holder of a flight instructor certificate, receives initial training on the following topics: (i) The fundamental principles of the learning process; (ii) Elements of effective teaching, instruction methods, and techniques; (iii) Instructor duties, privileges, responsibilities, and limitations; (iv) Training policies and procedures; and (v) Evaluation. (4) If providing training in a flight simulation training device, hold an aircraft type rating for the aircraft represented by the flight simulation training device utilized in the training program and have received training within the preceding 12 months from the certificate holder on:

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(i) Proper operation of flight simulator and flight training device controls and systems; (ii) Proper operation of environmental and fault panels; (iii) Data and motion limitations of simulation; (iv) Minimum equipment requirements for each curriculum; and (v) The maneuvers that will be demonstrated in the flight simulation training device. (c) A certificate holder may not issue a graduation certificate to a student unless that student has completed all the curriculum requirements of the course. (d) A certificate holder must conduct evaluations to ensure that training techniques, procedures, and standards are acceptable to the Administrator. [Docket FAA-2010-0100, 78 FR 42377, July 15, 2013] § 121.411 Qualifications: Check pilots and check flight engineers. (a) For the purposes of this part: (1) A check pilot (airplane) or check flight engineer (airplane) is a person who is qualified, and permitted, to conduct flight checks or instruction in an airplane for a particular type airplane. (2) A check pilot (FSTD) or check flight engineer (FSTD) is a person who is qualified to conduct flight checks or instruction-only in an FSTD for a particular type airplane. (3) Check pilots and check flight engineers are those persons who perform the functions described in § 121.401(a)(4). (b) No certificate holder may use a person, nor may any person serve as a check pilot or check flight engineer in a training program established under this subpart unless, with respect to the airplane type involved, that person— (1) Holds the pilot certificates and ratings required to serve as a pilot in command or a flight engineer certificate, as applicable, in operations under this part; (2) Has satisfactorily completed the appropriate training phases for the airplane, including recurrent training, that are required to serve as a pilot in command or flight engineer, as applicable, in operations under this part; (3) Has satisfactorily completed the appropriate proficiency or flight checks that are required to serve as a pilot in command or flight engineer, as applicable, in operations under this part; (4) Has satisfactorily completed the applicable training requirements of § 121.413; and (5) Has been approved by the Administrator for the check pilot or check flight engineer duties involved. (c) Completion of the requirements in paragraphs (b)(2), (3), and (4) of this section, as applicable, shall be entered in the individual's training record maintained by the certificate holder. (d) A check pilot (FSTD) and check flight engineer (FSTD) must accomplish the following— (1) Fly at least two flight segments as a required crewmember for the type airplane involved within the 12-month period preceding the performance of any check pilot or check flight engineer duty in an FSTD; or (2) Satisfactorily complete an approved line-observation program within the period prescribed by that program and that must precede the performance of any check pilot or check flight engineer duty in an FSTD. (e) The flight segments or line-observation program required in paragraph (d) of this section are considered to be completed in the month required if completed in the calendar month before or in the calendar month after the month in which it is due. (f) A person who serves as a required flightcrew member while performing check pilot or check flight engineer duties must also meet the requirements of this chapter for the duty position in which they are serving. [Docket FAA-2019-0360, Amdt. 121-392, 89 FR 51425, June 18, 2024] § 121.412 Qualifications: Flight instructors. (a) For the purposes of this part: (1) A flight instructor (airplane) is a person who is qualified to instruct in an airplane for a particular type airplane. (2) A flight instructor (FSTD) is a person who is qualified to instruct only in an FSTD for a particular type airplane.

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(3) Flight instructors are those instructors who perform the functions described in § 121.401(a)(4). (b) No certificate holder may use a person nor may any person serve as a flight instructor in a training program established under this subpart unless, with respect to the airplane type involved, that person— (1) Holds the pilot certificates and rating required to serve as a pilot in command or a flight engineer certificate, as applicable, in operations under this part; (2) Has satisfactorily completed the appropriate training phases for the airplane, including recurrent training, that are required to serve as a pilot in command or flight engineer, as applicable, in operations under this part; (3) Has satisfactorily completed the appropriate proficiency or flight checks that are required to serve as a pilot in command or flight engineer, as applicable, in operations under this part; (4) Has satisfactorily completed the applicable training requirements of § 121.414. (c) Completion of the requirements in paragraphs (b) (2), (3), and (4) of this section, as applicable, shall be entered in the individual's training record maintained by the certificate holder. (d) A flight instructor (FSTD) must accomplish the following— (1) Fly at least two flight segments as a required crewmember for the type of airplane within the 12-month period preceding the performance of any flight instructor duty in an FSTD; or (2) Satisfactorily complete an approved line-observation program within the period prescribed by that program preceding the performance of any flight instructor duty in an FSTD. (e) The flight segments or line-observation program required in paragraph (d) of this section is considered completed in the month required if completed in the calendar month before, or the calendar month after the month in which it is due. (f) A person who serves as a required flightcrew member while performing flight instructor duties must also meet the requirements of this chapter for the duty position in which they are serving. [Docket FAA-2019-0360, Amdt. 121-392, 89 FR 51426, June 18, 2024] § 121.413 Initial, transition and recurrent training and checking requirements: Check pilots and check flight engineers. (a) No certificate holder may use a person nor may any person serve as a check pilot or check flight engineer unless— (1) That person has satisfactorily completed initial or transition check pilot or check flight engineer training, as applicable; and (2) Within the preceding 24 calendar months, that person satisfactorily conducts a check or supervises operating experience under the observation of an FAA inspector or an aircrew designated examiner employed by the operator. The observation check may be accomplished in part or in full in an airplane and in an FSTD. (b) The observation check required by paragraph (a)(2) of this section is considered to have been completed in the month required if completed in the calendar month before, or the calendar month after, the month in which it is due. (c) The initial ground training for check pilots or check flight engineers must include the following, as applicable: (1) Check pilot or check flight engineer duties, functions, and responsibilities. (2) The applicable Code of Federal Regulations and the certificate holder's policies and procedures. (3) The appropriate methods, procedures, and techniques for conducting the required checks. (4) Proper evaluation of student performance, including the detection of— (i) Improper and insufficient training; and (ii) Personal characteristics of an applicant that could adversely affect safety. (5) The appropriate corrective action in the case of unsatisfactory checks. (6) The approved methods, procedures, and limitations for performing the required normal, abnormal, and emergency procedures in the airplane.

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(7) For check pilots or check flight engineers who conduct training or checking in an FSTD, the following subjects specific to the device(s) for the airplane type: (i) Proper operation of the controls and systems; (ii) Proper operation of environmental and fault panels; (iii) Data and motion limitations of simulation; and (iv) The minimum airplane simulator equipment required by this part or part 60 of this chapter for each maneuver and procedure completed in an FSTD. (d) The transition ground training for check pilots or check flight engineers must include the following: (1) The approved methods, procedures, and limitations for performing the required normal, abnormal, and emergency procedures applicable to the airplane to which the check pilot or check flight engineer is transitioning. (2) For check pilots or check flight engineers who conduct training or checking in an FSTD, the following subjects specific to the device(s) for the airplane type to which the check pilot or check flight engineer is transitioning: (i) Proper operation of the controls and systems; (ii) Proper operation of environmental and fault panels; (iii) Data and motion limitations of simulation; and (iv) The minimum airplane simulator equipment required by this part or part 60 of this chapter for each maneuver and procedure completed in an FSTD. (e) The initial and transition flight training for check pilots (airplane) and check flight engineers (airplane) must include the following: (1) The safety measures for emergency situations that are likely to develop during a check. (2) The potential results of improper, untimely, or non-execution of safety measures during a check. (3) For check pilots (airplane)— (i) Training and practice in conducting flight checks from the left and right pilot seats in the required normal, abnormal, and emergency procedures to ensure competence to conduct the pilot flight checks required by this part; and (ii) The safety measures to be taken from either pilot seat for emergency situations that are likely to develop during a check. (4) For check flight engineers (airplane), training to ensure competence to perform assigned duties. (f) The requirements of paragraph (e) of this section may be accomplished in full or in part inflight and in an FSTD, as appropriate. (g) The initial and transition flight training for check pilots or check flight engineers who conduct training or checking in an FSTD must include the following: (1) Training and practice in conducting flight checks in the required normal, abnormal, and emergency procedures to ensure competence to conduct the flight checks required by this part. This training and practice must be accomplished in an FSTD. (2) Training in the operation of FSTDs to ensure competence to conduct the flight checks required by this part. (h) Recurrent ground training for check pilots or check flight engineers who conduct training or checking in an FSTD must be completed every 12 calendar months and must include the subjects required in paragraph (c)(7) of this section. [Docket FAA-2019-0360, Amdt. 121-392, 89 FR 51426, June 18, 2024] § 121.414 Initial, transition and recurrent training and checking requirements: Flight instructors. (a) No certificate holder may use a person nor may any person serve as a flight instructor unless— (1) That person has satisfactorily completed initial or transition flight instructor training; and (2) Within the preceding 24 calendar months, that person satisfactorily conducts instruction under the observation of an FAA inspector, an operator check pilot, a check flight engineer, or an aircrew designated examiner employed by the operator, as appropriate. The observation check may be accomplished in part or in full in an airplane and an FSTD. (b) The observation check required by paragraph (a)(2) of this section is considered to have been completed in the month required if completed in the calendar month before, or the calendar month after, the month in which it is due.

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(c) The initial ground training for flight instructors must include the following: (1) Flight instructor duties, functions, and responsibilities. (2) The applicable Code of Federal Regulations and the certificate holder's policies and procedures. (3) The appropriate methods, procedures, and techniques for conducting flight instruction. (4) Proper evaluation of student performance including the detection of— (i) Improper and insufficient training; and (ii) Personal characteristics of an applicant that could adversely affect safety. (5) The corrective action in the case of unsatisfactory training progress. (6) The approved methods, procedures, and limitations for performing the required normal, abnormal, and emergency procedures in the airplane. (7) Except for holders of a flight instructor certificate— (i) The fundamental principles of the teaching-learning process; (ii) Teaching methods and procedures; and (iii) The instructor-student relationship. (8) For flight instructors who conduct training in an FSTD, the following subjects specific to the device(s) for the airplane type: (i) Proper operation of the controls and systems; (ii) Proper operation of environmental and fault panels; (iii) Data and motion limitations of simulation; and (iv) The minimum airplane simulator equipment required by this part 121 or part 60 of this chapter for each maneuver and procedure completed in an FSTD. (d) The transition ground training for flight instructors must include the following: (1) The approved methods, procedures, and limitations for performing the required normal, abnormal, and emergency procedures applicable to the airplane to which the flight instructor is transitioning. (2) For flight instructors who conduct training in an FSTD, the following subjects specific to the device(s) for the airplane type to which the flight instructor is transitioning: (i) Proper operation of the controls and systems; (ii) Proper operation of environmental and fault panels; (iii) Data and motion limitations of simulation; and (iv) The minimum airplane simulator equipment required by this part or part 60 of this chapter for each maneuver and procedure completed in an FSTD. (e) The initial and transition flight training for flight instructors (airplane) must include the following: (1) The safety measures for emergency situations that are likely to develop during instruction. (2) The potential results of improper, untimely, or non-execution of safety measures during instruction. (3) For pilot flight instructor (airplane)— (i) Inflight training and practice in conducting flight instruction from the left and right pilot seats in the required normal, abnormal, and emergency procedures to ensure competence as an instructor; and (ii) The safety measures to be taken from either pilot seat for emergency situations that are likely to develop during instruction. (4) For flight engineer instructors (airplane), inflight training to ensure competence to perform assigned duties. (f) The requirements of paragraph (e) of this section may be accomplished in full or in part inflight and in an FSTD, as appropriate. (g) The initial and transition flight training for flight instructors who conduct training in an FSTD must include the following: (1) Training and practice in the required normal, abnormal, and emergency procedures to ensure competence to conduct the flight instruction required by this part. This training and practice must be accomplished in full or in part in an FSTD.

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(2) Training in the operation of FSTDs to ensure competence to conduct the flight instruction required by this part. (h) Recurrent flight instructor ground training for flight instructors who conduct training in an FSTD must be completed every 12 calendar months and must include the subjects required in paragraph (c)(8) of this section. [Docket 28471, 61 FR 30743, June 17, 1996; 62 FR 3739, Jan. 24, 1997, as amended by Amdt. 121-366, 78 FR 67838, Nov. 12, 2013; Amdt. 121-382, 85 FR 10922, Feb. 25, 2020; Docket FAA-2019-0360, Amdt. 121-392, 89 FR 51427, June 18, 2024] § 121.415 Crewmember and dispatcher training program requirements. (a) Each training program must provide the following ground training as appropriate to the particular assignment of the crewmember or dispatcher: (1) Basic indoctrination ground training for newly hired crewmembers or dispatchers including 40 programmed hours of instruction, unless reduced under § 121.405 or as specified in § 121.401(d), in at least the following— (i) Duties and responsibilities of crewmembers or dispatchers, as applicable; (ii) Appropriate provisions of the Federal Aviation Regulations; (iii) Contents of the certificate holder's operating certificate and operations specifications (not required for flight attendants); and (iv) Appropriate portions of the certificate holder's operating manual. (2) The initial and transition ground training specified in §§ 121.419, 121.421 and 121.422, as applicable. (3) For crewmembers, emergency training as specified in §§ 121.417 and 121.805. (4) After February 15, 2008, training for crewmembers and dispatchers in their roles and responsibilities in the certificate holder's passenger recovery plan, if applicable. (b) Each training program must provide the flight training specified in §§ 121.424 through 121.426, as applicable. (c) Each training program must provide recurrent ground and flight training as provided in § 121.427. (d) Each training program must provide the differences training specified in § 121.418(a) if the Administrator finds that, due to differences between airplanes of the same type operated by the certificate holder, additional training is necessary to insure that each crewmember and dispatcher is adequately trained to perform their assigned duties. (e) Upgrade training as specified in §§ 121.420 and 121.426 for a particular type airplane may be included in the training program for flightcrew members who have qualified and served as second in command pilot on that airplane. (f) Conversion training as specified in §§ 121.419 and 121.424 for a particular type airplane may be included in the training program for flightcrew members who have qualified and served as flight engineer on that airplane. (g) Particular subjects, maneuvers, procedures, or parts thereof specified in §§ 121.419, 121.420, 121.421, 121.422, 121.424, 121.425, and 121.426 for transition, conversion or upgrade training, as applicable, may be omitted, or the programmed hours of ground instruction or inflight training may be reduced, as provided in § 121.405. (h) In addition to initial, transition, conversion, upgrade, recurrent and differences training, each training program must also provide ground and flight training, instruction, and practice as necessary to insure that each crewmember and aircraft dispatcher— (1) Remains adequately trained and currently proficient with respect to each airplane, crewmember position, and type of operation in which he serves; and (2) Qualifies in new equipment, facilities, procedures, and techniques, including modifications to airplanes. (i) Each training program must include a process to provide for the regular analysis of individual pilot performance to identify pilots with performance deficiencies during training and checking and multiple failures during checking. (j) Each training program must include methods for remedial training and tracking of pilots identified in the analysis performed in accordance with paragraph (i) of this section.

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[Docket 9509, 35 FR 90, Jan. 3, 1970, as amended by Amdt. 121-130, 41 FR 47229, Oct. 28, 1976; Amdt. 121-281, 66 FR 19043, Apr. 12, 2001; Amdt. 121-329, 72 FR 1881, Jan. 16, 2007; Amdt. 121-366, 78 FR 67839, Nov. 12, 2013; Amdt. 121-382, 85 FR 10922, Feb. 25, 2020; Docket FAA-2019-0360, Amdt. 121-392, 89 FR 51427, June 18, 2024] § 121.417 Crewmember emergency training. (a) Each training program must provide the emergency training set forth in this section with respect to each airplane type, model, and configuration, each required crewmember, and each kind of operation conducted, insofar as appropriate for each crewmember and the certificate holder. (b) Emergency training must provide the following: (1) Instruction in emergency assignments and procedures, including coordination among crewmembers. (2) Individual instruction in the location, function, and operation of emergency equipment including— (i) Equipment used in ditching and evacuation; (ii) [Reserved] (iii) Portable fire extinguishers, with emphasis on type of extinguisher to be used on different classes of fires; and (iv) Emergency exits in the emergency mode with the evacuation slide/raft pack attached (if applicable), with training emphasis on the operation of the exits under adverse conditions. (3) Instruction in the handling of emergency situations including— (i) Rapid decompression; (ii) Fire inflight or on the surface, and smoke control procedures with emphasis on electrical equipment and related circuit breakers found in cabin areas including all galleys, service centers, lifts, lavatories and movie screens; (iii) Ditching and other evacuation, including the evacuation of persons and their attendants, if any, who may need the assistance of another person to move expeditiously to an exit in the event of an emergency. (iv) [Reserved] (v) Hijacking and other unusual situations. (4) Review and discussion of previous aircraft accidents and incidents pertaining to actual emergency situations. (c) Each crewmember must accomplish the following emergency training during the specified training periods, using those items of installed emergency equipment for each type of airplane in which he or she is to serve (Alternate recurrent training required by § 121.433(c) of this part may be accomplished by approved pictorial presentation or demonstration): (1) One-time emergency drill requirements to be accomplished during initial training. Each crewmember must perform— (i) At least one approved protective breathing equipment (PBE) drill in which the crewmember combats an actual or simulated fire using at least one type of installed hand fire extinguisher or approved fire extinguisher that is appropriate for the type of actual fire or simulated fire to be fought while using the type of installed PBE required by § 121.337 or approved PBE simulation device as defined by paragraph (d) of this section for combatting fires aboard airplanes; (ii) At least one approved firefighting drill in which the crewmember combats an actual fire using at least one type of installed hand fire extinguisher or approved fire extinguisher that is appropriate for the type of fire to be fought. This firefighting drill is not required if the crewmember performs the PBE drill of paragraph (c)(1)(i) by combating an actual fire; and (iii) An emergency evacuation drill with each person egressing the airplane or approved training device using at least one type of installed emergency evacuation slide. The crewmember may either observe the airplane exits being opened in the emergency mode and the associated exit slide/raft pack being deployed and inflated, or perform the tasks resulting in the accomplishment of these actions. (2) Additional emergency drill requirements to be accomplished during initial training and once each 24 calendar months during recurrent training. Each crewmember must—

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(i) Perform the following emergency drills and operate the following equipment: (A) Each type of emergency exit in the normal and emergency modes, including the actions and forces required in the deployment of the emergency evacuation slides; (B) Each type of installed hand fire extinguisher; (C) Each type of emergency oxygen system to include protective breathing equipment; (D) Donning, use, and inflation of individual flotation means, if applicable; and (E) Ditching, if applicable, including but not limited to, as appropriate: ( 1 ) Cockpit preparation and procedures; ( 2 ) Crew coordination; ( 3 ) Passenger briefing and cabin preparation; ( 4 ) Donning and inflation of life preservers; ( 5 ) Use of life-lines; and ( 6 ) Boarding of passengers and crew into raft or a slide/raft pack. (ii) Observe the following drills: (A) Removal from the airplane (or training device) and inflation of each type of life raft, if applicable; (B) Transfer of each type of slide/raft pack from one door to another; (C) Deployment, inflation, and detachment from the airplane (or training device) of each type of slide/raft pack; and (D) Emergency evacuation including the use of a slide. (d) After September 1, 1993, no crewmember may serve in operations under this part unless that crewmember has performed the PBE drill and the firefighting drill described by paragraphs (c)(1)(i) and (c)(1)(ii) of this section, as part of a one-time training requirement of paragraphs (c)(1) or (c)(2) of this section as appropriate. Any crewmember who performs the PBE drill and the firefighting drill prescribed in paragraphs (c)(1)(i) and (c)(1)(ii) of this section after May 26, 1987, is deemed to be in compliance with this regulation upon presentation of information or documentation, in a form and manner acceptable to the Executive Director, Flight Standards Service, showing that the appropriate drills have been accomplished. (e) Crewmembers who serve in operations above 25,000 feet must receive instruction in the following: (1) Respiration. (2) Hypoxia. (3) Duration of consciousness without supplemental oxygen at altitude. (4) Gas expansion. (5) Gas bubble formation. (6) Physical phenomena and incidents of decompression. (f) For the purposes of this section the following definitions apply: (1) Actual fire means an ignited combustible material, in controlled conditions, of sufficient magnitude and duration to accomplish the training objectives outlined in paragraphs (c)(1)(i) and (c)(1)(ii) of this section. (2) Approved fire extinguisher means a training device that has been approved by the Administrator for use in meeting the training requirements of § 121.417(c). (3) Approved PBE simulation device means a training device that has been approved by the Administrator for use in meeting the training requirements of § 121.417(c). (4) Combats, in this context, means to properly fight an actual or simulated fire using an appropriate type of fire extinguisher until that fire is extinguished. (5) Observe means to watch without participating actively in the drill. (6) PBE drill means an emergency drill in which a crewmember demonstrates the proper use of protective breathing equipment while fighting an actual or simulated fire. (7) Perform means to satisfactorily accomplish a prescribed emergency drill using established procedures that stress the skill of the persons involved in the drill. (8) Simulated fire means an artificial duplication of smoke or flame used to create various aircraft firefighting scenarios, such as lavatory, galley oven, and aircraft seat fires. [Docket 9509, 35 FR 90, Jan. 3, 1970] Editorial Note: For Federal Register citations affecting § 121.417, see the List of CFR Sections Affected, which appears in the Finding Aids section of the printed volume and at www.govinfo.gov.

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§ 121.418 Differences training and related aircraft differences training. (a) Differences training. (1) Differences training for crewmembers and dispatchers must consist of at least the following as applicable to their assigned duties and responsibilities: (i) Instruction in each appropriate subject or part thereof required for initial ground training in the airplane unless the Administrator finds that particular subjects are not necessary. (ii) Flight training in each appropriate maneuver or procedure required for initial flight training in the airplane unless the Administrator finds that particular maneuvers or procedures are not necessary. (iii) The number of programmed hours of ground and flight training determined by the Administrator to be necessary for the airplane, the operation, and the crewmember or aircraft dispatcher involved. (2) Differences training for all variations of a particular type airplane may be included in initial, transition, conversion, upgrade, and recurrent training for the airplane. (b) Related aircraft differences training. (1) In order to seek approval of related aircraft differences training for flightcrew members, a certificate holder must submit a request for related aircraft designation to the Administrator, and obtain approval of that request. (2) If the Administrator determines under paragraph (b)(1) of this section that a certificate holder is operating related aircraft, the certificate holder may submit to the Administrator a request for approval of a training program that includes related aircraft differences training. (3) A request for approval of a training program that includes related aircraft differences training must include at least the following: (i) Each appropriate subject required for the ground training for the related aircraft. (ii) Each appropriate maneuver or procedure required for the flight training and crewmember emergency training for the related aircraft. (iii) The number of programmed hours of ground training, flight training and crewmember emergency training necessary based on review of the related aircraft and the duty position. (c) Approved related aircraft differences training. Approved related aircraft differences training for flightcrew members may be included in initial, transition, conversion, upgrade and recurrent training for the base aircraft. If the certificate holder's approved training program includes related aircraft differences training in accordance with paragraph (b) of this section, the training required by §§ 121.419, 121.420, 121.424, 121.425, 121.426, and 121.427, as applicable to flightcrew members, may be modified for the related aircraft. [Docket 9509, 35 FR 90, Jan. 3, 1970, as amended by Amdt. 121-366, 78 FR 67839, Nov. 12, 2013; Amdt. 121-382, 85 FR 10922, Feb. 25, 2020] § 121.419 Pilots and flight engineers: Initial, transition, conversion and upgrade ground training. (a) Except as provided in paragraph (b) of this section, initial and conversion ground training for pilots and initial and transition ground training for flight engineers, must include instruction in at least the following as applicable to their assigned duties: (1) General subjects— (i) The certificate holder's dispatch or flight release procedures; (ii) Principles and methods for determining weight and balance, and runway limitations for takeoff and landing; (iii) Enough meteorology to insure a practical knowledge of weather phenomena, including the principles of frontal systems, icing, fog, thunderstorms, and high altitude weather situations; (iv) Air traffic control systems, procedures, and phraseology; (v) Navigation and the use of navigation aids, including instrument approach procedures; (vi) Normal and emergency communication procedures; (vii) Visual cues prior to and during descent below DA/DH or MDA; (viii) Approved crew resource management initial training; and (ix) Other instructions as necessary to ensure pilot and flight engineer competence. (2) For each airplane type— (i) A general description;

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(ii) Performance characteristics; (iii) Engines and propellers; (iv) Major components; (v) Major airplane systems (e.g., flight controls, electrical, hydraulic); other systems as appropriate; principles of normal, abnormal, and emergency operations; appropriate procedures and limitations; (vi) Procedures for— (A) Recognizing and avoiding severe weather situations; (B) Escaping from severe weather situations, in case of inadvertent encounters, including low-altitude windshear, and (C) Operating in or near thunderstorms (including best penetrating altitudes), turbulent air (including clear air turbulence), icing, hail, and other potentially hazardous meteorological conditions; (vii) Operating limitations; (viii) Fuel consumption and cruise control; (ix) Flight planning; (x) Each normal and emergency procedure; (xi) For pilots, stall prevention and recovery in clean configuration, takeoff and maneuvering configuration, and landing configuration. (xii) For pilots, upset prevention and recovery; and (xiii) The approved Airplane Flight Manual. (b) Initial and conversion ground training for pilots who have completed the airline transport pilot certification training program in § 61.156 of this chapter, and transition ground training for pilots, must include instruction in at least the following as applicable to their assigned duties: (1) Ground training specific to the certificate holder's— (i) Dispatch or flight release procedures; (ii) Method for determining weight and balance and runway limitations for takeoff and landing; (iii) Meteorology hazards applicable to the certificate holder's areas of operation; (iv) Approved departure, arrival, and approach procedures; (v) Normal and emergency communication procedures; and (vi) Approved crew resource management training. (2) The training required by paragraph (a)(2) of this section for the airplane type. (c) In addition to the requirements in paragraph (a) or (b) of this section, as applicable, initial ground training for pilots in command must include instruction and facilitated discussion on the following: (1) Leadership and command, including flightcrew member duties under § 121.542; and (2) Mentoring, including techniques for instilling and reinforcing the highest standards of technical performance, airmanship, and professionalism in newly hired pilots. (d) Initial ground training for pilots and flight engineers must consist of at least the following programmed hours of instruction in the required subjects specified in paragraph (a) of this section and in § 121.415(a) unless reduced under § 121.405: (1) Group I airplanes— (i) Reciprocating powered, 64 hours; and (ii) Turbopropeller powered, 80 hours. (2) Group II airplanes, 120 hours. (e) Initial ground training for pilots who have completed the airline transport pilot certification training program in § 61.156 must consist of at least the following programmed hours of instruction in the required subjects specified in paragraph (b) of this section and in § 121.415(a) unless reduced under § 121.405: (1) Group I airplanes— (i) Reciprocating powered, 54 hours; and (ii) Turbopropeller powered, 70 hours. (2) Group II airplanes, 110 hours. (f) Initial programmed hours applicable to pilots as specified in paragraphs (d) and (e) of this section must include 2 additional hours to meet the requirements in paragraphs (a)(2)(xi) and (xii) of this section. [Docket FAA-2010-0100, 78 FR 42377, July 15, 2013, as amended by Amdt. 121-366, 78 FR 67839, Nov. 12, 2013; Amdt. 121-382, 85 FR 10922, Feb. 25, 2020; Docket FAA-2019-0360, Amdt. 121-392, 89 FR 51427, June 18, 2024; Amdt. 121-392A, 89 FR 57730, July 16, 2024]

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§ 121.420 Pilots: Upgrade ground training. (a) Upgrade ground training must include instruction in at least the following subjects as applicable to the duties assigned to the pilot in command: (1) Seat dependent procedures, as applicable; (2) Duty position procedures, as applicable; and (3) Crew resource management, including decision making, authority and responsibility, and conflict resolution. (b) In addition to the requirements in paragraph (a) of this section, upgrade ground training must include instruction and facilitated discussion on the following: (1) Leadership and command, including flightcrew member duties under § 121.542; and (2) Mentoring, including techniques for reinforcing the highest standards of technical performance, airmanship, and professional development in newly hired pilots. [Amdt. 121-382, 85 FR 10923, Feb. 25, 2020 as amended by Docket FAA-2019-0360, Amdt. 121-392, 89 FR 51427, June 18, 2024] § 121.421 Flight attendants: Initial and transition ground training. (a) Initial and transition ground training for flight attendants must include instruction in at least the following: (1) General subjects— (i) The authority of the pilot in command; (ii) Passenger handling, including the procedures to be followed in the case of deranged persons or other persons whose conduct might jeopardize safety; and (iii) Approved crew resource management initial training. (2) For each airplane type— (i) A general description of the airplane emphasizing physical characteristics that may have a bearing on ditching, evacuation, and inflight emergency procedures and on other related duties; (ii) The use of both the public address system and the means of communicating with other flight crewmembers, including emergency means in the case of attempted hijacking or other unusual situations; and (iii) Proper use of electrical galley equipment and the controls for cabin heat and ventilation. (b) Initial and transition ground training for flight attendants must include a competence check to determine ability to perform assigned duties and responsibilities. (c) Initial ground training for flight attendants must consist of at least the following programmed hours of instruction in the subjects specified in paragraph (a) of this section and in § 121.415(a) unless reduced under § 121.405. (1) Group I airplanes— (i) Reciprocating powered, 8 hours; and (ii) Turbopropeller powered, 8 hours. (2) Group II airplanes, 16 hours. [Docket 9509, 35 FR 90, Jan. 3, 1970, as amended by Amdt. 121-250, 60 FR 65949, Dec. 20, 1995] § 121.422 Aircraft dispatchers: Initial and transition ground training. (a) Initial and transition ground training for aircraft dispatchers must include instruction in at least the following: (1) General subjects— (i) Use of communications systems including the characteristics of those systems and the appropriate normal and emergency procedures; (ii) Meteorology, including various types of meteorological information and forecasts, interpretation of weather data (including forecasting of en route and terminal temperatures and other weather conditions), frontal systems, wind conditions, and use of actual and prognostic weather charts for various altitudes; (iii) The NOTAM system; (iv) Navigational aids and publications; (v) Joint dispatcher-pilot responsibilities; (vi) Characteristics of appropriate airports; (vii) Prevailing weather phenomena and the available sources of weather information; (viii) Air traffic control and instrument approach procedures; and (ix) Approved dispatcher resource management (DRM) initial training. (2) For each airplane—

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(i) A general description of the airplane emphasizing operating and performance characteristics, navigation equipment, instrument approach and communication equipment, emergency equipment and procedures, and other subjects having a bearing on dispatcher duties and responsibilities; (ii) Flight operation procedures including procedures specified in § 121.419(a)(2)(vi); (iii) Weight and balance computations; (iv) Basic airplane performance dispatch requirements and procedures; (v) Flight planning including track selection, flight time analysis, and fuel requirements; and (vi) Emergency procedures. (3) Emergency procedures must be emphasized, including the alerting of proper governmental, company, and private agencies during emergencies to give maximum help to an airplane in distress. (b) Initial and transition ground training for aircraft dispatchers must include a competence check given by an appropriate supervisor or ground instructor that demonstrates knowledge and ability with the subjects set forth in paragraph (a) of this section. (c) Initial ground training for aircraft dispatchers must consist of at least the following programmed hours of instruction in the subjects specified in paragraph (a) of this section and in § 121.415(a) unless reduced under § 121.405: (1) Group I airplanes— (i) Reciprocating powered, 30 hours; and (ii) Turbopropeller powered, 40 hours. (2) Group II airplanes, 40 hours. [Docket 9509, 35 FR 90, Jan. 3, 1970, as amended by Amdt. 121-250, 60 FR 65949, Dec. 20, 1995] § 121.423 Pilots: Extended Envelope Training. (a) Each certificate holder must include in its approved training program, the extended envelope training set forth in this section with respect to each airplane type for each pilot. The extended envelope training required by this section must be performed in a Level C or higher full flight simulator, approved by the Administrator in accordance with § 121.407 of this part. (b) Extended envelope training must include the following maneuvers and procedures: (1) Manually controlled slow flight; (2) Manually controlled loss of reliable airspeed; (3) Manually controlled instrument departure and arrival; (4) Upset recovery maneuvers; and (5) Recovery from bounced landing. (c) Extended envelope training must include instructor-guided hands on experience of recovery from full stall and stick pusher activation, if equipped. (d) Recurrent training: Within 24 calendar months preceding service as a pilot, each person must satisfactorily complete the extended envelope training described in paragraphs (b)(1) through (4) and (c) of this section. Within 36 calendar months preceding service as a pilot, each person must satisfactorily complete the extended envelope training described in paragraph (b)(5) of this section. (e) Deviation from use of Level C or higher full flight simulator: (1) A certificate holder may submit a request to the Administrator for approval of a deviation from the requirements of paragraph (a) of this section to conduct the extended envelope training using an alternative method to meet the learning objectives of this section. (2) A request for deviation from paragraph (a) of this section must include the following information: (i) A simulator availability assessment, including hours by specific simulator and location of the simulator, and a simulator shortfall analysis that includes the training that cannot be completed in a Level C or higher full flight simulator; and (ii) Alternative methods for achieving the learning objectives of this section. (3) A certificate holder may request an extension of a deviation issued under this section. (4) Deviations or extensions to deviations will be issued for a period not to exceed 12 months. [Docket FAA-2008-0677, 78 FR 67839, Nov. 12, 2013; Amdt. 121-382, 85 FR 10923, Feb. 25, 2020, as amended by Docket FAA-2019-0360, Amdt. 121-392, 89 FR 51427, June 18, 2024]

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§ 121.424 Pilots: Initial, transition, conversion, and upgrade flight training. (a) Initial, transition, and conversion flight training for pilots must include the following: (1) Flight training and practice in the maneuvers and procedures set forth in the certificate holder's approved low-altitude windshear flight training program and in appendix E to this part, as applicable; and (2) Extended envelope training set forth in § 121.423. (b) In addition to the requirements in paragraph (a) of this section, initial flight training for pilots in command must include sufficient scenario-based training incorporating CRM and leadership and command skills to ensure the pilot's proficiency as pilot in command. The training required by this paragraph (b) may be completed inflight or in an FSTD. (c) The training required by paragraph (a) of this section must be performed inflight except— (1) That windshear maneuvers and procedures must be performed in an FFS in which the maneuvers and procedures are specifically authorized to be accomplished; (2) That the extended envelope training required by § 121.423 must be performed in a Level C or higher full flight simulator unless the Administrator has issued to the certificate holder a deviation in accordance with § 121.423(e); and (3) To the extent that certain other maneuvers and procedures may be performed in an FFS, an FTD, or a static airplane as permitted in appendix E to this part. (d) Except as permitted in paragraph (e) of this section, the initial flight training required by paragraph (a)(1) of this section must include at least the following programmed hours of inflight training and practice unless reduced under § 121.405; (1) Group I airplanes— (i) Reciprocating powered. Pilot in command, 10 hours; second in command, 6 hours; and (ii) Turbopropeller powered. Pilot in command, 15 hours; second in command, 7 hours. (2) Group II airplanes. Pilot in command, 20 hours; second in command, 10 hours. (e) If the certificate holder's approved training program includes a course of training utilizing an FFS under § 121.409 (c) and (d) of this part, each pilot must successfully complete— (1) With respect to § 121.409(c) of this part— (i) Training and practice in the FFS in at least all of the maneuvers and procedures set forth in appendix E of this part for initial flight training that are capable of being performed in an FFS; and (ii) A proficiency check in the FFS or the airplane to the level of proficiency of a pilot in command or second in command, as applicable, in at least the maneuvers and procedures set forth in appendix F of this part that are capable of being performed in an FFS. (2) With respect to § 121.409(d) of this part, training and practice in at least the maneuvers and procedures set forth in the certificate holder's approved low-altitude windshear flight training program that are capable of being performed in an FFS in which the maneuvers and procedures are specifically authorized. [Docket 9509, 35 FR 90, Jan. 3, 1970, as amended by Amdt. 121-199, 53 FR 37697, Sept. 27, 1988; Amdt. 121-366, 78 FR 67840, Nov. 12, 2013; Amdt. 121-382, 85 FR 10923, Feb. 25, 2020; Amdt. 121-384, 85 FR 39070, June 30, 2020; Docket FAA-2019-0360, Amdt. 121-392, 89 FR 51427, June 18, 2024] § 121.425 Flight engineers: Initial and transition flight training. (a) Initial and transition flight training for flight engineers must include at least the following: (1) Training and practice in procedures related to the carrying out of flight engineer duties and functions. This training and practice may be accomplished either inflight or in an FSTD. (2) A flight check that includes— (i) Preflight inspection; (ii) Inflight performance of assigned duties accomplished from the flight engineer station during taxi, runup, takeoff, climb, cruise, descent, approach, and landing;

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(iii) Accomplishment of other functions, such as fuel management and preparation of fuel consumption records, and normal and emergency or alternate operation of all airplane flight systems, performed either inflight or in an FSTD. (b) Flight engineers possessing a commercial pilot certificate with an instrument, category and class rating, or pilots already qualified as second in command and reverting to flight engineer, may complete the entire flight check, required by paragraph (a)(2) of this section, in an approved FFS. (c) Except as permitted in paragraph (d) of this section, the initial flight training required by paragraph (a) of this section must include at least the same number of programmed hours of flight training and practice that are specified for a second in command pilot under § 121.424(c) unless reduced under § 121.405. (d) If the certificate holder's approved training program includes a course of training utilizing an FSTD under § 121.409(c), each flight engineer must successfully complete in the FSTD — (1) Training and practice in at least all of the assigned duties, procedures, and functions required by paragraph (a) of this section; and (2) A flight check to a flight engineer level of proficiency in the assigned duties, procedures, and functions. [Docket 9509, 35 FR 90, Jan. 3, 1970, as amended by Amdt. 121-144, 43 FR 22647, May 25, 1978; Amdt. 121-382, 85 FR 10923, Feb. 25, 2020] § 121.426 Pilots: Upgrade flight training. (a) Upgrade flight training for pilots must include the following: (1) Seat dependent maneuvers and procedures, as applicable; (2) Duty position maneuvers and procedures, as applicable; (3) Extended envelope training set forth in § 121.423; (4) Maneuvers and procedures set forth in the certificate holder's low altitude windshear flight training program; (5) Sufficient scenario-based training incorporating CRM and leadership and command skills, to ensure the pilot's proficiency as pilot in command; and (6) Sufficient training to ensure the pilot's knowledge and skill with respect to the following: (i) The airplane, its systems and components; (ii) Proper control of airspeed, configuration, direction, altitude, and attitude in accordance with the Airplane Flight Manual, the certificate holder's operations manual, checklists, or other approved material appropriate to the airplane type; and (iii) Compliance with ATC, instrument procedures, or other applicable procedures. (b) The training required by paragraph (a) of this section must be performed inflight except— (1) That windshear maneuvers and procedures must be performed in an FFS in which the maneuvers and procedures are specifically authorized to be accomplished; (2) That the extended envelope training required by § 121.423 must be performed in a Level C or higher FFS unless the Administrator has issued to the certificate holder a deviation in accordance with § 121.423(e); and (3) To the extent that certain other maneuvers and procedures may be performed in an FFS, an FTD, or a static airplane as permitted in Appendix E of this part. (c) If the certificate holder's approved training program includes a course of training utilizing an FFS under § 121.409(c) and (d), each pilot must successfully complete— (1) With respect to § 121.409(c)—A proficiency check in the FFS or the airplane to the level of proficiency of a pilot in command in at least the maneuvers and procedures set forth in Appendix F of this part that are capable of being performed in an FFS. (2) With respect to § 121.409(d), training and practice in at least the maneuvers and procedures set forth in the certificate holder's approved low-altitude windshear flight training program that are capable of being performed in an FFS in which the maneuvers and procedures are specifically authorized. [Amdt. 121-382, 85 FR 10924, Feb. 25, 2020, as amended by Docket FAA-2019-0360, Amdt. 121-392, 89 FR 51428, June 18, 2024]

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§ 121.427 Recurrent training. (a) Recurrent training must ensure that each crewmember or aircraft dispatcher is adequately trained and currently proficient with respect to the type airplane (including differences training, if applicable) and crewmember position involved. (b) Recurrent ground training for crewmembers and dispatchers must include at least the following: (1) A quiz or other review to determine the state of the crewmember's or dispatcher's knowledge with respect to the airplane and position involved. (2) Instruction as necessary in the following: (i) For pilots, the subjects required for ground training by §§ 121.415(a)(1), (3), and (4) and 121.419(b); (ii) For flight engineers, the subjects required for ground training by §§ 121.415(a)(1), (3), and (4) and 121.419(a); (iii) For flight attendants, the subjects required for ground training by §§ 121.415(a)(1), (3), and (4) and 121.421(a); and (iv) For aircraft dispatchers, the subjects required for ground training by §§ 121.415(a)(1) and (4) and 121.422(a). (3) For flight attendants and dispatchers, a competence check as required by §§ 121.421(b) and 121.422(b), respectively. (4) For crewmembers, CRM training and for aircraft dispatchers, DRM training. For flightcrew members, CRM training or portions thereof may be accomplished during an approved FFS line-oriented flight training (LOFT) session. (c) Recurrent ground training for crewmembers and aircraft dispatchers must consist of at least the following programmed hours of instruction in the required subjects specified in paragraph (b) of this section unless reduced under § 121.405: (1) For pilots— (i) Group I reciprocating powered airplanes, 15 hours; (ii) Group I turbopropeller powered airplanes, 19 hours; and (iii) Group II airplanes, 24 hours. (2) For flight engineers— (i) Group I, reciprocating powered airplanes, 16 hours; (ii) Group I turbopropeller powered airplanes, 20 hours; and (iii) Group II airplanes, 25 hours. (3) For flight attendants— (i) Group I reciprocating powered airplanes, 4 hours; (ii) Group I turbopropeller powered airplanes, 5 hours; and (iii) Group II airplanes, 12 hours. (4) For aircraft dispatchers— (i) Group I reciprocating powered airplanes, 8 hours; (ii) Group I turbopropeller powered airplanes, 10 hours; and (iii) Group II airplanes, 20 hours. (d) Recurrent ground training for pilots serving as pilot in command: (1) Within 36 months preceding service as pilot in command, each person must complete recurrent ground training on leadership and command and mentoring. This training is in addition to the ground training required in paragraph (b) of this section and the programmed hours required in paragraph (c) of this section. This training must include instruction and facilitated discussion on the following: (i) Leadership and command, including instruction on flightcrew member duties under § 121.542; and (ii) Mentoring, including techniques for instilling and reinforcing the highest standards of technical performance, airmanship, and professionalism in newly hired pilots. (2) The requirements of paragraph (d)(1) do not apply until after a pilot has completed ground training on leadership and command and mentoring, as required by §§ 121.419, 121.420 and 121.429, as applicable. (e) Recurrent flight training for flightcrew members must include at least the following: (1) For pilots— (i) Extended envelope training as required by § 121.423 of this part; and (ii) Flight training in an approved FFS in maneuvers and procedures set forth in the certificate holder's approved low-altitude windshear flight training program and flight training in maneuvers and procedures set forth in Appendix F of this part, or in a flight training program approved by the Administrator, except as follows— (A) The number of programmed inflight hours is not specified; and (B) Satisfactory completion of a proficiency check may be substituted for recurrent flight training as permitted in § 121.433(c) and (d).

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(2) For flight engineers, flight training as provided by § 121.425(a) except as follows— (i) The specified number of inflight hours is not required; and (ii) The flight check, other than the preflight inspection, may be conducted in an FSTD. The preflight inspection may be conducted in an airplane, or by using an approved pictorial means that realistically portrays the location and detail of preflight inspection items and provides for the portrayal of abnormal conditions. Satisfactory completion of an approved line-oriented flight training may be substituted for the flight check. (f) Recurrent programmed hours applicable to pilots as specified in paragraph (c)(1) of this section must include 30 additional minutes to meet the requirements in paragraph (e)(1)(i) of this section. [Docket 9509, 35 FR 90, Jan. 30, 1970, as amended by Amdt. 121-80, 36 FR 19362, Oct. 5, 1971; Amdt. 121-144, 43 FR 22647, May 25, 1978; Amdt.121-199, 53 FR 37697, Sept. 27, 1988; Amdt. 121-250, 60 FR 65949, Dec. 20, 1995; Amdt. 121-281, 66 FR 19043, Apr. 12, 2001; Amdt. 121-366, 78 FR 67840, Nov. 12, 2013; Amdt. 121-382, 85 FR 10924, Feb. 25, 2020; Docket FAA-2019-0360, Amdt. 121-392, 89 FR 51428, June 18, 2024] § 121.429 Pilots in command: Leadership and command and mentoring training. (a) No certificate holder may use a pilot as pilot in command in an operation under this part unless the pilot has completed the following ground training in accordance with the certificate holder's approved training program: (1) Leadership and command training in § 121.419(c)(1) and mentoring training in § 121.419(c)(2); or (2) Leadership and command training in § 121.420(b)(1) and mentoring training in § 121.420(b)(2). (b) Credit for training provided by the certificate holder: (1) The Administrator may credit leadership and command training and mentoring training completed by the pilot, with that certificate holder, after April 27, 2017, and prior to April 27, 2020, toward all or part of the training required by paragraph (a) of this section. (2) In granting credit for the training required by paragraph (a) of this section, the Administrator may consider training aids, devices, methods, and procedures used by the certificate holder in voluntary leadership and command and mentoring instruction. [Amdt. 121-382, 85 FR 10925, Feb. 25, 2020, as amended by Docket FAA-2019-0360, Amdt. 121-392, 89 FR 51428, June 18, 2024] Subpart O—Crewmember Qualifications § 121.431 Applicability. (a) This subpart: (1) Prescribes crewmember qualifications for all certificate holders except where otherwise specified; and (2) Permits training center personnel authorized under part 142 of this chapter who meet the requirements of §§ 121.411 through 121.414 to provide training, testing, and checking under contract or other arrangement to those persons subject to the requirements of this subpart. (b) For the purpose of this subpart, the airplane groups and terms and definitions prescribed in § 121.400 and the following definitions apply: Consolidation is the process by which a person through practice and practical experience increases proficiency in newly acquired knowledge and skills. Line operating flight time is flight time performed in operations under this part. Operating cycle is a complete flight segment consisting of a takeoff, climb, enroute portion, descent, and a landing. [Docket 10171, 36 FR 12284, June 30, 1971, as amended by Amdt. 121-250, 60 FR 65949, Dec. 20, 1995; Amdt. 121-248, 60 FR 20869, Apr. 27, 1995; Amdt. 121-250, 60 FR 65949, Dec. 20, 1995; Amdt. 121-259, 61 FR 34561, July 2, 1996; Amdt. 121-263, 62 FR 13791, Mar. 21, 1997; Docket FAA-2010-0100, Amdt. 121-365B, 81 FR 2, Jan. 4, 2016; Amdt. 121-382, 85 FR 10925, Feb. 25, 2020] § 121.432 General. (a) Except in the case of operating experience under § 121.434 and ground training for mentoring required by §§ 121.419, 121.420, 121.427, and 121.429, as applicable, a pilot who serves as second in command of an operation that requires three or more pilots must be fully qualified to act as pilot in command of that operation.

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(b) No certificate holder may conduct a check or any training in operations under this part, except for the following checks and training required by this part or the certificate holder: (1) Line checks for pilots. (2) Flight engineer checks (except for emergency procedures), if the person being checked is qualified and current in accordance with § 121.453(a). (3) Flight attendant training and competence checks. (c) Except for pilot line checks and flight engineer flight checks, the person being trained or checked may not be used as a required crewmember. [Docket 9509, 35 FR 95, Jan. 3, 1970, as amended by Amdt. 121-130, 41 FR 47229, Oct. 28, 1976; Amdt. 121-366, 78 FR 67840, Nov. 12, 2013; Amdt. 121-382, 85 FR 10925, Feb. 25, 2020] § 121.433 Training required. (a) Initial training. No certificate holder may use any person nor may any person serve as a required crewmember on an airplane unless that person has satisfactorily completed, in a training program approved under subpart N of this part, initial ground and flight training for that type airplane and for the particular crewmember position, except as follows: (1) Crewmembers who have qualified and served as a crewmember on another type airplane of the same group may serve in the same crewmember capacity upon completion of transition training as provided in § 121.415. (2) Crewmembers who have qualified and served as second in command or flight engineer on a particular type airplane may serve as pilot in command or second in command, respectively, upon completion of upgrade or conversion training, as applicable, for that airplane as provided in § 121.415. (b) Differences training. No certificate holder may use any person nor may any person serve as a required crewmember on an airplane of a type for which differences training is included in the certificate holder's approved training program unless that person has satisfactorily completed, with respect to both the crewmember position and the particular variation of the airplane in which the person serves, either initial or transition ground and flight training, or differences training, as provided in § 121.415. (c) Recurrent training. (1) No certificate holder may use any person nor may any person serve as a required crewmember on an airplane unless, within the preceding 12 calendar months— (i) For flight crewmembers, the person has satisfactorily completed recurrent ground and flight training for that airplane and crewmember position and a flight check as applicable; (ii) For flight attendants and dispatchers, the person has satisfactorily completed recurrent ground training and a competence check; and (iii) In addition, for pilots in command the person has satisfactorily completed, within the preceding 6 calendar months, recurrent flight training in addition to the recurrent flight training required in paragraph (c)(1)(i) of this section, in an airplane in which the person serves as pilot in command in operations under this part. (2) For pilots, a proficiency check as provided in § 121.441 of this part may be substituted for the recurrent flight training required by this paragraph and the approved FFS course of training under § 121.409(b) of this part may be substituted for alternate periods of recurrent flight training required in that airplane, except as provided in paragraphs (d) and (e) of this section. (d) Notwithstanding paragraph (c)(2) of this section, a proficiency check as provided in § 121.441 may not be substituted for the extended envelope training required by § 121.423 or training in those maneuvers and procedures set forth in a certificate holder's approved low-altitude windshear flight training program when that program is included in a recurrent flight training course as required by § 121.409(d). [Docket 9509, 35 FR 95, Jan. 3, 1970, as amended by Amdt. 121-91, 37 FR 10729, May 27, 1972; Amdt. 121-199, 53 FR 37697, Sept. 27, 1988; Amdt. 121-366, 78 FR 67840, Nov. 12, 2013; Amdt. 121-382, 85 FR 10925, Feb. 25, 2020; Docket FAA-2019-0360, Amdt. 121-392, 89 FR 51428, June 18, 2024]

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§ 121.434 Operating experience, operating cycles, and consolidation of knowledge and skills. (a) No certificate holder may use a person nor may any person serve as a required crewmember of an airplane unless the person has satisfactorily completed, on that type airplane and in that crewmember position, the operating experience, operating cycles, and the line operating flight time for consolidation of knowledge and skills, required by this section, except as follows: (1) Crewmembers other than pilots in command may serve as provided herein for the purpose of meeting the requirements of this section. (2) Pilots who are meeting the pilot in command requirements may serve as second in command. (3) Separate operating experience, operating cycles, and line operating flight time for consolidation of knowledge and skills are not required for variations within the same type airplane. (4) Deviation based upon designation of related aircraft in accordance with § 121.418(b). (i) The Administrator may authorize a deviation from the operating experience, operating cycles, and line operating flight time for consolidation of knowledge and skills required by this section based upon a designation of related aircraft in accordance with § 121.418(b) of this part and a determination that the certificate holder can demonstrate an equivalent level of safety. (ii) A request for deviation from the operating experience, operating cycles, and line operating flight time for consolidation of knowledge and skills required by this section based upon a designation of related aircraft must be submitted to the Administrator. The request must include the following: (A) Identification of aircraft operated by the certificate holder designated as related aircraft. (B) Hours of operating experience and number of operating cycles necessary based on review of the related aircraft, the operation, and the duty position. (C) Consolidation hours necessary based on review of the related aircraft, the operation, and the duty position. (iii) The administrator may, at any time, terminate a grant of deviation authority issued under this paragraph (a)(4). (b) In acquiring the operating experience, operating cycles, and line operating flight time for consolidation of knowledge and skills, crewmembers must comply with the following: (1) In the case of a flight crewmember, the person must hold the appropriate certificates and ratings for the crewmember position and the airplane, except that a pilot who is meeting the pilot in command requirements must hold the appropriate certificates and ratings for a pilot in command in the airplane. (2) The operating experience, operating cycles, and line operating flight time for consolidation of knowledge and skills must be acquired after satisfactory completion of the appropriate ground and flight training for the particular airplane type and crewmember position. (3) In the case of a pilot who satisfactorily completed the preflight visual inspection of an aircraft by approved pictorial means during an initial, transition, conversion, or upgrade proficiency check, the pilot must also demonstrate proficiency to a check pilot on at least one complete preflight visual inspection of the interior and exterior of a static airplane. This demonstration of proficiency must be completed by the pilot and certified by the check pilot before the completion of operating experience. (4) The experience must be acquired inflight during operations under this part. However, in the case of an aircraft not previously used by the certificate holder in operations under this part, operating experience acquired in the aircraft during proving flights or ferry flights may be used to meet this requirement. (c) Pilot crewmembers must acquire operating experience and operating cycles as follows: (1) A pilot in command must— (i) Perform the duties of a pilot in command under the supervision of a check pilot; and (ii) For a qualifying pilot in command completing initial or upgrade training specified in § 121.424 or § 121.426, be observed in the performance of prescribed duties by an FAA inspector during at least one flight leg which includes a takeoff and landing. During the time that a qualifying pilot in command is acquiring the operating experience in paragraphs (c)(l)(i) and (ii) of this section, a check pilot who is also serving as the pilot in command must occupy a pilot station. However, in the case of a transitioning pilot in command the check pilot serving as pilot in command may occupy the observer's seat, if the transitioning pilot has made at least two takeoffs and landings in the type airplane used, and has satisfactorily demonstrated to the check pilot that he is qualified to perform the duties of a pilot in command of that type of airplane.

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(2) A second in command pilot must perform the duties of a second in command under the supervision of an appropriately qualified check pilot. (3) The hours of operating experience and operating cycles for all pilots are as follows: (i) For initial training, 15 hours in Group I reciprocating powered airplanes, 20 hours in Group I turbopropeller powered airplanes, and 25 hours in Group II airplanes. Operating experience in both airplane groups must include at least 4 operating cycles (at least 2 as the pilot flying the airplane). (ii) For transition training, except as provided in paragraph (c)(3)(iii) of this section, 10 hours in Group I reciprocating powered airplanes, 12 hours in Group I turbopropeller powered airplanes, 25 hours for pilots in command in Group II airplanes, and 15 hours for second in command pilots in Group II airplanes. Operating experience in both airplane groups must include at least 4 operating cycles (at least 2 as the pilot flying the airplane). (iii) In the case of transition training where the certificate holder's approved training program includes a course of training in an FFS under § 121.409(c), each pilot in command must comply with the requirements prescribed in paragraph (c)(3)(i) of this section for initial training. (d) A flight engineer must perform the duties of a flight engineer under the supervision of a check flight engineer or a qualified flight engineer for at least the following number of hours: (1) Group I reciprocating powered airplanes, 8 hours. (2) Group I turbopropeller powered airplanes, 10 hours. (3) Group II airplanes, 12 hours. (e) A flight attendant must, for at least 5 hours, perform the assigned duties of a flight attendant under the supervision of a flight attendant supervisor qualified under this part who personally observes the performance of these duties. However, operating experience is not required for a flight attendant who has previously acquired such experience on any large passenger carrying airplane of the same group, if the certificate holder shows that the flight attendant has received sufficient ground training for the airplane in which the flight attendant is to serve. Flight attendants receiving operating experience may not be assigned as a required crewmember. Flight attendants who have satisfactorily completed training time acquired in an approved training program conducted in a full-scale (except for length) cabin training device of the type airplane in which they are to serve may substitute this time for 50 percent of the hours required by this paragraph. (f) Flight crewmembers may substitute one additional takeoff and landing for each hour of flight to meet the operating experience requirements of this section, up to a maximum reduction of 50% of flight hours, except those in Group II initial training, and second in command pilots in Group II transition training. (g) Except as provided in paragraph (h) of this section, pilot in command and second in command crewmembers must each acquire at least 100 hours of line operating flight time for consolidation of knowledge and skills (including operating experience required under paragraph (c) of this section) within 120 days after the satisfactory completion of: (1) Any part of the flight maneuvers and procedures portion of either an airline transport pilot certificate with type rating practical test or an additional type rating practical test, or (2) A § 121.441 proficiency check.

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(h) The following exceptions apply to the consolidation requirement of paragraph (g) of this section: (1) Pilots who have qualified and served as pilot in command or second in command on a particular type airplane in operations under this part before August 25, 1995 are not required to complete line operating flight time for consolidation of knowledge and skills. (2) Pilots who have completed the line operating flight time requirement for consolidation of knowledge and skills while serving as second in command on a particular type airplane in operations under this part after August 25, 1995 are not required to repeat the line operating flight time before serving as pilot in command on the same type airplane. (3) If, before completing the required 100 hours of line operating flight time, a pilot serves as a pilot in another airplane type operated by the certificate holder, the pilot may not serve as a pilot in the airplane for which the pilot has newly qualified unless the pilot satifactorily completes refresher training as provided in the certificate holder's approved training program and that training is conducted by an appropriately qualified instructor or check pilot. (4) If the required 100 hours of line operating flight time are not completed within 120 days, the certificate holder may extend the 120-day period to no more than 150 days if— (i) The pilot continues to meet all other applicable requirements of subpart O of this part; and (ii) On or before the 120th day the pilot satisfactorily completes refresher training conducted by an appropriately qualified instructor or check pilot as provided in the certificate holder's approved training program, or a check pilot determines that the pilot has retained an adequate level of proficiency after observing that pilot in a supervised line operating flight. (5) The Administrator, upon application by the certificate holder, may authorize deviations from the requirements of paragraph (g) of this section, by an appropriate amendment to the operations specifications, to the extent warranted by any of the following circumstances: (i) A newly certificated certificate holder does not employ any pilots who meet the minimum requirements of paragraph (g) of this section. (ii) An existing certificate holder adds to its fleet an airplane type not before proven for use in its operations. (iii) A certificate holder establishes a new domicile to which it assigns pilots who will be required to become qualified on the airplanes operated from that domicile. (i) Notwithstanding the reductions in programmed hours permitted under §§ 121.405 and 121.409 of subpart N of this part, the hours of operating experience for crewmembers are not subject to reduction other than as provided in accordance with a deviation authorized under paragraph (a) of this section or as provided in paragraphs (e) and (f) of this section. [Docket 9509, 35 FR 95, Jan. 3, 1970, as amended by Amdt. 121-74, 36 FR 12284, June 30, 1971; Amdt. 121-91, 37 FR 10729, May 27, 1972; Amdt. 121-140, 43 FR 9599, Mar. 9, 1978; Amdt. 121-144, 43 FR 22647, May 25, 1978; Amdt. 121-159, 45 FR 41593, June 19, 1980; Amdt. 121-248, 60 FR 20870, Apr. 27, 1995; Amdt. 121-366, 78 FR 67840, Nov. 12, 2013; Amdt. 121-382, 85 FR 10925, Feb. 25, 2020; Docket FAA-2019-0360, Amdt. 121-392, 89 FR 51428, June 18, 2024] § 121.435 Pilots: Operations Familiarization. (a) Applicability. The operations familiarization requirements in paragraph (b) of this section apply to all persons newly hired by the certificate holder to serve as a pilot in part 121 operations and who began the certificate holder's basic indoctrination ground training on or after April 27, 2022. The requirements in paragraph (b) of this section also apply to all certificate holders required to comply with this subpart, except for those certificate holders operating under part 135 of this chapter that have been authorized to comply with this subpart instead of the requirements of part 135, subparts E, G, and H, pursuant to § 135.3(c), and those fractional ownership program managers operating under part 91, subpart K, of this chapter that have been authorized to comply with this subpart instead of §§ 91.1065 through 91.1107, pursuant to § 91.1063(b) of this chapter. (b) Operations familiarization requirements. (1) No certificate holder may use, and no person may serve as, a pilot in operations under this part unless that person has completed the operations familiarization required by this paragraph (b). Operations familiarization may be completed during or after basic indoctrination training, but must be completed before the pilot begins operating experience under § 121.434.

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(2) Operations familiarization must include at least two operating cycles conducted by the certificate holder in accordance with the operating rules of this part. (3) All pilots completing operations familiarization must occupy the observer seat on the flight deck and have access to and use an operational headset. (c) Deviation. (1) A certificate holder who operates an aircraft that does not have an observer seat on the flight deck may submit a request to the Administrator for approval of a deviation from the requirements of paragraphs (a) and (b) of this section. (2) A request for deviation from any of the requirements in paragraphs (a) and (b) of this section must include the following information: (i) The total number and types of aircraft operated by the certificate holder in operations under this part that do not have an observer seat on the flight deck; (ii) The total number and types of aircraft operated by the certificate holder in operations under this part that do have an observer seat on the flight deck; and (iii) Alternative methods for achieving the objectives of this section. (3) A certificate holder may request an extension of a deviation issued under this section. (4) Deviations or extensions to deviations will be issued for a period not to exceed 12 months. [Amdt. 121-382, 85 FR 10925, Feb. 25, 2020] § 121.436 Pilot Qualification: Certificates and experience requirements. (a) No certificate holder may use nor may any pilot act as pilot in command of an aircraft (or as second in command of an aircraft in a flag or supplemental operation that requires three or more pilots) unless the pilot: (1) Holds an airline transport pilot certificate not subject to the limitations in § 61.167 of this chapter; (2) Holds an appropriate aircraft type rating for the aircraft being flown; and (3) If serving as pilot in command in part 121 operations, has 1,000 hours as: (i) Second in command in operations under this part; (ii) Pilot in command in operations under § 91.1053(a)(2)(i) of this chapter; (iii) Pilot in command in operations under § 135.243(a)(1) of this chapter; (iv) Pilot in command in eligible on-demand operations that require the pilot to satisfy § 135.4(a)(2)(ii)(A) of this chapter; or (v) Any combination thereof. (b) No certificate holder may use nor may any pilot act as second in command unless the pilot holds an airline transport pilot certificate and an appropriate aircraft type rating for the aircraft being flown. A second-in-command type rating obtained under § 61.55 does not satisfy the requirements of this section. (c) For the purpose of satisfying the flight hour requirement in paragraph (a)(3) of this section, a pilot may credit 500 hours of military flight time provided the flight time was obtained— (1) As pilot in command in a multiengine, turbine-powered, fixed-wing airplane or powered-lift aircraft, or any combination thereof; and (2) In an operation requiring more than one pilot. (d) For the purpose of satisfying the flight hour requirement in paragraph (a)(3) of this section, a pilot may credit flight time obtained as pilot in command in operations under this part prior to July 31, 2013. (e) For those pilots who were employed as pilot in command in part 121 operations on July 31, 2013, compliance with the requirements of paragraph (a)(3) of this section is not required. [Docket FAA-2010-0100, 78 FR 42378, July 15, 2013, as amended by Amdt. 121-365A, 78 FR 77574, Dec. 24, 2013; Amdt. 121-385, 87 FR 57590, Sept. 21, 2022] § 121.438 Pilot operating limitations and pairing requirements. (a) If the second in command has fewer than 100 hours of flight time as second in command in operations under this part in the type airplane being flown, and the pilot in command is not an appropriately qualified check pilot, the pilot in command must make all takeoffs and landings in the following situations:

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(1) At special airports designated by the Administrator or at special airports designated by the certificate holder; and (2) In any of the following conditions: (i) The prevailing visibility value in the latest weather report for the airport is at or below 3/4 mile. (ii) The runway visual range for the runway to be used is at or below 4,000 feet. (iii) The runway to be used has water, snow, slush or similar conditions that may adversely affect airplane performance. (iv) The braking action on the runway to be used is reported to be less than “good”. (v) The crosswind component for the runway to be used is in excess of 15 knots. (vi) Windshear is reported in the vicinity of the airport. (vii) Any other condition in which the PIC determines it to be prudent to exercise the PIC's prerogative. (b) No person may conduct operations under this part unless, for that type airplane, either the pilot in command or the second in command has at least 75 hours of line operating flight time, either as pilot in command or second in command. The Administrator may, upon application by the certificate holder, authorize deviations from the requirements of this paragraph (b) by an appropriate amendment to the operations specifications in any of the following circumstances: (1) A newly certificated certificate holder does not employ any pilots who meet the minimum requirements of this paragraph. (2) An existing certificate holder adds to its fleet a type airplane not before proven for use in its operations. (3) An existing certificate holder establishes a new domicile to which it assigns pilots who will be required to become qualified on the airplanes operated from that domicile. [Docket 27210, 60 FR 20870, Apr. 27, 1995] § 121.439 Pilot qualification: Recent experience. (a) No certificate holder may use any person nor may any person serve as a required pilot flightcrew member, unless within the preceding 90 days, that person has made at least three takeoffs and landings in the type airplane in which that person is to serve. The takeoffs and landings required by this paragraph may be performed in a Level B or higher FFS approved under § 121.407 to include takeoff and landing maneuvers. In addition, any person who fails to make the three required takeoffs and landings within any consecutive 90-day period must re-establish recency of experience as provided in paragraph (b) of this section. (b) In addition to meeting all applicable training and checking requirements of this part, a required pilot flightcrew member who has not met the requirements of paragraph (a) of this section must re-establish recency of experience as follows: (1) Under the supervision of a check pilot, make at least three takeoffs and landings in the type airplane in which that person is to serve or in a Level B or higher FFS. (2) The takeoffs and landings required in paragraph (b)(1) of this section must include— (i) At least one takeoff with a simulated failure of the most critical powerplant; (ii) At least one landing from an ILS approach to the lowest ILS minimum authorized for the certificate holder; and (iii) At least one landing to a full stop. (c) [Reserved] (d) When using an FFS to accomplish any of the requirements of paragraphs (a) or (b) of this section, each required flightcrew member position must be occupied by an appropriately qualified person, and the FFS must be operated as if in a normal inflight environment without use of the repositioning features of the FFS. (e) A check pilot who observes the takeoffs and landings prescribed in paragraph (b)(1) of this section shall certify that the person being observed is proficient and qualified to perform flight duty in operations under this part and may require any additional maneuvers that are determined necessary to make this certifying statement.

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(f) Deviation authority based upon designation of related aircraft in accordance with § 121.418(b). (1) The Administrator may authorize a deviation from the requirements of paragraph (a) of this section based upon a designation of related aircraft in accordance with § 121.418(b) of this part and a determination that the certificate holder can demonstrate an equivalent level of safety. (2) A request for deviation from paragraph (a) of this section must be submitted to the Administrator. The request must include the following: (i) Identification of aircraft operated by the certificate holder designated as related aircraft. (ii) The number of takeoffs, landings, maneuvers, and procedures necessary to maintain or re-establish recency based on review of the related aircraft, the operation, and the duty position. (3) The administrator may, at any time, terminate a grant of deviation authority issued under this paragraph (f). [Docket 16383, 43 FR 22648, May 25, 1978, as amended by Amdt. 121-148, 43 FR 46235, Oct. 5, 1978; Amdt. 121-179, 47 FR 33390, Aug. 2, 1982; Amdt. 121-366, 78 FR 67841, Nov. 12, 2013; Amdt. 121-382, 85 FR 10926, Feb. 25, 2020; Docket FAA-2019-0360, Amdt. 121-392, 89 FR 51428, June 18, 2024] § 121.440 Line checks. (a) No certificate holder may use any person nor may any person serve as pilot in command of an airplane unless, within the preceding 12 calendar months, that person has passed a line check in which he satisfactorily performs the duties and responsibilities of a pilot in command in one of the types of airplanes he is to fly. (b) A pilot in command line check for domestic and flag operations must— (1) Be given by a check pilot who is currently qualified on both the route and the airplane; and (2) Consist of at least one flight over a typical part of the certificate holder's route, or over a foreign or Federal airway, or over a direct route. (c) A pilot in command line check for supplemental operations must— (1) Be given by a check pilot who is currently qualified on the airplane; and (2) Consist of at least one flight over a part of a Federal airway, foreign airway, or advisory route over which the pilot may be assigned. [Docket 9509, 35 FR 96, Jan. 3, 1970, as amended by Amdt. 121-143, 43 FR 22642, May 25, 1978; Amdt. 121-253, 61 FR 2612, Jan. 26, 1996; Amdt. 121-344, 74 FR 34235, July 15, 2009; Amdt. 121-359, 77 FR 34785, June 12, 2012; Docket FAA-2019-0360, Amdt. 121-392, 89 FR 51428, June 18, 2024] § 121.441 Proficiency checks. (a) No certificate holder may use any person nor may any person serve as a required pilot flight crewmember unless that person has satisfactorily completed either a proficiency check, or an approved FFS course of training under § 121.409, as follows: (1) For a pilot in command— (i) A proficiency check within the preceding 12 calendar months in the aircraft type in which the person is to serve and, (ii) In addition, within the preceding 6 calendar months, either a proficiency check or the approved FFS course of training. (2) For all other pilots— (i) Within the preceding 24 calendar months either a proficiency check or the line-oriented flight training course under § 121.409; and (ii) Within the preceding 12 calendar months, either a proficiency check or any FFS training course under § 121.409 (b) Except as provided in paragraphs (c) and (d) of this section, a proficiency check must meet the following requirements: (1) It must include at least the procedures and maneuvers set forth in appendix F to this part unless otherwise specifically provided in that appendix. (2) It must be given by the Administrator or a check pilot. (c) An approved FFS or FTD may be used in the conduct of a proficiency check as provided in appendix F to this part. (d) A person giving a proficiency check may, in his or her discretion, waive any of the maneuvers or procedures for which a specific waiver authority is set forth in Appendix F of this part if the conditions in paragraphs (d)(1) through (3) of this section are satisfied:

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(1) The Administrator has not specifically required the particular maneuver or procedure to be performed. (2) The pilot being checked is, at the time of the check, employed by a certificate holder as a pilot. (3) The pilot being checked meets one of the following conditions: (i) The pilot is currently qualified for operations under this part in the particular type airplane and flightcrew member position. (ii) The pilot has, within the preceding six calendar months, satisfactorily completed an approved training curriculum, except for an upgrade training curriculum in accordance with §§ 121.420 and 121.426, for the particular type airplane. (e) If the pilot being checked fails any of the required maneuvers, the person giving the proficiency check may give additional training to the pilot during the course of the proficiency check. In addition to repeating the maneuvers failed, the person giving the proficiency check may require the pilot being checked to repeat any other maneuvers he finds are necessary to determine the pilot's proficiency. If the pilot being checked is unable to demonstrate satisfactory performance to the person conducting the check, the certificate holder may not use him nor may he serve in operations under this part until he has satisfactorily completed a proficiency check. (f) Deviation authority based upon designation of related aircraft in accordance with § 121.418(b) of this part. (1) The Administrator may authorize a deviation from the proficiency check requirements of paragraphs (a), (b)(1), and (c) of this section based upon a designation of related aircraft in accordance with § 121.418(b) of this part and a determination that the certificate holder can demonstrate an equivalent level of safety. (2) A request for deviation from paragraphs (a), (b)(1), and (c) of this section must be submitted to the Administrator. The request must include the following: (i) Identification of aircraft operated by the certificate holder designated as related aircraft. (ii) Based on review of the related aircraft, the operation, and the duty position: (A) For recurrent proficiency checks, the frequency of the related aircraft proficiency check, the maneuvers and procedures to be included in the related aircraft proficiency check, and the level of FSTD to be used for each maneuver and procedure. (B) For qualification proficiency checks, the maneuvers and procedures to be included in the related aircraft proficiency check and the level of FSTD to be used for each maneuver and procedure. (3) The administrator may, at any time, terminate a grant of deviation authority issued under this paragraph (f). [Docket 9509, 35 FR 96, Jan. 3, 1970, as amended by Amdt. 121-103, 38 FR 12203, May 10, 1973, Amdt. 121-108, 38 FR 35446, Dec. 28, 1973; Amdt. 121-144, 43 FR 22648, May 25, 1978; Amdt. 121-263, 62 FR 13791, Mar. 21, 1997; Amdt. 121-366, 78 FR 67841, Nov. 12, 2013; Docket FAA-2016-9526, Amdt. 121-377, 81 FR 90983, Dec. 16, 2016; Amdt. 121-377A, 81 FR 95860, Dec. 29, 2016; Amdt. 121-377B, 83 FR 12475, Mar. 22, 2018; Amdt. 121-382, 85 FR 10926, Feb. 25, 2020; Docket FAA-2019-0360, Amdt. 121-392, 89 FR 51428, June 18, 2024] § 121.443 Pilot in command qualification: Route and airports. (a) Each certificate holder shall provide a system acceptable to the Administrator for disseminating the information required by paragraph (b) of this section to the pilot in command and appropriate flight operation personnel. The system must also provide an acceptable means for showing compliance with § 121.445. (b) No certificate holder may use any person, nor may any person serve, as pilot in command unless the certificate holder has provided that person current information concerning the following subjects pertinent to the areas over which that person is to serve, and to each airport and terminal area into which that person is to operate, and ensures that that person has adequate knowledge of, and the ability to use, the information:

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(1) Weather characteristics appropriate to the season. (2) Navigation facilities. (3) Communication procedures, including airport visual aids. (4) Kinds of terrain and obstructions. (5) Minimum safe flight levels. (6) En route and terminal area arrival and departure procedures, holding procedures and authorized instrument approach procedures for the airports involved. (7) Congested areas and physical layout of each airport in the terminal area in which the pilot will operate. (8) Notices to Airmen. [Docket 17897, 45 FR 41594, June 19, 1980; Amdt. 121-159, 45 FR 43154, June 26, 1980] § 121.445 Pilot in command airport qualification: Special areas and airports. (a) The Administrator may determine that certain airports (due to items such as surrounding terrain, obstructions, or complex approach or departure procedures) are special airports requiring special airport qualifications and that certain areas or routes, or both, require a special type of navigation qualification. (b) Except as provided in paragraph (c) of this section, no certificate holder may use any person, nor may any person serve, as pilot in command to or from an airport determined to require special airport qualifications unless, within the preceding 12 calendar months: (1) The pilot in command or second in command has made an entry to that airport (including a takeoff and landing) while serving as a pilot flight crewmember; or (2) The pilot in command has qualified by using pictorial means acceptable to the Administrator for that airport. (c) Paragraph (b) of this section does not apply when an entry to that airport (including a takeoff or a landing) is being made if the ceiling at that airport is at least 1,000 feet above the lowest MEA or MOCA, or initial approach altitude prescribed for the instrument approach procedure for that airport, and the visibility at that airport is at least 3 miles. (d) No certificate holder may use any person, nor may any person serve, as pilot in command between terminals over a route or area that requires a special type of navigation qualification unless, within the preceding 12 calendar months, that person has demonstrated qualification on the applicable navigation system in a manner acceptable to the Administrator, by one of the following methods: (1) By flying over a route or area as pilot in command using the applicable special type of navigation system. (2) By flying over a route or area as pilot in command under the supervision of a check pilot using the special type of navigation system. (3) By completing the training program requirements of appendix G of this part. [Docket 17897, 45 FR 41594, June 19, 1980, as amended by Docket FAA-2019-0360, Amdt. 121-392, 89 FR 51428, June 18, 2024] § 121.447 [Reserved]
§ 121.453 Flight engineer qualifications. (a) No certificate holder may use any person nor may any person serve as a flight engineer on an airplane unless, within the preceding 6 calendar months, he has had at least 50 hours of flight time as a flight engineer on that type airplane or the certificate holder or the Administrator has checked him on that type airplane and determined that he is familiar and competent with all essential current information and operating procedures. (b) A flight check given in accordance with § 121.425(a)(2) satisfies the requirements of paragraph (a) of this section. [Docket 9509, 35 FR 96, Jan. 3, 1970]

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§§ 121.455-121.459 [Reserved]
Subpart P—Aircraft Dispatcher Qualifications and Duty Time Limitations: Domestic and Flag Operations; Flight Attendant Duty Period Limitations and Rest Requirements: Domestic, Flag, and Supplemental Operations § 121.461 Applicability. This subpart prescribes— (a) Qualifications and duty time limitations for aircraft dispatchers for certificate holders conducting domestic flag operations; and (b) Duty period limitations and rest requirements for flight attendants used by certificate holders conducting domestic, flag, or supplemental operations. [Docket 28154, 61 FR 2612, Jan. 26, 1996] § 121.463 Aircraft dispatcher qualifications. (a) No certificate holder conducting domestic or flag operations may use any person, nor may any person serve, as an aircraft dispatcher for a particular airplane group unless that person has, with respect to an airplane of that group, satisfactorily completed the following: (1) Initial dispatcher training, except that a person who has satisfactorily completed such training for another type airplane of the same group need only complete the appropriate transition training. (2) Operating familiarization consisting of at least 5 hours observing operations under this part from the flight deck or, for airplanes without an observer seat on the flight deck, from a forward passenger seat with headset or speaker. This requirement may be reduced to a minimum of 2 1/2 hours by the substitution of one additional takeoff and landing for an hour of flight. A person may serve as an aircraft dispatcher without meeting the requirement of this paragraph (a) for 90 days after initial introduction of the airplane into operations under this part. (b) No certificate holder conducting domestic or flag operations may use any person, nor may any person serve, as an aircraft dispatcher for a particular type airplane unless that person has, with respect to that airplane, satisfactorily completed differences training, if applicable. (c) No certificate holder conducting domestic or flag operations may use any person, nor may any person serve, as an aircraft dispatcher unless within the preceding 12 calendar months the aircraft dispatcher has satisfactorily completed operating familiarization consisting of at least 5 hours observing operations under this part, in one of the types of airplanes in each group to be dispatched. This observation shall be made from the flight deck or, for airplanes without an observer seat on the flight deck, from a forward passenger seat with headset or speaker. The requirement of paragraph (a) of this section may be reduced to a minimum of 2 1/2 hours by the substitution of one additional takeoff and landing for an hour of flight. The requirement of this paragraph may be satisfied by observation of 5 hours of simulator training for each airplane group in one of the simulators approved under § 121.407 for the group. However, if the requirement of paragraph (a) is met by the use of a simulator, no reduction in hours is permitted. (d) No certificate holder conducting domestic or flag operations may use any person, nor may any person serve as an aircraft dispatcher to dispatch airplanes in operations under this part unless the certificate holder has determined that he is familiar with all essential operating procedures for that segment of the operation over which he exercises dispatch jurisdiction. However, a dispatcher who is qualified to dispatch airplanes through one segment of an operation may dispatch airplanes through other segments of the operation after coordinating with dispatchers who are qualified to dispatch airplanes through those other segments. (e) For the purposes of this section, the airplane groups, terms, and definitions in § 121.400 apply. [Docket 7325, 37 FR 5607, Mar. 17, 1972, as amended by Amdt. 121-251, 60 FR 65934, Dec. 20, 1995]

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§ 121.465 Aircraft dispatcher duty time limitations: Domestic and flag operations. (a) Each certificate holder conducting domestic or flag operations shall establish the daily duty period for a dispatcher so that it begins at a time that allows him or her to become thoroughly familiar with existing and anticipated weather conditions along the route before he or she dispatches any airplane. He or she shall remain on duty until each airplane dispatched by him or her has completed its flight, or has gone beyond his or her jurisdiction, or until he or she is relieved by another qualified dispatcher. (b) Except in cases where circumstances or emergency conditions beyond the control of the certificate holder require otherwise— (1) No certificate holder conducting domestic or flag operations may schedule a dispatcher for more than 10 consecutive hours of duty; (2) If a dispatcher is scheduled for more than 10 hours of duty in 24 consecutive hours, the certificate holder shall provide him or her a rest period of at least eight hours at or before the end of 10 hours of duty. (3) Each dispatcher must be relieved of all duty with the certificate holder for at least 24 consecutive hours during any seven consecutive days or the equivalent thereof within any calendar month. (c) Notwithstanding paragraphs (a) and (b) of this section, a certificate holder conducting flag operations may, if authorized by the Administrator, schedule an aircraft dispatcher at a duty station outside of the 48 contiguous States and the District of Columbia, for more than 10 consecutive hours of duty in a 24-hour period if that aircraft dispatcher is relieved of all duty with the certificate holder for at least eight hours during each 24-hour period. [Docket 28154, 61 FR 2612, Jan. 26, 1996] § 121.467 Flight attendant duty period limitations and rest requirements: Domestic, flag, and supplemental operations. (a) For purposes of this section— Calendar day means the period of elapsed time, using Coordinated Universal Time or local time, that begins at midnight and ends 24 hours later at the next midnight. Duty period means the period of elapsed time between reporting for an assignment involving flight time and release from that assignment by the certificate holder conducting domestic, flag, or supplemental operations. The time is calculated using either Coordinated Universal Time or local time to reflect the total elapsed time. Flight attendant means an individual, other than a flight crewmember, who is assigned by a certificate holder conducting domestic, flag, or supplemental operations, in accordance with the required minimum crew complement under the certificate holder's operations specifications or in addition to that minimum complement, to duty in an aircraft during flight time and whose duties include but are not necessarily limited to cabin-safety-related responsibilities. Rest period means the period free of all restraint or duty for a certificate holder conducting domestic, flag, or supplemental operations and free of all responsibility for work or duty should the occasion arise. (b) Except as provided in paragraph (c) of this section, a certificate holder conducting domestic, flag, or supplemental operations may assign a duty period to a flight attendant only when the applicable duty period limitations and rest requirements of this paragraph are met. (1) Except as provided in paragraphs (b)(4), (b)(5), and (b)(6) of this section, no certificate holder conducting domestic, flag, or supplemental operations may assign a flight attendant to a scheduled duty period of more than 14 hours. (2) A flight attendant scheduled to a duty period of 14 hours or less as provided under paragraph (b)(1) of this section must be given a scheduled rest period of at least 10 consecutive hours. This rest period must occur between the completion of the scheduled duty period and the commencement of the subsequent duty period. (3) The rest period required under paragraph (b)(2) of this section may not be reduced to less than 10 consecutive hours.

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(4) A certificate holder conducting domestic, flag, or supplemental operations may assign a flight attendant to a scheduled duty period of more than 14 hours, but no more than 16 hours, if the certificate holder has assigned to the flight or flights in that duty period at least one flight attendant in addition to the minimum flight attendant complement required for the flight or flights in that duty period under the certificate holder's operations specifications. (5) A certificate holder conducting domestic, flag, or supplemental operations may assign a flight attendant to a scheduled duty period of more than 16 hours, but no more than 18 hours, if the certificate holder has assigned to the flight or flights in that duty period at least two flight attendants in addition to the minimum flight attendant complement required for the flight or flights in that duty period under the certificate holder's operations specifications. (6) A certificate holder conducting domestic, flag, or supplemental operations may assign a flight attendant to a scheduled duty period of more than 18 hours, but no more than 20 hours, if the scheduled duty period includes one or more flights that land or take off outside the 48 contiguous states and the District of Columbia, and if the certificate holder has assigned to the flight or flights in that duty period at least three flight attendants in addition to the minimum flight attendant complement required for the flight or flights in that duty period under the domestic certificate holder's operations specifications. (7) Except as provided in paragraph (b)(8) of this section, a flight attendant scheduled to a duty period of more than 14 hours but no more than 20 hours, as provided in paragraphs (b)(4), (b)(5), and (b)(6) of this section, must be given a scheduled rest period of at least 12 consecutive hours. This rest period must occur between the completion of the scheduled duty period and the commencement of the subsequent duty period. (8) The rest period required under paragraph (b)(7) of this section may be scheduled or reduced to 10 consecutive hours if the flight attendant is provided a subsequent rest period of at least 14 consecutive hours; this subsequent rest period must be scheduled to begin no later than 24 hours after the beginning of the reduced rest period and must occur between the completion of the scheduled duty period and the commencement of the subsequent duty period. (9) Notwithstanding paragraphs (b)(4), (b)(5), and (b)(6) of this section, if a certificate holder conducting domestic, flag, or supplemental operations elects to reduce the rest period to 10 hours as authorized by paragraph (b)(8) of this section, the certificate holder may not schedule a flight attendant for a duty period of more than 14 hours during the 24-hour period commencing after the beginning of the reduced rest period. (10) No certificate holder conducting domestic, flag, or supplemental operations may assign a flight attendant any duty period with the certificate holder unless the flight attendant has had at least the minimum rest required under this section. (11) No certificate holder conducting domestic, flag, or supplemental operations may assign a flight attendant to perform any duty with the certificate holder during any required rest period. (12) Time spent in transportation, not local in character, that a certificate holder conducting domestic, flag, or supplemental operations requires of a flight attendant and provides to transport the flight attendant to an airport at which that flight attendant is to serve on a flight as a crewmember, or from an airport at which the flight attendant was relieved from duty to return to the flight attendant's home station, is not considered part of a rest period. (13) Each certificate holder conducting domestic, flag, or supplemental operations must relieve each flight attendant engaged in air transportation and each commercial operator must relieve each flight attendant engaged in air commerce from all further duty for at least 24 consecutive hours during any 7 consecutive calendar days. (14) A flight attendant is not considered to be scheduled for duty in excess of duty period limitations if the flights to which the flight attendant is assigned are scheduled and normally terminate within the limitations but due to circumstances beyond the control of the certificate holder conducting domestic, flag, or supplemental operations (such as adverse weather conditions) are not at the time of departure expected to reach their destination within the scheduled time.

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(c) Notwithstanding paragraph (b) of this section, a certificate holder conducting domestic, flag, or supplemental operations may apply the flightcrew member flight time and duty limitations and rest requirements of part 117 of this chapter to flight attendants for all operations conducted under this part provided that— (1) The certificate holder establishes written procedures that— (i) Apply to all flight attendants used in the certificate holder's operation; (ii) Include the flightcrew member requirements contained in part 117, as appropriate to the operation being conducted, except that rest facilities on board the aircraft are not required; (iii) Include provisions to add one flight attendant to the minimum flight attendant complement for each flightcrew member who is in excess of the minimum number required in the aircraft type certificate data sheet and who is assigned to the aircraft under the provisions of part 117, as applicable, of this part; (iv) Are approved by the Administrator and are described or referenced in the certificate holder's operations specifications; and (2) Whenever the Administrator finds that revisions are necessary for the continued adequacy of the written procedures that are required by paragraph (c)(1) of this section and that had been granted final approval, the certificate holder must, after notification by the Administrator, make any changes in the procedures that are found necessary by the Administrator. Within 30 days after the certificate holder receives such notice, it may file a petition to reconsider the notice with the responsible Flight Standards office. The filing of a petition to reconsider stays the notice, pending decision by the Administrator. However, if the Administrator finds that an emergency requires immediate action in the interest of safety, the Administrator may, upon a statement of the reasons, require a change effective without stay. [Amdt. 121-241, 59 FR 42991, Aug. 19, 1994, as amended by Amdt. 121-253, 61 FR 2612, Jan. 26, 1996; Amdt. 121-357, 77 FR 402, Jan. 4, 2012; Amdt. 121-357A, 77 FR 28764, May 16, 2012; Docket FAA-2018-0119, Amdt. 121-380, 83 FR 9172, Mar. 5, 2018; Amdt. 121-386, 87 FR 61465, Oct. 12, 2022] Subpart Q—Flight Time Limitations and Rest Requirements: Domestic Operations Source: Docket 23634, 50 FR 29319, July 18, 1985, unless otherwise noted. § 121.470 Applicability. This subpart prescribes flight time limitations and rest requirements for domestic all-cargo operations, except that: (a) Certificate holders conducting operations with aircraft having a passenger seat configuration of 30 seats or fewer, excluding each crewmember seat, and a payload capacity of 7,500 pounds or less, may comply with the applicable requirements of §§ 135.261 through 135.273 of this chapter. (b) Certificate holders conducting scheduled operations entirely within the States of Alaska or Hawaii with aircraft having a passenger seat configuration of more than 30 seats, excluding each crewmember seat, or a payload capacity of more than 7,500 pounds, may comply with the requirements of this subpart or subpart R of this part for those operations. (c) A certificate holder may apply the flightcrew member flight time and duty limitations and requirements of part 117 of this chapter. A certificate holder may choose to apply part 117 to its— (1) Cargo operations conducted under contract to a U.S. government agency. (2) All-cargo operations not conducted under contract to a U.S. Government agency, (3) A certificate holder may elect to treat operations in paragraphs (c)(1) and (c)(2) of this section differently but, once having decided to conduct those operations under part 117, may not segregate those operations between this subpart and part 117.

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[Docket FAA-2009-1093, 77 FR 402, Jan. 4, 2012; Amdt. 121-357, 78 FR 69288, Nov. 19, 2013, as amended by Docket FAA-2022-1563, Amdt. 121-390, 88 FR 48090, July 26, 2023] § 121.471 Flight time limitations and rest requirements: All flight crewmembers. (a) No certificate holder conducting domestic operations may schedule any flight crewmember and no flight crewmember may accept an assignment for flight time in scheduled air transportation or in other commercial flying if that crewmember's total flight time in all commercial flying will exceed— (1) 1,000 hours in any calendar year; (2) 100 hours in any calendar month; (3) 30 hours in any 7 consecutive days; (4) 8 hours between required rest periods. (b) Except as provided in paragraph (c) of this section, no certificate holder conducting domestic operations may schedule a flight crewmember and no flight crewmember may accept an assignment for flight time during the 24 consecutive hours preceding the scheduled completion of any flight segment without a scheduled rest period during that 24 hours of at least the following: (1) 9 consecutive hours of rest for less than 8 hours of scheduled flight time. (2) 10 consecutive hours of rest for 8 or more but less than 9 hours of scheduled flight time. (3) 11 consecutive hours of rest for 9 or more hours of scheduled flight time. (c) A certificate holder may schedule a flight crewmember for less than the rest required in paragraph (b) of this section or may reduce a scheduled rest under the following conditions: (1) A rest required under paragraph (b)(1) of this section may be scheduled for or reduced to a minimum of 8 hours if the flight crewmember is given a rest period of at least 10 hours that must begin no later than 24 hours after the commencement of the reduced rest period. (2) A rest required under paragraph (b)(2) of this section may be scheduled for or reduced to a minimum of 8 hours if the flight crewmember is given a rest period of at least 11 hours that must begin no later than 24 hours after the commencement of the reduced rest period. (3) A rest required under paragraph (b)(3) of this section may be scheduled for or reduced to a minimum of 9 hours if the flight crewmember is given a rest period of at least 12 hours that must begin no later than 24 hours after the commencement of the reduced rest period. (4) No certificate holder may assign, nor may any flight crewmember perform any flight time with the certificate holder unless the flight crewmember has had at least the minimum rest required under this paragraph. (d) Each certificate holder conducting domestic operations shall relieve each flight crewmember engaged in scheduled air transportation from all further duty for at least 24 consecutive hours during any 7 consecutive days. (e) No certificate holder conducting domestic operations may assign any flight crewmember and no flight crewmember may accept assignment to any duty with the air carrier during any required rest period. (f) Time spent in transportation, not local in character, that a certificate holder requires of a flight crewmember and provides to transport the crewmember to an airport at which he is to serve on a flight as a crewmember, or from an airport at which he was relieved from duty to return to his home station, is not considered part of a rest period. (g) A flight crewmember is not considered to be scheduled for flight time in excess of flight time limitations if the flights to which he is assigned are scheduled and normally terminate within the limitations, but due to circumstances beyond the control of the certificate holder (such as adverse weather conditions), are not at the time of departure expected to reach their destination within the scheduled time. [Docket 23634, 50 FR 29319, July 18, 1985, as amended by Amdt. 121-253, 61 FR 2612, Jan. 26, 1996]

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§ 121.473 Fatigue risk management system. (a) No certificate holder may exceed any provision of this subpart unless approved by the FAA under a Fatigue Risk Management System. (b) The Fatigue Risk Management System must include: (1) A fatigue risk management policy. (2) An education and awareness training program. (3) A fatigue reporting system. (4) A system for monitoring flightcrew fatigue. (5) An incident reporting process. (6) A performance evaluation. [Docket FAA-2009-1093, 77 FR 403, Jan. 4, 2012] Subpart R—Flight Time Limitations: Flag Operations Source: Docket 6258, 29 FR 19217, Dec. 31, 1964; 30 FR 3639, Mar. 19, 1965, unless otherwise noted. § 121.480 Applicability. This subpart prescribes flight time limitations and rest requirements for flag all-cargo operations, except that: (a) Certificate holders conducting operations with aircraft having a passenger seat configuration of 30 seats or fewer, excluding each crewmember seat, and a payload capacity of 7,500 pounds or less, may comply with the applicable requirements of §§ 135.261 through 135.273 of this chapter. (b) A certificate holder may apply the flightcrew member flight time and duty limitations and requirements of part 117 of this chapter. A certificate holder may choose to apply part 117 to its— (1) All-cargo operations conducted under contract to a U.S. government agency. (2) All-cargo operations not conducted under contract to a U.S. Government agency, (3) A certificate holder may elect to treat operations in paragraphs (b)(1) and (b) (2) of this section differently but, once having decided to conduct those operations under part 117, may not segregate those operations between this subpart and part 117. [Docket FAA-2009-1093, 77 FR 403, Jan. 4, 2012, as amended by Docket FAA-2022-1563, Amdt. 121-390, 88 FR 48090, July 26, 2023] § 121.481 Flight time limitations: One or two pilot crews. (a) A certificate holder conducting flag operations may schedule a pilot to fly in an airplane that has a crew of one or two pilots for eight hours or less during any 24 consecutive hours without a rest period during these eight hours. (b) If a certificate holder conducting flag operations schedules a pilot to fly more than eight hours during any 24 consecutive hours, it shall give him an intervening rest period, at or before the end of eight scheduled hours of flight duty. This rest period must be at least twice the number of hours flown since the preceding rest period, but not less than eight hours. The certificate holder shall relieve that pilot of all duty with it during that rest period. (c) Each pilot who has flown more than eight hours during 24 consecutive hours must be given at least 18 hours of rest before being assigned to any duty with the certificate holder. (d) No pilot may fly more than 32 hours during any seven consecutive days, and each pilot must be relieved from all duty for at least 24 consecutive hours at least once during any seven consecutive days. (e) No pilot may fly as a member of a crew more than 100 hours during any one calendar month. (f) No pilot may fly as a member of a crew more than 1,000 hours during any 12-calendar-month period. [Docket 6258, 29 FR 19217, Dec. 31, 1964; 30 FR 3639, Mar. 19, 1965, as amended by Amdt. 121-253, 61 FR 2612, Jan. 26, 1996] § 121.483 Flight time limitations: Two pilots and one additional flight crewmember. (a) No certificate holder conducting flag operations may schedule a pilot to fly, in an airplane that has a crew of two pilots and at least one additional flight crewmember, for a total of more than 12 hours during any 24 consecutive hours.

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(b) If a pilot has flown 20 or more hours during any 48 consecutive hours or 24 or more hours during any 72 consecutive hours, he must be given at least 18 hours of rest before being assigned to any duty with the air carrier. In any case, he must be given at least 24 consecutive hours of rest during any seven consecutive days. (c) No pilot may fly as a flight crewmember more than— (1) 120 hours during any 30 consecutive days; (2) 300 hours during any 90 consecutive days; or (3) 1,000 hours during any 12-calendar-month period. [Docket 6258, 29 FR 19217, Dec. 31, 1964; 30 FR 3639, Mar. 19, 1965, as amended by Amdt. 121-253, 61 FR 2612, Jan. 26, 1996] § 121.485 Flight time limitations: Three or more pilots and an additional flight crewmember. (a) Each certificate holder conducting flag operations shall schedule its flight hours to provide adequate rest periods on the ground for each pilot who is away from his base and who is a pilot on an airplane that has a crew of three or more pilots and an additional flight crewmember. It shall also provide adequate sleeping quarters on the airplane whenever a pilot is scheduled to fly more than 12 hours during any 24 consecutive hours. (b) The certificate holder conducting flag operations shall give each pilot, upon return to his base from any flight or series of flights, a rest period that is at least twice the total number of hours he flew since the last rest period at his base. During the rest period required by this paragraph, the air carrier may not require him to perform any duty for it. If the required rest period is more than seven days, that part of the rest period in excess of seven days may be given at any time before the pilot is again scheduled for flight duty on any route. (c) No pilot may fly as a flight crewmember more than— (1) 350 hours during any 90 consecutive days; or (2) 1,000 hours during any 12-calendar-month period. [Docket 6258, 29 FR 19217, Dec. 31, 1964; 30 FR 3639, Mar. 19, 1965, as amended by Amdt. 121-253, 61 FR 2612, Jan. 26, 1996] § 121.487 Flight time limitations: Pilots not regularly assigned. (a) Except as provided in paragraphs (b) through (e) of this section, a pilot who is not regularly assigned as a flight crewmember for an entire calendar month under § 121.483 or 121.485 may not fly more than 100 hours in any 30 consecutive days. (b) The monthly flight time limitations for a pilot who is scheduled for duty aloft for more than 20 hours in two-pilot crews in any calendar month, or whose assignment in such a crew is interrupted more than once in that calendar month by assignment to a crew consisting of two or more pilots and an additional flight crewmember, are those set forth in § 121.481. (c) Except for a pilot covered by paragraph (b) of this section, the monthly and quarterly flight time limitations for a pilot who is scheduled for duty aloft for more than 20 hours in two-pilot and additional flight crewmember crews in any calendar month, or whose assignment in such a crew is interrupted more than once in that calendar month by assignment to a crew consisting of three pilots and additional flight crewmember, are those set forth in § 121.483. (d) The quarterly flight time limitations for a pilot to whom paragraphs (b) and (c) of this section do not apply and who is scheduled for duty aloft for a total of not more than 20 hours within any calendar month in two-pilot crews (with or without additional flight crewmembers) are those set forth in § 121.485. (e) The monthly and quarterly flight time limitations for a pilot assigned to each of two-pilot, two-pilot and additional flight crewmember, and three-pilot and additional flight crewmember crews in a given calendar month, and who is not subject to paragraph (b), (c), or (d) of this section, are those set forth in § 121.483. [Docket 6258, 29 FR 19217, Dec. 31, 1964; Amdt. 121-3, 30 FR 3639, Mar. 19, 1965, as amended by Amdt. 121-137, 42 FR 43973, Sept. 1, 1977]

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§ 121.489 Flight time limitations: Other commercial flying. No pilot that is employed as a pilot by a certificate holder conducting flag operations may do any other commercial flying if that commercial flying plus his flying in air transportation will exceed any flight time limitation in this part. [Docket 28154, 61 FR 2612, Jan. 26, 1996] § 121.491 Flight time limitations: Deadhead transportation. Time spent in deadhead transportation to or from duty assignment is not considered to be a part of a rest period. § 121.493 Flight time limitations: Flight engineers and flight navigators. (a) In any operation in which one flight engineer or flight navigator is required, the flight time limitations in § 121.483 apply to that flight engineer or flight navigator. (b) In any operation in which more than one flight engineer or flight navigator is required, the flight time limitations in § 121.485 apply to those flight engineers or flight navigators. § 121.495 Fatigue risk management system. (a) No certificate holder may exceed any provision of this subpart unless approved by the FAA under a Fatigue Risk Management System. (b) The Fatigue Risk Management System must include: (1) A fatigue risk management policy. (2) An education and awareness training program. (3) A fatigue reporting system. (4) A system for monitoring flightcrew fatigue. (5) An incident reporting process. (6) A performance evaluation. [Docket FAA-2009-1093, 77 FR 403, Jan. 4, 2012] Subpart S—Flight Time Limitations: Supplemental Operations Source: Docket 6258, 29 FR 19218, Dec. 31, 1964; 30 FR 3639, Mar. 19, 1965, unless otherwise noted. § 121.500 Applicability. This subpart prescribes flight time limitations and rest requirements for supplemental all-cargo operations, except that: (a) Certificate holders conducting operations with aircraft having a passenger seat configuration of 30 seats or fewer, excluding each crewmember seat, and a payload capacity of 7,500 pound or less, may comply with the applicable requirements of §§ 135.261 through 135.273 of this chapter. (b) A certificate holder may apply the flightcrew member flight time and duty limitations and requirements of part 117 of this chapter. A certificate holder may choose to apply part 117 to its— (1) All-cargo operations conducted under contract to a U.S. Government agency. (2) All-cargo operations not conducted under contract to a U.S. Government agency, (3) A certificate holder may elect to treat operations in paragraphs (b)(1) and (b)(2) of this section differently but, once having decided to conduct those operations under part 117, may not segregate those operations between this subpart and part 117. [Docket FAA-2009-1093, 77 FR 403, Jan. 4, 2012, as amended by Docket FAA-2022-1563, Amdt. 121-390, 88 FR 48090, July 26, 2023] § 121.503 Flight time limitations: Pilots: airplanes. (a) A certificate holder conducting supplemental operations may schedule a pilot to fly in an airplane for eight hours or less during any 24 consecutive hours without a rest period during those eight hours. (b) Each pilot who has flown more than eight hours during any 24 consecutive hours must be given at least 16 hours of rest before being assigned to any duty with the certificate holder. (c) Each certificate holder conducting supplemental operations shall relieve each pilot from all duty for at least 24 consecutive hours at least once during any seven consecutive days. (d) No pilot may fly as a crewmember in air transportation more than 100 hours during any 30 consecutive days.

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(e) No pilot may fly as a crewmember in air transportation more than 1,000 hours during any calendar year. (f) Notwithstanding paragraph (a) of this section, the certificate holder may, in conducting a transcontinental nonstop flight, schedule a flight crewmember for more than eight but not more than 10 hours of continuous duty aloft without an intervening rest period, if— (1) The flight is in an airplane with a pressurization system that is operative at the beginning of the flight; (2) The flight crew consists of at least two pilots and a flight engineer; and (3) The certificate holder uses, in conducting the operation, an air/ground communication service that is independent of systems operated by the United States, and a dispatch organization, both of which are approved by the Administrator as adequate to serve the terminal points concerned. [Docket 6258, 29 FR 19218, Dec. 31, 1964; 30 FR 3639, Mar. 19, 1965, as amended by Amdt. 121-253, 61 FR 2613, Jan. 26, 1996] § 121.505 Flight time limitations: Two pilot crews: airplanes. (a) If a certificate holder conducting supplemental operations schedules a pilot to fly more than eight hours during any 24 consecutive hours, it shall give him an intervening rest period at or before the end of eight scheduled hours of flight duty. This rest period must be at least twice the number of hours flown since the preceding rest period, but not less than eight hours. The certificate holder conducting supplemental operations shall relieve that pilot of all duty with it during that rest period. (b) No pilot of an airplane that has a crew of two pilots may be on duty for more than 16 hours during any 24 consecutive hours. [Docket 6258, 29 FR 19218, Dec. 31, 1964; 30 FR 3639, Mar. 19, 1965, as amended by Amdt. 121-253, 61 FR 2613, Jan. 26, 1996] § 121.507 Flight time limitations: Three pilot crews: airplanes. (a) No certificate holder conducting supplemental operations may schedule a pilot— (1) For flight deck duty in an airplane that has a crew of three pilots for more than eight hours in any 24 consecutive hours; or (2) To be aloft in an airplane that has a crew of three pilot for more than 12 hours in any 24 consecutive hours. (b) No pilot of an airplane that has a crew of three pilots may be on duty for more than 18 hours in any 24 consecutive hours. [Docket 6258, 29 FR 19218, Dec. 31, 1964; 30 FR 3639, Mar. 19, 1965, as amended by Amdt. 121-253, 61 FR 2613, Jan. 26, 1996] § 121.509 Flight time limitations: Four pilot crews: airplanes. (a) No certificate holder conducting supplemental operations may schedule a pilot— (1) For flight deck duty in an airplane that has a crew of four pilots for more than eight hours in any 24 consecutive hours; or (2) To be aloft in an airplane that has a crew of four pilots for more than 16 hours in any 24 consecutive hours. (b) No pilot of an airplane that has a crew of four pilots may be on duty for more than 20 hours in any 24 consecutive hours. [Docket 6258, 29 FR 19218, Dec. 31, 1964; 30 FR 3639, Mar. 19, 1965, as amended by Amdt. 121-253, 61 FR 2613, Jan. 26, 1996] § 121.511 Flight time limitations: Flight engineers: airplanes. (a) In any operation in which one flight engineer is serving the flight time limitations in §§ 121.503 and 121.505 apply to that flight engineer. (b) In any operation in which more than one flight engineer is serving and the flight crew contains more than two pilots the flight time limitations in § 121.509 apply in place of those in § 121.505. § 121.513 Flight time limitations: Overseas and international operations: airplanes. In place of the flight time limitations in §§ 121.503 through 121.511, a certificate holder conducting supplemental operations may elect to comply with the flight time limitations of §§ 121.515 and 121.521 through 121.525 for operations conducted—

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(a) Between a place in the 48 contiguous States and the District of Columbia, or Alaska, and any place outside thereof; (b) Between any two places outside the 48 contiguous States, the District of Columbia, and Alaska; or (c) Between two places within the State of Alaska or the State of Hawaii. [Docket 6258, 29 FR 19218, Dec. 31, 1964; 30 FR 3639, Mar. 19, 1965, as amended by Amdt. 121-253, 61 FR 2613, Jan. 26, 1996] § 121.515 Flight time limitations: All airmen: airplanes. No airman may be aloft as a flight crewmember more than 1,000 hours in any 12-calendar-month period. § 121.517 Flight time limitations: Other commercial flying: airplanes. No airman who is employed by a certificate holder conducting supplemental operations may do any other commercial flying, if that commercial flying plus his flying in operations under this part will exceed any flight time limitation in this part. [Docket 28154, 61 FR 2613, Jan. 26, 1996] § 121.519 Flight time limitations: Deadhead transportation: airplanes. Time spent by an airman in deadhead transportation to or from a duty assignment is not considered to be part of any rest period. § 121.521 Flight time limitations: Crew of two pilots and one additional airman as required. (a) No certificate holder conducting supplemental operations may schedule an airman to be aloft as a member of the flight crew in an airplane that has a crew of two pilots and at least one additional flight crewmember for more than 12 hours during any 24 consecutive hours. (b) If an airman has been aloft as a member of a flight crew for 20 or more hours during any 48 consecutive hours or 24 or more hours during any 72 consecutive hours, he must be given at least 18 hours of rest before being assigned to any duty with the certificate holder. In any case, he must be relieved of all duty for at least 24 consecutive hours during any seven consecutive days. (c) No airman may be aloft as a flight crewmember more than— (1) 120 hours during any 30 consecutive days; or (2) 300 hours during any 90 consecutive days. [Docket 6258, 29 FR 19218, Dec. 31, 1964, as amended by Amdt. 121-17, 31 FR 1147, Jan. 28, 1966; Amdt. 121-253, 61 FR 2613, Jan. 26, 1996] § 121.523 Flight time limitations: Crew of three or more pilots and additional airmen as required. (a) No certificate holder conducting supplemental operations may schedule an airman for flight deck duty as a flight engineer, or navigator in a crew of three or more pilots and additional airmen for a total of more than 12 hours during any 24 consecutive hours. (b) Each certificate holder conducting supplemental operations shall schedule its flight hours to provide adequate rest periods on the ground for each airman who is away from his principal operations base. It shall also provide adequate sleeping quarters on the airplane whenever an airman is scheduled to be aloft as a flight crewmember for more than 12 hours during any 24 consecutive hours. (c) No certificate holder conducting supplemental operations may schedule any flight crewmember to be on continuous duty for more than 30 hours. Such a crewmember is considered to be on continuous duty from the time he reports for duty until the time he is released from duty for a rest period of at least 10 hours on the ground. If a flight crewmember is on continuous duty for more than 24 hours (whether scheduled or not) during any scheduled duty period, he must be given at least 16 hours for rest on the ground after completing the last flight scheduled for that scheduled duty period before being assigned any further flight duty. (d) If a flight crewmember is required to engage in deadhead transportation for more than four hours before beginning flight duty, one half of the time spent in deadhead transportation must be treated as duty time for the purpose of complying with duty time limitations, unless he is given at least 10 hours of rest on the ground before being assigned to flight duty.

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(e) Each certificate holder conducting supplemental operations shall give each airman, upon return to his operations base from any flight or series of flights, a rest period that is at least twice the total number of hours he was aloft as a flight crewmember since the last rest period at his base, before assigning him to any further duty. If the required rest period is more than seven days, that part of the rest period that is more than seven days may be given at any time before the pilot is again scheduled for flight duty. (f) No airman may be aloft as a flight crewmember for more than 350 hours in any 90 consecutive days. [Docket 6258, 29 FR 19218, Dec. 31, 1964; 30 FR 3639, Mar. 19, 1965, as amended by Amdt. 121-253, 61 FR 2613, Jan. 26, 1996; Amdt. 121-387, 87 FR 75846, Dec. 9, 2022] § 121.525 Flight time limitations: Pilots serving in more than one kind of flight crew. (a) This section applies to each pilot assigned during any 30 consecutive days to more than one type of flight crew. (b) The flight time limitations for a pilot who is scheduled for duty aloft for more than 20 hours in two-pilot crews in 30 consecutive days, or whose assignment in such a crew is interrupted more than once in any 30 consecutive days by assignment to a crew of two or more pilots and an additional flight crewmember, are those listed in §§ 121.503 through 121.509, as appropriate. (c) Except for a pilot covered by paragraph (b) of this section, the flight time limitations for a pilot scheduled for duty aloft for more than 20 hours in two-pilot and additional flight crewmember crews in 30 consecutive days or whose assignment in such a crew is interrupted more than once in any 30 consecutive days by assignment to a crew consisting of three pilots and an additional flight crewmember, are those set forth in § 121.521. (d) The flight time limitations for a pilot to whom paragraphs (b) and (c) of this section do not apply, and who is scheduled for duty aloft for a total of not more than 20 hours within 30 consecutive days in two-pilot crews (with or without additional flight crewmembers) are those set forth in § 121.523. (e) The flight time limitations for a pilot assigned to each of two-pilot, two-pilot and additional flight crewmember, and three-pilot and additional flight crewmember crews in 30 consecutive days, and who is not subject to paragraph (b), (c), or (d) of this section, are those listed in § 121.523. § 121.527 Fatigue risk management system. (a) No certificate holder may exceed any provision of this subpart unless approved by the FAA under a Fatigue Risk Management System. (b) The Fatigue Risk Management System must include: (1) A fatigue risk management policy. (2) An education and awareness training program. (3) A fatigue reporting system. (4) A system for monitoring flightcrew fatigue. (5) An incident reporting process. (6) A performance evaluation. [Docket FAA-2009-1093, 77 FR 403, Jan. 4, 2012] Subpart T—Flight Operations Source: Docket 6258, 29 FR 19219, Dec. 31, 1964, unless otherwise noted. § 121.531 Applicability. This subpart prescribes requirements for flight operations applicable to all certificate holders, except where otherwise specified. § 121.533 Responsibility for operational control: Domestic operations. (a) Each certificate holder conducting domestic operations is responsible for operational control. (b) The pilot in command and the aircraft dispatcher are jointly responsible for the preflight planning, delay, and dispatch release of a flight in compliance with this chapter and operations specifications. (c) The aircraft dispatcher is responsible for— (1) Monitoring the progress of each flight;

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(2) Issuing necessary information for the safety of the flight; and (3) Cancelling or redispatching a flight if, in his opinion or the opinion of the pilot in command, the flight cannot operate or continue to operate safely as planned or released. (d) Each pilot in command of an aircraft is, during flight time, in command of the aircraft and crew and is responsible for the safety of the passengers, crewmembers, cargo, and airplane. (e) Each pilot in command has full control and authority in the operation of the aircraft, without limitation, over other crewmembers and their duties during flight time, whether or not he holds valid certificates authorizing him to perform the duties of those crewmembers. [Docket 6258, 29 FR 19219, Dec. 31, 1964, as amended by Amdt. 121-253, 61 FR 2613, Jan. 26, 1996] § 121.535 Responsibility for operational control: Flag operations. (a) Each certificate holder conducting flag operations is responsible for operational control. (b) The pilot in command and the aircraft dispatcher are jointly responsible for the preflight planning, delay, and dispatch release of a flight in compliance with this chapter and operations specifications. (c) The aircraft dispatcher is responsible for— (1) Monitoring the progress of each flight; (2) Issuing necessary instructions and information for the safety of the flight; and (3) Cancelling or redispatching a flight if, in his opinion or the opinion of the pilot in command, the flight cannot operate or continue to operate safely as planned or released. (d) Each pilot in command of an aircraft is, during flight time, in command of the aircraft and crew and is responsible for the safety of the passengers, crewmembers, cargo, and airplane. (e) Each pilot in command has full control and authority in the operation of the aircraft, without limitation, over other crewmembers and their duties during flight time, whether or not he holds valid certificates authorizing him to perform the duties of those crewmembers. (f) No pilot may operate an aircraft in a careless or reckless manner so as to endanger life or property. [Docket 6258, 29 FR 19219, Dec. 31, 1964, as amended by Amdt. 121-253, 61 FR 2613, Jan. 26, 1996] § 121.537 Responsibility for operational control: Supplemental operations. (a) Each certificate holder conducting supplemental operations— (1) Is responsible for operational control; and (2) Shall list each person authorized by it to exercise operational control in its operator's manual. (b) The pilot in command and the director of operations are jointly responsible for the initiation, continuation, diversion, and termination of a flight in compliance with this chapter and the operations specifications. The director of operations may delegate the functions for the initiation, continuation, diversion, and termination of a flight but he may not delegate the responsibility for those functions. (c) The director of operations is responsible for cancelling, diverting, or delaying a flight if in his opinion or the opinion of the pilot in command the flight cannot operate or continue to operate safely as planned or released. The director of operations is responsible for assuring that each flight is monitored with respect to at least the following: (1) Departure of the flight from the place of origin and arrival at the place of destination, including intermediate stops and any diversions therefrom. (2) Maintenance and mechanical delays encountered at places of origin and destination and intermediate stops. (3) Any known conditions that may adversely affect the safety of flight. (d) Each pilot in command of an aircraft is, during flight time, in command of the aircraft and crew and is responsible for the safety of the passengers, crewmembers, cargo, and aircraft. The pilot in command has full control and authority in the operation of the aircraft, without limitation, over other crewmembers and their duties during flight time, whether or not he holds valid certificates authorizing him to perform the duties of those crewmembers.

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(e) Each pilot in command of an aircraft is responsible for the preflight planning and the operation of the flight in compliance with this chapter and the operations specifications. (f) No pilot may operate an aircraft, in a careless or reckless manner, so as to endanger life or property. [Docket 6258, 29 FR 19219, Dec. 31, 1964, as amended by Amdt. 121-253, 61 FR 2613, Jan. 26, 1996] § 121.538 Aircraft security. Certificate holders conducting operations under this part must comply with the applicable security requirements in 49 CFR chapter XII. [67 FR 8350, Feb. 22, 2002] § 121.539 Operations notices. Each certificate holder shall notify its appropriate operations personnel of each change in equipment and operating procedures, including each known change in the use of navigation aids, airports, air traffic control procedures and regulations, local airport traffic control rules, and known hazards to flight, including icing and other potentially hazardous meteorological conditions and irregularities in ground and navigation facilities. § 121.541 Operations schedules: Domestic and flag operations. In establishing flight operations schedules, each certificate holder conducting domestic or flag operations shall allow enough time for the proper servicing of aircraft at intermediate stops, and shall consider the prevailing winds en route and the cruising speed of the type of aircraft used. This cruising speed may not be more than that resulting from the specified cruising output of the engines. [Docket 28154, 61 FR 2613, Jan. 26, 1996] § 121.542 Flight crewmember duties. (a) No certificate holder shall require, nor may any flight crewmember perform, any duties during a critical phase of flight except those duties required for the safe operation of the aircraft. Duties such as company required calls made for such nonsafety related purposes as ordering galley supplies and confirming passenger connections, announcements made to passengers promoting the air carrier or pointing out sights of interest, and filling out company payroll and related records are not required for the safe operation of the aircraft. (b) No flight crewmember may engage in, nor may any pilot in command permit, any activity during a critical phase of flight which could distract any flight crewmember from the performance of his or her duties or which could interfere in any way with the proper conduct of those duties. Activities such as eating meals, engaging in nonessential conversations within the cockpit and nonessential communications between the cabin and cockpit crews, and reading publications not related to the proper conduct of the flight are not required for the safe operation of the aircraft. (c) For the purposes of this section, critical phases of flight includes all ground operations involving taxi, takeoff and landing, and all other flight operations conducted below 10,000 feet, except cruise flight. Note: Taxi is defined as “movement of an airplane under its own power on the surface of an airport.”

(d) During all flight time as defined in 14 CFR 1.1, no flight crewmember may use, nor may any pilot in command permit the use of, a personal wireless communications device (as defined in 49 U.S.C. 44732(d)) or laptop computer while at a flight crewmember duty station unless the purpose is directly related to operation of the aircraft, or for emergency, safety-related, or employment-related communications, in accordance with air carrier procedures approved by the Administrator. [Docket 20661, 46 FR 5502, Jan. 19, 1981, as amended by Amdt. 121-369, 79 FR 8263, Feb. 12, 2014] § 121.543 Flight crewmembers at controls. (a) Except as provided in paragraph (b) of this section, each required flight crewmember on flight deck duty must remain at the assigned duty station with seat belt fastened while the aircraft is taking off or landing, and while it is en route.

(b) A required flight crewmember may leave the assigned duty station— (1) If the crewmember's absence is necessary for the performance of duties in connection with the operation of the aircraft; (2) If the crewmember's absence is in connection with physiological needs; or (3) If the crewmember is taking a rest period, and relief is provided— (i) In the case of the assigned pilot in command during the en route cruise portion of the flight, by a pilot who holds an airline transport pilot certificate not subject to the limitations in § 61.167 of this chapter and an appropriate type rating, is currently qualified as pilot in command or second in command, and is qualified as pilot in command of that aircraft during the en route cruise portion of the flight. A second in command qualified to act as a pilot in command en route need not have completed the following pilot in command requirements: The 6-month recurrent flight training required by § 121.433(c)(1)(iii); the operating experience required by § 121.434; the takeoffs and landings required by § 121.439; the line check required by § 121.440; and the 6-month proficiency check or simulator training required by § 121.441(a)(1); and (ii) In the case of the assigned second in command, by a pilot qualified to act as second in command of that aircraft during en route operations. However, the relief pilot need not meet the recent experience requirements of § 121.439(b). [Docket 16383, 43 FR 22648, May 25, 1978, as amended by Amdt. 121-179, 47 FR 33390, Aug. 2, 1982; Amdt. 121-365, 78 FR 42378, July 15, 2013] § 121.544 Pilot monitoring. Each pilot who is seated at the pilot controls of the aircraft while not flying the aircraft must accomplish pilot monitoring duties as appropriate in accordance with the certificate holder's procedures contained in the manual required by § 121.133. [Docket FAA-2019-0360, Amdt. 121-392, 89 FR 51428, June 18, 2024] § 121.545 Manipulation of controls. No pilot in command may allow any person to manipulate the controls of an aircraft during flight nor may any person manipulate the controls during flight unless that person is— (a) A qualified pilot of the certificate holder operating that aircraft. (b) An authorized pilot safety representative of the Administrator or of the National Transportation Safety Board who has the permission of the pilot in command, is qualified in the aircraft, and is checking flight operations; or (c) A pilot of another certificate holder who has the permission of the pilot in command, is qualified in the aircraft, and is authorized by the certificate holder operating the aircraft. [Docket 6258, 29 FR 19220, Dec. 31, 1964, as amended by Docket 8084, 32 FR 5769, Apr. 11, 1967; Amdt. 121-144, 43 FR 22648, May 25, 1978] § 121.547 Admission to flight deck. (a) No person may admit any person to the flight deck of an aircraft unless the person being admitted is— (1) A crewmember; (2) An FAA air carrier inspector, a DOD commercial air carrier evaluator, or an authorized representative of the National Transportation Safety Board, who is performing official duties; (3) Any person who— (i) Has permission of the pilot in command, an appropriate management official of the part 119 certificate holder, and the Administrator; and (ii) Is an employee of— (A) The United States, or (B) A part 119 certificate holder and whose duties are such that admission to the flightdeck is necessary or advantageous for safe operation; or (C) An aeronautical enterprise certificated by the Administrator and whose duties are such that admission to the flightdeck is necessary or advantageous for safe operation. (4) Any person who has the permission of the pilot in command, an appropriate management official of the part 119 certificate holder and the Administrator. Paragraph (a)(2) of this section does not limit the emergency authority of the pilot in command to exclude any person from the flightdeck in the interests of safety.

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(b) For the purposes of paragraph (a)(3) of this section, employees of the United States who deal responsibly with matters relating to safety and employees of the certificate holder whose efficiency would be increased by familiarity with flight conditions, may be admitted by the certificate holder. However, the certificate holder may not admit employees of traffic, sales, or other departments that are not directly related to flight operations, unless they are eligible under paragraph (a)(4) of this section. (c) No person may admit any person to the flight deck unless there is a seat available for his use in the passenger compartment, except— (1) An FAA air carrier inspector, a DOD commercial air carrier evaluator, or authorized representative of the Administrator or National Transportation Safety Board who is checking or observing flight operations; (2) An air traffic controller who is authorized by the Administrator to observe ATC procedures; (3) A certificated airman employed by the certificate holder whose duties require an airman certificate; (4) A certificated airman employed by another part 119 certificate holder whose duties with that part 119 certificate holder require an airman certificate and who is authorized by the part 119 certificate holder operating the aircraft to make specific trips over a route; (5) An employee of the part 119 certificate holder operating the aircraft whose duty is directly related to the conduct or planning of flight operations or the in-flight monitoring of aircraft equipment or operating procedures, if his presence on the flightdeck is necessary to perform his duties and he has been authorized in writing by a responsible supervisor, listed in the Operations Manual as having that authority; and (6) A technical representative of the manufacturer of the aircraft or its components whose duties are directly related to the in-flight monitoring of aircraft equipment or operating procedures, if his presence on the flightdeck is necessary to perform his duties and he has been authorized in writing by the Administrator and by a responsible supervisor of the operations department of the part 119 certificate holder, listed in the Operations Manual as having that authority. [Docket 6258, 29 FR 19220, Dec. 31, 1964, as amended by Docket 8084, 32 FR 5769, Apr. 11, 1967; Amdt. 121-253, 61 FR 2613, Jan. 26, 1996; Amdt. 121-288, 67 FR 2127, Jan. 15, 2002; Amdt. 121-298, 68 FR 41217, July 10, 2003] § 121.548 Aviation safety inspector's credentials: Admission to pilot's compartment. Whenever, in performing the duties of conducting an inspection, an inspector of the Federal Aviation Administration presents form FAA 110A, “Aviation Safety Inspector's Credential,” to the pilot in command of an aircraft operated by a certificate holder, the inspector must be given free and uninterrupted access to the pilot's compartment of that aircraft. [Docket 28154, 61 FR 2613, Jan. 26, 1996] § 121.548a DOD Commercial Air Carrier Evaluator's Credential. Whenever, in performing the duties of conducting an evaluation, a DOD commercial air carrier evaluator presents S&A Form 110B, “DOD Commercial Air Carrier Evaluator's Credential,” to the pilot in command of an airplane operated by the certificate holder, the evaluator must be given free and uninterrupted access to the pilot's compartment of that airplane. [Docket FAA-2003-15571, 68 FR 41217, July 10, 2003] § 121.549 Flying equipment. (a) The pilot in command shall ensure that appropriate aeronautical charts containing adequate information concerning navigation aids and instrument approach procedures are aboard the aircraft for each flight. (b) Each crewmember shall, on each flight, have readily available for his use a flashlight that is in good working order. § 121.550 Secret Service Agents: Admission to flight deck. Whenever an Agent of the Secret Service who is assigned the duty of protecting a person aboard an aircraft operated by a certificate holder considers it necessary in the performance of his duty to ride on the flight deck of the aircraft, he must, upon request and presentation of his Secret Service credentials to the pilot in command of the aircraft, be admitted to the flight deck and permitted to occupy an observer seat thereon.

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[Docket 9031, 35 FR 12061, July 28, 1970, as amended by Amdt. 121-253, 61 FR 2613, Jan. 26, 1996] § 121.551 Restriction or suspension of operation: Domestic and flag operations. When a certificate holder conducting domestic or flag operations knows of conditions, including airport and runway conditions, that are a hazard to safe operations, it shall restrict or suspend operations until those conditions are corrected. [Docket 28154, 61 FR 2613, Jan. 26, 1996] § 121.553 Restriction or suspension of operation: Supplemental operations. When a certificate holder conducting supplemental operations or pilot in command knows of conditions, including airport and runway conditions, that are a hazard to safe operations, the certificate holder or pilot in command, as the case may be, shall restrict or suspend operations until those conditions are corrected. [Docket 28154, 61 FR 2613, Jan. 26, 1996] § 121.555 Compliance with approved routes and limitations: Domestic and flag operations. No pilot may operate an airplane in scheduled air transportation— (a) Over any route or route segment unless it is specified in the certificate holder's operations specifications; or (b) Other than in accordance with the limitations in the operations specifications. [Docket 6258, 29 FR 19219, Dec. 31, 1964, as amended by Amdt. 121-253, 61 FR 2614, Jan. 26, 1996] § 121.557 Emergencies: Domestic and flag operations. (a) In an emergency situation that requires immediate decision and action the pilot in command may take any action that he considers necessary under the circumstances. In such a case he may deviate from prescribed operations procedures and methods, weather minimums, and this chapter, to the extent required in the interests of safety. (b) In an emergency situation arising during flight that requires immediate decision and action by an aircraft dispatcher, and that is known to him, the aircraft dispatcher shall advise the pilot in command of the emergency, shall ascertain the decision of the pilot in command, and shall have the decision recorded. If the aircraft dispatcher cannot communicate with the pilot, he shall declare an emergency and take any action that he considers necessary under the circumstances. (c) Whenever a pilot in command or dispatcher exercises emergency authority, he shall keep the appropriate ATC facility and dispatch centers fully informed of the progress of the flight. The person declaring the emergency shall send a written report of any deviation through the certificate holder's operations manager, to the Administrator. A dispatcher shall send his report within 10 days after the date of the emergency, and a pilot in command shall send his report within 10 days after returning to his home base. [Docket 6258, 29 FR 19219, Dec. 31, 1964, as amended by Amdt. 121-253, 61 FR 2614, Jan. 26, 1996] § 121.559 Emergencies: Supplemental operations. (a) In an emergency situation that requires immediate decision and action, the pilot in command may take any action that he considers necessary under the circumstances. In such a case, he may deviate from prescribed operations, procedures and methods, weather minimums, and this chapter, to the extent required in the interests of safety. (b) In an emergency situation arising during flight that requires immediate decision and action by appropriate management personnel in the case of operations conducted with a flight following service and which is known to them, those personnel shall advise the pilot in command of the emergency, shall ascertain the decision of the pilot in command, and shall have the decision recorded. If they cannot communicate with the pilot, they shall declare an emergency and take any action that they consider necessary under the circumstances.

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(c) Whenever emergency authority is exercised, the pilot in command or the appropriate management personnel shall keep the appropriate communication facility fully informed of the progress of the flight. The person declaring the emergency shall send a written report of any deviation, through the certificate holder's director of operations, to the Administrator within 10 days after the flight is completed or, in the case of operations outside the United States, upon return to the home base. [Docket 6258, 29 FR 19219, Dec. 31, 1964, as amended by Amdt. 121-253, 61 FR 2614, Jan. 26, 1996; Amdt. 121-333, 72 FR 31682, June 7, 2007] § 121.561 Reporting potentially hazardous meteorological conditions and irregularities of ground facilities or navigation aids. (a) Whenever he encounters a meteorological condition or an irregularity in aground facility or navigation aid, in flight, the knowledge of which he considers essential to the safety of other flights, the pilot in command shall notify an appropriate ground station as soon as practicable. (b) The ground radio station that is notified under paragraph (a) of this section shall report the information to the agency directly responsible for operating the facility. [Docket 6258, 29 FR 19219, Dec. 31, 1964, as amended by Amdt. 121-333, 72 FR 31682, June 7, 2007] § 121.563 Reporting mechanical irregularities. The pilot in command shall ensure that all mechanical irregularities occurring during flight time are entered in the maintenance log of the airplane at the end of that flight time. Before each flight the pilot in command shall ascertain the status of each irregularity entered in the log at the end of the preceding flight. [Docket 17897, 45 FR 41594, June 19, 1980, as amended by Amdt. 121-179, 47 FR 33390, Aug. 2, 1982] § 121.565 Engine inoperative: Landing; reporting. (a) Except as provided in paragraph (b) of this section, whenever an airplane engine fails or whenever an engine is shutdown to prevent possible damage, the pilot in command must land the airplane at the nearest suitable airport, in point of time, at which a safe landing can be made. (b) If not more than one engine of an airplane that has three or more engines fails or is shut down to prevent possible damage, the pilot-in-command may proceed to an airport that the pilot selects if, after considering the following, the pilot makes a reasonable decision that proceeding to that airport is as safe as landing at the nearest suitable airport: (1) The nature of the malfunction and the possible mechanical difficulties that may occur if flight is continued. (2) The altitude, weight, and useable fuel at the time that the engine is shutdown. (3) The weather conditions en route and at possible landing points. (4) The air traffic congestion. (5) The kind of terrain. (6) His familiarity with the airport to be used. (c) The pilot-in-command must report each engine shutdown in flight to the appropriate communication facility as soon as practicable and must keep that facility fully informed of the progress of the flight. (d) If the pilot in command lands at an airport other than the nearest suitable airport, in point of time, he or she shall (upon completing the trip) send a written report, in duplicate, to his or her director of operations stating the reasons for determining that the selection of an airport, other than the nearest airport, was as safe a course of action as landing at the nearest suitable airport. The director of operations shall, within 10 days after the pilot returns to his or her home base, send a copy of this report with the director of operation's comments to the responsible Flight Standards office.

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[Docket 6258, 29 FR 19219, Dec. 31, 1964, as amended by Amdt. 121-207, 54 FR 39293, Sept. 25, 1989; Amdt. 121-253, 61 FR 2614, Jan. 26, 1996; Amdt. 121-329, 72 FR 1881, Jan. 16, 2007; Amdt. 121-333, 72 FR 31682, June 7, 2007; Docket FAA-2018-0119, Amdt. 121-380, 83 FR 9172, Mar. 5, 2018] § 121.567 Instrument approach procedures and IFR landing minimums. No person may make an instrument approach at an airport except in accordance with IFR weather minimums and instrument approach procedures set forth in the certificate holder's operations specifications. § 121.569 Equipment interchange: Domestic and flag operations. (a) Before operating under an interchange agreement, each certificate holder conducting domestic or flag operations shall show that— (1) The procedures for the interchange operation conform with this chapter and with safe operating practices; (2) Required crewmembers and dispatchers meet approved training requirements for the airplanes and equipment to be used and are familiar with the communications and dispatch procedures to be used; (3) Maintenance personnel meet training requirements for the airplanes and equipment, and are familiar with the maintenance procedures to be used; (4) Flight crewmembers and dispatchers meet appropriate route and airport qualifications; and (5) The airplanes to be operated are essentially similar to the airplanes of the certificate holder with whom the interchange is effected with respect to the arrangement of flight instruments and the arrangement and motion of controls that are critical to safety unless the Administrator determines that the certificate holder has adequate training programs to insure that any potentially hazardous dissimilarities are safely overcome by flight crew familiarization. (b) Each certificate holder conducting domestic or flag operations shall include the pertinent provisions and procedures involved in the equipment interchange agreement in its manuals. [Docket 6258, 29 FR 19219, Dec. 31, 1964, as amended by Amdt. 121-253, 61 FR 2614, Jan. 26, 1996] § 121.570 Airplane evacuation capability. (a) No person may cause an airplane carrying passengers to be moved on the surface, take off, or land unless each automatically deployable emergency evacuation assisting means, installed pursuant to § 121.310(a), is ready for evacuation. (b) Each certificate holder shall ensure that, at all times passengers are on board prior to airplane movement on the surface, at least one floor-level exit provides for the egress of passengers through normal or emergency means. [Docket 26142, 57 FR 42674, Sept. 15, 1992] § 121.571 Briefing passengers before takeoff. (a) Each certificate holder operating a passenger-carrying airplane shall insure that all passengers are orally briefed by the appropriate crewmember as follows: (1) Before each takeoff, on each of the following: (i) Smoking. Each passenger shall be briefed on when, where, and under what conditions smoking is prohibited including, but not limited to, any applicable requirements of part 252 of this title). This briefing shall include a statement that the Federal Aviation Regulations require passenger compliance with the lighted passenger information signs, posted placards, areas designated for safety purposes as no smoking areas, and crewmember instructions with regard to these items. The briefing shall also include a statement that Federal law prohibits tampering with, disabling, or destroying any smoke detector in an airplane lavatory; smoking in lavatories; and, when applicable, smoking in passenger compartments. (ii) The location of emergency exits. (iii) The use of safety belts, including instructions on how to fasten and unfasten the safety belts. Each passenger shall be briefed on when, where, and under what conditions the safety belt must be fastened about that passenger. This briefing shall include a statement that the Federal Aviation Regulations require passenger compliance with lighted passenger information signs and crewmember instructions concerning the use of safety belts.

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(iv) The location and use of any required emergency flotation means. (v) On operations that do not use a flight attendant, the following additional information: (A) The placement of seat backs in an upright position before takeoff and landing. (B) Location of survival equipment. (C) If the flight involves operations above 12,000 MSL, the normal and emergency use of oxygen. (D) Location and operation of fire extinguisher. (2) After each takeoff, immediately before or immediately after turning the seat belt sign off, an announcement shall be made that passengers should keep their seat belts fastened, while seated, even when the seat belt sign is off. (3) Except as provided in paragraph (a)(4) of this section, before each takeoff a required crewmember assigned to the flight shall conduct an individual briefing of each person who may need the assistance of another person to move expeditiously to an exit in the event of an emergency. In the briefing the required crewmember shall— (i) Brief the person and his attendant, if any, on the routes to each appropriate exit and on the most appropriate time to begin moving to an exit in the event of an emergency; and (ii) Inquire of the person and his attendant, if any, as to the most appropriate manner of assisting the person so as to prevent pain and further injury. (4) The requirements of paragraph (a)(3) of this section do not apply to a person who has been given a briefing before a previous leg of a flight in the same aircraft when the crewmembers on duty have been advised as to the most appropriate manner of assisting the person so as to prevent pain and further injury. (b) Each certificate holder must carry on each passenger-carrying airplane, in convenient locations for use of each passenger, printed cards supplementing the oral briefing. Each card must contain information pertinent only to the type and model of airplane used for that flight, including— (1) Diagrams of, and methods of operating, the emergency exits; (2) Other instructions necessary for use of emergency equipment; and (3) No later than June 12, 2005, for Domestic and Flag scheduled passenger-carrying flights, the sentence, “Final assembly of this airplane was completed in [INSERT NAME OF COUNTRY].” (c) The certificate holder shall describe in its manual the procedure to be followed in the briefing required by paragraph (a) of this section. [Docket 2033, 30 FR 3206, Mar. 9, 1965] Editorial Note: For Federal Register citations affecting § 121.571, see the List of CFR Sections Affected, which appears in the Finding Aids section of the printed volume and at www.govinfo.gov.

§ 121.573 Briefing passengers: Extended overwater operations. (a) In addition to the oral briefing required by § 121.571(a), each certificate holder operating an airplane in extended overwater operations shall ensure that all passengers are orally briefed by the appropriate crewmember on the location and operation of life preservers, liferafts, and other flotation means, including a demonstration of the method of donning and inflating a life preserver. (b) The certificate holder shall describe in its manual the procedure to be followed in the briefing required by paragraph (a) of this section. (c) If the airplane proceeds directly over water after takeoff, the briefing required by paragraph (a) of this section must be done before takeoff. (d) If the airplane does not proceed directly over water after takeoff, no part of the briefing required by paragraph (a) of this section has to be given before takeoff, but the entire briefing must be given before reaching the overwater part of the flight. [Docket 2033, 30 FR 3206, Mar. 9, 1965, as amended by Amdt. 121-144, 43 FR 22648, May 25, 1978; Amdt. 121-146, 43 FR 28403, June 29, 1978]

§ 121.574 Oxygen and portable oxygen concentrators for medical use by passengers. (a) A certificate holder may allow a passenger to carry and operate equipment for the storage, generation, or dispensing of oxygen when all of the conditions in paragraphs (a) through (d) of this section are satisfied. Beginning August 22, 2016, a certificate holder may allow a passenger to carry and operate a portable oxygen concentrator when the conditions in paragraphs (b) and (e) of this section are satisfied. (1) The equipment is— (i) Furnished by the certificate holder; (ii) Of an approved type or is in conformity with the manufacturing, packaging, marking, labeling, and maintenance requirements of 49 CFR parts 171, 172, and 173, except § 173.24(a)(1); (iii) Maintained by the certificate holder in accordance with an approved maintenance program; (iv) Free of flammable contaminants on all exterior surfaces; (v) Capable of providing a minimum mass flow of oxygen to the user of four liters per minute; (vi) Constructed so that all valves, fittings, and gauges are protected from damage; and (vii) Appropriately secured. (2) When the oxygen is stored in the form of a liquid, the equipment has been under the certificate holder's approved maintenance program since its purchase new or since the storage container was last purged. (3) When the oxygen is stored in the form of a compressed gas as defined in 49 CFR 173.115(b)— (i) The equipment has been under the certificate holder's approved maintenance program since its purchase new or since the last hydrostatic test of the storage cylinder; and (ii) The pressure in any oxygen cylinder does not exceed the rated cylinder pressure. (4) Each person using the equipment has a medical need to use it evidenced by a written statement to be kept in that person's possession, signed by a licensed physician which specifies the maximum quantity of oxygen needed each hour and the maximum flow rate needed for the pressure altitude corresponding to the pressure in the cabin of the airplane under normal operating conditions. This paragraph does not apply to the carriage of oxygen in an airplane in which the only passengers carried are persons who may have a medical need for oxygen during flight, no more than one relative or other interested person for each of those persons, and medical attendants. (5) When a physician's statement is required by paragraph (a)(4) of this section, the total quantity of oxygen carried is equal to the maximum quantity of oxygen needed each hour, as specified in the physician's statement, multiplied by the number of hours used to compute the amount of airplane fuel required by this part. (6) The pilot in command is advised when the equipment is on board, and when it is intended to be used. (7) The equipment is stowed, and each person using the equipment is seated, so as not to restrict access to or use of any required emergency, or regular exit or of the aisle in the passenger compartment. (b) No person may smoke or create an open flame and no certificate holder may allow any person to smoke or create an open flame within 10 feet of oxygen storage and dispensing equipment carried in accordance with paragraph (a) of this section or a portable oxygen concentrator carried and operated in accordance with paragraph (e) of this section. (c) No certificate holder may allow any person to connect or disconnect oxygen dispensing equipment, to or from a gaseous oxygen cylinder while any passenger is aboard the airplane. (d) The requirements of this section do not apply to the carriage of supplemental or first-aid oxygen and related equipment required by this chapter. (e) Portable oxygen concentrators —(1) Acceptance criteria. A passenger may carry or operate a portable oxygen concentrator for personal use on board an aircraft and a certificate holder may allow a passenger to carry or operate a portable oxygen concentrator on board an aircraft operated under this part during all phases of flight if the portable oxygen concentrator satisfies all of the requirements in this paragraph (e):

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(i) Is legally marketed in the United States in accordance with Food and Drug Administration requirements in title 21 of the CFR; (ii) Does not radiate radio frequency emissions that interfere with aircraft systems; (iii) Generates a maximum oxygen pressure of less than 200 kPa gauge (29.0 psig/43.8 psia) at 20 °C (68 °F); (iv) Does not contain any hazardous materials subject to the Hazardous Materials Regulations (49 CFR parts 171 through 180) except as provided in 49 CFR 175.10 for batteries used to power portable electronic devices and that do not require aircraft operator approval; and (v) Bears a label on the exterior of the device applied in a manner that ensures the label will remain affixed for the life of the device and containing the following certification statement in red lettering: “The manufacturer of this POC has determined this device conforms to all applicable FAA acceptance criteria for POC carriage and use on board aircraft.” The label requirements in this paragraph (e)(1)(v) do not apply to the following portable oxygen concentrators approved by the FAA for use on board aircraft prior to May 24, 2016: (A) AirSep Focus; (B) AirSep FreeStyle; (C) AirSep FreeStyle 5; (D) AirSep LifeStyle; (E) Delphi RS-00400; (F) DeVilbiss Healthcare iGo; (G) Inogen One; (H) Inogen One G2; (I) Inogen One G3; (J) Inova Labs LifeChoice; (K) Inova Labs LifeChoice Activox; (L) International Biophysics LifeChoice; (M) Invacare Solo2; (N) Invacare XPO2; (O) Oxlife Independence Oxygen Concentrator; (P) Oxus RS-00400; (Q) Precision Medical EasyPulse; (R) Respironics EverGo; (S) Respironics SimplyGo; (T) SeQual Eclipse; (U) SeQual eQuinox Oxygen System (model 4000); (V) SeQual Oxywell Oxygen System (model 4000); (W) SeQual SAROS; and (X) VBox Trooper Oxygen Concentrator. (2) Operating requirements. Portable oxygen concentrators that satisfy the acceptance criteria identified in paragraph (e)(1) of this section may be carried or operated by a passenger on an aircraft provided the aircraft operator ensures that all of the conditions in this paragraph (e)(2) are satisfied: (i) Exit seats. No person operating a portable oxygen concentrator is permitted to occupy an exit seat. (ii) Stowage of device. During movement on the surface, takeoff and landing, the device must be stowed under the seat in front of the user, or in another approved stowage location so that it does not block the aisle way or the entryway to the row. If the device is to be operated by the user, it must be operated only at a seat location that does not restrict any passenger's access to, or use of, any required emergency or regular exit, or the aisle(s) in the passenger compartment. [Docket 12169, 39 FR 42677, Dec. 6, 1974, as amended by Amdt. 121-159, 45 FR 41594, June 19, 1980; Docket FAA-2014-0554, Amdt. 121-374, 81 FR 33118, May 24, 2016] § 121.575 Alcoholic beverages. (a) No person may drink any alcoholic beverage aboard an aircraft unless the certificate holder operating the aircraft has served that beverage to him. (b) No certificate holder may serve any alcoholic beverage to any person aboard any of its aircraft who— (1) Appears to be intoxicated; (2) Is escorting a person or being escorted in accordance with 49 CFR 1544.221; or (3) Has a deadly or dangerous weapon accessible to him while aboard the aircraft in accordance with 49 CFR 1544.219, 1544.221, or 1544.223. (c) No certificate holder may allow any person to board any of its aircraft if that person appears to be intoxicated. (d) Each certificate holder shall, within five days after the incident, report to the Administrator the refusal of any person to comply with paragraph (a) of this section, or of any disturbance caused by a person who appears to be intoxicated aboard any of its aircraft.

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[Docket 6258, 29 FR 19219, Dec. 31, 1964, as amended by Amdt. 121-118, 40 FR 17552, Apr. 21, 1975; Amdt. 121-178, 47 FR 13316, Mar. 29, 1982; Amdt. 121-275, 67 FR 31932, May 10, 2002] § 121.576 Retention of items of mass in passenger and crew compartments. The certificate holder must provide and use means to prevent each item of galley equipment and each serving cart, when not in use, and each item of crew baggage, which is carried in a passenger or crew compartment from becoming a hazard by shifting under the appropriate load factors corresponding to the emergency landing conditions under which the airplane was type certificated. [Docket 16383, 43 FR 22648, May 25, 1978] § 121.577 Stowage of food, beverage, and passenger service equipment during airplane movement on the surface, takeoff, and landing. (a) No certificate holder may move an airplane on the surface, take off, or land when any food, beverage, or tableware furnished by the certificate holder is located at any passenger seat. (b) No certificate holder may move an airplane on the surface, take off, or land unless each food and beverage tray and seat back tray table is secured in its stowed position. (c) No certificate holder may permit an airplane to move on the surface, take off, or land unless each passenger serving cart is secured in its stowed position. (d) No certificate holder may permit an airplane to move on the surface, take off, or land unless each movie screen that extends into an aisle is stowed. (e) Each passenger shall comply with instructions given by a crewmember with regard to compliance with this section. [Docket 26142, 57 FR 42674, Sept. 15, 1992] § 121.578 Cabin ozone concentration. (a) For the purpose of this section, the following definitions apply: (1) Flight segment means scheduled nonstop flight time between two airports. (2) Sea level equivalent refers to conditions of 25 °C and 760 millimeters of mercury pressure. (b) Except as provided in paragraphs (d) and (e) of this section, no certificate holder may operate an airplane above the following flight levels unless it is successfully demonstrated to the Administrator that the concentration of ozone inside the cabin will not exceed— (1) For flight above flight level 320, 0.25 parts per million by volume, sea level equivalent, at any time above that flight level; and (2) For flight above flight level 270, 0.1 parts per million by volume, sea level equivalent, time-weighted average for each flight segment that exceeds 4 hours and includes flight above that flight level. (For this purpose, the amount of ozone below flight level 180 is considered to be zero.) (c) Compliance with this section must be shown by analysis or tests, based on either airplane operational procedures and performance limitations or the certificate holder's operations. The analysis or tests must show either of the following: (1) Atmospheric ozone statistics indicate, with a statistical confidence of at least 84%, that at the altitudes and locations at which the airplane will be operated cabin ozone concentrations will not exceed the limits prescribed by paragraph (b) of this section. (2) The airplane ventilation system including any ozone control equipment, will maintain cabin ozone concentrations at or below the limits prescribed by paragraph (b) of this section. (d) A certificate holder may obtain an authorization to deviate from the requirements of paragraph (b) of this section, by an amendment to its operations specifications, if— (1) It shows that due to circumstances beyond its control or to unreasonable economic burden it cannot comply for a specified period of time; and (2) It has submitted a plan acceptable to the Administrator to effect compliance to the extent possible.

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(e) A certificate holder need not comply with the requirements of paragraph (b) of this section for an aircraft— (1) When the only persons carried are flight crewmembers and persons listed in § 121.583; (2) If the aircraft is scheduled for retirement before January 1, 1985; or (3) If the aircraft is scheduled for re-engining under the provisions of subpart E of part 91, until it is re-engined. [Docket 121-154, 45 FR 3883, Jan. 21, 1980. Redesignated by Amdt. 121-162, 45 FR 46739, July 10, 1980, and amended by Amdt. 121-181, 47 FR 58489, Dec. 30, 1982; Amdt. 121-251, 60 FR 65935, Dec. 20, 1995] § 121.579 Minimum altitudes for use of autopilot. (a) Definitions. For purpose of this section— (1) Altitudes for takeoff/initial climb and go-around/missed approach are defined as above the airport elevation. (2) Altitudes for enroute operations are defined as above terrain elevation. (3) Altitudes for approach are defined as above the touchdown zone elevation (TDZE), unless the altitude is specifically in reference to DA (H) or MDA, in which case the altitude is defined by reference to the DA(H) or MDA itself. (b) Takeoff and initial climb. No person may use an autopilot for takeoff or initial climb below the higher of 500 feet or an altitude that is no lower than twice the altitude loss specified in the Airplane Flight Manual (AFM), except as follows— (1) At a minimum engagement altitude specified in the AFM; or (2) At an altitude specified by the Administrator, whichever is greater. (c) Enroute. No person may use an autopilot enroute, including climb and descent, below the following— (1) 500 feet; (2) At an altitude that is no lower than twice the altitude loss specified in the AFM for an autopilot malfunction in cruise conditions; or (3) At an altitude specified by the Administrator, whichever is greater. (d) Approach. No person may use an autopilot at an altitude lower than 50 feet below the DA(H) or MDA for the instrument procedure being flown, except as follows— (1) For autopilots with an AFM specified altitude loss for approach operations— (i) An altitude no lower than twice the specified altitude loss if higher than 50 feet below the MDA or DA(H); (ii) An altitude no lower than 50 feet higher than the altitude loss specified in the AFM, when the following conditions are met— (A) Reported weather conditions are less than the basic VFR weather conditions in § 91.155 of this chapter; (B) Suitable visual references specified in § 91.175 of this chapter have been established on the instrument approach procedure; and (C) The autopilot is coupled and receiving both lateral and vertical path references; (iii) An altitude no lower than the higher of the altitude loss specified in the AFM or 50 feet above the TDZE, when the following conditions are met— (A) Reported weather conditions are equal to or better than the basic VFR weather conditions in § 91.155 of this chapter; and (B) The autopilot is coupled and receiving both lateral and vertical path references; or (iv) A greater altitude specified by the Administrator. (2) For autopilots with AFM specified approach altitude limitations, the greater of— (i) The minimum use altitude specified for the coupled approach mode selected; (ii) 50 feet; or (iii) An altitude specified by Administrator. (3) For autopilots with an AFM specified negligible or zero altitude loss for an autopilot approach mode malfunction, the greater of— (i) 50 feet; or (ii) An altitude specified by Administrator. (4) If executing an autopilot coupled go-around or missed approach using a certificated and functioning autopilot in accordance with paragraph (e) in this section. (e) Go-Around/Missed Approach. No person may engage an autopilot during a go-around or missed approach below the minimum engagement altitude specified for takeoff and initial climb in paragraph (b) in this section. An autopilot minimum use altitude does not apply to a go-around/missed approach initiated with an engaged autopilot. Performing a go-around or missed approach with an engaged autopilot must not adversely affect safe obstacle clearance.

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(f) Landing. Notwithstanding paragraph (d) of this section, autopilot minimum use altitudes do not apply to autopilot operations when an approved automatic landing system mode is being used for landing. Automatic landing systems must be authorized in an operations specification issued to the operator. [Docket FAA-2012-1059, 79 FR 6086, Feb. 3, 2014] § 121.580 Prohibition on interference with crewmembers. No person may assault, threaten, intimidate, or interfere with a crewmember in the performance of the crewmember's duties aboard an aircraft being operated under this part. [Docket FAA-1998-4954, 64 FR 1080, Jan. 7, 1999] § 121.581 Observer's seat: En route inspections. (a) Except as provided in paragraph (c) of this section, each certificate holder shall make available a seat on the flight deck of each airplane, used by it in air commerce, for occupancy by the Administrator while conducting en route inspections. The location and equipment of the seat, with respect to its suitability for use in conducting en route inspections, is determined by the Administrator. (b) In each airplane that has more than one observer's seat, in addition to the seats required for the crew complement for which the airplane was certificated, the forward observer's seat or the observer's seat selected by the Administrator must be made available when complying with paragraph (a) of this section. (c) For any airplane type certificated before December 20, 1995, for not more than 30 passengers that does not have an observer seat on the flightdeck, the certificate holder must provide a forward passenger seat with headset or speaker for occupancy by the Administrator while conducting en route inspections. [Docket 6258, 29 FR 19219, Dec. 31, 1964, as amended by Amdt. 121-144, 43 FR 22648, May 25, 1978; Amdt. 121-251, 60 FR 65935, Dec. 20, 1995; Amdt. 121-288, 67 FR 2128, Jan. 15, 2002] § 121.582 Means to discreetly notify a flightcrew. Except for all-cargo operations as defined in § 110.2 of this chapter, after October 15, 2007, for all passenger carrying airplanes that require a lockable flightdeck door in accordance with § 121.313(f), the certificate holder must have an approved means by which the cabin crew can discreetly notify the flightcrew in the event of suspicious activity or security breaches in the cabin. [Docket FAA-2005-22449, 72 FR 45635, Aug. 15, 2007, as amended by Amdt. 121-353, 76 FR 7488, Feb. 10, 2011] § 121.583 Carriage of persons without compliance with the passenger-carrying requirements of this part. (a) When authorized by the certificate holder, the following persons, but no others, may be carried aboard an airplane without complying with the passenger-carrying airplane requirements in §§ 121.309(f), 121.310, 121.391, 121.571, and 121.587; the passenger-carrying operation requirements in part 117 and §§ 121.157(c) and 121.291; the requirements pertaining to passengers in §§ 121.285, 121.313(f), 121.317, 121.547, and 121.573; and the information disclosure requirements in § 121.311(k): (1) A crewmember. (2) A company employee. (3) An FAA air carrier inspector, a DOD commercial air carrier evaluator, or an authorized representative of the National Transportation Safety Board, who is performing official duties. (4) A person necessary for— (i) The safety of the flight; (ii) The safe handling of animals; (iii) The safe handling of hazardous materials whose carriage is governed by regulations in 49 CFR part 175; (iv) The security of valuable or confidential cargo; (v) The preservation of fragile or perishable cargo;

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(vi) Experiments on, or testing of, cargo containers or cargo handling devices; (vii) The operation of special equipment for loading or unloading cargo; and (viii) The loading or unloading of outsize cargo. (5) A person described in paragraph (a)(4) of this section, when traveling to or from his assignment. (6) A person performing duty as an honor guard accompanying a shipment made by or under the authority of the United States. (7) A military courier, military route supervisor, military cargo contract coordinator, or a flight crewmember of another military cargo contract air carrier or commercial operator, carried by a military cargo contract air carrier or commercial operator in operations under a military cargo contract, if that carriage is specifically authorized by the appropriate armed forces. (8) A dependent of an employee of the certificate holder when traveling with the employee on company business to or from outlying stations not served by adequate regular passenger flights. (b) No certificate holder may operate an airplane carrying a person covered by paragraph (a) of this section unless— (1) Each person has unobstructed access from his seat to the pilot compartment or to a regular or emergency exit; (2) The pilot in command has a means of notifying each person when smoking is prohibited and when safety belts must be fastened; and (3) The airplane has an approved seat with an approved safety belt for each person. The seat must be located so that the occupant is not in any position to interfere with the flight crewmembers performing their duties. (c) Before each takeoff, each certificate holder operating an airplane carrying persons covered by paragraph (a) of this section shall ensure that all such persons have been orally briefed by the appropriate crewmember on— (1) Smoking; (2) The use of seat belts; (3) The location and operation of emergency exits; (4) The use of oxygen and emergency oxygen equipment; and (5) For extended overwater operations, the location of life rafts, and the location and operation of life preservers including a demonstration of the method of donning and inflating a life preserver. (d) Each certificate holder operating an airplane carrying persons covered by paragraph (a) of this section shall incorporate procedures for the safe carriage of such persons into the certificate holder's operations manual. (e) The pilot in command may authorize a person covered by paragraph (a) of this section to be admitted to the crew compartment of the airplane. [Docket 10580, 35 FR 14612, Sept. 18, 1970, as amended by Amdt. 121-96, 37 FR 19608, Sept. 21, 1972; Amdt. 121-159, 45 FR 41594, June 19, 1980; Amdt. 121-232, 57 FR 48663, Oct. 27, 1992; Amdt. 121-251, 60 FR 65935, Dec. 20, 1995; Amdt. 121-253, 61 FR 2614, Jan. 26, 1996; Amdt. 121-298, 68 FR 41217, July 10, 2003; Amdt. 121-357, 77 FR 403, Jan. 4, 2012; Amdt. 121-373, 80 FR 58586, Sept. 30, 2015] § 121.584 Requirement to view the area outside the flightdeck door. From the time the airplane moves in order to initiate a flight segment through the end of that flight segment, no person may unlock or open the flightdeck door unless: (a) A person authorized to be on the flightdeck uses an approved audio procedure and an approved visual device to verify that: (1) The area outside the flightdeck door is secure, and; (2) If someone outside the flightdeck is seeking to have the flightdeck door opened, that person is not under duress, and; (3) If the airplane is in flight, any installed physical secondary barrier (IPSB) required by § 121.313(l) has been deployed; and (b) After the requirements of paragraph (a) of this section have been satisfactorily accomplished, the crewmember in charge on the flightdeck authorizes the door to be unlocked and open. [Amdt. 121-334, 72 FR 45635, Aug. 15, 2007, as amended by Amdt. 121-389, 88 FR 41308, June 26, 2023]

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§ 121.585 Exit seating. (a)(1) Each certificate holder shall determine, to the extent necessary to perform the applicable functions of paragraph (d) of this section, the suitability of each person it permits to occupy an exit seat, in accordance with this section. For the purpose of this section— (i) Exit seat means— (A) Each seat having direct access to an exit; and, (B) Each seat in a row of seats through which passengers would have to pass to gain access to an exit, from the first seat inboard of the exit to the first aisle inboard of the exit. (ii) A passenger seat having “direct access” means a seat from which a passenger can proceed directly to the exit without entering an aisle or passing around an obstruction. (2) Each certificate holder shall make the passenger exit seating determinations required by this paragraph in a non-discriminatory manner consistent with the requirements of this section, by persons designated in the certificate holder's required operations manual. (3) Each certificate holder shall designate the exit seats for each passenger seating configuration in its fleet in accordance with the definitions in this paragraph and submit those designations for approval as part of the procedures required to be submitted for approval under paragraphs (n) and (p) of this section. (b) No certificate holder may seat a person in a seat affected by this section if the certificate holder determines that it is likely that the person would be unable to perform one or more of the applicable functions listed in paragraph (d) of this section because— (1) The person lacks sufficient mobility, strength, or dexterity in both arms and hands, and both legs: (i) To reach upward, sideways, and downward to the location of emergency exit and exit-slide operating mechanisms; (ii) To grasp and push, pull, turn, or otherwise manipulate those mechanisms; (iii) To push, shove, pull, or otherwise open emergency exits; (iv) To lift out, hold, deposit on nearby seats, or maneuver over the seatbacks to the next row objects the size and weight of over-wing window exit doors; (v) To remove obstructions similar in size and weight to over-wing exit doors; (vi) To reach the emergency exit expeditiously; (vii) To maintain balance while removing obstructions; (viii) To exit expeditiously; (ix) To stabilize an escape slide after deployment; or (x) To assist others in getting off an escape slide; (2) The person is less than 15 years of age or lacks the capacity to perform one or more of the applicable functions listed in paragraph (d) of this section without the assistance of an adult companion, parent, or other relative; (3) The person lacks the ability to read and understand instructions required by this section and related to emergency evacuation provided by the certificate holder in printed or graphic form or the ability to understand oral crew commands. (4) The person lacks sufficient visual capacity to perform one or more of the applicable functions in paragraph (d) of this section without the assistance of visual aids beyond contact lenses or eyeglasses; (5) The person lacks sufficient aural capacity to hear and understand instructions shouted by flight attendants, without assistance beyond a hearing aid; (6) The person lacks the ability adequately to impart information orally to other passengers; or, (7) The person has: (i) A condition or responsibilities, such as caring for small children, that might prevent the person from performing one or more of the applicable functions listed in paragraph (d) of this section; or (ii) A condition that might cause the person harm if he or she performs one or more of the applicable functions listed in paragraph (d) of this section. (c) Each passenger shall comply with instructions given by a crewmember or other authorized employee of the certificate holder implementing exit seating restrictions established in accordance with this section.

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(d) Each certificate holder shall include on passenger information cards, presented in the language in which briefings and oral commands are given by the crew, at each exit seat affected by this section, information that, in the event of an emergency in which a crewmember is not available to assist, a passenger occupying an exit seat may use if called upon to perform the following functions: (1) Locate the emergency exit; (2) Recognize the emergency exit opening mechanism; (3) Comprehend the instructions for operating the emergency exit; (4) Operate the emergency exit; (5) Assess whether opening the emergency exit will increase the hazards to which passengers may be exposed; (6) Follow oral directions and hand signals given by a crewmember; (7) Stow or secure the emergency exit door so that it will not impede use of the exit; (8) Assess the condition of an escape slide, activate the slide, and stabilize the slide after deployment to assist others in getting off the slide; (9) Pass expeditiously through the emergency exit; and (10) Assess, select, and follow a safe path away from the emergency exit. (e) Each certificate holder shall include on passenger information cards, at each exit seat— (1) In the primary language in which emergency commands are given by the crew, the selection criteria set forth in paragraph (b) of this section, and a request that a passenger identify himself or herself to allow reseating if he or she: (i) Cannot meet the selection criteria set forth in paragraph (b) of this section; (ii) Has a nondiscernible condition that will prevent him or her from performing the applicable functions listed in paragraph (d) of this section; (iii) May suffer bodily harm as the result of performing one or more of those functions; or (iv) Does not wish to perform those functions; and (2) In each language used by the certificate holder for passenger information cards, a request that a passenger identify himself or herself to allow reseating if he or she lacks the ability to read, speak, or understand the language or the graphic form in which instructions required by this section and related to emergency evacuation are provided by the certificate holder, or the ability to understand the specified language in which crew commands will be given in an emergency. (3) May suffer bodily harm as the result of performing one or more of those functions; or, (4) Does not wish to perform those functions. A certificate holder shall not require the passenger to disclose his or her reason for needing reseating. (f) Each certificate holder shall make available for inspection by the public at all passenger loading gates and ticket counters at each airport where it conducts passenger operations, written procedures established for making determinations in regard to exit row seating. (g) No certificate holder may allow taxi or pushback unless at least one required crewmember has verified that no exit seat is occupied by a person the crewmember determines is likely to be unable to perform the applicable functions listed in paragraph (d) of this section. (h) Each certificate holder shall include in its passenger briefings a reference to the passenger information cards, required by paragraphs (d) and (e), the selection criteria set forth in paragraph (b), and the functions to be performed, set forth in paragraph (d) of this section. (i) Each certificate holder shall include in its passenger briefings a request that a passenger identify himself or herself to allow reseating if he or she— (1) Cannot meet the selection criteria set forth in paragraph (b) of this section; (2) Has a nondiscernible condition that will prevent him or her from performing the applicable functions listed in paragraph (d) of this section; (3) May suffer bodily harm as the result of performing one or more of those functions listed in paragraph (d) of this section; or,

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(4) Does not wish to perform those functions listed in paragraph (d) of this section. A certificate holder shall not require the passenger to disclose his or her reason for needing reseating. (j) [Reserved] (k) In the event a certificate holder determines in accordance with this section that it is likely that a passenger assigned to an exit seat would be unable to perform the functions listed in paragraph (d) of this section or a passenger requests a non-exit seat, the certificate holder shall expeditiously relocate the passenger to a non-exit seat. (l) In the event of full booking in the non-exit seats and if necessary to accommodate a passenger being relocated from an exit seat, the certificate holder shall move a passenger who is willing and able to assume the evacuation functions that may be required, to an exit seat. (m) A certificate holder may deny transportation to any passenger under this section only because— (1) The passenger refuses to comply with instructions given by a crewmember or other authorized employee of the certificate holder implementing exit seating restrictions established in accordance with this section, or (2) The only seat that will physically accommodate the person's handicap is an exit seat. (n) In order to comply with this section certificate holders shall— (1) Establish procedures that address: (i) The criteria listed in paragraph (b) of this section; (ii) The functions listed in paragraph (d) of this section; (iii) The requirements for airport information, passenger information cards, crewmember verification of appropriate seating in exit seats, passenger briefings, seat assignments, and denial of transportation as set forth in this section; (iv) How to resolve disputes arising from implementation of this section, including identification of the certificate holder employee on the airport to whom complaints should be addressed for resolution; and, (2) Submit their procedures for preliminary review and approval to the principal operations inspectors assigned to them at the responsible Flight Standards office. (o) Certificate holders shall assign seats prior to boarding consistent with the criteria listed in paragraph (b) and the functions listed in paragraph (d) of this section, to the maximum extent feasible. (p) The procedures required by paragraph (n) of this section will not become effective until final approval is granted by the Executive Director, Flight Standards Service, Washington, DC. Approval will be based solely upon the safety aspects of the certificate holder's procedures. [Docket 25821, 55 FR 8072, Mar. 6, 1990, as amended by Amdt. 121-232, 57 FR 48663, Oct. 27, 1992; Amdt. 121-253, 61 FR 2614, Jan. 26, 1996; Docket FAA-2018-0119, Amdt. 121-380, 83 FR 9172, 9173, Mar. 5, 2018] § 121.586 Authority to refuse transportation. (a) No certificate holder may refuse transportation to a passenger on the basis that, because the passenger may need the assistance of another person to move expeditiously to an exit in the event of an emergency, his transportation would or might be inimical to safety of flight unless— (1) The certificate holder has established procedures (including reasonable notice requirements) for the carriage of passengers who may need the assistance of another person to move expeditiously to an exit in the event of an emergency; and (2) At least one of the following conditions exist: (i) The passenger fails to comply with the notice requirements in the certificate holder's procedures. (ii) The passenger cannot be carried in accordance with the certificate holder's procedures. (b) Each certificate holder shall provide the responsible Flight Standards office with a copy of each procedure it establishes in accordance with paragraph (a)(2) of this section. (c) Whenever the Administrator finds that revisions in the procedures described in paragraph (a)(2) of this section are necessary in the interest of safety or in the public interest, the certificate holder, after notification by the Administrator, shall make those revisions in its procedures. Within 30 days after the certificate holder receives such notice, it may file a petition to reconsider the notice with the responsible Flight Standards office. The filing of a petition to reconsider stays the notice pending a decision by the Administrator. However, if the Administrator finds that there is an emergency that requires immediate action in the interest of safety in air commerce, he may, upon a statement of the reasons, require a change effective without stay.

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(d) Each certificate holder shall make available to the public at each airport it serves a copy of each procedure it establishes in accordance with paragraph (a)(1) of this section. [Docket 12881, 42 FR 18394, Apr. 7, 1977, as amended by Amdt. 121-174, 46 FR 38051, July 23, 1981; Amdt. 121-207, 54 FR 39293, Sept. 25, 1989; Amdt. 121-253, 61 FR 2614, Jan. 26, 1996; Docket FAA-2018-0119, Amdt. 121-380, 83 FR 9172, Mar. 5, 2018] § 121.587 Closing and locking of flightcrew compartment door. (a) Except as provided in paragraph (b) of this section, a pilot in command of an airplane that has a lockable flightcrew compartment door in accordance with § 121.313 and that is carrying passengers shall ensure that the door separating the flightcrew compartment from the passenger compartment is closed and locked at all times when the aircraft is being operated. (b) The provisions of paragraph (a) of this section do not apply at any time when it is necessary to permit access and egress by persons authorized in accordance with § 121.547 and provided the part 119 operator complies with FAA approved procedures regarding the opening, closing and locking of the flightdeck doors. [Docket FAA-2001-11032, 67 FR 2128, Jan. 15, 2002] § 121.589 Carry-on baggage. (a) No certificate holder may allow the boarding of carry-on baggage on an airplane unless each passenger's baggage has been scanned to control the size and amount carried on board in accordance with an approved carry-on baggage program in its operations specifications. In addition, no passenger may board an airplane if his/her carry-on baggage exceeds the baggage allowance prescribed in the carry-on baggage program in the certificate holder's operations specifications. (b) No certificate holder may allow all passenger entry doors of an airplane to be closed in preparation for taxi or pushback unless at least one required crewmember has verified that each article of baggage is stowed in accordance with this section and § 121.285 (c) and (d). (c) No certificate holder may allow an airplane to take off or land unless each article of baggage is stowed: (1) In a suitable closet or baggage or cargo stowage compartment placarded for its maximum weight and providing proper restraint for all baggage or cargo stowed within, and in a manner that does not hinder the possible use of any emergency equipment; or (2) As provided in § 121.285 (c) and (d); or (3) Under a passenger seat. (d) Baggage, other than articles of loose clothing, may not be placed in an overhead rack unless that rack is equipped with approved restraining devices or doors. (e) Each passenger must comply with instructions given by crewmembers regarding compliance with paragraphs (a), (b), (c), (d), and (g) of this section. (f) Each passenger seat under which baggage is allowed to be stowed shall be fitted with a means to prevent articles of baggage stowed under it from sliding forward. In addition, each aisle seat shall be fitted with a means to prevent articles of baggage stowed under it from sliding sideward into the aisle under crash impacts severe enough to induce the ultimate inertia forces specified in the emergency landing condition regulations under which the airplane was type certificated. (g) In addition to the methods of stowage in paragraph (c) of this section, flexible travel canes carried by blind individuals may be stowed— (1) Under any series of connected passenger seats in the same row, if the cane does not protrude into an aisle and if the cane is flat on the floor; or

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(2) Between a nonemergency exit window seat and the fuselage, if the cane is flat on the floor; or (3) Beneath any two nonemergency exit window seats, if the cane is flat on the floor; or (4) In accordance with any other method approved by the Administrator. [Docket 24996, 52 FR 21476, June 5, 1987, as amended by Amdt. 121-251, 60 FR 65935, Dec. 20, 1995] § 121.590 Use of certificated land airports in the United States. (a) Except as provided in paragraphs (b) or (c) of this section, or unless authorized by the Administrator under 49 U.S.C. 44706(c), no air carrier and no pilot being used by an air carrier may operate, in the conduct of a domestic type operation, flag type operation, or supplemental type operation, an airplane at a land airport in any State of the United States, the District of Columbia, or any territory or possession of the United States unless that airport is certificated under part 139 of this chapter. Further, after June 9, 2005 for Class I airports and after December 9, 2005 for Class II, III, and IV airports, when an air carrier and a pilot being used by the air carrier are required to operate at an airport certificated under part 139 of this chapter, the air carrier and the pilot may only operate at that airport if the airport is classified under part 139 to serve the type airplane to be operated and the type of operation to be conducted. (b)(1) An air carrier and a pilot being used by the air carrier in the conduct of a domestic type operation, flag type operation, or supplemental type operation may designate and use as a required alternate airport for departure or destination an airport that is not certificated under part 139 of this chapter. (2) Until December 9, 2005, an air carrier and a pilot being used by the air carrier in the conduct of domestic type operations and flag type operations, may operate an airplane designed for more than 9 but less than 31 passenger seats, at a land airport, in any State of the United States, the District of Columbia, or any territory or possession of the United States, that does not hold an airport operating certificate issued under part 139 of this chapter, and that serves small air carrier aircraft (as defined under “Air carrier aircraft” and “Class III airport” in § 139.5 of this Chapter). (c) An air carrier and a pilot used by the air carrier in conducting a domestic type operation, flag type operation, or supplemental type operation may operate an airplane at an airport operated by the U.S. Government that is not certificated under part 139 of this chapter, only if that airport meets the equivalent— (1) Safety standards for airports certificated under part 139 of this chapter; and (2) Airport classification requirements under part 139 to serve the type airplane to be operated and the type of operation to be conducted. (d) An air carrier, a commercial operator, and a pilot being used by the air carrier or the commercial operator—when conducting a passenger-carrying airplane operation under this part that is not a domestic type operation, a flag type operation, or a supplemental type operation—may operate at a land airport not certificated under part 139 of this chapter only when the following conditions are met: (1) The airport is adequate for the proposed operation, considering such items as size, surface, obstructions, and lighting. (2) For an airplane carrying passengers at night, the pilot may not take off from, or land at, an airport unless— (i) The pilot has determined the wind direction from an illuminated wind direction indicator or local ground communications or, in the case of takeoff, that pilot's personal observations; and (ii) The limits of the area to be used for landing or takeoff are clearly shown by boundary or runway marker lights. If the area to be used for takeoff or landing is marked by flare pots or lanterns, their use must be authorized by the Administrator. (e) A commercial operator and a pilot used by the commercial operator in conducting a domestic type operation, flag type operation, or supplemental type operation may operate an airplane at an airport operated by the U.S. Government that is not certificated under part 139 of this chapter only if that airport meets the equivalent—

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(1) Safety standards for airports certificated under part 139 of this chapter; and (2) Airport classification requirements under part 139 of this chapter to serve the type airplane to be operated and the type of operation to be conducted. (f) For the purpose of this section, the terms— Domestic type operation means any domestic operation conducted with— (1) An airplane designed for at least 31 passenger seats (as determined by the aircraft type certificate issued by a competent civil aviation authority) at any land airport in any State of the United States, the District of Columbia, or any territory or possession of the United States; or (2) An airplane designed for more than 9 passenger seats but less than 31 passenger seats (as determined by the aircraft type certificate issued by a competent civil aviation authority) at any land airport in any State of the United States (except Alaska), the District of Columbia, or any territory or possession of the United States. Flag type operation means any flag operation conducted with— (1) An airplane designed for at least 31 passenger seats (as determined by the aircraft type certificate issued by a competent civil aviation authority) at any land airport in any State of the United States, the District of Columbia, or any territory or possession of the United States; or (2) An airplane designed for more than 9 passenger seats but less than 31 passenger seats (as determined by the aircraft type certificate issued by a competent civil aviation authority) at any land airport in any State of the United States (except Alaska), the District of Columbia, or any territory or possession of the United States. Supplemental type operation means any supplemental operation (except an all-cargo operation) conducted with an airplane designed for at least 31 passenger seats (as determined by the aircraft type certificate issued by a competent civil aviation authority) at any land airport in any State of the United States, the District of Columbia, or any territory or possession of the United States. United States means the States of the United States, the District of Columbia, and the territories and possessions of the United States. Note: Special Statutory Requirement to Operate to or From a Part 139 Airport. Each air carrier that provides—in an aircraft (e.g., airplane, rotorcraft, etc.) designed for more than 9 passenger seats—regularly scheduled charter air transportation for which the public is provided in advance a schedule containing the departure location, departure time, and arrival location of the flight must operate to and from an airport certificated under part 139 of this chapter in accordance with 49 U.S.C. 41104(b). That statutory provision contains stand-alone requirements for such air carriers and special exceptions for operations in Alaska and outside the United States. Nothing in § 121.590 exempts the air carriers described in this note from the requirements of 49 U.S.C. 41104(b). Certain operations by air carriers that conduct public charter operations under 14 CFR part 380 are covered by the statutory requirements to operate to and from part 139 airports. See 49 U.S.C. 41104(b).

[Docket FAA-2000-7479, 69 FR 6424, Feb. 10, 2004; Amdt. 121-304, 69 FR 31522, June 4, 2004] Subpart U—Dispatching and Flight Release Rules Source: Docket 6258, 29 FR 19222, Dec. 31, 1964, unless otherwise noted. § 121.591 Applicability. This subpart prescribes dispatching rules for domestic and flag operations and flight release rules for supplemental operations. [Docket 28154, 61 FR 2614, Jan. 26, 1996] § 121.593 Dispatching authority: Domestic operations. Except when an airplane lands at an intermediate airport specified in the original dispatch release and remains there for not more than one hour, no person may start a flight unless an aircraft dispatcher specifically authorizes that flight.

§ 121.595 Dispatching authority: Flag operations. (a) No person may start a flight unless an aircraft dispatcher specifically authorizes that flight. (b) No person may continue a flight from an intermediate airport without redispatch if the airplane has been on the ground more than six hours. § 121.597 Flight release authority: Supplemental operations. (a) No person may start a flight under a flight following system without specific authority from the person authorized by the operator to exercise operational control over the flight. (b) No person may start a flight unless the pilot in command or the person authorized by the operator to exercise operational control over the flight has executed a flight release setting forth the conditions under which the flights will be conducted. The pilot in command may sign the flight release only when he and the person authorized by the operator to exercise operational control believe that the flight can be made with safety. (c) No person may continue a flight from an intermediate airport without a new flight release if the aircraft has been on the ground more than six hours. [Docket 6258, 29 FR 19222, Dec. 31, 1964, as amended by Amdt. 121-3, 30 FR 3639, Mar. 19, 1965] § 121.599 Familiarity with weather conditions. (a) Domestic and flag operations. No aircraft dispatcher may release a flight unless he is thoroughly familiar with reported and forecast weather conditions on the route to be flown. (b) Supplemental operations. No pilot in command may begin a flight unless he is thoroughly familiar with reported and forecast weather conditions on the route to be flown. [Docket 6258, 29 FR 19222, Dec. 31, 1964, as amended by Amdt. 121-253, 61 FR 2614, Jan. 26, 1996] § 121.601 Aircraft dispatcher information to pilot in command: Domestic and flag operations. (a) The aircraft dispatcher shall provide the pilot in command all available current reports or information on airport conditions and irregularities of navigation facilities that may affect the safety of the flight. (b) Before beginning a flight, the aircraft dispatcher shall provide the pilot in command with all available weather reports and forecasts of weather phenomena that may affect the safety of flight, including adverse weather phenomena, such as clear air turbulence, thunderstorms, and low altitude wind shear, for each route to be flown and each airport to be used. (c) During a flight, the aircraft dispatcher shall provide the pilot in command any additional available information of meteorological conditions (including adverse weather phenomena, such as clear air turbulence, thunderstorms, and low altitude wind shear), and irregularities of facilities and services that may affect the safety of the flight. [Docket 6258, 29 FR 19222, Dec. 31, 1964, as amended by Amdt. 121-134, 42 FR 27573, May 31, 1977; Amdt. 121-144, 43 FR 22649, May 25, 1978; Amdt. 121-253, 61 FR 2614, Jan. 26, 1996] § 121.603 Facilities and services: Supplemental operations. (a) Before beginning a flight, each pilot in command shall obtain all available current reports or information on airport conditions and irregularities of navigation facilities that may affect the safety of the flight. (b) During a flight, the pilot in command shall obtain any additional available information of meteorological conditions and irregularities of facilities and services that may affect the safety of the flight. § 121.605 Airplane equipment. No person may dispatch or release an airplane unless it is airworthy and is equipped as prescribed in § 121.303. § 121.607 Communication and navigation facilities: Domestic and flag operations. (a) Except as provided in paragraph (b) of this section for a certificate holder conducting flag operations, no person may dispatch an airplane over an approved route or route segment unless the communication and navigation facilities required by §§ 121.99 and 121.103 for the approval of that route or segment are in satisfactory operating condition.

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(b) If, because of technical reasons or other reasons beyond the control of a certificate holder conducting flag operations, the facilities required by §§ 121.99 and 121.103 are not available over a route or route segment outside the United States, the certificate holder may dispatch an airplane over that route or route segment if the pilot in command and dispatcher find that communication and navigation facilities equal to those required are available and are in satisfactory operating condition. [Docket 6258, 29 FR 19222, Dec. 31, 1964, as amended by Amdt. 121-253, 61 FR 2614, Jan. 26, 1996] § 121.609 Communication and navigation facilities: Supplemental operations. No person may release an aircraft over any route or route segment unless communication and navigation facilities equal to those required by § 121.121 are in satisfactory operating condition. § 121.611 Dispatch or flight release under VFR. No person may dispatch or release an aircraft for VFR operation unless the ceiling and visibility en route, as indicated by available weather reports or forecasts, or any combination thereof, are and will remain at or above applicable VFR minimums until the aircraft arrives at the airport or airports specified in the dispatch or flight release. § 121.613 Dispatch or flight release under IFR or over the top. Except as provided in § 121.615, no person may dispatch or release an aircraft for operations under IFR or over-the-top, unless appropriate weather reports or forecasts, or any combination thereof, indicate that the weather conditions will be at or above the authorized minimums at the estimated time of arrival at the airport or airports to which dispatched or released. [Docket 6258, 29 FR 19222, Dec. 31, 1964, as amended by Amdt. 121-33, 32 FR 13912, Oct. 6, 1967] § 121.615 Dispatch or flight release over water: Flag and supplemental operations. (a) No person may dispatch or release an aircraft for a flight that involves extended overwater operation unless appropriate weather reports or forecasts or any combination thereof, indicate that the weather conditions will be at or above the authorized minimums at the estimated time of arrival at any airport to which dispatched or released or to any required alternate airport. (b) Each certificate holder conducting a flag or supplemental operation or a domestic operation within the State of Alaska shall conduct extended overwater operations under IFR unless it shows that operating under IFR is not necessary for safety. (c) Each certificate holder conducting a flag or supplemental operation or a domestic operation within the State of Alaska shall conduct other overwater operations under IFR if the Administrator determines that operation under IFR is necessary for safety. (d) Each authorization to conduct extended overwater operations under VFR and each requirement to conduct other overwater operations under IFR will be specified in the certificate holder's operations specifications. [Docket 6258, 29 FR 19222, Dec. 31, 1964, as amended by Amdt. 121-33, 32 FR 13912, Oct. 6, 1967; Amdt. 121-253, 61 FR 2614, Jan. 26, 1996] § 121.617 Alternate airport for departure. (a) If the weather conditions at the airport of takeoff are below the landing minimums in the certificate holder's operations specifications for that airport, no person may dispatch or release an aircraft from that airport unless the dispatch or flight release specifies an alternate airport located within the following distances from the airport of takeoff: (1) Aircraft having two engines. Not more than one hour from the departure airport at normal cruising speed in still air with one engine inoperative. (2) Aircraft having three or more engines. Not more than two hours from the departure airport at normal cruising speed in still air with one engine inoperative.

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(b) For the purpose of paragraph (a) of this section, the alternate airport weather conditions must meet the requirements of the certificate holder's operations specifications. (c) No person may dispatch or release an aircraft from an airport unless he lists each required alternate airport in the dispatch or flight release. § 121.619 Alternate airport for destination: IFR or over-the-top: Domestic operations. (a) No person may dispatch an airplane under IFR or over-the-top unless he lists at least one alternate airport for each destination airport in the dispatch release. When the weather conditions forecast for the destination and first alternate airport are marginal at least one additional alternate must be designated. However, no alternate airport is required if for at least 1 hour before and 1 hour after the estimated time of arrival at the destination airport the appropriate weather reports or forecasts, or any combination of them, indicate— (1) The ceiling will be at least 2,000 feet above the airport elevation; and (2) Visibility will be at least 3 miles. (b) For the purposes of paragraph (a) of this section, the weather conditions at the alternate airport must meet the requirements of § 121.625. (c) No person may dispatch a flight unless he lists each required alternate airport in the dispatch release. [Docket 6258, 29 FR 19222, Dec. 31, 1964, as amended by Amdt. 121-159, 45 FR 41594, June 19, 1980] § 121.621 Alternate airport for destination: Flag operations. (a) No person may dispatch an airplane under IFR or over-the-top unless he lists at least one alternate airport for each destination airport in the dispatch release, unless— (1) The flight is scheduled for not more than 6 hours and, for at least 1 hour before and 1 hour after the estimated time of arrival at the destination airport, the appropriate weather reports or forecasts, or any combination of them, indicate the ceiling will be: (i) At least 1,500 feet above the lowest circling MDA, if a circling approach is required and authorized for that airport; or (ii) At least 1,500 feet above the lowest published instrument approach minimum or 2,000 feet above the airport elevation, whichever is greater; and (iii) The visibility at that airport will be at least 3 miles, or 2 miles more than the lowest applicable visibility minimums, whichever is greater, for the instrument approach procedures to be used at the destination airport; or (2) The flight is over a route approved without an available alternate airport for a particular destination airport and the airplane has enough fuel to meet the requirements of § 121.641(b) or § 121.645(c). (b) For the purposes of paragraph (a) of this section, the weather conditions at the alternate airport must meet the requirements of the certificate holder's operations specifications. (c) No person may dispatch a flight unless he lists each required alternate airport in the dispatch release. [Docket 6258, 29 FR 19222, Dec. 31, 1964, as amended by Amdt. 121-159, 45 FR 41594, June 19, 1980; Amdt. 121-253, 61 FR 2614, Jan. 26, 1996] § 121.623 Alternate airport for destination: IFR or over-the-top: Supplemental operations. (a) Except as provided in paragraph (b) of this section, each person releasing an aircraft for operation under IFR or over-the-top shall list at least one alternate airport for each destination airport in the flight release. (b) An alternate airport need not be designated for IFR or over-the-top operations where the aircraft carries enough fuel to meet the requirements of §§ 121.643 and 121.645 for flights outside the 48 contiguous States and the District of Columbia over routes without an available alternate airport for a particular airport of destination. (c) For the purposes of paragraph (a) of this section, the weather requirements at the alternate airport must meet the requirements of the certificate holder's operations specifications.

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(d) No person may release a flight unless he lists each required alternate airport in the flight release. [Docket 6258, 29 FR 19222, Dec. 31, 1964, as amended by Amdt. 121-253, 61 FR 2614, Jan. 26, 1996] § 121.624 ETOPS Alternate Airports. (a) No person may dispatch or release an airplane for an ETOPS flight unless enough ETOPS Alternate Airports are listed in the dispatch or flight release such that the airplane remains within the authorized ETOPS maximum diversion time. In selecting these ETOPS Alternate Airports, the certificate holder must consider all adequate airports within the authorized ETOPS diversion time for the flight that meet the standards of this part. (b) No person may list an airport as an ETOPS Alternate Airport in a dispatch or flight release unless, when it might be used (from the earliest to the latest possible landing time)— (1) The appropriate weather reports or forecasts, or any combination thereof, indicate that the weather conditions will be at or above the ETOPS Alternate Airport minima specified in the certificate holder's operations specifications; and (2) The field condition reports indicate that a safe landing can be made. (c) Once a flight is en route, the weather conditions at each ETOPS Alternate Airport must meet the requirements of § 121.631 (c). (d) No person may list an airport as an ETOPS Alternate Airport in the dispatch or flight release unless that airport meets the public protection requirements of § 121.97(b)(1)(ii). [Docket FAA-2002-6717, 72 FR 1881, Jan. 16, 2007] § 121.625 Alternate Airport weather minima. Except as provided in § 121.624 for ETOPS Alternate Airports, no person may list an airport as an alternate in the dispatch or flight release unless the appropriate weather reports or forecasts, or any combination thereof, indicate that the weather conditions will be at or above the alternate weather minima specified in the certificate holder's operations specifications for that airport when the flight arrives. [Docket FAA-2002-6717, 72 FR 1881, Jan. 16, 2007] § 121.627 Continuing flight in unsafe conditions. (a) No pilot in command may allow a flight to continue toward any airport to which it has been dispatched or released if, in the opinion of the pilot in command or dispatcher (domestic and flag operations only), the flight cannot be completed safely; unless, in the opinion of the pilot in command, there is no safer procedure. In that event, continuation toward that airport is an emergency situation as set forth in § 121.557. (b) If any instrument or item of equipment required under this chapter for the particular operation becomes inoperative en route, the pilot in command shall comply with the approved procedures for such an occurrence as specified in the certificate holder's manual. [Docket 6258, 29 FR 1922, Dec. 31, 1964, as amended by Amdt. 121-222, 56 FR 12310, Mar. 22, 1991; Amdt. 121-253, 61 FR 2615, Jan. 26, 1996] § 121.628 Inoperable instruments and equipment. (a) No person may take off an airplane with inoperable instruments or equipment installed unless the following conditions are met: (1) An approved Minimum Equipment List exists for that airplane. (2) The responsible Flight Standards office has issued the certificate holder operations specifications authorizing operations in accordance with an approved Minimum Equipment List. The flight crew shall have direct access at all times prior to flight to all of the information contained in the approved Minimum Equipment List through printed or other means approved by the Administrator in the certificate holders operations specifications. An approved Minimum Equipment List, as authorized by the operations specifications, constitutes an approved change to the type design without requiring recertification. (3) The approved Minimum Equipment List must:

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(i) Be prepared in accordance with the limitations specified in paragraph (b) of this section. (ii) Provide for the operation of the airplane with certain instruments and equipment in an inoperable condition. (4) Records identifying the inoperable instruments and equipment and the information required by paragraph (a)(3)(ii) of this section must be available to the pilot. (5) The airplane is operated under all applicable conditions and limitations contained in the Minimum Equipment List and the operations specifications authorizing use of the Minimum Equipment List. (b) The following instruments and equipment may not be included in the Minimum Equipment List: (1) Instruments and equipment that are either specifically or otherwise required by the airworthiness requirements under which the airplane is type certificated and which are essential for safe operations under all operating conditions. (2) Instruments and equipment required by an airworthiness directive to be in operable condition unless the airworthiness directive provides otherwise. (3) Instruments and equipment required for specific operations by this part. (c) Notwithstanding paragraphs (b)(1) and (b)(3) of this section, an airplane with inoperable instruments or equipment may be operated under a special flight permit under §§ 21.197 and 21.199 of this chapter. [Docket 25780, 56 FR 12310, Mar. 22, 1991; Amdt. 121-222, 56 FR 14290, Apr. 8, 1991; Amdt. 121-253, 61 FR 2615, Jan. 26, 1996; Docket FAA-2018-0119, Amdt. 121-380, 83 FR 9172, Mar. 5, 2018] § 121.629 Operation in icing conditions. (a) No person may dispatch or release an aircraft, continue to operate an aircraft en route, or land an aircraft when in the opinion of the pilot in command or aircraft dispatcher (domestic and flag operations only), icing conditions are expected or met that might adversely affect the safety of the flight. (b) No person may take off an aircraft when frost, ice, or snow is adhering to the wings, control surfaces, propellers, engine inlets, or other critical surfaces of the aircraft or when the takeoff would not be in compliance with paragraph (c) of this section. Takeoffs with frost under the wing in the area of the fuel tanks may be authorized by the Administrator. (c) Except as provided in paragraph (d) of this section, no person may dispatch, release, or take off an aircraft any time conditions are such that frost, ice, or snow may reasonably be expected to adhere to the aircraft, unless the certificate holder has an approved ground deicing/anti-icing program in its operations specifications and unless the dispatch, release, and takeoff comply with that program. The approved ground deicing/anti-icing program must include at least the following items: (1) A detailed description of— (i) How the certificate holder determines that conditions are such that frost, ice, or snow may reasonably be expected to adhere to the aircraft and that ground deicing/anti-icing operational procedures must be in effect; (ii) Who is responsible for deciding that ground deicing/anti-icing operational procedures must be in effect; (iii) The procedures for implementing ground deicing/anti-icing operational procedures; (iv) The specific duties and responsibilities of each operational position or group responsible for getting the aircraft safely airborne while ground deicing/anti-icing operational procedures are in effect. (2) Initial and annual recurrent ground training and testing for flight crewmembers and qualification for all other affected personnel (e.g., aircraft dispatchers, ground crews, contract personnel) concerning the specific requirements of the approved program and each person's responsibilities and duties under the approved program, specifically covering the following areas: (i) The use of holdover times. (ii) Aircraft deicing/anti-icing procedures, including inspection and check procedures and responsibilities. (iii) Communications procedures. (iv) Aircraft surface contamination ( i.e. , adherence of frost, ice, or snow) and critical area identification, and how contamination adversely affects aircraft performance and flight characteristics.

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(v) Types and characteristics of deicing/anti-icing fluids. (vi) Cold weather preflight inspection procedures; (vii) Techniques for recognizing contamination on the aircraft. (3) The certificate holder's holdover timetables and the procedures for the use of these tables by the certificate holder's personnel. Holdover time is the estimated time deicing/anti-icing fluid will prevent the formation of frost or ice and the accumulation of snow on the protected surfaces of an aircraft. Holdover time begins when the final application of deicing/anti-icing fluid commences and expires when the deicing/anti-icing fluid applied to the aircraft loses its effectiveness. The holdover times must be supported by data acceptable to the Administrator. The certificate holder's program must include procedures for flight crewmembers to increase or decrease the determined holdover time in changing conditions. The program must provide that takeoff after exceeding any maximum holdover time in the certificate holder's holdover timetable is permitted only when at least one of the following conditions exists: (i) A pretakeoff contamination check, as defined in paragraph (c)(4) of this section, determines that the wings, control surfaces, and other critical surfaces, as defined in the certificate holder's program, are free of frost, ice, or snow. (ii) It is otherwise determined by an alternate procedure approved by the Administrator in accordance with the certificate holder's approved program that the wings, control surfaces, and other critical surfaces, as defined in the certificate holder's program, are free of frost, ice, or snow. (iii) The wings, control surfaces, and other critical surfaces are redeiced and a new holdover time is determined. (4) Aircraft deicing/anti-icing procedures and responsibilities, pretakeoff check procedures and responsibilities, and pretakeoff contamination check procedures and responsibilities. A pretakeoff check is a check of the aircraft's wings or representative aircraft surfaces for frost, ice, or snow within the aircraft's holdover time. A pretakeoff contamination check is a check to make sure the wings, control surfaces, and other critical surfaces, as defined in the certificate holder's program, are free of frost, ice, and snow. It must be conducted within five minutes prior to beginning take off. This check must be accomplished from outside the aircraft unless the program specifies otherwise. (d) A certificate holder may continue to operate under this section without a program as required in paragraph (c) of this section, if it includes in its operations specifications a requirement that, any time conditions are such that frost, ice, or snow may reasonably be expected to adhere to the aircraft, no aircraft will take off unless it has been checked to ensure that the wings, control surfaces, and other critical surfaces are free of frost, ice, and snow. The check must occur within five minutes prior to beginning takeoff. This check must be accomplished from outside the aircraft. [Docket 6258, 29 FR 19222, Dec. 31, 1964, as amended by Amdt. 121-231, 57 FR 44942, Sept. 29, 1992; Amdt. 121-253, 61 FR 2615, Jan. 26, 1996] § 121.631 Original dispatch or flight release, redispatch or amendment of dispatch or flight release. (a) A certificate holder may specify any regular, provisional, or refueling airport, authorized for the type of aircraft, as a destination for the purpose of original dispatch or release. (b) No person may allow a flight to continue to an airport to which it has been dispatched or released unless the weather conditions at an alternate airport that was specified in the dispatch or flight release are forecast to be at or above the alternate minimums specified in the operations specifications for that airport at the time the aircraft would arrive at the alternate airport. However, the dispatch or flight release may be amended en route to include any alternate airport that is within the fuel range of the aircraft as specified in §§ 121.639 through 121.647.

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(c) No person may allow a flight to continue beyond the ETOPS Entry Point unless— (1) Except as provided in paragraph (d) of this section, the weather conditions at each ETOPS Alternate Airport required by § 121.624 are forecast to be at or above the operating minima for that airport in the certificate holder's operations specifications when it might be used (from the earliest to the latest possible landing time); and (2) All ETOPS Alternate Airports within the authorized ETOPS maximum diversion time are reviewed and the flight crew advised of any changes in conditions that have occurred since dispatch. (d) If paragraph (c)(1) of this section cannot be met for a specific airport, the dispatch or flight release may be amended to add an ETOPS Alternate Airport within the maximum ETOPS diversion time that could be authorized for that flight with weather conditions at or above operating minima. (e) Before the ETOPS Entry Point, the pilot in command for a supplemental operator or a dispatcher for a flag operator must use company communications to update the flight plan if needed because of a re-evaluation of aircraft system capabilities. (f) No person may change an original destination or alternate airport that is specified in the original dispatch or flight release to another airport while the aircraft is en route unless the other airport is authorized for that type of aircraft and the appropriate requirements of §§ 121.593 through 121.661 and 121.173 are met at the time of redispatch or amendment of the flight release. (g) Each person who amends a dispatch or flight release en route shall record that amendment. [Docket 628, 29 FR 19222, Dec. 31, 1964, as amended by Amdt. 121-65, 35 FR 12709, Aug. 11, 1970; Amdt. 121-329, 72 FR 1881, Jan. 16, 2007] § 121.633 Considering time-limited systems in planning ETOPS alternates. (a) For ETOPS up to and including 180 minutes, no person may list an airport as an ETOPS Alternate Airport in a dispatch or flight release if the time needed to fly to that airport (at the approved one-engine inoperative cruise speed under standard conditions in still air) would exceed the approved time for the airplane's most limiting ETOPS Significant System (including the airplane's most limiting fire suppression system time for those cargo and baggage compartments required by regulation to have fire-suppression systems) minus 15 minutes. (b) For ETOPS beyond 180 minutes, no person may list an airport as an ETOPS Alternate Airport in a dispatch or flight release if the time needed to fly to that airport: (1) at the all engine operating cruise speed, corrected for wind and temperature, exceeds the airplane's most limiting fire suppression system time minus 15 minutes for those cargo and baggage compartments required by regulation to have fire suppression systems (except as provided in paragraph (c) of this section), or (2) at the one-engine-inoperative cruise speed, corrected for wind and temperature, exceeds the airplane's most limiting ETOPS Significant System time (other than the airplane's most limiting fire suppression system time minus 15 minutes for those cargo and baggage compartments required by regulation to have fire-suppression systems). (c) For turbine-engine powered airplanes with more than two engines, the certificate holder need not meet paragraph (b)(1) of this section until February 15, 2013. [Docket FAA-2002-6717, 72 FR 1882, Jan. 16, 2007] § 121.635 Dispatch to and from refueling or provisional airports: Domestic and flag operations. No person may dispatch an airplane to or from a refueling or provisional airport except in accordance with the requirements of this part applicable to dispatch from regular airports and unless that airport meets the requirements of this part applicable to regular airports. [Docket 16383, 43 FR 22649, May 25, 1978]

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§ 121.637 Takeoffs from unlisted and alternate airports: Domestic and flag operations. (a) No pilot may takeoff an airplane from an airport that is not listed in the operations specifications unless— (1) The airport and related facilities are adequate for the operation of the airplane; (2) He can comply with the applicable airplane operating limitations; (3) The airplane has been dispatched according to dispatching rules applicable to operation from an approved airport; and (4) The weather conditions at that airport are equal to or better than the following: (i) Airports in the United States. The weather minimums for takeoff prescribed in part 97 of this chapter; or where minimums are not prescribed for the airport, 800-2, 900-1 1/2 , or 1,000-1. (ii) Airports outside the United States. The weather minimums for takeoff prescribed or approved by the government of the country in which the airport is located; or where minimums are not prescribed or approved for the airport, 800-2, 900-1 1/2 , or 1,000-1. (b) No pilot may take off from an alternate airport unless the weather conditions are at least equal to the minimums prescribed in the certificate holder's operations specifications for alternate airports. [Docket 6258, 29 FR 19222, Dec. 31, 1964, as amended by Amdt. 121-33, 32 FR 13912, Oct. 6, 1967; Amdt. 121-253, 61 FR 2615, Jan. 26, 1996] § 121.639 Fuel supply: All domestic operations. No person may dispatch or take off an airplane unless it has enough fuel— (a) To fly to the airport to which it is dispatched; (b) Thereafter, to fly to and land at the most distant alternate airport (where required) for the airport to which dispatched; and (c) Thereafter, to fly for 45 minutes at normal cruising fuel consumption or, for certificate holders who are authorized to conduct day VFR operations in their operations specifications and who are operating nontransport category airplanes type certificated after December 31, 1964, to fly for 30 minutes at normal cruising fuel consumption for day VFR operations. [Docket 6258, 29 FR 19222, Dec. 31, 1964, as amended by Amdt. 121-251, 60 FR 65935, Dec. 20, 1995] § 121.641 Fuel supply: Nonturbine and turbo-propeller-powered airplanes: Flag operations. (a) No person may dispatch or take off a nonturbine or turbo-propeller-powered airplane unless, considering the wind and other weather conditions expected, it has enough fuel— (1) To fly to and land at the airport to which it is dispatched; (2) Thereafter, to fly to and land at the most distant alternate airport specified in the dispatch release; and (3) Thereafter, to fly for 30 minutes plus 15 percent of the total time required to fly at normal cruising fuel consumption to the airports specified in paragraphs (a) (1) and (2) of this section or to fly for 90 minutes at normal cruising fuel consumption, whichever is less. (b) No person may dispatch a nonturbine or turbo-propeller-powered airplane to an airport for which an alternate is not specified under § 121.621(a)(2), unless it has enough fuel, considering wind and forecast weather conditions, to fly to that airport and thereafter to fly for three hours at normal cruising fuel consumption. § 121.643 Fuel supply: Nonturbine and turbo-propeller-powered airplanes: Supplemental operations. (a) Except as provided in paragraph (b) of this section, no person may release for flight or takeoff a nonturbine or turbo-propeller-powered airplane unless, considering the wind and other weather conditions expected, it has enough fuel— (1) To fly to and land at the airport to which it is released; (2) Thereafter, to fly to and land at the most distant alternate airport specified in the flight release; and (3) Thereafter, to fly for 45 minutes at normal cruising fuel consumption or, for certificate holders who are authorized to conduct day VFR operations in their operations specifications and who are operating nontransport category airplanes type certificated after December 31, 1964, to fly for 30 minutes at normal cruising fuel consumption for day VFR operations.

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(b) If the airplane is released for any flight other than from one point in the contiguous United States to another point in the contiguous United States, it must carry enough fuel to meet the requirements of paragraphs (a) (1) and (2) of this section and thereafter fly for 30 minutes plus 15 percent of the total time required to fly at normal cruising fuel consumption to the airports specified in paragraphs (a) (1) and (2) of this section, or to fly for 90 minutes at normal cruising fuel consumption, whichever is less. (c) No person may release a nonturbine or turbo-propeller-powered airplane to an airport for which an alternate is not specified under § 121.623(b), unless it has enough fuel, considering wind and other weather conditions expected, to fly to that airport and thereafter to fly for three hours at normal cruising fuel consumption. [Docket 6258, 29 FR 19222, Dec. 31, 1964, as amended by Amdt. 121-10, 30 FR 10025, Aug. 12, 1965; Amdt. 121-251, 60 FR 65935, Dec. 20, 1995] § 121.645 Fuel supply: Turbine-engine powered airplanes, other than turbo propeller: Flag and supplemental operations. (a) Any flag operation within the 48 contiguous United States and the District of Columbia may use the fuel requirements of § 121.639. (b) For any certificate holder conducting flag or supplemental operations outside the 48 contiguous United States and the District of Columbia, unless authorized by the Administrator in the operations specifications, no person may release for flight or takeoff a turbine-engine powered airplane (other than a turbo-propeller powered airplane) unless, considering wind and other weather conditions expected, it has enough fuel— (1) To fly to and land at the airport to which it is released; (2) After that, to fly for a period of 10 percent of the total time required to fly from the airport of departure to, and land at, the airport to which it was released; (3) After that, to fly to and land at the most distant alternate airport specified in the flight release, if an alternate is required; and (4) After that, to fly for 30 minutes at holding speed at 1,500 feet above the alternate airport (or the destination airport if no alternate is required) under standard temperature conditions. (c) No person may release a turbine-engine powered airplane (other than a turbo-propeller airplane) to an airport for which an alternate is not specified under § 121.621(a)(2) or § 121.623(b) unless it has enough fuel, considering wind and other weather conditions expected, to fly to that airport and thereafter to fly for at least two hours at normal cruising fuel consumption. (d) The Administrator may amend the operations specifications of a certificate holder conducting flag or supplemental operations to require more fuel than any of the minimums stated in paragraph (a) or (b) of this section if he finds that additional fuel is necessary on a particular route in the interest of safety. (e) For a supplemental operation within the 48 contiguous States and the District of Columbia with a turbine engine powered airplane the fuel requirements of § 121.643 apply. [Docket 6258, 29 FR 19222, Dec. 31, 1964, as amended by Amdt. 121-10, 30 FR 10025, Aug. 12, 1965; Amdt. 121-144, 43 FR 22649, May 25, 1978; Amdt. 121-253, 61 FR 2615, Jan. 26, 1996] § 121.646 En-route fuel supply: flag and supplemental operations. (a) No person may dispatch or release for flight a turbine-engine powered airplane with more than two engines for a flight more than 90 minutes (with all engines operating at cruise power) from an Adequate Airport unless the following fuel supply requirements are met: (1) The airplane has enough fuel to meet the requirements of § 121.645(b); (2) The airplane has enough fuel to fly to the Adequate Airport— (i) Assuming a rapid decompression at the most critical point;

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(ii) Assuming a descent to a safe altitude in compliance with the oxygen supply requirements of § 121.333; and (iii) Considering expected wind and other weather conditions. (3) The airplane has enough fuel to hold for 15 minutes at 1500 feet above field elevation and conduct a normal approach and landing. (b) No person may dispatch or release for flight an ETOPS flight unless, considering wind and other weather conditions expected, it has the fuel otherwise required by this part and enough fuel to satisfy each of the following requirements: (1) Fuel to fly to an ETOPS Alternate Airport. (i) Fuel to account for rapid decompression and engine failure. The airplane must carry the greater of the following amounts of fuel: (A) Fuel sufficient to fly to an ETOPS Alternate Airport assuming a rapid decompression at the most critical point followed by descent to a safe altitude in compliance with the oxygen supply requirements of § 121.333 of this chapter; (B) Fuel sufficient to fly to an ETOPS Alternate Airport (at the one-engine-inoperative cruise speed) assuming a rapid decompression and a simultaneous engine failure at the most critical point followed by descent to a safe altitude in compliance with the oxygen requirements of § 121.333 of this chapter; or (C) Fuel sufficient to fly to an ETOPS Alternate Airport (at the one engine inoperative cruise speed) assuming an engine failure at the most critical point followed by descent to the one engine inoperative cruise altitude. (ii) Fuel to account for errors in wind forecasting. In calculating the amount of fuel required by paragraph (b)(1)(i) of this section, the certificate holder must increase the actual forecast wind speed by 5% (resulting in an increase in headwind or a decrease in tailwind) to account for any potential errors in wind forecasting. If a certificate holder is not using the actual forecast wind based on a wind model accepted by the FAA, the airplane must carry additional fuel equal to 5% of the fuel required for paragraph (b)(1)(i) of this section, as reserve fuel to allow for errors in wind data. (iii) Fuel to account for icing. In calculating the amount of fuel required by paragraph (b)(1)(i) of this section (after completing the wind calculation in paragraph (b)(1)(ii) of this section), the certificate holder must ensure that the airplane carries the greater of the following amounts of fuel in anticipation of possible icing during the diversion: (A) Fuel that would be burned as a result of airframe icing during 10 percent of the time icing is forecast (including the fuel used by engine and wing anti-ice during this period). (B) Fuel that would be used for engine anti-ice, and if appropriate wing anti-ice, for the entire time during which icing is forecast. (iv) Fuel to account for engine deterioration. In calculating the amount of fuel required by paragraph (b)(1)(i) of this section (after completing the wind calculation in paragraph (b)(1)(ii) of this section), the airplane also carries fuel equal to 5% of the fuel specified above, to account for deterioration in cruise fuel burn performance unless the certificate holder has a program to monitor airplane in-service deterioration to cruise fuel burn performance. (2) Fuel to account for holding, approach, and landing. In addition to the fuel required by paragraph (b)(1) of this section, the airplane must carry fuel sufficient to hold at 1500 feet above field elevation for 15 minutes upon reaching an ETOPS Alternate Airport and then conduct an instrument approach and land. (3) Fuel to account for APU use. If an APU is a required power source, the certificate holder must account for its fuel consumption during the appropriate phases of flight. [Docket FAA-2002-6717, 72 FR 1882, Jan. 16, 2007, as amended by Amdt. 121-348, 75 FR 12121, Mar. 15, 2010] § 121.647 Factors for computing fuel required. Each person computing fuel required for the purposes of this subpart shall consider the following: (a) Wind and other weather conditions forecast. (b) Anticipated traffic delays.

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(c) One instrument approach and possible missed approach at destination. (d) Any other conditions that may delay landing of the aircraft. For the purposes of this section, required fuel is in addition to unusable fuel. § 121.649 Takeoff and landing weather minimums: VFR: Domestic operations. (a) Except as provided in paragraph (b) of this section, regardless of any clearance from ATC, no pilot may takeoff or land an airplane under VFR when the reported ceiling or visibility is less than the following: (1) For day operations—1,000-foot ceiling and one-mile visibility. (2) For night operations—1,000-foot ceiling and two-mile visibility. (b) Where a local surface restriction to visibility exists (e.g., smoke, dust, blowing snow or sand) the visibility for day and night operations may be reduced to 1/2 mile, if all turns after takeoff and prior to landing, and all flight beyond one mile from the airport boundary can be accomplished above or outside the area of local surface visibility restriction. (c) The weather minimums in this section do not apply to the VFR operation of fixed-wing aircraft at any of the locations where the special weather minimums of § 91.157 of this chapter are not applicable (See part 91, appendix D, section 3 of this chapter). The basic VFR weather minimums of § 91.155 of this chapter apply at those locations. [Docket 6258, 29 FR 19222, Dec. 31, 1964, as amended by Amdt. 121-39, 33 FR 4097, Mar. 2, 1968; Amdt. 121-206, 54 FR 34331, Aug. 18, 1989; Amdt. 121-226, 56 FR 65663, Dec. 17, 1991] § 121.651 Takeoff and landing weather minimums: IFR: All certificate holders. (a) Notwithstanding any clearance from ATC, no pilot may begin a takeoff in an airplane under IFR when the weather conditions reported by the U.S. National Weather Service, a source approved by that Service, or a source approved by the Administrator, are less than those specified in— (1) The certificate holder's operations specifications; or (2) Parts 91 and 97 of this chapter, if the certificate holder's operations specifications do not specify takeoff minimums for the airport. (b) Except as provided in paragraphs (d) and (e) of this section, no pilot may continue an approach past the final approach fix, or where a final approach fix is not used, begin the final approach segment of an instrument approach procedure— (1) At any airport, unless the U.S. National Weather Service, a source approved by that Service, or a source approved by the Administrator, issues a weather report for that airport; and (2) At airports within the United States and its territories or at U.S. military airports, unless the latest weather report for that airport issued by the U.S. National Weather Service, a source approved by that Service, or a source approved by the Administrator, reports the visibility to be equal to or more than the visibility minimums prescribed for that procedure. For the purpose of this section, the term “U.S. military airports” means airports in foreign countries where flight operations are under the control of U.S. military authority. (c) A pilot who has begun the final approach segment of an instrument approach procedure in accordance with paragraph (b) of this section, and after that receives a later weather report indicating below-minimum conditions, may continue the approach to DA/DH or MDA. Upon reaching DA/DH or at MDA, and at any time before the missed approach point, the pilot may continue the approach below DA/DH or MDA if either the requirements of § 91.176 of this chapter, or the following requirements are met: (1) The aircraft is continuously in a position from which a descent to a landing on the intended runway can be made at a normal rate of descent using normal maneuvers, and where that descent rate will allow touchdown to occur within the touchdown zone of the runway of intended landing; (2) The flight visibility is not less than the visibility prescribed in the standard instrument approach procedure being used;

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(3) Except for Category II or Category III approaches where any necessary visual reference requirements are specified by authorization of the Administrator, at least one of the following visual references for the intended runway is distinctly visible and identifiable to the pilot: (i) The approach light system, except that the pilot may not descend below 100 feet above the touchdown zone elevation using the approach lights as a reference unless the red terminating bars or the red side row bars are also distinctly visible and identifiable. (ii) The threshold. (iii) The threshold markings. (iv) The threshold lights. (v) The runway end identifier lights. (vi) The visual approach slope indicator. (vii) The touchdown zone or touchdown zone markings. (viii) The touchdown zone lights. (ix) The runway or runway markings. (x) The runway lights; and (4) When the aircraft is on a straight-in nonprecision approach procedure which incorporates a visual descent point, the aircraft has reached the visual descent point, except where the aircraft is not equipped for or capable of establishing that point, or a descent to the runway cannot be made using normal procedures or rates of descent if descent is delayed until reaching that point. (d) A pilot may begin the final approach segment of an instrument approach procedure other than a Category II or Category III procedure at an airport when the visibility is less than the visibility minimums prescribed for that procedure if the airport is served by an operative ILS and an operative PAR, and both are used by the pilot. However, no pilot may continue an approach below the authorized DA/DH unless the requirements of § 91.176 of this chapter, or the following requirements are met: (1) The aircraft is continuously in a position from which a descent to a landing on the intended runway can be made at a normal rate of descent using normal maneuvers and where such a descent rate will allow touchdown to occur within the touchdown zone of the runway of intended landing; (2) The flight visibility is not less than the visibility prescribed in the standard instrument approach procedure being used; and (3) Except for Category II or Category III approaches where any necessary visual reference requirements are specified by the authorization of the Administrator, at least one of the following visual references for the intended runway is distinctly visible and identifiable to the pilot: (i) The approach light system, except that the pilot may not descend below 100 feet above the touchdown zone elevation using the approach lights as a reference unless the red terminating bars or the red side row bars are also distinctly visible and identifiable. (ii) The threshold. (iii) The threshold markings. (iv) The threshold lights. (v) The runway end identifier lights. (vi) The visual approach slope indicator. (vii) The touchdown zone or touchdown zone markings. (viii) The touchdown zone lights. (ix) The runway or runway markings. (x) The runway lights. (e) A pilot may begin the final approach segment of an instrument approach procedure, or continue that approach procedure, at an airport when the visibility is reported to be less than the visibility minimums prescribed for that procedure if the pilot uses an operable EFVS in accordance with § 91.176 of this chapter and the certificate holder's operations specifications for EFVS operations. (f) For the purpose of this section, the final approach segment begins at the final approach fix or facility prescribed in the instrument approach procedure. When a final approach fix is not prescribed for a procedure that includes a procedure turn, the final approach segment begins at the point where the procedure turn is completed and the aircraft is established inbound toward the airport on the final approach course within the distance prescribed in the procedure. (g) Unless otherwise authorized in the certificate holder's operations specifications, each pilot making an IFR takeoff, approach, or landing at a foreign airport shall comply with the applicable instrument approach procedures and weather minimums prescribed by the authority having jurisdiction over the airport.

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[Docket 20060, 46 FR 2291, Jan. 8, 1981, as amended by Amdt. 121-303, 69 FR 1641, Jan. 9, 2004; Amdt. 121-333, 72 FR 31682, June 7, 2007; Docket FAA-2013-0485, Amdt. 121-376, 81 FR 90175, Dec. 13, 2016] § 121.652 Landing weather minimums: IFR: All certificate holders. (a) If the pilot in command of an airplane has not served 100 hours as pilot in command in operations under this part in the type of airplane he is operating, the MDA or DA/DH and visibility landing minimums in the certificate holder's operations specification for regular, provisional, or refueling airports are increased by 100 feet and one-half mile (or the RVR equivalent). The MDA or DA/DH and visibility minimums need not be increased above those applicable to the airport when used as an alternate airport, but in no event may the landing minimums be less than 300 and 1. However, a Pilot in command employed by a certificate holder conducting operations in large aircraft under part 135 of this chapter, may credit flight time acquired in operations conducted for that operator under part 91 in the same type airplane for up to 50 percent of the 100 hours of pilot in command experience required by this paragraph. (b) The 100 hours of pilot in command experience required by paragraph (a) of this section may be reduced (not to exceed 50 percent) by substituting one landing in operations under this part in the type of airplane for 1 required hour of pilot in command experience, if the pilot has at least 100 hours as pilot in command of another type airplane in operations under this part. (c) Category II minimums and the sliding scale when authorized in the certificate holder's operations specifications do not apply until the pilot in command subject to paragraph (a) of this section meets the requirements of that paragraph in the type of airplane he is operating. [Docket 7594, 33 FR 10843, July 31, 1968, as amended by Amdt. 121-143, 43 FR 22642, May 25, 1978; Amdt. 121-253, 61 FR 2615, Jan. 26, 1996; Amdt. 121-333, 72 FR 31682, June 7, 2007] § 121.653 [Reserved]
§ 121.655 Applicability of reported weather minimums. In conducting operations under §§ 121.649 through 121.653, the ceiling and visibility values in the main body of the latest weather report control for VFR and IFR takeoffs and landings and for instrument approach procedures on all runways of an airport. However, if the latest weather report, including an oral report from the control tower, contains a visibility value specified as runway visibility or runway visual range for a particular runway of an airport, that specified value controls for VFR and IFR landings and takeoffs and straight-in instrument approaches for that runway. § 121.657 Flight altitude rules. (a) General. Notwithstanding § 91.119 or any rule applicable outside the United States, no person may operate an aircraft below the minimums set forth in paragraphs (b) and (c) of this section, except when necessary for takeoff or landing, or except when, after considering the character of the terrain, the quality and quantity of meteorological services, the navigational facilities available, and other flight conditions, the Administrator prescribes other minimums for any route or part of a route where he finds that the safe conduct of the flight requires other altitudes. Outside of the United States the minimums prescribed in this section are controlling unless higher minimums are prescribed in the certificate holder's operations specifications or by the foreign country over which the aircraft is operating. (b) Day VFR operations. No certificate holder conducting domestic operations may operate a passenger-carrying aircraft and no certificate holder conducting flag or supplemental operations may operate any aircraft under VFR during the day at an altitude less than 1,000 feet above the surface or less than 1,000 feet from any mountain, hill, or other obstruction to flight. (c) Night VFR, IFR, and over-the-top operations. No person may operate an aircraft under IFR including over-the- top or at night under VFR at an altitude less than 1,000 feet above the highest obstacle within a horizontal distance of five miles from the center of the intended course, or, in designated mountainous areas, less than 2,000 feet above the highest obstacle within a horizontal distance of five miles from the center of the intended course.

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(d) Day over-the-top operations below minimum en route altitudes. A person may conduct day over-the-top operations in an airplane at flight altitudes lower than the minimum en route IFR altitudes if— (1) The operation is conducted at least 1,000 feet above the top of lower broken or overcast cloud cover; (2) The top of the lower cloud cover is generally uniform and level; (3) Flight visibility is at least five miles; and (4) The base of any higher broken or overcast cloud cover is generally uniform and level and is at least 1,000 feet above the minimum en route IFR altitude for that route segment. [Docket 6258, 29 FR 19222, Dec. 31, 1964, as amended by Amdt. 121-144, 43 FR 22649, May 25, 1978; Amdt. 121-206, 54 FR 34331, Aug. 18, 1989; Amdt. 121-253, 61 FR 2615, Jan. 26, 1996] § 121.659 Initial approach altitude: Domestic and supplemental operations. (a) Except as provided in paragraph (b) of this section, when making an initial approach to a radio navigation facility under IFR, no person may descend an aircraft below the pertinent minimum altitude for initial approach (as specified in the instrument approach procedure for that facility) until his arrival over that facility has been definitely established. (b) When making an initial approach on a flight being conducted under § 121.657(d), no pilot may commence an instrument approach until his arrival over the radio facility has definitely been established. In making an instrument approach under these circumstances no person may descend an aircraft lower than 1,000 feet above the top of the lower cloud or the minimum altitude determined by the Administrator for that part of the IFR approach, whichever is lower. § 121.661 Initial approach altitude: Flag operations. When making an initial approach to a radio navigation facility under IFR, no person may descend below the pertinent minimum altitude for initial approach (as specified in the instrument approach procedure for that facility) until his arrival over that facility has been definitely established. § 121.663 Responsibility for dispatch release: Domestic and flag operations. Each certificate holder conducting domestic or flag operations shall prepare a dispatch release for each flight between specified points, based on information furnished by an authorized aircraft dispatcher. The pilot in command and an authorized aircraft dispatcher shall sign the release only if they both believe that the flight can be made with safety. The aircraft dispatcher may delegate authority to sign a release for a particular flight, but he may not delegate his authority to dispatch. [Docket 28154, 61 FR 2615, Jan. 26, 1996] § 121.665 Load manifest. Each certificate holder is responsible for the preparation and accuracy of a load manifest form before each takeoff. The form must be prepared and signed for each flight by employees of the certificate holder who have the duty of supervising the loading of aircraft and preparing the load manifest forms or by other qualified persons authorized by the certificate holder. § 121.667 Flight plan: VFR and IFR: Supplemental operations. (a) No person may take off an aircraft unless the pilot in command has filed a flight plan, containing the appropriate information required by part 91, with the nearest FAA communication station or appropriate military station or, when operating outside the United States, with other appropriate authority. However, if communications facilities are not readily available, the pilot in command shall file the flight plan as soon as practicable after the aircraft is airborne. A flight plan must continue in effect for all parts of the flight.

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(b) When flights are operated into military airports, the arrival or completion notice required by §§ 91.153 and 91.169 may be filed with the appropriate airport control tower or aeronautical communication facility used for that airport. [Docket 6258, 29 FR 19222, Dec. 31, 1964, as amended by Amdt. 121-206, 54 FR 34331, Aug. 18, 1989] Subpart V—Records and Reports Source: Docket 6258, 29 FR 19226, Dec. 31, 1964, unless otherwise noted. § 121.681 Applicability. This subpart prescribes requirements for the preparation and maintenance of records and reports for all certificate holders. § 121.683 Crewmember and dispatcher record. (a) Each certificate holder shall— (1) Maintain current records of each crewmember and each aircraft dispatcher (domestic and flag operations only) that show whether the crewmember or aircraft dispatcher complies with the applicable sections of this chapter, including, but not limited to, proficiency and route checks, airplane and route qualifications, training, any required physical examinations, flight, duty, and rest time records; and (2) Record each action taken concerning the release from employment or physical or professional disqualification of any flight crewmember or aircraft dispatcher (domestic and flag operations only) and keep the record for at least six months thereafter. (b) Each certificate holder conducting supplemental operations shall maintain the records required by paragraph (a) of this section at its principal base of operations, or at another location used by it and approved by the Administrator. (c) Computer record systems approved by the Administrator may be used in complying with the requirements of paragraph (a) of this section. [Docket 6258, 29 FR 19226, Dec. 31, 1964, as amended by Amdt. 121-144, 43 FR 22649, May 25, 1978; Amdt. 121-241, 59 FR 42993, Aug. 19, 1994; Amdt. 121-253, 61 FR 2615, Jan. 26, 1996] § 121.685 Aircraft record: Domestic and flag operations. Each certificate holder conducting domestic or flag operations shall maintain a current list of each aircraft that it operates in scheduled air transportation and shall send a copy of the record and each change to the responsible Flight Standards office. Airplanes of another certificate holder operated under an interchange agreement may be incorporated by reference. [Docket 28154, 61 FR 2615, Jan. 26, 1996, as amended by Docket FAA-2018-0119, Amdt. 121-380, 83 FR 9172, Mar. 5, 2018] § 121.687 Dispatch release: Flag and domestic operations. (a) The dispatch release may be in any form but must contain at least the following information concerning each flight: (1) Identification number of the aircraft. (2) Trip number. (3) Departure airport, intermediate stops, destination airports, and alternate airports. (4) A statement of the type of operation (e.g., IFR, VFR). (5) Minimum fuel supply. (6) For each flight dispatched as an ETOPS flight, the ETOPS diversion time for which the flight is dispatched. (b) The dispatch release must contain, or have attached to it, weather reports, available weather forecasts, or a combination thereof, for the destination airport, intermediate stops, and alternate airports, that are the latest available at the time the release is signed by the pilot in command and dispatcher. It may include any additional available weather reports or forecasts that the pilot in command or the aircraft dispatcher considers necessary or desirable. [Docket 6258, 29 FR 19226, Dec. 31, 1964, as amended by Amdt. 121-329, 72 FR 1883, Jan. 16, 2007]

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§ 121.689 Flight release form: Supplemental operations. (a) Except as provided in paragraph (c) of this section, the flight release may be in any form but must contain at least the following information concerning each flight: (1) Company or organization name. (2) Make, model, and registration number of the aircraft being used. (3) Flight or trip number, and date of flight. (4) Name of each flight crewmember, flight attendant, and pilot designated as pilot in command. (5) Departure airport, destination airports, alternate airports, and route. (6) Minimum fuel supply (in gallons or pounds). (7) A statement of the type of operation (e.g., IFR, VFR). (8) For each flight released as an ETOPS flight, the ETOPS diversion time for which the flight is released. (b) The aircraft flight release must contain, or have attached to it, weather reports, available weather forecasts, or a combination thereof, for the destination airport, and alternate airports, that are the latest available at the time the release is signed. It may include any additional available weather reports or forecasts that the pilot in command considers necessary or desirable. (c) Each certificate holder conducting domestic or flag operations under the rules of this part applicable to supplemental operations shall comply with the dispatch or flight release forms required for scheduled operations under this subpart. [Docket 6258, 29 FR 19226, Dec. 31, 1964, as amended by Amdt. 121-253, 61 FR 2615, Jan. 26, 1996; Amdt. 121-329, 72 FR 1883, Jan. 16, 2007] § 121.691 [Reserved]
§ 121.693 Load manifest: All certificate holders. The load manifest must contain the following information concerning the loading of the airplane at takeoff time: (a) The weight of the aircraft, fuel and oil, cargo and baggage, passengers and crewmembers. (b) The maximum allowable weight for that flight that must not exceed the least of the following weights: (1) Maximum allowable takeoff weight for the runway intended to be used (including corrections for altitude and gradient, and wind and temperature conditions existing at the takeoff time). (2) Maximum takeoff weight considering anticipated fuel and oil consumption that allows compliance with applicable en route performance limitations. (3) Maximum takeoff weight considering anticipated fuel and oil consumption that allows compliance with the maximum authorized design landing weight limitations on arrival at the destination airport. (4) Maximum takeoff weight considering anticipated fuel and oil consumption that allows compliance with landing distance limitations on arrival at the destination and alternate airports. (c) The total weight computed under approved procedures. (d) Evidence that the aircraft is loaded according to an approved schedule that insures that the center of gravity is within approved limits. (e) Names of passengers, unless such information is maintained by other means by the certificate holder. [Docket 6258, 29 FR 19226, Dec. 31, 1964, as amended by Amdt. 121-159, 45 FR 41595, June 19, 1980; Amdt. 121-253, 61 FR 2615, Jan. 26, 1996] § 121.695 Disposition of load manifest, dispatch release, and flight plans: Domestic and flag operations. (a) The pilot in command of an airplane shall carry in the airplane to its destination— (1) A copy of the completed load manifest (or information from it, except information concerning cargo and passenger distribution); (2) A copy of the dispatch release; and (3) A copy of the flight plan. (b) The certificate holder shall keep copies of the records required in this section for at least three months. [Docket 6258, 29 FR 19226, Dec. 31, 1964, as amended by Amdt. 121-178, 47 FR 13316, Mar. 29, 1982; Amdt. 121-253, 61 FR 2616, Jan. 26, 1996]

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§ 121.697 Disposition of load manifest, flight release, and flight plans: Supplemental operations. (a) The pilot in command of an airplane shall carry in the airplane to its destination the original or a signed copy of the— (1) Load manifest; (2) Flight release; (3) Airworthiness release; (4) Pilot route certification; and (5) Flight plan. (b) If a flight originates at the certificate holder's principal base of operations, it shall retain at that base a signed copy of each document listed in paragraph (a) of this section. (c) Except as provided in paragraph (d) of this section, if a flight originates at a place other than the certificate holder's principal base of operations, the pilot in command (or another person not aboard the airplane who is authorized by the certificate holder) shall, before or immediately after departure of the flight, mail signed copies of the documents listed in paragraph (a) of this section, to the principal base of operations. (d) If a flight originates at a place other than the certificate holder's principal base of operations, and there is at that place a person to manage the flight departure for the certificate holder who does not himself or herself depart on the airplane, signed copies of the documents listed in paragraph (a) of this section may be retained at that place for not more than 30 days before being sent to the certificate holder's principal base of operations. However, the documents for a particular flight need not be further retained at that place or be sent to the principal base of operations, if the originals or other copies of them have been previously returned to the principal base of operations. (e) The certificate holder conducting supplemental operations shall: (1) Identify in its operations manual the person having custody of the copies of documents retained in accordance with paragraph (d) of this section; and (2) Retain at its principal base of operations either an original or a copy of the records required by this section for at least three months. [Docket 6258, 29 FR 19226, Dec. 31, 1964, as amended by Amdt. 121-123, 40 FR 44541, Sept. 29, 1975; Amdt. 121-143, 43 FR 22642, May 25, 1978; Amdt. 121-178, 47 FR 13316, Mar. 29, 1982; Amdt. 121-253, 61 FR 2616, Jan. 26, 1996] §§ 121.698-121.699 [Reserved]
§ 121.701 Maintenance log: Aircraft. (a) Each person who takes action in the case of a reported or observed failure or malfunction of an airframe, engine, propeller, or appliance that is critical to the safety of flight shall make, or have made, a record of that action in the airplane's maintenance log. (b) Each certificate holder shall have an approved procedure for keeping adequate copies of the record required in paragraph (a) of this section in the airplane in a place readily accessible to each flight crewmember and shall put that procedure in the certificate holder's manual. § 121.703 Service difficulty reports. (a) Each certificate holder shall report the occurrence or detection of each failure, malfunction, or defect concerning— (1) Fires during flight and whether the related fire-warning system functioned properly; (2) Fires during flight not protected by a related fire-warning system; (3) False fire warning during flight; (4) An engine exhaust system that causes damage during flight to the engine, adjacent structure, equipment, or components; (5) An aircraft component that causes accumulation or circulation of smoke, vapor, or toxic or noxious fumes in the crew compartment or passenger cabin during flight; (6) Engine shutdown during flight because of flameout; (7) Engine shutdown during flight when external damage to the engine or airplane structure occurs; (8) Engine shutdown during flight due to foreign object ingestion or icing; (9) Engine shutdown during flight of more than one engine;

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(10) A propeller feathering system or ability of the system to control overspeed during flight; (11) A fuel or fuel-dumping system that affects fuel flow or causes hazardous leakage during flight; (12) An unwanted landing gear extension or retraction, or an unwanted opening or closing of landing gear doors during flight; (13) Brake system components that result in loss of brake actuating force when the airplane is in motion on the ground; (14) Aircraft structure that requires major repair; (15) Cracks, permanent deformation, or corrosion of aircraft structures, if more than the maximum acceptable to the manufacturer or the FAA; (16) Aircraft components or systems that result in taking emergency actions during flight (except action to shut down an engine); and (17) Emergency evacuation systems or components including all exit doors, passenger emergency evacuation lighting systems, or evacuation equipment that are found defective, or that fail to perform the intended functions during an actual emergency or during training, testing, maintenance, demonstrations, or inadvertent deployments. (b) For the purpose of this section during flight means the period from the moment the aircraft leaves the surface of the earth on takeoff until it touches down on landing. (c) In addition to the reports required by paragraph (a) of this section, each certificate holder shall report any other failure, malfunction, or defect in an aircraft that occurs or is detected at any time if, in its opinion, that failure, malfunction, or defect has endangered or may endanger the safe operation of an aircraft used by it. (d) Each certificate holder shall submit each report required by this section, covering each 24-hour period beginning at 0900 local time of each day and ending at 0900 local time on the next day, to the FAA offices in Oklahoma City, Oklahoma. Each report of occurrences during a 24-hour period shall be submitted to the collection point within the next 96 hours. However, a report due on Saturday or Sunday may be submitted on the following Monday, and a report due on a holiday may be submitted on the next work day. (e) The certificate holder shall submit the reports required by this section on a form or in another format acceptable to the Administrator. The reports shall include the following information: (1) Type and identification number of the aircraft. (2) The name of the operator. (3) The date, flight number, and stage during which the incident occurred (e.g., preflight, takeoff, climb, cruise, descent landing, and inspection). (4) The emergency procedure effected (e.g., unscheduled landing and emergency descent). (5) The nature of the failure, malfunction, or defect. (6) Identification of the part and system involved, including available information pertaining to type designation of the major component and time since overhaul. (7) Apparent cause of the failure, malfunction, or defect (e.g., wear, crack, design deficiency, or personnel error). (8) Whether the part was repaired, replaced, sent to the manufacturer, or other action taken. (9) Whether the aircraft was grounded. (10) Other pertinent information necessary for more complete identification, determination of seriousness, or corrective action. (f) A certificate holder that is also the holder of a Type Certificate (including a Supplemental Type Certificate), a Parts Manufacturer Approval, or a Technical Standard Order Authorization, or that is the licensee of a type certificate holder, need not report a failure, malfunction, or defect under this section if the failure, malfunction, or defect has been reported by it under § 21.3 of this chapter or under the accident reporting provisions of 49 CFR part 830. (g) No person may withhold a report required by this section even though all information required in this section is not available. (h) When certificate holder gets additional information, including information from the manufacturer or other agency, concerning a report required by this section, it shall expeditiously submit it as a supplement to the first report and reference the date and place of submission of the first report.

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[Docket 6258, 29 FR 19226, Dec. 31, 1964, as amended by Docket 8084, 32 FR 5770, Apr. 11, 1967; Amdt. 121-72, 35 FR 18188, Nov. 28, 1970; Amdt. 121-143, 43 FR 22642, May 25, 1978; Amdt. 121-178, 47 FR 13316, Mar. 29, 1982; Amdt. 121-187, 50 FR 32375, Aug. 9, 1985; Amdt. 121-195, 53 FR 8728, Mar. 16, 1988; Amdt. 121-251, 60 FR 65936, Dec. 20, 1995; Amdt. 121-319, 70 FR 76979, Dec. 29, 2005; Amdt. 121-387, 87 FR 75846, Dec. 9, 2022] § 121.705 Mechanical interruption summary report. Each certificate holder shall submit to the Administrator, before the end of the 10th day of the following month, a summary report for the previous month of: (a) Each interruption to a flight, unscheduled change of aircraft en route, or unscheduled stop or diversion from a route, caused by known or suspected mechanical difficulties or malfunctions that are not required to be reported under § 121.703. (b) The number of engines removed prematurely because of malfunction, failure or defect, listed by make and model and the aircraft type in which it was installed. (c) The number of propeller featherings in flight, listed by type of propeller and engine and aircraft on which it was installed. Propeller featherings for training, demonstration, or flight check purposes need not be reported. [Docket 6258, 29 FR 19226, Dec. 31, 1964, as amended by Amdt. 121-10, 30 FR 10025, Aug. 12, 1965; Amdt. 121-319, 70 FR 76979, Dec. 29, 2005] § 121.707 Alteration and repair reports. (a) Each certificate holder shall, promptly upon its completion, prepare a report of each major alteration or major repair of an airframe, aircraft engine, propeller, or appliance of an aircraft operated by it. (b) The certificate holder shall submit a copy of each report of a major alteration to, and shall keep a copy of each report of a major repair available for inspection by, the representative of the Administrator who is assigned to it. § 121.709 Airworthiness release or aircraft log entry. (a) No certificate holder may operate an aircraft after maintenance, preventive maintenance or alterations are performed on the aircraft unless the certificate holder, or the person with whom the certificate holder arranges for the performance of the maintenance, preventive maintenance, or alterations, prepares or causes to be prepared— (1) An airworthiness release; or (2) An appropriate entry in the aircraft log. (b) The airworthiness release or log entry required by paragraph (a) of this section must— (1) Be prepared in accordance with the procedures set forth in the certificate holder's manual; (2) Include a certification that— (i) The work was performed in accordance with the requirements of the certificate holder's manual; (ii) All items required to be inspected were inspected by an authorized person who determined that the work was satisfactorily completed; (iii) No known condition exists that would make the airplane unairworthy; and (iv) So far as the work performed is concerned, the aircraft is in condition for safe operation; and (3) Be signed by an authorized certificated mechanic or repairman except that a certificated repairman may sign the release or entry only for the work for which he is employed and certificated. (c) Notwithstanding paragraph (b)(3) of this section, after maintenance, preventive maintenance, or alterations performed by a repair station that is located outside the United States, the airworthiness release or log entry required by paragraph (a) of this section may be signed by a person authorized by that repair station. (d) When an airworthiness release form is prepared the certificate holder must give a copy to the pilot in command and must keep a record thereof for at least 2 months.

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(e) Instead of restating each of the conditions of the certification required by paragraph (b) of this section, the air carrier may state in its manual that the signature of an authorized certificated mechanic or repairman constitutes that certification. [Docket 6258, 29 FR 19226, Dec. 31, 1964, as amended by Amdt. 121-6, 30 FR 6432, May 8, 1965; Amdt. 121-21, 31 FR 10613, Aug. 9, 1966; Amdt. 121-286, 66 FR 41116, Aug. 6, 2001] § 121.711 Communication records: Domestic and flag operations. (a) Each certificate holder conducting domestic or flag operations must record each en route communication between the certificate holder and its pilots using a communication system as required by § 121.99 of this part. (b) For purposes of this section the term en route means from the time the aircraft pushes back from the departing gate until the time the aircraft reaches the arrival gate at its destination. (c) The record required in paragraph (a) of this section must contain at least the following information: (1) The date and time of the contact; (2) The flight number; (3) Aircraft registration number; (4) Approximate position of the aircraft during the contact; (5) Call sign; and (6) Narrative of the contact. (d) The record required in paragraph (a) of this section must be kept for at least 30 days. [Docket FAA-2008-0677, 78 FR 67841, Nov. 12, 2013] § 121.713 Retention of contracts and amendments: Commercial operators who conduct intrastate operations for compensation or hire. (a) Each commercial operator who conducts intrastate operations for compensation or hire shall keep a copy of each written contract under which it provides services as a commercial operator for a period of at least 1 year after the date of execution of the contract. In the case of an oral contract, it shall keep a memorandum stating its elements, and of any amendments to it, for a period of at least one year after the execution of that contract or change. (b) Each commercial operator who conducts intrastate operations for compensation or hire shall submit a financial report for the first 6 months of each fiscal year and another financial report for each complete fiscal year. If that person's operating certificate is suspended for more than 29 days, that person shall submit a financial report as of the last day of the month in which the suspension is terminated. The report required to be submitted by this section shall be submitted within 60 days of the last day of the period covered by the report and must include— (1) A balance sheet that shows assets, liabilities, and net worth on the last day of the reporting period; (2) The information required by § 119.36 (e)(2), (e)(7), and (e)(8) of this chapter; (3) An itemization of claims in litigation against the applicant, if any, as of the last day of the period covered by the report; (4) A profit and loss statement with the separation of items relating to the applicant's commercial operator activities from his other business activities, if any; and (5) A list of each contract that gave rise to operating income on the profit and loss statement, including the names and addresses of the contracting parties and the nature, scope, date, and duration of each contract. [Docket 28154, 60 FR 65936, Dec. 20, 1995, as amended by Amdt. 121-262, 62 FR 13257, Mar. 19, 1997] Subpart W—Crewmember Certificate: International § 121.721 Applicability. This section describes the certificates that were issued to United States citizens who were employed by air carriers at the time of issuance as flight crewmembers on United States registered aircraft engaged in international air commerce. The purpose of the certificate is to facilitate the entry and clearance of those crewmembers into ICAO contracting states. They were issued under Annex 9, as amended, to the Convention on International Civil Aviation.

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[Docket 28154, 61 FR 30435, June 14, 1996] § 121.723 Surrender of international crewmember certificate. The holder of a certificate issued under this section, or the air carrier by whom the holder is employed, shall surrender the certificate for cancellation at the responsible Flight Standards office at the termination of the holder's employment with that air carrier. [Docket 28154, 61 FR 30435, June 14, 1996, as amended by Docket FAA-2018-0119, Amdt. 121-380, 83 FR 9173, Mar. 5, 2018] Subpart X—Emergency Medical Equipment and Training Source: Docket FAA-2000-7119, 66 FR 19044, Apr. 12, 2001, unless otherwise noted. § 121.801 Applicability. This subpart prescribes the emergency medical equipment and training requirements applicable to all certificate holders operating passenger-carrying airplanes under this part. Nothing in this subpart is intended to require certificate holders or its agents to provide emergency medical care or to establish a standard of care for the provision of emergency medical care. § 121.803 Emergency medical equipment. (a) No person may operate a passenger-carrying airplane under this part unless it is equipped with the emergency medical equipment listed in this section. (b) Each equipment item listed in this section— (1) Must be inspected regularly in accordance with inspection periods established in the operations specifications to ensure its condition for continued serviceability and immediate readiness to perform its intended emergency purposes; (2) Must be readily accessible to the crew and, with regard to equipment located in the passenger compartment, to passengers; (3) Must be clearly identified and clearly marked to indicate its method of operation; and (4) When carried in a compartment or container, must be carried in a compartment or container marked as to contents and the compartment or container, or the item itself, must be marked as to date of last inspection. (c) For treatment of injuries, medical events, or minor accidents that might occur during flight time each airplane must have the following equipment that meets the specifications and requirements of appendix A of this part: (1) Approved first-aid kits. (2) In airplanes for which a flight attendant is required, an approved emergency medical kit. (3) In airplanes for which a flight attendant is required, an approved emergency medical kit as modified effective April 12, 2004. (4) In airplanes for which a flight attendant is required and with a maximum payload capacity of more than 7,500 pounds, an approved automated external defibrillator as of April 12, 2004. § 121.805 Crewmember training for in-flight medical events. (a) Each training program must provide the instruction set forth in this section with respect to each airplane type, model, and configuration, each required crewmember, and each kind of operation conducted, insofar as appropriate for each crewmember and the certificate holder. (b) Training must provide the following: (1) Instruction in emergency medical event procedures, including coordination among crewmembers. (2) Instruction in the location, function, and intended operation of emergency medical equipment. (3) Instruction to familiarize crewmembers with the content of the emergency medical kit. (4) Instruction to familiarize crewmembers with the content of the emergency medical kit as modified on April 12, 2004. (5) For each flight attendant— (i) Instruction, to include performance drills, in the proper use of automated external defibrillators.

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(ii) Instruction, to include performance drills, in cardiopulmonary resuscitation. (iii) Recurrent training, to include performance drills, in the proper use of an automated external defibrillators and in cardiopulmonary resuscitation at least once every 24 months. (c) The crewmember instruction, performance drills, and recurrent training required under this section are not required to be equivalent to the expert level of proficiency attained by professional emergency medical personnel. Subpart Y—Advanced Qualification Program Source: Docket FAA-2005-20750, 70 FR 54815, Sept. 16, 2005, unless otherwise noted. § 121.901 Purpose and eligibility. (a) Contrary provisions of parts 61, 63, 65, 121, 135, and 142 of this chapter notwithstanding, this subpart provides for approval of an alternative method (known as “Advanced Qualification Program” or “AQP”) for qualifying, training, certifying, and otherwise ensuring competency of crewmembers, aircraft dispatchers, other operations personnel, instructors, and evaluators who are required to be trained under parts 121 and 135 of this chapter. (b) A certificate holder is eligible under this subpart if the certificate holder is required or elects to have an approved training program under §§ 121.401, 135.3(c), or 135.341 of this chapter. (c) A certificate holder obtains approval of each proposed curriculum under this AQP as specified in § 121.909. § 121.903 General requirements for Advanced Qualification Programs. (a) A curriculum approved under an AQP may include elements of existing training programs under part 121 and part 135 of this chapter. Each curriculum must specify the make, model, series or variant of aircraft and each crewmember position or other positions to be covered by that curriculum. Positions to be covered by the AQP must include all flight crewmember positions, flight instructors, and evaluators and may include other positions, such as flight attendants, aircraft dispatchers, and other operations personnel. (b) Each certificate holder that obtains approval of an AQP under this subpart must comply with all the requirements of the AQP and this subpart instead of the corresponding provisions of parts 61, 63, 65, 121, or 135 of this chapter. However, each applicable requirement of parts 61, 63, 65, 121, or 135 of this chapter, including but not limited to practical test requirements, that is not specifically addressed in the AQP continues to apply to the certificate holder and to the individuals being trained and qualified by the certificate holder. No person may be trained under an AQP unless that AQP has been approved by the FAA and the person complies with all the requirements of the AQP and this subpart. (c) No certificate holder that conducts its training program under this subpart may use any person nor may any person serve in any duty position as a required crewmember, an aircraft dispatcher, an instructor, or an evaluator, unless that person has satisfactorily accomplished, in a training program approved under this subpart for the certificate holder, the training and evaluation of proficiency required by the AQP for that type airplane and duty position. (d) All documentation and data required under this subpart must be submitted in a form and manner acceptable to the FAA. (e) Any training or evaluation required under an AQP that is satisfactorily completed in the calendar month before or the calendar month after the calendar month in which it is due is considered to have been completed in the calendar month it was due. § 121.905 Confidential commercial information. (a) Each certificate holder that claims that AQP information or data it is submitting to the FAA is entitled to confidential treatment under 5 U.S.C. 552(b)(4) because it constitutes confidential commercial information as described in 5 U.S.C. 552(b)(4), and should be withheld from public disclosure, must include its request for confidentiality with each submission.

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(b) When requesting confidentiality for submitted information or data, the certificate holder must: (1) If the information or data is transmitted electronically, embed the claim of confidentiality within the electronic record so the portions claimed to be confidential are readily apparent when received and reviewed. (2) If the information or data is submitted in paper format, place the word “CONFIDENTIAL” on the top of each page containing information or data claimed to be confidential. (3) Justify the basis for a claim of confidentiality under 5 U.S.C. 552(b)(4). § 121.907 Definitions. The following definitions apply to this subpart: Crew Resource Management (CRM) means the effective use of all the resources available to crewmembers, including each other, to achieve a safe and efficient flight. Curriculum outline means a listing of each segment, module, lesson, and lesson element in a curriculum, or an equivalent listing acceptable to the FAA. Evaluation of proficiency means a Line Operational Evaluation (LOE) or an equivalent evaluation under an AQP acceptable to the FAA. Evaluator means a person who assesses or judges the performance of crewmembers, instructors, other evaluators, aircraft dispatchers, or other operations personnel. First Look means the assessment of performance to determine proficiency on designated flight tasks before any briefing, training, or practice on those tasks is given in the training session for a continuing qualification curriculum. First Look is conducted during an AQP continuing qualification cycle to determine trends of degraded proficiency, if any, due in part to the length of the interval between training sessions. Instructional systems development means a systematic methodology for developing or modifying qualification standards and associated curriculum content based on a documented analysis of the job tasks, skills, and knowledge required for job proficiency. Job task listing means a listing of all tasks, subtasks, knowledge, and skills required for accomplishing the operational job. Line Operational Evaluation (LOE) means a simulated line environment, the scenario content of which is designed to test integrating technical and CRM skills. Line Operational Simulation (LOS) means a training or evaluation session, as applicable, that is conducted in a simulated line environment using equipment qualified and approved for its intended purpose in an AQP. Planned hours means the estimated amount of time (as specified in a curriculum outline) that it takes a typical student to complete a segment of instruction (to include all instruction, demonstration, practice, and evaluation, as appropriate, to reach proficiency). Qualification standard means a statement of a minimum required performance, applicable parameters, criteria, applicable flight conditions, evaluation strategy, evaluation media, and applicable document references. Qualification standards document means a single document containing all the qualification standards for an AQP together with a prologue that provides a detailed description of all facets of the evaluation process. Special tracking means assigning a person to an augmented schedule of training, checking, or both. Training session means a contiguously scheduled period devoted to training activities at a facility approved by the FAA for that purpose. Variant means a specifically configured aircraft for which the FAA has identified training and qualifications that are significantly different from those applicable to other aircraft of the same make, model, and series. § 121.909 Approval of Advanced Qualification Program. (a) Approval process. Application for approval of an AQP curriculum under this subpart is made to the responsible Flight Standards office. (b) Approval criteria. Each AQP must have separate curriculums for indoctrination, qualification, and continuing qualification (including upgrade, transition, and requalification), as specified in §§ 121.911, 121.913, and 121.915. All AQP curriculums must be based on an instructional systems development methodology. This methodology must incorporate a thorough analysis of the certificate holder's operations, aircraft, line environment and job functions. All AQP qualification and continuing qualification curriculums must integrate the training and evaluation of CRM and technical skills and knowledge. An application for approval of an AQP curriculum may be approved if the program meets the following requirements:

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(1) The program must meet all the requirements of this subpart. (2) Each indoctrination, qualification, and continuing qualification AQP, and derivatives must include the following documentation: (i) Initial application for AQP. (ii) Initial job task listing. (iii) Instructional systems development methodology. (iv) Qualification standards document. (v) Curriculum outline. (vi) Implementation and operations plan. (3) Subject to approval by the FAA, certificate holders may elect, where appropriate, to consolidate information about multiple programs within any of the documents referenced in paragraph (b)(2) of this section. (4) The Qualification Standards Document must indicate specifically the requirements of the parts 61, 63, 65, 121, or 135 of this chapter, as applicable, that would be replaced by an AQP curriculum. If a practical test requirement of parts 61, 63, 65, 121, or 135 of this chapter is replaced by an AQP curriculum, the certificate holder must establish an initial justification and a continuing process approved by the FAA to show how the AQP curriculum provides an equivalent level of safety for each requirement that is to be replaced. (c) Application and transition. Each certificate holder that applies for one or more advanced qualification curriculums must include as part of its application a proposed transition plan (containing a calendar of events) for moving from its present approved training to the advanced qualification program training. (d) Advanced Qualification Program revisions or rescissions of approval. If after a certificate holder begins training and qualification under an AQP, the FAA finds the certificate holder is not meeting the provisions of its approved AQP, the FAA may require the certificate holder, pursuant to § 121.405(e), to make revisions. Or if otherwise warranted, the FAA may withdraw AQP approval and require the certificate holder to submit and obtain approval for a plan (containing a schedule of events) that the certificate holder must comply with and use to transition to an approved training program under subpart N of this part or under subpart H of part 135 of this chapter, as appropriate. The certificate holder may also voluntarily submit and obtain approval for a plan (containing a schedule of events) to transition to an approved training program under subpart N of this part or under subpart H of part 135 of this chapter, as appropriate. (e) Approval by the FAA. Final approval of an AQP by the FAA indicates the FAA has accepted the justification provided under paragraph (b)(4) of this section and the applicant's initial justification and continuing process establish an equivalent level of safety for each requirement of parts 61, 63, 65, 121, and 135 of this chapter that is being replaced. [Docket FAA-2005-20750, 70 FR 54815, Sept. 16, 2005, as amended by Docket FAA-2018-0119, Amdt. 121-380, 83 FR 9173, Mar. 5, 2018; Docket FAA-2022-1355, Amdt. 121-387, 87 FR 75846, Dec. 9, 2022] § 121.911 Indoctrination curriculum. Each indoctrination curriculum must include the following: (a) For newly hired persons being trained under an AQP: The certificate holder's policies and operating practices and general operational knowledge. (b) For newly hired crewmembers and aircraft dispatchers: General aeronautical knowledge appropriate to the duty position. (c) For instructors: The fundamental principles of the teaching and learning process; methods and theories of instruction; and the knowledge necessary to use aircraft, flight training devices, flight simulators, and other training equipment in advanced qualification curriculums, as appropriate.

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(d) For evaluators: General evaluation requirements of the AQP; methods of evaluating crewmembers and aircraft dispatchers and other operations personnel, as appropriate, and policies and practices used to conduct the kinds of evaluations particular to an AQP (e.g., LOE). § 121.913 Qualification curriculum. Each qualification curriculum must contain training, evaluation, and certification activities, as applicable for specific positions subject to the AQP, as follows: (a) The certificate holder's planned hours of training, evaluation, and supervised operating experience. (b) For crewmembers, aircraft dispatchers, and other operations personnel, the following: (1) Training, evaluation, and certification activities that are aircraft- and equipment-specific to qualify a person for a particular duty position on, or duties related to the operation of, a specific make, model, series, or variant aircraft. (2) A list of and text describing the knowledge requirements, subject materials, job skills, and qualification standards of each proficiency objective to be trained and evaluated. (3) The requirements of the certificate holder's approved AQP program that are in addition to or in place of, the requirements of parts 61, 63, 65, 121 or 135 of this chapter, including any applicable practical test requirements. (4) A list of and text describing operating experience, evaluation/remediation strategies, provisions for special tracking, and how recency of experience requirements will be accomplished. (c) For flight crewmembers: Initial operating experience and line check. (d) For instructors, the following as appropriate: (1) Training and evaluation activities to qualify a person to conduct instruction on how to operate, or on how to ensure the safe operation of a particular make, model, and series aircraft (or variant). (2) A list of and text describing the knowledge requirements, subject materials, job skills, and qualification standards of each procedure and proficiency objective to be trained and evaluated. (3) A list of and text describing evaluation/remediation strategies, standardization policies and recency requirements. (e) For evaluators: The requirements of paragraph (d)(1) of this section plus the following, as appropriate: (1) Training and evaluation activities that are aircraft and equipment specific to qualify a person to assess the performance of persons who operate or who ensure the safe operation of, a particular make, model, and series aircraft (or variant). (2) A list of and text describing the knowledge requirements, subject materials, job skills, and qualification standards of each procedure and proficiency objective to be trained and evaluated. (3) A list of and text describing evaluation/remediation strategies, standardization policies and recency requirements. § 121.915 Continuing qualification curriculum. Each continuing qualification curriculum must contain training and evaluation activities, as applicable for specific positions subject to the AQP, as follows: (a) Continuing qualification cycle. A continuing qualification cycle that ensures that during each cycle each person qualified under an AQP, including instructors and evaluators, will receive a mix that will ensure training and evaluation on all events and subjects necessary to ensure that each person maintains proficiency in knowledge, technical skills, and cognitive skills required for initial qualification in accordance with the approved continuing qualification AQP, evaluation/remediation strategies, and provisions for special tracking. Each continuing qualification cycle must include at least the following:

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(1) Evaluation period. Initially the continuing qualification cycle is comprised of two or more evaluation periods of equal duration. Each person qualified under an AQP must receive ground training and flight training, as appropriate, and an evaluation of proficiency during each evaluation period at a training facility. The number and frequency of training sessions must be approved by the FAA. (2) Training. Continuing qualification must include training in all tasks, procedures and subjects required in accordance with the approved program documentation, as follows: (i) For pilots in command, seconds in command, and flight engineers, First Look in accordance with the certificate holder's FAA-approved program documentation. (ii) For pilots in command, seconds in command, flight engineers, flight attendants, instructors and evaluators: Ground training including a general review of knowledge and skills covered in qualification training, updated information on newly developed procedures, and safety information. (iii) For crewmembers, instructors, evaluators, and other operational personnel who conduct their duties in flight: Proficiency training in an aircraft, flight training device, flight simulator, or other equipment, as appropriate, on normal, abnormal, and emergency flight procedures and maneuvers. (iv) For dispatchers and other operational personnel who do not conduct their duties in flight: ground training including a general review of knowledge and skills covered in qualification training, updated information on newly developed procedures, safety related information, and, if applicable, a line observation program. (v) For instructors and evaluators: Proficiency training in the type flight training device or the type flight simulator, as appropriate, regarding training equipment operation. For instructors and evaluators who are limited to conducting their duties in flight simulators or flight training devices: Training in operational flight procedures and maneuvers (normal, abnormal, and emergency). (b) Evaluation of performance. Continuing qualification must include evaluation of performance on a sample of those events and major subjects identified as diagnostic of competence and approved for that purpose by the FAA. The following evaluation requirements apply: (1) Evaluation of proficiency as follows: (i) For pilots in command, seconds in command, and flight engineers: An evaluation of proficiency, portions of which may be conducted in an aircraft, flight simulator, or flight training device as approved in the certificate holder's curriculum that must be completed during each evaluation period. (ii) For any other persons covered by an AQP, a means to evaluate their proficiency in the performance of their duties in their assigned tasks in an operational setting. (2) Line checks as follows: (i) Except as provided in paragraph (b)(2)(ii) of this section, for pilots in command: A line check conducted in an aircraft during actual flight operations under part 121 or part 135 of this chapter or during operationally (line) oriented flights, such as ferry flights or proving flights. A line check must be completed in the calendar month at the midpoint of the evaluation period. (ii) With the FAA's approval, a no-notice line check strategy may be used in lieu of the line check required by paragraph (b)(2)(i) of this section. The certificate holder who elects to exercise this option must ensure the “no-notice” line checks are administered so the flight crewmembers are not notified before the evaluation. In addition, the AQP certificate holder must ensure that each pilot in command receives at least one “no-notice” line check every 24 months. As a minimum, the number of “no-notice” line checks administered each calendar year must equal at least 50% of the certificate holder's pilot-in-command workforce in accordance with a strategy approved by the FAA for that purpose. In addition, the line checks to be conducted under this paragraph must be conducted over all geographic areas flown by the certificate holder in accordance with a sampling methodology approved by the FAA for that purpose. (iii) During the line checks required under paragraph (b)(2)(i) and (ii) of this section, each person performing duties as a pilot in command, second in command, or flight engineer for that flight must be individually evaluated to determine whether the person remains adequately trained and currently proficient with respect to the particular aircraft, crew position, and type of operation in which he or she serves; and the person has sufficient knowledge and skills to operate effectively as part of a crew. The evaluator must be a check pilot, check flight engineer, an APD, or an FAA inspector and must hold the certificates and ratings required of the pilot in command.

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(c) Recency of experience. For pilots in command, seconds in command, flight engineers, aircraft dispatchers, instructors, evaluators, and flight attendants, approved recency of experience requirements appropriate to the duty position. (d) Duration of cycles and periods. Initially, the continuing qualification cycle approved for an AQP must not exceed 24 calendar months in duration, and must include two or more evaluation periods of equal duration. After that, upon demonstration by a certificate holder that an extension is warranted, the FAA may approve an extension of the continuing qualification cycle to a maximum of 36 calendar months in duration. (e) Requalification. Each continuing qualification curriculum must include a curriculum segment that covers the requirements for requalifying a crewmember, aircraft dispatcher, other operations personnel, instructor, or evaluator who has not maintained continuing qualification. [Docket FAA-2005-20750, 70 FR 54815, Sept. 16, 2005, as amended by Docket FAA-2019-0360, Amdt. 121-392, 89 FR 51428, June 18, 2024] § 121.917 Other requirements. In addition to the requirements of §§ 121.913 and 121.915, each AQP qualification and continuing qualification curriculum must include the following requirements: (a) Integrated Crew Resource Management (CRM) or Dispatcher Resource Management (DRM) ground and if appropriate flight training applicable to each position for which training is provided under an AQP. (b) Approved training on and evaluation of skills and proficiency of each person being trained under AQP to use his or her resource management skills and his or her technical (piloting or other) skills in an actual or simulated operations scenario. For flight crewmembers this training and evaluation must be conducted in an approved flight training device, flight simulator, or, if approved under this subpart, in an aircraft. (c) Data collection and analysis processes acceptable to the FAA that will ensure the certificate holder provides performance information on its crewmembers, dispatchers, instructors, evaluators, and other operations personnel that will enable the certificate holder and the FAA to determine whether the form and content of training and evaluation activities are satisfactorily accomplishing the overall objectives of the curriculum. § 121.919 Certification. A person subject to an AQP is eligible to receive a commercial or airline transport pilot, flight engineer, or aircraft dispatcher certificate or appropriate rating based on the successful completion of training and evaluation events accomplished under that program if the following requirements are met: (a) Training and evaluation of required knowledge and skills under the AQP must meet minimum certification and rating criteria established by the FAA in parts 61, 63, or 65 of this chapter. The FAA may approve alternatives to the certification and rating criteria of parts 61, 63, or 65 of this chapter, including practical test requirements, if it can be demonstrated that the newly established criteria or requirements represent an equivalent or better measure of crewmember or dispatcher competence, operational proficiency, and safety. (b) The applicant satisfactorily completes the appropriate qualification curriculum. (c) The applicant shows competence in required technical knowledge and skills (e.g., piloting or other) and crew resource management (e.g., CRM or DRM) knowledge and skills in scenarios ( i.e. , LOE) that test both types of knowledge and skills together.

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(d) The applicant is otherwise eligible under the applicable requirements of part 61, 63, or 65 of this chapter. (e) The applicant has been trained to proficiency on the certificate holder's approved AQP Qualification Standards as witnessed by an instructor, check pilot, check flight engineer, or APD and has passed an LOE administered by an APD or the FAA. [Docket FAA-2019-0360, Amdt. 121-392, 89 FR 51428, June 18, 2024] § 121.921 Training devices and simulators. (a) Each flight training device or airplane simulator that will be used in an AQP for one of the following purposes must be evaluated by the FAA for assignment of a flight training device or flight simulator qualification level: (1) Required evaluation of individual or crew proficiency. (2) Training to proficiency or training activities that determine if an individual or crew is ready for an evaluation of proficiency. (3) Activities used to meet recency of experience requirements. (4) Line Operational Simulations (LOS). (b) Approval of other training equipment. (1) Any training equipment that is intended to be used in an AQP for purposes other than those set forth in paragraph (a) of this section must be approved by the FAA for its intended use. (2) An applicant for approval of training equipment under this paragraph must identify the device by its nomenclature and describe its intended use. (3) Each training device approved for use in an AQP must be part of a continuing program to provide for its serviceability and fitness to perform its intended function as approved by the FAA. § 121.923 Approval of training, qualification, or evaluation by a person who provides training by arrangement. (a) A certificate holder operating under part 121 or part 135 of this chapter may arrange to have AQP training, qualification, evaluation, or certification functions performed by another person (a “training provider”) if the following requirements are met: (1) The training provider is certificated under part 119 or 142 of this chapter. (2) The training provider's AQP training and qualification curriculums, curriculum segments, or portions of curriculum segments must be provisionally approved by the FAA. A training provider may apply for provisional approval independently or in conjunction with a certificate holder's application for AQP approval. Application for provisional approval must be made to the responsible Flight Standards office. (3) The specific use of provisionally approved curriculums, curriculum segments, or portions of curriculum segments in a certificate holder's AQP must be approved by the FAA as set forth in § 121.909. (b) An applicant for provisional approval of a curriculum, curriculum segment, or portion of a curriculum segment under this paragraph must show the following requirements are met: (1) The applicant must have a curriculum for the qualification and continuing qualification of each instructor and evaluator used by the applicant. (2) The applicant's facilities must be found by the FAA to be adequate for any planned training, qualification, or evaluation for a certificate holder operating under part 121 or part 135 of this chapter. (3) Except for indoctrination curriculums, the curriculum, curriculum segment, or portion of a curriculum segment must identify the specific make, model, and series aircraft (or variant) and crewmember or other positions for which it is designed. (c) A certificate holder who wants approval to use a training provider's provisionally approved curriculum, curriculum segment, or portion of a curriculum segment in its AQP, must show the following requirements are met: (1) Each instructor or evaluator used by the training provider must meet all the qualification and continuing qualification requirements that apply to employees of the certificate holder that has arranged for the training, including knowledge of the certificate holder's operations.

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(2) Each provisionally approved curriculum, curriculum segment, or portion of a curriculum segment must be approved by the FAA for use in the certificate holder's AQP. The FAA will either provide approval or require modifications to ensure that each curriculum, curriculum segment, or portion of a curriculum segment is applicable to the certificate holder's AQP. [Docket FAA-2005-20750, 70 FR 54815, Sept. 16, 2005, as amended by Docket FAA-2018-0119, Amdt. 121-380, 83 FR 9173, Mar. 5, 2018; Docket FAA-2022-1355, Amdt. 121-387, 87 FR 75846, Dec. 9, 2022] § 121.925 Recordkeeping requirements. Each certificate holder conducting an approved AQP must establish and maintain records in sufficient detail to demonstrate the certificate holder is in compliance with all the requirements of the AQP and this subpart. Subpart Z—Hazardous Materials Training Program Source: Docket FAA-2003-15085, 70 FR 58823, Oct. 7, 2005, unless otherwise noted. § 121.1001 Applicability and definitions. (a) This subpart prescribes the requirements applicable to each certificate holder for training each crewmember and person performing or directly supervising any of the following job functions involving any item for transport on board an aircraft: (1) Acceptance; (2) Rejection; (3) Handling; (4) Storage incidental to transport; (5) Packaging of company material; or (6) Loading. (b) Definitions. For purposes of this subpart, the following definitions apply: (1) Company material (COMAT) —Material owned or used by a certificate holder. (2) Initial hazardous materials training —The basic training required for each newly hired person, or each person changing job functions, who performs or directly supervises any of the job functions specified in paragraph (a) of this section. (3) Recurrent hazardous materials training —The training required every 24 months for each person who has satisfactorily completed the certificate holder's approved initial hazardous materials training program and performs or directly supervises any of the job functions specified in paragraph (a) of this section. § 121.1003 Hazardous materials training: General. (a) Each certificate holder must establish and implement a hazardous materials training program that: (1) Satisfies the requirements of Appendix O of this part; (2) Ensures that each person performing or directly supervising any of the job functions specified in § 121.1001(a) is trained to comply with all applicable parts of 49 CFR parts 171 through 180 and the requirements of this subpart; and (3) Enables the trained person to recognize items that contain, or may contain, hazardous materials regulated by 49 CFR parts 171 through 180. (b) Each certificate holder must provide initial hazardous materials training and recurrent hazardous materials training to each crewmember and person performing or directly supervising any of the job functions specified in § 121.1001(a). (c) Each certificate holder's hazardous materials training program must be approved by the FAA prior to implementation. § 121.1005 Hazardous materials training required. (a) Training requirement. Except as provided in paragraphs (b), (c) and (f) of this section, no certificate holder may use any crewmember orperson to perform any of the job functions or direct supervisory responsibilities, and no person may perform any of the job functions or direct supervisory responsibilities, specified in § 121.1001(a) unless that person has satisfactorily completed the certificate holder's FAA-approved initial or recurrent hazardous materials training program within the past 24 months.

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(b) New hire or new job function. A person who is a new hire and has not yet satisfactorily completed the required initial hazardous materials training, or a person who is changing job functions and has not received initial or recurrent training for a job function involving storage incidental to transport, or loading of items for transport on an aircraft, may perform those job functions for not more than 30 days from the date of hire or a change in job function, if the person is under the direct visual supervision of a person who is authorized by the certificate holder to supervise that person and who has successfully completed the certificate holder's FAA-approved initial or recurrent training program within the past 24 months. (c) Persons who work for more than one certificate holder. A certificate holder that uses or assigns a person to perform or directly supervise a job function specified in § 121.1001(a), when that person also performs or directly supervises the same job function for another certificate holder, need only train that person in its own policies and procedures regarding those job functions, if all of the following are met: (1) The certificate holder using this exception receives written verification from the person designated to hold the training records representing the other certificate holder that the person has satisfactorily completed hazardous materials training for the specific job function under the other certificate holder's FAA approved hazardous material training program under Appendix O of this part; and (2) The certificate holder who trained the person has the same operations specifications regarding the acceptance, handling, and transport of hazardous materials as the certificate holder using this exception. (d) Recurrent hazardous materials training—Completion date. A person who satisfactorily completes recurrent hazardous materials training in the calendar month before, or the calendar month after, the month in which the recurrent training is due, is considered to have taken that training during the month in which it is due. If the person completes this training earlier than the month before it is due, the month of the completion date becomes his or her new anniversary month. (e) Repair stations. A certificate holder must ensure that each repair station performing work for, or on the certificate holder's behalf is notified in writing of the certificate holder's policies and operations specification authorization permitting or prohibition against the acceptance, rejection, handling, storage incidental to transport, and transportation of hazardous materials, including company material. This notification requirement applies only to repair stations that are regulated by 49 CFR parts 171 through 180. (f) Certificate holders operating at foreign locations. This exception applies if a certificate holder operating at a foreign location where the country requires the certificate holder to use persons working in that country to load aircraft. In such a case, the certificate holder may use those persons even if they have not been trained in accordance with the certificate holder's FAA approved hazardous materials training program. Those persons, however, must be under the direct visual supervision of someone who has successfully completed the certificate holder's approved initial or recurrent hazardous materials training program in accordance with this part. This exception applies only to those persons who load aircraft. § 121.1007 Hazardous materials training records. (a) General requirement. Each certificate holder must maintain a record of all training required by this part received within the preceding three years for each person who performs or directly supervises a job function specified in § 121.1001(a). The record must be maintained during the time that the person performs or directly supervises any of those job functions, and for 90 days thereafter. These training records must be kept for direct employees of the certificate holder, as well as independent contractors, subcontractors, and any other person who performs or directly supervises these job functions for or on behalf of the certificate holder. (b) Location of records. The certificate holder must retain the training records required by paragraph (a) of this section for all initial and recurrent training received within the preceding 3 years for all persons performing or directly supervising the job functions listed in Appendix O at a designated location. The records must be available upon request at the location where the trained person performs or directly supervises the job function specified in § 121.1001(a). Records may be maintained electronically and provided on location electronically. When the person ceases to perform or directly supervise a hazardous materials job function, the certificate holder must retain the hazardous materials training records for an additional 90 days and make them available upon request at the last location where the person worked.

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(c) Content of records. Each record must contain the following: (1) The individual's name; (2) The most recent training completion date; (3) A description, copy or reference to training materials used to meet the training requirement; (4) The name and address of the organization providing the training; and (5) A copy of the certification issued when the individual was trained, which shows that a test has been completed satisfactorily. (d) New hire or new job function. Each certificate holder using a person under the exception in § 121.1005(b) must maintain a record for that person. The records must be available upon request at the location where the trained person performs or directly supervises the job function specified in § 121.1001(a). Records may be maintained electronically and provided on location electronically. The record must include the following: (1) A signed statement from an authorized representative of the certificate holder authorizing the use of the person in accordance with the exception; (2) The date of hire or change in job function; (3) The person's name and assigned job function; (4) The name of the supervisor of the job function; and (5) The date the person is to complete hazardous materials training in accordance with appendix O of this part. Subpart AA—Continued Airworthiness and Safety Improvements Source: Amdt. 121-336, 72 FR 63411, Nov. 8, 2007, unless otherwise noted. § 121.1101 Purpose and definition. (a) This subpart requires persons holding an air carrier or operating certificate under part 119 of this chapter to support the continued airworthiness of each airplane. These requirements may include, but are not limited to, revising the maintenance program, incorporating design changes, and incorporating revisions to Instructions for Continued Airworthiness. (b) [Reserved] [Amdt. 121-336, 72 FR 63411, Nov. 8, 2007, as amended by Docket FAA-2018-0119, Amdt. 121-380, 83 FR 9173, Mar. 5, 2018] § 121.1103 [Reserved]
§ 121.1105 Aging airplane inspections and records reviews. (a) Applicability. This section applies to all airplanes operated by a certificate holder under this part, except for those airplanes operated between any point within the State of Alaska and any other point within the State of Alaska. (b) Operation after inspection and records review. After the dates specified in this paragraph, a certificate holder may not operate an airplane under this part unless the Administrator has notified the certificate holder that the Administrator has completed the aging airplane inspection and records review required by this section. During the inspection and records review, the certificate holder must demonstrate to the Administrator that the maintenance of age-sensitive parts and components of the airplane has been adequate and timely enough to ensure the highest degree of safety. (1) Airplanes exceeding 24 years in service on December 8, 2003; initial and repetitive inspections and records reviews. For an airplane that has exceeded 24 years in service on December 8, 2003, no later than December 5, 2007, and thereafter at intervals not to exceed 7 years.

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(2) Airplanes exceeding 14 years in service but not 24 years in service on December 8, 2003; initial and repetitive inspections and records reviews. For an airplane that has exceeded 14 years in service but not 24 years in service on December 8, 2003, no later than December 4, 2008, and thereafter at intervals not to exceed 7 years. (3) Airplanes not exceeding 14 years in service on December 8, 2003; initial and repetitive inspections and records reviews. For an airplane that has not exceeded 14 years in service on December 8, 2003, no later than 5 years after the start of the airplane's 15th year in service and thereafter at intervals not to exceed 7 years. (c) Unforeseen schedule conflict. In the event of an unforeseen scheduling conflict for a specific airplane, the Administrator may approve an extension of up to 90 days beyond an interval specified in paragraph (b) of this section. (d) Airplane and records availability. The certificate holder must make available to the Administrator each airplane for which an inspection and records review is required under this section, in a condition for inspection specified by the Administrator, together with records containing the following information: (1) Total years in service of the airplane; (2) Total time in service of the airframe; (3) Total flight cycles of the airframe; (4) Date of the last inspection and records review required by this section; (5) Current status of life-limited parts of the airframe; (6) Time since the last overhaul of all structural components required to be overhauled on a specific time basis; (7) Current inspection status of the airplane, including the time since the last inspection required by the inspection program under which the airplane is maintained; (8) Current status of applicable airworthiness directives, including the date and methods of compliance, and if the airworthiness directive involves recurring action, the time and date when the next action is required; (9) A list of major structural alterations; and (10) A report of major structural repairs and the current inspection status for those repairs. (e) Notification to Administrator. Each certificate holder must notify the Administrator at least 60 days before the date on which the airplane and airplane records will be made available for the inspection and records review. [Docket FAA-1999-5401, 67 FR 72761, Dec. 6, 2002, as amended by Amdt. 121-284, 70 FR 5532, Feb. 2, 2005; Amdt. 121-310, 70 FR 23936, May 6, 2005. Redesignated by Amdt. 121-336, 72 FR 63412, Nov. 8, 2007] § 121.1107 Repairs assessment for pressurized fuselages. (a) No certificate holder may operate an Airbus Model A300 (excluding the -600 series), British Aerospace Model BAC 1-11, Boeing Model 707, 720, 727, 737, or 747, McDonnell Douglas Model DC-8, DC-9/MD-80 or DC-10, Fokker Model F28, or Lockheed Model L-1011 airplane beyond the applicable flight cycle implementation time specified below, or May 25, 2001, whichever occurs later, unless operations specifications have been issued to reference repair assessment guidelines applicable to the fuselage pressure boundary (fuselage skin, door skin, and bulkhead webs), and those guidelines are incorporated in its maintenance program. The repair assessment guidelines must be approved by the responsible Aircraft Certification Service office for the type certificate for the affected airplane. (1) For the Airbus Model A300 (excluding the -600 series), the flight cycle implementation time is: (i) Model B2: 36,000 flights. (ii) Model B4-100 (including Model B4-2C): 30,000 flights above the window line, and 36,000 flights below the window line. (iii) Model B4-200: 25,500 flights above the window line, and 34,000 flights below the window line. (2) For all models of the British Aerospace BAC 1-11, the flight cycle implementation time is 60,000 flights. (3) For all models of the Boeing 707, the flight cycle implementation time is 15,000 flights.

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(4) For all models of the Boeing 720, the flight cycle implementation time is 23,000 flights. (5) For all models of the Boeing 727, the flight cycle implementation time is 45,000 flights. (6) For all models of the Boeing 737, the flight cycle implementation time is 60,000 flights. (7) For all models of the Boeing 747, the flight cycle implementation time is 15,000 flights. (8) For all models of the McDonnell Douglas DC-8, the flight cycle implementation time is 30,000 flights. (9) For all models of the McDonnell Douglas DC-9/MD-80, the flight cycle implementation time is 60,000 flights. (10) For all models of the McDonnell Douglas DC-10, the flight cycle implementation time is 30,000 flights. (11) For all models of the Lockheed L-1011, the flight cycle implementation time is 27,000 flights. (12) For the Fokker F-28 Mark 1000, 2000, 3000, and 4000, the flight cycle implementation time is 60,000 flights. (b) [Reserved] [Docket 29104, 65 FR 24125, Apr. 25, 2000; 65 FR 50744, Aug. 21, 2000, as amended by Amdt. 121-282, 66 FR 23130, May 7, 2001; Amdt. 121-305, 69 FR 45942, July 30, 2004. Redesignated and amended by Amdt. 121-336, 72 FR 63412, Nov. 8, 2007; Docket FAA-2018-0119, Amdt. 121-380, 83 FR 9173, Mar. 5, 2018] § 121.1109 Supplemental inspections. (a) Applicability. Except as specified in paragraph (b) of this section, this section applies to transport category, turbine powered airplanes with a type certificate issued after January 1, 1958, that as a result of original type certification or later increase in capacity have— (1) A maximum type certificated passenger seating capacity of 30 or more; or (2) A maximum payload capacity of 7,500 pounds or more. (b) Exception. This section does not apply to an airplane operated by a certificate holder under this part between any point within the State of Alaska and any other point within the State of Alaska. (c) General requirements. After December 20, 2010, a certificate holder may not operate an airplane under this part unless the following requirements have been met: (1) Baseline Structure. The certificate holder's maintenance program for the airplane includes FAA-approved damage-tolerance-based inspections and procedures for airplane structure susceptible to fatigue cracking that could contribute to a catastrophic failure. For the purpose of this section, this structure is termed “fatigue critical structure.” (2) Adverse effects of repairs, alterations, and modifications. The maintenance program for the airplane includes a means for addressing the adverse effects repairs, alterations, and modifications may have on fatigue critical structure and on inspections required by paragraph (c)(1) of this section. The means for addressing these adverse effects must be approved by the responsible Aircraft Certification Service office. (3) Changes to maintenance program. The changes made to the maintenance program required by paragraphs (c)(1) and (c)(2) of this section, and any later revisions to these changes, must be submitted to the Principal Maintenance Inspector for review and approval. [Docket FAA-1999-5401, 70 FR 5532, Feb. 2, 2005. Redesignated by Amdt. 121-336, 72 FR 63412, Nov. 8, 2007; Amdt. 121-337, 72 FR 70508, Dec. 12, 2007; Docket FAA-2018-0119, Amdt. 121-380, 83 FR 9173, Mar. 5, 2018] § 121.1111 Electrical wiring interconnection systems (EWIS) maintenance program. (a) Except as provided in paragraph (f) of this section, this section applies to transport category, turbine-powered airplanes with a type certificate issued after January 1, 1958, that, as a result of original type certification or later increase in capacity, have— (1) A maximum type-certificated passenger capacity of 30 or more, or (2) A maximum payload capacity of 7500 pounds or more. (b) After March 10, 2011, no certificate holder may operate an airplane identified in paragraph (a) of this section unless the maintenance program for that airplane includes inspections and procedures for electrical wiring interconnection systems (EWIS).

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(c) The proposed EWIS maintenance program changes must be based on EWIS Instructions for Continued Airworthiness (ICA) that have been developed in accordance with the provisions of Appendix H of part 25 of this chapter applicable to each affected airplane (including those ICA developed for supplemental type certificates installed on each airplane) and that have been approved by the responsible Aircraft Certification Service office. (1) For airplanes subject to § 26.11 of this chapter, the EWIS ICA must comply with paragraphs H25.5(a)(1) and (b). (2) For airplanes subject to § 25.1729 of this chapter, the EWIS ICA must comply with paragraph H25.4 and all of paragraph H25.5. (d) After March 10, 2011, before returning an airplane to service after any alterations for which EWIS ICA are developed, the certificate holder must include in the airplane's maintenance program inspections and procedures for EWIS based on those ICA. (e) The EWIS maintenance program changes identified in paragraphs (c) and (d) of this section and any later EWIS revisions must be submitted to the Principal Inspector for review and approval. (f) This section does not apply to the following airplane models: (1) Lockheed L-188 (2) Bombardier CL-44 (3) Mitsubishi YS-11 (4) British Aerospace BAC 1-11 (5) Concorde (6) deHavilland D.H. 106 Comet 4C (7) VFW-Vereinigte Flugtechnische Werk VFW-614 (8) Illyushin Aviation IL 96T (9) Bristol Aircraft Britannia 305 (10) Handley Page Herald Type 300 (11) Avions Marcel Dassault—Breguet Aviation Mercure 100C (12) Airbus Caravelle (13) Lockheed L-300 [Amdt. 121-336, 72 FR 63411, Nov. 8, 2007, as amended by Docket FAA-2018-0119, Amdt. 121-380, 83 FR 9173, Mar. 5, 2018] § 121.1113 Fuel tank system maintenance program. (a) Except as provided in paragraph (g) of this section, this section applies to transport category, turbine-powered airplanes with a type certificate issued after January 1, 1958, that, as a result of original type certification or later increase in capacity, have— (1) A maximum type-certificated passenger capacity of 30 or more, or (2) A maximum payload capacity of 7500 pounds or more. (b) For each airplane on which an auxiliary fuel tank is installed under a field approval, before June 16, 2008, the certificate holder must submit to the responsible Aircraft Certification Service office proposed maintenance instructions for the tank that meet the requirements of Special Federal Aviation Regulation No. 88 (SFAR 88) of this chapter. (c) After December 16, 2008, no certificate holder may operate an airplane identified in paragraph (a) of this section unless the maintenance program for that airplane has been revised to include applicable inspections, procedures, and limitations for fuel tanks systems. (d) The proposed fuel tank system maintenance program revisions must be based on fuel tank system Instructions for Continued Airworthiness (ICA) that have been developed in accordance with the applicable provisions of SFAR 88 of this chapter or § 25.1529 and part 25, Appendix H, of this chapter, in effect on June 6, 2001 (including those developed for auxiliary fuel tanks, if any, installed under supplemental type certificates or other design approval) and that have been approved by the responsible Aircraft Certification Service office. (e) After December 16, 2008, before returning an aircraft to service after any alteration for which fuel tank ICA are developed under SFAR 88 or under § 25.1529 in effect on June 6, 2001, the certificate holder must include in the maintenance program for the airplane inspections and procedures for the fuel tank system based on those ICA. (f) The fuel tank system maintenance program changes identified in paragraphs (d) and (e) of this section and any later fuel tank system revisions must be submitted to the Principal Inspector for review and approval. (g) This section does not apply to the following airplane models: (1) Bombardier CL-44 (2) Concorde

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(3) deHavilland D.H. 106 Comet 4C (4) VFW-Vereinigte Flugtechnische Werk VFW-614 (5) Illyushin Aviation IL 96T (6) Bristol Aircraft Britannia 305 (7) Handley Page Herald Type 300 (8) Avions Marcel Dassault—Breguet Aviation Mercure 100C (9) Airbus Caravelle (10) Lockheed L-300 [Amdt. 121-336, 72 FR 63411, Nov. 8, 2007, as amended by Docket FAA-2018-0119, Amdt. 121-380, 83 FR 9173, Mar. 5, 2018] § 121.1115 Limit of validity. (a) Applicability. This section applies to certificate holders operating any transport category, turbine-powered airplane with a maximum takeoff gross weight greater than 75,000 pounds and a type certificate issued after January 1, 1958, regardless of whether the maximum takeoff gross weight is a result of an original type certificate or a later design change. This section also applies to certificate holders operating any transport category, turbine-powered airplane with a type certificate issued after January 1, 1958, regardless of the maximum takeoff gross weight, for which a limit of validity of the engineering data that supports the structural maintenance program (hereafter referred to as LOV) is required in accordance with § 25.571 or § 26.21 of this chapter after January 14, 2011. (b) Limit of validity. No certificate holder may operate an airplane identified in paragraph (a) of this section after the applicable date identified in Table 1 of this section unless an Airworthiness Limitations section approved under Appendix H to part 25 or § 26.21 of this chapter is incorporated into its maintenance program. The ALS must— (1) Include an LOV approved under § 25.571 or § 26.21 of this chapter, as applicable, except as provided in paragraph (f) of this section; and (2) Be clearly distinguishable within its maintenance program. (c) Operation of airplanes excluded from § 26.21. No certificate holder may operate an airplane identified in § 26.21(g) of this chapter after July 14, 2013, unless an Airworthiness Limitations section approved under Appendix H to part 25 or § 26.21 of this chapter is incorporated into its maintenance program. The ALS must— (1) Include an LOV approved under § 25.571 or § 26.21 of this chapter, as applicable, except as provided in paragraph (f) of this section; and (2) Be clearly distinguishable within its maintenance program. (d) Extended limit of validity. No certificate holder may operate an airplane beyond the LOV, or extended LOV, specified in paragraph (b)(1), (c), (d), or (f) of this section, as applicable, unless the following conditions are met: (1) An ALS must be incorporated into its maintenance program that— (i) Includes an extended LOV and any widespread fatigue damage airworthiness limitation items approved under § 26.23 of this chapter; and (ii) Is approved under § 26.23 of this chapter. (2) The extended LOV and the airworthiness limitation items pertaining to widespread fatigue damage must be clearly distinguishable within its maintenance program. (e) Principal Maintenance Inspector approval. Certificate holders must submit the maintenance program revisions required by paragraphs (b), (c), and (d) of this section to the Principal Maintenance Inspector for review and approval. (f) Exception. For any airplane for which an LOV has not been approved as of the applicable compliance date specified in paragraph (c) or Table 1 of this section, instead of including an approved LOV in the ALS, an operator must include the applicable default LOV specified in Table 1 or Table 2 of this section, as applicable, in the ALS. Table 1—Airplanes Subject to § 26.21

Airplane model	Compliance date—months after January 14, 2011	Default LOV [flight cycles (FC) or flight hours (FH)]
Airbus—Existing  1 Models Only:
A300 B2-1A, B2-1C, B2K-3C, B2-203	30	48,000 FC
A300 B4-2C, B4-103	30	40,000 FC
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A300 B4-203	30	34,000 FC
A300-600 Series	60	30,000 FC/67,500 FH
A310-200 Series	60	40,000 FC/60,000 FH
A310-300 Series	60	35,000 FC/60,000 FH
A318 Series	60	48,000 FC/60,000 FH
A319 Series	60	48,000 FC/60,000 FH
A320-100 Series	60	48,000 FC/48,000 FH
A320-200 Series	60	48,000 FC/60,000 FH
A321 Series	60	48,000 FC/60,000 FH
A330-200, -300 Series (except WV050 family) (non enhanced)	60	40,000 FC/60,000 FH
A330-200, -300 Series WV050 family (enhanced)	60	33,000 FC/100,000 FH
A330-200 Freighter Series	60	See NOTE.
A340-200, -300 Series (except WV 027 and WV050 family) (non enhanced)	60	20,000 FC/80,000 FH
A340-200, -300 Series WV 027 (non enhanced)	60	30,000 FC/60,000 FH
A340-300 Series WV050 family (enhanced)	60	20,000 FC/100,000 FH
A340-500, -600 Series	60	16,600 FC/100,000 FH
A380-800 Series	72	See NOTE.
Boeing—Existing  1 Models Only:
717	60	60,000 FC/60,000 FH
727 (all series)	30	60,000 FC
737 (Classics): 737-100, -200, -200C, -300, -400, -500	30	75,000 FC
737 (NG): 737-600, -700, -700C, -800, -900, -900ER	60	75,000 FC
747 (Classics): 747-100, -100B, -100B SUD, -200B, -200C, -200F, -300, 747SP, 747SR	30	20,000 FC
747-400: 747-400, -400D, -400F	60	20,000 FC
757	60	50,000 FC
767	60	50,000 FC
777-200, -300	60	40,000 FC
777-200LR, 777-300ER	72	40,000 FC
777F	72	11,000 FC
Bombardier—Existing  1 Models Only:
CL-600: 2D15 (Regional Jet Series 705), 2D24 (Regional Jet Series 900)	72	60,000 FC
Embraer—Existing  1 Models Only:
ERJ 170	72	See NOTE.
ERJ 190	72	See NOTE.
Fokker—Existing  1 Models Only:
F.28 Mark 0070, Mark 0100	30	90,000 FC
Lockheed—Existing  1 Models Only:
L-1011	30	36,000 FC
188	30	26,600 FC
382 (all series)	30	20,000 FC/50,000 FH
McDonnell Douglas—Existing  1 Models Only:
DC-8, -8F	30	50,000 FC/50,000 FH
DC-9 (except for MD-80 models)	30	100,000 FC/100,000 FH
MD-80 (DC-9-81, -82, -83, -87, MD-88)	30	50,000 FC/50,000 FH
MD-90	60	60,000 FC/90,000 FH
DC-10-10, -15	30	42,000 FC/60,000 FH
DC-10-30, -40, -10F, -30F, -40F	30	30,000 FC/60,000 FH
MD-10-10F	60	42,000 FC/60,000 FH
MD-10-30F	60	30,000 FC/60,000 FH
MD-11, MD-11F	60	20,000 FC/60,000 FH
Maximum Takeoff Gross Weight Changes:
All airplanes whose maximum takeoff gross weight has been decreased to 75,000 pounds or below after January 14, 2011, or increased to greater than 75,000 pounds at any time by an amended type certificate or supplemental type certificate	30, or within 12 months after the LOV is approved, or before operating the airplane, whichever occurs latest	Not applicable.
All Other Airplane Models (TCs and amended TCs) not Listed in Table 2	72, or within 12 months after the LOV is approved, or before operating the airplane, whichever occurs latest	Not applicable.
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1  Type certificated as of January 14, 2011.
Note: Airplane operation limitation is stated in the Airworthiness Limitation section.

Table 2—Airplanes Excluded From § 26.21

Airplane model	Default LOV [flight cycles (FC) or flight hours (FH)]
Airbus:
Caravelle	15,000 FC/24,000 FH
Avions Marcel Dassault:
Breguet Aviation Mercure 100C	20,000 FC/16,000 FH
Boeing:
Boeing 707 (-100 Series and -200 Series)	20,000 FC
Boeing 707 (-300 Series and -400 Series)	20,000 FC
Boeing 720	30,000 FC
Bombardier:
CL-44D4 and CL-44J	20,000 FC
BD-700	15,000 FC
Bristol Aeroplane Company:
Britannia 305	10,000 FC
British Aerospace Airbus, Ltd.:
BAC 1-11 (all models)	85,000 FC
British Aerospace (Commercial Aircraft) Ltd.:
Armstrong Whitworth Argosy A.W. 650 Series 101	20,000 FC
BAE Systems (Operations) Ltd.:
BAe 146-100A (all models)	50,000 FC
BAe 146-200-07	50,000 FC
BAe 146-200-07 Dev	50,000 FC
BAe 146-200-11	50,000 FC
BAe 146-200-07A	47,000 FC
BAe 146-200-11 Dev	43,000 FC
BAe 146-300 (all models)	40,000 FC
Avro 146-RJ70A (all models)	40,000 FC
Avro 146-RJ85A and 146-RJ100A (all models)	50,000 FC
D & R Nevada, LLC:
Convair Model 22	1,000 FC/1,000 FH
Convair Model 23M	1,000 FC/1,000 FH
deHavilland Aircraft Company, Ltd.:
D.H. 106 Comet 4C	8,000 FH
Gulfstream:
GV	40,000 FH
GV-SP	40,000 FH
Ilyushin Aviation Complex:
IL-96T	10,000 FC/30,000 FH
Lockhead:
300-50A01(USAF C 141A)	20,000 FC

[Docket FAA-2006-24281, 75 FR 69785, Nov. 15, 2010, as amended by Amdt. 121-360, 77 FR 30878, May 24, 2012; Admt. 121-360A, 77 FR 55105, Sept. 7, 2012; Docket FAA-2022-1355, Amdt. 121-387, 87 FR 75847, Dec. 9, 2022] § 121.1117 Flammability reduction means. (a) Applicability. Except as provided in paragraph (o) of this section, this section applies to transport category, turbine-powered airplanes with a type certificate issued after January 1, 1958, that, as a result of original type certification or later increase in capacity have: (1) A maximum type-certificated passenger capacity of 30 or more, or (2) A maximum payload capacity of 7,500 pounds or more. (b) New Production Airplanes. Except in accordance with § 121.628, no certificate holder may operate an airplane identified in Table 1 of this section (including all-cargo airplanes) for which the State of Manufacture issued the original certificate of airworthiness or export airworthiness approval after December 27, 2010 unless an Ignition Mitigation Means (IMM) or Flammability Reduction Means (FRM) meeting the requirements of § 26.33 of this chapter is operational. Table 1

Model—Boeing	Model—Airbus
747 Series	A318, A319, A320, A321 Series
737 Series	A330, A340 Series
777 Series
767 Series

(c) Auxiliary Fuel Tanks. After the applicable date stated in paragraph (e) of this section, no certificate holder may operate any airplane subject to § 26.33 of this chapter that has an Auxiliary Fuel Tank installed pursuant to a field approval, unless the following requirements are met:

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(1) The certificate holder complies with 14 CFR 26.35 by the applicable date stated in that section. (2) The certificate holder installs Flammability Impact Mitigation Means (FIMM), if applicable, that is approved by the responsible Aircraft Certification Service office. (3) Except in accordance with § 121.628, the FIMM, if applicable, is operational. (d) Retrofit. Except as provided in paragraphs (j), (k), and (l) of this section, after the dates specified in paragraph (e) of this section, no certificate holder may operate an airplane to which this section applies unless the requirements of paragraphs (d)(1) and (d)(2) of this section are met. (1) IMM, FRM or FIMM, if required by §§ 26.33, 26.35, or 26.37 of this chapter, that are approved by the responsible Aircraft Certification Service office, are installed within the compliance times specified in paragraph (e) of this section. (2) Except in accordance with § 121.628, the IMM, FRM or FIMM, as applicable, are operational. (e) Compliance Times. Except as provided in paragraphs (k) and (l) of this section, the installations required by paragraph (d) of this section must be accomplished no later than the applicable dates specified in paragraph (e)(1), (e)(2), or (e)(3) of this section. (1) Fifty percent of each certificate holder's fleet identified in paragraph (d)(1) of this section must be modified no later than December 26, 2014. (2) One hundred percent of each certificate holder's fleet identified in paragraph (d)(1) of this section must be modified no later than December 26, 2017. (3) For those certificate holders that have only one airplane of a model identified in Table 1 of this section, the airplane must be modified no later than December 26, 2017. (f) Compliance After Installation. Except in accordance with § 121.628, no certificate holder may— (1) Operate an airplane on which IMM or FRM has been installed before the dates specified in paragraph (e) of this section unless the IMM or FRM is operational, or (2) Deactivate or remove an IMM or FRM once installed unless it is replaced by a means that complies with paragraph (d) of this section. (g) Maintenance Program Revisions. No certificate holder may operate an airplane for which airworthiness limitations have been approved by the responsible Aircraft Certification Service office in accordance with §§ 26.33, 26.35, or 26.37 of this chapter after the airplane is modified in accordance with paragraph (d) of this section unless the maintenance program for that airplane is revised to include those applicable airworthiness limitations. (h) After the maintenance program is revised as required by paragraph (g) of this section, before returning an airplane to service after any alteration for which airworthiness limitations are required by §§ 25.981, 26.33, or 26.37 of this chapter, the certificate holder must revise the maintenance program for the airplane to include those airworthiness limitations. (i) The maintenance program changes identified in paragraphs (g) and (h) of this section must be submitted to the operator's Principal Maintenance Inspector responsible for review and approval prior to incorporation. (j) The requirements of paragraph (d) of this section do not apply to airplanes operated in all-cargo service, but those airplanes are subject to paragraph (f) of this section. (k) The compliance dates specified in paragraph (e) of this section may be extended by one year, provided that— (1) No later than March 26, 2009, the certificate holder notifies its responsible Flight Standards office or Principal Inspector that it intends to comply with this paragraph; (2) No later than June 24, 2009, the certificate holder applies for an amendment to its operations specification in accordance with § 119.51 of this chapter and revises the manual required by § 121.133 to include a requirement for the airplane models specified in Table 2 of this section to use ground air conditioning systems for actual gate times of more than 30 minutes, when available at the gate and operational, whenever the ambient temperature exceeds 60 degrees Fahrenheit; and

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(3) Thereafter, the certificate holder uses ground air conditioning systems as described in paragraph (k)(2) of this section on each airplane subject to the extension. Table 2

Model—Boeing	Model—Airbus
747 Series	A318, A319, A320, A321 Series
737 Series	A300, A310 Series
777 Series	A330, A340 Series
767 Series
757 Series

(l) For any certificate holder for which the operating certificate is issued after December 26, 2008, the compliance date specified in paragraph (e) of this section may be extended by one year, provided that the certificate holder meets the requirements of paragraph (k)(2) of this section when its initial operations specifications are issued and, thereafter, uses ground air conditioning systems as described in paragraph (k)(2) of this section on each airplane subject to the extension. (m) After the date by which any person is required by this section to modify 100 percent of the affected fleet, no certificate holder may operate in passenger service any airplane model specified in Table 2 of this section unless the airplane has been modified to comply with § 26.33(c) of this chapter. (n) No certificate holder may operate any airplane on which an auxiliary fuel tank is installed after December 26, 2017 unless the FAA has certified the tank as compliant with § 25.981 of this chapter, in effect on December 26, 2008. (o) Exclusions. The requirements of this section do not apply to the following airplane models: (1) Convair CV-240, 340, 440, including turbine powered conversions. (2) Lockheed L-188 Electra. (3) Vickers VC-10. (4) Douglas DC-3, including turbine powered conversions. (5) Bombardier CL-44. (6) Mitsubishi YS-11. (7) BAC 1-11. (8) Concorde. (9) deHavilland D.H. 106 Comet 4C. (10) VFW—Vereinigte Flugtechnische VFW-614. (11) Illyushin Aviation IL 96T. (12) Bristol Aircraft Britannia 305. (13) Handley Page Herald Type 300. (14) Avions Marcel Dassault—Breguet Aviation Mercure 100C. (15) Airbus Caravelle. (16) Fokker F-27/Fairchild Hiller FH-227. (17) Lockheed L-300. [Docket FAA-2005-22997, 73 FR 42501, July 21, 2008, as amended by Amdt. 121-345, 74 FR 31619, July 2, 2009; Docket FAA-2018-0119, Amdt. 121-380, 83 FR 9173, Mar. 5, 2018] § 121.1119 Fuel tank vent explosion protection. (a) Applicability. This section applies to transport category, turbine-powered airplanes with a type certificate issued after January 1, 1958, that have: (1) A maximum type-certificated passenger capacity of 30 or more; or (2) A maximum payload capacity of 7,500 pounds or more. (b) New production airplanes. No certificate holder may operate an airplane for which the State of Manufacture issued the original certificate of airworthiness or export airworthiness approval after August 23, 2018 unless means, approved by the Administrator, to prevent fuel tank explosions caused by propagation of flames from outside the fuel tank vents into the fuel tank vapor spaces are installed and operational. [Docket FAA-2014-0500, Amdt. 121-375, 81 FR 41208, June 24, 2016] Subpart BB [Reserved] §§ 121.1200-121.1399 [Reserved]
Subpart CC [Reserved] §§ 121.1400-121.1499 [Reserved]
Subpart DD—Special Federal Aviation Regulations § 121.1500 SFAR No. 111—Lavatory Oxygen Systems. (a) Applicability. This SFAR applies to the following persons: (1) All operators of transport category airplanes that are required to comply with AD 2012-11-09, but only for airplanes on which the actions required by that AD have not been accomplished.

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(2) Applicants for airworthiness certificates. (3) Holders of production certificates. (4) Applicants for type certificates, including changes to type certificates. (b) Regulatory relief. Except as noted in paragraph (d) of this section and contrary provisions of 14 CFR part 21, and 14 CFR 25.1447, 119.51, 121.329, 121.333 and 129.13, notwithstanding, for the duration of this SFAR: (1) A person described in paragraph (a) of this section may conduct flight operations and add airplanes to operations specifications with disabled lavatory oxygen systems, modified in accordance with FAA Airworthiness Directive 2011-04-09, subject to the following limitations: (i) This relief is limited to regulatory compliance of lavatory oxygen systems. (ii) Within 30 days of March 29, 2013, all oxygen masks must be removed from affected lavatories, and the mask stowage location must be reclosed. (iii) Within 60 days of March 29, 2013 each affected operator must verify that crew emergency procedures specifically include a visual check of the lavatory as a priority when checking the cabin following any event where oxygen masks were deployed in the cabin. (2) An applicant for an airworthiness certificate may obtain an airworthiness certificate for airplanes to be operated by a person described in paragraph (a) of this section, although the airplane lavatory oxygen system is disabled. (3) A holder of a production certificate may apply for an airworthiness certificate or approval for airplanes to be operated by a person described in paragraph (a) of this section. (4) An applicant for a type certificate or change to a type certificate may obtain a design approval without showing compliance with § 25.1447(c)(1) of this chapter for lavatory oxygen systems, in accordance with this SFAR. (5) Each person covered by paragraph (a) of this section may inform passengers that the lavatories are not equipped with supplemental oxygen. (c) Return to service documentation. When a person described in paragraph (a) of this section has modified airplanes as required by Airworthiness Directive 2011-04-09, the affected airplanes must be returned to service with a note in the airplane maintenance records that the modification was done under the provisions of this SFAR. (d) Expiration. This SFAR expires on September 10, 2015, except this SFAR will continue to apply to any airplane for which the FAA approves an extension of the AD compliance time for the duration of the extension. [Docket FAA-2011-0186, 78 FR 5710, Jan. 28, 2013]   Pt. 121, App. A Appendix A to Part 121—First Aid Kits and Emergency Medical Kits Approved first-aid kits, at least one approved emergency medical kit, and at least one approved automated external defibrillator required under § 121.803 of this part must be readily accessible to the crew, stored securely, and kept free from dust, moisture, and damaging temperatures.

First-aid Kits 1. The minimum number of first aid kits required is set forth in the following table:

No. of passenger seats	No. of first-aid kits
0-50	1
51-150	2
151-250	3
More than 250	4

2. Except as provided in paragraph (3), each approved first-aid kit must contain at least the following appropriately maintained contents in the specified quantities:

Contents	Quantity
Adhesive bandage compresses, 1-inch	16
Antiseptic swabs	20
Ammonia inhalants	10
Bandage compresses, 4-inch	8
Triangular bandage compresses, 40-inch	5
Arm splint, noninflatable	1
Leg splint, noninflatable	1
Roller bandage, 4-inch	4
Adhesive tape, 1-inch standard roll	2
Bandage scissors	1

3. Arm and leg splints which do not fit within a first-aid kit may be stowed in a readily accessible location that is as near as practicable to the kit.

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Emergency Medical Kits 1. Until April 12, 2004, at least one approved emergency medical kit that must contain at least the following appropriately maintained contents in the specified quantities:

Contents	Quantity
Sphygmomanometer	1
Stethoscope	1
Airways, cropharyngeal (3 sizes)	3
Syringes (sizes necessary to administer required drugs)	4
Needles (sizes necessary to administer required drugs)	6
50% Dextrose injection, 50cc	1
Epinephrine 1:1000, single dose ampule or equivalent)	2
Diphenhydramine HC1 injection, single dose ampule or equivalent	2
Nitroglycerin tablets	10
Basic instructions for use of the drugs in the kit	1
protective nonpermeable gloves or equivalent	1 pair

2. As of April 12, 2004, at least one approved emergency medical kit that must contain at least the following appropriately maintained contents in the specified quantities:

Contents	Quantity
Sphygmonanometer	1
Stethoscope	1
Airways, oropharyngeal (3 sizes): 1 pediatric, 1 small adult, 1 large adult or equivalent	3
Self-inflating manual resuscitation device with 3 masks (1 pediatric, 1 small adult, 1 large adult or equivalent)	1:3 masks
CPR mask (3 sizes), 1 pediatric, 1 small adult, 1 large adult, or equivalent	3
IV Admin Set: Tubing w/ 2 Y connectors	1
Alcohol sponges	2
Adhesive tape, 1-inch standard roll adhesive	1
Tape scissors	1 pair
Tourniquet	1
Saline solution, 500 cc	1
Protective nonpermeable gloves or equivalent	1 pair
Needles (2-18 ga., 2-20 ga., 2-22 ga., or sizes necessary to administer required medications)	6
Syringes (1-5 cc, 2-10 cc, or sizes necessary to administer required medications)	4
Analgesic, non-narcotic, tablets, 325 mg	4
Antihistamine tablets, 25 mg	4
Antihistamine injectable, 50 mg, (single dose ampule or equivalent)	2
Atropine, 0.5 mg, 5 cc (single dose ampule or equivalent)	2
Aspirin tablets, 325 mg	4
Bronchodilator, inhaled (metered dose inhaler or equivalent)	1
Dextrose, 50%/50 cc injectable, (single dose ampule or equivalent)	1
Epinephrine 1:1000, 1 cc, injectable, (single dose ampule or equivalent)	2
Epinephrine 1:10,000, 2 cc, injectable, (single dose ampule or equivalent)	2
Lidocaine, 5 cc, 20 mg/ml, injectable (single dose ampule or equivalent)	2
Nitroglycerin tablets, 0.4 mg	10
Basic instructions for use of the drugs in the kit	1

3. If all of the above-listed items do not fit into one container, more than one container may be used. Automated External Defibrillators At least one approved automated external defibrillator, legally marketed in the United States in accordance with Food and Drug Administration requirements, that must: 1. Be stored in the passenger cabin. 2. After April 30, 2005: (a) Have a power source that meets FAA Technical Standard Order requirements for power sources for electronic devices used in aviation as approved by the Administrator; or (b) Have a power source that was manufactured before July 30, 2004, and been found by the FAA to be equivalent to a power source that meets the Technical Standard Order requirements of paragraph (a) of this section. 3. Be maintained in accordance with the manufacturer's specifications. [Docket FAA-2000-7119, 66 FR 19044, Apr. 12, 2001, as amended by Amdt. 121-280, 69 FR 19762, Apr. 14, 2004; Amdt. 121-309, 70 FR 15196, Mar. 24, 2005] Pt. 121, App. B Appendix B to Part 121—Airplane Flight Recorder Specification

Parameters	Range	Accuracy sensor input to DFDR readout	Sampling interval (per second)	Resolution  4 readout
Time (GMT or Frame Counter) (range 0 to 4095, sampled 1 per frame)	24 Hrs	±0.125% Per Hour	0.25 (1 per 4 seconds)	1 sec.
Altitude	−1,000 ft to max certificated altitude of aircraft	±100 to ±700 ft (See Table 1, TSO-C51a)	1	5′ to 35′  1
Airspeed	50 KIAS to V  so , and V  so to 1.2V D	±5%, ±3%	1	1 kt.
Heading	360°	±2°	1	0.5°
Normal Acceleration (Vertical)	−3g to + 6g	±1% of max range excluding datum error of ±5%	8	0.01g.
Pitch Attitude	±75°	±2°	1	0.5°
Roll Attitude	±180°	±2°	1	0.5°
Radio Transmitter Keying	On-Off (Discrete)	±2°	±2%
Thrust/Power on Each Engine	Full Range Forward	±2°	1 (per engine)	0.2%  2
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Trailing Edge Flap or Cockpit Control Selection	Full Range or Each Discrete Position	±3° or as Pilot's Indicator	0.5	0.5%  2
Leading Edge Flap or Cockpit Control Selection	Full Range or Each Discrete Position	±3° or as Pilot's Indicator	0.5	0.5%  2
Thrust Reverser Position	Stowed, In Transit, and Reverse (Discrete)		1 (per 4 seconds per engine)
Ground Spoiler Position/Speed Brake Selection	Full Range or Each Discrete Position	±2% Unless Higher Accuracy Uniquely Required	1	0.2%  2 .
Marker Beacon Passage	Discrete		1
Autopilot Engagement	Discrete		1
Longitudinal Acceleration	±1g	±1.5% max range excluding datum error of ±5%	4	0.01g.
Pilot Input and/or Surface Position—Primary Controls (Pitch, Roll, Yaw)  3	Full Range	±2° Unless Higher Accuracy Uniquely Required	1	0.2%  2 .
Lateral Acceleration	±1g	±1.5% max range excluding datum error of ±5%	4	0.01g.
Pitch Trim Position	Full Range	±3% Unless Higher Accuracy Uniquely Required	1	0.3%  2 .
Glideslope Deviation	±400 Microamps	±3%	1	0.3%  2 .
Localizer Deviation	±400 Microamps	±3%	1	0.3%  2 .
AFCS Mode and Engagement Status	Discrete		1
Radio Altitude	−20 ft to 2,500 ft	±2 Ft or ±3% Whichever is Greater Below 500 Ft and ±5% Above 500 Ft	1	1 ft + 5%  2 above 500′.
Master Warning	Discrete		1
Main Gear Squat Switch Status	Discrete		1
Angle of Attack (if recorded directly).	As installed	As installed	2	0.3%  2
Outside Air Temperature or Total Air Temperature.	−50 °C to + 90 °C	±2 °c	0.5	0.3 °c
Hydraulics, Each System Low Pressure	Discrete		0.5	or 0.5%  2
Groundspeed.	As installed	Most Accurate Systems Installed (IMS Equipped Aircraft Only)	1	0.2%  2
If additional recording capacity is available, recording of the following parameters is recommended. The parameters are listed in order of significance:
Drift Angle	When available, As installed	As installed	4
Wind Speed and Direction	When available, As installed	As installed	4
Latitude and Longitude	When available, As installed	As installed	4
Brake pressure/Brake pedal position	As installed	As installed	1
Additional engine parameters:
EPR	As installed	As installed	1 (per engine).
N1	As installed	As installed	1 (per engine).
N2	As installed	As installed	1 (per engine).
EGT	As installed	As installed	1 (per engine).
Throttle Lever Position	As installed	As installed	1 (per engine).
Fuel Flow	As installed	As installed	1 (per engine).
TCAS:
TA	As installed	As installed	1
RA	As installed	As installed	1
Sensitivity level (as selected by crew)	As installed	As installed	2
GPWS (ground proximity warning system)	Discrete		1
Landing gear or gear selector position	Discrete		0.25 (1 per 4 seconds)
DME 1 and 2 Distance	0-200 NM;	As installed	0.25	1 mi.
Nav 1 and 2 Frequency Selection	Full range	As installed	0.25
1  When altitude rate is recorded. Altitude rate must have sufficient resolution and sampling to permit the derivation of altitude to 5 feet. Code of Federal Regulations / Title 14 - Aeronautics and Space / Vol. 1 / 2025-01-01278
2  Per cent of full range.
3  For airplanes that can demonstrate the capability of deriving either the control input on control movement (one from the other) for all modes of operation and flight regimes, the “or” applies. For airplanes with non-mechanical control systems (fly-by-wire) the “and” applies. In airplanes with split surfaces, suitable combination of inputs is acceptable in lieu of recording each surface separately.
4  This column applies to aircraft manufactured after October 11, 1991.

[Docket 25530, 53 FR 26147, July 11, 1988; 53 FR 30906, Aug. 16, 1988] Pt. 121, App. C Appendix C to Part 121—C-46 Nontransport Category Airplanes Cargo Operations 1. Required engines. (a) Except as provided in paragraph (b) of this section, the engines specified in subparagraphs (1) or (2) of this section must be installed in C-46 nontransport category airplanes operated at gross weights exceeding 45,000 pounds: (1) Pratt and Whitney R2800-51-M1 or R2800-75-M1 engines (engines converted from basic model R2800-51 or R2800-75 engines in accordance with FAA approved data) that— (i) Conform to Engine Specification 5E-8; (ii) Conform to the applicable portions of the operator's manual; (iii) Comply with all the applicable airworthiness directives; and (iv) Are equipped with high capacity oil pump drive gears in accordance with FAA approved data. (2) Other engines found acceptable by the Flight Standards office having type certification responsibility for the C-46 airplane. (b) Upon application by an operator conducting cargo operations with nontransport category C-46 airplanes between points within the State of Alaska, the responsible Flight Standards office may authorize the operation of such airplanes, between points within the State of Alaska; without compliance with paragraph (a) of this section if the operator shows that, in its area of operation, installation of the modified engines is not necessary to provide adequate cooling for single-engine operations. Such authorization and any conditions or limitations therefor is made a part of the Operations Specifications of the operator. 2. Minimum acceptable means of complying with the special airworthiness requirements. Unless otherwise authorized under § 121.213, the data set forth in sections 3 through 34 of this appendix, as correlated to the C-46 nontransport category airplane, is the minimum means of compliance with the special airworthiness requirements of §§ 121.215 through 121.281. 3. Susceptibility of material to fire. [Deleted as unnecessary] 4. Cabin interiors. C-46 crew compartments must meet all the requirements of § 121.215, and, as required in § 121.221, the door between the crew compartment and main cabin (cargo) compartment must be flame resistant. 5. Internal doors. Internal doors, including the crew to main cabin door, must meet all the requirements of § 121.217. 6. Ventilation. Standard C-46 crew compartments meet the ventilation requirements of § 121.219 if a means of ventilation for controlling the flow of air is available between the crew compartment and main cabin. The ventilation requirement may be met by use of a door between the crew compartment and main cabin. The door need not have louvers installed; however, if louvers are installed, they must be controllable. 7. Fire precautions. Compliance is required with all the provisions of § 121.221. (a) In establishing compliance with this section, the C-46 main cabin is considered as a Class A compartment if— (1) The operator utilizes a standard system of cargo loading and tiedown that allows easy access in flight to all cargo in such compartment, and, such system is included in the appropriate portion of the operator's manual; and (2) A cargo barrier is installed in the forward end of the main cabin cargo compartment. The barrier must— (i) Establish the most forward location beyond which cargo cannot be carried; (ii) Protect the components and systems of the airplane that are essential to its safe operation from cargo damage; and (iii) Permit easy access, in flight, to cargo in the main cabin cargo compartment. The barrier may be a cargo net or a network of steel cables or other means acceptable to the Administrator which would provide equivalent protection to that of a cargo net. The barrier need not meet crash load requirements of FAR § 25.561; however, it must be attached to the cargo retention fittings and provide the degree of cargo retention that is required by the operators' standard system of cargo loading and tiedown. (b) C-46 forward and aft baggage compartments must meet, as a minimum, Class B requirements of this section or be placarded in a manner to preclude their use as cargo or baggage compartments. 8. Proof of compliance. The demonstration of compliance required by § 121.223 is not required for C-46 airplanes in which— (1) The main cabin conforms to Class A cargo compartment requirements of § 121.219; and (2) Forward and aft baggage compartments conform to Class B requirements of § 121.221, or are placarded to preclude their use as cargo or baggage compartments.

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9. Propeller deicing fluid. No change from the requirements of § 121.225. Isopropyl alcohol is a combustible fluid within the meaning of this section. 10. Pressure cross-feed arrangements, location of fuel tanks, and fuel system lines and fittings. C-46 fuel systems which conform to all applicable Curtiss design specifications and which comply with the FAA type certification requirements are in compliance with the provisions of §§ 121.227 through 121.231. 11. Fuel lines and fittings in designated fire zones. No change from the requirements of § 121.233. 12. Fuel valves. Compliance is required with all the provisions of § 121.235. Compliance can be established by showing that the fuel system conforms to all the applicable Curtiss design specifications, the FAA type certification requirements, and, in addition, has explosion-proof fuel booster pump electrical selector switches installed in lieu of the open contact type used originally. 13. Oil lines and fittings in designated fire zones. No change from the requirements of § 121.237. 14. Oil valves. C-46 oil shutoff valves must conform to the requirements of § 121.239. In addition, C-46 airplanes using Hamilton Standard propellers must provide, by use of stand pipes in the engine oil tanks or other approved means, a positive source of oil for feathering each propeller. 15. Oil system drains. The standard C-46 “Y” drains installed in the main oil inlet line for each engine meet the requirements of § 121.241. 16. Engine breather line. The standard C-46 engine breather line installation meets the requirements of § 121.243 if the lower breather lines actually extend to the trailing edge of the oil cooler air exit duct. 17. Firewalls and firewall construction. Compliance is required with all of the provisions of §§ 121.245 and 121.247. The following requirements must be met in showing compliance with these sections: (a) Engine compartment. The engine firewalls of the C-46 airplane must— (1) Conform to type design, and all applicable airworthiness directives; (2) Be constructed of stainless steel or approved equivalent; and (3) Have fireproof shields over the fairleads used for the engine control cables that pass through each firewall. (b) Combustion heater compartment. C-46 airplanes must have a combustion heater fire extinguishing system which complies with AD-49-18-1 or an FAA approved equivalent. 18. Cowling. Standard C-46 engine cowling (cowling of aluminum construction employing stainless steel exhaust shrouds) which conforms to the type design and cowling configurations which conform to the C-46 transport category requirements meet the requirements of § 121.249. 19. Engine accessory section diaphragm. C-46 engine nacelles which conform to the C-46 transport category requirements meet the requirements of § 121.251. As provided for in that section, a means of equivalent protection which does not require provision of a diaphragm to isolate the engine power section and exhaust system from the engine accessory compartment is the designation of the entire engine compartment forward of and including the firewall as a designated fire zone, and the installation of adequate fire detection and fire extinguishing systems which meet the requirements of § 121.263 and § 121.273, respectively, in such zone. 20. Powerplant fire protection. C-46 engine compartments and combustion heater compartments are considered as designated fire zones within the meaning of § 121.253. 21. Flammable fluids — (a) Engine compartment. C-46 engine compartments which conform to the type design and which comply with all applicable airworthiness directives meet the requirements of § 121.255. (b) Combustion heater compartment. C-46 combustion heater compartments which conform to type design and which meet all the requirements of AD-49-18-1 or an FAA approved equivalent meet the requirements of § 121.255. 22. Shutoff means — (a) Engine compartment. C-46 engine compartments which comply with AD-62-10-2 or FAA approved equivalent meet the requirements of § 121.257 applicable to engine compartments, if, in addition, a means satisfactory to the Administrator is provided to shut off the flow of hydraulic fluid to the cowl flap cylinder in each engine nacelle. The shutoff means must be located aft of the engine firewall. The operator's manual must include, in the emergency portion, adequate instructions for proper operation of the additional shutoff means to assure correct sequential positioning of engine cowl flaps under emergency conditions. In accordance with § 121.315, this positioning must also be incorporated in the emergency section of the pilot's checklist. (b) Combustion heater compartment. C-46 heater compartments which comply with paragraph (5) of AD-49-18-1 or FAA approved equivalent meet the requirements of § 121.257 applicable to heater compartments if, in addition, a shutoff valve located above the main cabin floor level is installed in the alcohol supply line or lines between the alcohol supply tank and those alcohol pumps located under the main cabin floor. If all of the alcohol pumps are located above the main cabin floor, the alcohol shutoff valve need not be installed. In complying with paragraph (5) of AD-49-18-1, a fail-safe electric fuel shutoff valve may be used in lieu of the manually operated valve.

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23. Lines and fittings —(a) Engine compartment. C-46 engine compartments which comply with all applicable airworthiness directives, including AD-62-10-2, by using FAA approved fire-resistant lines, hoses, and end fittings, and engine compartments which meet the C-46 transport category requirements, meet the requirements of § 121.259. (b) Combustion heater compartments All lines, hoses, and end fittings, and couplings which carry fuel to the heaters and heater controls, must be of FAA approved fire-resistant construction. 24. Vent and drain lines —(a) Enginecompartment. C-46 engine compartments meet the requirements of § 121.261 if— (1) The compartments conform to type design and comply with all applicable airworthiness directives or FAA approved equivalent; and (2) Drain lines from supercharger case, engine-driven fuel pump, and engine-driven hydraulic pump reach into the scupper drain located in the lower cowling segment. (b) Combustion heater compartment. C-46 heater compartments meet the requirements of § 121.261 if they conform to AD-49-18-1 or FAA approved equivalent. 25. Fire-extinguishing system. (a) To meet the requirements of § 121.263, C-46 airplanes must have installed fire extinguishing systems to serve all designated fire zones. The fire-extinguishing systems, the quantity of extinguishing agent, and the rate of discharge shall be such as to provide a minimum of one adequate discharge for each designated fire zone. Compliance with this provision requires the installation of a separate fire extinguisher for each engine compartment. Insofar as the engine compartment is concerned, the system shall be capable of protecting the entire compartment against the various types of fires likely to occur in the compartment. (b) Fire-extinguishing systems which conform to the C-46 transport category requirements meet the requirements set forth in paragraph (a). Furthermore, fire-extinguishing systems for combustion heater compartments which conform to the requirements of AD-49-18-1 or an FAA approved equivalent also meet the requirements in paragraph (a). In addition, a fire-extinguishing system for C-46 airplanes meets the adequacy requirement of paragraph (a) if it provides the same or equivalent protection to that demonstrated by the CAA in tests conducted in 1941 and 1942, using a CW-20 type engine nacelle (without diaphragm). These tests were conducted at the Bureau of Standards facilities in Washington, DC, and copies of the test reports are available through the FAA Regional Engineering Offices. In this connection, the flow rates and distribution of extinguishing agent substantiated in American Airmotive Report No. 128-52-d, FAA approved February 9, 1953, provides protection equivalent to that demonstrated by the CAA in the CW-20 tests. In evaluating any C-46 fire-extinguishing system with respect to the aforementioned CW-20 tests, the Administration would require data in a narrative form, utilizing drawings or photographs to show at least the following: Installation of containers; installation and routing of plumbing; type, number, and location of outlets or nozzles; type, total volume, and distribution of extinguishing agent; length of time required for discharging; means for thermal relief, including type and location of discharge indicators; means of discharging, e.g., mechanical cutterheads, electric cartridge, or other method; and whether a one- or two-shot system is used; and if the latter is used, means of cross-feeding or otherwise selecting distribution of extinguishing agent; and types of materials used in makeup of plumbing. High rate discharge (HRD) systems using agents such as bromotrifluoromethane, dibrodifluoromethane and chlorobromomethane (CB), may also meet the requirements of paragraph (a). 26. Fire-extinguishing agents, Extinguishing agent container pressure relief, Extinguishing agent container compartment temperatures, and Fire-extinguishing system materials. No change from the requirements of §§ 121.265 through 121.271. 27. Fire-detector system. Compliance with the requirements of § 121.273 requires that C-46 fire detector systems conform to: (a) AD-62-10-2 or FAA approved equivalent for engine compartments; and (b) AD-49-18-1 or FAA approved equivalent for combustion heater compartments 28. Fire detectors. No change from the requirements of § 121.275. 29. Protection of other airplane components against fire. To meet the requirements of § 121.277, C-46 airplanes must— (a) Conform to the type design and all applicable airworthiness directives; and (b) Be modified or have operational procedures established to provide additional fire protection for the wheel well door aft of each engine compartment. Modifications may consist of improvements in sealing of the main landing gear wheel well doors. An operational procedure which is acceptable to the Agency is one requiring the landing gear control to be placed in the up position in case of in-flight engine fire. In accordance with § 121.315, such procedure must be set forth in the emergency portion of the operator's emergency checklist pertaining to in-flight engine fire. 30. Control of engine rotation. C-46 propeller feathering systems which conform to the type design and all applicable airworthiness directives meet the requirements of § 121.279.

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31. Fuel system independence. C-46 fuel systems which conform to the type design and all applicable airworthiness directives meet the requirements of § 121.281. 32. Induction system ice prevention. The C-46 carburetor anti-icing system which conforms to the type design and all applicable airworthiness directives meets the requirements of § 121.283. 33. Carriage of cargo in passenger compartments. Section 121.285 is not applicable to nontransport category C-46 cargo airplanes. 34. Carriage of cargo in cargo compartments. A standard cargo loading and tiedown arrangement set forth in the operator's manual and found acceptable to the Administrator must be used in complying with § 121.287. 35. Performance data. Performance data on Curtiss model C-46 airplane certificated for maximum weight of 45,000 and 48,000 pounds for cargo-only operations. 1. The following performance limitation data, applicable to the Curtiss model C-46 airplane for cargo-only operation, must be used in determining compliance with §§ 121.199 through 121.205. These data are presented in the tables and figures of this appendix. Table 1—Takeoff Limitations (a) Curtiss C-46 certificated for maximum weight of 45,000 pounds. (1) Effective length of runway required when effective length is determined in accordance with § 121.171 (distance to accelerate to 93 knots TIAS and stop, with zero wind and zero gradient). (Factor = 1.00)

[Distance in feet]
Standard altitude in feet	Airplane weight in pounds
	39,000	42,000	45,000  1
S.L	4,110	4,290	4,570
1,000	4,250	4,440	4,720
2,000	4,400	4,600	4,880
3,000	4,650	4,880	5,190
4,000	4,910	5,170	5,500
5,000	5,160	5,450	5,810
6,000	5,420	5,730	6,120
7,000	5,680	6,000	6,440
8,000	5,940	6,280	( 1 )
1  Ref. Fig. 1(a)(1) for weight and distance for altitudes above 7,000′.

(2) Actual length of runway required when effective length, considering obstacles, is not determined (distance to accelerate to 93 knots TIAS and stop, divided by the factor 0.85).

[Distance in feet]
Standard altitude in feet	Airplane weight in pounds
	39,000	42,000	45,000  1
S.L	4,830	5,050	5,370
1,000	5,000	5,230	5,550
2,000	5,170	5,410	5,740
3,000	5,470	5,740	6,100
4,000	5,770	6,080	6,470
5,000	6,070	6,410	6,830
6,000	6,380	6,740	7,200
7,000	6,680	7,070	7,570
8,000	6,990	7,410	( 1 )
1  Ref. Fig. 1(a)(2) for weight and distance for altitudes above 7,000′.

(b) Curtiss C-46 certificated for maximum weight 48,000 pounds. (1) Effective length of runway required when effective length is determined in accordance with § 121.171 (distance to accelerate to 93 knots TIAS and stop, with zero wind and zero gradient). (Factor = 1.00)

[Distance in feet]
Standard altitude in feet	Airplane weight in pounds
	39,000	42,000	45,000	48,000  1
S.L	4,110	4,290	4,570	4,950
1,000	4,250	4,440	4,720	5,130
2,000	4,400	4,600	4,880	5,300
3,000	4,650	4,880	5,190	5,670
4,000	4,910	5,170	5,500	6,050
5,000	5,160	5,450	5,810	6,420
6,000	5,420	5,730	6,120	6,800
7,000	5,680	6,000	6,440	( 1 )
8,000	5,940	6,280	6,750	( 1 )
1  Ref. Fig. 1(b)(1) for weight and distance for altitudes above 6,000′.

(2) Actual length of runway required when effective length, considering obstacles, is not determined (distance to accelerate to 93 knots TIAS and stop, divided by the factor 0.85).

[Distance in feet]
Standard altitude in feet	Airplane weight in pounds
	39,000	42,000	45,000	48,000  1
S.L	4,830	5,050	5,370	5,830
1,000	5,000	5,230	5,550	6,030
2,000	5,170	5,410	5,740	6,230
3,000	5,470	5,740	6,100	6,670
4,000	5,770	6,080	6,470	7,120
5,000	6,070	6,410	6,830	7,560
6,000	6,380	6,740	7,200	8,010
7,000	6,680	7,070	7,570	( 1 )
8,000	6,990	7,410	7,940	( 1 )
1  Ref. Fig. 1(b)(2) for weight and distance for altitudes above 6,000′.

Table 2—En Route Limitations (a) Curtiss model C-46 certificated for maximum weight of 45,000 pounds (based on a climb speed of 113 knots (TIAS)).

Weight (pounds)	Terrain clearance (feet)  1	Blower setting
45,000	6,450	Low.
44,000	7,000	Do.
43,000	7,500	Do.
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42,200	8,000	High.
41,000	9,600	Do.
40,000	11,000	Do.
39,000	12,300	Do.
1  Highest altitude of terrain over which airplanes may be operated in compliance with § 121.201.
Ref. Fig. 2(a).

(b) Curtiss model C-46 certificated for maximum weight of 48,000 pounds or with engine installation approved for 2,550 revolutions per minute (1,700 brake horsepower). Maximum continuous power in low blower (based on a climb speed of 113 knots (TIAS)).

Weight (pounds)	Terrain clearance (feet)  1	Blower setting
48,000	5,850	Low.
47,000	6,300	Do.
46,000	6,700	Do.
45,000	7,200	Do.
44,500	7,450	Do.
44,250	8,000	High.
44,000	8,550	Do.
43,000	10,800	Do.
42,000	12,500	Do.
41,000	13,000	Do.
1  Highest altitude of terrain over which airplanes may be operated in compliance with § 121.201.
Ref. Fig. 2(b).

Table 3—Landing Limitations (a) Intended Destination. Effective length of runway required for intended destination when effective length is determined in accordance with § 121.171 with zero wind and zero gradient. (1) Curtiss model C-46 certificated for maximum weight of 45,000 pounds. (0.60 factor)

Distance in feet
Standard altitude in feet	Airplane weight in pounds and approach speeds  1 in knots
	40,000	V 50	42,000	V 50	44,000	V 50	45,000	V 50
S.L	4,320	86	4,500	88	4,700	90	4,800	91
1,000	4,440	86	4,620	88	4,830	90	4,930	91
2,000	4,550	86	4,750	88	4,960	90	5,050	91
3,000	4,670	86	4,880	88	5,090	90	5,190	91
4,000	4,800	86	5,000	88	5,220	90	5,320	91
5,000	4,920	86	5,140	88	5,360	90	5,460	91
6,000	5,040	86	5,270	88	5,550	90	5,600	91
7,000	5,170	86	5,410	88	5,650	90	5,750	91
8,000	5,310	86	5,550	88	5,800	90	5,900	91
1  Steady approach speed through 50-foot height TIAS denoted by symbol V 50 .
Ref. Fig. 3(a)(1).

(2) Curtiss model C-46 certificated for maximum weight of 48,000 pounds.  1  (0.60 factor.)

Distance in feet
Standard altitude in feet	Airplane weight in pounds and approach speeds  2 in knots
	42,000	V 50	44,000	V 50	46,000	V 50	43,000	V 50
S.L	3,370	80	3,490	82	3,620	84	3,740	86
1,000	3,460	80	3,580	82	3,710	84	3,830	86
2,000	3,540	80	3,670	82	3,800	84	3,920	86
3,000	3,630	80	3,760	82	3,890	84	4,020	86
4,000	3,720	80	3,850	82	3,980	84	4,110	86
5,000	3,800	80	3,940	82	4,080	84	4,220	86
6,000	3,890	80	4,040	82	4,180	84	4,320	86
7,000	3,980	80	4,140	82	4,280	84	4,440	86
8,000	4,080	80	4,240	82	4,390	84	4,550	86
1  For use with Curtiss model C-46 airplanes when approved for this weight.
2  Steady approach speed through 50 height knots TIAS denoted by symbol V 50 3.
Ref. Fig. 3(a)(2).

(b) Alternate Airports. Effective length of runway required when effective length is determined in accordance with § 121.171 with zero wind and zero gradient. (1) Curtiss model C-46 certificated for maximum weight of 45,000 pounds. (0.70 factor.)

Distance in feet
Standard altitude in feet	Airplane weight in pounds and approach speeds  1 in knots
	40,000	V 50	42,000	V 50	44,000	V 50	45,000	V 50
S.L	3,700	86	3,860	88	4,030	90	4,110	91
1,000	3,800	86	3,960	88	4,140	90	4,220	91
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2,000	3,900	86	4,070	88	4,250	90	4,340	91
3,000	4,000	86	4,180	88	4,360	90	4,450	91
4,000	4,110	86	4,290	88	4,470	90	4,560	91
5,000	4,210	86	4,400	88	4,590	90	4,680	91
6,000	4,330	86	4,510	88	4,710	90	4,800	91
7,000	4,430	86	4,630	88	4,840	90	4,930	91
8,000	4,550	86	4,750	88	4,970	90	5,060	91
1  Steady approach speed through 50 foot-height-knots TIAS denoted by symbol V 50 .
Ref. Fig. 3(b)(1).

(2) Curtiss model C-46 certificated for maximum weight of 48,000 pounds.  1  (0.70 factor.)

Distance in feet
Standard altitude in feet	Airplane weight in pounds and approach speeds  2 in knots
	42,000	V 50	44,000	V 50	46,000	V 50	48,000	V 50
S.L	2,890	80	3,000	82	3,110	84	3,220	86
1,000	2,960	80	3,070	82	3,180	84	3,280	86
2,000	3,040	80	3,150	82	3,260	84	3,360	86
3,000	3,110	80	3,220	82	3,340	84	3,440	86
4,000	3,180	80	3,300	82	3,410	84	3,520	86
5,000	3,260	80	3,380	82	3,500	84	3,610	86
6,000	3,330	80	3,460	82	3,580	84	3,700	86
7,000	3,420	80	3,540	82	3,670	84	3,800	86
8,000	3,500	80	3,630	82	3,760	84	3,900	86
1  For use with Curtiss model C-46 airplanes when approved for this weight.
2  Steady approach speed through 50 foot-height-knots TIAS denoted by symbol V 50 .
Ref. Fig. 3(b)(2).

(c) Actual length of runway required when effective length, considering obstacles, is not determined in accordance with § 121.171. (1) Curtiss model C-46 certificated for maximum weight of 45,000 pounds. (0.55 factor.)

Distance in feet
Standard altitude in feet	Airplane weight in pounds and approach speeds  1 in knots
	40,000	V 50	42,000	V 50	44,000	V 50	45,000	V 50
S.L	4,710	86	4,910	88	5,130	90	5,230	91
1,000	4,840	86	5,050	88	5,270	90	5,370	91
2,000	4,960	86	5,180	88	5,410	90	5,510	91
3,000	5,090	86	5,320	88	5,550	90	5,660	91
4,000	5,230	86	5,460	88	5,700	90	5,810	91
5,000	5,360	86	5,600	88	5,850	90	5,960	91
6,000	5,500	86	5,740	88	6,000	90	6,110	91
7,000	5,640	86	5,900	88	6,170	90	6,280	91
8,000	5,790	86	6,050	88	6,340	90	6,450	91
1  Steady approach speed through 50 foot-height-knots TIAS denoted by symbol V 50 .
Ref. Fig. 3(c)(1).

(2) Curtiss C-46 certificated for maximum weight of 48,000 pounds.  1  (0.55 factor.)

Distance in feet
Standard altitude in feet	Airplane weight in pounds and approach speeds  2 in knots
	42,000	V 50	44,000	V 50	46,000	V 50	48,000	V 50
S.L	3,680	80	3,820	82	3,960	84	4,090	86
1,000	3,770	80	3,910	82	4,050	84	4,180	86
2,000	3,860	80	4,000	82	4,140	84	4,280	86
3,000	3,960	80	4,090	82	4,240	84	4,380	86
4,000	4,050	80	4,190	82	4,340	84	4,490	86
5,000	4,150	80	4,290	82	4,450	84	4,600	86
6,000	4,240	80	4,400	82	4,560	84	4,710	86
7,000	4,350	80	4,510	82	4,670	84	4,840	86
8,000	4,450	80	4,620	82	4,790	84	4,960	86
1  For use with Curtiss model C-46 airplanes when approved for this weight.
2  Steady approach speed through 50 foot-height-knots TIAS denoted by symbol V 50 . Code of Federal Regulations / Title 14 - Aeronautics and Space / Vol. 1 / 2025-01-01284
Ref. Fig. 3(c)(2).

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[Please see PDF for image: EC26SE91.022] [Docket 4080, 30 FR 258, Jan. 3, 1965; 30 FR 481, Jan. 14, 1965, as amended by Amdt. 121-207, 54 FR 39293, Sept. 25, 1989; Docket FAA-2018-0119, Amdt. 121-380, 83 FR 9173, Mar. 5, 2018]

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Pt. 121, App. D Appendix D to Part 121—Criteria for Demonstration of Emergency Evacuation Procedures Under § 121.291 (a) Aborted takeoff demonstration. (1) The demonstration must be conducted either during the dark of the night or during daylight with the dark of the night simulated. If the demonstration is conducted indoors during daylight hours, it must be conducted with each window covered and each door closed to minimize the daylight effect. Illumination on the floor or ground may be used, but it must be kept low and shielded against shining into the airplane's windows or doors.

(2) The airplane must be a normal ground attitude with landing gear extended. (3) Unless the airplane is equipped with an off-wing descent means, stands or ramps may be used for descent from the wing to the ground. Safety equipment such as mats or inverted life rafts may be placed on the floor or ground to protect participants. No other equipment that is not part of the emergency evacuation equipment of the airplane may be used to aid the participants in reaching the ground. (4) The airplane's normal electrical power sources must be deenergized. (5) All emergency equipment for the type of passenger-carrying operation involved must be installed in accordance with the certificate holder's manual. (6) Each external door and exit, and each internal door or curtain must be in position to simulate a normal takeoff. (7) A representative passenger load of persons in normal health must be used. At least 40 percent of the passenger load must be females. At least 35 percent of the passenger load must be over 50 years of age. At least 15 percent of the passenger load must be female and over 50 year of age. Three life-size dolls, not included as part of the total passenger load, must be carried by passengers to simulate live infants 2 years old or younger. Crewmembers, mechanics, and training personnel, who maintain or operate the airplane in the normal course of their duties, may not be used as passengers. (8) No passenger may be assigned a specific seat except as the Administrator may require. Except as required by item (12) of this paragraph, no employee of the certificate holder may be seated next to an emergency exit. (9) Seat belts and shoulder harnesses (as required) must be fastened. (10) Before the start of the demonstration, approximately one-half of the total average amount of carry-on baggage, blankets, pillows, and other similar articles must be distributed at several locations in the aisles and emergency exit access ways to create minor obstructions. (11) The seating density and arrangement of the airplane must be representative of the highest capacity passenger version of that airplane the certificate holder operates or proposes to operate. (12) Each crewmember must be a member of a regularly scheduled line crew, except that flight crewmembers need not be members of a regularly scheduled line crew, provided they have knowledge of the airplane. Each crewmember must be seated in the seat the crewmember is normally assigned for takeoff, and must remain in that seat until the signal for commencement of the demonstration is received. (13) No crewmember or passenger may be given prior knowledge of the emergency exits available for the demonstration. (14) The certificate holder may not practice, rehearse, or describe the demonstration for the participants nor may any participant have taken part in this type of demonstration within the preceding 6 months. (15) The pretakeoff passenger briefing required by § 121.571 may be given in accordance with the certificate holder's manual. The passengers may also be warned to follow directions of crewmembers, but may not be instructed on the procedures to be followed in the demonstration. (16) If safety equipment as allowed by item (3) of this section is provided, either all passenger and cockpit windows must be blacked out or all of the emergency exits must have safety equipment in order to prevent disclosure of the available emergency exits. (17) Not more than 50 percent of the emergency exits in the sides of the fuselage of an airplane that meet all of the requirements applicable to the required emergency exits for that airplane may be used for the demonstration. Exits that are not to be used in the demonstration must have the exit handle deactivated or must be indicated by red lights, red tape, or other acceptable means, placed outside the exits to indicate fire or other reason that they are unusable. The exits to be used must be representative of all of the emergency exits on the airplane and must be designated by the certificate holder, subject to approval by the Administrator. At least one floor level exit must be used. (18) Except as provided in paragraph (a)(3) of this appendix, all evacuees must leave the airplane by a means provided as part of the airplane's equipment. (19) The certificate holder's approved procedures and all of the emergency equipment that is normally available, including slides, ropes, lights, and megaphones, must be fully utilized during the demonstration, except that the flightcrew must take no active role in assisting others inside the cabin during the demonstration. (20) The evacuation time period is completed when the last occupant has evacuated the airplane and is on the ground. Evacuees using stands or ramps allowed by item (3) above are considered to be on the ground when they are on the stand or ramp: Provided, That the acceptance rate of the stand or ramp is no greater than the acceptance rate of the means available on the airplane for descent from the wing during an actual crash situation.

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(b) Ditching demonstration. The demonstration must assume that daylight hours exist outside the airplane, and that all required crewmembers are available for the demonstration. (1) If the certificate holder's manual requires the use of passengers to assist in the launching of liferafts, the needed passengers must be aboard the airplane and participate in the demonstration according to the manual. (2) A stand must be placed at each emergency exit and wing, with the top of the platform at a height simulating the water level of the airplane following a ditching. (3) After the ditching signal has been received, each evacuee must don a life vest according to the certificate holder's manual. (4) Each liferaft must be launched and inflated, according to the certificate holder's manual, and all other required emergency equipment must be placed in rafts. (5) Each evacuee must enter a liferaft, and the crewmembers assigned to each liferaft must indicate the location of emergency equipment aboard the raft and describe its use. (6) Either the airplane, a mockup of the airplane or a floating device simulating a passenger compartment must be used. (i) If a mockup of the airplane is used, it must be a life-size mockup of the interior and representative of the airplane currently used by or proposed to be used by the certificate holder, and must contain adequate seats for use of the evacuees. Operation of the emergency exits and the doors must closely simulate those on the airplane. Sufficient wing area must be installed outside the over-the-wing exits to demonstrate the evacuation. (ii) If a floating device simulating a passenger compartment is used, it must be representative, to the extent possible, of the passenger compartment of the airplane used in operations. Operation of the emergency exits and the doors must closely simulate operation on that airplane. Sufficient wing area must be installed outside the over-the-wing exits to demonstrate the evacuation. The device must be equipped with the same survival equipment as is installed on the airplane, to accommodate all persons participating in the demonstration. [Docket 2033, 30 FR 3206, Mar. 9, 1965, as amended by Amdt. 121-30, 32 FR 13268, Sept. 20, 1967; Amdt. 121-41, 33 FR 9067, June 20, 1968; Amdt. 121-46, 34 FR 5545, Mar. 22, 1969; Amdt. 121-47, 34 FR 11489, July 11, 1969; Amdt. 121-233, 58 FR 45230, Aug. 26, 1993] Pt. 121, App. E Appendix E to Part 121—Flight Training Requirements (a) The maneuvers and procedures required by § 121.424 for pilot initial, transition, and conversion flight training are set forth in the certificate holder's approved low-altitude windshear flight training program, § 121.423 extended envelope training, and in this appendix. The maneuvers and procedures required for upgrade training in accordance with § 121.424 are set forth in this appendix and in the certificate holder's approved low-altitude windshear flight training program and § 121.423 extended envelope training. For the maneuvers and procedures required for upgrade training in accordance with § 121.426, this appendix designates the airplane or FSTD, as appropriate, that may be used.

(b) All required maneuvers and procedures must be performed inflight except that windshear and extended envelope training maneuvers and procedures must be performed in a full flight simulator (FFS) in which the maneuvers and procedures are specifically authorized to be accomplished. Certain other maneuvers and procedures may be performed in an FFS, an FTD, or a static airplane as indicated by the appropriate symbol in the respective column opposite the maneuver or procedure. (c) Whenever a maneuver or procedure is authorized to be performed in an FTD, it may be performed in an FFS, and in some cases, a static airplane. Whenever the requirement may be performed in either an FTD or a static airplane, the appropriate symbols are entered in the respective columns. (d) A Level B or higher FFS may be used instead of the airplane to satisfy the inflight requirements if the FFS is approved under § 121.407 and is used as part of an approved program that meets the requirements for an Advanced Simulation Training Program in Appendix H of this part. (e) For the purpose of this appendix, the following symbols mean— I = Pilot in Command (PIC) and Second in Command (SIC) initial training T = PIC and SIC transition training U = SIC to PIC upgrade training C = Flight engineer (FE) to SIC conversion training

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Maneuvers/procedures	Inflight	Static airplane	FFS	FTD
As appropriate to the airplane and the operation involved, flight training for pilots must include the following maneuvers and procedures
I. Preflight:
(a) Visual inspection of the exterior and interior of the airplane, the location of each item to be inspected, and the purpose for inspecting it. The visual inspection may be conducted using an approved pictorial means that realistically portrays the location and detail of visual inspection items and provides for the portrayal of normal and abnormal conditions		I, T, U, C
(b) Use of the prestart checklist, appropriate control system checks, starting procedures, radio and electronic equipment checks, and the selection of proper navigation and communications radio facilities and frequencies prior to flight			I, T, U, C
(c) Taxiing. This maneuver includes the following:
(1) Taxiing, sailing, and docking procedures in compliance with instructions issued by ATC or by the person conducting the training	I, T, U, C
(2) Use of airport diagram (surface movement chart)	I, T, U, C
(3) Obtaining appropriate clearance before crossing or entering active runways	I, T, U, C
(4) Observation of all surface movement guidance control markings and lighting	I, T, U, C
(d) Pre-takeoff procedures that include powerplant checks, receipt of takeoff clearance and confirmation of aircraft location, and FMS entry (if appropriate) for departure runway prior to crossing hold short line for takeoff			I, T, U, C
II. Takeoffs:
Training in takeoffs must include the types and conditions listed below but more than one type may be combined where appropriate:
(a) Normal takeoffs which, for the purpose of this maneuver, begin when the airplane is taxied into position on the runway to be used	I, T, U, C
(b) Takeoffs with instrument conditions simulated at or before reaching an altitude of 100′ above the airport elevation			I, T, U, C
(c) Crosswind takeoffs, including crosswind takeoffs with gusts if practicable under the existing meteorological, airport, and traffic conditions	I, T, U, C
(d) Takeoffs with a simulated failure of the most critical powerplant—			I, T, U, C
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(1) At a point after V1 and before V2 that in the judgment of the person conducting the training is appropriate to the airplane type under the prevailing conditions; or			I, T, U, C
(2) At a point as close as possible after V1 when V1 and V2 or V1 and VR are identical; or			I, T, U, C
(3) At the appropriate speed for nontransport category airplanes			I, T, U, C
(e) Rejected takeoffs accomplished during a normal takeoff run after reaching a reasonable speed determined by giving due consideration to aircraft characteristics, runway length, surface conditions, wind direction and velocity, brake heat energy, and any other pertinent factors that may adversely affect safety or the airplane			I, T, U, C
(f) Night takeoffs. For pilots in transition training, this requirement may be met during the operating experience required under § 121.434 by performing a normal takeoff at night when a check pilot serving as PIC is occupying a pilot station	I, T, U, C
III. Flight Maneuvers and Procedures:
(a) Turns with and without spoilers			I, T, U, C
(b) Tuck and Mach buffet			I, T, U, C
(c) Maximum endurance and maximum range procedures			I, T, U, C
(d) Operation of systems and controls at the flight engineer station			I, T, U
(e) Runaway and jammed stabilizer			I, T, U, C
(f) Normal and abnormal or alternate operation of the following systems and procedures:
(1) Pressurization				I, T, U, C.
(2) Pneumatic				I, T, U, C.
(3) Air conditioning				I, T, U, C.
(4) Fuel and oil		I, T, U, C		I, T, U, C.
(5) Electrical		I, T, U, C		I, T, U, C.
(6) Hydraulic		I, T, U, C		I, T, U, C.
(7) Flight control		I, T, U, C		I, T, U, C.
(8) Anti-icing and deicing			I, T, U, C
(9) Autopilot			I, T, U, C
(10) Automatic or other approach aids			I, T, U, C
(11) Stall warning devices, stall avoidance devices, and stability augmentation devices			I, T, U, C
(12) Airborne radar devices			I, T, U, C
(13) Any other systems, devices, or aids available			I, T, U, C
(14) Electrical, hydraulic, flight control, and flight instrument system malfunctioning or failure		I, T, U, C		I, T, U, C.
(15) Landing gear and flap systems failure or malfunction		I, T, U, C		I, T, U, C.
(16) Failure of navigation or communications equipment			I, T, U, C
(g) Flight emergency procedures that include at least the following:
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(1) Powerplant, heater, cargo compartment, cabin, flight deck, wing, and electrical fires		I, T, U, C		I, T, U, C.
(2) Smoke control		I, T, U, C		I, T, U, C.
(3) Powerplant failures			I, T	U, C.
(4) Fuel jettisoning		I, T, U, C		I, T, U, C.
(5) Any other emergency procedures outlined in the appropriate flight manual			I, T, U, C
(h) Steep turns in each direction. Each steep turn must involve a bank angle of 45° with a heading change of at least 180° but not more than 360°. This maneuver is not required for Group I transition training			I, T, U, C
(i) Stall Prevention. For the purpose of this training the approved recovery procedure must be initiated at the first indication of an impending stall (buffet, stick shaker, aural warning). Stall prevention training must be conducted in at least the following configurations:			I, T, U, C
(1) Takeoff configuration (except where the airplane uses only a zero-flap takeoff configuration)			I, T, U, C
(2) Clean configuration			I, T, U, C
(3) Landing configuration			I, T, U, C
(j) Recovery from specific flight characteristics that are peculiar to the airplane type			I, T, U, C
(k) Instrument procedures that include the following:
(1) Area departure and arrival			I, T, U, C
(2) Use of navigation systems including adherence to assigned radials			I, T, U, C
(3) Holding			I, T, U, C
(l) ILS instrument approaches that include the following:
(1) Normal ILS approaches	I, T, U, C
(2) Manually controlled ILS approaches with a simulated failure of one powerplant which occurs before initiating the final approach course and continues to touchdown or through the missed approach procedure	I		T, U, C
(m) Instrument approaches and missed approaches other than ILS which include the following:
(1) Nonprecision approaches that the pilot is likely to use			U, C	I, T.
(2) In addition to subparagraph (1) of this paragraph, at least one other nonprecision approach and missed approach procedure that the pilot is likely to use			I, T, U, C
In connection with paragraphs III(l) and III(m), each instrument approach must be performed according to any procedures and limitations approved for the approach facility used. The instrument approach begins when the airplane is over the initial approach fix for the approach procedure being used (or turned over to the final approach controller in the case of GCA approach) and ends when the airplane touches down on the runway or when transition to a missed approach configuration is completed
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(n) Circling approaches which include the following:	I, T, U, C
(1) That portion of the circling approach to the authorized minimum altitude for the procedure being used must be made under simulated instrument conditions	I, T, U, C
(2) The circling approach must be made to the authorized minimum circling approach altitude followed by a change in heading and the necessary maneuvering (by visual reference) to maintain a flight path that permits a normal landing on a runway at least 90° from the final approach course of the simulated instrument portion of the approach	I, T, U, C
(3) The circling approach must be performed without excessive maneuvering, and without exceeding the normal operating limits of the airplane. The angle of bank should not exceed 30°	I, T, U, C
Training in the circling approach maneuver is not required if the certificate holder's manual prohibits a circling approach in weather conditions below 1000-3 (ceiling and visibility)
(o) Zero-flap approaches. Training in this maneuver is not required for a particular airplane type if the Administrator has determined that the probability of flap extension failure on that type airplane is extremely remote due to system design. In making this determination, the Administrator determines whether training on slats only and partial flap approaches is necessary	I, C		T, U
(p) Missed approaches which include the following:
(1) Missed approaches from ILS approaches			I, T, U, C
(2) Other missed approaches				I, T, U, C.
(3) Missed approaches that include a complete approved missed approach procedure				I, T, U, C.
(4) Missed approaches that include a powerplant failure			I, T, U, C
IV. Landings and Approaches to Landings:
Training in landings and approaches to landings must include the types and conditions listed below but more than one type may be combined where appropriate:
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(a) Normal landings	I, T, U, C
(b) Landing and go around with the horizontal stabilizer out of trim	I, C		T	U.
(c) Landing in sequence from an ILS instrument approach	I		T, U, C
(d) Crosswind landing, including crosswind landings with gusts if practicable under the existing meteorological, airport, and traffic conditions	I, T, U, C
(e) Maneuvering to a landing with simulated powerplant failure, as follows:
(1) For 3-engine airplanes, maneuvering to a landing with an approved procedure that approximates the loss of two powerplants (center and one outboard engine)	I, C		T, U
(2) For other multiengine airplanes, maneuvering to a landing with a simulated failure of 50 percent of available powerplants with the simulated loss of power on one side of the airplane	I, C		T, U
(f) Landing under simulated circling approach conditions (exceptions under III(n) applicable to this requirement)	I		T, U, C
(g) Rejected landings that include a normal missed approach procedure after the landing is rejected. For the purpose of this maneuver the landing should be rejected at approximately 50 feet and approximately over the runway threshold	I		T, U, C
(h) Zero-flap landings if the Administrator finds that maneuver appropriate for training in the airplane	I, C		T, U
(i) Manual reversion			I, T, U, C
(j) Night landings. For pilots in transition training, this requirement may be met during the operating experience required under § 121.434 by performing a normal landing at night when a check pilot serving as PIC is occupying a pilot station	I, T, U, C

[Amdt. 121-382, 85 FR 10926, Feb. 25, 2020, as amended by Docket FAA-2019-0360, Amdt. 121-392, 89 FR 51429, June 18, 2024] Pt. 121, App. F Appendix F to Part 121—Proficiency Check Requirements (a) The maneuvers and procedures required by § 121.441 for pilot proficiency checks are set forth in this appendix. Except for the equipment examination, these maneuvers and procedures must be performed inflight. Certain maneuvers and procedures may be performed in an FFS or an FTD as indicated by the appropriate symbol in the respective column opposite the maneuver or procedure.

(b) Whenever a maneuver or procedure is authorized to be performed in an FTD, it may be performed in an FFS. (c) A Level B or higher FFS may be used instead of the airplane to satisfy the inflight requirements if the FFS is approved under § 121.407 and is used as part of an approved program that meets the requirements for an Advanced Simulation Training Program in Appendix H of this part. (d) For the purpose of this appendix, the following symbols mean— B = Both Pilot in Command (PIC) and Second in Command (SIC). W = May be waived for both PIC and SIC, except during a proficiency check conducted to qualify a PIC after completing an upgrade training curriculum in accordance with §§ 121.420 and 121.426.

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* = A symbol and asterisk (B* or W*) indicates that a particular condition is specified in the maneuvers and procedures column. # = When a maneuver is preceded by this symbol it indicates the maneuver may be required in the airplane at the discretion of the person conducting the check. (e) Throughout the maneuvers and procedures prescribed in this appendix, good judgment commensurate with a high level of safety must be demonstrated. In determining whether such judgment has been shown, the person conducting the check considers adherence to approved procedures, actions based on analysis of situations for which there is no prescribed procedure or recommended practice, and qualities of prudence and care in selecting a course of action.

Maneuvers/procedures	Required		Permitted
	Simulated instrument conditions	Inflight	FFS	FTD	Waiver provisions of § 121.441(d)
The procedures and maneuvers set forth in this appendix must be performed in a manner that satisfactorily demonstrates knowledge and skill with respect to—
(1) The airplane, its systems and components;
(2) Proper control of airspeed, configuration, direction, altitude, and attitude in accordance with procedures and limitations contained in the approved Airplane Flight Manual, the certificate holder's operations manual, checklists, or other approved material appropriate to the airplane type; and
(3) Compliance with approach, ATC, or other applicable procedures.
I. Preflight:
(a) Equipment examination (oral or written). As part of the proficiency check the equipment examination must be closely coordinated with, and related to, the flight maneuvers portion but may not be given during the flight maneuvers portion. The equipment examination must cover—
(1) Subjects requiring a practical knowledge of the airplane, its powerplants, systems, components, operational and performance factors;
(2) Normal, abnormal, and emergency procedures, and the operations and limitations relating thereto; and
(3) The appropriate provisions of the approved Airplane Flight Manual
The person conducting the check may accept, as equal to this equipment examination, an equipment examination given to the pilot in the certificate holder's ground training within the preceding 6 calendar months
(b) Preflight inspection. The pilot must—
(1) Conduct an actual visual inspection of the exterior and interior of the airplane, locating each item and explaining briefly the purpose for inspecting it. The visual inspection may be conducted using an approved pictorial means that realistically portrays the location and detail of visual inspection items and provides for the portrayal of normal and abnormal conditions. If a flight engineer is a required flightcrew member for the particular type airplane, the visual inspection may be waived under § 121.441(d)				B	W*
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(2) Demonstrate the use of the prestart checklist, appropriate control system checks, starting procedures, radio and electronic equipment checks, and the selection of proper navigation and communications radio facilities and frequencies prior to flight				B
(c) Taxiing. This maneuver includes the following: (1) Taxiing, sailing, or docking procedures in compliance with instructions issued by ATC or by the person conducting the check. (2) Use of airport diagram (surface movement chart). (3) Obtaining appropriate clearance before crossing or entering active runways. (4) Observation of all surface movement guidance control markings and lighting. SIC proficiency checks for a type rating must include taxiing. However, other SIC proficiency checks need only include taxiing to the extent practical from the seat position assigned to the SIC		B
(d) Pre-takeoff procedures that include powerplant checks, receipt of takeoff clearance and confirmation of aircraft location, and FMS entry (if appropriate), for departure runway prior to crossing hold short line for takeoff			B
II. Takeoff:
Takeoffs must include the types listed below, but more than one type may be combined where appropriate:
(a) Normal. One normal takeoff which, for the purpose of this maneuver, begins when the airplane is taxied into position on the runway to be used		B*
(b) Instrument. One takeoff with instrument conditions simulated at or before reaching an altitude of 100′ above the airport elevation	B		B*
(c) Crosswind. One crosswind takeoff with gusts, if practicable, under the existing meteorological, airport, and traffic conditions		B*
#(d) Powerplant failure. One takeoff with a simulated failure of the most critical powerplant—			B
(1) At a point after V1 and before V2 that in the judgment of the person conducting the check is appropriate to the airplane type under the prevailing conditions;			B
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(2) At a point as close as possible after V1 when V1 and V2 or V1 and Vr are identical; or			B
(3) At the appropriate speed for nontransport category airplanes			B
(e) Rejected. A rejected takeoff may be performed in an airplane during a normal takeoff run after reaching a reasonable speed determined by giving due consideration to aircraft characteristics, runway length, surface conditions, wind direction and velocity, brake heat energy, and any other pertinent factors that may adversely affect safety or the airplane			B*		W
III. Instrument procedures:
(a) Area departure and area arrival. During each of these maneuvers the pilot must—	B		B		W*
(1) Adhere to actual or simulated ATC clearances (including assigned radials); and	B		B
(2) Properly use available navigation facilities	B		B
Either area arrival or area departure, but not both, may be waived under § 121.441(d).
(b) Holding. This maneuver includes entering, maintaining, and leaving holding patterns. It may be performed in connection with either area departure or area arrival	B		B		W
(c) ILS and other instrument approaches. There must be the following:
(1) At least one normal ILS approach	B		B
(2) At least one manually controlled ILS approach with a simulated failure of one powerplant. The simulated failure should occur before initiating the final approach course and must continue to touchdown or through the missed approach procedure	B	B
(3) At least one nonprecision approach procedure using a type of nonprecision approach procedure that the certificate holder is approved to use	B		B
(4) At least one nonprecision approach procedure using a different type of nonprecision approach procedure than performed under subparagraph (3) of this paragraph that the certificate holder is approved to use	B			B
(5) For each type of EFVS operation the certificate holder is authorized to conduct, at least one instrument approach must be made using an EFVS	B	B*
Each instrument approach must be performed according to any procedures and limitations approved for the approach procedure used. The instrument approach begins when the airplane is over the initial approach fix for the approach procedure being used (or turned over to the final approach controller in the case of GCA approach) and ends when the airplane touches down on the runway or when transition to a missed approach configuration is completed. Instrument conditions need not be simulated below 100′ above touchdown zone elevation.
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(d) Circling approaches. If the certificate holder is approved for circling minimums below 1000-3 (ceiling and visibility), at least one circling approach must be made under the following conditions—			B*		W*
(1) The portion of the approach to the authorized minimum circling approach altitude must be made under simulated instrument conditions	B		B*
(2) The approach must be made to the authorized minimum circling approach altitude followed by a change in heading and the necessary maneuvering (by visual reference) to maintain a flight path that permits a normal landing on a runway at least 90° from the final approach course of the simulated instrument portion of the approach			B*
(3) The circling approach must be performed without excessive maneuvering, and without exceeding the normal operating limits of the airplane. The angle of bank should not exceed 30°			B*
If local conditions beyond the control of the pilot prohibit the maneuver or prevent it from being performed as required, it may be waived as provided in § 121.441(d). However, the maneuver may not be waived under this provision for two successive proficiency checks. Except for a SIC proficiency check for a type rating, the circling approach maneuver is not required for a SIC if the certificate holder's manual prohibits a SIC from performing a circling approach in operations under this part.
(e) Missed approach.
(1) At least one missed approach from an ILS approach			B*
(2) At least one additional missed approach for SIC proficiency checks for a type rating and for all PIC proficiency checks			B*
A complete approved missed approach procedure must be accomplished at least once. At the discretion of the person conducting the check a simulated powerplant failure may be required during any of the missed approaches. These maneuvers may be performed either independently or in conjunction with maneuvers required under Sections III or V of this appendix. At least one missed approach must be performed inflight.
IV. Inflight Maneuvers:
(a) Steep turns. For SIC proficiency checks for a type rating and for all PIC proficiency checks, at least one steep turn in each direction must be performed. Each steep turn must involve a bank angle of 45° with a heading change of at least 180° but not more than 360°	B		B		W
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(b) Stall Prevention. For the purpose of this maneuver the approved recovery procedure must be initiated at the first indication of an impending stall (buffet, stick shaker, aural warning). Except as provided below there must be at least three stall prevention recoveries as follows:	B		B		W*
(1) Takeoff configuration (except where the airplane uses only a zero-flap takeoff configuration)	B		B
(2) Clean configuration	B		B
(3) Landing configuration	B		B
At the discretion of the person conducting the check, one stall prevention recovery must be performed in one of the above configurations while in a turn with the bank angle between 15° and 30°. Two out of the three stall prevention recoveries required by this paragraph may be waived.
If the certificate holder is authorized to dispatch or flight release the airplane with a stall warning device inoperative the device may not be used during this maneuver.
(c) Specific flight characteristics. Recovery from specific flight characteristics that are peculiar to the airplane type			B		W
(d) Powerplant failures. In addition to specific requirements for maneuvers with simulated powerplant failures, the person conducting the check may require a simulated powerplant failure at any time during the check			B
V. Landings and Approaches to Landings:
Notwithstanding the authorizations for combining and waiving maneuvers and for the use of an FFS, at least two actual landings (one to a full stop) must be made for all PIC proficiency checks, all initial SIC proficiency checks, and all SIC proficiency checks for a type rating
Landings and approaches to landings must include the types listed below, but more than one type may be combined where appropriate:
(a) Normal landing		B
(b) Landing in sequence from an ILS instrument approach except that if circumstances beyond the control of the pilot prevent an actual landing, the person conducting the check may accept an approach to a point where in his judgment a landing to a full stop could have been made		B*
(c) Crosswind landing with gusts, if practicable under existing meteorological, airport, and traffic conditions		B*
(d) Maneuvering to a landing with simulated powerplant failure as follows:
(1) In the case of 3-engine airplanes, maneuvering to a landing with an approved procedure that approximates the loss of two powerplants (center and one outboard engine); or			B*
(2) In the case of other multiengine airplanes, maneuvering to a landing with a simulated failure of 50 percent of available powerplants, with the simulated loss of power on one side of the airplane			B*
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Notwithstanding the requirements of subparagraphs (d)(1) and (2) of this paragraph, for an SIC proficiency check, except for an SIC proficiency check for a type rating, the simulated loss of power may be only the most critical powerplant. In addition, a PIC may omit the maneuver required by subparagraph (d)(1) or (d)(2) of this paragraph during a required proficiency check or FFS course of training if the PIC satisfactorily performed that maneuver during the preceding proficiency check, or during the preceding approved FFS course of training under the observation of a check pilot, whichever was completed later.
(e) Except as provided in paragraph (f) of this section, if the certificate holder is approved for circling minimums below 1000-3 (ceiling and visibility), a landing under simulated circling approach conditions. However, when performed in an airplane, if circumstances beyond the control of the pilot prevent a landing, the person conducting the check may accept an approach to a point where, in his judgment, a landing to a full stop could have been made			B*
#(f) A rejected landing, including a normal missed approach procedure, that is rejected approximately 50′ over the runway and approximately over the runway threshold. This maneuver may be combined with instrument, circling, or missed approach procedures, but instrument conditions need not be simulated below 100 feet above the runway			B
(g) If the certificate holder is authorized to conduct EFVS operations to touchdown and rollout, at least one instrument approach to a landing must be made using an EFVS, including the use of enhanced flight vision from 100 feet above the touchdown zone elevation to touchdown and rollout	B	B*
(h) If the certificate holder is authorized to conduct EFVS operations to 100 feet above the touchdown zone elevation, at least one instrument approach to a landing must be made using an EFVS, including the transition from enhanced flight vision to natural vision at 100 feet above the touchdown zone elevation	B	B*
VI. Normal and Abnormal Procedures:
Each pilot must demonstrate the proper use of as many of the systems and devices listed below as the person conducting the check finds are necessary to determine that the person being checked has a practical knowledge of the use of the systems and devices appropriate to the airplane type:
(a) Anti-icing and deicing systems			B
(b) Autopilot systems			B
(c) Automatic or other approach aid systems			B
(d) Stall warning devices, stall avoidance devices, and stability augmentation devices			B
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(e) Airborne radar devices			B
(f) Any other systems, devices, or aids available			B
(g) Hydraulic and electrical system failures and malfunctions				B
(h) Landing gear and flap systems failure or malfunction				B
(i) Failure of navigation or communications equipment			B
VII. Emergency Procedures:
Each pilot must demonstrate the proper emergency procedures for as many of the emergency situations listed below as the person conducting the check finds are necessary to determine that the person being checked has an adequate knowledge of, and ability to perform, such procedure:
(a) Fire in flight			B
(b) Smoke control			B
(c) Rapid decompression			B
(d) Emergency descent			B
(e) Any other emergency procedures outlined in the approved Airplane Flight Manual			B

[Amdt. 121-382, 85 FR 10929, Feb. 25, 2020, as amended by Docket FAA-2019-0360, Amdt. 121-392, 89 FR 51429, June 18, 2024; Amdt. 121-392A, 89 FR 57730, July 16, 2024] Pt. 121, App. G Appendix G to Part 121—Doppler Radar and Inertial Navigation System (INS): Request for Evaluation; Equipment and Equipment Installation; Training Program; Equipment Accuracy and Reliability; Evaluation Program 1. Application authority. (a) An applicant for authority to use a Doppler Radar or Inertial Navigation System must submit a request for evaluation of the system to the responsible Flight Standards office charged with the overall inspection of its operations 30 days prior to the start of evaluation flights.

(b) The application must contain: (1) A summary of experience with the system showing to the satisfaction of the Administrator a history of the accuracy and reliability of the system proposed to be used. (2) A training program curriculum for initial approval under § 121.405. (3) A maintenance program for compliance with subpart L of this part. (4) A description of equipment installation. (5) Proposed revisions to the Operations Manual outlining all normal and emergency procedures relative to use of the proposed system, including detailed methods for continuing the navigational function with partial or complete equipment failure, and methods for determining the most accurate system when an unusually large divergence between systems occurs. For the purpose of this appendix, a large divergence is a divergence that results in a track that falls beyond clearance limits. (6) Any proposed revisions to the minimum equipment list with adequate justification therefor. (7) A list of operations to be conducted using the system, containing an analysis of each with respect to length, magnetic compass reliability, availability of en route aids, and adequacy of gateway and terminal radio facilities to support the system. For the purpose of this appendix, a gateway is a specific navigational fix where use of long range navigation commences or terminates. 2. Equipment and equipment installation—Inertial Navigation Systems ( INS ) or Doppler Radar System. (a) Inertial Navigation and Doppler Radar Systems must be installed in accordance with applicable airworthiness requirements. (b) Cockpit arrangement must be visible and useable by either pilot seated at his duty station. (c) The equipment must provide, by visual, mechanical, or electrical output signals, indications of the invalidity of output data upon the occurrence of probable failures or malfunctions within the system. (d) A probable failure or malfunction within the system must not result in loss of the aircraft's required navigation capability.

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(e) The alignment, updating, and navigation computer functions of the system must not be invalidated by normal aircraft power interruptions and transients. (f) The system must not be the source of cause of objectionable radio frequency interference, and must not be adversely affected by radio frequency interference from other aircraft systems. (g) The FAA-approved airplane flight manual, or supplement thereto, must include pertinent material as required to define the normal and emergency operating procedures and applicable operating limitations associated with INS and Doppler performance (such as maximum latitude at which ground alignment capability is provided, or deviations between systems). 3. Equipment and equipment installation—Inertial Navigation Systems ( INS ). (a) If an applicant elects to use an Inertial Navigation System it must be at least a dual system (including navigational computers and reference units). At least two systems must be operational at takeoff. The dual system may consist of either two INS units, or one INS unit and one Doppler Radar unit. (b) Each Inertial Navigation System must incorporate the following: (1) Valid ground alignment capability at all latitudes appropriate for intended use of the installation. (2) A display of alignment status or a ready to navigate light showing completed alignment to the flight crew. (3) The present position of the airplane in suitable coordinates. (4) Information relative to destinations or waypoint positions: (i) The information needed to gain and maintain a desired track and to determine deviations from the desired track. (ii) The information needed to determine distance and time to go to the next waypoint or destination. (c) For INS installations that do not have memory or other inflight alignment means, a separate electrical power source (independent of the main propulsion system) must be provided which can supply, for at least 5 minutes, enough power (as shown by analysis or as demonstrated in the airplane) to maintain the INS in such condition that its full capability is restored upon the reactivation of the normal electrical supply. (d) The equipment must provide such visual, mechanical, or electrical output signals as may be required to permit the flight crew to detect probable failures or malfunctions in the system. 4. Equipment and equipment installation—Doppler Radar Systems. (a) If an applicant elects to use a Doppler Radar System it must be at least a dual system (including dual antennas or a combined antenna designed for multiple operation), except that: (1) A single operating transmitter with a standby capable of operation may be used in lieu of two operating transmitters. (2) Single heading source information to all installations may be utilized, provided a compass comparator system is installed and operational procedures call for frequent cross-checks of all compass heading indicators by crewmembers. The dual system may consist of either two Doppler Radar units or one Doppler Radar unit and one INS unit. (b) At least two systems must be operational at takeoff. (c) As determined by the Administrator and specified in the certificate holder's operations specifications, other navigational aids may be required to update the Doppler Radar for a particular operation. These may include DME, VOR, ADF, ground-based radar, and airborne weather radar. When these aids are required, the cockpit arrangement must be such that all controls are accessible to each pilot seated at his duty station. 5. Training programs. The initial training program for Doppler Radar and Inertial Navigation Systems must include the following: (a) Duties and responsibilities of flight crewmembers, dispatchers, and maintenance personnel. (b) For pilots, instruction in the following: (1) Theory and procedures, limitations, detection of malfunctions, preflight and inflight testing, and cross-checking methods. (2) The use of computers, an explanation of all systems, compass limitations at high latitudes, a review of navigation, flight planning, and applicable meteorology. (3) The methods for updating by means of reliable fixes. (4) The actual plotting of fixes. (c) Abnormal and emergency procedures. 6. Equipment accuracy and reliability. (a) Each Inertial Navigation System must meet the following accuracy requirements, as appropriate: (1) For flights up to 10 hours' duration, no greater than 2 nautical miles per hour of circular error on 95 percent of system flights completed is permitted. (2) For flights over 10 hours' duration, a tolerance of ±20 miles cross-track and ±25 miles along-track on 95 percent of system flights completed is permitted. (b) Compass heading information to the Doppler Radar must be maintained to an accuracy of ±1° and total system deviations must not exceed 2°. When free gyro techniques are used, procedures shall be utilized to ensure that an equivalent level of heading accuracy and total system deviation is attained. (c) Each Doppler Radar System must meet accuracy requirements of ±20 miles cross- track and ±25 miles along-track for 95 percent of the system flights completed. Updating is permitted.

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A system that does not meet the requirements of this section will be considered a failed system. 7. Evaluation program. (a) Approval by evaluation must be requested as a part of the application for operational approval of a Doppler Radar or Inertial Navigation System. (b) The applicant must provide sufficient flights which show to the satisfaction of the Administrator the applicant's ability to use cockpit navigation in his operation. (c) The Administrator bases his evaluation on the following: (1) Adequacy of operational procedures. (2) Operational accuracy and reliability of equipment and feasibility of the system with regard to proposed operations. (3) Availability of terminal, gateway, area, and en route ground-based aids, if required, to support the self-contained system. (4) Acceptability of cockpit workload. (5) Adequacy of flight crew qualifications. (6) Adequacy of maintenance training and availability of spare parts. After successful completion of evaluation demonstrations, FAA approval is indicated by issuance of amended operations specifications and en route flight procedures defining the new operation. Approval is limited to those operations for which the adequacy of the equipment and the feasibility of cockpit navigation has been satisfactorily demonstrated. [Docket 10204, 37 FR 6464, Mar. 30, 1972, as amended by Amdt. 121-207, 54 FR 39293, Sept. 25, 1989; Docket FAA-2017-0733, Amdt. 121-379, 82 FR 34398, July 25, 2017; Docket FAA-2018-0119, Amdt. 121-380, 83 FR 9173, Mar. 5, 2018] Pt. 121, App. H Appendix H to Part 121—Advanced Simulation This appendix prescribes criteria for use of Level B or higher FFSs to satisfy the inflight requirements of Appendices E and F of this part and the requirements of § 121.439. The criteria in this appendix are in addition to the FFS approval requirements in § 121.407. Each FFS used under this appendix must be approved as a Level B, C, or D FFS, as appropriate.

Advanced Simulation Training Program For a certificate holder to conduct Level C or D training under this appendix, all required FFS instruction and checks must be conducted under an advanced simulation training program approved by the Administrator for the certificate holder. This program must also ensure that all instructors, check pilots, and check flight engineers used in Appendix H training and checking are highly qualified to provide the training required in the training program. The advanced simulation training program must include the following: 1. The certificate holder's initial, transition, conversion, upgrade, and recurrent FFS training programs and its procedures for re-establishing recency of experience in the FFS. 2. How the training program will integrate Level B, C, and D FFSs with other FSTDs to maximize the total training, checking, and certification functions. 3. Documentation that each instructor and check pilot has served for at least 1 year in that capacity in a certificate holder's approved program or has served for at least 1 year as a pilot in command or second in command in an airplane of the group in which that pilot is instructing or checking. 4. A procedure to ensure that each instructor, check pilot, and check flight engineer-actively participates in either an approved regularly scheduled line flying program as a flightcrew member or an approved line observation program in the same airplane type for which that person is instructing or checking. 5. A procedure to ensure that each instructor, check pilot, and check flight engineer-is given a minimum of 4 hours of training each year to become familiar with the certificate holder's advanced simulation training program, or changes to it, and to emphasize their respective roles in the program. Training for instructors, check pilots, and check flight engineers must include training policies and procedures, instruction methods and techniques, operation of FFS controls (including environmental and trouble panels), limitations of the FFS, and minimum equipment required for each course of training. 6. A special Line-Oriented Flight Training (LOFT) program to facilitate the transition from the FFS to line flying. This LOFT program must consist of at least a 4-hour course of training for each flightcrew. It also must contain at least two representative flight segments of the certificate holder's operations. One of the flight segments must contain strictly normal operating procedures from pushback at one airport to arrival at another. Another flight segment must contain training in appropriate abnormal and emergency flight operations. The LOFT must provide an opportunity for the pilot to demonstrate workload management and pilot monitoring skills. FFS Training, Checking and Qualification Permitted 1. Level B FFS a. Recent experience (§ 121.439). b. Training in night takeoffs and landings (Appendix E of this part).

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c. Except for EFVS operations, landings in a proficiency check (Appendix F of this part). 2. Level C and D FFS a. Recent experience (§ 121.439). b. All pilot flight training and checking required by this part except the following: i. The operating experience, operating cycles, and consolidation of knowledge and skills requirements of § 121.434; ii. The line check required by § 121.440; and iii. The visual inspection of the exterior and interior of the airplane required by appendices E and F. c. The practical test requirements of § 61.153(h) of this chapter, except the visual inspection of the exterior and interior of the airplane. [Amdt. 121-382, 85 FR 10934, Feb. 25, 2020, as amended by Docket FAA-2019-0360, Amdt. 121-392, 89 FR 51430, June 18, 2024] Appendixes I-J to Part 121 [Reserved]
Pt. 121, App. K Appendix K to Part 121—Performance Requirements for Certain Turbopropeller Powered Airplanes 1. Applicability. This appendix specifies requirements for the following turbopropeller powered airplanes that must comply with the Airplane Performance Operating Limitations in §§ 121.189 through 121.197:

a. After December 20, 2010, each airplane manufactured before March 20, 1997 and type certificated in the: i. Normal category before July 1, 1970, and meets special conditions issued by the Administrator for airplanes intended for use in operations under part 135 of this chapter. ii. Normal category before July 19, 1970, and meets the additional airworthiness standards in SFAR No. 23 of 14 CFR part 23. iii. Normal category, and complies with the additional airworthiness standards in appendix A of part 135 of this chapter. iv. Normal category, and complies with section 1.(a) or 1.(b) of SFAR No. 41 of 14 CFR part 21. b. After March 20, 1997, each airplane: i. Type certificated prior to March 29, 1995, in the commuter category. ii. Manufactured on or after March 20, 1997, and that was type certificated in the normal category, and complies with the requirements described in paragraphs 1.a.i through iii of this appendix. 2. Background. Sections 121.157 and 121.173(b) require that the airplanes operated under this part and described in paragraph 1 of this appendix, comply with the Airplane Performance Operating Limitations in §§ 121.189 through 121.197. Airplanes described in § 121.157(f) and paragraph 1.a of this appendix must comply on and after December 20, 2010. Airplanes described in § 121.157(e) and paragraph 1.b of this appendix must comply on and after March 20, 1997. (Airplanes type certificated in the normal category, and in accordance with SFAR No. 41 of 14 CFR part 21, as described in paragraph 1.a.iv of this appendix, may not be produced after October 17, 1991.) 3. References. Unless otherwise specified, references in this appendix to sections of part 23 of this chapter are to those sections of 14 CFR part 23, as amended by Amendment No. 23-45 (August 6, 1993, 58 FR 42156). Performance 4. Interim Airplane Performance Operating Limitations. a. Until December 20, 2010, airplanes described in paragraph 1.a of this appendix may continue to comply with the requirements in subpart I of part 135 and § 135.181(a)(2) of this chapter that apply to small, nontransport category airplanes. b. Until March 20, 1997, airplanes described in paragraph 1.b.i of this appendix may continue to comply with the requirements in subpart I of part 135 of this chapter that apply to commuter category airplanes. 5. Final Airplane Performance Operating Limitations. a. Through an amended type certification program or a supplemental type certification program, each airplane described in paragraph 1.a and 1.b.ii of this appendix must be shown to comply with the commuter category performance requirements specified in this appendix, which are included in part 23 of this chapter. Each new revision to a current airplane performance operating limitation for an airplane that is or has been demonstrated to comply, must also be approved by the Administrator. An airplane approved to the requirements of section 1.(b) of SFAR No. 41 of 14 CFR part 21, as described in paragraph 1.a.iv of this appendix, and that has been demonstrated to comply with the additional requirements of section 4.(c) of SFAR No. 41 of 14 CFR part 21 and International Civil Aviation Organization Annex 8 (available from the FAA, 800 Independence Avenue SW., Washington, DC 20591), will be considered to be in compliance with the commuter category performance requirements. b. Each turbopropeller powered airplane subject to this appendix must be demonstrated to comply with the airplane performance operating limitation requirements of this chapter specified as follows: i. Section 23.45 Performance General. ii. Section 23.51 Takeoff. iii. Section 23.53 Takeoff speeds. iv. Section 23.55 Accelerate stop distance. v. Section 23.57 Takeoff path. vi. Section 23.59 Takeoff distance and takeoff run.

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vii. Section 23.61 Takeoff flight path. viii. Section 23.65 Climb: All engines operating. ix. Section 23.67 Climb: one engine inoperative. x. Section 23.75 Landing. xi. Section 23.77 Balked landing. xii. Sections 23.1581 through 23.1589 Airplane flight manual and approved manual material. 6. Operation. After compliance with the final airplane performance operating limitations requirements has been demonstrated and added to the Airplane Flight Manual performance data of the affected airplane, that airplane must be operated in accordance with the performance limitations of §§ 121.189 through 121.197. [Docket 28154, 60 FR 65936, Dec. 20, 1995, as amended by Docket OST-2002-13435] Pt. 121, App. L Appendix L to Part 121—Type Certification Regulations Made Previously Effective Appendix L lists regulations in this part that require compliance with standards contained in superseded type certification regulations that continue to apply to certain transport category airplanes. The tables set out citations to current CFR section, applicable aircraft, superseded type certification regulation and applicable time periods, and the CFR edition and Federal Register documents where the regulation having prior effect is found. Copies of all superseded regulations may be obtained at the Federal Aviation Administration Law Library, Room 924, 800 Independence Avenue SW., Washington, DC.

Part 121 section	Applicable aircraft	Provisions: CFR/FR references
§ 121.312(a)(1)(i)	Transport category; or nontransport category type certificated before January 1, 1965; passenger capacity of 20 or more; manufactured prior to August 20, 1990	Heat release rate testing. 14 CFR 25.853(d) in effect March 6, 1995: 14 CFR parts 1 to 59, Revised as of January 1, 1995, and amended by Amdt. 25-83, 60 FR 6623, February 2, 1995. Formerly 14 CFR 25.853(a-1) in effect August 20, 1986: 14 CFR parts 1 to 59, Revised as of January 1, 1986.
§ 121.312(a)(1)(ii)	Transport category; or nontransport category type certificated before January 1, 1965; passenger capacity of 20 or more; manufactured after August 19, 1990	Heat release rate and smoke testing. 14 CFR 25.853(d) in effect March 6, 1995: 14 CFR parts 1 to 59, Revised as of January 1, 1995, and amended by Amdt. 25-83, 60 FR 6623, February 2, 1995. Formerly 14 CFR 25.853(a-1) in effect September 26, 1988: 14 CFR parts 1 to 59, Revised as of January 1, 1988, and amended by Amdt. 25-66, 53 FR 32584, August 25, 1988
§ 121.312(a)(2)(i)	Transport category; or nontransport category type certificate before January 1, 1965; application for type certificate filed prior to May 1, 1972; substantially complete replacement of cabin interior on or after May 1, 1972	Provisions of 14 CFR 25.853 in effect on April 30, 1972: 14 CFR parts 1 to 59, Revised as of January 1, 1972.
§ 121.312(a)(3)(i)	Transport category type certificated after January 1, 1958; nontransport category type certificated after January 1, 1958, but before January 1, 1965; passenger capacity of 20 or more; substantially complete replacement of the cabin interior on or after March 6, 1995	Heat release rate testing. 14 CFR 25.853(d) in effect March 6, 1995: 14 CFR parts 1 to 59, Revised as of January 1, 1995; and amended by 25-83, 60 FR 6623, February 2, 1995. Formerly 14 CFR 25.853(a-1) in effect August 20, 1986: 14 CFR parts 1 to 59, Revised as of January 1, 1986.
§ 121.312(a)(3)(ii)	Transport category type certificated after January 1, 1958; nontransport category type certificated after January 1, 1958, but before January 1, 1965; passenger capacity of 20 or more; substantially complete replacement of the cabin interior on or after August 20, 1990	Heat release rate and smoke testing. 14 CFR 25.853(d) in effect March 6, 1995; 14 CFR parts 1 to 59, Revised as of January 1, 1995; and amended by 25-83, 60 FR 6623, February 2, 1995. Formerly 14 CFR § 25.853(a-1) in effect September 26, 1988: CFR, Title 14, Parts 1 to 59, Revised as of January 1, 1988, and amended by 25-66, 53 FR 32584, August 25, 1988.
§ 121.312(b) (1) and (2)	Transport category airplane type certificated after January 1, 1958; Nontransport category airplane type certificated after December 31, 1964	Seat cushions. 14 CFR 25.853(c) effective on November 26, 1984: 14 CFR parts 1 to 59, Revised as of January 1, 1984, and amended by \n25-59, 49 FR 43188, October 26, 1984.
§ 121.312(c)	Airplane type certificated in accordance with SFAR No. 41; maximum certificated takeoff weight in excess of 12,500 pounds	Compartment interior requirements. 14 CFR 25.853(a) in effect March 6, 1995: 14 CFR parts 1 to 59, Revised as of January 1, 1995, and amended by 25-83, 60 FR 6623, February 2, 1995. Formerly 14 CFR 25.853(a), (b-1), (b-2), and (b-3) in effect on September 26, 1978: 14 CFR parts 1 to 59, Revised as of January 1, 1978.
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§ 121.314(a)	Transport category airplanes type certificated after January 1, 1958	Class C or D cargo or baggage compartment definition, 14 CFR 25.857 in effect on June 16, 1986, 14 CFR parts 1 to 59, Revised 1/1/97, and amended by Amendment 25-60, 51 FR 18243, May 16, 1986.

[Docket 28154, 60 FR 65936, Dec. 20, 1995, as amended by Amdt. 121-269, 63 FR 8049, Feb. 17, 1998] Pt. 121, App. M Appendix M to Part 121—Airplane Flight Recorder Specifications

The recorded values must meet the designated range, resolution and accuracy requirements during static and dynamic conditions. Dynamic condition means the parameter is experiencing change at the maximum rate attainable, including the maximum rate of reversal. All data recorded must be correlated in time to within one second.
Parameters	Range	Accuracy (sensor input)	Seconds per sampling interval	Resolution	Remarks
1. Time or relative times counts.  1	24 Hrs, 0 to 4095	±0.125% per hour	4	1 sec	UTC time preferred when available. Count increments each 4 seconds of system operation.
2. Pressure Altitude	−1000 ft to max certificated altitude of aircraft. + 5000 ft	±100 to ±700 ft (see table, TSO C124a or TSO C51a)	1	5′ to 35′	Data should be obtained from the air data computer when practicable.
3. Indicated airspeed or Calibrated airspeed	50 KIAS or minimum value to Max V so to 1.2 V. D	±5% and ±3%	1	1 kt	Data should be obtained from the air data computer when practicable.
4. Heading (Primary flight crew reference)	0-360° and Discrete “true” or “mag”	±2°	1	0.5°	When true or magnetic heading can be selected as the primary heading reference, a discrete indicating selection must be recorded.
5. Normal acceleration (vertical)  9	−3g to + 6g	±1% of max range excluding datum error of ±5%	0.125	0.004g
6. Pitch Attitude	±75°	±2°	1 or 0.25 for airplanes operated under § 121.344(f)	0.5°	A sampling rate of 0.25 is recommended.
7. Roll attitude  2	±180°	±2°	1 or 0.5 for airplanes operated under § 121.344(f)	0.5	A sampling rate of 0.5 is recommended.
8. Manual Radio Transmitter Keying or CVR/DFDR synchronization reference	On-Off (Discrete) None		1		Preferably each crew member but one discrete acceptable for all transmission provided the CVR/FDR system complies with TSO C124a CVR synchronization requirements (paragraph 4.2.1 ED-55).
9. Thrust/power on each engine—primary flight crew reference	Full range forward	±2%	1 (per engine)	0.3% of full range	Sufficient parameters (e.g. EPR, N1 or Torque, NP) as appropriate to the particular engine being recorded to determine power in forward and reverse thrust, including potential overspeed condition.
10. Autopilot Engagement	Discrete “on” or “off”		1
11. Longitudinal Acceleration	±1g	±1.5% max. range excluding datum error of ±5%	0.25	0.004g
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12a. Pitch control(s) position (nonfly-by-wire systems).  18	Full Range	±2° unless higher accuracy uniquely required	0.5 or 0.25 for airplanes operated under § 121.344(f)	0.5% of full range	For airplanes that have a flight control breakaway capability that allows either pilot to operate the controls independently, record both control inputs. The control inputs may be sampled alternately once per second to produce the sampling interval of 0.5 or 0.25, as applicable.
12b. Pitch control(s) position (fly-by-wire systems).  3 18	Full Range	±2° unless higher accuracy uniquely required	0.5 or 0.25 for airplanes operated under § 121.344(f)	0.2% of full range
13a. Lateral control position(s) (nonfly-by-wire).  18	Full Range	±2° unless higher accuracy uniquely required	0.5 or 0.25 for airplanes operated under § 121.344(f)	0.2% of full range	For airplanes that have a flight control breakaway capability that allows either pilot to operate the controls independently, record both control inputs. The control inputs may be sampled alternately once per second to produce the sampling interval of 0.5 or 0.25, as applicable.
13b. Lateral control position(s) (fly-by-wire).  4 18	Full Range	±2° unless higher accuracy uniquely required	0.5 or 0.25 for airplanes operated under § 121.344(f)	0.2% of full range.
14a. Yaw control position(s) (nonfly-by-wire).  5 18	Full Range	±2° unless higher accuracy uniquely required	0.5	0.3% of full range	For airplanes that have a flight control breakaway capability that allows either pilot to operate the controls independently, record both control inputs. The control inputs may be sampled alternately once per second to produce the sampling interval of 0.5.
14b. Yaw control position(s) (fly-by-wire).  18	Full Range	±2° unless higher accuracy uniquely required	0.5	0.2% of full range
15. Pitch control surface(s) position.  6 18	Full Range	±2° unless higher accuracy uniquely required	0.5 or 0.25 for airplanes operated under § 121.344(f)	0.3% of full range	For airplanes fitted with multiple or split surfaces, a suitable combination of inputs is acceptable in lieu of recording each surface separately. The control surfaces may be sampled alternately once per second to produce the sampling interval of 0.5 or 0.25, as applicable.
16. Lateral control surface(s) position.  7 18	Full Range	±2° unless higher accuracy uniquely required	0.5 or 0.25 for airplanes operated under § 121.344(f)	0.3% of full range	A suitable combination of surface position sensors is acceptable in lieu of recording each surface separately. The control surfaces may be sampled alternately to produce the sampling interval of 0.5 or 0.25, as applicable.
17. Yaw control surface(s) position.  8 18	Full Range	±2° unless higher accuracy uniquely required	0.5	0.2% of full range	For airplanes with multiple or split surfaces, a suitable combination of surface position sensors is acceptable in lieu of recording each surface separately. The control surfaces may be sampled alternately to produce the sampling interval of 0.5.
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18. Lateral Acceleration	±1g	±1.5% max. range excluding datum error of ±5%	0.25	0.004g
19. Pitch Trim Surface Position	Full Range	±3° Unless Higher Accuracy Uniquely Required	1	0.6% of full range
20. Trailing Edge Flap or Cockpit Control Selection.  10	Full Range or Each Position (discrete)	±3° or as Pilot's indicator	2	0.5% of full range	Flap position and cockpit control may each be sampled at 4 second intervals, to give a data point every 2 seconds.
21. Leading Edge Flap or Cockpit Control Selection.  11	Full Range or Each Discrete Position	±3° or as Pilot's indicator and sufficient to determine each discrete position	2	0.5% of full range	Left and right sides, or flap position and cockpit control may each be sampled at 4 second intervals, so as to give a data point every 2 seconds.
22. Each Thrust Reverser Position (or equivalent for propeller airplane)	Stowed, In Transit, and Reverse (Discrete)		1 (per engine)		Turbo-jet—2 discretes enable the 3 states to be determined. Turbo-prop—discrete.
23. Ground spoiler position or brake selection  12	Full range or each position (discrete)	±2° Unless higher accuracy uniquely required	1 or 0.5 for airplanes operated under § 121.344(f)	0.5% of full range
24. Outside Air Temperature or Total Air Temperature.  13	−50 °C to + 90 °C	±2 °C	2	0.3 °C
25. Autopilot/Autothrottle/AFCS Mode and Engagement Status	A suitable combination of discretes		1		Discretes should show which systems are engaged and which primary modes are controlling the flight path and speed of the aircraft.
26. Radio Altitude  14	−20 ft to 2,500 ft	±2 ft or ±3% whichever is greater below 500 ft and ±5% above 500 ft	1	1 ft + 5% above 500 ft	For autoland/category 3 operations. Each radio altimeter should be recorded, but arranged so that at least one is recorded each second.
27. Localizer Deviation, MLS Azimuth, or GPS Latitude Deviation	±400 Microamps or available sensor range as installed ±62°	As installed ±3% recommended	1	0.3% of full range	For autoland/category 3 operations. Each system should be recorded but arranged so that at least one is recorded each second. It is not necessary to record ILS and MLS at the same time, only the approach aid in use need be recorded.
28. Glideslope Deviation, MLS Elevation, or GPS Vertical Deviation	±400 Microamps or available sensor range as installed 0.9 to + 30°	As installed + /3−3% recommended	1	0.3% of full range	For autoland/category 3 operations. Each system should be recorded but arranged so that at least one is recorded each second. It is not necessary to record ILS and MLS at the same time, only the approach aid in use need be recorded.
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29. Marker Beacon Passage	Discrete “on” or “off”		1		A single discrete is acceptable for all markers.
30. Master Warning	Discrete		1		Record the master warning and record each “red” warning that cannot be determined from other parameters or from the cockpit voice recorder.
31. Air/ground sensor (primary airplane system reference nose or main gear)	Discrete “air” or “ground”		1 (0.25 recommended)
32. Angle of Attack (If measured directly)	As installed	As installed	2 or 0.5 for airplanes operated under § 121.344(f)	0.3% of full range	If left and right sensors are available, each may be recorded at 4 or 1 second intervals, as appropriate, so as to give a data point at 2 seconds or 0.5 second, as required.
33. Hydraulic Pressure Low, Each System	Discrete or available sensor range, “low” or “normal”	±5%	2	0.5% of full range
34. Groundspeed	As Installed	Most Accurate Systems Installed	1	0.2% of full range
35. GPWS (ground proximity warning system)	Discrete “warning” or “off”		1		A suitable combination of discretes unless recorder capacity is limited in which case a single discrete for all modes is acceptable.
36. Landing Gear Position or Landing gear cockpit control selection	Discrete		4		A suitable combination of discretes should be recorded.
37. Drift Angle.  15	As installed	As installed	4	0.1°
38. Wind Speed and Direction	As installed	As installed	4	1 knot, and 1.0°
39. Latitude and Longitude	As installed	As installed	4	0.002°, or as installed	Provided by the Primary Navigation System Reference. Where capacity permits Latitude/longitude resolution should be 0.0002°.
40. Stick shaker and pusher activation	Discrete(s) “on” or “off”		1		A suitable combination of discretes to determine activation.
41. Windshear Detection	Discrete “warning” or “off”		1
42. Throttle/power Leverl position.  16	Full Range	±2%	1 for each lever	2% of full range	For airplanes with non-mechanically linked cockpit engine controls.
43. Additional Engine Parameters	As installed	As installed	Each engine each second	2% of full range	Where capacity permits, the preferred priority is indicated vibration level, N2, EGT, Fuel Flow, Fuel Cut-off lever position and N3, unless engine manufacturer recommends otherwise.
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44. Traffic Alert and Collision Avoidance System (TCAS)	Discretes	As installed	1		A suitable combination of discretes should be recorded to determine the status of—Combined Control, Vertical Control, Up Advisory, and Down Advisory. (ref. ARINC Characteristic 735 Attachment 6E, TCAS VERTICAL RA DATA OUTPUT WORD.)
45. DME 1 and 2 Distance	0-200 NM	As installed	4	1 NM	1 mile
46. Nav 1 and 2 Selected Frequency	Full Range	As installed	4		Sufficient to determine selected frequency
47. Selected barometric setting	Full Range	±5%	(1 per 64 sec.)	0.2% of full range
48. Selected Altitude	Full Range	±5%	1	100 ft
49. Selected speed	Full Range	±5%	1	1 knot
50. Selected Mach	Full Range	±5%	1	.01
51. Selected vertical speed	Full Range	±5%	1	100 ft/min
52. Selected heading	Full Range	±5%	1	1°
53. Selected flight path	Full Range	±5%	1	1°
54. Selected decision height	Full Range	±5%	64	1 ft
55. EFIS display format	Discrete(s)		4		Discretes should show the display system status (e.g., off, normal, fail, composite, sector, plan, nav aids, weather radar, range, copy.
56. Multi-function/Engine Alerts Display format	Discrete(s)		4		Discretes should show the display system status (e.g., off, normal, fail, and the identity of display pages for emergency procedures, need not be recorded.
57. Thrust command.  17	Full Range	±2%	2	2% of full range
58. Thrust target	Full Range	±2%	4	2% of full range
59. Fuel quantity in CG trim tank	Full Range	±5%	(1 per 64 sec.)	1% of full range
60. Primary Navigation System Reference	Discrete GPS, INS, VOR/DME, MLS, Localizer Glideslope		4		A suitable combination of discretes to determine the Primary Navigation System reference.
61. Ice Detection	Discrete “ice” or “no ice”		4
62. Engine warning each engine vibration	Discrete		1
63. Engine warning each engine over temp	Discrete		1
64. Engine warning each engine oil pressure low	Discrete		1
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65. Engine warning each engine over speed	Discrete		1
66. Yaw Trim Surface Position	Full Range	±3% Unless Higher Accuracy Uniquely Required	2	0.3% of full range
67. Roll Trim Surface Position	Full Range	±3% Unless Higher Accuracy Uniquely Required	2	0.3% of full range
68. Brake Pressure (left and right)	As installed	±5%	1		To determine braking effort applied by pilots or by autobrakes.
69. Brake Pedal Application (left and right)	Discrete or Analog “applied” or “off”	±5% (Analog)	1		To determine braking applied by pilots.
70. Yaw or sideslip angle	Full Range	±5%	1	0.5°
71. Engine bleed valve position	Discrete “open” or “closed”		4
72. De-icing or anti-icing system selection	Discrete “on” or “off”		4
73. Computed center of gravity	Full Range	±5%	(1 per 64 sec.)	1% of full range
74. AC electrical bus status	Discrete “power” or “off”		4		Each bus.
75. DC electrical bus status	Discrete “power” or “off”		4		Each bus.
76 APU bleed valve position	Discrete “open” or “closed”		4
77. Hydraulic Pressure (each system)	Full range	±5%	2	100 psi
78. Loss of cabin pressure	Discrete “loss” or “normal”		1
79. Computer failure (critical flight and engine control systems)	Discrete “fail” or “normal”		4
80. Heads-up display (when an information source is installed)	Discrete(s) “on” or “off”		4
81. Para-visual display (when an information source is installed)	Discrete(s) “on” or “off”
82. Cockpit trim control input position—pitch	Full Range	±5%	1	0.2% of full range	Where mechanical means for control inputs are not available, cockpit display trim positions should be recorded.
83. Cockpit trim control input position—roll	Full Range	±5%	1	0.7% of full range	Where mechanical means for control inputs are not available, cockpit display trim position should be recorded.
84. Cockpit trim control input position—yaw	Full range	±5%	1	0.3% of full range	Where mechanical means for control input are not available, cockpit display trim positions should be recorded.
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85. Trailing edge flap and cockpit flap control position	Full Range	±5%	2	0.5% of full range	Trailing edge flaps and cockpit flap control position may each be sampled alternately at 4 second intervals to provide a sample each 0.5 second.
86. Leading edge flap and cockpit flap control position	Full Range or Discrete	±5%	1	0.5% of full range
87. Ground spoiler position and speed brake selection	Full range or discrete	±5%	0.5	0.3% of full range
88. All cockpit flight control input forces (control wheel, control column, rudder pedal)  18 19	Full range Control wheel ±70 lbs Control column ±85 lbs Rudder pedal ±165 lbs	±5%	1	0.3% of full range	For fly-by-wire flight control systems, where flight control surface position is a function of the displacement of the control input device only, it is not necessary to record this parameter. For airplanes that have a flight control break away capability that allows either pilot to operate the control independently, record both control force inputs. The control force inputs may be sampled alternately once per 2 seconds to produce the sampling interval of 1.
89. Yaw damper status	Discrete (on/off)	0.5
90. Yaw damper command	Full range	As installed	0.5	1% of full range
91. Standby rudder valve status	Discrete	0.5
1  For A300 B2/B4 airplanes, resolution = 6 seconds.
2  For A330/A340 series airplanes, resolution = 0.703°.
3  For A318/A319/A320/A321 series airplanes, resolution = 0.275% (0.088°>0.064°).
For A330/A340 series airplanes, resolution = 2.20%(0.703°>0.064°).
4  For A318/A319/A320/A321 series airplanes, resolution = 0.22% (0.088°>0.080°).
For A330/A340 series airplanes, resolution = 1.76% (0.703°>0.080°).
5  For A330/A340 series airplanes, resolution = 1.18% (0.703° >0.120°).
For A330/A340 series airplanes, seconds per sampling interval = 1.
6  For A330/A340 series airplanes, resolution = 0.783% (0.352°>0.090°).
7  For A330/A340 series airplanes, aileron resolution = 0.704% (0.352°>0.100°). For A330/A340 series airplanes, spoiler resolution = 1.406% (0.703°>0.100°).
8  For A330/A340 series airplanes, resolution = 0.30% (0.176°>0.12°).
For A330/A340 series airplanes, seconds per sampling interval = 1.
9  For B-717 series airplanes, resolution = .005g. For Dassault F900C/F900EX airplanes, resolution = .007g.
10  For A330/A340 series airplanes, resolution = 1.05% (0.250°>0.120°).
11  For A330/A340 series airplanes, resolution = 1.05% (0.250°>0.120°). For A300 B2/B4 series airplanes, resolution = 0.92% (0.230°>0.125°).
12  For A330/A340 series airplanes, spoiler resolution = 1.406% (0.703°>0.100°).
13  For A330/A340 series airplanes, resolution = 0.5°C.
14  For Dassault F900C/F900EX airplanes, Radio altitude resolution = 1.25 ft.
15  For A330/A340 series airplanes, resolution = 0.352 degrees.
16  For A318/A319/A320/A321 series airplanes, resolution = 4.32%. For A330/A340 series airplanes, resolution is 3.27% of full range for throttle lever angle (TLA); for reverse thrust, reverse throttle lever angle (RLA) resolution is nonlinear over the active reverse thrust range, which is 51.54 degrees to 96.14 degrees. The resolved element is 2.8 degrees uniformly over the entire active reverse thrust range, or 2.9% of the full range value of 96.14 degrees.
17  For A318/A319/A320/A321 series airplanes, with IAE engines, resolution = 2.58%.
18  For all aircraft manufactured on or after December 6, 2010, the seconds per sampling interval is 0.125. Each input must be recorded at this rate. Alternately sampling inputs (interleaving) to meet this sampling interval is prohibited. Code of Federal Regulations / Title 14 - Aeronautics and Space / Vol. 1 / 2025-01-01323
19  For 737 model airplanes manufactured between August 19, 2000 and April 6, 2010: the seconds per sampling interval is 0.5 per control input; the remarks regarding the sampling rate do not apply; a single control wheel force transducer installed on the left cable control is acceptable provided the left and right control wheel positions also are recorded.

[Docket 28109, 62 FR 38382, July 17, 1997; 62 FR 48135, Sept. 12, 1997, as amended by Amdt. 121-271, 64 FR 46120, Aug. 24, 1999; Amdt. 121-278, 65 FR 51745, Aug. 24, 2000; 65 FR 81733, Dec. 27, 2000; Amdt. 121-292, 67 FR 54323, Aug. 21, 2002; Amdt. 121-300, 68 FR 42936, July 18, 2003; 68 FR 50069, Aug. 20, 2003; 68 FR 53877, Sept. 15, 2003; 70 FR 41134, July 18, 2005; Amdt. 125-54, 73 FR 12566, Mar. 7, 2008; Amdt. 121-338, 73 FR 12566, Mar. 7, 2008; Amdt. 121-342, 73 FR 73179, Dec. 2, 2008; Amdt. 121-349, 75 FR 17046, Apr. 5, 2010; Amdt. 121-347, 75 FR 7356, Feb. 19, 2010; Amdt. 121-364, 78 FR 39971, July 3, 2013; Docket FAA-2017-0733, Amdt. 121-379, 82 FR 34398, July 25, 2017] Appendix N to Part 121 [Reserved]
Pt. 121, App. O Appendix O to Part 121—Hazardous Materials Training Requirements For Certificate Holders This appendix prescribes the requirements for hazardous materials training under part 121, subpart Z, and part 135, subpart K of this chapter. The training requirements for various categories of persons are defined by job function or responsibility. An “X” in a box under a category of persons indicates that the specified category must receive the noted training. All training requirements apply to direct supervisors as well as to persons actually performing the job function. Training requirements for certificate holders authorized in their operations specifications to transport hazardous materials (will-carry) are prescribed in Table 1. Those certificate holders with a prohibition in their operations specifications against carrying or handling hazardous materials (will-not-carry) must follow the curriculum prescribed in Table 2. The method of delivering the training will be determined by the certificate holder. The certificate holder is responsible for providing a method (may include email, telecommunication, etc.) to answer all questions prior to testing regardless of the method of instruction. The certificate holder must certify that a test has been completed satisfactorily to verify understanding of the regulations and requirements.

Table 1—Operators That Transport Hazardous Material—Will-Carry Certificate Holders

Aspects of transport of hazardous materials by air with which they must be familiar, as a minimum (See note 1)	Shippers (See Note 2) Will-carry	Operators and ground-handling agent's staff accepting hazardous materials (See Note 3) Will-carry	Operators and ground-handling agents staff responsible for the handling, storage, and loading of cargo and baggage Will-carry	Passenger-handling staff Will-carry	Flight crew members and load planners Will-carry	Crew members (other than flight crew members) Will-carry
General philosophy	X	X	X	X	X	X
Limitations	X	X	X	X	X	X
General requirements for shippers	X	X
Classification	X	X
List of hazardous materials	X	X			X
General packing requirements	X	X
Labeling and marking	X	X	X	X	X	X
Hazardous materials transport document and other relevant documentation	X	X
Acceptance procedures		X
Recognition of undeclared hazardous materials	X	X	X	X	X	X
Storage and loading procedures		X	X		X
Pilots' notification		X	X		X
Provisions for passengers and crew		X	X	X	X	X
Emergency procedures	X	X	X	X	X	X
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Note 1. Depending on the responsibilities of the person, the aspects of training to be covered may vary from those shown in the table.
Note 2. When a person offers a consignment of hazmat, including COMAT, for or on behalf of the certificate holder, then the person must be trained in the certificate holder's training program and comply with shipper responsibilities and training. If offering goods on another certificate holder's equipment, the person must be trained in compliance with the training requirements in 49 CFR. All shippers of hazmat must be trained under 49 CFR. The shipper functions in 49 CFR mirror the training aspects that must be covered for any shipper offering hazmat for transport.
Note 3. When an operator, its subsidiary, or an agent of the operator is undertaking the responsibilities of acceptance staff, such as the passenger handling staff accepting small parcel cargo, the certificate holder, its subsidy, or the agent must be trained in the certificate holder's training program and comply with the acceptance staff training requirements.

Table 2—Operators That Do Not Transport Hazardous Materials—Will-Not-Carry Certificate Holders

Aspects of transport of hazardous materials by air with which they must be familiar, as a minimum (See Note 1)	Shippers (See Note 2) Will-not-carry	Operators and ground-handling agent's staff accepting cargo other than hazardous materials (See Note 3) Will-not-carry	Operators and ground-handling agents staff responsible for the handling, storage, and loading of cargo and baggage Will-not-carry	Passenger-handling staff Will-not-carry	Flight crew members and load planners Will-not-carry	Crew members (other than flight crew members) Will-not-carry
General philosophy	X	X	X	X	X	X
Limitations	X	X	X	X	X	X
General requirements for shippers	X
Classification	X
List of hazardous materials	X
General packing requirements	X
Labeling and marking	X	X	X	X	X	X
Hazardous materials transport document and other relevant documentation	X	X
Acceptance procedures
Recognition of undeclared hazardous materials	X	X	X	X	X	X
Storage and loading procedures
Pilots' notification
Provisions for passengers and Crew		X	X	X	X	X
Emergency procedures	X	X	X	X	X	X
Note 1—Depending on the responsibilities of the person, the aspects of training to be covered may vary from those shown in the table.
Note 2—When a person offers a consignment of hazmat, including COMAT, for air transport for or on behalf of the certificate holder, then that person must be properly trained. All shippers of hazmat must be trained under 49 CFR. The shipper functions in 49 CFR mirror the training aspects that must be covered for any shipper, including a will-not-carry certificate holder offering dangerous goods for transport, with the exception of recognition training. Recognition training is a separate FAA requirement in the certificate holder's training program.
Note 3—When an operator, its subsidiary, or an agent of the operator is undertaking the responsibilities of acceptance staff, such as the passenger handling staff accepting small parcel cargo, the certificate holder, its subsidiary, or the agent must be trained in the certificate holder's training program and comply with the acceptance staff training requirements.

[Docket FAA-2003-15085, 70 FR 58825, Oct. 7, 2005, as amended by Amdt. 121-318, 70 FR 75396, Dec. 20, 2005]

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Pt. 121, App. P Appendix P to Part 121—Requirements for ETOPS and Polar Operations The FAA approves ETOPS in accordance with the requirements and limitations in this appendix.

Section I. ETOPS Approvals: Airplanes with Two engines. (a) Propulsion system reliability for ETOPS. (1) Before the FAA grants ETOPS operational approval, the operator must be able to demonstrate the ability to achieve and maintain the level of propulsion system reliability, if any, that is required by § 21.4(b)(2) of this chapter for the ETOPS-approved airplane-engine combination to be used. (2) Following ETOPS operational approval, the operator must monitor the propulsion system reliability for the airplane-engine combination used in ETOPS, and take action as required by § 121.374(i) for the specified IFSD rates. (b) 75 Minutes ETOPS —(1) Caribbean/Western Atlantic Area. The FAA grants approvals to conduct ETOPS with maximum diversion times up to 75 minutes on Western Atlantic/Caribbean area routes as follows: (i) The FAA reviews the airplane-engine combination to ensure the absence of factors that could prevent safe operations. The airplane-engine combination need not be type-design-approved for ETOPS; however, it must have sufficient favorable experience to demonstrate to the Administrator a level of reliability appropriate for 75-minute ETOPS. (ii) The certificate holder must comply with the requirements of § 121.633 for time-limited system planning. (iii) The certificate holder must operate in accordance with the ETOPS authority as contained in its operations specifications. (iv) The certificate holder must comply with the maintenance program requirements of § 121.374, except that a pre-departure service check before departure of the return flight is not required. (2) Other Areas. The FAA grants approvals to conduct ETOPS with maximum diversion times up to 75 minutes on other than Western Atlantic/Caribbean area routes as follows: (i) The FAA reviews the airplane-engine combination to ensure the absence of factors that could prevent safe operations. The airplane-engine combination need not be type-design-approved for ETOPS; however, it must have sufficient favorable experience to demonstrate to the Administrator a level of reliability appropriate for 75-minute ETOPS. (ii) The certificate holder must comply with the requirements of § 121.633 for time-limited system planning. (iii) The certificate holder must operate in accordance with the ETOPS authority as contained in its operations specifications. (iv) The certificate holder must comply with the maintenance program requirements of § 121.374. (v) The certificate holder must comply with the MEL in its operations specifications for 120-minute ETOPS. (c) 90-minutes ETOPS (Micronesia). The FAA grants approvals to conduct ETOPS with maximum diversion times up to 90 minutes on Micronesian area routes as follows: (1) The airplane-engine combination must be type-design approved for ETOPS of at least 120-minutes. (2) The certificate holder must operate in accordance with the ETOPS authority as contained in its operations specifications. (3) The certificate holder must comply with the maintenance program requirements of § 121.374, except that a pre-departure service check before departure of the return flight is not required. (4) The certificate holder must comply with the MEL requirements in its operations specifications for 120-minute ETOPS. (d) 120-minute ETOPS. The FAA grants approvals to conduct ETOPS with maximum diversion times up to 120 minutes as follows: (1) The airplane-engine combination must be type-design-approved for ETOPS of at least 120 minutes. (2) The certificate holder must operate in accordance with the ETOPS authority as contained in its operations specifications. (3) The certificate holder must comply with the maintenance program requirements of § 121.374. (4) The certificate holder must comply with the MEL requirements for 120-minute ETOPS. (e) 138-Minute ETOPS. The FAA grants approval to conduct ETOPS with maximum diversion times up to 138 minutes as follows: (1) Operators with 120-minute ETOPS approval. The FAA grants 138-minute ETOPS approval as an extension of an existing 120-minute ETOPS approval as follows: (i) The authority may be exercised only for specific flights for which the 120-minute diversion time must be exceeded. (ii) For these flight-by-flight exceptions, the airplane-engine combination must be type-design-approved for ETOPS up to at least 120 minutes. The capability of the airplane's time-limited systems may not be less than 138 minutes calculated in accordance with § 121.633. (iii) The certificate holder must operate in accordance with the ETOPS authority as contained in its operations specifications. (iv) The certificate holder must comply with the maintenance program requirements of § 121.374. (v) The certificate holder must comply with minimum equipment list (MEL) requirements in its operations specifications for “beyond 120 minutes ETOPS”. Operators without a “beyond 120-minute ETOPS” MEL may apply through their responsible Flight Standards office for a modified MEL which satisfies the master MEL policy for system/component relief in ETOPS beyond 120 minutes.

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(vi) The certificate holder must conduct training for maintenance, dispatch, and flight crew personnel regarding differences between 138-minute ETOPS authority and its previously-approved 120-minute ETOPS authority. (2) Operators with existing 180-minute ETOPS approval. The FAA grants approvals to conduct 138-minute ETOPS (without the limitation in paragraph (e)(1)(i) of section I of this appendix) to certificate holders with existing 180-minute ETOPS approval as follows: (i) The airplane-engine combination must be type-design-approved for ETOPS of at least 180 minutes. (ii) The certificate holder must operate in accordance with the ETOPS authority as contained in its operations specifications. (iii) The certificate holder must comply with the maintenance program requirements of § 121.374. (iv) The certificate holder must comply with the MEL requirements for “beyond 120 minutes ETOPS.” (v) The certificate holder must conduct training for maintenance, dispatch and flight crew personnel for differences between 138-minute ETOPS diversion approval and its previously approved 180-minute ETOPS diversion authority. (f) 180-minute ETOPS. The FAA grants approval to conduct ETOPS with diversion times up to 180 minutes as follows: (1) For these operations the airplane-engine combination must be type-design-approved for ETOPS of at least 180 minutes. (2) The certificate holder must operate in accordance with the ETOPS authority as contained in its operations specifications. (3) The certificate holder must comply with the maintenance program requirements of § 121.374. (4) The certificate holder must comply with the MEL requirements for “beyond 120 minutes ETOPS.” (g) Greater than 180-minute ETOPS. The FAA grants approval to conduct ETOPS greater than 180 minutes. The following are requirements for all operations greater than 180 minutes. (1) The FAA grants approval only to certificate holders with existing 180-minute ETOPS operating authority for the airplane-engine combination to be operated. (2) The certificate holder must have previous ETOPS experience satisfactory to the Administrator. (3) In selecting ETOPS Alternate Airports, the operator must make every effort to plan ETOPS with maximum diversion distances of 180 minutes or less, if possible. If conditions necessitate using an ETOPS Alternate Airport beyond 180 minutes, the route may be flown only if the requirements for the specific operating area in paragraph (h) or (i) of section I of this appendix are met. (4) The certificate holder must inform the flight crew each time an airplane is proposed for dispatch for greater than 180 minutes and tell them why the route was selected. (5) In addition to the equipment specified in the certificate holder's MEL for 180-minute ETOPS, the following systems must be operational for dispatch: (i) The fuel quantity indicating system. (ii) The APU (including electrical and pneumatic supply and operating to the APU's designed capability). (iii) The auto throttle system. (iv) The communication system required by § 121.99(d) or § 121.122(c), as applicable. (v) One-engine-inoperative auto-land capability, if flight planning is predicated on its use. (6) The certificate holder must operate in accordance with the ETOPS authority as contained in its operations specifications. (7) The certificate holder must comply with the maintenance program requirements of § 121.374. (h) 207-minute ETOPS in the North Pacific Area of Operations. (1) The FAA grants approval to conduct ETOPS with maximum diversion times up to 207 minutes in the North Pacific Area of Operations as an extension to 180-minute ETOPS authority to be used on an exception basis. This exception may be used only on a flight-by-flight basis when an ETOPS Alternate Airport is not available within 180 minutes for reasons such as political or military concerns; volcanic activity; temporary airport conditions; and airport weather below dispatch requirements or other weather related events. (2) The nearest available ETOPS Alternate Airport within 207 minutes diversion time must be specified in the dispatch or flight release. (3) In conducting such a flight the certificate holder must consider Air Traffic Service's preferred track. (4) The airplane-engine combination must be type-design-approved for ETOPS of at least 180 minutes. The approved time for the airplane's most limiting ETOPS significant system and most limiting cargo-fire suppression time for those cargo and baggage compartments required by regulation to have fire-suppression systems must be at least 222 minutes. (5) The certificate holder must track how many times 207-minute authority is used. (i) 240-minute ETOPS in the North Polar Area, in the area north of the NOPAC, and in the Pacific Ocean north of the equator. (1) The FAA grants approval to conduct 240-minute ETOPS authority with maximum diversion times in the North Polar Area, in the area north of the NOPAC area, and the Pacific Ocean area north of the equator as an extension to 180-minute ETOPS authority to be used on an exception basis. This exception may be used only on a flight-by-flight basis when an ETOPS Alternate Airport is not available within 180 minutes. In that case, the nearest available ETOPS Alternate Airport within 240 minutes diversion time must be specified in the dispatch or flight release.

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(2) This exception may be used in the North Polar Area and in the area north of NOPAC only in extreme conditions particular to these areas such as volcanic activity, extreme cold weather at en-route airports, airport weather below dispatch requirements, temporary airport conditions, and other weather related events. The criteria used by the certificate holder to decide that extreme weather precludes using an airport must be established by the certificate holder, accepted by the FAA, and published in the certificate holder's manual for the use of dispatchers and pilots. (3) This exception may be used in the Pacific Ocean area north of the equator only for reasons such as political or military concern, volcanic activity, airport weather below dispatch requirements, temporary airport conditions and other weather related events. (4) The airplane-engine combination must be type design approved for ETOPS greater than 180 minutes. (j) 240-minute ETOPS in areas South of the equator. (1) The FAA grants approval to conduct ETOPS with maximum diversion times of up to 240 minutes in the following areas: (i) Pacific oceanic areas between the U.S. West coast and Australia, New Zealand and Polynesia. (ii) South Atlantic oceanic areas. (iii) Indian Ocean areas. (iv) Oceanic areas between Australia and South America. (2) The operator must designate the nearest available ETOPS Alternate Airports along the planned route of flight. (3) The airplane-engine combination must be type-design-approved for ETOPS greater than 180 minutes. (k) ETOPS beyond 240 minutes. (1) The FAA grants approval to conduct ETOPS with diversion times beyond 240 minutes for operations between specified city pairs on routes in the following areas: (i) The Pacific oceanic areas between the U.S. west coast and Australia, New Zealand, and Polynesia; (ii) The South Atlantic oceanic areas; (iii) The Indian Oceanic areas; and (iv) The oceanic areas between Australia and South America, and the South Polar Area. (2) This approval is granted to certificate holders who have been operating under 180-minute or greater ETOPS authority for at least 24 consecutive months, of which at least 12 consecutive months must be under 240-minute ETOPS authority with the airplane-engine combination to be used. (3) The operator must designate the nearest available ETOPS alternate or alternates along the planned route of flight. (4) For these operations, the airplane-engine combination must be type-design-approved for ETOPS greater than 180 minutes. Section II. ETOPS Approval: Passenger-carrying Airplanes With More Than Two Engines. (a) The FAA grants approval to conduct ETOPS, as follows: (1) Except as provided in § 121.162, the airplane-engine combination must be type-design-approved for ETOPS. (2) The operator must designate the nearest available ETOPS Alternate Airports within 240 minutes diversion time (at one-engine-inoperative cruise speed under standard conditions in still air). If an ETOPS alternate is not available within 240 minutes, the operator must designate the nearest available ETOPS Alternate Airports along the planned route of flight. (3) The MEL limitations for the authorized ETOPS diversion time apply. (i) The Fuel Quantity Indicating System must be operational. (ii) The communications systems required by § 121.99(d) or § 121.122(c) must be operational. (4) The certificate holder must operate in accordance with the ETOPS authority as contained in its operations specifications. Section III. Approvals for operations whose airplane routes are planned to traverse either the North Polar or South Polar Areas. (a) Except for intrastate operations within the State of Alaska, no certificate holder may operate an aircraft in the North Polar Area or South Polar Area, unless authorized by the FAA. (b) In addition to any of the applicable requirements of sections I and II of this appendix, the certificate holder's operations specifications must contain the following: (1) The designation of airports that may be used for en-route diversions and the requirements the airports must meet at the time of diversion. (2) Except for supplemental all-cargo operations, a recovery plan for passengers at designated diversion airports. (3) A fuel-freeze strategy and procedures for monitoring fuel freezing. (4) A plan to ensure communication capability for these operations. (5) An MEL for these operations. (6) A training plan for operations in these areas. (7) A plan for mitigating crew exposure to radiation during solar flare activity. (8) A plan for providing at least two cold weather anti-exposure suits in the aircraft, to protect crewmembers during outside activity at a diversion airport with extreme climatic conditions. The FAA may relieve the certificate holder from this requirement if the season of the year makes the equipment unnecessary.

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[Docket FAA-2002-6717, 72 FR 1883, Jan. 16, 2007, as amended by Docket FAA-2018-0119, Amdt. 121-380, 83 FR 9173, Mar. 5, 2018]   Pt. 135 PART 135—OPERATING REQUIREMENTS: COMMUTER AND ON DEMAND OPERATIONS AND RULES GOVERNING PERSONS ON BOARD SUCH AIRCRAFT Special Federal Aviation Regulation No. 50-2 [Note] Special Federal Aviation Regulation No. 71 [Note] Special Federal Aviation Regulation No. 89 [Note] Special Federal Aviation Regulation No. 97 [Note] Subpart A—General Sec. 135.1 Applicability. 135.2 Compliance schedule for operators that transition to part 121 of this chapter; certain new entrant operators. 135.3 Rules applicable to operations subject to this part. 135.4 Applicability of rules for eligible on-demand operations. 135.7 Applicability of rules to unauthorized operators. 135.12 Previously trained crewmembers. 135.19 Emergency operations. 135.21 Manual requirements. 135.23 Manual contents. 135.25 Aircraft requirements. 135.41 Carriage of narcotic drugs, marihuana, and depressant or stimulant drugs or substances. 135.43 Crewmember certificates: International operations. Subpart B—Flight Operations 135.61 General. 135.63 Recordkeeping requirements. 135.64 Retention of contracts and amendments: Commercial operators who conduct intrastate operations for compensation or hire. 135.65 Reporting mechanical irregularities. 135.67 Reporting potentially hazardous meteorological conditions and irregularities of ground facilities or navigation aids. 135.69 Restriction or suspension of operations: Continuation of flight in an emergency. 135.71 Airworthiness check. 135.73 Inspections and tests. 135.75 Inspectors credentials: Admission to pilots' compartment: Forward observer's seat. 135.76 DOD Commercial Air Carrier Evaluator's Credentials: Admission to pilots compartment: Forward observer's seat. 135.77 Responsibility for operational control. 135.78 Instrument approach procedures and IFR landing minimums. 135.79 Flight locating requirements. 135.81 Informing personnel of operational information and appropriate changes. 135.83 Operating information required. 135.85 Carriage of persons without compliance with the passenger-carrying provisions of this part. 135.87 Carriage of cargo including carry-on baggage. 135.89 Pilot requirements: Use of oxygen. 135.91 Oxygen and portable oxygen concentrators for medical use by passengers. 135.93 Minimum altitudes for use of autopilot. 135.95 Airmen: Limitations on use of services. 135.97 Aircraft and facilities for recent flight experience. 135.98 Operations in the North Polar Area. 135.99 Composition of flight crew.

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135.100 Flight crewmember duties. 135.101 Second in command required under IFR. 135.103 [Reserved] 135.105 Exception to second in command requirement: Approval for use of autopilot system. 135.107 Flight attendant crewmember requirement. 135.109 Pilot in command or second in command: Designation required. 135.111 Second in command required in Category II operations. 135.113 Passenger occupancy of pilot seat. 135.115 Manipulation of controls. 135.117 Briefing of passengers before flight. 135.119 Prohibition against carriage of weapons. 135.120 Prohibition on interference with crewmembers. 135.121 Alcoholic beverages. 135.122 Stowage of food, beverage, and passenger service equipment during aircraft movement on the surface, takeoff, and landing. 135.123 Emergency and emergency evacuation duties. 135.125 Aircraft security. 135.127 Passenger information requirements and smoking prohibitions. 135.128 Use of safety belts and child restraint systems. 135.129 Exit seating. Subpart C—Aircraft and Equipment 135.141 Applicability. 135.143 General requirements. 135.144 Portable electronic devices. 135.145 Aircraft proving and validation tests. 135.147 Dual controls required. 135.149 Equipment requirements: General. 135.150 Public address and crewmember interphone systems. 135.151 Cockpit voice recorders. 135.152 Flight data recorders. 135.153 [Reserved] 135.154 Terrain awareness and warning system. 135.155 Fire extinguishers: Passenger-carrying aircraft. 135.156 Flight data recorders: filtered data. 135.157 Oxygen equipment requirements. 135.158 Pitot heat indication systems. 135.159 Equipment requirements: Carrying passengers under VFR at night or under VFR over-the-top conditions. 135.160 Radio altimeters for rotorcraft operations. 135.161 Communication and navigation equipment for aircraft operations under VFR over routes navigated by pilotage. 135.163 Equipment requirements: Aircraft carrying passengers under IFR. 135.165 Communication and navigation equipment: Extended over-water or IFR operations. 135.167 Emergency equipment: Extended overwater operations. 135.168 Emergency equipment: Overwater rotorcraft operations. 135.169 Additional airworthiness requirements. 135.170 Materials for compartment interiors. 135.171 Shoulder harness installation at flight crewmember stations. 135.173 Airborne thunderstorm detection equipment requirements. 135.175 Airborne weather radar equipment requirements. 135.177 Emergency equipment requirements for aircraft having a passenger seating configuration of more than 19 passengers. 135.178 Additional emergency equipment. 135.179 Inoperable instruments and equipment. 135.180 Traffic Alert and Collision Avoidance System. 135.181 Performance requirements: Aircraft operated over-the-top or in IFR conditions. 135.183 Performance requirements: Land aircraft operated over water. 135.185 Empty weight and center of gravity: Currency requirement. Subpart D—VFR/IFR Operating Limitations and Weather Requirements 135.201 Applicability. 135.203 VFR: Minimum altitudes. 135.205 VFR: Visibility requirements. 135.207 VFR: Helicopter surface reference requirements. 135.209 VFR: Fuel supply. 135.211 VFR: Over-the-top carrying passengers: Operating limitations. 135.213 Weather reports and forecasts. 135.215 IFR: Operating limitations. 135.217 IFR: Takeoff limitations. 135.219 IFR: Destination airport weather minimums. 135.221 IFR: Alternate airport weather minimums. 135.223 IFR: Alternate airport requirements. 135.225 IFR: Takeoff, approach and landing minimums. 135.227 Icing conditions: Operating limitations. 135.229 Airport requirements. Subpart E—Flight Crewmember Requirements 135.241 Applicability. 135.243 Pilot in command qualifications. 135.244 Operating experience. 135.245 Second in command qualifications. 135.247 Pilot qualifications: Recent experience.

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135.249-135.255 [Reserved] Subpart F—Crewmember Flight Time and Duty Period Limitations and Rest Requirements 135.261 Applicability. 135.263 Flight time limitations and rest requirements: All certificate holders. 135.265 Flight time limitations and rest requirements: Scheduled operations. 135.267 Flight time limitations and rest requirements: Unscheduled one- and two-pilot crews. 135.269 Flight time limitations and rest requirements: Unscheduled three- and four-pilot crews. 135.271 Helicopter hospital emergency medical evacuation service (HEMES). 135.273 Duty period limitations and rest time requirements. Subpart G—Crewmember Testing Requirements 135.291 Applicability. 135.293 Initial and recurrent pilot testing requirements. 135.295 Initial and recurrent flight attendant crewmember testing requirements. 135.297 Pilot in command: Instrument proficiency check requirements. 135.299 Pilot in command: Line checks: Routes and airports. 135.301 Crewmember: Tests and checks, grace provisions, training to accepted standards. Subpart H—Training 135.321 Applicability and terms used. 135.323 Training program: General. 135.324 Training program: Special rules. 135.325 Training program and revision: Initial and final approval. 135.327 Training program: Curriculum. 135.329 Crewmember training requirements. 135.330 Crew resource management training. 135.331 Crewmember emergency training. 135.335 Approval of aircraft simulators and other training devices. 135.336 Airline transport pilot certification training program. 135.337 Qualifications: Check pilots. 135.338 Qualifications: Flight instructors. 135.339 Initial and transition training and checking: Check pilots. 135.340 Initial and transition training and checking: Flight instructors. 135.341 Pilot and flight attendant crewmember training programs. 135.343 Crewmember initial and recurrent training requirements. 135.345 Pilots: Initial, transition, and upgrade ground training. 135.347 Pilots: Initial, transition, upgrade, and differences flight training. 135.349 Flight attendants: Initial and transition ground training. 135.351 Recurrent training. 135.353 [Reserved] Subpart I—Airplane Performance Operating Limitations 135.361 Applicability. 135.363 General. 135.364 Maximum flying time outside the United States. 135.365 Large transport category airplanes: Reciprocating engine powered: Weight limitations. 135.367 Large transport category airplanes: Reciprocating engine powered: Takeoff limitations. 135.369 Large transport category airplanes: Reciprocating engine powered: En route limitations: All engines operating. 135.371 Large transport category airplanes: Reciprocating engine powered: En route limitations: One engine inoperative. 135.373 Part 25 transport category airplanes with four or more engines: Reciprocating engine powered: En route limitations: Two engines inoperative. 135.375 Large transport category airplanes: Reciprocating engine powered: Landing limitations: Destination airports. 135.377 Large transport category airplanes: Reciprocating engine powered: Landing limitations: Alternate airports. 135.379 Large transport category airplanes: Turbine engine powered: Takeoff limitations. 135.381 Large transport category airplanes: Turbine engine powered: En route limitations: One engine inoperative. 135.383 Large transport category airplanes: Turbine engine powered: En route limitations: Two engines inoperative. 135.385 Large transport category airplanes: Turbine engine powered: Landing limitations: Destination airports. 135.387 Large transport category airplanes: Turbine engine powered: Landing limitations: Alternate airports. 135.389 Large nontransport category airplanes: Takeoff limitations. 135.391 Large nontransport category airplanes: En route limitations: One engine inoperative. 135.393 Large nontransport category airplanes: Landing limitations: Destination airports. 135.395 Large nontransport category airplanes: Landing limitations: Alternate airports. 135.397 Small transport category airplane performance operating limitations. 135.398 Commuter category airplanes performance operating limitations. 135.399 Small nontransport category airplane performance operating limitations.

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Subpart J—Maintenance, Preventive Maintenance, and Alterations 135.411 Applicability. 135.413 Responsibility for airworthiness. 135.415 Service difficulty reports. 135.417 Mechanical interruption summary report. 135.419 Approved aircraft inspection program. 135.421 Additional maintenance requirements. 135.422 Aging airplane inspections and records reviews for multiengine airplanes certificated with nine or fewer passenger seats. 135.423 Maintenance, preventive maintenance, and alteration organization. 135.425 Maintenance, preventive maintenance, and alteration programs. 135.426 Contract maintenance. 135.427 Manual requirements. 135.429 Required inspection personnel. 135.431 Continuing analysis and surveillance. 135.433 Maintenance and preventive maintenance training program. 135.435 Certificate requirements. 135.437 Authority to perform and approve maintenance, preventive maintenance, and alterations. 135.439 Maintenance recording requirements. 135.441 Transfer of maintenance records. 135.443 Airworthiness release or aircraft maintenance log entry. Subpart K—Hazardous Materials Training Program 135.501 Applicability and definitions. 135.503 Hazardous materials training: General. 135.505 Hazardous materials training required. 135.507 Hazardous materials training records. Subpart L—Helicopter Air Ambulance Equipment, Operations, and Training Requirements 135.601 Applicability and definitions. 135.603 Pilot-in-command instrument qualifications. 135.605 Helicopter terrain awareness and warning system (HTAWS). 135.607 Flight Data Monitoring System. 135.609 VFR ceiling and visibility requirements for Class G airspace. 135.611 IFR operations at locations without weather reporting. 135.613 Approach/departure IFR transitions. 135.615 VFR flight planning. 135.617 Pre-flight risk analysis. 135.619 Operations control centers. 135.621 Briefing of medical personnel. Appendix A to Part 135—Additional Airworthiness Standards for 10 or More Passenger Airplanes Appendix B to Part 135—Airplane Flight Recorder Specifications Appendix C to Part 135—Helicopter Flight Recorder Specifications Appendix D to Part 135—Airplane Flight Recorder Specification Appendix E to Part 135—Helicopter Flight Recorder Specifications Appendix F to Part 135—Airplane Flight Recorder Specifications Appendix G to Part 135—Extended Operations (ETOPS) Authority: 49 U.S.C. 106(f), 40113, 41706, 44701-44702, 44705, 44709, 44711-44713, 44715-44717, 44722, 44730, 45101-45105; Pub. L. 112-95, 126 Stat. 58 (49 U.S.C. 44730). Source: Docket 16097, 43 FR 46783, Oct. 10, 1978, unless otherwise noted. Pt. 135, SFAR No. 50-2, Nt. Special Federal Aviation Regulation No. 50-2 Editorial Note: For the text of SFAR No. 50-2, see part 91 of this chapter.

Pt. 135, SFAR No. 71, Nt. Special Federal Aviation Regulation No. 71 Editorial Note: For the text of SFAR No. 71, see part 91 of this chapter.

Pt. 135, SFAR No. 89, Nt. Special Federal Aviation Regulation No. 89 Editorial Note: For the text of SFAR No. 89, see part 121 of this chapter.

Pt. 135, SFAR No. 97, Nt. Special Federal Aviation Regulation No. 97 Editorial Note: For the text of SFAR No. 97, see part 91 of this chapter.

Subpart A—General § 135.1 Applicability. (a) This part prescribes rules governing— (1) The commuter or on-demand operations of each person who holds or is required to hold an Air Carrier Certificate or Operating Certificate under part 119 of this chapter. (2) Each person employed or used by a certificate holder conducting operations under this part including the maintenance, preventative maintenance and alteration of an aircraft.

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(3) The transportation of mail by aircraft conducted under a postal service contract awarded under 39 U.S.C. 5402c. (4) Each person who applies for provisional approval of an Advanced Qualification Program curriculum, curriculum segment, or portion of a curriculum segment under subpart Y of part 121 of this chapter of 14 CFR part 121 and each person employed or used by an air carrier or commercial operator under this part to perform training, qualification, or evaluation functions under an Advanced Qualification Program under subpart Y of part 121 of this chapter of 14 CFR part 121. (5) Nonstop Commercial Air Tour flights conducted for compensation or hire in accordance with § 119.1(e)(2) of this chapter that begin and end at the same airport and are conducted within a 25-statute-mile radius of that airport; provided further that these operations must comply only with the drug and alcohol testing requirements in §§ 120.31, 120.33, 120.35, 120.37, and 120.39 of this chapter; and with the provisions of part 136, subpart A, and § 91.147 of this chapter by September 11, 2007. (6) Each person who is on board an aircraft being operated under this part. (7) Each person who is an applicant for an Air Carrier Certificate or an Operating Certificate under 119 of this chapter, when conducting proving tests. (8) Commercial Air tours conducted by holders of operations specifications issued under this part must comply with the provisions of part 136, Subpart A of this chapter by September 11, 2007. (9) Helicopter air ambulance operations as defined in § 135.601(b)(1). (b) [Reserved] (c) An operator who does not hold a part 119 certificate and who operates under the provisions of § 91.147 of this chapter is permitted to use a person who is otherwise authorized to perform aircraft maintenance or preventive maintenance duties and who is not subject to anti-drug and alcohol misuse prevent programs to perform— (1) Aircraft maintenance or preventive maintenance on the operator's aircraft if the operator would otherwise be required to transport the aircraft more than 50 nautical miles further than the repair point closest to operator's principal place of operation to obtain these services; or (2) Emergency repairs on the operator's aircraft if the aircraft cannot be safely operated to a location where an employee subject to FAA-approved programs can perform the repairs. [Docket 16097, 43 FR 46783, Oct. 10, 1978] Editorial Note: For Federal Register citations affecting § 135.1, see the List of CFR Sections Affected, which appears in the Finding Aids section of the printed volume and at www.govinfo.gov.

§ 135.1, Nt. Effective Date Note: By Docket FAA-2023-1275, Amdt. 135-147, 89 FR 92486, Nov. 21, 2024, § 135.1 was amended by adding paragraph (d), effective Jan. 21, 2025. For the convenience of the user, the added text is set forth as follows: § 135.1 Applicability. (d) Additional requirements for powered-lift operations, training, checking, and testing, are set forth in part 194 of this chapter. § 135.2 Compliance schedule for operators that transition to part 121 of this chapter; certain new entrant operators. (a) Applicability. This section applies to the following: (1) Each certificate holder that was issued an air carrier or operating certificate and operations specifications under the requirements of part 135 of this chapter or under SFAR No. 38-2 of 14 CFR part 121 before January 19, 1996, and that conducts scheduled passenger-carrying operations with: (i) Nontransport category turbopropeller powered airplanes type certificated after December 31, 1964, that have a passenger seat configuration of 10-19 seats; (ii) Transport category turbopropeller powered airplanes that have a passenger seat configuration of 20-30 seats; or (iii) Turbojet engine powered airplanes having a passenger seat configuration of 1-30 seats. (2) Each person who, after January 19, 1996, applies for or obtains an initial air carrier or operating certificate and operations specifications to conduct scheduled passenger-carrying operations in the kinds of airplanes described in paragraphs (a)(1)(i), (a)(1)(ii), or paragraph (a)(1)(iii) of this section.

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(b) Obtaining operations specifications. A certificate holder described in paragraph (a)(1) of this section may not, after March 20, 1997, operate an airplane described in paragraphs (a)(1)(i), (a)(1)(ii), or (a)(1)(iii) of this section in scheduled passenger-carrying operations, unless it obtains operations specifications to conduct its scheduled operations under part 121 of this chapter on or before March 20, 1997. (c) Regular or accelerated compliance. Except as provided in paragraphs (d), and (e) of this section, each certificate holder described in paragraph (a)(1) of this section shall comply with each applicable requirement of part 121 of this chapter on and after March 20, 1997 or on and after the date on which the certificate holder is issued operations specifications under this part, whichever occurs first. Except as provided in paragraphs (d) and (e) of this section, each person described in paragraph (a)(2) of this section shall comply with each applicable requirement of part 121 of this chapter on and after the date on which that person is issued a certificate and operations specifications under part 121 of this chapter. (d) Delayed compliance dates. Unless paragraph (e) of this section specifies an earlier compliance date, no certificate holder that is covered by paragraph (a) of this section may operate an airplane in 14 CFR part 121 operations on or after a date listed in this paragraph unless that airplane meets the applicable requirement of this paragraph: (1) Nontransport category turbopropeller powered airplanes type certificated after December 31, 1964, that have a passenger seat configuration of 10-19 seats. No certificate holder may operate under this part an airplane that is described in paragraph (a)(1)(i) of this section on or after a date listed in paragraph (d)(1) of this section unless that airplane meets the applicable requirement listed in paragraph (d)(1) of this section: (i) December 20, 1997: (A) Section 121.289, Landing gear aural warning. (B) Section 121.308, Lavatory fire protection. (C) Section 121.310(e), Emergency exit handle illumination. (D) Section 121.337(b)(8), Protective breathing equipment. (E) Section 121.340, Emergency flotation means. (ii) December 20, 1999: Section 121.342, Pitot heat indication system. (iii) December 20, 2010: (A) For airplanes described in § 121.157(f), the Airplane Performance Operating Limitations in §§ 121.189 through 121.197. (B) Section 121.161(b), Ditching approval. (C) Section 121.305(j), Third attitude indicator. (D) Section 121.312(c), Passenger seat cushion flammability. (iv) March 12, 1999: Section 121.310(b)(1), Interior emergency exit locating sign. (2) Transport category turbopropeller powered airplanes that have a passenger seat configuration of 20-30 seats. No certificate holder may operate under this part an airplane that is described in paragraph (a)(1)(ii) of this section on or after a date listed in paragraph (d)(2) of this section unless that airplane meets the applicable requirement listed in paragraph (d)(2) of this section: (i) December 20, 1997: (A) Section 121.308, Lavatory fire protection. (B) Section 121.337(b) (8) and (9), Protective breathing equipment. (C) Section 121.340, Emergency flotation means. (ii) December 20, 2010: Section 121.305(j), Third attitude indicator. (e) Newly manufactured airplanes. No certificate holder that is described in paragraph (a) of this section may operate under part 121 of this chapter an airplane manufactured on or after a date listed in this paragraph (e) unless that airplane meets the applicable requirement listed in this paragraph (e). (1) For nontransport category turbopropeller powered airplanes type certificated after December 31, 1964, that have a passenger seat configuration of 10-19 seats: (i) Manufactured on or after March 20, 1997:

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(A) Section 121.305(j), Third attitude indicator. (B) Section 121.311(f), Safety belts and shoulder harnesses. (ii) Manufactured on or after December 20, 1997: Section 121.317(a), Fasten seat belt light. (iii) Manufactured on or after December 20, 1999: Section 121.293, Takeoff warning system. (iv) Manufactured on or after March 12, 1999: Section 121.310(b)(1), Interior emergency exit locating sign. (2) For transport category turbopropeller powered airplanes that have a passenger seat configuration of 20-30 seats manufactured on or after March 20, 1997: Section 121.305(j), Third attitude indicator. (f) New type certification requirements. No person may operate an airplane for which the application for a type certificate was filed after March 29, 1995, in 14 CFR part 121 operations unless that airplane is type certificated under part 25 of this chapter. (g) Transition plan. Before March 19, 1996 each certificate holder described in paragraph (a)(1) of this section must submit to the FAA a transition plan (containing a calendar of events) for moving from conducting its scheduled operations under the commuter requirements of part 135 of this chapter to the requirements for domestic or flag operations under part 121 of this chapter. Each transition plan must contain details on the following: (1) Plans for obtaining new operations specifications authorizing domestic or flag operations; (2) Plans for being in compliance with the applicable requirements of part 121 of this chapter on or before March 20, 1997; and (3) Plans for complying with the compliance date schedules contained in paragraphs (d) and (e) of this section. [Docket 28154, 60 FR 65938, Dec. 20, 1995, as amended by Amdt. 135-65, 61 FR 30435, June 14, 1996; Amdt. 135-66, 62 FR 13257, Mar. 19, 1997] § 135.3 Rules applicable to operations subject to this part. (a) Each person operating an aircraft in operations under this part shall— (1) While operating inside the United States, comply with the applicable rules of this chapter; and (2) While operating outside the United States, comply with Annex 2, Rules of the Air, to the Convention on International Civil Aviation or the regulations of any foreign country, whichever applies, and with any rules of parts 61 and 91 of this chapter and this part that are more restrictive than that Annex or those regulations and that can be complied with without violating that Annex or those regulations. Annex 2 is incorporated by reference in § 91.703(b) of this chapter. (b) Each certificate holder that conducts commuter operations under this part with airplanes in which two pilots are required by the type certification rules of this chapter shall comply with subparts N and O of part 121 of this chapter instead of the requirements of subparts E, G, and H of this part. Notwithstanding the requirements of this paragraph, a pilot serving under this part as second in command in a commuter operation with airplanes in which two pilots are required by the type certification rules of this chapter may meet the requirements of § 135.245 instead of the requirements of § 121.436. (c) If authorized by the Administrator upon application, each certificate holder that conducts operations under this part to which paragraph (b) of this section does not apply, may comply with the applicable sections of subparts N and O of part 121 instead of the requirements of subparts E, G, and H of this part, except that those authorized certificate holders may choose to comply with the operating experience requirements of § 135.244, instead of the requirements of § 121.434 of this chapter. Notwithstanding the requirements of this paragraph, a pilot serving under this part as second in command may meet the requirements of § 135.245 instead of the requirements of § 121.436. (d) Additional limitations applicable to certificate holders that are required by paragraph (b) of this section or authorized in accordance with paragraph (c) of this section, to comply with part 121, subparts N and O of this chapter instead of subparts E, G, and H of this part.

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(1) Upgrade training. (i) Each certificate holder must include in upgrade ground training for pilots, instruction in at least the subjects identified in § 121.419(a) of this chapter, as applicable to their assigned duties; and, for pilots serving in crews of two or more pilots, instruction and facilitated discussion in the subjects identified in § 121.419(c) of this chapter. (ii) Each certificate holder must include in upgrade flight training for pilots, flight training for the maneuvers and procedures required in § 121.424(a), (c), (e), and (f) of this chapter; and, for pilots serving in crews of two or more pilots, the flight training required in § 121.424(b) of this chapter. (2) Initial and recurrent leadership and command and mentoring training. Certificate holders are not required to include leadership and command training in §§ 121.409(b)(2)(ii)(F), 121.419(c)(1), 121.424(b) and 121.427(d)(1) of this chapter and mentoring training in §§ 121.419(c)(2) and 121.427(d)(1) of this chapter in initial and recurrent training for pilots in command who serve in operations that use only one pilot. (3) One-time leadership and command and mentoring training. Section 121.429 of this chapter does not apply to certificate holders conducting operations under this part when those operations use only one pilot. [Docket 27993, 60 FR 65949, Dec. 20, 1995, as amended by Amdt. 135-65, 61 FR 30435, June 14, 1996; Amdt. 135-127A, 78 FR 77574, Dec. 24, 2013; Docket FAA-2010-0100, Amdt. 135-127B, 81 FR 2, Jan. 4, 2016; Amdt. 135-142, 85 FR 10935, Feb. 25, 2020; Docket FAA-2019-0360, Amdt. 135-145, 89 FR 51430, June 18, 2024] § 135.4 Applicability of rules for eligible on-demand operations. (a) An “eligible on-demand operation” is an on-demand operation conducted under this part that meets the following requirements: (1) Two-pilot crew. The flightcrew must consist of at least two qualified pilots employed or contracted by the certificate holder. (2) Flight crew experience. The crewmembers must have met the applicable requirements of part 61 of this chapter and have the following experience and ratings: (i) Total flight time for all pilots: (A) Pilot in command—A minimum of 1,500 hours. (B) Second in command—A minimum of 500 hours. (ii) For multi-engine turbine-powered fixed-wing and powered-lift aircraft, the following FAA certification and ratings requirements: (A) Pilot in command—Airline transport pilot and applicable type ratings. (B) Second in command—Commercial pilot and instrument ratings. (iii) For all other aircraft, the following FAA certification and rating requirements: (A) Pilot in command—Commercial pilot and instrument ratings. (B) Second in command—Commercial pilot and instrument ratings. (3) Pilot operating limitations. If the second in command of a fixed-wing aircraft has fewer than 100 hours of flight time as second in command flying in the aircraft make and model and, if a type rating is required, in the type aircraft being flown, and the pilot in command is not an appropriately qualified check pilot, the pilot in command shall make all takeoffs and landings in any of the following situations: (i) Landings at the destination airport when a Destination Airport Analysis is required by § 135.385(f); and (ii) In any of the following conditions: (A) The prevailing visibility for the airport is at or below 3/4 mile. (B) The runway visual range for the runway to be used is at or below 4,000 feet. (C) The runway to be used has water, snow, slush, ice, or similar contamination that may adversely affect aircraft performance. (D) The braking action on the runway to be used is reported to be less than “good.” (E) The crosswind component for the runway to be used is in excess of 15 knots. (F) Windshear is reported in the vicinity of the airport. (G) Any other condition in which the pilot in command determines it to be prudent to exercise the pilot in command's authority. (4) Crew pairing. Either the pilot in command or the second in command must have at least 75 hours of flight time in that aircraft make or model and, if a type rating is required, for that type aircraft, either as pilot in command or second in command.

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(b) The Administrator may authorize deviations from paragraphs (a)(2)(i) or (a)(4) of this section if the responsible Flight Standards office that issued the certificate holder's operations specifications finds that the crewmember has comparable experience, and can effectively perform the functions associated with the position in accordance with the requirements of this chapter. The Administrator may, at any time, terminate any grant of deviation authority issued under this paragraph. Grants of deviation under this paragraph may be granted after consideration of the size and scope of the operation, the qualifications of the intended personnel and the following circumstances: (1) A newly authorized certificate holder does not employ any pilots who meet the minimum requirements of paragraphs (a)(2)(i) or (a)(4) of this section. (2) An existing certificate holder adds to its fleet a new category and class aircraft not used before in its operation. (3) An existing certificate holder establishes a new base to which it assigns pilots who will be required to become qualified on the aircraft operated from that base. (c) An eligible on-demand operation may comply with alternative requirements specified in §§ 135.225(b), 135.385(f), and 135.387(b) instead of the requirements that apply to other on-demand operations. [Docket FAA-2001-10047, 68 FR 54585, Sept. 17, 2003, as amended by Docket FAA-2018-0119, Amdt. 135-139, 83 FR 9175, Mar. 5, 2018] § 135.7 Applicability of rules to unauthorized operators. The rules in this part which apply to a person certificated under part 119 of this chapter also apply to a person who engages in any operation governed by this part without an appropriate certificate and operations specifications required by part 119 of this chapter. [Docket 16097, 43 FR 46783, Oct. 10, 1978, as amended by Amdt. 135-58, 60 FR 65939, Dec. 20, 1995] § 135.12 Previously trained crewmembers. A certificate holder may use a crewmember who received the certificate holder's training in accordance with subparts E, G, and H of this part before March 19, 1997 without complying with initial training and qualification requirements of subparts N and O of part 121 of this chapter. The crewmember must comply with the applicable recurrent training requirements of part 121 of this chapter. [Docket 27993, 60 FR 65950, Dec. 20, 1995] § 135.19 Emergency operations. (a) In an emergency involving the safety of persons or property, the certificate holder may deviate from the rules of this part relating to aircraft and equipment and weather minimums to the extent required to meet that emergency. (b) In an emergency involving the safety of persons or property, the pilot in command may deviate from the rules of this part to the extent required to meet that emergency. (c) Each person who, under the authority of this section, deviates from a rule of this part shall, within 10 days, excluding Saturdays, Sundays, and Federal holidays, after the deviation, send to the responsible Flight Standards office charged with the overall inspection of the certificate holder a complete report of the aircraft operation involved, including a description of the deviation and reasons for it. [Docket 16097, 43 FR 46783, Oct. 10, 1978, as amended by Docket FAA-2018-0119, Amdt. 135-139, 83 FR 9175, Mar. 5, 2018] § 135.21 Manual requirements. (a) Each certificate holder, other than one who uses only one pilot in the certificate holder's operations, shall prepare and keep current a manual setting forth the certificate holder's procedures and policies acceptable to the Administrator. This manual must be used by the certificate holder's flight, ground, and maintenance personnel in conducting its operations. However, the Administrator may authorize a deviation from this paragraph if the Administrator finds that, because of the limited size of the operation, all or part of the manual is not necessary for guidance of flight, ground, or maintenance personnel.

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(b) Each certificate holder shall maintain at least one copy of the manual at its principal base of operations. (c) The manual must not be contrary to any applicable Federal regulations, foreign regulation applicable to the certificate holder's operations in foreign countries, or the certificate holder's operating certificate or operations specifications. (d) A copy of the manual, or appropriate portions of the manual (and changes and additions) shall be made available to maintenance and ground operations personnel by the certificate holder and furnished to— (1) Its flight crewmembers; and (2) Representatives of the Administrator assigned to the certificate holder. (e) Each employee of the certificate holder to whom a manual or appropriate portions of it are furnished under paragraph (d)(1) of this section shall keep it up to date with the changes and additions furnished to them. (f) The certificate holder must ensure the appropriate parts of the manual are accessible to flight, ground, and maintenance personnel at all times when such personnel are performing their assigned duties. (g) The information and instructions contained in the manual must be displayed clearly and be retrievable in the English language. [Docket 16097, 43 FR 46783, Oct. 10, 1978, as amended by Amdt. 135-18, 47 FR 33396, Aug. 2, 1982; Amdt. 135-58, 60 FR 65939, Dec. 20, 1995; Amdt. 135-66, 62 FR 13257, Mar. 19, 1997; Amdt. 135-91, 68 FR 54585, Sept. 17, 2003; Docket FAA-2022-0912, Amdt. 135-144, 88 FR 34443, May 30, 2023] § 135.23 Manual contents. Each manual accessed in paper format must display the date of last revision on each page. Each manual accessed in electronic format must display the date of last revision in a manner in which a person can immediately ascertain it. The manual must include: (a) The name of each management person required under § 119.69(a) of this chapter who is authorized to act for the certificate holder, the person's assigned area of responsibility, the person's duties, responsibilities, and authority, and the name and title of each person authorized to exercise operational control under § 135.77; (b) Procedures for ensuring compliance with aircraft weight and balance limitations and, for multiengine aircraft, for determining compliance with § 135.185; (c) Copies of the certificate holder's operations specifications or appropriate extracted information, including area of operations authorized, category and class of aircraft authorized, crew complements, and types of operations authorized; (d) Procedures for complying with accident notification requirements; (e) Procedures for ensuring that the pilot in command knows that required airworthiness inspections have been made and that the aircraft has been approved for return to service in compliance with applicable maintenance requirements; (f) Procedures for reporting and recording mechanical irregularities that come to the attention of the pilot in command before, during, and after completion of a flight; (g) Procedures to be followed by the pilot in command for determining that mechanical irregularities or defects reported for previous flights have been corrected or that correction has been deferred; (h) Procedures to be followed by the pilot in command to obtain maintenance, preventive maintenance, and servicing of the aircraft at a place where previous arrangements have not been made by the operator, when the pilot is authorized to so act for the operator; (i) Procedures under § 135.179 for the release for, or continuation of, flight if any item of equipment required for the particular type of operation becomes inoperative or unserviceable en route; (j) Procedures for refueling aircraft, eliminating fuel contamination, protecting from fire (including electrostatic protection), and supervising and protecting passengers during refueling; (k) Procedures to be followed by the pilot in command in the briefing under § 135.117;

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(l) Flight locating procedures, when applicable; (m) Procedures for ensuring compliance with emergency procedures, including a list of the functions assigned each category of required crewmembers in connection with an emergency and emergency evacuation duties under § 135.123; (n) En route qualification procedures for pilots, when applicable; (o) The approved aircraft inspection program, when applicable; (p)(1) Procedures and information, as described in paragraph (p)(2) of this section, to assist each crewmember and person performing or directly supervising the following job functions involving items for transport on an aircraft: (i) Acceptance; (ii) Rejection; (iii) Handling; (iv) Storage incidental to transport; (v) Packaging of company material; or (vi) Loading. (2) Ensure that the procedures and information described in this paragraph are sufficient to assist a person in identifying packages that are marked or labeled as containing hazardous materials or that show signs of containing undeclared hazardous materials. The procedures and information must include: (i) Procedures for rejecting packages that do not conform to the Hazardous Materials Regulations in 49 CFR parts 171 through 180 or that appear to contain undeclared hazardous materials; (ii) Procedures for complying with the hazardous materials incident reporting requirements of 49 CFR 171.15 and 171.16 and discrepancy reporting requirements of 49 CFR 175.31. (iii) The certificate holder's hazmat policies and whether the certificate holder is authorized to carry, or is prohibited from carrying, hazardous materials; and (iv) If the certificate holder's operations specifications permit the transport of hazardous materials, procedures and information to ensure the following: (A) That packages containing hazardous materials are properly offered and accepted in compliance with 49 CFR parts 171 through 180; (B) That packages containing hazardous materials are properly handled, stored, packaged, loaded and carried on board an aircraft in compliance with 49 CFR parts 171 through 180; (C) That the requirements for Notice to the Pilot in Command (49 CFR 175.33) are complied with; and (D) That aircraft replacement parts, consumable materials or other items regulated by 49 CFR parts 171 through 180 are properly handled, packaged, and transported. (q) Procedures for the evacuation of persons who may need the assistance of another person to move expeditiously to an exit if an emergency occurs; and (r) If required by § 135.385, an approved Destination Airport Analysis establishing runway safety margins at destination airports, taking into account the following factors as supported by published aircraft performance data supplied by the aircraft manufacturer for the appropriate runway conditions— (1) Pilot qualifications and experience; (2) Aircraft performance data to include normal, abnormal and emergency procedures as supplied by the aircraft manufacturer; (3) Airport facilities and topography; (4) Runway conditions (including contamination); (5) Airport or area weather reporting; (6) Appropriate additional runway safety margins, if required; (7) Airplane inoperative equipment; (8) Environmental conditions; and (9) Other criteria affecting aircraft performance. (s) Other procedures and policy instructions regarding the certificate holder's operations issued by the certificate holder. [Docket 16097, 43 FR 46783, Oct. 10, 1978, as amended by Amdt. 135-20, 51 FR 40709, Nov. 7, 1986; Amdt. 135-58, 60 FR 65939, Dec. 20, 1995; Amdt. 135-91, 68 FR 54586, Sept. 17, 2003; Amdt. 135-101, 70 FR 58829, Oct. 7, 2005; Docket FAA-2022-0912, Amdt. 135-144, 88 FR 34443, May 30, 2023] § 135.25 Aircraft requirements. (a) Except as provided in paragraph (d) of this section, no certificate holder may operate an aircraft under this part unless that aircraft—

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(1) Is registered as a civil aircraft of the United States and carries an appropriate and current airworthiness certificate issued under this chapter; and (2) Is in an airworthy condition and meets the applicable airworthiness requirements of this chapter, including those relating to identification and equipment. (b) Each certificate holder must have the exclusive use of at least one aircraft that meets the requirements for at least one kind of operation authorized in the certificate holder's operations specifications. In addition, for each kind of operation for which the certificate holder does not have the exclusive use of an aircraft, the certificate holder must have available for use under a written agreement (including arrangements for performing required maintenance) at least one aircraft that meets the requirements for that kind of operation. However, this paragraph does not prohibit the operator from using or authorizing the use of the aircraft for other than operations under this part and does not require the certificate holder to have exclusive use of all aircraft that the certificate holder uses. (c) For the purposes of paragraph (b) of this section, a person has exclusive use of an aircraft if that person has the sole possession, control, and use of it for flight, as owner, or has a written agreement (including arrangements for performing required maintenance), in effect when the aircraft is operated, giving the person that possession, control, and use for at least 6 consecutive months. (d) A certificate holder may operate in common carriage, and for the carriage of mail, a civil aircraft which is leased or chartered to it without crew and is registered in a country which is a party to the Convention on International Civil Aviation if— (1) The aircraft carries an appropriate airworthiness certificate issued by the country of registration and meets the registration and identification requirements of that country; (2) The aircraft is of a type design which is approved under a U.S. type certificate and complies with all of the requirements of this chapter (14 CFR chapter I) that would be applicable to that aircraft were it registered in the United States, including the requirements which must be met for issuance of a U.S. standard airworthiness certificate (including type design conformity, condition for safe operation, and the noise, fuel venting, and engine emission requirements of this chapter), except that a U.S. registration certificate and a U.S. standard airworthiness certificate will not be issued for the aircraft; (3) The aircraft is operated by U.S.-certificated airmen employed by the certificate holder; and (4) The certificate holder files a copy of the aircraft lease or charter agreement with the FAA Aircraft Registry, Department of Transportation, 6400 South MacArthur Boulevard, Oklahoma City, OK (Mailing address: P.O. Box 25504, Oklahoma City, OK 73125). [Docket 16097, 43 FR 46783, Oct. 10, 1978, as amended by Amdt. 135-8, 45 FR 68649, Oct. 16, 1980; Amdt. 135-66, 62 FR 13257, Mar. 19, 1997] § 135.41 Carriage of narcotic drugs, marihuana, and depressant or stimulant drugs or substances. If the holder of a certificate operating under this part allows any aircraft owned or leased by that holder to be engaged in any operation that the certificate holder knows to be in violation of § 91.19(a) of this chapter, that operation is a basis for suspending or revoking the certificate. [Docket 28154, 60 FR 65939, Dec. 20, 1995] § 135.43 Crewmember certificates: International operations. (a) This section describes the certificates that were issued to United States citizens who were employed by air carriers at the time of issuance as flight crewmembers on United States registered aircraft engaged in international air commerce. The purpose of the certificate is to facilitate the entry and clearance of those crewmembers into ICAO contracting states. They were issued under Annex 9, as amended, to the Convention on International Civil Aviation. (b) The holder of a certificate issued under this section, or the air carrier by whom the holder is employed, shall surrender the certificate for cancellation at the responsible Flight Standards office at the termination of the holder's employment with that air carrier.

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[Docket 28154, 61 FR 30435, June 14, 1996, as amended by Docket FAA-2018-0119, Amdt. 135-139, 83 FR 9175, Mar. 5, 2018] Subpart B—Flight Operations § 135.61 General. This subpart prescribes rules, in addition to those in part 91 of this chapter, that apply to operations under this part. § 135.63 Recordkeeping requirements. (a) Each certificate holder shall keep at its principal business office or at other places approved by the Administrator, and shall make available for inspection by the Administrator the following— (1) The certificate holder's operating certificate; (2) The certificate holder's operations specifications; (3) A current list of the aircraft used or available for use in operations under this part and the operations for which each is equipped; (4) An individual record of each pilot used in operations under this part, including the following information: (i) The full name of the pilot. (ii) The pilot certificate (by type and number) and ratings that the pilot holds. (iii) The pilot's aeronautical experience in sufficient detail to determine the pilot's qualifications to pilot aircraft in operations under this part. (iv) The pilot's current duties and the date of the pilot's assignment to those duties. (v) The effective date and class of the medical certificate that the pilot holds. (vi) The date and result of each of the initial and recurrent competency tests and proficiency and route checks required by this part and the type of aircraft flown during that test or check. (vii) The pilot's flight time in sufficient detail to determine compliance with the flight time limitations of this part. (viii) The pilot's check pilot authorization, if any. (ix) Any action taken concerning the pilot's release from employment for physical or professional disqualification. (x) The date of the completion of the initial phase and each recurrent phase of the training required by this part; and (5) An individual record for each flight attendant who is required under this part, maintained in sufficient detail to determine compliance with the applicable portions of § 135.273 of this part. (b) Each certificate holder must keep each record required by paragraph (a)(3) of this section for at least 6 months, and must keep each record required by paragraphs (a)(4) and (a)(5) of this section for at least 12 months. (c) For multiengine aircraft, each certificate holder is responsible for the preparation and accuracy of a load manifest in duplicate containing information concerning the loading of the aircraft. The manifest must be prepared before each takeoff and must include: (1) The number of passengers; (2) The total weight of the loaded aircraft; (3) The maximum allowable takeoff weight for that flight; (4) The center of gravity limits; (5) The center of gravity of the loaded aircraft, except that the actual center of gravity need not be computed if the aircraft is loaded according to a loading schedule or other approved method that ensures that the center of gravity of the loaded aircraft is within approved limits. In those cases, an entry shall be made on the manifest indicating that the center of gravity is within limits according to a loading schedule or other approved method; (6) The registration number of the aircraft or flight number; (7) The origin and destination; and (8) Identification of crew members and their crew position assignments. (d) The pilot in command of an aircraft for which a load manifest must be prepared shall carry a copy of the completed load manifest in the aircraft to its destination. The certificate holder shall keep copies of completed load manifests for at least 30 days at its principal operations base, or at another location used by it and approved by the Administrator.

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[Docket 16097, 43 FR 46783, Oct. 10, 1978, as amended by Amdt. 135-52, 59 FR 42993, Aug. 19, 1994] § 135.64 Retention of contracts and amendments: Commercial operators who conduct intrastate operations for compensation or hire. Each commercial operator who conducts intrastate operations for compensation or hire shall keep a copy of each written contract under which it provides services as a commercial operator for a period of at least one year after the date of execution of the contract. In the case of an oral contract, it shall keep a memorandum stating its elements, and of any amendments to it, for a period of at least one year after the execution of that contract or change. [Docket 28154, 60 FR 65939, Dec. 20, 1995, as amended by Amdt. 135-65, 61 FR 30435, June 14, 1996; Amdt. 135-66, 62 FR 13257, Mar. 19, 1997] § 135.65 Reporting mechanical irregularities. (a) Each certificate holder shall provide an aircraft maintenance log to be carried on board each aircraft for recording or deferring mechanical irregularities and their correction. (b) The pilot in command shall enter or have entered in the aircraft maintenance log each mechanical irregularity that comes to the pilot's attention during flight time. Before each flight, the pilot in command shall, if the pilot does not already know, determine the status of each irregularity entered in the maintenance log at the end of the preceding flight. (c) Each person who takes corrective action or defers action concerning a reported or observed failure or malfunction of an airframe, powerplant, propeller, rotor, or appliance, shall record the action taken in the aircraft maintenance log under the applicable maintenance requirements of this chapter. (d) Each certificate holder shall establish a procedure for keeping copies of the aircraft maintenance log required by this section in the aircraft for access by appropriate personnel and shall include that procedure in the manual required by § 135.21. § 135.67 Reporting potentially hazardous meteorological conditions and irregularities of ground facilities or navigation aids. Whenever a pilot encounters a potentially hazardous meteorological condition or an irregularity in a ground facility or navigation aid in flight, the knowledge of which the pilot considers essential to the safety of other flights, the pilot shall notify an appropriate ground radio station as soon as practicable. [Docket 16097, 43 FR 46783, Oct. 1, 1978, as amended by Amdt. 135-1, 44 FR 26737, May 7, 1979; Amdt. 135-110, 72 FR 31684, June 7, 2007] § 135.69 Restriction or suspension of operations: Continuation of flight in an emergency. (a) During operations under this part, if a certificate holder or pilot in command knows of conditions, including airport and runway conditions, that are a hazard to safe operations, the certificate holder or pilot in command, as the case may be, shall restrict or suspend operations as necessary until those conditions are corrected. (b) No pilot in command may allow a flight to continue toward any airport of intended landing under the conditions set forth in paragraph (a) of this section, unless, in the opinion of the pilot in command, the conditions that are a hazard to safe operations may reasonably be expected to be corrected by the estimated time of arrival or, unless there is no safer procedure. In the latter event, the continuation toward that airport is an emergency situation under § 135.19. § 135.71 Airworthiness check. The pilot in command may not begin a flight unless the pilot determines that the airworthiness inspections required by § 91.409 of this chapter, or § 135.419, whichever is applicable, have been made. [Docket 16097, 43 FR 46783, Oct. 10, 1978, as amended by Amdt. 135-32, 54 FR 34332, Aug. 18, 1989]

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§ 135.73 Inspections and tests. Each certificate holder and each person employed by the certificate holder shall allow the Administrator, at any time or place, to make inspections or tests (including en route inspections) to determine the holder's compliance with the Federal Aviation Act of 1958, applicable regulations, and the certificate holder's operating certificate, and operations specifications. § 135.75 Inspectors credentials: Admission to pilots' compartment: Forward observer's seat. (a) Whenever, in performing the duties of conducting an inspection, an FAA inspector presents an Aviation Safety Inspector credential, FAA Form 110A, to the pilot in command of an aircraft operated by the certificate holder, the inspector must be given free and uninterrupted access to the pilot compartment of that aircraft. However, this paragraph does not limit the emergency authority of the pilot in command to exclude any person from the pilot compartment in the interest of safety. (b) A forward observer's seat on the flight deck, or forward passenger seat with headset or speaker must be provided for use by the Administrator while conducting en route inspections. The suitability of the location of the seat and the headset or speaker for use in conducting en route inspections is determined by the Administrator. § 135.76 DOD Commercial Air Carrier Evaluator's Credentials: Admission to pilots compartment: Forward observer's seat. (a) Whenever, in performing the duties of conducting an evaluation, a DOD commercial air carrier evaluator presents S&A Form 110B, “DOD Commercial Air Carrier Evaluator's Credential,” to the pilot in command of an aircraft operated by the certificate holder, the evaluator must be given free and uninterrupted access to the pilot's compartment of that aircraft. However, this paragraph does not limit the emergency authority of the pilot in command to exclude any person from the pilot compartment in the interest of safety. (b) A forward observer's seat on the flight deck or forward passenger seat with headset or speaker must be provided for use by the evaluator while conducting en route evaluations. The suitability of the location of the seat and the headset or speaker for use in conducting en route evaluations is determined by the FAA. [Docket FAA-2003-15571, 68 FR 41218, July 10, 2003] § 135.77 Responsibility for operational control. Each certificate holder is responsible for operational control and shall list, in the manual required by § 135.21, the name and title of each person authorized by it to exercise operational control. § 135.78 Instrument approach procedures and IFR landing minimums. No person may make an instrument approach at an airport except in accordance with IFR weather minimums and instrument approach procedures set forth in the certificate holder's operations specifications. [Docket FAA-2002-14002, 72 FR 31684, June 7, 2007] § 135.79 Flight locating requirements. (a) Each certificate holder must have procedures established for locating each flight, for which an FAA flight plan is not filed, that— (1) Provide the certificate holder with at least the information required to be included in a VFR flight plan; (2) Provide for timely notification of an FAA facility or search and rescue facility, if an aircraft is overdue or missing; and (3) Provide the certificate holder with the location, date, and estimated time for reestablishing communications, if the flight will operate in an area where communications cannot be maintained. (b) Flight locating information shall be retained at the certificate holder's principal place of business, or at other places designated by the certificate holder in the flight locating procedures, until the completion of the flight.

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(c) Each certificate holder shall furnish the representative of the Administrator assigned to it with a copy of its flight locating procedures and any changes or additions, unless those procedures are included in a manual required under this part. [Docket 16097, 43 FR 46783, Oct. 10, 1978, as amended by Amdt. 135-110, 72 FR 31684, June 7, 2007] § 135.81 Informing personnel of operational information and appropriate changes. Each certificate holder shall inform each person in its employment of the operations specifications that apply to that person's duties and responsibilities and shall make available to each pilot in the certificate holder's employ the following materials in current form: (a) Airman's Information Manual (Alaska Supplement in Alaska and Pacific Chart Supplement in Pacific-Asia Regions) or a commercial publication that contains the same information. (b) This part and part 91 of this chapter. (c) Aircraft Equipment Manuals, and Aircraft Flight Manual or equivalent. (d) For foreign operations, the International Flight Information Manual or a commercial publication that contains the same information concerning the pertinent operational and entry requirements of the foreign country or countries involved. § 135.83 Operating information required. (a) The operator of an aircraft must provide the following materials, in current and appropriate form, accessible to the pilot at the pilot station, and the pilot shall use them: (1) A cockpit checklist. (2) For multiengine aircraft or for aircraft with retractable landing gear, an emergency cockpit checklist containing the procedures required by paragraph (c) of this section, as appropriate. (3) Pertinent aeronautical charts. (4) For IFR operations, each pertinent navigational en route, terminal area, and approach and letdown chart. (5) For multiengine aircraft, one-engine-inoperative climb performance data and if the aircraft is approved for use in IFR or over-the-top operations, that data must be sufficient to enable the pilot to determine compliance with § 135.181(a)(2). (b) Each cockpit checklist required by paragraph (a)(1) of this section must contain the following procedures: (1) Before starting engines; (2) Before takeoff; (3) Cruise; (4) Before landing; (5) After landing; (6) Stopping engines. (c) Each emergency cockpit checklist required by paragraph (a)(2) of this section must contain the following procedures, as appropriate: (1) Emergency operation of fuel, hydraulic, electrical, and mechanical systems. (2) Emergency operation of instruments and controls. (3) Engine inoperative procedures. (4) Any other emergency procedures necessary for safety. § 135.85 Carriage of persons without compliance with the passenger-carrying provisions of this part. The following persons may be carried aboard an aircraft without complying with the passenger-carrying requirements of this part: (a) A crewmember or other employee of the certificate holder. (b) A person necessary for the safe handling of animals on the aircraft. (c) A person necessary for the safe handling of hazardous materials (as defined in subchapter C of title 49 CFR). (d) A person performing duty as a security or honor guard accompanying a shipment made by or under the authority of the U.S. Government. (e) A military courier or a military route supervisor carried by a military cargo contract air carrier or commercial operator in operations under a military cargo contract, if that carriage is specifically authorized by the appropriate military service. (f) An authorized representative of the Administrator conducting an en route inspection. (g) A person, authorized by the Administrator, who is performing a duty connected with a cargo operation of the certificate holder.

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(h) A DOD commercial air carrier evaluator conducting an en route evaluation. [Docket 16097, 43 FR 46783, Oct. 10, 1978, as amended by Amdt. 135-88, 68 FR 41218, July 10, 2003] § 135.87 Carriage of cargo including carry-on baggage. No person may carry cargo, including carry-on baggage, in or on any aircraft unless— (a) It is carried in an approved cargo rack, bin, or compartment installed in or on the aircraft; (b) It is secured by an approved means; or (c) It is carried in accordance with each of the following: (1) For cargo, it is properly secured by a safety belt or other tie-down having enough strength to eliminate the possibility of shifting under all normally anticipated flight and ground conditions, or for carry-on baggage, it is restrained so as to prevent its movement during air turbulence. (2) It is packaged or covered to avoid possible injury to occupants. (3) It does not impose any load on seats or on the floor structure that exceeds the load limitation for those components. (4) It is not located in a position that obstructs the access to, or use of, any required emergency or regular exit, or the use of the aisle between the crew and the passenger compartment, or located in a position that obscures any passenger's view of the “seat belt” sign, “no smoking” sign, or any required exit sign, unless an auxiliary sign or other approved means for proper notification of the passengers is provided. (5) It is not carried directly above seated occupants. (6) It is stowed in compliance with this section for takeoff and landing. (7) For cargo only operations, paragraph (c)(4) of this section does not apply if the cargo is loaded so that at least one emergency or regular exit is available to provide all occupants of the aircraft a means of unobstructed exit from the aircraft if an emergency occurs. (d) Each passenger seat under which baggage is stowed shall be fitted with a means to prevent articles of baggage stowed under it from sliding under crash impacts severe enough to induce the ultimate inertia forces specified in the emergency landing condition regulations under which the aircraft was type certificated. (e) When cargo is carried in cargo compartments that are designed to require the physical entry of a crewmember to extinguish any fire that may occur during flight, the cargo must be loaded so as to allow a crewmember to effectively reach all parts of the compartment with the contents of a hand fire extinguisher. § 135.89 Pilot requirements: Use of oxygen. (a) Unpressurized aircraft. Each pilot of an unpressurized aircraft shall use oxygen continuously when flying— (1) At altitudes above 10,000 feet through 12,000 feet MSL for that part of the flight at those altitudes that is of more than 30 minutes duration; and (2) Above 12,000 feet MSL. (b) Pressurized aircraft. (1) Whenever a pressurized aircraft is operated with the cabin pressure altitude more than 10,000 feet MSL, each pilot shall comply with paragraph (a) of this section. (2) Whenever a pressurized aircraft is operated at altitudes above 25,000 feet through 35,000 feet MSL, unless each pilot has an approved quick-donning type oxygen mask— (i) At least one pilot at the controls shall wear, secured and sealed, an oxygen mask that either supplies oxygen at all times or automatically supplies oxygen whenever the cabin pressure altitude exceeds 12,000 feet MSL; and (ii) During that flight, each other pilot on flight deck duty shall have an oxygen mask, connected to an oxygen supply, located so as to allow immediate placing of the mask on the pilot's face sealed and secured for use. (3) Whenever a pressurized aircraft is operated at altitudes above 35,000 feet MSL, at least one pilot at the controls shall wear, secured and sealed, an oxygen mask required by paragraph (b)(2)(i) of this section. (4) If one pilot leaves a pilot duty station of an aircraft when operating at altitudes above 25,000 feet MSL, the remaining pilot at the controls shall put on and use an approved oxygen mask until the other pilot returns to the pilot duty station of the aircraft.

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§ 135.91 Oxygen and portable oxygen concentrators for medical use by passengers. (a) Except as provided in paragraphs (d) and (e) of this section, no certificate holder may allow the carriage or operation of equipment for the storage, generation or dispensing of medical oxygen unless the conditions in paragraphs (a) through (c) of this section are satisfied. Beginning August 22, 2016, a certificate holder may allow a passenger to carry and operate a portable oxygen concentrator when the conditions in paragraphs (b) and (f) of this section are satisfied. (1) The equipment must be— (i) Of an approved type or in conformity with the manufacturing, packaging, marking, labeling, and maintenance requirements of title 49 CFR parts 171, 172, and 173, except § 173.24(a)(1); (ii) When owned by the certificate holder, maintained under the certificate holder's approved maintenance program; (iii) Free of flammable contaminants on all exterior surfaces; (iv) Constructed so that all valves, fittings, and gauges are protected from damage during carriage or operation; and (v) Appropriately secured. (2) When the oxygen is stored in the form of a liquid, the equipment must have been under the certificate holder's approved maintenance program since its purchase new or since the storage container was last purged. (3) When the oxygen is stored in the form of a compressed gas as defined in title 49 CFR 173.115(b)— (i) When owned by the certificate holder, it must be maintained under its approved maintenance program; and (ii) The pressure in any oxygen cylinder must not exceed the rated cylinder pressure. (4) The pilot in command must be advised when the equipment is on board, and when it is intended to be used. (5) The equipment must be stowed, and each person using the equipment must be seated, so as not to restrict access to or use of any required emergency or regular exit, or of the aisle in the passenger compartment. (b) No person may smoke or create an open flame and no certificate holder may allow any person to smoke or create an open flame within 10 feet of oxygen storage and dispensing equipment carried under paragraph (a) of this section or a portable oxygen concentrator carried and operated under paragraph (f) of this section. (c) No certificate holder may allow any person other than a person trained in the use of medical oxygen equipment to connect or disconnect oxygen bottles or any other ancillary component while any passenger is aboard the aircraft. (d) Paragraph (a)(1)(i) of this section does not apply when that equipment is furnished by a professional or medical emergency service for use on board an aircraft in a medical emergency when no other practical means of transportation (including any other properly equipped certificate holder) is reasonably available and the person carried under the medical emergency is accompanied by a person trained in the use of medical oxygen. (e) Each certificate holder who, under the authority of paragraph (d) of this section, deviates from paragraph (a)(1)(i) of this section under a medical emergency shall, within 10 days, excluding Saturdays, Sundays, and Federal holidays, after the deviation, send to the responsible Flight Standards office a complete report of the operation involved, including a description of the deviation and the reasons for it. (f) Portable oxygen concentrators —(1) Acceptance criteria. A passenger may carry or operate a portable oxygen concentrator for personal use on board an aircraft and a certificate holder may allow a passenger to carry or operate a portable oxygen concentrator on board an aircraft operated under this part during all phases of flight if the portable oxygen concentrator satisfies all of the requirements of this paragraph (f): (i) Is legally marketed in the United States in accordance with Food and Drug Administration requirements in title 21 of the CFR;

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(ii) Does not radiate radio frequency emissions that interfere with aircraft systems; (iii) Generates a maximum oxygen pressure of less than 200 kPa gauge (29.0 psig/43.8 psia) at 20 °C (68 °F); (iv) Does not contain any hazardous materials subject to the Hazardous Materials Regulations (49 CFR parts 171 through 180) except as provided in 49 CFR 175.10 for batteries used to power portable electronic devices and that do not require aircraft operator approval; and (v) Bears a label on the exterior of the device applied in a manner that ensures the label will remain affixed for the life of the device and containing the following certification statement in red lettering: “The manufacturer of this POC has determined this device conforms to all applicable FAA acceptance criteria for POC carriage and use on board aircraft.” The label requirements in this paragraph (f)(1)(v) do not apply to the following portable oxygen concentrators approved by the FAA for use on board aircraft prior to May 24, 2016: (A) AirSep Focus; (B) AirSep FreeStyle; (C) AirSep FreeStyle 5; (D) AirSep LifeStyle; (E) Delphi RS-00400; (F) DeVilbiss Healthcare iGo; (G) Inogen One; (H) Inogen One G2; (I) Inogen One G3; (J) Inova Labs LifeChoice; (K) Inova Labs LifeChoice Activox; (L) International Biophysics LifeChoice; (M) Invacare Solo2; (N) Invacare XPO2; (O) Oxlife Independence Oxygen Concentrator; (P) Oxus RS-00400; (Q) Precision Medical EasyPulse; (R) Respironics EverGo; (S) Respironics SimplyGo; (T) SeQual Eclipse; (U) SeQual eQuinox Oxygen System (model 4000); (V) SeQual Oxywell Oxygen System (model 4000); (W) SeQual SAROS; and (X) VBox Trooper Oxygen Concentrator. (2) Operating requirements. Portable oxygen concentrators that satisfy the acceptance criteria identified in paragraph (f)(1) of this section may be carried on or operated by a passenger on board an aircraft provided the aircraft operator ensures that all of the conditions in this paragraph (f)(2) are satisfied: (i) Exit seats. No person operating a portable oxygen concentrator is permitted to occupy an exit seat. (ii) Stowage of device. During movement on the surface, takeoff and landing, the device must be stowed under the seat in front of the user, or in another approved stowage location so that it does not block the aisle way or the entryway to the row. If the device is to be operated by the user, it must be operated only at a seat location that does not restrict any passenger's access to, or use of, any required emergency or regular exit, or the aisle(s) in the passenger compartment. [Docket 16097, 43 FR 46783, Oct. 10, 1978, as amended by Amdt. 135-60, 61 FR 2616, Jan. 26, 1996; Docket FAA-2014-0554, Amdt. 135-133, 81 FR 33119, May 24, 2016; Docket FAA-2018-0119, Amdt. 135-139, 83 FR 9175, Mar. 5, 2018] § 135.93 Minimum altitudes for use of autopilot. (a) Definitions. For purpose of this section— (1) Altitudes for takeoff/initial climb and go-around/missed approach are defined as above the airport elevation. (2) Altitudes for enroute operations are defined as above terrain elevation. (3) Altitudes for approach are defined as above the touchdown zone elevation (TDZE), unless the altitude is specifically in reference to DA (H) or MDA, in which case the altitude is defined by reference to the DA(H) or MDA itself. (b) Takeoff and initial climb. No person may use an autopilot for takeoff or initial climb below the higher of 500 feet or an altitude that is no lower than twice the altitude loss specified in the Airplane Flight Manual (AFM), except as follows— (1) At a minimum engagement altitude specified in the AFM; or (2) At an altitude specified by the Administrator, whichever is greater.

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(c) Enroute. No person may use an autopilot enroute, including climb and descent, below the following— (1) 500 feet; (2) At an altitude that is no lower than twice the altitude loss specified in the AFM for an autopilot malfunction in cruise conditions; or (3) At an altitude specified by the Administrator, whichever is greater. (d) Approach. No person may use an autopilot at an altitude lower than 50 feet below the DA(H) or MDA for the instrument procedure being flown, except as follows— (1) For autopilots with an AFM specified altitude loss for approach operations— (i) An altitude no lower than twice the specified altitude loss if higher than 50 feet below the MDA or DA(H); (ii) An altitude no lower than 50 feet higher than the altitude loss specified in the AFM, when the following conditions are met— (A) Reported weather conditions are less than the basic VFR weather conditions in § 91.155 of this chapter; (B) Suitable visual references specified in § 91.175 of this chapter have been established on the instrument approach procedure; and (C) The autopilot is coupled and receiving both lateral and vertical path references; (iii) An altitude no lower than the higher of the altitude loss specified in the AFM or 50 feet above the TDZE, when the following conditions are met— (A) Reported weather conditions are equal to or better than the basic VFR weather conditions in § 91.155 of this chapter; and (B) The autopilot is coupled and receiving both lateral and vertical path references; or (iv) A greater altitude specified by the Administrator. (2) For autopilots with AFM specified approach altitude limitations, the greater of— (i) The minimum use altitude specified for the coupled approach mode selected; (ii) 50 feet; or (iii) An altitude specified by Administrator. (3) For autopilots with an AFM specified negligible or zero altitude loss for an autopilot approach mode malfunction, the greater of— (i) 50 feet; or (ii) An altitude specified by Administrator. (4) If executing an autopilot coupled go-around or missed approach using a certificated and functioning autopilot in accordance with paragraph (e) in this section. (e) Go-Around/Missed Approach. No person may engage an autopilot during a go-around or missed approach below the minimum engagement altitude specified for takeoff and initial climb in paragraph (b) in this section. An autopilot minimum use altitude does not apply to a go-around/missed approach initiated with an engaged autopilot. Performing a go-around or missed approach with an engaged autopilot must not adversely affect safe obstacle clearance. (f) Landing. Notwithstanding paragraph (d) of this section, autopilot minimum use altitudes do not apply to autopilot operations when an approved automatic landing system mode is being used for landing. Automatic landing systems must be authorized in an operations specification issued to the operator. (g) This section does not apply to operations conducted in rotorcraft. [Docket FAA-2012-1059, 79 FR 6088, Feb. 3, 2014] § 135.95 Airmen: Limitations on use of services. (a) No certificate holder may use the services of any person as an airman unless the person performing those services— (1) Holds an appropriate and current airman certificate; and (2) Is qualified, under this chapter, for the operation for which the person is to be used. (b) A certificate holder may obtain approval to provide a temporary document verifying a flightcrew member's airman certificate and medical certificate privileges under an approved certificate verification plan set forth in the certificate holder's operations specifications. A document provided by the certificate holder may be carried as an airman certificate or medical certificate on flights within the United States for up to 72 hours.

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[Amdt. 135-140, 83 FR 30282, June 27, 2018] § 135.97 Aircraft and facilities for recent flight experience. Each certificate holder shall provide aircraft and facilities to enable each of its pilots to maintain and demonstrate the pilot's ability to conduct all operations for which the pilot is authorized. § 135.98 Operations in the North Polar Area. After August 13, 2008, no certificate holder may operate an aircraft in the region north of 78° N latitude (“North Polar Area”), other than intrastate operations wholly within the state of Alaska, unless authorized by the FAA. The certificate holder's operation specifications must include the following: (a) The designation of airports that may be used for en-route diversions and the requirements the airports must meet at the time of diversion. (b) Except for all-cargo operations, a recovery plan for passengers at designated diversion airports. (c) A fuel-freeze strategy and procedures for monitoring fuel freezing for operations in the North Polar Area. (d) A plan to ensure communication capability for operations in the North Polar Area. (e) An MEL for operations in the North Polar Area. (f) A training plan for operations in the North Polar Area. (g) A plan for mitigating crew exposure to radiation during solar flare activity. (h) A plan for providing at least two cold weather anti-exposure suits in the aircraft, to protect crewmembers during outside activity at a diversion airport with extreme climatic conditions. The FAA may relieve the certificate holder from this requirement if the season of the year makes the equipment unnecessary. [Docket FAA-2002-6717, 72 FR 1885, Jan. 16, 2007, as amended by Amdt. 135-112, 73 FR 8798, Feb. 15, 2008] § 135.99 Composition of flight crew. (a) No certificate holder may operate an aircraft with less than the minimum flight crew specified in the aircraft operating limitations or the Aircraft Flight Manual for that aircraft and required by this part for the kind of operation being conducted. (b) No certificate holder may operate an aircraft without a second in command if that aircraft has a passenger seating configuration, excluding any pilot seat, of ten seats or more. (c) Except as provided in paragraph (d) of this section, a certificate holder authorized to conduct operations under instrument flight rules may receive authorization from the Administrator through its operations specifications to establish a second-in-command professional development program. As part of that program, a pilot employed by the certificate holder may log time as second in command in operations conducted under this part and part 91 of this chapter that do not require a second pilot by type certification of the aircraft or the regulation under which the flight is being conducted, provided the flight operation is conducted in accordance with the certificate holder's operations specifications for second-in-command professional development program; and— (1) The certificate holder: (i) Maintains records for each assigned second in command consistent with the requirements in § 135.63; (ii) Provides a copy of the records required by § 135.63(a)(4)(vi) and (x) to the assigned second in command upon request and within a reasonable time; and (iii) Establishes and maintains a data collection and analysis process that will enable the certificate holder and the FAA to determine whether the second-in-command professional development program is accomplishing its objectives. (2) The aircraft is a multiengine airplane or a single-engine turbine-powered airplane. The aircraft must have an independent set of controls for a second pilot flightcrew member, which may not include a throwover control wheel. The aircraft must also have the following equipment and independent instrumentation for a second pilot:

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(i) An airspeed indicator; (ii) Sensitive altimeter adjustable for barometric pressure; (iii) Gyroscopic bank and pitch indicator; (iv) Gyroscopic rate-of-turn indicator combined with an integral slip-skid indicator; (v) Gyroscopic direction indicator; (vi) For IFR operations, a vertical speed indicator; (vii) For IFR operations, course guidance for en route navigation and instrument approaches; and (viii) A microphone, transmit switch, and headphone or speaker. (3) The pilot assigned to serve as second in command satisfies the following requirements: (i) The second in command qualifications in § 135.245; (ii) The flight time and duty period limitations and rest requirements in subpart F of this part; (iii) The crewmember testing requirements for second in command in subpart G of this part; and (iv) The crewmember training requirements for second in command in subpart H of this part. (4) The pilot assigned to serve as pilot in command satisfies the following requirements: (i) Has been fully qualified to serve as a pilot in command for the certificate holder for at least the previous 6 calendar months; and (ii) Has completed mentoring training, including techniques for reinforcing the highest standards of technical performance, airmanship and professionalism within the preceding 36 calendar months. (d) The following certificate holders are not eligible to receive authorization for a second-in-command professional development program under paragraph (c) of this section: (1) A certificate holder that uses only one pilot in its operations; and (2) A certificate holder that has been approved to deviate from the requirements in § 135.21(a), § 135.341(a), or § 119.69(a) of this chapter. [Docket 16097, 43 FR 46783, Oct. 10, 1978, as amended at 83 FR 30282, June 27, 2018] § 135.100 Flight crewmember duties. (a) No certificate holder shall require, nor may any flight crewmember perform, any duties during a critical phase of flight except those duties required for the safe operation of the aircraft. Duties such as company required calls made for such nonsafety related purposes as ordering galley supplies and confirming passenger connections, announcements made to passengers promoting the air carrier or pointing out sights of interest, and filling out company payroll and related records are not required for the safe operation of the aircraft. (b) No flight crewmember may engage in, nor may any pilot in command permit, any activity during a critical phase of flight which could distract any flight crewmember from the performance of his or her duties or which could interfere in any way with the proper conduct of those duties. Activities such as eating meals, engaging in nonessential conversations within the cockpit and nonessential communications between the cabin and cockpit crews, and reading publications not related to the proper conduct of the flight are not required for the safe operation of the aircraft. (c) For the purposes of this section, critical phases of flight includes all ground operations involving taxi, takeoff and landing, and all other flight operations conducted below 10,000 feet, except cruise flight. Note: Taxi is defined as “movement of an airplane under its own power on the surface of an airport.”

[Docket 20661, 46 FR 5502, Jan. 19, 1981] § 135.100, Nt. Effective Date Note: By Docket FAA-2023-1275, Amdt. 135-147, 89 FR 92486, Nov. 21, 2024, § 135.100 was amended by adding paragraph (d) and removing the note from the end of the section, effective Jan. 21, 2025. For the convenience of the user, the added text is set forth as follows: § 135.100 Flight crewmember duties. (d) For the purposes of this section, taxi is defined as movement of an aircraft under its own power on the surface of an airport and includes hover taxi which is movement of a helicopter or any vertical takeoff and landing aircraft conducted above the surface and in ground effect at airspeeds less than approximately 20 knots, and air taxi which is movement of a helicopter or any vertical takeoff and landing aircraft conducted above the surface but normally not above 100 feet AGL.

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§ 135.101 Second in command required under IFR. Except as provided in § 135.105, no person may operate an aircraft carrying passengers under IFR unless there is a second in command in the aircraft. [Docket 28743, 62 FR 42374, Aug. 6, 1997] § 135.103 [Reserved]
§ 135.105 Exception to second in command requirement: Approval for use of autopilot system. (a) Except as provided in §§ 135.99 and 135.111, unless two pilots are required by this chapter for operations under VFR, a person may operate an aircraft without a second in command, if it is equipped with an operative approved autopilot system and the use of that system is authorized by appropriate operations specifications. No certificate holder may use any person, nor may any person serve, as a pilot in command under this section of an aircraft operated in a commuter operation, as defined in part 119 of this chapter unless that person has at least 100 hours pilot in command flight time in the make and model of aircraft to be flown and has met all other applicable requirements of this part. (b) The certificate holder may apply for an amendment of its operations specifications to authorize the use of an autopilot system in place of a second in command. (c) The Administrator issues an amendment to the operations specifications authorizing the use of an autopilot system, in place of a second in command, if— (1) The autopilot is capable of operating the aircraft controls to maintain flight and maneuver it about the three axes; and (2) The certificate holder shows, to the satisfaction of the Administrator, that operations using the autopilot system can be conducted safely and in compliance with this part. The amendment contains any conditions or limitations on the use of the autopilot system that the Administrator determines are needed in the interest of safety. [Docket 16097, 43 FR 46783, Oct. 10, 1978, as amended by Amdt. 135-3, 45 FR 7542, Feb. 4, 1980; Amdt. 135-58, 60 FR 65939, Dec. 20, 1995] § 135.107 Flight attendant crewmember requirement. No certificate holder may operate an aircraft that has a passenger seating configuration, excluding any pilot seat, of more than 19 unless there is a flight attendant crewmember on board the aircraft. § 135.109 Pilot in command or second in command: Designation required. (a) Each certificate holder shall designate a— (1) Pilot in command for each flight; and (2) Second in command for each flight requiring two pilots. (b) The pilot in command, as designated by the certificate holder, shall remain the pilot in command at all times during that flight. § 135.111 Second in command required in Category II operations. No person may operate an aircraft in a Category II operation unless there is a second in command of the aircraft. § 135.113 Passenger occupancy of pilot seat. No certificate holder may operate an aircraft type certificated after October 15, 1971, that has a passenger seating configuration, excluding any pilot seat, of more than eight seats if any person other than the pilot in command, a second in command, a company check pilot, or an authorized representative of the Administrator, the National Transportation Safety Board, or the United States Postal Service occupies a pilot seat. [Docket FAA-2019-0360, Amdt. 135-145, 89 FR 51430, June 18, 2024] § 135.115 Manipulation of controls. No pilot in command may allow any person to manipulate the flight controls of an aircraft during flight conducted under this part, nor may any person manipulate the controls during such flight unless that person is—

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(a) A pilot employed by the certificate holder and qualified in the aircraft; or (b) An authorized safety representative of the Administrator who has the permission of the pilot in command, is qualified in the aircraft, and is checking flight operations. § 135.117 Briefing of passengers before flight. (a) Before each takeoff each pilot in command of an aircraft carrying passengers shall ensure that all passengers have been orally briefed on— (1) Smoking. Each passenger shall be briefed on when, where, and under what conditions smoking is prohibited (including, but not limited to, any applicable requirements of part 252 of this title). This briefing shall include a statement that the Federal Aviation Regulations require passenger compliance with the lighted passenger information signs (if such signs are required), posted placards, areas designated for safety purposes as no smoking areas, and crewmember instructions with regard to these items. The briefing shall also include a statement (if the aircraft is equipped with a lavatory) that Federal law prohibits: tampering with, disabling, or destroying any smoke detector installed in an aircraft lavatory; smoking in lavatories; and, when applicable, smoking in passenger compartments. (2) The use of safety belts, including instructions on how to fasten and unfasten the safety belts. Each passenger shall be briefed on when, where, and under what conditions the safety belt must be fastened about that passenger. This briefing shall include a statement that the Federal Aviation Regulations require passenger compliance with lighted passenger information signs and crewmember instructions concerning the use of safety belts. (3) The placement of seat backs in an upright position before takeoff and landing; (4) Location and means for opening the passenger entry door and emergency exits; (5) Location of survival equipment; (6) If the flight involves extended overwater operation, ditching procedures and the use of required flotation equipment; (7) If the flight involves operations above 12,000 feet MSL, the normal and emergency use of oxygen; and (8) Location and operation of fire extinguishers. (9) If a rotorcraft operation involves flight beyond autorotational distance from the shoreline, as defined in § 135.168(a), use of life preservers, ditching procedures and emergency exit from the rotorcraft in the event of a ditching; and the location and use of life rafts and other life preserver devices if applicable. (b) Before each takeoff the pilot in command shall ensure that each person who may need the assistance of another person to move expeditiously to an exit if an emergency occurs and that person's attendant, if any, has received a briefing as to the procedures to be followed if an evacuation occurs. This paragraph does not apply to a person who has been given a briefing before a previous leg of a flight in the same aircraft. (c) The oral briefing required by paragraph (a) of this section shall be given by the pilot in command or a crewmember. (d) Notwithstanding the provisions of paragraph (c) of this section, for aircraft certificated to carry 19 passengers or less, the oral briefing required by paragraph (a) of this section shall be given by the pilot in command, a crewmember, or other qualified person designated by the certificate holder and approved by the Administrator. (e) The oral briefing required by paragraph (a) of this section must be supplemented by printed cards which must be carried in the aircraft in locations convenient for the use of each passenger. The cards must— (1) Be appropriate for the aircraft on which they are to be used; (2) Contain a diagram of, and method of operating, the emergency exits; (3) Contain other instructions necessary for the use of emergency equipment on board the aircraft; and (4) No later than June 12, 2005, for scheduled Commuter passenger-carrying flights, include the sentence, “Final assembly of this aircraft was completed in [INSERT NAME OF COUNTRY].”

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(f) The briefing required by paragraph (a) may be delivered by means of an approved recording playback device that is audible to each passenger under normal noise levels. (g) If any passengers on board a flight conducted under this part are secured with a supplemental restraint system, the pilot in command of that flight must ensure those passengers are briefed in accordance with § 91.108(g) of this chapter. [Docket 16097, 43 FR 46783, Oct. 10, 1978, as amended by Amdt. 135-9, 51 FR 40709, Nov. 7, 1986; Amdt. 135-25, 53 FR 12362, Apr. 13, 1988; Amdt. 135-44, 57 FR 42675, Sept. 15, 1992; 57 FR 43776, Sept. 22, 1992; 69 FR 39294, June 29, 2004; Amdt. 135-129, 79 FR 9973, Feb. 21, 2014; Docket FAA-2023-2250, Amdt. 135-146, 89 FR 67850, Aug. 22, 2024] § 135.119 Prohibition against carriage of weapons. No person may, while on board an aircraft being operated by a certificate holder, carry on or about that person a deadly or dangerous weapon, either concealed or unconcealed. This section does not apply to— (a) Officials or employees of a municipality or a State, or of the United States, who are authorized to carry arms; or (b) Crewmembers and other persons authorized by the certificate holder to carry arms. § 135.120 Prohibition on interference with crewmembers. No person may assault, threaten, intimidate, or interfere with a crewmember in the performance of the crewmember's duties aboard an aircraft being operated under this part. [Docket FAA-1998-4954, 64 FR 1080, Jan. 7, 1999] § 135.121 Alcoholic beverages. (a) No person may drink any alcoholic beverage aboard an aircraft unless the certificate holder operating the aircraft has served that beverage. (b) No certificate holder may serve any alcoholic beverage to any person aboard its aircraft if that person appears to be intoxicated. (c) No certificate holder may allow any person to board any of its aircraft if that person appears to be intoxicated. § 135.122 Stowage of food, beverage, and passenger service equipment during aircraft movement on the surface, takeoff, and landing. (a) No certificate holder may move an aircraft on the surface, take off, or land when any food, beverage, or tableware furnished by the certificate holder is located at any passenger seat. (b) No certificate holder may move an aircraft on the surface, take off, or land unless each food and beverage tray and seat back tray table is secured in its stowed position. (c) No certificate holder may permit an aircraft to move on the surface, take off, or land unless each passenger serving cart is secured in its stowed position. (d) Each passenger shall comply with instructions given by a crewmember with regard to compliance with this section. [Docket 26142, 57 FR 42675, Sept. 15, 1992] § 135.123 Emergency and emergency evacuation duties. (a) Each certificate holder shall assign to each required crewmember for each type of aircraft as appropriate, the necessary functions to be performed in an emergency or in a situation requiring emergency evacuation. The certificate holder shall ensure that those functions can be practicably accomplished, and will meet any reasonably anticipated emergency including incapacitation of individual crewmembers or their inability to reach the passenger cabin because of shifting cargo in combination cargo-passenger aircraft. (b) The certificate holder shall describe in the manual required under § 135.21 the functions of each category of required crewmembers assigned under paragraph (a) of this section. § 135.125 Aircraft security. Certificate holders conducting operators conducting operations under this part must comply with the applicable security requirements in 49 CFR chapter XII.

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[67 FR 8350, Feb. 22, 2002] § 135.127 Passenger information requirements and smoking prohibitions. (a) No person may conduct a scheduled flight on which smoking is prohibited by part 252 of this title unless the “No Smoking” passenger information signs are lighted during the entire flight, or one or more “No Smoking” placards meeting the requirements of § 25.1541 of this chapter are posted during the entire flight. If both the lighted signs and the placards are used, the signs must remain lighted during the entire flight segment. (b) No person may smoke while a “No Smoking” sign is lighted or while “No Smoking” placards are posted, except as follows: (1) On-demand operations. The pilot in command of an aircraft engaged in an on-demand operation may authorize smoking on the flight deck (if it is physically separated from any passenger compartment), except in any of the following situations: (i) During aircraft movement on the surface or during takeoff or landing; (ii) During scheduled passenger-carrying public charter operations conducted under part 380 of this title; (iii) During on-demand operations conducted interstate that meet paragraph (2) of the definition “On-demand operation” in § 110.2 of this chapter, unless permitted under paragraph (b)(2) of this section; or (iv) During any operation where smoking is prohibited by part 252 of this title or by international agreement. (2) Certain intrastate commuter operations and certain intrastate on-demand operations. Except during aircraft movement on the surface or during takeoff or landing, a pilot in command of an aircraft engaged in a commuter operation or an on-demand operation that meets paragraph (2) of the definition of “On-demand operation” in § 110.2 of this chapter may authorize smoking on the flight deck (if it is physically separated from the passenger compartment, if any) if— (i) Smoking on the flight deck is not otherwise prohibited by part 252 of this title; (ii) The flight is conducted entirely within the same State of the United States (a flight from one place in Hawaii to another place in Hawaii through the airspace over a place outside Hawaii is not entirely within the same State); and (iii) The aircraft is either not turbojet-powered or the aircraft is not capable of carrying at least 30 passengers. (c) No person may smoke in any aircraft lavatory. (d) No person may operate an aircraft with a lavatory equipped with a smoke detector unless there is in that lavatory a sign or placard which reads: “Federal law provides for a penalty of up to $2,000 for tampering with the smoke detector installed in this lavatory.” (e) No person may tamper with, disable, or destroy any smoke detector installed in any aircraft lavatory. (f) On flight segments other than those described in paragraph (a) of this section, the “No Smoking” sign required by § 135.177(a)(3) of this part must be turned on during any movement of the aircraft on the surface, for each takeoff or landing, and at any other time considered necessary by the pilot in command. (g) The passenger information requirements prescribed in § 91.517 (b) and (d) of this chapter are in addition to the requirements prescribed in this section. (h) Each passenger shall comply with instructions given him or her by crewmembers regarding compliance with paragraphs (b), (c), and (e) of this section. [Docket 25590, 55 FR 8367, Mar. 7, 1990, as amended by Amdt. 135-35, 55 FR 20135, May 15, 1990; Amdt. 135-44, 57 FR 42675, Sept. 15, 1992; Amdt. 135-60, 61 FR 2616, Jan. 26, 1996; Amdt. 135-76, 65 FR 36780, June 9, 2000; Amdt. 135-124, 76 FR 7491, Feb. 10, 2011] § 135.128 Use of safety belts and child restraint systems. (a) Except as provided in this paragraph, each person on board an aircraft operated under this part shall occupy an approved seat or berth with a separate safety belt properly secured about him or her during movement on the surface, takeoff, and landing. For seaplane and float equipped rotorcraft operations during movement on the surface, the person pushing off the seaplane or rotorcraft from the dock and the person mooring the seaplane or rotorcraft at the dock are excepted from the preceding seating and safety belt requirements. A safety belt provided for the occupant of a seat may not be used by more than one person who has reached his or her second birthday. Notwithstanding the preceding requirements, a child may:

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(1) Be held by an adult, except as outlined in § 91.108(j) of this chapter, who is occupying an approved seat or berth, provided the child has not reached his or her second birthday and the child does not occupy or use any restraining device; or (2) Notwithstanding any other requirement of this chapter, occupy an approved child restraint system furnished by the certificate holder or one of the persons described in paragraph (a)(2)(i) of this section, provided: (i) The child is accompanied by a parent, guardian, or attendant designated by the child's parent or guardian to attend to the safety of the child during the flight; (ii) Except as provided in paragraph (a)(2)(ii)(D) of this section, the approved child restraint system bears one or more labels as follows: (A) Seats manufactured to U.S. standards between January 1, 1981, and February 25, 1985, must bear the label: “This child restraint system conforms to all applicable Federal motor vehicle safety standards”; (B) Seats manufactured to U.S. standards on or after February 26, 1985, must bear two labels: ( 1 ) “This child restraint system conforms to all applicable Federal motor vehicle safety standards”; and ( 2 ) “THIS RESTRAINT IS CERTIFIED FOR USE IN MOTOR VEHICLES AND AIRCRAFT” in red lettering; (C) Seats that do not qualify under paragraphs (a)(2)(ii)(A) and (a)(2)(ii)(B) of this section must bear a label or markings showing: ( 1 ) That the seat was approved by a foreign government; ( 2 ) That the seat was manufactured under the standards of the United Nations; ( 3 ) That the seat or child restraint device furnished by the certificate holder was approved by the FAA through Type Certificate or Supplemental Type Certificate; or ( 4 ) That the seat or child restraint device furnished by the certificate holder, or one of the persons described in paragraph (a)(2)(i) of this section, was approved by the FAA in accordance with § 21.8(d) of this chapter or Technical Standard Order C-100b, or a later version. The child restraint device manufactured by AmSafe, Inc. (CARES, Part No. 4082) and approved by the FAA in accordance with § 21.305(d) (2010 ed.) of this chapter may continue to bear a label or markings showing FAA approval in accordance with § 21.305(d) (2010 ed.) of this chapter. (D) Except as provided in § 135.128(a)(2)(ii)(C)( 3 ) and § 135.128(a)(2)(ii)(C)( 4 ), booster-type child restraint systems (as defined in Federal Motor Vehicle Safety Standard No. 213 (49 CFR 571.213)), vest- and harness-type child restraint systems, and lap held child restraints are not approved for use in aircraft; and (iii) The certificate holder complies with the following requirements: (A) The restraint system must be properly secured to an approved forward-facing seat or berth; (B) The child must be properly secured in the restraint system and must not exceed the specified weight limit for the restraint system; and (C) The restraint system must bear the appropriate label(s). (b) Except as provided in paragraph (b)(3) of this section, the following prohibitions apply to certificate holders: (1) Except as provided in § 135.128 (a)(2)(ii)(C)( 3 ) and § 135.128 (a)(2)(ii)(C)( 4 ), no certificate holder may permit a child, in an aircraft, to occupy a booster-type child restraint system, a vest-type child restraint system, a harness-type child restraint system, or a lap held child restraint system during take off, landing, and movement on the surface. (2) Except as required in paragraph (b)(1) of this section, no certificate holder may prohibit a child, if requested by the child's parent, guardian, or designated attendant, from occupying a child restraint system furnished by the child's parent, guardian, or designated attendant provided:

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(i) The child holds a ticket for an approved seat or berth or such seat or berth is otherwise made available by the certificate holder for the child's use; (ii) The requirements of paragraph (a)(2)(i) of this section are met; (iii) The requirements of paragraph (a)(2)(iii) of this section are met; and (iv) The child restraint system has one or more of the labels described in paragraphs (a)(2)(ii)(A) through (a)(2)(ii)(C) of this section. (3) This section does not prohibit the certificate holder from providing child restraint systems authorized by this or, consistent with safe operating practices, determining the most appropriate passenger seat location for the child restraint system. [Docket 26142, 57 FR 42676, Sept. 15, 1992, as amended by Amdt. 135-62, 61 FR 28422, June 4, 1996; Amdt. 135-100, 70 FR 50907, Aug. 26, 2005; Amdt. 135-106, 71 FR 40010, July 14, 2006; 71 FR 59374, Oct. 10, 2006; Amdt. 135-130, 79 FR 28812, May 20, 2014; Docket FAA-2023-2250, Amdt. 135-146, 89 FR 67850, Aug. 22, 2024] § 135.129 Exit seating. (a)(1) Applicability. This section applies to all certificate holders operating under this part, except for on-demand operations with aircraft having 19 or fewer passenger seats and commuter operations with aircraft having 9 or fewer passenger seats. (2) Duty to make determination of suitability. Each certificate holder shall determine, to the extent necessary to perform the applicable functions of paragraph (d) of this section, the suitability of each person it permits to occupy an exit seat. For the purpose of this section— (i) Exit seat means— (A) Each seat having direct access to an exit; and (B) Each seat in a row of seats through which passengers would have to pass to gain access to an exit, from the first seat inboard of the exit to the first aisle inboard of the exit. (ii) A passenger seat having direct access means a seat from which a passenger can proceed directly to the exit without entering an aisle or passing around an obstruction. (3) Persons designated to make determination. Each certificate holder shall make the passenger exit seating determinations required by this paragraph in a non-discriminatory manner consistent with the requirements of this section, by persons designated in the certificate holder's required operations manual. (4) Submission of designation for approval. Each certificate holder shall designate the exit seats for each passenger seating configuration in its fleet in accordance with the definitions in this paragraph and submit those designations for approval as part of the procedures required to be submitted for approval under paragraphs (n) and (p) of this section. (b) No certificate holder may seat a person in a seat affected by this section if the certificate holder determines that it is likely that the person would be unable to perform one or more of the applicable functions listed in paragraph (d) of this section because— (1) The person lacks sufficient mobility, strength, or dexterity in both arms and hands, and both legs: (i) To reach upward, sideways, and downward to the location of emergency exit and exit-slide operating mechanisms; (ii) To grasp and push, pull, turn, or otherwise manipulate those mechanisms; (iii) To push, shove, pull, or otherwise open emergency exits; (iv) To lift out, hold, deposit on nearby seats, or maneuver over the seatbacks to the next row objects the size and weight of over-wing window exit doors; (v) To remove obstructions of size and weight similar over-wing exit doors; (vi) To reach the emergency exit expeditiously; (vii) To maintain balance while removing obstructions; (viii) To exit expeditiously; (ix) To stabilize an escape slide after deployment; or

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(x) To assist others in getting off an escape slide; (2) The person is less than 15 years of age or lacks the capacity to perform one or more of the applicable functions listed in paragraph (d) of this section without the assistance of an adult companion, parent, or other relative; (3) The person lacks the ability to read and understand instructions required by this section and related to emergency evacuation provided by the certificate holder in printed or graphic form or the ability to understand oral crew commands. (4) The person lacks sufficient visual capacity to perform one or more of the applicable functions in paragraph (d) of this section without the assistance of visual aids beyond contact lenses or eyeglasses; (5) The person lacks sufficient aural capacity to hear and understand instructions shouted by flight attendants, without assistance beyond a hearing aid; (6) The person lacks the ability adequately to impart information orally to other passengers; or, (7) The person has: (i) A condition or responsibilities, such as caring for small children, that might prevent the person from performing one or more of the applicable functions listed in paragraph (d) of this section; or (ii) A condition that might cause the person harm if he or she performs one or more of the applicable functions listed in paragraph (d) of this section. (c) Each passenger shall comply with instructions given by a crewmember or other authorized employee of the certificate holder implementing exit seating restrictions established in accordance with this section. (d) Each certificate holder shall include on passenger information cards, presented in the language in which briefings and oral commands are given by the crew, at each exit seat affected by this section, information that, in the event of an emergency in which a crewmember is not available to assist, a passenger occupying an exit seat may use if called upon to perform the following functions: (1) Locate the emergency exit; (2) Recognize the emergency exit opening mechanism; (3) Comprehend the instructions for operating the emergency exit; (4) Operate the emergency exit; (5) Assess whether opening the emergency exit will increase the hazards to which passengers may be exposed; (6) Follow oral directions and hand signals given by a crewmember; (7) Stow or secure the emergency exit door so that it will not impede use of the exit; (8) Assess the condition of an escape slide, activate the slide, and stabilize the slide after deployment to assist others in getting off the slide; (9) Pass expeditiously through the emergency exit; and (10) Assess, select, and follow a safe path away from the emergency exit. (e) Each certificate holder shall include on passenger information cards, at each exit seat— (1) In the primary language in which emergency commands are given by the crew, the selection criteria set forth in paragraph (b) of this section, and a request that a passenger identify himself or herself to allow reseating if he or she— (i) Cannot meet the selection criteria set forth in paragraph (b) of this section; (ii) Has a nondiscernible condition that will prevent him or her from performing the applicable functions listed in paragraph (d) of this section; (iii) May suffer bodily harm as the result of performing one or more of those functions; or (iv) Does not wish to perform those functions; and, (2) In each language used by the certificate holder for passenger information cards, a request that a passenger identify himself or herself to allow reseating if he or she lacks the ability to read, speak, or understand the language or the graphic form in which instructions required by this section and related to emergency evacuation are provided by the certificate holder, or the ability to understand the specified language in which crew commands will be given in an emergency; (3) May suffer bodily harm as the result of performing one or more of those functions; or,

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(4) Does not wish to perform those functions. A certificate holder shall not require the passenger to disclose his or her reason for needing reseating. (f) Each certificate holder shall make available for inspection by the public at all passenger loading gates and ticket counters at each airport where it conducts passenger operations, written procedures established for making determinations in regard to exit row seating. (g) No certificate holder may allow taxi or pushback unless at least one required crewmember has verified that no exit seat is occupied by a person the crewmember determines is likely to be unable to perform the applicable functions listed in paragraph (d) of this section. (h) Each certificate holder shall include in its passenger briefings a reference to the passenger information cards, required by paragraphs (d) and (e), the selection criteria set forth in paragraph (b), and the functions to be performed, set forth in paragraph (d) of this section. (i) Each certificate holder shall include in its passenger briefings a request that a passenger identify himself or herself to allow reseating if he or she— (1) Cannot meet the selection criteria set forth in paragraph (b) of this section; (2) Has a nondiscernible condition that will prevent him or her from performing the applicable functions listed in paragraph (d) of this section; (3) May suffer bodily harm as the result of performing one or more of those functions; or, (4) Does not wish to perform those functions. A certificate holder shall not require the passenger to disclose his or her reason for needing reseating. (j) [Reserved] (k) In the event a certificate holder determines in accordance with this section that it is likely that a passenger assigned to an exit seat would be unable to perform the functions listed in paragraph (d) of this section or a passenger requests a non-exit seat, the certificate holder shall expeditiously relocate the passenger to a non-exit seat. (l) In the event of full booking in the non-exit seats and if necessary to accommodate a passenger being relocated from an exit seat, the certificate holder shall move a passenger who is willing and able to assume the evacuation functions that may be required, to an exit seat. (m) A certificate holder may deny transportation to any passenger under this section only because— (1) The passenger refuses to comply with instructions given by a crewmember or other authorized employee of the certificate holder implementing exit seating restrictions established in accordance with this section, or (2) The only seat that will physically accommodate the person's handicap is an exit seat. (n) In order to comply with this section certificate holders shall— (1) Establish procedures that address: (i) The criteria listed in paragraph (b) of this section; (ii) The functions listed in paragraph (d) of this section; (iii) The requirements for airport information, passenger information cards, crewmember verification of appropriate seating in exit seats, passenger briefings, seat assignments, and denial of transportation as set forth in this section; (iv) How to resolve disputes arising from implementation of this section, including identification of the certificate holder employee on the airport to whom complaints should be addressed for resolution; and, (2) Submit their procedures for preliminary review and approval to the principal operations inspectors assigned to them at the responsible Flight Standards office. (o) Certificate holders shall assign seats prior to boarding consistent with the criteria listed in paragraph (b) and the functions listed in paragraph (d) of this section, to the maximum extent feasible. (p) The procedures required by paragraph (n) of this section will not become effective until final approval is granted by the Executive Director, Flight Standards Service, Washington, DC. Approval will be based solely upon the safety aspects of the certificate holder's procedures.

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[Docket 25821, 55 FR 8073, Mar. 6, 1990, as amended by Amdt. 135-45, 57 FR 48664, Oct. 27, 1992; Amdt. 135-50, 59 FR 33603, June 29, 1994; Amdt. 135-60, 61 FR 2616, Jan. 26, 1996; Docket FAA-2018-0119, Amdt. 135-139, 83 FR 9175, Mar. 5, 2018] Subpart C—Aircraft and Equipment § 135.141 Applicability. This subpart prescribes aircraft and equipment requirements for operations under this part. The requirements of this subpart are in addition to the aircraft and equipment requirements of part 91 of this chapter. However, this part does not require the duplication of any equipment required by this chapter. § 135.143 General requirements. (a) No person may operate an aircraft under this part unless that aircraft and its equipment meet the applicable regulations of this chapter. (b) Except as provided in § 135.179, no person may operate an aircraft under this part unless the required instruments and equipment in it have been approved and are in an operable condition. (c) ATC transponder equipment installed within the time periods indicated below must meet the performance and environmental requirements of the following TSO's: (1) Through January 1, 1992: (i) Any class of TSO-C74b or any class of TSO-C74c as appropriate, provided that the equipment was manufactured before January 1, 1990; or (ii) The appropriate class of TSO-C112 (Mode S). (2) After January 1, 1992: The appropriate class of TSO-C112 (Mode S). For purposes of paragraph (c)(2) of this section, “installation” does not include— (i) Temporary installation of TSO-C74b or TSO-C74c substitute equipment, as appropriate, during maintenance of the permanent equipment; (ii) Reinstallation of equipment after temporary removal for maintenance; or (iii) For fleet operations, installation of equipment in a fleet aircraft after removal of the equipment for maintenance from another aircraft in the same operator's fleet. [Docket 16097, 43 FR 46783, Oct. 10, 1978, as amended by Amdt. 135-22, 52 FR 3392, Feb. 3, 1987] § 135.144 Portable electronic devices. (a) Except as provided in paragraph (b) of this section, no person may operate, nor may any operator or pilot in command of an aircraft allow the operation of, any portable electronic device on any U.S.-registered civil aircraft operating under this part. (b) Paragraph (a) of this section does not apply to— (1) Portable voice recorders; (2) Hearing aids; (3) Heart pacemakers; (4) Electric shavers; (5) Portable oxygen concentrators that comply with the requirements in § 135.91; or (6) Any other portable electronic device that the part 119 certificate holder has determined will not cause interference with the navigation or communication system of the aircraft on which it is to be used. (c). The determination required by paragraph (b)(6) of this section shall be made by that part 119 certificate holder operating the aircraft on which the particular device is to be used. [Docket FAA-1998-4954, 64 FR 1080, Jan. 7, 1999, as amended by Docket FAA-2014-0554, Amdt. 135-133, 81 FR 33120, May 24, 2016] § 135.145 Aircraft proving and validation tests. (a) No certificate holder may operate an aircraft, other than a turbojet aircraft, for which two pilots are required by this chapter for operations under VFR, if it has not previously proved such an aircraft in operations under this part in at least 25 hours of proving tests acceptable to the Administrator including— (1) Five hours of night time, if night flights are to be authorized; (2) Five instrument approach procedures under simulated or actual conditions, if IFR flights are to be authorized; and (3) Entry into a representative number of en route airports as determined by the Administrator.

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(b) No certificate holder may operate a turbojet airplane if it has not previously proved a turbojet airplane in operations under this part in at least 25 hours of proving tests acceptable to the Administrator including— (1) Five hours of night time, if night flights are to be authorized; (2) Five instrument approach procedures under simulated or actual conditions, if IFR flights are to be authorized; and (3) Entry into a representative number of en route airports as determined by the Administrator. (c) No certificate holder may carry passengers in an aircraft during proving tests, except those needed to make the tests and those designated by the Administrator to observe the tests. However, pilot flight training may be conducted during the proving tests. (d) Validation testing is required to determine that a certificate holder is capable of conducting operations safely and in compliance with applicable regulatory standards. Validation tests are required for the following authorizations: (1) The addition of an aircraft for which two pilots are required for operations under VFR or a turbojet airplane, if that aircraft or an aircraft of the same make or similar design has not been previously proved or validated in operations under this part. (2) Operations outside U.S. airspace. (3) Class II navigation authorizations. (4) Special performance or operational authorizations. (e) Validation tests must be accomplished by test methods acceptable to the Administrator. Actual flights may not be required when an applicant can demonstrate competence and compliance with appropriate regulations without conducting a flight. (f) Proving tests and validation tests may be conducted simultaneously when appropriate. (g) The Administrator may authorize deviations from this section if the Administrator finds that special circumstances make full compliance with this section unnecessary. [Docket FAA-2001-10047, 68 FR 54586, Sept. 17, 2003] § 135.147 Dual controls required. No person may operate an aircraft in operations requiring two pilots unless it is equipped with functioning dual controls. However, if the aircraft type certification operating limitations do not require two pilots, a throwover control wheel may be used in place of two control wheels. § 135.149 Equipment requirements: General. No person may operate an aircraft unless it is equipped with— (a) A sensitive altimeter that is adjustable for barometric pressure; (b) Heating or deicing equipment for each carburetor or, for a pressure carburetor, an alternate air source; (c) For turbojet airplanes, in addition to two gyroscopic bank-and-pitch indicators (artificial horizons) for use at the pilot stations, a third indicator that is installed in accordance with the instrument requirements prescribed in § 121.305(j) of this chapter. (d) [Reserved] (e) For turbine powered aircraft, any other equipment as the Administrator may require. [Docket 16097, 43 FR 46783, Oct. 10, 1978, as amended by Amdt. 135-1, 44 FR 26737, May 7, 1979; Amdt. 135-34, 54 FR 43926, Oct. 27, 1989; Amdt. 135-38, 55 FR 43310, Oct. 26, 1990] § 135.150 Public address and crewmember interphone systems. No person may operate an aircraft having a passenger seating configuration, excluding any pilot seat, of more than 19 unless it is equipped with— (a) A public address system which— (1) Is capable of operation independent of the crewmember interphone system required by paragraph (b) of this section, except for handsets, headsets, microphones, selector switches, and signaling devices; (2) Is approved in accordance with § 21.305 of this chapter; (3) Is accessible for immediate use from each of two flight crewmember stations in the pilot compartment; (4) For each required floor-level passenger emergency exit which has an adjacent flight attendant seat, has a microphone which is readily accessible to the seated flight attendant, except that one microphone may serve more than one exit, provided the proximity of the exits allows unassisted verbal communication between seated flight attendants;

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(5) Is capable of operation within 10 seconds by a flight attendant at each of those stations in the passenger compartment from which its use is accessible; (6) Is audible at all passenger seats, lavatories, and flight attendant seats and work stations; and (7) For transport category airplanes manufactured on or after November 27, 1990, meets the requirements of § 25.1423 of this chapter. (b) A crewmember interphone system which— (1) Is capable of operation independent of the public address system required by paragraph (a) of this section, except for handsets, headsets, microphones, selector switches, and signaling devices; (2) Is approved in accordance with § 21.305 of this chapter; (3) Provides a means of two-way communication between the pilot compartment and— (i) Each passenger compartment; and (ii) Each galley located on other than the main passenger deck level; (4) Is accessible for immediate use from each of two flight crewmember stations in the pilot compartment; (5) Is accessible for use from at least one normal flight attendant station in each passenger compartment; (6) Is capable of operation within 10 seconds by a flight attendant at each of those stations in each passenger compartment from which its use is accessible; and (7) For large turbojet-powered airplanes— (i) Is accessible for use at enough flight attendant stations so that all floor-level emergency exits (or entryways to those exits in the case of exits located within galleys) in each passenger compartment are observable from one or more of those stations so equipped; (ii) Has an alerting system incorporating aural or visual signals for use by flight crewmembers to alert flight attendants and for use by flight attendants to alert flight crewmembers; (iii) For the alerting system required by paragraph (b)(7)(ii) of this section, has a means for the recipient of a call to determine whether it is a normal call or an emergency call; and (iv) When the airplane is on the ground, provides a means of two-way communication between ground personnel and either of at least two flight crewmembers in the pilot compartment. The interphone system station for use by ground personnel must be so located that personnel using the system may avoid visible detection from within the airplane. [Docket 24995, 54 FR 43926, Oct. 27, 1989] § 135.151 Cockpit voice recorders. (a) No person may operate a multiengine, turbine-powered airplane or rotorcraft having a passenger seating configuration of six or more and for which two pilots are required by certification or operating rules unless it is equipped with an approved cockpit voice recorder that: (1) Is installed in compliance with § 23.1457(a)(1) and (2), (b), (c), (d)(1)(i), (2) and (3), (e), (f), and (g); § 25.1457(a)(1) and (2), (b), (c), (d)(1)(i), (2) and (3), (e), (f), and (g), § 27.1457(a)(1) and (2), (b), (c), (d)(1)(i), (2) and (3), (e), (f), and (g); or § 29.1457(a)(1) and (2), (b), (c), (d)(1)(i), (2) and (3), (e), (f), and (g) of this chapter, as applicable; and (2) Is operated continuously from the use of the check list before the flight to completion of the final check list at the end of the flight. (b) No person may operate a multiengine, turbine-powered airplane or rotorcraft having a passenger seating configuration of 20 or more seats unless it is equipped with an approved cockpit voice recorder that— (1) Is installed in accordance with the requirements of § 23.1457 (except paragraphs (a)(6), (d)(1)(ii), (4), and (5)); § 25.1457 (except paragraphs (a)(6), (d)(1)(ii), (4), and (5)); § 27.1457 (except paragraphs (a)(6), (d)(1)(ii), (4), and (5)); or § 29.1457 (except paragraphs (a)(6), (d)(1)(ii), (4), and (5)) of this chapter, as applicable; and (2) Is operated continuously from the use of the check list before the flight to completion of the final check list at the end of the flight.

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(c) In the event of an accident, or occurrence requiring immediate notification of the National Transportation Safety Board which results in termination of the flight, the certificate holder shall keep the recorded information for at least 60 days or, if requested by the Administrator or the Board, for a longer period. Information obtained from the record may be used to assist in determining the cause of accidents or occurrences in connection with investigations. The Administrator does not use the record in any civil penalty or certificate action. (d) For those aircraft equipped to record the uninterrupted audio signals received by a boom or a mask microphone the flight crewmembers are required to use the boom microphone below 18,000 feet mean sea level. No person may operate a large turbine engine powered airplane manufactured after October 11, 1991, or on which a cockpit voice recorder has been installed after October 11, 1991, unless it is equipped to record the uninterrupted audio signal received by a boom or mask microphone in accordance with § 25.1457(c)(5) of this chapter. (e) In complying with this section, an approved cockpit voice recorder having an erasure feature may be used, so that during the operation of the recorder, information: (1) Recorded in accordance with paragraph (a) of this section and recorded more than 15 minutes earlier; or (2) Recorded in accordance with paragraph (b) of this section and recorded more than 30 minutes earlier; may be erased or otherwise obliterated. (f) By April 7, 2012, all airplanes subject to paragraph (a) or paragraph (b) of this section that are manufactured before April 7, 2010, and that are required to have a flight data recorder installed in accordance with § 135.152, must have a cockpit voice recorder that also— (1) Meets the requirements in § 23.1457(d)(6) or § 25.1457(d)(6) of this chapter, as applicable; and (2) If transport category, meet the requirements in § 25.1457(a)(3), (a)(4), and (a)(5) of this chapter. (g)(1) No person may operate a multiengine, turbine-powered airplane or rotorcraft that is manufactured on or after April 7, 2010, that has a passenger seating configuration of six or more seats, for which two pilots are required by certification or operating rules, and that is required to have a flight data recorder under § 135.152, unless it is equipped with an approved cockpit voice recorder that also— (i) Is installed in accordance with the requirements of § 23.1457 (except for paragraph (a)(6)); § 25.1457 (except for paragraph (a)(6)); § 27.1457 (except for paragraph (a)(6)); or § 29.1457 (except for paragraph (a)(6)) of this chapter, as applicable; and (ii) Is operated continuously from the use of the check list before the flight, to completion of the final check list at the end of the flight; and (iii) Retains at least the last 2 hours of recorded information using a recorder that meets the standards of TSO-C123a, or later revision. (iv) For all airplanes or rotorcraft manufactured on or after December 6, 2010, also meets the requirements of § 23.1457(a)(6); § 25.1457(a)(6); § 27.1457(a)(6); or § 29.457(a)(6) of this chapter, as applicable. (2) No person may operate a multiengine, turbine-powered airplane or rotorcraft that is manufactured on or after April 7, 2010, has a passenger seating configuration of 20 or more seats, and that is required to have a flight data recorder under § 135.152, unless it is equipped with an approved cockpit voice recorder that also— (i) Is installed in accordance with the requirements of § 23.1457 (except for paragraph (a)(6)); § 25.1457 (except for paragraph (a)(6)); § 27.1457 (except for paragraph (a)(6)); or § 29.1457 (except for paragraph (a)(6)) of this chapter, as applicable; and (ii) Is operated continuously from the use of the check list before the flight, to completion of the final check list at the end of the flight; and (iii) Retains at least the last 2 hours of recorded information using a recorder that meets the standards of TSO-C123a, or later revision. (iv) For all airplanes or rotorcraft manufactured on or after December 6, 2010, also meets the requirements of § 23.1457(a)(6); § 25.1457(a)(6); § 27.1457(a)(6); or § 29.457(a)(6) of this chapter, as applicable.

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(h) All airplanes or rotorcraft required by this part to have a cockpit voice recorder and a flight data recorder, that install datalink communication equipment on or after December 6, 2010, must record all datalink messages as required by the certification rule applicable to the aircraft. [Docket 16097, 43 FR 46783, Oct. 10, 1978, as amended by Amdt. 135-23, 52 FR 9637, Mar. 25, 1987; Amdt. 135-26, 53 FR 26151, July 11, 1988; Amdt. 135-60, 61 FR 2616, Jan. 26, 1996; Amdt. 135-113, 73 FR 12570, Mar. 7, 2008; Amdt. 135-113, 74 FR 32801, July 9, 2009; Amdt. 135-121, 75 FR 17046, Apr. 5, 2010] § 135.152 Flight data recorders. (a) Except as provided in paragraph (k) of this section, no person may operate under this part a multi-engine, turbine-engine powered airplane or rotorcraft having a passenger seating configuration, excluding any required crewmember seat, of 10 to 19 seats, that was either brought onto the U.S. register after, or was registered outside the United States and added to the operator's U.S. operations specifications after, October 11, 1991, unless it is equipped with one or more approved flight recorders that use a digital method of recording and storing data and a method of readily retrieving that data from the storage medium. The parameters specified in either Appendix B or C of this part, as applicable must be recorded within the range, accuracy, resolution, and recording intervals as specified. The recorder shall retain no less than 25 hours of aircraft operation. (b) After October 11, 1991, no person may operate a multiengine, turbine-powered airplane having a passenger seating configuration of 20 to 30 seats or a multiengine, turbine-powered rotorcraft having a passenger seating configuration of 20 or more seats unless it is equipped with one or more approved flight recorders that utilize a digital method of recording and storing data, and a method of readily retrieving that data from the storage medium. The parameters in appendix D or E of this part, as applicable, that are set forth below, must be recorded within the ranges, accuracies, resolutions, and sampling intervals as specified. (1) Except as provided in paragraph (b)(3) of this section for aircraft type certificated before October 1, 1969, the following parameters must be recorded: (i) Time; (ii) Altitude; (iii) Airspeed; (iv) Vertical acceleration; (v) Heading; (vi) Time of each radio transmission to or from air traffic control; (vii) Pitch attitude; (viii) Roll attitude; (ix) Longitudinal acceleration; (x) Control column or pitch control surface position; and (xi) Thrust of each engine. (2) Except as provided in paragraph (b)(3) of this section for aircraft type certificated after September 30, 1969, the following parameters must be recorded: (i) Time; (ii) Altitude; (iii) Airspeed; (iv) Vertical acceleration; (v) Heading; (vi) Time of each radio transmission either to or from air traffic control; (vii) Pitch attitude; (viii) Roll attitude; (ix) Longitudinal acceleration; (x) Pitch trim position; (xi) Control column or pitch control surface position; (xii) Control wheel or lateral control surface position; (xiii) Rudder pedal or yaw control surface position; (xiv) Thrust of each engine; (xv) Position of each thrust reverser; (xvi) Trailing edge flap or cockpit flap control position; and (xvii) Leading edge flap or cockpit flap control position. (3) For aircraft manufactured after October 11, 1991, all of the parameters listed in appendix D or E of this part, as applicable, must be recorded. (c) Whenever a flight recorder required by this section is installed, it must be operated continuously from the instant the airplane begins the takeoff roll or the rotorcraft begins the lift-off until the airplane has completed the landing roll or the rotorcraft has landed at its destination. (d) Except as provided in paragraph (c) of this section, and except for recorded data erased as authorized in this paragraph, each certificate holder shall keep the recorded data prescribed in paragraph (a) of this section until the aircraft has been operating for at least 25 hours of the operating time specified in paragraph (c) of this section. In addition, each certificate holder shall keep the recorded data prescribed in paragraph (b) of this section for an airplane until the airplane has been operating for at least 25 hours, and for a rotorcraft until the rotorcraft has been operating for at least 10 hours, of the operating time specified in paragraph (c) of this section. A total of 1 hour of recorded data may be erased for the purpose of testing the flight recorder or the flight recorder system. Any erasure made in accordance with this paragraph must be of the oldest recorded data accumulated at the time of testing. Except as provided in paragraph (c) of this section, no record need be kept more than 60 days.

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(e) In the event of an accident or occurrence that requires the immediate notification of the National Transportation Safety Board under 49 CFR part 830 of its regulations and that results in termination of the flight, the certificate holder shall remove the recording media from the aircraft and keep the recorded data required by paragraphs (a) and (b) of this section for at least 60 days or for a longer period upon request of the Board or the Administrator. (f)(1) For airplanes manufactured on or before August 18, 2000, and all other aircraft, each flight recorder required by this section must be installed in accordance with the requirements of § 23.1459 (except paragraphs (a)(3)(ii) and (6)), § 25.1459 (except paragraphs (a)(3)(ii) and (7)), § 27.1459 (except paragraphs (a)(3)(ii) and (6)), or § 29.1459 (except paragraphs (a)(3)(ii) and (6)), as appropriate, of this chapter. The correlation required by paragraph (c) of §§ 23.1459, 25.1459, 27.1459, or 29.1459 of this chapter, as appropriate, need be established only on one aircraft of a group of aircraft: (i) That are of the same type; (ii) On which the flight recorder models and their installations are the same; and (iii) On which there are no differences in the type designs with respect to the installation of the first pilot's instruments associated with the flight recorder. The most recent instrument calibration, including the recording medium from which this calibration is derived, and the recorder correlation must be retained by the certificate holder. (2) For airplanes manufactured after August 18, 2000, each flight data recorder system required by this section must be installed in accordance with the requirements of § 23.1459(a) (except paragraphs (a)(3)(ii) and (6)), (b), (d) and (e), or § 25.1459(a) (except paragraphs (a)(3)(ii) and (7)), (b), (d) and (e) of this chapter. A correlation must be established between the values recorded by the flight data recorder and the corresponding values being measured. The correlation must contain a sufficient number of correlation points to accurately establish the conversion from the recorded values to engineering units or discrete state over the full operating range of the parameter. Except for airplanes having separate altitude and airspeed sensors that are an integral part of the flight data recorder system, a single correlation may be established for any group of airplanes— (i) That are of the same type; (ii) On which the flight recorder system and its installation are the same; and (iii) On which there is no difference in the type design with respect to the installation of those sensors associated with the flight data recorder system. Documentation sufficient to convert recorded data into the engineering units and discrete values specified in the applicable appendix must be maintained by the certificate holder. (g) Each flight recorder required by this section that records the data specified in paragraphs (a) and (b) of this section must have an approved device to assist in locating that recorder under water. (h) The operational parameters required to be recorded by digital flight data recorders required by paragraphs (i) and (j) of this section are as follows, the phrase “when an information source is installed” following a parameter indicates that recording of that parameter is not intended to require a change in installed equipment.

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(1) Time; (2) Pressure altitude; (3) Indicated airspeed; (4) Heading—primary flight crew reference (if selectable, record discrete, true or magnetic); (5) Normal acceleration (Vertical); (6) Pitch attitude; (7) Roll attitude; (8) Manual radio transmitter keying, or CVR/DFDR synchronization reference; (9) Thrust/power of each engine—primary flight crew reference; (10) Autopilot engagement status; (11) Longitudinal acceleration; (12) Pitch control input; (13) Lateral control input; (14) Rudder pedal input; (15) Primary pitch control surface position; (16) Primary lateral control surface position; (17) Primary yaw control surface position; (18) Lateral acceleration; (19) Pitch trim surface position or parameters of paragraph (h)(82) of this section if currently recorded; (20) Trailing edge flap or cockpit flap control selection (except when parameters of paragraph (h)(85) of this section apply); (21) Leading edge flap or cockpit flap control selection (except when parameters of paragraph (h)(86) of this section apply); (22) Each Thrust reverser position (or equivalent for propeller airplane); (23) Ground spoiler position or speed brake selection (except when parameters of paragraph (h)(87) of this section apply); (24) Outside or total air temperature; (25) Automatic Flight Control System (AFCS) modes and engagement status, including autothrottle; (26) Radio altitude (when an information source is installed); (27) Localizer deviation, MLS Azimuth; (28) Glideslope deviation, MLS Elevation; (29) Marker beacon passage; (30) Master warning; (31) Air/ground sensor (primary airplane system reference nose or main gear); (32) Angle of attack (when information source is installed); (33) Hydraulic pressure low (each system); (34) Ground speed (when an information source is installed); (35) Ground proximity warning system; (36) Landing gear position or landing gear cockpit control selection; (37) Drift angle (when an information source is installed); (38) Wind speed and direction (when an information source is installed); (39) Latitude and longitude (when an information source is installed); (40) Stick shaker/pusher (when an information source is installed); (41) Windshear (when an information source is installed); (42) Throttle/power lever position; (43) Additional engine parameters (as designated in appendix F of this part); (44) Traffic alert and collision avoidance system; (45) DME 1 and 2 distances; (46) Nav 1 and 2 selected frequency; (47) Selected barometric setting (when an information source is installed); (48) Selected altitude (when an information source is installed); (49) Selected speed (when an information source is installed); (50) Selected mach (when an information source is installed); (51) Selected vertical speed (when an information source is installed); (52) Selected heading (when an information source is installed); (53) Selected flight path (when an information source is installed); (54) Selected decision height (when an information source is installed); (55) EFIS display format; (56) Multi-function/engine/alerts display format; (57) Thrust command (when an information source is installed); (58) Thrust target (when an information source is installed); (59) Fuel quantity in CG trim tank (when an information source is installed); (60) Primary Navigation System Reference; (61) Icing (when an information source is installed); (62) Engine warning each engine vibration (when an information source is installed);

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(63) Engine warning each engine over temp. (when an information source is installed); (64) Engine warning each engine oil pressure low (when an information source is installed); (65) Engine warning each engine over speed (when an information source is installed; (66) Yaw trim surface position; (67) Roll trim surface position; (68) Brake pressure (selected system); (69) Brake pedal application (left and right); (70) Yaw or sideslip angle (when an information source is installed); (71) Engine bleed valve position (when an information source is installed); (72) De-icing or anti-icing system selection (when an information source is installed); (73) Computed center of gravity (when an information source is installed); (74) AC electrical bus status; (75) DC electrical bus status; (76) APU bleed valve position (when an information source is installed); (77) Hydraulic pressure (each system); (78) Loss of cabin pressure; (79) Computer failure; (80) Heads-up display (when an information source is installed); (81) Para-visual display (when an information source is installed); (82) Cockpit trim control input position—pitch; (83) Cockpit trim control input position—roll; (84) Cockpit trim control input position—yaw; (85) Trailing edge flap and cockpit flap control position; (86) Leading edge flap and cockpit flap control position; (87) Ground spoiler position and speed brake selection; and (88) All cockpit flight control input forces (control wheel, control column, rudder pedal). (i) For all turbine-engine powered airplanes with a seating configuration, excluding any required crewmember seat, of 10 to 30 passenger seats, manufactured after August 18, 2000— (1) The parameters listed in paragraphs (h)(1) through (h)(57) of this section must be recorded within the ranges, accuracies, resolutions, and recording intervals specified in Appendix F of this part. (2) Commensurate with the capacity of the recording system, all additional parameters for which information sources are installed and which are connected to the recording system must be recorded within the ranges, accuracies, resolutions, and sampling intervals specified in Appendix F of this part. (j) For all turbine-engine-powered airplanes with a seating configuration, excluding any required crewmember seat, of 10 to 30 passenger seats, that are manufactured after August 19, 2002 the parameters listed in paragraph (a)(1) through (a)(88) of this section must be recorded within the ranges, accuracies, resolutions, and recording intervals specified in Appendix F of this part. (k) For aircraft manufactured before August 18, 1997, the following aircraft types need not comply with this section: Bell 212, Bell 214ST, Bell 412, Bell 412SP, Boeing Chinook (BV-234), Boeing/Kawasaki Vertol 107 (BV/KV-107-II), deHavilland DHC-6, Eurocopter Puma 330J, Sikorsky 58, Sikorsky 61N, Sikorsky 76A. (l) By April 7, 2012, all aircraft manufactured before April 7, 2010, must also meet the requirements in § 23.1459(a)(7), § 25.1459(a)(8), § 27.1459(e), or § 29.1459(e) of this chapter, as applicable. (m) All aircraft manufactured on or after April 7, 2010, must have a flight data recorder installed that also— (1) Meets the requirements of § 23.1459(a)(3), (a)(6), and (a)(7), § 25.1459(a)(3), (a)(7), and (a)(8), § 27.1459(a)(3), (a)(6), and (e), or § 29.1459(a)(3), (a)(6), and (e) of this chapter, as applicable; and (2) Retains the 25 hours of recorded information required in paragraph (d) of this section using a recorder that meets the standards of TSO-C124a, or later revision. [Docket 25530, 53 FR 26151, July 11, 1988, as amended by Amdt. 135-69, 62 FR 38396, July 17, 1997; 62 FR 48135, Sept. 12, 1997; Amdt. 135-89, 68 FR 42939, July 18, 2003; Amdt. 135-113, 73 FR 12570, Mar. 7, 2008; Amdt. 135-113, 74 FR 32801, July 9, 2009]

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§ 135.152, Nt. Effective Date Note: By FAA-2023-1275, Amdt. 135-147, 89 FR 92486, Nov. 21, 2024, § 135.152 was amended by revising paragraph (j), effective Jan. 21, 2025. For the convenience of the user, the revised text is set forth as follows: § 135.152 Flight data recorders. (j) For all turbine-engine-powered airplanes with a seating configuration, excluding any required crewmember seat, of 10 to 30 passenger seats, that are manufactured after August 19, 2002, the parameters listed in paragraphs (h)(1) through (88) of this section must be recorded within the ranges, accuracies, resolutions, and recording intervals specified in appendix F to this part. § 135.153 [Reserved]
§ 135.154 Terrain awareness and warning system. (a) Airplanes manufactured after March 29, 2002: (1) No person may operate a turbine-powered airplane configured with 10 or more passenger seats, excluding any pilot seat, unless that airplane is equipped with an approved terrain awareness and warning system that meets the requirements for Class A equipment in Technical Standard Order (TSO)-C151. The airplane must also include an approved terrain situational awareness display. (2) No person may operate a turbine-powered airplane configured with 6 to 9 passenger seats, excluding any pilot seat, unless that airplane is equipped with an approved terrain awareness and warning system that meets as a minimum the requirements for Class B equipment in Technical Standard Order (TSO)-C151. (b) Airplanes manufactured on or before March 29, 2002: (1) No person may operate a turbine-powered airplane configured with 10 or more passenger seats, excluding any pilot seat, after March 29, 2005, unless that airplane is equipped with an approved terrain awareness and warning system that meets the requirements for Class A equipment in Technical Standard Order (TSO)-C151. The airplane must also include an approved terrain situational awareness display. (2) No person may operate a turbine-powered airplane configured with 6 to 9 passenger seats, excluding any pilot seat, after March 29, 2005, unless that airplane is equipped with an approved terrain awareness and warning system that meets as a minimum the requirements for Class B equipment in Technical Standard Order (TSO)-C151. (Approved by the Office of Management and Budget under control number 2120-0631) (c) Airplane Flight Manual. The Airplane Flight Manual shall contain appropriate procedures for— (1) The use of the terrain awareness and warning system; and (2) Proper flight crew reaction in response to the terrain awareness and warning system audio and visual warnings. [Docket 29312, 65 FR 16755, Mar. 29, 2000] § 135.155 Fire extinguishers: Passenger-carrying aircraft. No person may operate an aircraft carrying passengers unless it is equipped with hand fire extinguishers of an approved type for use in crew and passenger compartments as follows— (a) The type and quantity of extinguishing agent must be suitable for the kinds of fires likely to occur; (b) At least one hand fire extinguisher must be provided and conveniently located on the flight deck for use by the flight crew; and (c) At least one hand fire extinguisher must be conveniently located in the passenger compartment of each aircraft having a passenger seating configuration, excluding any pilot seat, of at least 10 seats but less than 31 seats. § 135.156 Flight data recorders: filtered data. (a) A flight data signal is filtered when an original sensor signal has been changed in any way, other than changes necessary to: (1) Accomplish analog to digital conversion of the signal; (2) Format a digital signal to be DFDR compatible; or (3) Eliminate a high frequency component of a signal that is outside the operational bandwidth of the sensor.

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(b) An original sensor signal for any flight recorder parameter required to be recorded under § 135.152 may be filtered only if the recorded signal value continues to meet the requirements of Appendix D or F of this part, as applicable. (c) For a parameter described in § 135.152(h)(12) through (17), (42), or (88), or the corresponding parameter in Appendix D of this part, if the recorded signal value is filtered and does not meet the requirements of Appendix D or F of this part, as applicable, the certificate holder must: (1) Remove the filtering and ensure that the recorded signal value meets the requirements of Appendix D or F of this part, as applicable; or (2) Demonstrate by test and analysis that the original sensor signal value can be reconstructed from the recorded data. This demonstration requires that: (i) The FAA determine that the procedure and test results submitted by the certificate holder as its compliance with paragraph (c)(2) of this section are repeatable; and (ii) The certificate holder maintains documentation of the procedure required to reconstruct the original sensor signal value. This documentation is also subject to the requirements of § 135.152(e). (d) Compliance. Compliance is required as follows: (1) No later than October 20, 2011, each operator must determine, for each aircraft on its operations specifications, whether the aircraft's DFDR system is filtering any of the parameters listed in paragraph (c) of this section. The operator must create a record of this determination for each aircraft it operates, and maintain it as part of the correlation documentation required by § 135.152 (f)(1)(iii) or (f)(2)(iii) of this part as applicable. (2) For aircraft that are not filtering any listed parameter, no further action is required unless the aircraft's DFDR system is modified in a manner that would cause it to meet the definition of filtering on any listed parameter. (3) For aircraft found to be filtering a parameter listed in paragraph (c) of this section the operator must either: (i) No later than April 21, 2014, remove the filtering; or (ii) No later than April 22, 2013, submit the necessary procedure and test results required by paragraph (c)(2) of this section. (4) After April 21, 2014, no aircraft flight data recording system may filter any parameter listed in paragraph (c) of this section that does not meet the requirements of Appendix D or F of this part, unless the certificate holder possesses test and analysis procedures and the test results that have been approved by the FAA. All records of tests, analysis and procedures used to comply with this section must be maintained as part of the correlation documentation required by § 135.152 (f)(1)(iii) or (f)(2)(iii) of this part as applicable. [Docket FAA-2006-26135, 75 FR 7357, Feb. 19, 2010] § 135.157 Oxygen equipment requirements. (a) Unpressurized aircraft. No person may operate an unpressurized aircraft at altitudes prescribed in this section unless it is equipped with enough oxygen dispensers and oxygen to supply the pilots under § 135.89(a) and to supply, when flying— (1) At altitudes above 10,000 feet through 15,000 feet MSL, oxygen to at least 10 percent of the occupants of the aircraft, other than the pilots, for that part of the flight at those altitudes that is of more than 30 minutes duration; and (2) Above 15,000 feet MSL, oxygen to each occupant of the aircraft other than the pilots. (b) Pressurized aircraft. No person may operate a pressurized aircraft— (1) At altitudes above 25,000 feet MSL, unless at least a 10-minute supply of supplemental oxygen is available for each occupant of the aircraft, other than the pilots, for use when a descent is necessary due to loss of cabin pressurization; and (2) Unless it is equipped with enough oxygen dispensers and oxygen to comply with paragraph (a) of this section whenever the cabin pressure altitude exceeds 10,000 feet MSL and, if the cabin pressurization fails, to comply with § 135.89 (a) or to provide a 2-hour supply for each pilot, whichever is greater, and to supply when flying—

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(i) At altitudes above 10,000 feet through 15,000 feet MSL, oxygen to at least 10 percent of the occupants of the aircraft, other than the pilots, for that part of the flight at those altitudes that is of more than 30 minutes duration; and (ii) Above 15,000 feet MSL, oxygen to each occupant of the aircraft, other than the pilots, for one hour unless, at all times during flight above that altitude, the aircraft can safely descend to 15,000 feet MSL within four minutes, in which case only a 30-minute supply is required. (c) The equipment required by this section must have a means— (1) To enable the pilots to readily determine, in flight, the amount of oxygen available in each source of supply and whether the oxygen is being delivered to the dispensing units; or (2) In the case of individual dispensing units, to enable each user to make those determinations with respect to that person's oxygen supply and delivery; and (3) To allow the pilots to use undiluted oxygen at their discretion at altitudes above 25,000 feet MSL. § 135.158 Pitot heat indication systems. (a) Except as provided in paragraph (b) of this section, after April 12, 1981, no person may operate a transport category airplane equipped with a flight instrument pitot heating system unless the airplane is also equipped with an operable pitot heat indication system that complies with § 25.1326 of this chapter in effect on April 12, 1978. (b) A certificate holder may obtain an extension of the April 12, 1981, compliance date specified in paragraph (a) of this section, but not beyond April 12, 1983, from the Executive Director, Flight Standards Service if the certificate holder— (1) Shows that due to circumstances beyond its control it cannot comply by the specified compliance date; and (2) Submits by the specified compliance date a schedule for compliance, acceptable to the Executive Director, indicating that compliance will be achieved at the earliest practicable date. [Docket 18094, Amdt. 135-17, 46 FR 48306, Aug. 31, 1981, as amended by Amdt. 135-33, 54 FR 39294, Sept. 25, 1989; Docket FAA-2018-0119, Amdt. 135-139, 83 FR 9175, Mar. 5, 2018] § 135.159 Equipment requirements: Carrying passengers under VFR at night or under VFR over-the-top conditions. No person may operate an aircraft carrying passengers under VFR at night or under VFR over-the-top, unless it is equipped with— (a) A gyroscopic rate-of-turn indicator except on the following aircraft: (1) Airplanes with a third attitude instrument system usable through flight attitudes of 360 degrees of pitch-and-roll and installed in accordance with the instrument requirements prescribed in § 121.305(j) of this chapter. (2) Helicopters with a third attitude instrument system usable through flight attitudes of ±80 degrees of pitch and ±120 degrees of roll and installed in accordance with § 29.1303(g) of this chapter. (3) Helicopters with a maximum certificated takeoff weight of 6,000 pounds or less. (b) A slip skid indicator. (c) A gyroscopic bank-and-pitch indicator. (d) A gyroscopic direction indicator. (e) A generator or generators able to supply all probable combinations of continuous in-flight electrical loads for required equipment and for recharging the battery. (f) For night flights— (1) An anticollision light system; (2) Instrument lights to make all instruments, switches, and gauges easily readable, the direct rays of which are shielded from the pilots' eyes; and (3) A flashlight having at least two size “D” cells or equivalent. (g) For the purpose of paragraph (e) of this section, a continuous in-flight electrical load includes one that draws current continuously during flight, such as radio equipment and electrically driven instruments and lights, but does not include occasional intermittent loads. (h) Notwithstanding provisions of paragraphs (b), (c), and (d), helicopters having a maximum certificated takeoff weight of 6,000 pounds or less may be operated until January 6, 1988, under visual flight rules at night without a slip skid indicator, a gyroscopic bank-and-pitch indicator, or a gyroscopic direction indicator.

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[Docket 24550, 51 FR 40709, Nov. 7, 1986, as amended by Amdt. 135-38, 55 FR 43310, Oct. 26, 1990] § 135.160 Radio altimeters for rotorcraft operations. (a) After April 24, 2017, no person may operate a rotorcraft unless that rotorcraft is equipped with an operable FAA-approved radio altimeter, or an FAA-approved device that incorporates a radio altimeter, unless otherwise authorized in the certificate holder's approved minimum equipment list. (b) Deviation authority. The Administrator may authorize deviations from paragraph (a) of this section for rotorcraft that are unable to incorporate a radio altimeter. This deviation will be issued as a Letter of Deviation Authority. The deviation may be terminated or amended at any time by the Administrator. The request for deviation authority is applicable to rotorcraft with a maximum gross takeoff weight no greater than 2,950 pounds. The request for deviation authority must contain a complete statement of the circumstances and justification, and must be submitted to the responsible Flight Standards office, not less than 60 days prior to the date of intended operations. [Docket FAA-2010-0982, 79 FR 9973, Feb. 21, 2014, as amended by Docket FAA-2018-0119, Amdt. 135-139, 83 FR 9175, Mar. 5, 2018] § 135.161 Communication and navigation equipment for aircraft operations under VFR over routes navigated by pilotage. (a) No person may operate an aircraft under VFR over routes that can be navigated by pilotage unless the aircraft is equipped with the two-way radio communication equipment necessary under normal operating conditions to fulfill the following: (1) Communicate with at least one appropriate station from any point on the route, except in remote locations and areas of mountainous terrain where geographical constraints make such communication impossible. (2) Communicate with appropriate air traffic control facilities from any point within Class B, Class C, or Class D airspace, or within a Class E surface area designated for an airport in which flights are intended; and (3) Receive meteorological information from any point en route, except in remote locations and areas of mountainous terrain where geographical constraints make such communication impossible. (b) No person may operate an aircraft at night under VFR over routes that can be navigated by pilotage unless that aircraft is equipped with— (1) Two-way radio communication equipment necessary under normal operating conditions to fulfill the functions specified in paragraph (a) of this section; and (2) Navigation equipment suitable for the route to be flown. [Docket FAA-2002-14002, 72 FR 31684, June 7, 2007, as amended by Amdt. 135-116, 74 FR 20205, May 1, 2009] § 135.163 Equipment requirements: Aircraft carrying passengers under IFR. No person may operate an aircraft under IFR, carrying passengers, unless it has— (a) A vertical speed indicator; (b) A free-air temperature indicator; (c) A heated pitot tube for each airspeed indicator; (d) A power failure warning device or vacuum indicator to show the power available for gyroscopic instruments from each power source; (e) An alternate source of static pressure for the altimeter and the airspeed and vertical speed indicators; (f) For a single-engine aircraft: (1) Two independent electrical power generating sources each of which is able to supply all probable combinations of continuous inflight electrical loads for required instruments and equipment; or (2) In addition to the primary electrical power generating source, a standby battery or an alternate source of electric power that is capable of supplying 150% of the electrical loads of all required instruments and equipment necessary for safe emergency operation of the aircraft for at least one hour;

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(g) For multi-engine aircraft, at least two generators or alternators each of which is on a separate engine, of which any combination of one-half of the total number are rated sufficiently to supply the electrical loads of all required instruments and equipment necessary for safe emergency operation of the aircraft except that for multi-engine helicopters, the two required generators may be mounted on the main rotor drive train; and (h) Two independent sources of energy (with means of selecting either) of which at least one is an engine-driven pump or generator, each of which is able to drive all required gyroscopic instruments powered by, or to be powered by, that particular source and installed so that failure of one instrument or source, does not interfere with the energy supply to the remaining instruments or the other energy source unless, for single-engine aircraft in all cargo operations only, the rate of turn indicator has a source of energy separate from the bank and pitch and direction indicators. For the purpose of this paragraph, for multi-engine aircraft, each engine-driven source of energy must be on a different engine. (i) For the purpose of paragraph (f) of this section, a continuous inflight electrical load includes one that draws current continuously during flight, such as radio equipment, electrically driven instruments, and lights, but does not include occasional intermittent loads. [Docket 16097, 43 FR 46783, Oct. 10, 1978, as amended by Amdt. 135-70, 62 FR 42374, Aug. 6, 1997; Amdt. 135-72, 63 FR 25573, May 8, 1998] § 135.165 Communication and navigation equipment: Extended over-water or IFR operations. (a) Aircraft navigation equipment requirements — General. Except as provided in paragraph (g) of this section, no person may conduct operations under IFR or extended over-water unless— (1) The en route navigation aids necessary for navigating the aircraft along the route (e.g., ATS routes, arrival and departure routes, and instrument approach procedures, including missed approach procedures if a missed approach routing is specified in the procedure) are available and suitable for use by the navigation systems required by this section: (2) The aircraft used in extended over-water operations is equipped with at least two-approved independent navigation systems suitable for navigating the aircraft along the route to be flown within the degree of accuracy required for ATC. (3) The aircraft used for IFR operations is equipped with at least— (i) One marker beacon receiver providing visual and aural signals; and (ii) One ILS receiver. (4) Any RNAV system used to meet the navigation equipment requirements of this section is authorized in the certificate holder's operations specifications. (b) Use of a single independent navigation system for IFR operations. The aircraft may be equipped with a single independent navigation system suitable for navigating the aircraft along the route to be flown within the degree of accuracy required for ATC if: (1) It can be shown that the aircraft is equipped with at least one other independent navigation system suitable, in the event of loss of the navigation capability of the single independent navigation system permitted by this paragraph at any point along the route, for proceeding safely to a suitable airport and completing an instrument approach; and (2) The aircraft has sufficient fuel so that the flight may proceed safely to a suitable airport by use of the remaining navigation system, and complete an instrument approach and land. (c) VOR navigation equipment. Whenever VOR navigation equipment is required by paragraph (a) or (b) of this section, no person may operate an aircraft unless it is equipped with at least one approved DME or suitable RNAV system. (d) Airplane communication equipment requirements. Except as permitted in paragraph (e) of this section, no person may operate a turbojet airplane having a passenger seat configuration, excluding any pilot seat, of 10 seats or more, or a multiengine airplane in a commuter operation, as defined in part 119 of this chapter, under IFR or in extended over-water operations unless the airplane is equipped with—

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(1) At least two independent communication systems necessary under normal operating conditions to fulfill the functions specified in § 121.347(a) of this chapter; and (2) At least one of the communication systems required by paragraph (d)(1) of this section must have two-way voice communication capability. (e) IFR or extended over-water communications equipment requirements. A person may operate an aircraft other than that specified in paragraph (d) of this section under IFR or in extended over-water operations if it meets all of the requirements of this section, with the exception that only one communication system transmitter is required for operations other than extended over-water operations. (f) Additional aircraft communication equipment requirements. In addition to the requirements in paragraphs (d) and (e) of this section, no person may operate an aircraft under IFR or in extended over-water operations unless it is equipped with at least: (1) Two microphones; and (2) Two headsets or one headset and one speaker. (g) Extended over-water exceptions. Notwithstanding the requirements of paragraphs (a), (d), and (e) of this section, installation and use of a single long-range navigation system and a single long-range communication system for extended over-water operations in certain geographic areas may be authorized by the Administrator and approved in the certificate holder's operations specifications. The following are among the operational factors the Administrator may consider in granting an authorization: (1) The ability of the flight crew to navigate the airplane along the route within the degree of accuracy required for ATC; (2) The length of the route being flown; and (3) The duration of the very high frequency communications gap. [Docket FAA-2002-14002, 72 FR 31684, June 7, 2007] § 135.165, Nt. Effective Date Note: By FAA-2023-1275, Amdt. 135-147, 89 FR 92486, Nov. 21, 2024, § 135.165 was amended by removing the reference “part 119” in the introductory text of paragraph (d), and adding in its place the reference “part 110”, effective Jan. 21, 2025. § 135.167 Emergency equipment: Extended overwater operations. (a) Except where the Administrator, by amending the operations specifications of the certificate holder, requires the carriage of all or any specific items of the equipment listed below for any overwater operation, or, upon application of the certificate holder, the Administrator allows deviation for a particular extended overwater operation, no person may operate an aircraft in extended overwater operations unless it carries, installed in conspicuously marked locations easily accessible to the occupants if a ditching occurs, the following equipment: (1) An approved life preserver equipped with an approved survivor locator light for each occupant of the aircraft. The life preserver must be easily accessible to each seated occupant. (2) Enough approved liferafts of a rated capacity and buoyancy to accommodate the occupants of the aircraft. (b) Each liferaft required by paragraph (a) of this section must be equipped with or contain at least the following: (1) One approved survivor locator light. (2) One approved pyrotechnic signaling device. (3) Either— (i) One survival kit, appropriately equipped for the route to be flown; or (ii) One canopy (for sail, sunshade, or rain catcher); (iii) One radar reflector; (iv) One liferaft repair kit; (v) One bailing bucket; (vi) One signaling mirror; (vii) One police whistle; (viii) One raft knife; (ix) One CO 2 bottle for emergency inflation; (x) One inflation pump; (xi) Two oars; (xii) One 75-foot retaining line; (xiii) One magnetic compass; (xiv) One dye marker; (xv) One flashlight having at least two size “D” cells or equivalent;

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(xvi) A 2-day supply of emergency food rations supplying at least 1,000 calories per day for each person; (xvii) For each two persons the raft is rated to carry, two pints of water or one sea water desalting kit; (xviii) One fishing kit; and (xix) One book on survival appropriate for the area in which the aircraft is operated. (c) No person may operate an airplane in extended overwater operations unless there is attached to one of the life rafts required by paragraph (a) of this section, an approved survival type emergency locator transmitter. Batteries used in this transmitter must be replaced (or recharged, if the batteries are rechargeable) when the transmitter has been in use for more than 1 cumulative hour, or, when 50 percent of their useful life (or for rechargeable batteries, 50 percent of their useful life of charge) has expired, as established by the transmitter manufacturer under its approval. The new expiration date for replacing (or recharging) the battery must be legibly marked on the outside of the transmitter. The battery useful life (or useful life of charge) requirements of this paragraph do not apply to batteries (such as water-activated batteries) that are essentially unaffected during probable storage intervals. [Docket 16097, 43 FR 46783, Oct. 10, 1978, as amended by Amdt. 135-4, 45 FR 38348, June 30, 1980; Amdt. 135-20, 51 FR 40710, Nov. 7, 1986; Amdt. 135-49, 59 FR 32058, June 21, 1994; Amdt. 135-91, 68 FR 54586, Sept. 17, 2003] § 135.168 Emergency equipment: Overwater rotorcraft operations. (a) Definitions. For the purposes of this section, the following definitions apply— Autorotational distance refers to the distance a rotorcraft can travel in autorotation as described by the manufacturer in the approved Rotorcraft Flight Manual. Shoreline means that area of the land adjacent to the water of an ocean, sea, lake, pond, river, or tidal basin that is above the high-water mark at which a rotorcraft could be landed safely. This does not include land areas which are unsuitable for landing such as vertical cliffs or land intermittently under water. (b) Required equipment. Except when authorized by the certificate holder's operations specifications, or when necessary only for takeoff or landing, no person may operate a rotorcraft beyond autorotational distance from the shoreline unless it carries: (1) An approved life preserver equipped with an approved survivor locator light for each occupant of the rotorcraft. The life preserver must be worn by each occupant while the rotorcraft is beyond autorotational distance from the shoreline, except for a patient transported during a helicopter air ambulance operation, as defined in § 135.601(b)(1), when wearing a life preserver would be inadvisable for medical reasons; and (2) An approved and installed 406 MHz emergency locator transmitter (ELT) with 121.5 MHz homing capability. Batteries used in ELTs must be maintained in accordance with the following— (i) Non-rechargeable batteries must be replaced when the transmitter has been in use for more than 1 cumulative hour or when 50% of their useful lives have expired, as established by the transmitter manufacturer under its approval. The new expiration date for replacing the batteries must be legibly marked on the outside of the transmitter. The battery useful life requirements of this paragraph (b)(2) do not apply to batteries (such as water-activated batteries) that are essentially unaffected during probable storage intervals; or (ii) Rechargeable batteries used in the transmitter must be recharged when the transmitter has been in use for more than 1 cumulative hour or when 50% of their useful-life-of-charge has expired, as established by the transmitter manufacturer under its approval. The new expiration date for recharging the batteries must be legibly marked on the outside of the transmitter. The battery useful-life-of-charge requirements of this paragraph (b)(2) do not apply to batteries (such as water-activated batteries) that are essentially unaffected during probable storage intervals. (c) [Reserved]

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(d) ELT standards. The ELT required by paragraph (b)(2) of this section must meet the requirements in: (1) TSO-C126, TSO-C126a, or TSO-C126b; and (2) Section 2 of either RTCA DO-204 or RTCA DO-204A, as specified by the TSO complied with in paragraph (d)(1) of this section. (e) ELT alternative compliance. Operators with an ELT required by paragraph (b)(2) of this section, or an ELT with an approved deviation under § 21.618 of this chapter, are in compliance with this section. (f) Incorporation by reference. The standards required in this section are incorporated by reference into this section with the approval of the Director of the Federal Register under 5 U.S.C. 552(a) and 1 CFR part 51. To enforce any edition other than that specified in this section, the FAA must publish notice of change in the Federal Register and the material must be available to the public. All approved material is available for inspection at the FAA's Office of Rulemaking (ARM-1), 800 Independence Avenue SW., Washington, DC 20591 (telephone (202) 267-9677) and from the sources indicated below. It is also available for inspection at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call (202) 741-6030 or go to http://www.archives.gov/federal_register/code_of_federal_regulations/ibr_locations.html. (1) U.S. Department of Transportation, Subsequent Distribution Office, DOT Warehouse M30, Ardmore East Business Center, 3341 Q 75th Avenue, Landover, MD 20785; telephone (301) 322-5377. Copies are also available on the FAA's Web site. Use the following link and type the TSO number in the search box: http://www.airweb.faa.gov/Regulatory_and_Guidance_Library/rgTSO.nsf/Frameset?OpenPage. (i) TSO-C126, 406 MHz Emergency Locator Transmitter (ELT), Dec. 23, 1992, (ii) TSO-C126a, 406 MHz Emergency Locator Transmitter (ELT), Dec. 17, 2008, and (iii) TSO-C126b, 406 MHz Emergency Locator Transmitter (ELT), Nov. 26, 2012. (2) RTCA, Inc., 1150 18th Street NW., Suite 910, Washington, DC 20036, telephone (202) 833-9339, and are also available on RTCA's Web site at http://www.rtca.org/onlinecart/index.cfm. (i) RTCA DO-204, Minimum Operational Performance Standards (MOPS) 406 MHz Emergency Locator Transmitters (ELTs), Sept. 29, 1989, and (ii) RTCA DO-204A, Minimum Operational Performance Standards (MOPS) 406 MHz Emergency Locator Transmitters (ELT), Dec. 6, 2007. [Docket FAA-2010-0982, 79 FR 9973, Feb. 21, 2014, as amended by Amdt. 135-138, 83 FR 1189, Jan. 10, 2018] § 135.169 Additional airworthiness requirements. (a) Except for commuter category airplanes, no person may operate a large airplane unless it meets the additional airworthiness requirements of §§ 121.213 through 121.283 and 121.307 of this chapter. (b) No person may operate a small airplane that has a passenger-seating configuration, excluding pilot seats, of 10 seats or more unless it is type certificated— (1) In the transport category; (2) Before July 1, 1970, in the normal category and meets special conditions issued by the Administrator for airplanes intended for use in operations under this part; (3) Before July 19, 1970, in the normal category and meets the additional airworthiness standards in Special Federal Aviation Regulation No. 23; (4) In the normal category and meets the additional airworthiness standards in appendix A; (5) In the normal category and complies with section 1.(a) of Special Federal Aviation Regulation No. 41; (6) In the normal category and complies with section 1.(b) of Special Federal Aviation Regulation No. 41; (7) In the commuter category; or (8) In the normal category, as a multi-engine certification level 4 airplane as defined in part 23 of this chapter. (c) No person may operate a small airplane with a passenger seating configuration, excluding any pilot seat, of 10 seats or more, with a seating configuration greater than the maximum seating configuration used in that type airplane in operations under this part before August 19, 1977. This paragraph does not apply to—

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(1) An airplane that is type certificated in the transport category; or (2) An airplane that complies with— (i) Appendix A of this part provided that its passenger seating configuration, excluding pilot seats, does not exceed 19 seats; or (ii) Special Federal Aviation Regulation No. 41. (d) Cargo or baggage compartments: (1) After March 20, 1991, each Class C or D compartment, as defined in § 25.857 of part 25 of this chapter, greater than 200 cubic feet in volume in a transport category airplane type certificated after January 1, 1958, must have ceiling and sidewall panels which are constructed of: (i) Glass fiber reinforced resin; (ii) Materials which meet the test requirements of part 25, appendix F, part III of this chapter; or (iii) In the case of liner installations approved prior to March 20, 1989, aluminum. (2) For compliance with this paragraph, the term “liner” includes any design feature, such as a joint or fastener, which would affect the capability of the liner to safely contain a fire. [Docket 16097, 43 FR 46783, Oct. 10, 1978, as amended by Amdt. 135-2, 44 FR 53731, Sept. 17, 1979; Amdt. 135-21, 52 FR 1836, Jan. 15, 1987; 52 FR 34745, Sept. 14, 1987; Amdt. 135-31, 54 FR 7389, Feb. 17, 1989; Amdt. 135-55, 60 FR 6628, Feb. 2, 1995; Docket FAA-2015-1621, Amdt. 135-136, 81 FR 96701, Dec. 30, 2016] § 135.170 Materials for compartment interiors. (a) No person may operate an airplane that conforms to an amended or supplemental type certificate issued in accordance with SFAR No. 41 for a maximum certificated takeoff weight in excess of 12,500 pounds unless within one year after issuance of the initial airworthiness certificate under that SFAR, the airplane meets the compartment interior requirements set forth in § 25.853(a) in effect March 6, 1995 (formerly § 25.853 (a), (b), (b-1), (b-2), and (b-3) of this chapter in effect on September 26, 1978). (b) Except for commuter category airplanes and airplanes certificated under Special Federal Aviation Regulation No. 41, no person may operate a large airplane unless it meets the following additional airworthiness requirements: (1) Except for those materials covered by paragraph (b)(2) of this section, all materials in each compartment used by the crewmembers or passengers must meet the requirements of § 25.853 of this chapter in effect as follows or later amendment thereto: (i) Except as provided in paragraph (b)(1)(iv) of this section, each airplane with a passenger capacity of 20 or more and manufactured after August 19, 1988, but prior to August 20, 1990, must comply with the heat release rate testing provisions of § 25.853(d) in effect March 6, 1995 (formerly § 25.853(a-1) in effect on August 20, 1986), except that the total heat release over the first 2 minutes of sample exposure rate must not exceed 100 kilowatt minutes per square meter and the peak heat release rate must not exceed 100 kilowatts per square meter. (ii) Each airplane with a passenger capacity of 20 or more and manufactured after August 19, 1990, must comply with the heat release rate and smoke testing provisions of § 25.853(d) in effect March 6, 1995 (formerly § 25.83(a-1) in effect on September 26, 1988). (iii) Except as provided in paragraph (b)(1) (v) or (vi) of this section, each airplane for which the application for type certificate was filed prior to May 1, 1972, must comply with the provisions of § 25.853 in effect on April 30, 1972, regardless of the passenger capacity, if there is a substantially complete replacement of the cabin interior after April 30, 1972. (iv) Except as provided in paragraph (b)(1) (v) or (vi) of this section, each airplane for which the application for type certificate was filed after May 1, 1972, must comply with the material requirements under which the airplane was type certificated regardless of the passenger capacity if there is a substantially complete replacement of the cabin interior after that date. (v) Except as provided in paragraph (b)(1)(vi) of this section, each airplane that was type certificated after January 1, 1958, must comply with the heat release testing provisions of § 25.853(d) in effect March 6, 1995 (formerly § 25.853(a-1) in effect on August 20, 1986), if there is a substantially complete replacement of the cabin interior components identified in that paragraph on or after that date, except that the total heat release over the first 2 minutes of sample exposure shall not exceed 100 kilowatt-minutes per square meter and the peak heat release rate shall not exceed 100 kilowatts per square meter.

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(vi) Each airplane that was type certificated after January 1, 1958, must comply with the heat release rate and smoke testing provisions of § 25.853(d) in effect March 6, 1995 (formerly § 25.853(a-1) in effect on August 20, 1986), if there is a substantially complete replacement of the cabin interior components identified in that paragraph after August 19, 1990. (vii) Contrary provisions of this section notwithstanding, the Director of the division of the Aircraft Certification Service responsible for the airworthiness rules may authorize deviation from the requirements of paragraph (b)(1)(i), (b)(1)(ii), (b)(1)(v), or (b)(1)(vi) of this section for specific components of the cabin interior that do not meet applicable flammability and smoke emission requirements, if the determination is made that special circumstances exist that make compliance impractical. Such grants of deviation will be limited to those airplanes manufactured within 1 year after the applicable date specified in this section and those airplanes in which the interior is replaced within 1 year of that date. A request for such grant of deviation must include a thorough and accurate analysis of each component subject to § 25.853(d) in effect March 6, 1995 (formerly § 25.853(a-1) in effect on August 20, 1986), the steps being taken to achieve compliance, and, for the few components for which timely compliance will not be achieved, credible reasons for such noncompliance. (viii) Contrary provisions of this section notwithstanding, galley carts and standard galley containers that do not meet the flammability and smoke emission requirements of § 25.853(d) in effect March 6, 1995 (formerly § 25.853(a-1) in effect on August 20, 1986), may be used in airplanes that must meet the requirements of paragraph (b)(1)(i), (b)(1)(ii), (b)(1)(iv) or (b)(1)(vi) of this section provided the galley carts or standard containers were manufactured prior to March 6, 1995. (2) For airplanes type certificated after January 1, 1958, seat cushions, except those on flight crewmember seats, in any compartment occupied by crew or passengers must comply with the requirements pertaining to fire protection of seat cushions in § 25.853(c) effective November 26, 1984. (c) Thermal/acoustic insulation materials. For transport category airplanes type certificated after January 1, 1958: (1) For airplanes manufactured before September 2, 2005, when thermal/acoustic insulation is installed in the fuselage as replacements after September 2, 2005, the insulation must meet the flame propagation requirements of § 25.856 of this chapter, effective September 2, 2003, if it is: (i) Of a blanket construction, or (ii) Installed around air ducting. (2) For airplanes manufactured after September 2, 2005, thermal/acoustic insulation materials installed in the fuselage must meet the flame propagation requirements of § 25.856 of this chapter, effective September 2, 2003. [Docket 26192, 60 FR 6628, Feb. 2, 1995; Amdt. 135-55, 60 FR 11194, Mar. 1, 1995; Amdt. 135-56, 60 FR 13011, Mar. 9, 1995; Amdt. 135-90, 68 FR 45084, July 31, 2003; Amdt. 135-103, 70 FR 77752, Dec. 30, 2005; Docket FAA-2018-0119, Amdt. 135-139, 83 FR 9175, Mar. 5, 2018] § 135.171 Shoulder harness installation at flight crewmember stations. (a) No person may operate a turbojet aircraft or an aircraft having a passenger seating configuration, excluding any pilot seat, of 10 seats or more unless it is equipped with an approved shoulder harness installed for each flight crewmember station. (b) Each flight crewmember occupying a station equipped with a shoulder harness must fasten the shoulder harness during takeoff and landing, except that the shoulder harness may be unfastened if the crewmember cannot perform the required duties with the shoulder harness fastened.

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§ 135.173 Airborne thunderstorm detection equipment requirements. (a) No person may operate an aircraft that has a passenger seating configuration, excluding any pilot seat, of 10 seats or more in passenger-carrying operations, except a helicopter operating under day VFR conditions, unless the aircraft is equipped with either approved thunderstorm detection equipment or approved airborne weather radar equipment. (b) No person may operate a helicopter that has a passenger seating configuration, excluding any pilot seat, of 10 seats or more in passenger-carrying operations, under night VFR when current weather reports indicate that thunderstorms or other potentially hazardous weather conditions that can be detected with airborne thunderstorm detection equipment may reasonably be expected along the route to be flown, unless the helicopter is equipped with either approved thunderstorm detection equipment or approved airborne weather radar equipment. (c) No person may begin a flight under IFR or night VFR conditions when current weather reports indicate that thunderstorms or other potentially hazardous weather conditions that can be detected with airborne thunderstorm detection equipment, required by paragraph (a) or (b) of this section, may reasonably be expected along the route to be flown, unless the airborne thunderstorm detection equipment is in satisfactory operating condition. (d) If the airborne thunderstorm detection equipment becomes inoperative en route, the aircraft must be operated under the instructions and procedures specified for that event in the manual required by § 135.21. (e) This section does not apply to aircraft used solely within the State of Hawaii, within the State of Alaska, within that part of Canada west of longitude 130 degrees W, between latitude 70 degrees N, and latitude 53 degrees N, or during any training, test, or ferry flight. (f) Without regard to any other provision of this part, an alternate electrical power supply is not required for airborne thunderstorm detection equipment. [Docket 16097, 43 FR 46783, Oct. 10, 1978, as amended by Amdt. 135-20, 51 FR 40710, Nov. 7, 1986; Amdt. 135-60, 61 FR 2616, Jan. 26, 1996] § 135.175 Airborne weather radar equipment requirements. (a) No person may operate a large, transport category aircraft in passenger-carrying operations unless approved airborne weather radar equipment is installed in the aircraft. (b) No person may begin a flight under IFR or night VFR conditions when current weather reports indicate that thunderstorms, or other potentially hazardous weather conditions that can be detected with airborne weather radar equipment, may reasonably be expected along the route to be flown, unless the airborne weather radar equipment required by paragraph (a) of this section is in satisfactory operating condition. (c) If the airborne weather radar equipment becomes inoperative en route, the aircraft must be operated under the instructions and procedures specified for that event in the manual required by § 135.21. (d) This section does not apply to aircraft used solely within the State of Hawaii, within the State of Alaska, within that part of Canada west of longitude 130 degrees W, between latitude 70 degrees N, and latitude 53 degrees N, or during any training, test, or ferry flight. (e) Without regard to any other provision of this part, an alternate electrical power supply is not required for airborne weather radar equipment. § 135.177 Emergency equipment requirements for aircraft having a passenger seating configuration of more than 19 passengers. (a) No person may operate an aircraft having a passenger seating configuration, excluding any pilot seat, of more than 19 seats unless it is equipped with the following emergency equipment: (1) At least one approved first-aid kit for treatment of injuries likely to occur in flight or in a minor accident that must: (i) Be readily accessible to crewmembers.

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(ii) Be stored securely and kept free from dust, moisture, and damaging temperatures. (iii) Contain at least the following appropriately maintained contents in the specified quantities:

Contents	Quantity
Adhesive bandage compresses, 1-inch	16
Antiseptic swabs	20
Ammonia inhalants	10
Bandage compresses, 4-inch	8
Triangular bandage compresses, 40-inch	5
Arm splint, noninflatable	1
Leg splint, noninflatable	1
Roller bandage, 4-inch	4
Adhesive tape, 1-inch standard roll	2
Bandage scissors	1
Protective nonpermeable gloves or equivalent	1 pair

(2) A crash axe carried so as to be accessible to the crew but inaccessible to passengers during normal operations. (3) Signs that are visible to all occupants to notify them when smoking is prohibited and when safety belts must be fastened. The signs must be constructed so that they can be turned on during any movement of the aircraft on the surface, for each takeoff or landing, and at other times considered necessary by the pilot in command. “No smoking” signs shall be turned on when required by § 135.127. (4) [Reserved] (b) Each item of equipment must be inspected regularly under inspection periods established in the operations specifications to ensure its condition for continued serviceability and immediate readiness to perform its intended emergency purposes. [Docket 16097, 43 FR 46783, Oct. 10, 1978, as amended by Amdt. 135-25, 53 FR 12362, Apr. 13, 1988; Amdt. 135-43, 57 FR 19245, May 4, 1992; Amdt. 135-44, 57 FR 42676, Sept. 15, 1992; Amdt. 135-47, 59 FR 1781, Jan. 12, 1994; Amdt. 135-53, 59 FR 52643, Oct. 18, 1994; 59 FR 55208, Nov. 4, 1994; Amdt. 121-281, 66 FR 19045, Apr. 12, 2001] § 135.178 Additional emergency equipment. No person may operate an airplane having a passenger seating configuration of more than 19 seats, unless it has the additional emergency equipment specified in paragraphs (a) through (l) of this section. (a) Means for emergency evacuation. Each passenger-carrying landplane emergency exit (other than over-the-wing) that is more than 6 feet from the ground, with the airplane on the ground and the landing gear extended, must have an approved means to assist the occupants in descending to the ground. The assisting means for a floor-level emergency exit must meet the requirements of § 25.809(f)(1) of this chapter in effect on April 30, 1972, except that, for any airplane for which the application for the type certificate was filed after that date, it must meet the requirements under which the airplane was type certificated. An assisting means that deploys automatically must be armed during taxiing, takeoffs, and landings; however, the Administrator may grant a deviation from the requirement of automatic deployment if he finds that the design of the exit makes compliance impractical, if the assisting means automatically erects upon deployment and, with respect to required emergency exits, if an emergency evacuation demonstration is conducted in accordance with § 121.291(a) of this chapter. This paragraph does not apply to the rear window emergency exit of Douglas DC-3 airplanes operated with fewer than 36 occupants, including crewmembers, and fewer than five exits authorized for passenger use. (b) Interior emergency exit marking. The following must be complied with for each passenger-carrying airplane: (1) Each passenger emergency exit, its means of access, and its means of opening must be conspicuously marked. The identity and locating of each passenger emergency exit must be recognizable from a distance equal to the width of the cabin. The location of each passenger emergency exit must be indicated by a sign visible to occupants approaching along the main passenger aisle. There must be a locating sign— (i) Above the aisle near each over-the-wing passenger emergency exit, or at another ceiling location if it is more practical because of low headroom; (ii) Next to each floor level passenger emergency exit, except that one sign may serve two such exits if they both can be seen readily from that sign; and (iii) On each bulkhead or divider that prevents fore and aft vision along the passenger cabin, to indicate emergency exits beyond and obscured by it, except that if this is not possible, the sign may be placed at another appropriate location.

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(2) Each passenger emergency exit marking and each locating sign must meet the following: (i) For an airplane for which the application for the type certificate was filed prior to May 1, 1972, each passenger emergency exit marking and each locating sign must be manufactured to meet the requirements of § 25.812(b) of this chapter in effect on April 30, 1972. On these airplanes, no sign may continue to be used if its luminescence (brightness) decreases to below 100 microlamberts. The colors may be reversed if it increases the emergency illumination of the passenger compartment. However, the Administrator may authorize deviation from the 2-inch background requirements if he finds that special circumstances exist that make compliance impractical and that the proposed deviation provides an equivalent level of safety. (ii) For an airplane for which the application for the type certificate was filed on or after May 1, 1972, each passenger emergency exit marking and each locating sign must be manufactured to meet the interior emergency exit marking requirements under which the airplane was type certificated. On these airplanes, no sign may continue to be used if its luminescence (brightness) decreases to below 250 microlamberts. (c) Lighting for interior emergency exit markings. Each passenger-carrying airplane must have an emergency lighting system, independent of the main lighting system; however, sources of general cabin illumination may be common to both the emergency and the main lighting systems if the power supply to the emergency lighting system is independent of the power supply to the main lighting system. The emergency lighting system must— (1) Illuminate each passenger exit marking and locating sign; (2) Provide enough general lighting in the passenger cabin so that the average illumination when measured at 40-inch intervals at seat armrest height, on the centerline of the main passenger aisle, is at least 0.05 foot-candles; and (3) For airplanes type certificated after January 1, 1958, include floor proximity emergency escape path marking which meets the requirements of § 25.812(e) of this chapter in effect on November 26, 1984. (d) Emergency light operation. Except for lights forming part of emergency lighting subsystems provided in compliance with § 25.812(h) of this chapter (as prescribed in paragraph (h) of this section) that serve no more than one assist means, are independent of the airplane's main emergency lighting systems, and are automatically activated when the assist means is deployed, each light required by paragraphs (c) and (h) of this section must: (1) Be operable manually both from the flightcrew station and from a point in the passenger compartment that is readily accessible to a normal flight attendant seat; (2) Have a means to prevent inadvertent operation of the manual controls; (3) When armed or turned on at either station, remain lighted or become lighted upon interruption of the airplane's normal electric power; (4) Be armed or turned on during taxiing, takeoff, and landing. In showing compliance with this paragraph, a transverse vertical separation of the fuselage need not be considered; (5) Provide the required level of illumination for at least 10 minutes at the critical ambient conditions after emergency landing; and (6) Have a cockpit control device that has an “on,” “off,” and “armed” position. (e) Emergency exit operating handles. (1) For a passenger-carrying airplane for which the application for the type certificate was filed prior to May 1, 1972, the location of each passenger emergency exit operating handle, and instructions for opening the exit, must be shown by a marking on or near the exit that is readable from a distance of 30 inches. In addition, for each Type I and Type II emergency exit with a locking mechanism released by rotary motion of the handle, the instructions for opening must be shown by— (i) A red arrow with a shaft at least three-fourths inch wide and a head twice the width of the shaft, extending along at least 70° of arc at a radius approximately equal to three-fourths of the handle length; and

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(ii) The word “open” in red letters 1 inch high placed horizontally near the head of the arrow. (2) For a passenger-carrying airplane for which the application for the type certificate was filed on or after May 1, 1972, the location of each passenger emergency exit operating handle and instructions for opening the exit must be shown in accordance with the requirements under which the airplane was type certificated. On these airplanes, no operating handle or operating handle cover may continue to be used if its luminescence (brightness) decreases to below 100 microlamberts. (f) Emergency exit access. Access to emergency exits must be provided as follows for each passenger-carrying airplane: (1) Each passageway between individual passenger areas, or leading to a Type I or Type II emergency exit, must be unobstructed and at least 20 inches wide. (2) There must be enough space next to each Type I or Type II emergency exit to allow a crewmember to assist in the evacuation of passengers without reducing the unobstructed width of the passageway below that required in paragraph (f)(1) of this section; however, the Administrator may authorize deviation from this requirement for an airplane certificated under the provisions of part 4b of the Civil Air Regulations in effect before December 20, 1951, if he finds that special circumstances exist that provide an equivalent level of safety. (3) There must be access from the main aisle to each Type III and Type IV exit. The access from the aisle to these exits must not be obstructed by seats, berths, or other protrusions in a manner that would reduce the effectiveness of the exit. In addition, for a transport category airplane type certificated after January 1, 1958, there must be placards installed in accordance with § 25.813(c)(3) of this chapter for each Type III exit after December 3, 1992. (4) If it is necessary to pass through a passageway between passenger compartments to reach any required emergency exit from any seat in the passenger cabin, the passageway must not be obstructed. Curtains may, however, be used if they allow free entry through the passageway. (5) No door may be installed in any partition between passenger compartments. (6) If it is necessary to pass through a doorway separating the passenger cabin from other areas to reach a required emergency exit from any passenger seat, the door must have a means to latch it in the open position, and the door must be latched open during each takeoff and landing. The latching means must be able to withstand the loads imposed upon it when the door is subjected to the ultimate inertia forces, relative to the surrounding structure, listed in § 25.561(b) of this chapter. (g) Exterior exit markings. Each passenger emergency exit and the means of opening that exit from the outside must be marked on the outside of the airplane. There must be a 2-inch colored band outlining each passenger emergency exit on the side of the fuselage. Each outside marking, including the band, must be readily distinguishable from the surrounding fuselage area by contrast in color. The markings must comply with the following: (1) If the reflectance of the darker color is 15 percent or less, the reflectance of the lighter color must be at least 45 percent. (2) If the reflectance of the darker color is greater than 15 percent, at least a 30 percent difference between its reflectance and the reflectance of the lighter color must be provided. (3) Exits that are not in the side of the fuselage must have the external means of opening and applicable instructions marked conspicuously in red or, if red is inconspicuous against the background color, in bright chrome yellow and, when the opening means for such an exit is located on only one side of the fuselage, a conspicuous marking to that effect must be provided on the other side. “Reflectance” is the ratio of the luminous flux reflected by a body to the luminous flux it receives. (h) Exterior emergency lighting and escape route. (1) Each passenger-carrying airplane must be equipped with exterior lighting that meets the following requirements:

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(i) For an airplane for which the application for the type certificate was filed prior to May 1, 1972, the requirements of § 25.812 (f) and (g) of this chapter in effect on April 30, 1972. (ii) For an airplane for which the application for the type certificate was filed on or after May 1, 1972, the exterior emergency lighting requirements under which the airplane was type certificated. (2) Each passenger-carrying airplane must be equipped with a slip-resistant escape route that meets the following requirements: (i) For an airplane for which the application for the type certificate was filed prior to May 1, 1972, the requirements of § 25.803(e) of this chapter in effect on April 30, 1972. (ii) For an airplane for which the application for the type certificate was filed on or after May 1, 1972, the slip-resistant escape route requirements under which the airplane was type certificated. (i) Floor level exits. Each floor level door or exit in the side of the fuselage (other than those leading into a cargo or baggage compartment that is not accessible from the passenger cabin) that is 44 or more inches high and 20 or more inches wide, but not wider than 46 inches, each passenger ventral exit (except the ventral exits on Martin 404 and Convair 240 airplanes), and each tail cone exit, must meet the requirements of this section for floor level emergency exits. However, the Administrator may grant a deviation from this paragraph if he finds that circumstances make full compliance impractical and that an acceptable level of safety has been achieved. (j) Additional emergency exits. Approved emergency exits in the passenger compartments that are in excess of the minimum number of required emergency exits must meet all of the applicable provisions of this section, except paragraphs (f) (1), (2), and (3) of this section, and must be readily accessible. (k) On each large passenger-carrying turbojet-powered airplane, each ventral exit and tailcone exit must be— (1) Designed and constructed so that it cannot be opened during flight; and (2) Marked with a placard readable from a distance of 30 inches and installed at a conspicuous location near the means of opening the exit, stating that the exit has been designed and constructed so that it cannot be opened during flight. (l) Portable lights. No person may operate a passenger-carrying airplane unless it is equipped with flashlight stowage provisions accessible from each flight attendant seat. [Docket 26530, 57 FR 19245, May 4, 1992; 57 FR 29120, June 30, 1992, as amended at 57 FR 34682, Aug. 6, 1992] § 135.179 Inoperable instruments and equipment. (a) No person may take off an aircraft with inoperable instruments or equipment installed unless the following conditions are met: (1) An approved Minimum Equipment List exists for that aircraft. (2) The responsible Flight Standards office has issued the certificate holder operations specifications authorizing operations in accordance with an approved Minimum Equipment List. The flight crew shall have direct access at all times prior to flight to all of the information contained in the approved Minimum Equipment List through printed or other means approved by the Administrator in the certificate holders operations specifications. An approved Minimum Equipment List, as authorized by the operations specifications, constitutes an approved change to the type design without requiring recertification. (3) The approved Minimum Equipment List must: (i) Be prepared in accordance with the limitations specified in paragraph (b) of this section. (ii) Provide for the operation of the aircraft with certain instruments and equipment in an inoperable condition. (4) Records identifying the inoperable instruments and equipment and the information required by (a)(3)(ii) of this section must be available to the pilot. (5) The aircraft is operated under all applicable conditions and limitations contained in the Minimum Equipment List and the operations specifications authorizing use of the Minimum Equipment List.

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(b) The following instruments and equipment may not be included in the Minimum Equipment List: (1) Instruments and equipment that are either specifically or otherwise required by the airworthiness requirements under which the airplane is type certificated and which are essential for safe operations under all operating conditions. (2) Instruments and equipment required by an airworthiness directive to be in operable condition unless the airworthiness directive provides otherwise. (3) Instruments and equipment required for specific operations by this part. (c) Notwithstanding paragraphs (b)(1) and (b)(3) of this section, an aircraft with inoperable instruments or equipment may be operated under a special flight permit under §§ 21.197 and 21.199 of this chapter. [Docket 25780, 56 FR 12311, Mar. 22, 1991; 56 FR 14920, Apr. 8, 1991, as amended by Amdt. 135-60, 61 FR 2616, Jan. 26, 1996; Amdt. 135-91, 68 FR 54586, Sept. 17, 2003; Docket FAA-2018-0119, Amdt. 135-139, 83 FR 9175, Mar. 5, 2018] § 135.179, Nt. Effective Date Note: By Docket FAA-2023-1275, Amdt. 135-147, 89 FR 92486, Nov. 21, 2024, § 135.179 was amended by revising paragraph (b)(1), effective Jan. 21, 2025. For the convenience of the user, the revised text is set forth as follows: § 135.179 Inoperable instruments and equipment. (b) * * * (1) Instruments and equipment that are either specifically or otherwise required by the airworthiness requirements under which the aircraft is type certificated and which are essential for safe operations under all operating conditions. § 135.180 Traffic Alert and Collision Avoidance System. (a) Unless otherwise authorized by the Administrator, after December 31, 1995, no person may operate a turbine powered airplane that has a passenger seat configuration, excluding any pilot seat, of 10 to 30 seats unless it is equipped with an approved traffic alert and collision avoidance system. If a TCAS II system is installed, it must be capable of coordinating with TCAS units that meet TSO C-119. (b) The airplane flight manual required by § 135.21 of this part shall contain the following information on the TCAS I system required by this section: (1) Appropriate procedures for— (i) The use of the equipment; and (ii) Proper flightcrew action with respect to the equipment operation. (2) An outline of all input sources that must be operating for the TCAS to function properly. [Docket 25355, 54 FR 951, Jan. 10, 1989, as amended by Amdt. 135-54, 59 FR 67587, Dec. 29, 1994] § 135.181 Performance requirements: Aircraft operated over-the-top or in IFR conditions. (a) Except as provided in paragraphs (b) and (c) of this section, no person may— (1) Operate a single-engine aircraft carrying passengers over-the-top; or (2) Operate a multiengine aircraft carrying passengers over-the-top or in IFR conditions at a weight that will not allow it to climb, with the critical engine inoperative, at least 50 feet a minute when operating at the MEAs of the route to be flown or 5,000 feet MSL, whichever is higher. (b) Notwithstanding the restrictions in paragraph (a)(2) of this section, multiengine helicopters carrying passengers offshore may conduct such operations in over-the-top or in IFR conditions at a weight that will allow the helicopter to climb at least 50 feet per minute with the critical engine inoperative when operating at the MEA of the route to be flown or 1,500 feet MSL, whichever is higher. (c) Without regard to paragraph (a) of this section, if the latest weather reports or forecasts, or any combination of them, indicate that the weather along the planned route (including takeoff and landing) allows flight under VFR under the ceiling (if a ceiling exists) and that the weather is forecast to remain so until at least 1 hour after the estimated time of arrival at the destination, a person may operate an aircraft over-the-top.

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(d) Without regard to paragraph (a) of this section, a person may operate an aircraft over-the-top under conditions allowing— (1) For multiengine aircraft, descent or continuance of the flight under VFR if its critical engine fails; or (2) For single-engine aircraft, descent under VFR if its engine fails. [Docket 16097, 43 FR 46783, Oct. 10, 1978, as amended by Amdt. 135-20, 51 FR 40710, Nov. 7, 1986; Amdt. 135-70, 62 FR 42374, Aug. 6, 1997] § 135.183 Performance requirements: Land aircraft operated over water. No person may operate a land aircraft carrying passengers over water unless— (a) It is operated at an altitude that allows it to reach land in the case of engine failure; (b) It is necessary for takeoff or landing; (c) It is a multiengine aircraft operated at a weight that will allow it to climb, with the critical engine inoperative, at least 50 feet a minute, at an altitude of 1,000 feet above the surface; or (d) It is a helicopter equipped with helicopter flotation devices. § 135.185 Empty weight and center of gravity: Currency requirement. (a) No person may operate a multiengine aircraft unless the current empty weight and center of gravity are calculated from values established by actual weighing of the aircraft within the preceding 36 calendar months. (b) Paragraph (a) of this section does not apply to— (1) Aircraft issued an original airworthiness certificate within the preceding 36 calendar months; and (2) Aircraft operated under a weight and balance system approved in the operations specifications of the certificate holder. Subpart D—VFR/IFR Operating Limitations and Weather Requirements § 135.201 Applicability. This subpart prescribes the operating limitations for VFR/IFR flight operations and associated weather requirements for operations under this part. § 135.203 VFR: Minimum altitudes. Except when necessary for takeoff and landing, no person may operate under VFR— (a) An airplane— (1) During the day, below 500 feet above the surface or less than 500 feet horizontally from any obstacle; or (2) At night, at an altitude less than 1,000 feet above the highest obstacle within a horizontal distance of 5 miles from the course intended to be flown or, in designated mountainous terrain, less than 2,000 feet above the highest obstacle within a horizontal distance of 5 miles from the course intended to be flown; or (b) A helicopter over a congested area at an altitude less than 300 feet above the surface. § 135.205 VFR: Visibility requirements. (a) No person may operate an airplane under VFR in uncontrolled airspace when the ceiling is less than 1,000 feet unless flight visibility is at least 2 miles. (b) No person may operate a helicopter under VFR in Class G airspace at an altitude of 1,200 feet or less above the surface or within the lateral boundaries of the surface areas of Class B, Class C, Class D, or Class E airspace designated for an airport unless the visibility is at least— (1) During the day— 1/2 mile; or (2) At night—1 mile. [Docket 16097, 43 FR 46783, Oct. 10, 1978, as amended by Amdt. 135-41, 56 FR 65663, Dec. 17, 1991] § 135.207 VFR: Helicopter surface reference requirements. No person may operate a helicopter under VFR unless that person has visual surface reference or, at night, visual surface light reference, sufficient to safely control the helicopter. § 135.209 VFR: Fuel supply. (a) No person may begin a flight operation in an airplane under VFR unless, considering wind and forecast weather conditions, it has enough fuel to fly to the first point of intended landing and, assuming normal cruising fuel consumption—

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(1) During the day, to fly after that for at least 30 minutes; or (2) At night, to fly after that for at least 45 minutes. (b) No person may begin a flight operation in a helicopter under VFR unless, considering wind and forecast weather conditions, it has enough fuel to fly to the first point of intended landing and, assuming normal cruising fuel consumption, to fly after that for at least 20 minutes. § 135.211 VFR: Over-the-top carrying passengers: Operating limitations. Subject to any additional limitations in § 135.181, no person may operate an aircraft under VFR over-the-top carrying passengers, unless— (a) Weather reports or forecasts, or any combination of them, indicate that the weather at the intended point of termination of over-the-top flight— (1) Allows descent to beneath the ceiling under VFR and is forecast to remain so until at least 1 hour after the estimated time of arrival at that point; or (2) Allows an IFR approach and landing with flight clear of the clouds until reaching the prescribed initial approach altitude over the final approach facility, unless the approach is made with the use of radar under § 91.175(i) of this chapter; or (b) It is operated under conditions allowing— (1) For multiengine aircraft, descent or continuation of the flight under VFR if its critical engine fails; or (2) For single-engine aircraft, descent under VFR if its engine fails. [Docket 16097, 43 FR 46783, Oct. 10, 1978, as amended by Amdt. 135-32, 54 FR 34332, Aug. 18, 1989; 73 FR 20164, Apr. 15, 2008] § 135.213 Weather reports and forecasts. (a) Whenever a person operating an aircraft under this part is required to use a weather report or forecast, that person shall use that of the U.S. National Weather Service, a source approved by the U.S. National Weather Service, or a source approved by the Administrator. However, for operations under VFR, the pilot in command may, if such a report is not available, use weather information based on that pilot's own observations or on those of other persons competent to supply appropriate observations. (b) For the purposes of paragraph (a) of this section, weather observations made and furnished to pilots to conduct IFR operations at an airport must be taken at the airport where those IFR operations are conducted, unless the Administrator issues operations specifications allowing the use of weather observations taken at a location not at the airport where the IFR operations are conducted. The Administrator issues such operations specifications when, after investigation by the U.S. National Weather Service and the responsible Flight Standards office, it is found that the standards of safety for that operation would allow the deviation from this paragraph for a particular operation for which an air carrier operating certificate or operating certificate has been issued. [Docket 16097, 43 FR 46783, Oct. 10, 1978, as amended by Amdt. 135-60, 61 FR 2616, Jan. 26, 1996; Docket FAA-2018-0119, Amdt. 135-139, 83 FR 9175, Mar. 5, 2018] § 135.215 IFR: Operating limitations. (a) Except as provided in paragraphs (b), (c) and (d) of this section, no person may operate an aircraft under IFR outside of controlled airspace or at any airport that does not have an approved standard instrument approach procedure. (b) The Administrator may issue operations specifications to the certificate holder to allow it to operate under IFR over routes outside controlled airspace if— (1) The certificate holder shows the Administrator that the flight crew is able to navigate, without visual reference to the ground, over an intended track without deviating more than 5 degrees or 5 miles, whichever is less, from that track; and (2) The Administrator determines that the proposed operations can be conducted safely. (c) A person may operate an aircraft under IFR outside of controlled airspace if the certificate holder has been approved for the operations and that operation is necessary to—

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(1) Conduct an instrument approach to an airport for which there is in use a current approved standard or special instrument approach procedure; or (2) Climb into controlled airspace during an approved missed approach procedure; or (3) Make an IFR departure from an airport having an approved instrument approach procedure. (d) The Administrator may issue operations specifications to the certificate holder to allow it to depart at an airport that does not have an approved standard instrument approach procedure when the Administrator determines that it is necessary to make an IFR departure from that airport and that the proposed operations can be conducted safely. The approval to operate at that airport does not include an approval to make an IFR approach to that airport. § 135.217 IFR: Takeoff limitations. No person may takeoff an aircraft under IFR from an airport where weather conditions are at or above takeoff minimums but are below authorized IFR landing minimums unless there is an alternate airport within 1 hour's flying time (at normal cruising speed, in still air) of the airport of departure. § 135.219 IFR: Destination airport weather minimums. No person may take off an aircraft under IFR or begin an IFR or over-the-top operation unless the latest weather reports or forecasts, or any combination of them, indicate that weather conditions at the estimated time of arrival at the next airport of intended landing will be at or above authorized IFR landing minimums. § 135.221 IFR: Alternate airport weather minimums. (a) Aircraft other than rotorcraft. No person may designate an alternate airport unless the weather reports or forecasts, or any combination of them, indicate that the weather conditions will be at or above authorized alternate airport landing minimums for that airport at the estimated time of arrival. (b) Rotorcraft. Unless otherwise authorized by the Administrator, no person may include an alternate airport in an IFR flight plan unless appropriate weather reports or weather forecasts, or a combination of them, indicate that, at the estimated time of arrival at the alternate airport, the ceiling and visibility at that airport will be at or above the following weather minimums— (1) If, for the alternate airport, an instrument approach procedure has been published in part 97 of this chapter or a special instrument approach procedure has been issued by the FAA to the certificate holder, the ceiling is 200 feet above the minimum for the approach to be flown, and visibility is at least 1 statute mile but never less than the minimum visibility for the approach to be flown. (2) If, for the alternate airport, no instrument approach procedure has been published in part 97 of this chapter and no special instrument approach procedure has been issued by the FAA to the certificate holder, the ceiling and visibility minimums are those allowing descent from the minimum enroute altitude (MEA), approach, and landing under basic VFR. [Docket FAA-2010-0982, 79 FR 9974, Feb. 21, 2014] § 135.223 IFR: Alternate airport requirements. (a) Except as provided in paragraph (b) of this section, no person may operate an aircraft in IFR conditions unless it carries enough fuel (considering weather reports or forecasts or any combination of them) to— (1) Complete the flight to the first airport of intended landing; (2) Fly from that airport to the alternate airport; and (3) Fly after that for 45 minutes at normal cruising speed or, for helicopters, fly after that for 30 minutes at normal cruising speed. (b) Paragraph (a)(2) of this section does not apply if part 97 of this chapter prescribes a standard instrument approach procedure for the first airport of intended landing and, for at least one hour before and after the estimated time of arrival, the appropriate weather reports or forecasts, or any combination of them, indicate that—

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(1) The ceiling will be at least 1,500 feet above the lowest circling approach MDA; or (2) If a circling instrument approach is not authorized for the airport, the ceiling will be at least 1,500 feet above the lowest published minimum or 2,000 feet above the airport elevation, whichever is higher; and (3) Visibility for that airport is forecast to be at least three miles, or two miles more than the lowest applicable visibility minimums, whichever is the greater, for the instrument approach procedure to be used at the destination airport. [Docket 16097, 43 FR 46783, Oct. 10, 1978, as amended by Amdt. 135-20, 51 FR 40710, Nov. 7, 1986] § 135.225 IFR: Takeoff, approach and landing minimums. (a) Except to the extent permitted by paragraphs (b) and (j) of this section, no pilot may begin an instrument approach procedure to an airport unless— (1) That airport has a weather reporting facility operated by the U.S. National Weather Service, a source approved by U.S. National Weather Service, or a source approved by the Administrator; and (2) The latest weather report issued by that weather reporting facility indicates that weather conditions are at or above the authorized IFR landing minimums for that airport. (b) A pilot conducting an eligible on-demand operation may begin and conduct an instrument approach procedure to an airport that does not have a weather reporting facility operated by the U.S. National Weather Service, a source approved by the U.S. National Weather Service, or a source approved by the Administrator if— (1) The alternate airport has a weather reporting facility operated by the U.S. National Weather Service, a source approved by the U.S. National Weather Service, or a source approved by the Administrator; and (2) The latest weather report issued by the weather reporting facility includes a current local altimeter setting for the destination airport. If no local altimeter setting for the destination airport is available, the pilot may use the current altimeter setting provided by the facility designated on the approach chart for the destination airport. (c) Except as provided in paragraph (j) of this section, no pilot may begin the final approach segment of an instrument approach procedure to an airport unless the latest weather reported by the facility described in paragraph (a)(1) of this section indicates that weather conditions are at or above the authorized IFR landing minimums for that procedure. (d) Except as provided in paragraph (j) of this section, a pilot who has begun the final approach segment of an instrument approach to an airport under paragraph (c) of this section, and receives a later weather report indicating that conditions have worsened to below the minimum requirements, may continue the approach only if the following conditions are met— (1) The later weather report is received when the aircraft is in one of the following approach phases: (i) The aircraft is on an ILS final approach and has passed the final approach fix; (ii) The aircraft is on an ASR or PAR final approach and has been turned over to the final approach controller; or (iii) The aircraft is on a non-precision final approach and the aircraft— (A) Has passed the appropriate facility or final approach fix; or (B) Where a final approach fix is not specified, has completed the procedure turn and is established inbound toward the airport on the final approach course within the distance prescribed in the procedure; and (2) The pilot in command finds, on reaching the authorized MDA or DA/DH, that the actual weather conditions are at or above the minimums prescribed for the procedure being used. (e) The MDA or DA/DH and visibility landing minimums prescribed in part 97 of this chapter or in the operator's operations specifications are increased by 100 feet and 1/2 mile respectively, but not to exceed the ceiling and visibility minimums for that airport when used as an alternate airport, for each pilot in command of a turbine-powered airplane who has not served at least 100 hours as pilot in command in that type of airplane.

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(f) Each pilot making an IFR takeoff or approach and landing at a military or foreign airport shall comply with applicable instrument approach procedures and weather minimums prescribed by the authority having jurisdiction over that airport. In addition, unless authorized by the certificate holder's operations specifications, no pilot may, at that airport— (1) Take off under IFR when the visibility is less than 1 mile; or (2) Make an instrument approach when the visibility is less than 1/2 mile. (g) If takeoff minimums are specified in part 97 of this chapter for the take- off airport, no pilot may take off an aircraft under IFR when the weather conditions reported by the facility described in paragraph (a)(1) of this section are less than the takeoff minimums specified for the takeoff airport in part 97 or in the certificate holder's operations specifications. (h) Except as provided in paragraph (i) of this section, if takeoff minimums are not prescribed in part 97 of this chapter for the takeoff airport, no pilot may takeoff an aircraft under IFR when the weather conditions reported by the facility described in paragraph (a)(1) of this section are less than that prescribed in part 91 of this chapter or in the certificate holder's operations specifications. (i) At airports where straight-in instrument approach procedures are authorized, a pilot may takeoff an aircraft under IFR when the weather conditions reported by the facility described in paragraph (a)(1) of this section are equal to or better than the lowest straight-in landing minimums, unless otherwise restricted, if— (1) The wind direction and velocity at the time of takeoff are such that a straight-in instrument approach can be made to the runway served by the instrument approach; (2) The associated ground facilities upon which the landing minimums are predicated and the related airborne equipment are in normal operation; and (3) The certificate holder has been approved for such operations. (j) A pilot may begin an instrument approach procedure, or continue an approach, at an airport when the visibility is reported to be less than the visibility minimums prescribed for that procedure if the pilot uses an operable EFVS in accordance with § 91.176 of this chapter and the certificate holder's operations specifications for EFVS operations. [Docket 16097, 43 FR 46783, Oct. 10, 1978, as amended by Amdt. 135-91, 68 FR 54586, Sept. 17, 2003; Amdt. 135-93, 69 FR 1641, Jan. 9, 2004; Amdt. 135-110, 72 FR 31685, June 7, 2007; Amdt. 135-126, 77 FR 1632, Jan. 11, 2012; Docket FAA-2013-0485, Amdt. 135-135, 81 FR 90177, Dec. 13, 2016] § 135.227 Icing conditions: Operating limitations. (a) No pilot may take off an aircraft that has frost, ice, or snow adhering to any rotor blade, propeller, windshield, stabilizing or control surface; to a powerplant installation; or to an airspeed, altimeter, rate of climb, flight attitude instrument system, or wing, except that takeoffs may be made with frost under the wing in the area of the fuel tanks if authorized by the FAA. (b) No certificate holder may authorize an airplane to take off and no pilot may take off an airplane any time conditions are such that frost, ice, or snow may reasonably be expected to adhere to the airplane unless the pilot has completed all applicable training as required by § 135.341 and unless one of the following requirements is met: (1) A pretakeoff contamination check, that has been established by the certificate holder and approved by the Administrator for the specific airplane type, has been completed within 5 minutes prior to beginning takeoff. A pretakeoff contamination check is a check to make sure the wings and control surfaces are free of frost, ice, or snow. (2) The certificate holder has an approved alternative procedure and under that procedure the airplane is determined to be free of frost, ice, or snow. (3) The certificate holder has an approved deicing/anti-icing program that complies with § 121.629(c) of this chapter and the takeoff complies with that program. (c) No pilot may fly under IFR into known or forecast light or moderate icing conditions or under VFR into known light or moderate icing conditions, unless—

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(1) The aircraft has functioning deicing or anti-icing equipment protecting each rotor blade, propeller, windshield, wing, stabilizing or control surface, and each airspeed, altimeter, rate of climb, or flight attitude instrument system; (2) The airplane has ice protection provisions that meet section 34 of appendix A of this part; or (3) The airplane meets transport category airplane type certification provisions, including the requirements for certification for flight in icing conditions. (d) No pilot may fly a helicopter under IFR into known or forecast icing conditions or under VFR into known icing conditions unless it has been type certificated and appropriately equipped for operations in icing conditions. (e) Except for an airplane that has ice protection provisions that meet section 34 of appendix A, or those for transport category airplane type certification, no pilot may fly an aircraft into known or forecast severe icing conditions. (f) If current weather reports and briefing information relied upon by the pilot in command indicate that the forecast icing condition that would otherwise prohibit the flight will not be encountered during the flight because of changed weather conditions since the forecast, the restrictions in paragraphs (c), (d), and (e) of this section based on forecast conditions do not apply. [Docket 16097, 43 FR 46783, Oct. 10, 1978, as amended by Amdt. 133-20, 51 FR 40710, Nov. 7, 1986; Amdt. 135-46, 58 FR 69629, Dec. 30, 1993; Amdt. 135-60, 61 FR 2616, Jan. 26, 1996; Amdt. 135-119, 74 FR 62696, Dec. 1, 2009] § 135.229 Airport requirements. (a) No certificate holder may use any airport unless it is adequate for the proposed operation, considering such items as size, surface, obstructions, and lighting. (b) No pilot of an aircraft carrying passengers at night may takeoff from, or land on, an airport unless— (1) That pilot has determined the wind direction from an illuminated wind direction indicator or local ground communications or, in the case of takeoff, that pilot's personal observations; and (2) The limits of the area to be used for landing or takeoff are clearly shown— (i) For airplanes, by boundary or runway marker lights; (ii) For helicopters, by boundary or runway marker lights or reflective material. (c) For the purpose of paragraph (b) of this section, if the area to be used for takeoff or landing is marked by flare pots or lanterns, their use must be approved by the Administrator. Subpart E—Flight Crewmember Requirements § 135.241 Applicability. Except as provided in § 135.3, this subpart prescribes the flight crewmember requirements for operations under this part. [Docket 16097, 43 FR 46783, Oct. 10, 1978, as amended by Amdt. 121-250, 60 FR 65950, Dec. 20, 1995] § 135.243 Pilot in command qualifications. (a) No certificate holder may use a person, nor may any person serve, as pilot in command in passenger-carrying operations— (1) Of a turbojet airplane, of an airplane having a passenger-seat configuration, excluding each crewmember seat, of 10 seats or more, or of a multiengine airplane in a commuter operation as defined in part 119 of this chapter, unless that person holds an airline transport pilot certificate with appropriate category and class ratings and, if required, an appropriate type rating for that airplane. (2) Of a helicopter in a scheduled interstate air transportation operation by an air carrier within the 48 contiguous states unless that person holds an airline transport pilot certificate, appropriate type ratings, and an instrument rating. (b) Except as provided in paragraph (a) of this section, no certificate holder may use a person, nor may any person serve, as pilot in command of an aircraft under VFR unless that person—

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(1) Holds at least a commercial pilot certificate with appropriate category and class ratings and, if required, an appropriate type rating for that aircraft; and (2) Has had at least 500 hours time as a pilot, including at least 100 hours of cross-country flight time, at least 25 hours of which were at night; and (3) For an airplane, holds an instrument rating or an airline transport pilot certificate with an airplane category rating; or (4) For helicopter operations conducted VFR over-the-top, holds a helicopter instrument rating, or an airline transport pilot certificate with a category and class rating for that aircraft, not limited to VFR. (c) Except as provided in paragraph (a) of this section, no certificate holder may use a person, nor may any person serve, as pilot in command of an aircraft under IFR unless that person— (1) Holds at least a commercial pilot certificate with appropriate category and class ratings and, if required, an appropriate type rating for that aircraft; and (2) Has had at least 1,200 hours of flight time as a pilot, including 500 hours of cross country flight time, 100 hours of night flight time, and 75 hours of actual or simulated instrument time at least 50 hours of which were in actual flight; and (3) For an airplane, holds an instrument rating or an airline transport pilot certificate with an airplane category rating; or (4) For a helicopter, holds a helicopter instrument rating, or an airline transport pilot certificate with a category and class rating for that aircraft, not limited to VFR. (d) Paragraph (b)(3) of this section does not apply when— (1) The aircraft used is a single reciprocating-engine-powered airplane; (2) The certificate holder does not conduct any operation pursuant to a published flight schedule which specifies five or more round trips a week between two or more points and places between which the round trips are performed, and does not transport mail by air under a contract or contracts with the United States Postal Service having total amount estimated at the beginning of any semiannual reporting period (January 1-June 30; July 1-December 31) to be in excess of $20,000 over the 12 months commencing with the beginning of the reporting period; (3) The area, as specified in the certificate holder's operations specifications, is an isolated area, as determined by the Flight Standards office, if it is shown that— (i) The primary means of navigation in the area is by pilotage, since radio navigational aids are largely ineffective; and (ii) The primary means of transportation in the area is by air; (4) Each flight is conducted under day VFR with a ceiling of not less than 1,000 feet and visibility not less than 3 statute miles; (5) Weather reports or forecasts, or any combination of them, indicate that for the period commencing with the planned departure and ending 30 minutes after the planned arrival at the destination the flight may be conducted under VFR with a ceiling of not less than 1,000 feet and visibility of not less than 3 statute miles, except that if weather reports and forecasts are not available, the pilot in command may use that pilot's observations or those of other persons competent to supply weather observations if those observations indicate the flight may be conducted under VFR with the ceiling and visibility required in this paragraph; (6) The distance of each flight from the certificate holder's base of operation to destination does not exceed 250 nautical miles for a pilot who holds a commercial pilot certificate with an airplane rating without an instrument rating, provided the pilot's certificate does not contain any limitation to the contrary; and (7) The areas to be flown are approved by the responsible Flight Standards office and are listed in the certificate holder's operations specifications. [Docket 16097, 43 FR 46783, Oct. 10, 1978; Amdt. 135-1, 43 FR 49975, Oct. 26, 1978, as amended by Amdt. 135-15, 46 FR 30971, June 11, 1981; Amdt. 135-58, 60 FR 65939, Dec. 20, 1995; Docket FAA-2018-0119, Amdt. 135-139, 83 FR 9175, Mar. 5, 2018] § 135.243, Nt. Effective Date Note: By Docket FAA-2023-1275, Amdt. 135-147, 89 FR 92486, Nov. 21, 2024, § 135.243 was amended by revising and republishing paragraphs (a) through (c), effective Jan. 21, 2025. For the convenience of the user, the revised and republished text is set forth as follows:

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§ 135.243 Pilot in command qualifications. (a) No certificate holder may use a person, nor may any person serve, as pilot in command in passenger-carrying operations- (1) Of a turbojet airplane, of an airplane having a passenger-seat configuration, excluding each crewmember seat, of 10 seats or more, or of a multiengine airplane in a commuter operation as defined in part 110 of this chapter, unless that person holds an airline transport pilot certificate with appropriate category and class ratings and, if required, an appropriate type rating for that airplane. (2) Of a helicopter in a scheduled interstate air transportation operation by an air carrier within the 48 contiguous states unless that person holds an airline transport pilot certificate, appropriate type ratings, and an instrument rating. (3) Of a turbojet-powered powered-lift, of a powered-lift having a passenger-seat configuration, excluding each crewmember seat, of 10 seats or more, or of a powered-lift in a commuter operation as defined in part 110 of this chapter, unless that person holds an airline transport pilot certificate with appropriate category rating, and appropriate type rating not limited to VFR for that powered-lift. (b) Except as provided in paragraph (a) of this section, no certificate holder may use a person, nor may any person serve, as pilot in command of an aircraft under VFR unless that person- (1) Holds at least a commercial pilot certificate with appropriate category and class ratings; an appropriate type rating for that aircraft, if required; and for a powered-lift, a type rating for that aircraft not limited to VFR; and (2) Has had at least 500 hours' time as a pilot, including at least 100 hours of cross-country flight time, at least 25 hours of which were at night; and (3) For an airplane, holds an instrument rating or an airline transport pilot certificate with an airplane category rating; or (4) For helicopter operations conducted VFR over-the-top, holds a helicopter instrument rating, or an airline transport pilot certificate with a category and class rating for that aircraft, not limited to VFR; or (5) For a powered-lift, holds an instrument-powered-lift rating or an airline transport pilot certificate with a powered-lift category rating. (c) Except as provided in paragraph (a) of this section, no certificate holder may use a person, nor may any person serve, as pilot in command of an aircraft under IFR unless that person- (1) Holds at least a commercial pilot certificate with appropriate category and class ratings, and if required, an appropriate type rating for that aircraft (the type rating for powered-lift may not be limited to VFR); and (2) Has had at least 1,200 hours of flight time as a pilot, including 500 hours of cross country flight time, 100 hours of night flight time, and 75 hours of actual or simulated instrument time at least 50 hours of which were in actual flight; and (3) For an airplane, holds an instrument rating or an airline transport pilot certificate with an airplane category rating; or (4) For a helicopter, holds a helicopter instrument rating, or an airline transport pilot certificate with a category and class rating for that aircraft, not limited to VFR; or (5) For a powered-lift, holds an instrument-powered-lift rating or an airline transport pilot certificate with a powered-lift category rating. § 135.244 Operating experience. (a) No certificate holder may use any person, nor may any person serve, as a pilot in command of an aircraft operated in a commuter operation, as defined in part 119 of this chapter unless that person has completed, prior to designation as pilot in command, on that make and basic model aircraft and in that crewmember position, the following operating experience in each make and basic model of aircraft to be flown: (1) Aircraft, single engine—10 hours. (2) Aircraft multiengine, reciprocating engine-powered—15 hours. (3) Aircraft multiengine, turbine engine-powered—20 hours. (4) Airplane, turbojet-powered—25 hours. (b) In acquiring the operating experience, each person must comply with the following: (1) The operating experience must be acquired after satisfactory completion of the appropriate ground and flight training for the aircraft and crewmember position. Approved provisions for the operating experience must be included in the certificate holder's training program. (2) The experience must be acquired in flight during commuter passenger-carrying operations under this part. However, in the case of an aircraft not previously used by the certificate holder in operations under this part, operating experience acquired in the aircraft during proving flights or ferry flights may be used to meet this requirement.

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(3) Each person must acquire the operating experience while performing the duties of a pilot in command under the supervision of a qualified check pilot. (4) The hours of operating experience may be reduced to not less than 50 percent of the hours required by this section by the substitution of one additional takeoff and landing for each hour of flight. [Docket 20011, 45 FR 7541, Feb. 4, 1980, as amended by Amdt. 135-9, 45 FR 80461, Dec. 14, 1980; Amdt. 135-58, 60 FR 65940, Dec. 20, 1995] § 135.244, Nt. Effective Date Note: By Docket FAA-2023-1275, Amdt. 135-147, 89 FR 92487, Nov. 21, 2024, § 135.244 was amended by removing the reference “part 119” in the introductory text of paragraph (a) and adding in its place the reference “part 110”, effective Jan. 21, 2025. § 135.245 Second in command qualifications. (a) Except as provided in paragraph (b) of this section, no certificate holder may use any person, nor may any person serve, as second in command of an aircraft unless that person holds at least a commercial pilot certificate with appropriate category and class ratings and an instrument rating. (b) A second in command of a helicopter operated under VFR, other than over-the-top, must have at least a commercial pilot certificate with an appropriate aircraft category and class rating. (c) No certificate holder may use any person, nor may any person serve, as second in command under IFR unless that person meets the following instrument experience requirements: (1) Use of an airplane or helicopter for maintaining instrument experience. Within the 6 calendar months preceding the month of the flight, that person performed and logged at least the following tasks and iterations in-flight in an airplane or helicopter, as appropriate, in actual weather conditions, or under simulated instrument conditions using a view-limiting device: (i) Six instrument approaches; (ii) Holding procedures and tasks; and (iii) Intercepting and tracking courses through the use of navigational electronic systems. (2) Use of an FSTD for maintaining instrument experience. A person may accomplish the requirements in paragraph (c)(1) of this section in an approved FSTD, or a combination of aircraft and FSTD, provided: (i) The FSTD represents the category of aircraft for the instrument rating privileges to be maintained; (ii) The person performs the tasks and iterations in simulated instrument conditions; and (iii) A flight instructor qualified under § 135.338 or a check pilot qualified under § 135.337 observes the tasks and iterations and signs the person's logbook or training record to verify the time and content of the session. (d) A second in command who has failed to meet the instrument experience requirements of paragraph (c) of this section for more than six calendar months must reestablish instrument recency under the supervision of a flight instructor qualified under § 135.338 or a check pilot qualified under § 135.337. To reestablish instrument recency, a second in command must complete at least the following areas of operation required for the instrument rating practical test in an aircraft or FSTD that represents the category of aircraft for the instrument experience requirements to be reestablished: (1) Air traffic control clearances and procedures; (2) Flight by reference to instruments; (3) Navigation systems; (4) Instrument approach procedures; (5) Emergency operations; and (6) Postflight procedures. [44 FR 26738, May 7, 1979, as amended by Docket FAA-2016-6142, 83 FR 30283, June 27, 2018] § 135.245, Nt. Effective Date Note: By Docket FAA-2023-1275, Amdt. 135-147, 89 FR 92487, Nov. 21, 2024, § 135.245 was amended by revising the introductory text of paragraph (c)(1), effective Jan. 21, 2025. For the convenience of the user, the revised text is set forth as follows: § 135.245 Second in command qualifications.

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(c) * * * (1) Use of an airplane, powered-lift, or helicopter for maintaining instrument experience. Within the 6 calendar months preceding the month of the flight, that person performed and logged at least the following tasks and iterations in-flight in an airplane, powered-lift, or helicopter, as appropriate, in actual weather conditions, or under simulated instrument conditions using a view-limiting device: § 135.247 Pilot qualifications: Recent experience. (a) No certificate holder may use any person, nor may any person serve, as pilot in command of an aircraft carrying passengers unless, within the preceding 90 days, that person has— (1) Made three takeoffs and three landings as the sole manipulator of the flight controls in an aircraft of the same category and class and, if a type rating is required, of the same type in which that person is to serve; or (2) For operation during the period beginning 1 hour after sunset and ending 1 hour before sunrise (as published in the Air Almanac), made three takeoffs and three landings during that period as the sole manipulator of the flight controls in an aircraft of the same category and class and, if a type rating is required, of the same type in which that person is to serve. A person who complies with paragraph (a)(2) of this section need not comply with paragraph (a)(1) of this section. (3) Paragraph (a)(2) of this section does not apply to a pilot in command of a turbine-powered airplane that is type certificated for more than one pilot crewmember, provided that pilot has complied with the requirements of paragraph (a)(3)(i) or (ii) of this section: (i) The pilot in command must hold at least a commercial pilot certificate with the appropriate category, class, and type rating for each airplane that is type certificated for more than one pilot crewmember that the pilot seeks to operate under this alternative, and: (A) That pilot must have logged at least 1,500 hours of aeronautical experience as a pilot; (B) In each airplane that is type certificated for more than one pilot crewmember that the pilot seeks to operate under this alternative, that pilot must have accomplished and logged the daytime takeoff and landing recent flight experience of paragraph (a) of this section, as the sole manipulator of the flight controls; (C) Within the preceding 90 days prior to the operation of that airplane that is type certificated for more than one pilot crewmember, the pilot must have accomplished and logged at least 15 hours of flight time in the type of airplane that the pilot seeks to operate under this alternative; and (D) That pilot has accomplished and logged at least 3 takeoffs and 3 landings to a full stop, as the sole manipulator of the flight controls, in a turbine-powered airplane that requires more than one pilot crewmember. The pilot must have performed the takeoffs and landings during the period beginning 1 hour after sunset and ending 1 hour before sunrise within the preceding 6 months prior to the month of the flight. (ii) The pilot in command must hold at least a commercial pilot certificate with the appropriate category, class, and type rating for each airplane that is type certificated for more than one pilot crewmember that the pilot seeks to operate under this alternative, and: (A) That pilot must have logged at least 1,500 hours of aeronautical experience as a pilot; (B) In each airplane that is type certificated for more than one pilot crewmember that the pilot seeks to operate under this alternative, that pilot must have accomplished and logged the daytime takeoff and landing recent flight experience of paragraph (a) of this section, as the sole manipulator of the flight controls; (C) Within the preceding 90 days prior to the operation of that airplane that is type certificated for more than one pilot crewmember, the pilot must have accomplished and logged at least 15 hours of flight time in the type of airplane that the pilot seeks to operate under this alternative; and (D) Within the preceding 12 months prior to the month of the flight, the pilot must have completed a training program that is approved under part 142 of this chapter. The approved training program must have required and the pilot must have performed, at least 6 takeoffs and 6 landings to a full stop as the sole manipulator of the controls in a flight simulator that is representative of a turbine-powered airplane that requires more than one pilot crewmember. The flight simulator's visual system must have been adjusted to represent the period beginning 1 hour after sunset and ending 1 hour before sunrise.

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(b) For the purpose of paragraph (a) of this section, if the aircraft is a tailwheel airplane, each takeoff must be made in a tailwheel airplane and each landing must be made to a full stop in a tailwheel airplane. [Docket 16097, 43 FR 46783, Oct. 10, 1978, as amended by Amdt. 135-91, 68 FR 54587, Sept. 17, 2003] §§ 135.249-135.255 [Reserved]
Subpart F—Crewmember Flight Time and Duty Period Limitations and Rest Requirements Source: Docket 23634, 50 FR 29320, July 18, 1985, unless otherwise noted. § 135.261 Applicability. Sections 135.263 through 135.273 of this part prescribe flight time limitations, duty period limitations, and rest requirements for operations conducted under this part as follows: (a) Section 135.263 applies to all operations under this subpart. (b) Section 135.265 applies to: (1) Scheduled passenger-carrying operations except those conducted solely within the state of Alaska. “Scheduled passenger-carrying operations” means passenger-carrying operations that are conducted in accordance with a published schedule which covers at least five round trips per week on at least one route between two or more points, includes dates or times (or both), and is openly advertised or otherwise made readily available to the general public, and (2) Any other operation under this part, if the operator elects to comply with § 135.265 and obtains an appropriate operations specification amendment. (c) Sections 135.267 and 135.269 apply to any operation that is not a scheduled passenger-carrying operation and to any operation conducted solely within the State of Alaska, unless the operator elects to comply with § 135.265 as authorized under paragraph (b)(2) of this section. (d) Section 135.271 contains special daily flight time limits for operations conducted under the helicopter emergency medical evacuation service (HEMES). (e) Section 135.273 prescribes duty period limitations and rest requirements for flight attendants in all operations conducted under this part. [Docket 23634, 50 FR 29320, July 18, 1985, as amended by Amdt. 135-52, 59 FR 42993, Aug. 19, 1994] § 135.263 Flight time limitations and rest requirements: All certificate holders. (a) A certificate holder may assign a flight crewmember and a flight crewmember may accept an assignment for flight time only when the applicable requirements of §§ 135.263 through 135.271 are met. (b) No certificate holder may assign any flight crewmember to any duty with the certificate holder during any required rest period. (c) Time spent in transportation, not local in character, that a certificate holder requires of a flight crewmember and provides to transport the crewmember to an airport at which he is to serve on a flight as a crewmember, or from an airport at which he was relieved from duty to return to his home station, is not considered part of a rest period. (d) A flight crewmember is not considered to be assigned flight time in excess of flight time limitations if the flights to which he is assigned normally terminate within the limitations, but due to circumstances beyond the control of the certificate holder or flight crewmember (such as adverse weather conditions), are not at the time of departure expected to reach their destination within the planned flight time.

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§ 135.265 Flight time limitations and rest requirements: Scheduled operations. (a) No certificate holder may schedule any flight crewmember, and no flight crewmember may accept an assignment, for flight time in scheduled operations or in other commercial flying if that crewmember's total flight time in all commercial flying will exceed— (1) 1,200 hours in any calendar year. (2) 120 hours in any calendar month. (3) 34 hours in any 7 consecutive days. (4) 8 hours during any 24 consecutive hours for a flight crew consisting of one pilot. (5) 8 hours between required rest periods for a flight crew consisting of two pilots qualified under this part for the operation being conducted. (b) Except as provided in paragraph (c) of this section, no certificate holder may schedule a flight crewmember, and no flight crewmember may accept an assignment, for flight time during the 24 consecutive hours preceding the scheduled completion of any flight segment without a scheduled rest period during that 24 hours of at least the following: (1) 9 consecutive hours of rest for less than 8 hours of scheduled flight time. (2) 10 consecutive hours of rest for 8 or more but less than 9 hours of scheduled flight time. (3) 11 consecutive hours of rest for 9 or more hours of scheduled flight time. (c) A certificate holder may schedule a flight crewmember for less than the rest required in paragraph (b) of this section or may reduce a scheduled rest under the following conditions: (1) A rest required under paragraph (b)(1) of this section may be scheduled for or reduced to a minimum of 8 hours if the flight crewmember is given a rest period of at least 10 hours that must begin no later than 24 hours after the commencement of the reduced rest period. (2) A rest required under paragraph (b)(2) of this section may be scheduled for or reduced to a minimum of 8 hours if the flight crewmember is given a rest period of at least 11 hours that must begin no later than 24 hours after the commencement of the reduced rest period. (3) A rest required under paragraph (b)(3) of this section may be scheduled for or reduced to a minimum of 9 hours if the flight crewmember is given a rest period of at least 12 hours that must begin no later than 24 hours after the commencement of the reduced rest period. (d) Each certificate holder shall relieve each flight crewmember engaged in scheduled air transportation from all further duty for at least 24 consecutive hours during any 7 consecutive days. § 135.267 Flight time limitations and rest requirements: Unscheduled one- and two-pilot crews. (a) No certificate holder may assign any flight crewmember, and no flight crewmember may accept an assignment, for flight time as a member of a one- or two-pilot crew if that crewmember's total flight time in all commercial flying will exceed— (1) 500 hours in any calendar quarter. (2) 800 hours in any two consecutive calendar quarters. (3) 1,400 hours in any calendar year. (b) Except as provided in paragraph (c) of this section, during any 24 consecutive hours the total flight time of the assigned flight when added to any other commercial flying by that flight crewmember may not exceed— (1) 8 hours for a flight crew consisting of one pilot; or (2) 10 hours for a flight crew consisting of two pilots qualified under this part for the operation being conducted. (c) A flight crewmember's flight time may exceed the flight time limits of paragraph (b) of this section if the assigned flight time occurs during a regularly assigned duty period of no more than 14 hours and— (1) If this duty period is immediately preceded by and followed by a required rest period of at least 10 consecutive hours of rest; (2) If flight time is assigned during this period, that total flight time when added to any other commercial flying by the flight crewmember may not exceed— (i) 8 hours for a flight crew consisting of one pilot; or

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(ii) 10 hours for a flight crew consisting of two pilots; and (3) If the combined duty and rest periods equal 24 hours. (d) Each assignment under paragraph (b) of this section must provide for at least 10 consecutive hours of rest during the 24-hour period that precedes the planned completion time of the assignment. (e) When a flight crewmember has exceeded the daily flight time limitations in this section, because of circumstances beyond the control of the certificate holder or flight crewmember (such as adverse weather conditions), that flight crewmember must have a rest period before being assigned or accepting an assignment for flight time of at least— (1) 11 consecutive hours of rest if the flight time limitation is exceeded by not more than 30 minutes; (2) 12 consecutive hours of rest if the flight time limitation is exceeded by more than 30 minutes, but not more than 60 minutes; and (3) 16 consecutive hours of rest if the flight time limitation is exceeded by more than 60 minutes. (f) The certificate holder must provide each flight crewmember at least 13 rest periods of at least 24 consecutive hours each in each calendar quarter. [Docket 23634, 50 FR 29320, July 18, 1985, as amended by Amdt. 135-33, 54 FR 39294, Sept. 25, 1989; Amdt. 135-60, 61 FR 2616, Jan. 26, 1996] § 135.269 Flight time limitations and rest requirements: Unscheduled three- and four-pilot crews. (a) No certificate holder may assign any flight crewmember, and no flight crewmember may accept an assignment, for flight time as a member of a three- or four-pilot crew if that crewmember's total flight time in all commercial flying will exceed— (1) 500 hours in any calendar quarter. (2) 800 hours in any two consecutive calendar quarters. (3) 1,400 hours in any calendar year. (b) No certificate holder may assign any pilot to a crew of three or four pilots, unless that assignment provides— (1) At least 10 consecutive hours of rest immediately preceding the assignment; (2) No more than 8 hours of flight deck duty in any 24 consecutive hours; (3) No more than 18 duty hours for a three-pilot crew or 20 duty hours for a four-pilot crew in any 24 consecutive hours; (4) No more than 12 hours aloft for a three-pilot crew or 16 hours aloft for a four-pilot crew during the maximum duty hours specified in paragraph (b)(3) of this section; (5) Adequate sleeping facilities on the aircraft for the relief pilot; (6) Upon completion of the assignment, a rest period of at least 12 hours; (7) For a three-pilot crew, a crew which consists of at least the following: (i) A pilot in command (PIC) who meets the applicable flight crewmember requirements of subpart E of part 135; (ii) A PIC who meets the applicable flight crewmember requirements of subpart E of part 135, except those prescribed in §§ 135.244 and 135.247; and (iii) A second in command (SIC) who meets the SIC qualifications of § 135.245. (8) For a four-pilot crew, at least three pilots who meet the conditions of paragraph (b)(7) of this section, plus a fourth pilot who meets the SIC qualifications of § 135.245. (c) When a flight crewmember has exceeded the daily flight deck duty limitation in this section by more than 60 minutes, because of circumstances beyond the control of the certificate holder or flight crewmember, that flight crewmember must have a rest period before the next duty period of at least 16 consecutive hours. (d) A certificate holder must provide each flight crewmember at least 13 rest periods of at least 24 consecutive hours each in each calendar quarter. § 135.271 Helicopter hospital emergency medical evacuation service (HEMES). (a) No certificate holder may assign any flight crewmember, and no flight crewmember may accept an assignment for flight time if that crewmember's total flight time in all commercial flight will exceed— (1) 500 hours in any calendar quarter.

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(2) 800 hours in any two consecutive calendar quarters. (3) 1,400 hours in any calendar year. (b) No certificate holder may assign a helicopter flight crewmember, and no flight crewmember may accept an assignment, for hospital emergency medical evacuation service helicopter operations unless that assignment provides for at least 10 consecutive hours of rest immediately preceding reporting to the hospital for availability for flight time. (c) No flight crewmember may accrue more than 8 hours of flight time during any 24-consecutive hour period of a HEMES assignment, unless an emergency medical evacuation operation is prolonged. Each flight crewmember who exceeds the daily 8 hour flight time limitation in this paragraph must be relieved of the HEMES assignment immediately upon the completion of that emergency medical evacuation operation and must be given a rest period in compliance with paragraph (h) of this section. (d) Each flight crewmember must receive at least 8 consecutive hours of rest during any 24 consecutive hour period of a HEMES assignment. A flight crewmember must be relieved of the HEMES assignment if he or she has not or cannot receive at least 8 consecutive hours of rest during any 24 consecutive hour period of a HEMES assignment. (e) A HEMES assignment may not exceed 72 consecutive hours at the hospital. (f) An adequate place of rest must be provided at, or in close proximity to, the hospital at which the HEMES assignment is being performed. (g) No certificate holder may assign any other duties to a flight crewmember during a HEMES assignment. (h) Each pilot must be given a rest period upon completion of the HEMES assignment and prior to being assigned any further duty with the certificate holder of— (1) At least 12 consecutive hours for an assignment of less than 48 hours. (2) At least 16 consecutive hours for an assignment of more than 48 hours. (i) The certificate holder must provide each flight crewmember at least 13 rest periods of at least 24 consecutive hours each in each calendar quarter. § 135.273 Duty period limitations and rest time requirements. (a) For purposes of this section— Calendar day means the period of elapsed time, using Coordinated Universal Time or local time, that begins at midnight and ends 24 hours later at the next midnight. Duty period means the period of elapsed time between reporting for an assignment involving flight time and release from that assignment by the certificate holder. The time is calculated using either Coordinated Universal Time or local time to reflect the total elapsed time. Flight attendant means an individual, other than a flight crewmember, who is assigned by the certificate holder, in accordance with the required minimum crew complement under the certificate holder's operations specifications or in addition to that minimum complement, to duty in an aircraft during flight time and whose duties include but are not necessarily limited to cabin-safety-related responsibilities. Rest period means the period free of all responsibility for work or duty should the occasion arise. (b) Except as provided in paragraph (c) of this section, a certificate holder may assign a duty period to a flight attendant only when the applicable duty period limitations and rest requirements of this paragraph are met. (1) Except as provided in paragraphs (b)(4), (b)(5), and (b)(6) of this section, no certificate holder may assign a flight attendant to a scheduled duty period of more than 14 hours. (2) Except as provided in paragraph (b)(3) of this section, a flight attendant scheduled to a duty period of 14 hours or less as provided under paragraph (b)(1) of this section must be given a scheduled rest period of at least 9 consecutive hours. This rest period must occur between the completion of the scheduled duty period and the commencement of the subsequent duty period. (3) The rest period required under paragraph (b)(2) of this section may be scheduled or reduced to 8 consecutive hours if the flight attendant is provided a subsequent rest period of at least 10 consecutive hours; this subsequent rest period must be scheduled to begin no later than 24 hours after the beginning of the reduced rest period and must occur between the completion of the scheduled duty period and the commencement of the subsequent duty period.

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(4) A certificate holder may assign a flight attendant to a scheduled duty period of more than 14 hours, but no more than 16 hours, if the certificate holder has assigned to the flight or flights in that duty period at least one flight attendant in addition to the minimum flight attendant complement required for the flight or flights in that duty period under the certificate holder's operations specifications. (5) A certificate holder may assign a flight attendant to a scheduled duty period of more than 16 hours, but no more than 18 hours, if the certificate holder has assigned to the flight or flights in that duty period at least two flight attendants in addition to the minimum flight attendant complement required for the flight or flights in that duty period under the certificate holder's operations specifications. (6) A certificate holder may assign a flight attendant to a scheduled duty period of more than 18 hours, but no more than 20 hours, if the scheduled duty period includes one or more flights that land or take off outside the 48 contiguous states and the District of Columbia, and if the certificate holder has assigned to the flight or flights in that duty period at least three flight attendants in addition to the minimum flight attendant complement required for the flight or flights in that duty period under the certificate holder's operations specifications. (7) Except as provided in paragraph (b)(8) of this section, a flight attendant scheduled to a duty period of more than 14 hours but no more than 20 hours, as provided in paragraphs (b)(4), (b)(5), and (b)(6) of this section, must be given a scheduled rest period of at least 12 consecutive hours. This rest period must occur between the completion of the scheduled duty period and the commencement of the subsequent duty period. (8) The rest period required under paragraph (b)(7) of this section may be scheduled or reduced to 10 consecutive hours if the flight attendant is provided a subsequent rest period of at least 14 consecutive hours; this subsequent rest period must be scheduled to begin no later than 24 hours after the beginning of the reduced rest period and must occur between the completion of the scheduled duty period and the commencement of the subsequent duty period. (9) Notwithstanding paragraphs (b)(4), (b)(5), and (b)(6) of this section, if a certificate holder elects to reduce the rest period to 10 hours as authorized by paragraph (b)(8) of this section, the certificate holder may not schedule a flight attendant for a duty period of more than 14 hours during the 24-hour period commencing after the beginning of the reduced rest period. (10) No certificate holder may assign a flight attendant any duty period with the certificate holder unless the flight attendant has had at least the minimum rest required under this section. (11) No certificate holder may assign a flight attendant to perform any duty with the certificate holder during any required rest period. (12) Time spent in transportation, not local in character, that a certificate holder requires of a flight attendant and provides to transport the flight attendant to an airport at which that flight attendant is to serve on a flight as a crewmember, or from an airport at which the flight attendant was relieved from duty to return to the flight attendant's home station, is not considered part of a rest period. (13) Each certificate holder must relieve each flight attendant engaged in air transportation from all further duty for at least 24 consecutive hours during any 7 consecutive calendar days. (14) A flight attendant is not considered to be scheduled for duty in excess of duty period limitations if the flights to which the flight attendant is assigned are scheduled and normally terminate within the limitations but due to circumstances beyond the control of the certificate holder (such as adverse weather conditions) are not at the time of departure expected to reach their destination within the scheduled time. (c) Notwithstanding paragraph (b) of this section, a certificate holder may apply the flight crewmember flight time and duty limitations and rest requirements of this part to flight attendants for all operations conducted under this part provided that—

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(1) The certificate holder establishes written procedures that— (i) Apply to all flight attendants used in the certificate holder's operation; (ii) Include the flight crewmember requirements contained in subpart F of this part, as appropriate to the operation being conducted, except that rest facilities on board the aircraft are not required; and (iii) Include provisions to add one flight attendant to the minimum flight attendant complement for each flight crewmember who is in excess of the minimum number required in the aircraft type certificate data sheet and who is assigned to the aircraft under the provisions of subpart F of this part, as applicable. (iv) Are approved by the Administrator and described or referenced in the certificate holder's operations specifications; and (2) Whenever the Administrator finds that revisions are necessary for the continued adequacy of duty period limitation and rest requirement procedures that are required by paragraph (c)(1) of this section and that had been granted final approval, the certificate holder must, after notification by the Administrator, make any changes in the procedures that are found necessary by the Administrator. Within 30 days after the certificate holder receives such notice, it may file a petition to reconsider the notice with the responsible Flight Standards office. The filing of a petition to reconsider stays the notice, pending decision by the Administrator. However, if the Administrator finds that there is an emergency that requires immediate action in the interest of safety, the Administrator may, upon a statement of the reasons, require a change effective without stay. [Amdt. 135-52, 59 FR 42993, Aug. 19, 1994, as amended by Amdt. 135-60, 61 FR 2616, Jan. 26, 1996; Docket FAA-2018-0119, Amdt. 135-139, 83 FR 9175, Mar. 5, 2018] Subpart G—Crewmember Testing Requirements § 135.291 Applicability. Except as provided in § 135.3, this subpart— (a) Prescribes the tests and checks required for pilot and flight attendant crewmembers and for the approval of check pilots in operations under this part; and (b) Permits training center personnel authorized under part 142 of this chapter who meet the requirements of §§ 135.337 and 135.339 to conduct training, testing, and checking under contract or other arrangement to those persons subject to the requirements of this subpart. [Docket 26933, 61 FR 34561, July 2, 1996, as amended by Amdt. 135-91, 68 FR 54587, Sept. 17, 2003] § 135.293 Initial and recurrent pilot testing requirements. (a) No certificate holder may use a pilot, nor may any person serve as a pilot, unless, since the beginning of the 12th calendar month before that service, that pilot has passed a written or oral test, given by the Administrator or an authorized check pilot, on that pilot's knowledge in the following areas— (1) The appropriate provisions of parts 61, 91, and 135 of this chapter and the operations specifications and the manual of the certificate holder; (2) For each type of aircraft to be flown by the pilot, the aircraft powerplant, major components and systems, major appliances, performance and operating limitations, standard and emergency operating procedures, and the contents of the approved Aircraft Flight Manual or equivalent, as applicable; (3) For each type of aircraft to be flown by the pilot, the method of determining compliance with weight and balance limitations for takeoff, landing and en route operations; (4) Navigation and use of air navigation aids appropriate to the operation or pilot authorization, including, when applicable, instrument approach facilities and procedures;

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(5) Air traffic control procedures, including IFR procedures when applicable; (6) Meteorology in general, including the principles of frontal systems, icing, fog, thunderstorms, and windshear, and, if appropriate for the operation of the certificate holder, high altitude weather; (7) Procedures for— (i) Recognizing and avoiding severe weather situations; (ii) Escaping from severe weather situations, in case of inadvertent encounters, including low-altitude windshear (except that rotorcraft pilots are not required to be tested on escaping from low-altitude windshear); (iii) Operating in or near thunderstorms (including best penetrating altitudes), turbulent air (including clear air turbulence), icing, hail, and other potentially hazardous meteorological conditions; and (8) New equipment, procedures, or techniques, as appropriate; and (9) For rotorcraft pilots, procedures for aircraft handling in flat-light, whiteout, and brownout conditions, including methods for recognizing and avoiding those conditions. (b) No certificate holder may use a pilot, nor may any person serve as a pilot, in any aircraft unless, since the beginning of the 12th calendar month before that service, that pilot has passed a competency check given by the Administrator or an authorized check pilot in that class of aircraft, if single-engine airplane other than turbojet, or that type of aircraft, if helicopter, multiengine airplane, or turbojet airplane, to determine the pilot's competence in practical skills and techniques in that aircraft or class of aircraft. The extent of the competency check shall be determined by the Administrator or authorized check pilot conducting the competency check. The competency check may include any of the maneuvers and procedures currently required for the original issuance of the particular pilot certificate required for the operations authorized and appropriate to the category, class and type of aircraft involved. For the purposes of this paragraph, type, as to an airplane, means any one of a group of airplanes determined by the Administrator to have a similar means of propulsion, the same manufacturer, and no significantly different handling or flight characteristics. For the purposes of this paragraph, type, as to a helicopter, means a basic make and model. (c) Each competency check given in a rotorcraft must include a demonstration of the pilot's ability to maneuver the rotorcraft solely by reference to instruments. The check must determine the pilot's ability to safely maneuver the rotorcraft into visual meteorological conditions following an inadvertent encounter with instrument meteorological conditions. For competency checks in non-IFR-certified rotorcraft, the pilot must perform such maneuvers as are appropriate to the rotorcraft's installed equipment, the certificate holder's operations specifications, and the operating environment. (d) The instrument proficiency check required by § 135.297 may be substituted for the competency check required by this section for the type of aircraft used in the check. (e) For the purpose of this part, competent performance of a procedure or maneuver by a person to be used as a pilot requires that the pilot be the obvious master of the aircraft, with the successful outcome of the maneuver never in doubt. (f) The Administrator or authorized check pilot certifies the competency of each pilot who passes the knowledge or flight check in the certificate holder's pilot records. (g) Portions of a required competency check may be given in an aircraft simulator or other appropriate training device, if approved by the Administrator. (h) Rotorcraft pilots must be tested on the subjects in paragraph (a)(9) of this section when taking a written or oral knowledge test after April 22, 2015. Rotorcraft pilots must be checked on the maneuvers and procedures in paragraph (c) of this section when taking a competency check after April 22, 2015. (i) If the certificate holder is authorized to conduct EFVS operations, the competency check in paragraph (b) of this section must include tasks appropriate to the EFVS operations the certificate holder is authorized to conduct.

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[Docket 16097, 43 FR 46783, Oct. 10, 1978, as amended by Amdt. 135-27, 53 FR 37697, Sept. 27, 1988; Amdt. 135-129, 79 FR 9974, Feb. 21, 2014; 79 FR 22012, Apr. 21, 2014; Docket FAA-2013-0485, Amdt. 135-135, 81 FR 90177, Dec. 13, 2016] § 135.293, Nt. Effective Date Note: By Docket FAA-2023-1275, Amdt. 135-147, 89 FR 92487, Nov. 21, 2024, § 135.293 was amended by: a. Revising paragraphs (a)(9), (b), and (c); and b. Removing and reserving paragraph (h). The amendments are effective Jan. 21, 2025. For the convenience of the user, the revised text is set forth as follows: § 135.293 Initial and recurrent pilot testing requirements. (a) * * * (9) For rotorcraft and powered-lift pilots, procedures for aircraft handling in flat-light, whiteout, and brownout conditions, including methods for recognizing and avoiding those conditions. (b) No certificate holder may use a pilot, nor may any person serve as a pilot, in any aircraft unless, since the beginning of the 12th calendar month before that service, that pilot has passed a competency check given by the Administrator or an authorized check pilot in that class of aircraft, if single-engine airplane other than turbojet, or that type of aircraft, if helicopter, multiengine airplane, turbojet airplane, or powered-lift to determine the pilot's competence in practical skills and techniques in that aircraft or class of aircraft. The extent of the competency check shall be determined by the Administrator or authorized check pilot conducting the competency check. The competency check may include any of the maneuvers and procedures currently required for the original issuance of the particular pilot certificate required for the operations authorized and appropriate to the category, class and type of aircraft involved. For the purposes of this paragraph (b), type, as to an airplane means any one of a group of airplanes determined by the Administrator to have a similar means of propulsion, the same manufacturer, and no significantly different handling or flight characteristics. For the purposes of this paragraph (b), type, as to a helicopter, means a basic make and model. (c) Each competency check given in a rotorcraft or powered-lift must include a demonstration of the pilot's ability to maneuver the rotorcraft or powered-lift solely by reference to instruments. The check must determine the pilot's ability to safely maneuver the rotorcraft or powered-lift into visual meteorological conditions following an inadvertent encounter with instrument meteorological conditions. For competency checks in non-IFR-certified rotorcraft or powered-lift, the pilot must perform such maneuvers as are appropriate to the rotorcraft's or powered-lift's installed equipment, the certificate holder's operations specifications, and the operating environment. § 135.295 Initial and recurrent flight attendant crewmember testing requirements. No certificate holder may use a flight attendant crewmember, nor may any person serve as a flight attendant crewmember unless, since the beginning of the 12th calendar month before that service, the certificate holder has determined by appropriate initial and recurrent testing that the person is knowledgeable and competent in the following areas as appropriate to assigned duties and responsibilities— (a) Authority of the pilot in command; (b) Passenger handling, including procedures to be followed in handling deranged persons or other persons whose conduct might jeopardize safety; (c) Crewmember assignments, functions, and responsibilities during ditching and evacuation of persons who may need the assistance of another person to move expeditiously to an exit in an emergency; (d) Briefing of passengers; (e) Location and operation of portable fire extinguishers and other items of emergency equipment; (f) Proper use of cabin equipment and controls; (g) Location and operation of passenger oxygen equipment; (h) Location and operation of all normal and emergency exits, including evacuation chutes and escape ropes; and (i) Seating of persons who may need assistance of another person to move rapidly to an exit in an emergency as prescribed by the certificate holder's operations manual.

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§ 135.297 Pilot in command: Instrument proficiency check requirements. (a) No certificate holder may use a pilot, nor may any person serve, as a pilot in command of an aircraft under IFR unless, since the beginning of the 6th calendar month before that service, that pilot has passed an instrument proficiency check under this section administered by the Administrator or an authorized check pilot. (b) No pilot may use any type of precision instrument approach procedure under IFR unless, since the beginning of the 6th calendar month before that use, the pilot satisfactorily demonstrated that type of approach procedure. No pilot may use any type of nonprecision approach procedure under IFR unless, since the beginning of the 6th calendar month before that use, the pilot has satisfactorily demonstrated either that type of approach procedure or any other two different types of nonprecision approach procedures. The instrument approach procedure or procedures must include at least one straight-in approach, one circling approach, and one missed approach. Each type of approach procedure demonstrated must be conducted to published minimums for that procedure. (c) The instrument proficiency check required by paragraph (a) of this section consists of an oral or written equipment test and a flight check under simulated or actual IFR conditions. The equipment test includes questions on emergency procedures, engine operation, fuel and lubrication systems, power settings, stall speeds, best engine-out speed, propeller and supercharger operations, and hydraulic, mechanical, and electrical systems, as appropriate. The flight check includes navigation by instruments, recovery from simulated emergencies, and standard instrument approaches involving navigational facilities which that pilot is to be authorized to use. Each pilot taking the instrument proficiency check must show that standard of competence required by § 135.293(e). (1) The instrument proficiency check must— (i) For a pilot in command of an airplane under § 135.243(a), include the procedures and maneuvers for an airline transport pilot certificate in the particular type of airplane, if appropriate; and (ii) For a pilot in command of an airplane or helicopter under § 135.243(c), include the procedures and maneuvers for a commercial pilot certificate with an instrument rating and, if required, for the appropriate type rating. (2) The instrument proficiency check must be given by an authorized check pilot or by the Administrator. (d) If the pilot in command is assigned to pilot only one type of aircraft, that pilot must take the instrument proficiency check required by paragraph (a) of this section in that type of aircraft. (e) If the pilot in command is assigned to pilot more than one type of aircraft, that pilot must take the instrument proficiency check required by paragraph (a) of this section in each type of aircraft to which that pilot is assigned, in rotation, but not more than one flight check during each period described in paragraph (a) of this section. (f) If the pilot in command is assigned to pilot both single-engine and multiengine aircraft, that pilot must initially take the instrument proficiency check required by paragraph (a) of this section in a multiengine aircraft, and each succeeding check alternately in single-engine and multiengine aircraft, but not more than one flight check during each period described in paragraph (a) of this section. Portions of a required flight check may be given in an aircraft simulator or other appropriate training device, if approved by the Administrator. (g) If the pilot in command is authorized to use an autopilot system in place of a second in command, that pilot must show, during the required instrument proficiency check, that the pilot is able (without a second in command) both with and without using the autopilot to— (1) Conduct instrument operations competently; and (2) Properly conduct air-ground communications and comply with complex air traffic control instructions. (3) Each pilot taking the autopilot check must show that, while using the autopilot, the airplane can be operated as proficiently as it would be if a second in command were present to handle air-ground communications and air traffic control instructions. The autopilot check need only be demonstrated once every 12 calendar months during the instrument proficiency check required under paragraph (a) of this section.

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[Docket 16097, 43 FR 46783, Oct. 10, 1978, as amended by Amdt. 135-15, 46 FR 30971, June 11, 1981; Amdt. 135-129, 79 FR 9975, Feb. 21, 2014; Docket FAA-2019-0360, Amdt. 135-145, 89 FR 51430, June 18, 2024] § 135.297, Nt. Effective Date Notes: 1. By Docket FAA-2023-1275, Amdt. 135-147, 89 FR 92487, Nov. 21, 2024, § 135.297 was amended by revising paragraphs (c)(1)(i) and (ii) and (g)(3), effective Jan. 21, 2025. For the convenience of the user, the revised text is set forth as follows: § 135.297 Pilot in command: Instrument proficiency check requirements. (c) * * * (1) * * * (i) For a pilot in command of an aircraft under § 135.243(a), include the procedures and maneuvers for an airline transport pilot certificate in the particular type of aircraft, if appropriate; and (ii) For a pilot in command of an aircraft under § 135.243(c), include the procedures and maneuvers for a commercial pilot certificate with an instrument rating and, if required, for the appropriate type rating. (g) * * * (3) Each pilot taking the autopilot check must show that, while using the autopilot: (i) The airplane or powered-lift can be operated as proficiently as it would be if a second in command were present to handle air-ground communications and air traffic control instructions. The autopilot check need only be demonstrated once every 12 calendar months during the instrument proficiency check required under paragraph (a) of this section. (ii) On and after July 21, 2025, rotorcraft can be operated as proficiently as it would be if a second in command were present to handle air-ground communications and air traffic control instructions. The autopilot check need only be demonstrated once every 12 calendar months during the instrument proficiency check required under paragraph (a) of this section. Effective Date Notes: 2. By Docket FAA-2023-1275, Amdt. 135-147, 89 FR 92488, Nov. 21, 2024, § 135.297 was further amended by revising paragraph (g)(3), effective July 21, 2025. For the convenience of the user, the revised text is set forth as follows: § 135.297 Pilot in command: Instrument proficiency check requirements. (g) * * * (3) Each pilot taking the autopilot check must show that, while using the autopilot, the aircraft can be operated as proficiently as it would be if a second in command were present to handle air-ground communications and air traffic control instructions. The autopilot check need only be demonstrated once every 12 calendar months during the instrument proficiency check required under paragraph (a) of this section. § 135.299 Pilot in command: Line checks: Routes and airports. (a) No certificate holder may use a pilot, nor may any person serve, as a pilot in command of a flight unless, since the beginning of the 12th calendar month before that service, that pilot has passed a flight check in one of the types of aircraft which that pilot is to fly. The flight check shall— (1) Be given by an approved check pilot or by the Administrator; (2) Consist of at least one flight over one route segment; and (3) Include takeoffs and landings at one or more representative airports. In addition to the requirements of this paragraph, for a pilot authorized to conduct IFR operations, at least one flight shall be flown over a civil airway, an approved off-airway route, or a portion of either of them. (b) The pilot who conducts the check shall determine whether the pilot being checked satisfactorily performs the duties and responsibilities of a pilot in command in operations under this part, and shall so certify in the pilot training record. (c) Each certificate holder shall establish in the manual required by § 135.21 a procedure which will ensure that each pilot who has not flown over a route and into an airport within the preceding 90 days will, before beginning the flight, become familiar with all available information required for the safe operation of that flight.

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§ 135.301 Crewmember: Tests and checks, grace provisions, training to accepted standards. (a) If a crewmember who is required to take a test or a flight check under this part, completes the test or flight check in the calendar month before or after the calendar month in which it is required, that crewmember is considered to have completed the test or check in the calendar month in which it is required. (b) If a pilot being checked under this subpart fails any of the required maneuvers, the person giving the check may give additional training to the pilot during the course of the check. In addition to repeating the maneuvers failed, the person giving the check may require the pilot being checked to repeat any other maneuvers that are necessary to determine the pilot's proficiency. If the pilot being checked is unable to demonstrate satisfactory performance to the person conducting the check, the certificate holder may not use the pilot, nor may the pilot serve, as a flight crewmember in operations under this part until the pilot has satisfactorily completed the check. Subpart H—Training § 135.321 Applicability and terms used. (a) Except as provided in § 135.3, this subpart prescribes the requirements applicable to— (1) A certificate holder under this part which contracts with, or otherwise arranges to use the services of a training center certificated under part 142 to perform training, testing, and checking functions; (2) Each certificate holder for establishing and maintaining an approved training program for crewmembers, check pilots and instructors, and other operations personnel employed or used by that certificate holder; and (3) Each certificate holder for the qualification, approval, and use of aircraft simulators and flight training devices in the conduct of the program. (b) For the purposes of this subpart, the following terms and definitions apply: (1) Initial training. The training required for crewmembers who have not qualified and served in the same capacity on an aircraft. (2) Transition training. The training required for crewmembers who have qualified and served in the same capacity on another aircraft. (3) Upgrade training. The training required for crewmembers who have qualified and served as second in command on a particular aircraft type, before they serve as pilot in command on that aircraft. (4) Differences training. The training required for crewmembers who have qualified and served on a particular type aircraft, when the Administrator finds differences training is necessary before a crewmember serves in the same capacity on a particular variation of that aircraft. (5) Recurrent training. The training required for crewmembers to remain adequately trained and currently proficient for each aircraft, crewmember position, and type of operation in which the crewmember serves. (6) In flight. The maneuvers, procedures, or functions that must be conducted in the aircraft. (7) Training center. An organization governed by the applicable requirements of part 142 of this chapter that conducts training, testing, and checking under contract or other arrangement to certificate holders subject to the requirements of this part. (8) Requalification training. The training required for crewmembers previously trained and qualified, but who have become unqualified due to not having met within the required period the— (i) Recurrent pilot testing requirements of § 135.293; (ii) Instrument proficiency check requirements of § 135.297; or (iii) Line checks required by § 135.299. [Docket 16097, 43 FR 46783, Oct. 10, 1978, as amended by Amdt. 121-250, 60 FR 65950, Dec. 20, 1995; Amdt. 135-63, 61 FR 34561, July 2, 1996; Amdt. 135-91, 68 FR 54588, Sept. 17, 2003; Docket FAA-2019-0360, Amdt. 135-145, 89 FR 51430, June 18, 2024] § 135.323 Training program: General. (a) Each certificate holder required to have a training program under § 135.341 shall:

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(1) Establish and implement a training program that satisfies the requirements of this subpart and that ensures that each crewmember, aircraft dispatcher, flight instructor, and check pilot is adequately trained to perform his or her assigned duties. Prior to implementation, the certificate holder must obtain initial and final FAA approval of the training program. (2) Provide adequate ground and flight training facilities and properly qualified ground instructors for the training required by this subpart. (3) Provide and keep current for each aircraft type used and, if applicable, the particular variations within the aircraft type, appropriate training material, examinations, forms, instructions, and procedures for use in conducting the training and checks required by this subpart. (4) Provide enough flight instructors, check pilots, and FSTD instructors to conduct required flight training and flight checks and FSTD training courses allowed under this subpart. (b) Whenever a crewmember who is required to take recurrent training under this subpart completes the training in the calendar month before, or the calendar month after, the month in which that training is required, the crewmember is considered to have completed it in the calendar month in which it was required. (c) Each instructor, supervisor, or check pilot who is responsible for a particular ground training subject, segment of flight training, course of training, flight check, or competence check under this part shall certify as to the proficiency and knowledge of the crewmember, flight instructor, or check pilot concerned upon completion of that training or check. That certification shall be made a part of the crewmember's record. When the certification required by this paragraph is made by an entry in a computerized recordkeeping system, the certifying instructor, supervisor, or check pilot, must be identified with that entry. However, the signature of the certifying instructor, supervisor, or check pilot is not required for computerized entries. (d) Training subjects that apply to more than one aircraft or crewmember position and that have been satisfactorily completed during previous training while employed by the certificate holder for another aircraft or another crewmember position, need not be repeated during subsequent training other than recurrent training. (e) Aircraft simulators and other training devices may be used in the certificate holder's training program if approved by the Administrator. [Docket 16097, 43 FR 46783, Oct. 10, 1978, as amended by Amdt. 135-101, 70 FR 58829, Oct. 7, 2005; Docket FAA-2019-0360, Amdt. 135-145, 89 FR 51430, June 18, 2024] § 135.324 Training program: Special rules. (a) Other than the certificate holder, only another certificate holder certificated under this part or a training center certificated under part 142 of this chapter is eligible under this subpart to conduct training, testing, and checking under contract or other arrangement to those persons subject to the requirements of this subpart. (b) A certificate holder may contract with, or otherwise arrange to use the services of, a training center certificated under part 142 of this chapter to conduct training, testing, and checking required by this part only if the training center— (1) Holds applicable training specifications issued under part 142 of this chapter; (2) Has facilities, training equipment, and courseware meeting the applicable requirements of part 142 of this chapter; (3) Has approved curriculums, curriculum segments, and portions of curriculum segments applicable for use in training courses required by this subpart; and (4) Has sufficient instructor and check pilots qualified under the applicable requirements of §§ 135.337 through 135.340 to provide training, testing, and checking to persons subject to the requirements of this subpart. [Docket 26933, 61 FR 34562, July 2, 1996, as amended by Amdt. 135-67, 62 FR 13791, Mar. 21, 1997; Amdt. 135-91, 68 FR 54588, Sept. 17, 2003; Docket FAA-2019-0360, Amdt. 135-145, 89 FR 51431, June 18, 2024]

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§ 135.325 Training program and revision: Initial and final approval. (a) To obtain initial and final approval of a training program, or a revision to an approved training program, each certificate holder must submit to the Administrator— (1) An outline of the proposed or revised curriculum, that provides enough information for a preliminary evaluation of the proposed training program or revision; and (2) Additional relevant information that may be requested by the Administrator. (b) If the proposed training program or revision complies with this subpart, the Administrator grants initial approval in writing after which the certificate holder may conduct the training under that program. The Administrator then evaluates the effectiveness of the training program and advises the certificate holder of deficiencies, if any, that must be corrected. (c) The Administrator grants final approval of the proposed training program or revision if the certificate holder shows that the training conducted under the initial approval in paragraph (b) of this section ensures that each person who successfully completes the training is adequately trained to perform that person's assigned duties. (d) Whenever the Administrator finds that revisions are necessary for the continued adequacy of a training program that has been granted final approval, the certificate holder shall, after notification by the Administrator, make any changes in the program that are found necessary by the Administrator. Within 30 days after the certificate holder receives the notice, it may file a petition to reconsider the notice with the Administrator. The filing of a petition to reconsider stays the notice pending a decision by the Administrator. However, if the Administrator finds that there is an emergency that requires immediate action in the interest of safety, the Administrator may, upon a statement of the reasons, require a change effective without stay. § 135.327 Training program: Curriculum. (a) Each certificate holder must prepare and keep current a written training program curriculum for each type of aircraft for each crewmember required for that type aircraft. The curriculum must include ground and flight training required by this subpart. (b) Each training program curriculum must include the following: (1) A list of principal ground training subjects, including emergency training subjects, that are provided. (2) A list of all the training devices, mockups, systems trainers, procedures trainers, or other training aids that the certificate holder will use. (3) Detailed descriptions or pictorial displays of the approved normal, abnormal, and emergency maneuvers, procedures and functions that will be performed during each flight training phase or flight check, indicating those maneuvers, procedures and functions that are to be performed during the inflight portions of flight training and flight checks. § 135.329 Crewmember training requirements. (a) Each certificate holder must include in its training program the following initial and transition ground training as appropriate to the particular assignment of the crewmember: (1) Basic indoctrination ground training for newly hired crewmembers including instruction in at least the— (i) Duties and responsibilities of crewmembers as applicable; (ii) Appropriate provisions of this chapter; (iii) Contents of the certificate holder's operating certificate and operations specifications (not required for flight attendants); and (iv) Appropriate portions of the certificate holder's operating manual. (2) The initial and transition ground training in §§ 135.345 and 135.349, as applicable. (3) Emergency training in § 135.331. (4) Crew resource management training in § 135.330. (b) Each training program must provide the initial and transition flight training in § 135.347, as applicable.

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(c) Each training program must provide recurrent ground and flight training in § 135.351. (d) Upgrade training in §§ 135.345 and 135.347 for a particular type aircraft may be included in the training program for crewmembers who have qualified and served as second in command on that aircraft. (e) In addition to initial, transition, upgrade and recurrent training, each training program must provide ground and flight training, instruction, and practice necessary to ensure that each crewmember— (1) Remains adequately trained and currently proficient for each aircraft, crewmember position, and type of operation in which the crewmember serves; and (2) Qualifies in new equipment, facilities, procedures, and techniques, including modifications to aircraft. [Docket 16097, 43 FR 46783, Oct. 10, 1978, as amended by Amdt. 135-122, 76 FR 3837, Jan. 21, 2011] § 135.330 Crew resource management training. (a) Each certificate holder must have an approved crew resource management training program that includes initial and recurrent training. The training program must include at least the following: (1) Authority of the pilot in command; (2) Communication processes, decisions, and coordination, to include communication with Air Traffic Control, personnel performing flight locating and other operational functions, and passengers; (3) Building and maintenance of a flight team; (4) Workload and time management; (5) Situational awareness; (6) Effects of fatigue on performance, avoidance strategies and countermeasures; (7) Effects of stress and stress reduction strategies; and (8) Aeronautical decision-making and judgment training tailored to the operator's flight operations and aviation environment. (b) After March 22, 2013, no certificate holder may use a person as a flightcrew member or flight attendant unless that person has completed approved crew resource management initial training with that certificate holder. (c) For flightcrew members and flight attendants, the Administrator, at his or her discretion, may credit crew resource management training completed with that certificate holder before March 22, 2013, toward all or part of the initial CRM training required by this section. (d) In granting credit for initial CRM training, the Administrator considers training aids, devices, methods and procedures used by the certificate holder in a voluntary CRM program included in a training program required by § 135.341, § 135.345, or § 135.349. [Docket FAA-2009-0023, 76 FR 3837, Jan. 21, 2011] § 135.331 Crewmember emergency training. (a) Each training program must provide emergency training under this section for each aircraft type, model, and configuration, each crewmember, and each kind of operation conducted, as appropriate for each crewmember and the certificate holder. (b) Emergency training must provide the following: (1) Instruction in emergency assignments and procedures, including coordination among crewmembers. (2) Individual instruction in the location, function, and operation of emergency equipment including— (i) Equipment used in ditching and evacuation; (ii) First aid equipment and its proper use; and (iii) Portable fire extinguishers, with emphasis on the type of extinguisher to be used on different classes of fires. (3) Instruction in the handling of emergency situations including— (i) Rapid decompression; (ii) Fire in flight or on the surface and smoke control procedures with emphasis on electrical equipment and related circuit breakers found in cabin areas; (iii) Ditching and evacuation; (iv) Illness, injury, or other abnormal situations involving passengers or crewmembers; and

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(v) Hijacking and other unusual situations. (4) Review of the certificate holder's previous aircraft accidents and incidents involving actual emergency situations. (c) Each crewmember must perform at least the following emergency drills, using the proper emergency equipment and procedures, unless the Administrator finds that, for a particular drill, the crewmember can be adequately trained by demonstration: (1) Ditching, if applicable. (2) Emergency evacuation. (3) Fire extinguishing and smoke control. (4) Operation and use of emergency exits, including deployment and use of evacuation chutes, if applicable. (5) Use of crew and passenger oxygen. (6) Removal of life rafts from the aircraft, inflation of the life rafts, use of life lines, and boarding of passengers and crew, if applicable. (7) Donning and inflation of life vests and the use of other individual flotation devices, if applicable. (d) Crewmembers who serve in operations above 25,000 feet must receive instruction in the following: (1) Respiration. (2) Hypoxia. (3) Duration of consciousness without supplemental oxygen at altitude. (4) Gas expansion. (5) Gas bubble formation. (6) Physical phenomena and incidents of decompression. § 135.335 Approval of aircraft simulators and other training devices. (a) Training courses using aircraft simulators and other training devices may be included in the certificate holder's training program if approved by the Administrator. (b) Each aircraft simulator and other training device that is used in a training course or in checks required under this subpart must meet the following requirements: (1) It must be specifically approved for— (i) The certificate holder; and (ii) The particular maneuver, procedure, or crewmember function involved. (2) It must maintain the performance, functional, and other character- istics that are required for approval. (3) Additionally, for aircraft simulators, it must be— (i) Approved for the type aircraft and, if applicable, the particular variation within type for which the training or check is being conducted; and (ii) Modified to conform with any modification to the aircraft being simulated that changes the performance, functional, or other characteristics required for approval. (c) A particular aircraft simulator or other training device may be used by more than one certificate holder. (d) In granting initial and final approval of training programs or revisions to them, the Administrator considers the training devices, methods and procedures listed in the certificate holder's curriculum under § 135.327. [Docket 16907, 43 FR 46783, Oct. 10, 1978, as amended by Amdt. 135-1, 44 FR 26738, May 7, 1979] § 135.336 Airline transport pilot certification training program. (a) A certificate holder may obtain approval to establish and implement a training program to satisfy the requirements of § 61.156 of this chapter. The training program must be separate from the air carrier training program required by this part. (b) No certificate holder may use a person nor may any person serve as an instructor in a training program approved to meet the requirements of § 61.156 of this chapter unless the instructor: (1) Holds an airline transport pilot certificate with an airplane category multiengine class rating; (2) Has at least 2 years of experience as a pilot in command in operations conducted under § 91.1053(a)(2)(i) of this chapter, § 135.243(a)(1) of this part, or as a pilot in command or second in command in any operation conducted under part 121 of this chapter; (3) Except for the holder of a flight instructor certificate, receives initial training on the following topics: (i) The fundamental principles of the learning process; (ii) Elements of effective teaching, instruction methods, and techniques;

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(iii) Instructor duties, privileges, responsibilities, and limitations; (iv) Training policies and procedures; and (v) Evaluation. (4) If providing training in a flight simulation training device, holds an aircraft type rating for the aircraft represented by the flight simulation training device utilized in the training program and have received training and evaluation within the preceding 12 months from the certificate holder on: (i) Proper operation of flight simulator and flight training device controls and systems; (ii) Proper operation of environmental and fault panels; (iii) Data and motion limitations of simulation; (iv) Minimum equipment requirements for each curriculum; and (v) The maneuvers that will be demonstrated in the flight simulation training device. (c) A certificate holder may not issue a graduation certificate to a student unless that student has completed all the curriculum requirements of the course. (d) A certificate holder must conduct evaluations to ensure that training techniques, procedures, and standards are acceptable to the Administrator. [Docket FAA-2010-0100, 78 FR 42379, July 15, 2013] § 135.337 Qualifications: Check pilots. (a) For the purposes of this part: (1) A check pilot (aircraft) is a person who is qualified to conduct flight checks in an aircraft for a particular type aircraft. (2) A check-pilot (FSTD) is a person who is qualified to conduct flight checks only in an FSTD for a particular type aircraft. (3) Check pilots are those persons who perform the functions described in §§ 135.321(a) and 135.323(a)(4) and (c). (b) No certificate holder may use a person, nor may any person serve as a check pilot in a training program established under this subpart unless, with respect to the aircraft type involved, that person— (1) Holds the pilot certificates and ratings required to serve as a pilot in command in operations under this part; (2) Has satisfactorily completed the appropriate training phases for the aircraft, including recurrent training, that are required to serve as a pilot in command in operations under this part; (3) Has satisfactorily completed the proficiency or competency checks that are required to serve as a pilot in command in operations under this part; (4) Has satisfactorily completed the applicable training requirements of § 135.339; (5) Has been approved by the Administrator for the check pilot duties involved. (c) Completion of the requirements in paragraphs (b)(2), (3), and (4) of this section, as applicable, shall be entered in the individual's training record maintained by the certificate holder. (d) A check pilot (FSTD) must accomplish the following— (1) Fly at least two flight segments as a required crewmember for the type, class, or category aircraft involved within the 12-month period preceding the performance of any check-pilot duty in an FSTD; or (2) Satisfactorily complete an approved line-observation program within the period prescribed by that program and that must precede the performance of any check pilot duty in an FSTD. (e) The flight segments or line-observation program required in paragraph (d) of this section are considered to be completed in the month required if completed in the calendar month before or the calendar month after the month in which they are due. (f) A person who serves as a required flightcrew member while performing check pilot duties must also meet the requirements of this chapter for the duty position in which they are serving. [Docket FAA-2019-0360, Amdt. 135-145, 89 FR 51431, June 18, 2024] § 135.338 Qualifications: Flight instructors. (a) For the purposes of this part: (1) A flight instructor (aircraft) is a person who is qualified to instruct in an aircraft for a particular type, class, or category aircraft.

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(2) A flight instructor (FSTD) is a person who is qualified to instruct only in an FSTD for a particular type, class, or category aircraft. (3) Flight instructors are those instructors who perform the functions described in §§ 135.321(a) and 135.323(a)(4) and (c). (b) No certificate holder may use a person, nor may any person serve as a flight instructor in a training program established under this subpart unless, with respect to the type, class, or category aircraft involved, that person— (1) Holds the pilot certificates and ratings required to serve as a pilot in command in operations under this part; (2) Has satisfactorily completed the appropriate training phases for the aircraft, including recurrent training, that are required to serve as a pilot in command in operations under this part; (3) Has satisfactorily completed the proficiency or competency checks that are required to serve as a pilot in command in operations under this part; (4) Has satisfactorily completed the applicable training requirements of § 135.340. (c) Completion of the requirements in paragraphs (b)(2), (3), and (4) of this section shall be entered in the individual's training record maintained by the certificate holder. (d) A flight instructor (FSTD) must accomplish the following— (1) Fly at least two flight segments as a required crewmember for the type, class, or category aircraft involved within the 12-month period preceding the performance of any flight instructor duty in an FSTD; or (2) Satisfactorily complete an approved line-observation program within the period prescribed by that program preceding the performance of any flight instructor duty in an FSTD. (e) The flight segments or line-observation program required in paragraph (d) of this section are considered completed in the month required if completed in the calendar month before, or in the calendar month after, the month in which they are due. (f) A person who serves as a required flightcrew member while performing flight instructor duties must also meet the requirements of this chapter for the duty position in which they are serving. [Docket FAA-2019-0360, Amdt. 135-145, 89 FR 51431, June 18, 2024] § 135.339 Initial and transition training and checking: Check pilots. (a) No certificate holder may use a person nor may any person serve as a check pilot unless— (1) That person has satisfactorily completed initial or transition check pilot training; and (2) Within the preceding 24 calendar months, that person satisfactorily conducts a proficiency or competency check under the observation of an FAA inspector or an aircrew designated examiner employed by the operator. The observation check may be accomplished in part or in full in an aircraft, in a flight simulator, or in a flight training device. This paragraph applies after March 19, 1997. (b) The observation check required by paragraph (a)(2) of this section is considered to have been completed in the month required if completed in the calendar month before or the calendar month after the month in which it is due. (c) The initial ground training for check pilots must include the following: (1) Check pilot duties, functions, and responsibilities. (2) The applicable Code of Federal Regulations and the certificate holder's policies and procedures. (3) The applicable methods, procedures, and techniques for conducting the required checks. (4) Proper evaluation of student performance including the detection of— (i) Improper and insufficient training; and (ii) Personal characteristics of an applicant that could adversely affect safety. (5) The corrective action in the case of unsatisfactory checks. (6) The approved methods, procedures, and limitations for performing the required normal, abnormal, and emergency procedures in the aircraft.

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(d) The transition ground training for check pilots must include the approved methods, procedures, and limitations for performing the required normal, abnormal, and emergency procedures applicable to the aircraft to which the check pilot is in transition. (e) The initial and transition flight training for check pilots (aircraft) must include the following— (1) The safety measures for emergency situations that are likely to develop during a check; (2) The potential results of improper, untimely, or nonexecution of safety measures during a check; (3) Training and practice in conducting flight checks from the left and right pilot seats in the required normal, abnormal, and emergency procedures to ensure competence to conduct the pilot flight checks required by this part; and (4) The safety measures to be taken from either pilot seat for emergency situations that are likely to develop during checking. (f) The requirements of paragraph (e) of this section may be accomplished in full or in part in flight, in a flight simulator, or in a flight training device, as appropriate. (g) The initial and transition flight training for check pilots (FSTD) must include the following: (1) Training and practice in conducting flight checks in the required normal, abnormal, and emergency procedures to ensure competence to conduct the flight checks required by this part. This training and practice must be accomplished in a flight simulator or in a flight training device. (2) Training in the operation of flight simulators, flight training devices, or both, to ensure competence to conduct the flight checks required by this part. [Docket 28471, 61 FR 30745, June 17, 1996; 62 FR 3739, Jan. 24, 1997, as amended by Docket FAA-2019-0360, Amdt. 135-145, 89 FR 51431, June 18, 2024; Docket FAA-2019-0360, Amdt. 135-145A, 89 FR 105448, Dec. 27, 2024] § 135.339, Nt. Effective Date Note: By Docket FAA-2023-1275, Amdt. 135-147, 89 FR 92488, Nov. 21, 2024, § 135.339 was amended by revising paragraphs (e)(3) and (4), effective Jan. 21, 2025. For the convenience of the user, the revised text is set forth as follows: § 135.339 Initial and transition training and checking: Check airmen (aircraft), check airmen (simulator). (e) * * * (3) Training and practice in conducting flight checks from the left and right pilot seats, or in the case of powered-lift with one pilot seat from that seat as well as providing training and instruction from an observation seat, in the required normal, abnormal, and emergency procedures to ensure competence to conduct the pilot flight checks required by this part; and (4) The safety measures to be taken from either pilot seat, or in the case of powered-lift with one pilot seat from that seat as well as providing training and instruction from an observation seat, for emergency situations that are likely to develop during checking. § 135.340 Initial and transition training and checking: Flight instructors. (a) No certificate holder may use a person nor may any person serve as a flight instructor unless— (1) That person has satisfactorily completed initial or transition flight instructor training; and (2) Within the preceding 24 calendar months, that person satisfactorily conducts instruction under the observation of an FAA inspector, an operator check pilot, or an aircrew designated examiner employed by the operator. The observation check may be accomplished in part or in full in an aircraft, in a flight simulator, or in a flight training device. (b) The observation check required by paragraph (a)(2) of this section is considered to have been completed in the month required if completed in the calendar month before, or the calendar month after, the month in which it is due. (c) The initial ground training for flight instructors must include the following: (1) Flight instructor duties, functions, and responsibilities. (2) The applicable Code of Federal Regulations and the certificate holder's policies and procedures.

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(3) The applicable methods, procedures, and techniques for conducting flight instruction. (4) Proper evaluation of student performance including the detection of— (i) Improper and insufficient training; and (ii) Personal characteristics of an applicant that could adversely affect safety. (5) The corrective action in the case of unsatisfactory training progress. (6) The approved methods, procedures, and limitations for performing the required normal, abnormal, and emergency procedures in the aircraft. (7) Except for holders of a flight instructor certificate— (i) The fundamental principles of the teaching-learning process; (ii) Teaching methods and procedures; and (iii) The instructor-student relationship. (d) The transition ground training for flight instructors must include the approved methods, procedures, and limitations for performing the required normal, abnormal, and emergency procedures applicable to the type, class, or category aircraft to which the flight instructor is in transition. (e) The initial and transition flight training for flight instructors (aircraft) must include the following— (1) The safety measures for emergency situations that are likely to develop during instruction; (2) The potential results of improper or untimely safety measures during instruction; (3) Training and practice from the left and right pilot seats in the required normal, abnormal, and emergency maneuvers to ensure competence to conduct the flight instruction required by this part; and (4) The safety measures to be taken from either the left or right pilot seat for emergency situations that are likely to develop during instruction. (f) The requirements of paragraph (e) of this section may be accomplished in full or in part in flight, in a flight simulator, or in a flight training device, as appropriate. (g) The initial and transition flight training for a flight instructor (FSTD) must include the following: (1) Training and practice in the required normal, abnormal, and emergency procedures to ensure competence to conduct the flight instruction required by this part. These maneuvers and procedures must be accomplished in full or in part in a flight simulator or in a flight training device. (2) Training in the operation of flight simulators, flight training devices, or both, to ensure competence to conduct the flight instruction required by this part. [Docket 28471, 61 FR 30745, June 17, 1996; 61 FR 34927, July 3, 1996; 62 FR 3739, Jan. 24, 1997, as amended by Docket FAA-2019-0360, Amdt. 135-145, 89 FR 51432, June 18, 2024; Docket FAA-2019-0360, Amdt. 135-145A, 89 FR 105448, Dec. 27, 2024] § 135.340, Nt. Effective Date Note: By Docket FAA-2023-1275, Amdt. 135-147, 89 FR 92488, Nov. 21, 2024, § 135.340 was amended by revising paragraphs (e)(3) and (4), effective Jan. 21, 2025. For the convenience of the user, the revised text is set forth as follows: § 135.340 Initial and transition training and checking: Flight instructors (aircraft), flight instructors (simulator). (e) * * * (3) Training and practice from the left and right pilot seats, or in the case of powered-lift with one pilot seat from that seat as well as providing training and instruction from an observation seat, in the required normal, abnormal, and emergency maneuvers to ensure competence to conduct the flight instruction required by this part; and (4) The safety measures to be taken from either the left or right pilot seat, or in the case of powered-lift with one pilot seat from that seat as well as providing training and instruction from an observation seat, for emergency situations that are likely to develop during instruction. § 135.341 Pilot and flight attendant crewmember training programs. (a) Each certificate holder, other than one who uses only one pilot in the certificate holder's operations, shall establish and maintain an approved pilot training program, and each certificate holder who uses a flight attendant crewmember shall establish and maintain an approved flight attendant training program, that is appropriate to the operations to which each pilot and flight attendant is to be assigned, and will ensure that they are adequately trained to meet the applicable knowledge and practical testing requirements of §§ 135.293 through 135.301. However, the Administrator may authorize a deviation from this section if the Administrator finds that, because of the limited size and scope of the operation, safety will allow a deviation from these requirements. This deviation authority does not extend to the training provided under § 135.336.

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(b) Each certificate holder required to have a training program by paragraph (a) of this section shall include in that program ground and flight training curriculums for— (1) Initial training; (2) Transition training; (3) Upgrade training; (4) Differences training; and (5) Recurrent training. (c) Each certificate holder required to have a training program by paragraph (a) of this section shall provide current and appropriate study materials for use by each required pilot and flight attendant. (d) The certificate holder shall furnish copies of the pilot and flight attendant crewmember training program, and all changes and additions, to the assigned representative of the Administrator. If the certificate holder uses training facilities of other persons, a copy of those training programs or appropriate portions used for those facilities shall also be furnished. Curricula that follow FAA published curricula may be cited by reference in the copy of the training program furnished to the representative of the Administrator and need not be furnished with the program. [Docket 16097, 43 FR 46783, Oct. 10, 1978, as amended by Amdt. 135-18, 47 FR 33396, Aug. 2, 1982; Amdt. 135-127, 78 FR 42379, July 15, 2013; Amdt. 135-127A, 78 FR 77574, Dec. 24, 2013] § 135.343 Crewmember initial and recurrent training requirements. No certificate holder may use a person, nor may any person serve, as a crewmember in operations under this part unless that crewmember has completed the appropriate initial or recurrent training phase of the training program appropriate to the type of operation in which the crewmember is to serve since the beginning of the 12th calendar month before that service. This section does not apply to a certificate holder that uses only one pilot in the certificate holder's operations. [Docket 16097, 43 FR 46783, Oct. 10, 1978, as amended by Amdt. 135-18, 47 FR 33396, Aug. 2, 1982] § 135.345 Pilots: Initial, transition, and upgrade ground training. Initial, transition, and upgrade ground training for pilots must include instruction in at least the following, as applicable to their duties: (a) General subjects— (1) The certificate holder's flight locating procedures; (2) Principles and methods for determining weight and balance, and runway limitations for takeoff and landing; (3) Enough meteorology to ensure a practical knowledge of weather phenomena, including the principles of frontal systems, icing, fog, thunderstorms, windshear and, if appropriate, high altitude weather situations; (4) Air traffic control systems, procedures, and phraseology; (5) Navigation and the use of navigational aids, including instrument approach procedures; (6) Normal and emergency communication procedures; (7) Visual cues before and during descent below DA/DH or MDA; (8) ETOPS, if applicable; (9) After August 13, 2008, passenger recovery plan for any passenger-carrying operation (other than intrastate operations wholly within the state of Alaska) in the North Polar area; and (10) Other instructions necessary to ensure the pilot's competence. (b) For each aircraft type— (1) A general description; (2) Performance characteristics; (3) Engines and propellers; (4) Major components; (5) Major aircraft systems ( i.e. , flight controls, electrical, and hydraulic), other systems, as appropriate, principles of normal, abnormal, and emergency operations, appropriate procedures and limitations;

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(6) Knowledge and procedures for— (i) Recognizing and avoiding severe weather situations; (ii) Escaping from severe weather situations, in case of inadvertent encounters, including low-altitude windshear (except that rotorcraft pilots are not required to be trained in escaping from low-altitude windshear); (iii) Operating in or near thunderstorms (including best penetrating altitudes), turbulent air (including clear air turbulence), icing, hail, and other potentially hazardous meteorological conditions; and (iv) Operating airplanes during ground icing conditions, ( i.e. , any time conditions are such that frost, ice, or snow may reasonably be expected to adhere to the airplane), if the certificate holder expects to authorize takeoffs in ground icing conditions, including: (A) The use of holdover times when using deicing/anti-icing fluids; (B) Airplane deicing/anti-icing procedures, including inspection and check procedures and responsibilities; (C) Communications; (D) Airplane surface contamination ( i.e. , adherence of frost, ice, or snow) and critical area identification, and knowledge of how contamination adversely affects airplane performance and flight characteristics; (E) Types and characteristics of deicing/anti-icing fluids, if used by the certificate holder; (F) Cold weather preflight inspection procedures; (G) Techniques for recognizing contamination on the airplane; (7) Operating limitations; (8) Fuel consumption and cruise control; (9) Flight planning; (10) Each normal and emergency procedure; and (11) The approved Aircraft Flight Manual, or equivalent. [Docket 16097, 43 FR 46783, Oct. 10, 1978, as amended by Amdt. 135-27, 53 FR 37697, Sept. 27, 1988; Amdt. 135-46, 58 FR 69630, Dec. 30, 1993; Amdt. 135-108, 72 FR 1885, Jan. 16, 2007; Amdt. 135-110, 72 FR 31685, June 7, 2007; Amdt. 135-112, 73 FR 8798, Feb. 15, 2008] § 135.347 Pilots: Initial, transition, upgrade, and differences flight training. (a) Initial, transition, upgrade, and differences training for pilots must include flight and practice in each of the maneuvers and procedures in the approved training program curriculum. (b) The maneuvers and procedures required by paragraph (a) of this section must be performed in flight, except to the extent that certain maneuvers and procedures may be performed in an aircraft simulator, or an appropriate training device, as allowed by this subpart. (c) If the certificate holder's approved training program includes a course of training using an aircraft simulator or other training device, each pilot must successfully complete— (1) Training and practice in the simulator or training device in at least the maneuvers and procedures in this subpart that are capable of being performed in the aircraft simulator or training device; and (2) A flight check in the aircraft or a check in the simulator or training device to the level of proficiency of a pilot in command or second in command, as applicable, in at least the maneuvers and procedures that are capable of being performed in an aircraft simulator or training device. § 135.349 Flight attendants: Initial and transition ground training. Initial and transition ground training for flight attendants must include instruction in at least the following— (a) General subjects— (1) The authority of the pilot in command; and (2) Passenger handling, including procedures to be followed in handling deranged persons or other persons whose conduct might jeopardize safety. (b) For each aircraft type—

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(1) A general description of the aircraft emphasizing physical characteristics that may have a bearing on ditching, evacuation, and inflight emergency procedures and on other related duties; (2) The use of both the public address system and the means of communicating with other flight crewmembers, including emergency means in the case of attempted hijacking or other unusual situations; and (3) Proper use of electrical galley equipment and the controls for cabin heat and ventilation. § 135.351 Recurrent training. (a) Each certificate holder must ensure that each crewmember receives recurrent training and is adequately trained and currently proficient for the type aircraft and crewmember position involved. (b) Recurrent ground training for crewmembers must include at least the following: (1) A quiz or other review to determine the crewmember's knowledge of the aircraft and crewmember position involved. (2) Instruction as necessary in the subjects required for initial ground training by this subpart, as appropriate, including low-altitude windshear training and training on operating during ground icing conditions as prescribed in § 135.341 and described in § 135.345, crew resource management training as prescribed in § 135.330, and emergency training as prescribed in § 135.331. (c) Recurrent flight training for pilots must include, at least, flight training in the maneuvers or procedures in this subpart, except that satisfactory completion of the check required by § 135.293 within the preceding 12 calendar months may be substituted for recurrent flight training. [Docket 16097, 43 FR 46783, Oct. 10, 1978, as amended by Amdt. 135-27, 53 FR 37698, Sept. 27, 1988; Amdt. 135-46, 58 FR 69630, Dec. 30, 1993; Amdt. 135-122, 76 FR 3837, Jan. 21, 2011] § 135.353 [Reserved]
Subpart I—Airplane Performance Operating Limitations § 135.361 Applicability. (a) This subpart prescribes airplane performance operating limitations applicable to the operation of the categories of airplanes listed in § 135.363 when operated under this part. (b) For the purpose of this subpart, effective length of the runway, for landing means the distance from the point at which the obstruction clearance plane associated with the approach end of the runway intersects the centerline of the runway to the far end of the runway. (c) For the purpose of this subpart, obstruction clearance plane means a plane sloping upward from the runway at a slope of 1:20 to the horizontal, and tangent to or clearing all obstructions within a specified area surrounding the runway as shown in a profile view of that area. In the plan view, the centerline of the specified area coincides with the centerline of the runway, beginning at the point where the obstruction clearance plane intersects the centerline of the runway and proceeding to a point at least 1,500 feet from the beginning point. After that the centerline coincides with the takeoff path over the ground for the runway (in the case of takeoffs) or with the instrument approach counterpart (for landings), or, where the applicable one of these paths has not been established, it proceeds consistent with turns of at least 4,000-foot radius until a point is reached beyond which the obstruction clearance plane clears all obstructions. This area extends laterally 200 feet on each side of the centerline at the point where the obstruction clearance plane intersects the runway and continues at this width to the end of the runway; then it increases uniformly to 500 feet on each side of the centerline at a point 1,500 feet from the intersection of the obstruction clearance plane with the runway; after that it extends laterally 500 feet on each side of the centerline. § 135.363 General. (a) Each certificate holder operating a reciprocating engine powered large transport category airplane shall comply with §§ 135.365 through 135.377.

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(b) Each certificate holder operating a turbine engine powered large transport category airplane shall comply with §§ 135.379 through 135.387, except that when it operates a turbopropeller-powered large transport category airplane certificated after August 29, 1959, but previously type certificated with the same number of reciprocating engines, it may comply with §§ 135.365 through 135.377. (c) Each certificate holder operating a large nontransport category airplane shall comply with §§ 135.389 through 135.395 and any determination of compliance must be based only on approved performance data. For the purpose of this subpart, a large nontrans- port category airplane is an airplane that was type certificated before July 1, 1942. (d) Each certificate holder operating a small transport category airplane shall comply with § 135.397. (e) Each certificate holder operating a small nontransport category airplane shall comply with § 135.399. (f) The performance data in the Airplane Flight Manual applies in determining compliance with §§ 135.365 through 135.387. Where conditions are different from those on which the performance data is based, compliance is determined by interpolation or by computing the effects of change in the specific variables, if the results of the interpolation or computations are substantially as accurate as the results of direct tests. (g) No person may take off a reciprocating engine powered large transport category airplane at a weight that is more than the allowable weight for the runway being used (determined under the runway takeoff limitations of the transport category operating rules of this subpart) after taking into account the temperature operating correction factors in section 4a.749a-T or section 4b.117 of the Civil Air Regulations in effect on January 31, 1965, and in the applicable Airplane Flight Manual. (h) The Administrator may author- ize in the operations specifications deviations from this subpart if special circumstances make a literal observ- ance of a requirement unnecessary for safety. (i) The 10-mile width specified in §§ 135.369 through 135.373 may be reduced to 5 miles, for not more than 20 miles, when operating under VFR or where navigation facilities furnish reliable and accurate identification of high ground and obstructions located outside of 5 miles, but within 10 miles, on each side of the intended track. (j) Each certificate holder operating a commuter category airplane shall comply with § 135.398. [Docket 16097, 43 FR 46783, Oct. 10, 1978, as amended by Amdt. 135-21, 52 FR 1836, Jan. 15, 1987] § 135.364 Maximum flying time outside the United States. After August 13, 2008, no certificate holder may operate an airplane, other than an all-cargo airplane with more than two engines, on a planned route that exceeds 180 minutes flying time (at the one-engine-inoperative cruise speed under standard conditions in still air) from an Adequate Airport outside the continental United States unless the operation is approved by the FAA in accordance with Appendix G of this part, Extended Operations (ETOPS). [Docket FAA-1999-6717, 73 FR 8798, Feb. 15, 2008] § 135.365 Large transport category airplanes: Reciprocating engine powered: Weight limitations. (a) No person may take off a reciprocating engine powered large transport category airplane from an airport located at an elevation outside of the range for which maximum takeoff weights have been determined for that airplane. (b) No person may take off a reciprocating engine powered large transport category airplane for an airport of intended destination that is located at an elevation outside of the range for which maximum landing weights have been determined for that airplane. (c) No person may specify, or have specified, an alternate airport that is located at an elevation outside of the range for which maximum landing weights have been determined for the reciprocating engine powered large transport category airplane concerned.

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(d) No person may take off a reciprocating engine powered large transport category airplane at a weight more than the maximum authorized takeoff weight for the elevation of the airport. (e) No person may take off a reciprocating engine powered large transport category airplane if its weight on arrival at the airport of destination will be more than the maximum authorized landing weight for the elevation of that airport, allowing for normal consumption of fuel and oil en route. § 135.367 Large transport category airplanes: Reciprocating engine powered: Takeoff limitations. (a) No person operating a reciprocating engine powered large transport category airplane may take off that airplane unless it is possible— (1) To stop the airplane safely on the runway, as shown by the accelerate-stop distance data, at any time during takeoff until reaching critical-engine failure speed; (2) If the critical engine fails at any time after the airplane reaches critical-engine failure speed V 1 , to continue the takeoff and reach a height of 50 feet, as indicated by the takeoff path data, before passing over the end of the runway; and (3) To clear all obstacles either by at least 50 feet vertically (as shown by the takeoff path data) or 200 feet horizontally within the airport boundaries and 300 feet horizontally beyond the boundaries, without banking before reaching a height of 50 feet (as shown by the takeoff path data) and after that without banking more than 15 degrees. (b) In applying this section, corrections must be made for any runway gradient. To allow for wind effect, takeoff data based on still air may be corrected by taking into account not more than 50 percent of any reported headwind component and not less than 150 percent of any reported tailwind component. § 135.369 Large transport category airplanes: Reciprocating engine powered: En route limitations: All engines operating. (a) No person operating a reciprocating engine powered large transport category airplane may take off that airplane at a weight, allowing for normal consumption of fuel and oil, that does not allow a rate of climb (in feet per minute), with all engines operating, of at least 6.90 Vs o (that is, the number of feet per minute obtained by multiplying the number of knots by 6.90) at an altitude of a least 1,000 feet above the highest ground or obstruction within ten miles of each side of the intended track. (b) This section does not apply to large transport category airplanes certificated under part 4a of the Civil Air Regulations. § 135.371 Large transport category airplanes: Reciprocating engine powered: En route limitations: One engine inoperative. (a) Except as provided in paragraph (b) of this section, no person operating a reciprocating engine powered large transport category airplane may take off that airplane at a weight, allowing for normal consumption of fuel and oil, that does not allow a rate of climb (in feet per minute), with one engine inoperative, of at least (0.079−0.106/N) Vs o 2 (where N is the number of engines installed and Vs o is expressed in knots) at an altitude of least 1,000 feet above the highest ground or obstruction within 10 miles of each side of the intended track. However, for the purposes of this paragraph the rate of climb for transport category airplanes certificated under part 4a of the Civil Air Regulations is 0.026 Vs o 2. (b) In place of the requirements of paragraph (a) of this section, a person may, under an approved procedure, operate a reciprocating engine powered large transport category airplane at an all-engines-operating altitude that allows the airplane to continue, after an engine failure, to an alternate airport where a landing can be made under § 135.377, allowing for normal consumption of fuel and oil. After the assumed failure, the flight path must clear the ground and any obstruction within five miles on each side of the intended track by at least 2,000 feet. (c) If an approved procedure under paragraph (b) of this section is used, the certificate holder shall comply with the following:

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(1) The rate of climb (as prescribed in the Airplane Flight Manual for the appropriate weight and altitude) used in calculating the airplane's flight path shall be diminished by an amount in feet per minute, equal to (0.079−0.106/N) Vs o 2 (when N is the number of engines installed and Vs o is expressed in knots) for airplanes certificated under part 25 of this chapter and by 0.026 Vs o 2 for airplanes certificated under part 4a of the Civil Air Regulations. (2) The all-engines-operating altitude shall be sufficient so that in the event the critical engine becomes inoperative at any point along the route, the flight will be able to proceed to a predetermined alternate airport by use of this procedure. In determining the takeoff weight, the airplane is assumed to pass over the critical obstruction following engine failure at a point no closer to the critical obstruction than the nearest approved navigational fix, unless the Administrator approves a procedure established on a different basis upon finding that adequate operational safeguards exist. (3) The airplane must meet the provisions of paragraph (a) of this section at 1,000 feet above the airport used as an alternate in this procedure. (4) The procedure must include an approved method of accounting for winds and temperatures that would otherwise adversely affect the flight path. (5) In complying with this procedure, fuel jettisoning is allowed if the certificate holder shows that it has an adequate training program, that proper instructions are given to the flight crew, and all other precautions are taken to ensure a safe procedure. (6) The certificate holder and the pilot in command shall jointly elect an alternate airport for which the appropriate weather reports or forecasts, or any combination of them, indicate that weather conditions will be at or above the alternate weather minimum specified in the certificate holder's operations specifications for that airport when the flight arrives. [Docket 16097, 43 FR 46783, Oct. 10, 1978, as amended by Amdt. 135-110, 72 FR 31685, June 7, 2007] § 135.373 Part 25 transport category airplanes with four or more engines: Reciprocating engine powered: En route limitations: Two engines inoperative. (a) No person may operate an airplane certificated under part 25 and having four or more engines unless— (1) There is no place along the intended track that is more than 90 minutes (with all engines operating at cruising power) from an airport that meets § 135.377; or (2) It is operated at a weight allowing the airplane, with the two critical engines inoperative, to climb at 0.013 Vs o 2 feet per minute (that is, the number of feet per minute obtained by multiplying the number of knots squared by 0.013) at an altitude of 1,000 feet above the highest ground or obstruction within 10 miles on each side of the intended track, or at an altitude of 5,000 feet, whichever is higher. (b) For the purposes of paragraph (a)(2) of this section, it is assumed that— (1) The two engines fail at the point that is most critical with respect to the takeoff weight; (2) Consumption of fuel and oil is normal with all engines operating up to the point where the two engines fail with two engines operating beyond that point; (3) Where the engines are assumed to fail at an altitude above the prescribed minimum altitude, compliance with the prescribed rate of climb at the prescribed minimum altitude need not be shown during the descent from the cruising altitude to the prescribed minimum altitude, if those requirements can be met once the prescribed minimum altitude is reached, and assuming descent to be along a net flight path and the rate of descent to be 0.013 Vs o 2 greater than the rate in the approved performance data; and (4) If fuel jettisoning is provided, the airplane's weight at the point where the two engines fail is considered to be not less than that which would include enough fuel to proceed to an airport meeting § 135.377 and to arrive at an altitude of at least 1,000 feet directly over that airport.

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§ 135.375 Large transport category airplanes: Reciprocating engine powered: Landing limitations: Destination airports. (a) Except as provided in paragraph (b) of this section, no person operating a reciprocating engine powered large transport category airplane may take off that airplane, unless its weight on arrival, allowing for normal consumption of fuel and oil in flight, would allow a full stop landing at the intended destination within 60 percent of the effective length of each runway described below from a point 50 feet directly above the intersection of the obstruction clearance plane and the runway. For the purposes of determining the allowable landing weight at the destination airport the following is assumed: (1) The airplane is landed on the most favorable runway and in the most favorable direction in still air. (2) The airplane is landed on the most suitable runway considering the probable wind velocity and direction (forecast for the expected time of arrival), the ground handling characteristics of the type of airplane, and other conditions such as landing aids and terrain, and allowing for the effect of the landing path and roll of not more than 50 percent of the headwind component or not less than 150 percent of the tailwind component. (b) An airplane that would be prohibited from being taken off because it could not meet paragraph (a)(2) of this section may be taken off if an alternate airport is selected that meets all of this section except that the airplane can accomplish a full stop landing within 70 percent of the effective length of the runway. § 135.377 Large transport category airplanes: Reciprocating engine powered: Landing limitations: Alternate airports. No person may list an airport as an alternate airport in a flight plan unless the airplane (at the weight anticipated at the time of arrival at the airport), based on the assumptions in § 135.375(a) (1) and (2), can be brought to a full stop landing within 70 percent of the effective length of the runway. § 135.379 Large transport category airplanes: Turbine engine powered: Takeoff limitations. (a) No person operating a turbine engine powered large transport category airplane may take off that airplane at a weight greater than that listed in the Airplane Flight Manual for the elevation of the airport and for the ambient temperature existing at take- off. (b) No person operating a turbine engine powered large transport category airplane certificated after August 26, 1957, but before August 30, 1959 (SR422, 422A), may take off that airplane at a weight greater than that listed in the Airplane Flight Manual for the minimum distance required for takeoff. In the case of an airplane certificated after September 30, 1958 (SR422A, 422B), the takeoff distance may include a clearway distance but the clearway distance included may not be greater than one-half of the takeoff run. (c) No person operating a turbine engine powered large transport category airplane certificated after August 29, 1959 (SR422B), may take off that airplane at a weight greater than that listed in the Airplane Flight Manual at which compliance with the following may be shown: (1) The accelerate-stop distance, as defined in § 25.109 of this chapter, must not exceed the length of the runway plus the length of any stopway. (2) The takeoff distance must not exceed the length of the runway plus the length of any clearway except that the length of any clearway included must not be greater than one-half the length of the runway. (3) The takeoff run must not be greater than the length of the runway. (d) No person operating a turbine engine powered large transport category airplane may take off that airplane at a weight greater than that listed in the Airplane Flight Manual— (1) For an airplane certificated after August 26, 1957, but before October 1, 1958 (SR422), that allows a takeoff path that clears all obstacles either by at least (35 + 0.01 D) feet vertically (D is the distance along the intended flight path from the end of the runway in feet), or by at least 200 feet horizontally within the airport boundaries and by at least 300 feet horizontally after passing the boundaries; or

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(2) For an airplane certificated after September 30, 1958 (SR422A, 422B), that allows a net takeoff flight path that clears all obstacles either by a height of at least 35 feet vertically, or by at least 200 feet horizontally within the airport boundaries and by at least 300 feet horizontally after passing the boundaries. (e) In determining maximum weights, minimum distances, and flight paths under paragraphs (a) through (d) of this section, correction must be made for the runway to be used, the elevation of the airport, the effective runway gradient, the ambient temperature and wind component at the time of takeoff, and, if operating limitations exist for the minimum distances required for takeoff from wet runways, the runway surface condition (dry or wet). Wet runway distances associated with grooved or porous friction course runways, if provided in the Airplane Flight Manual, may be used only for runways that are grooved or treated with a porous friction course (PFC) overlay, and that the operator determines are designed, constructed, and maintained in a manner acceptable to the Administrator. (f) For the purposes of this section, it is assumed that the airplane is not banked before reaching a height of 50 feet, as shown by the takeoff path or net takeoff flight path data (as appropriate) in the Airplane Flight Manual, and after that the maximum bank is not more than 15 degrees. (g) For the purposes of this section, the terms, takeoff distance, takeoff run, net takeoff flight path, have the same meanings as set forth in the rules under which the airplane was certificated. [Docket 16097, 43 FR 46783, Oct. 10, 1978, as amended by Amdt. 135-71, 63 FR 8321, Feb. 18, 1998] § 135.381 Large transport category airplanes: Turbine engine powered: En route limitations: One engine inoperative. (a) No person operating a turbine engine powered large transport category airplane may take off that airplane at a weight, allowing for normal consumption of fuel and oil, that is greater than that which (under the approved, one engine inoperative, en route net flight path data in the Airplane Flight Manual for that airplane) will allow compliance with paragraph (a) (1) or (2) of this section, based on the ambient temperatures expected en route. (1) There is a positive slope at an altitude of at least 1,000 feet above all terrain and obstructions within five statute miles on each side of the intended track, and, in addition, if that airplane was certificated after August 29, 1958 (SR422B), there is a positive slope at 1,500 feet above the airport where the airplane is assumed to land after an engine fails. (2) The net flight path allows the airplane to continue flight from the cruising altitude to an airport where a landing can be made under § 135.387 clearing all terrain and obstructions within five statute miles of the intended track by at least 2,000 feet vertically and with a positive slope at 1,000 feet above the airport where the airplane lands after an engine fails, or, if that airplane was certificated after September 30, 1958 (SR422A, 422B), with a positive slope at 1,500 feet above the airport where the airplane lands after an engine fails. (b) For the purpose of paragraph (a)(2) of this section, it is assumed that— (1) The engine fails at the most critical point en route; (2) The airplane passes over the critical obstruction, after engine failure at a point that is no closer to the obstruction than the approved navigation fix, unless the Administrator authorizes a different procedure based on adequate operational safeguards; (3) An approved method is used to allow for adverse winds; (4) Fuel jettisoning will be allowed if the certificate holder shows that the crew is properly instructed, that the training program is adequate, and that all other precautions are taken to ensure a safe procedure; (5) The alternate airport is selected and meets the prescribed weather minimums; and (6) The consumption of fuel and oil after engine failure is the same as the consumption that is allowed for in the approved net flight path data in the Airplane Flight Manual.

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[Docket 16097, 43 FR 46783, Oct. 10, 1978, as amended by Amdt. 135-110, 72 FR 31685, June 7, 2007] § 135.383 Large transport category airplanes: Turbine engine powered: En route limitations: Two engines inoperative. (a) Airplanes certificated after August 26, 1957, but before October 1, 1958 (SR422). No person may operate a turbine engine powered large transport category airplane along an intended route unless that person complies with either of the following: (1) There is no place along the intended track that is more than 90 minutes (with all engines operating at cruising power) from an airport that meets § 135.387. (2) Its weight, according to the two-engine-inoperative, en route, net flight path data in the Airplane Flight Manual, allows the airplane to fly from the point where the two engines are assumed to fail simultaneously to an airport that meets § 135.387, with a net flight path (considering the ambient temperature anticipated along the track) having a positive slope at an altitude of at least 1,000 feet above all terrain and obstructions within five statute miles on each side of the intended track, or at an altitude of 5,000 feet, whichever is higher. For the purposes of paragraph (a)(2) of this section, it is assumed that the two engines fail at the most critical point en route, that if fuel jettisoning is provided, the airplane's weight at the point where the engines fail includes enough fuel to continue to the airport and to arrive at an altitude of at least 1,000 feet directly over the airport, and that the fuel and oil consumption after engine failure is the same as the consumption allowed for in the net flight path data in the Airplane Flight Manual. (b) Airplanes certificated after September 30, 1958, but before August 30, 1959 (SR422A). No person may operate a turbine engine powered large transport category airplane along an intended route unless that person complies with either of the following: (1) There is no place along the intended track that is more than 90 minutes (with all engines operating at cruising power) from an airport that meets § 135.387. (2) Its weight, according to the two-engine-inoperative, en route, net flight path data in the Airplane Flight Manual allows the airplane to fly from the point where the two engines are assumed to fail simultaneously to an airport that meets § 135.387 with a net flight path (considering the ambient temperatures anticipated along the track) having a positive slope at an altitude of at least 1,000 feet above all terrain and obstructions within five statute miles on each side of the intended track, or at an altitude of 2,000 feet, whichever is higher. For the purpose of paragraph (b)(2) of this section, it is assumed that the two engines fail at the most critical point en route, that the airplane's weight at the point where the engines fail includes enough fuel to continue to the airport, to arrive at an altitude of at least 1,500 feet directly over the airport, and after that to fly for 15 minutes at cruise power or thrust, or both, and that the consumption of fuel and oil after engine failure is the same as the consumption allowed for in the net flight path data in the Airplane Flight Manual. (c) Aircraft certificated after August 29, 1959 (SR422B). No person may operate a turbine engine powered large transport category airplane along an intended route unless that person complies with either of the following: (1) There is no place along the intended track that is more than 90 minutes (with all engines operating at cruising power) from an airport that meets § 135.387. (2) Its weight, according to the two-engine-inoperative, en route, net flight path data in the Airplane Flight Manual, allows the airplane to fly from the point where the two engines are assumed to fail simultaneously to an airport that meets § 135.387, with the net flight path (considering the ambient temperatures anticipated along the track) clearing vertically by at least 2,000 feet all terrain and obstructions within five statute miles on each side of the intended track. For the purposes of this paragraph, it is assumed that—

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(i) The two engines fail at the most critical point en route; (ii) The net flight path has a positive slope at 1,500 feet above the airport where the landing is assumed to be made after the engines fail; (iii) Fuel jettisoning will be approved if the certificate holder shows that the crew is properly instructed, that the training program is adequate, and that all other precautions are taken to ensure a safe procedure; (iv) The airplane's weight at the point where the two engines are assumed to fail provides enough fuel to continue to the airport, to arrive at an altitude of at least 1,500 feet directly over the airport, and after that to fly for 15 minutes at cruise power or thrust, or both; and (v) The consumption of fuel and oil after the engines fail is the same as the consumption that is allowed for in the net flight path data in the Airplane Flight Manual. § 135.385 Large transport category airplanes: Turbine engine powered: Landing limitations: Destination airports. (a) No person operating a turbine engine powered large transport category airplane may take off that airplane at a weight that (allowing for normal consumption of fuel and oil in flight to the destination or alternate airport) the weight of the airplane on arrival would exceed the landing weight in the Airplane Flight Manual for the elevation of the destination or alternate airport and the ambient temperature anticipated at the time of landing. (b) Except as provided in paragraph (c), (d), (e), or (f) of this section, no person operating a turbine engine powered large transport category airplane may take off that airplane unless its weight on arrival, allowing for normal consumption of fuel and oil in flight (in accordance with the landing distance in the Airplane Flight Manual for the elevation of the destination airport and the wind conditions expected there at the time of landing), would allow a full stop landing at the intended destination airport within 60 percent of the effective length of each runway described below from a point 50 feet above the intersection of the obstruction clearance plane and the runway. For the purpose of determining the allowable landing weight at the destination airport the following is assumed: (1) The airplane is landed on the most favorable runway and in the most favorable direction, in still air. (2) The airplane is landed on the most suitable runway considering the probable wind velocity and direction and the ground handling characteristics of the airplane, and considering other conditions such as landing aids and terrain. (c) A turbopropeller powered airplane that would be prohibited from being taken off because it could not meet paragraph (b)(2) of this section, may be taken off if an alternate airport is selected that meets all of this section except that the airplane can accomplish a full stop landing within 70 percent of the effective length of the runway. (d) Unless, based on a showing of actual operating landing techniques on wet runways, a shorter landing distance (but never less than that required by paragraph (b) of this section) has been approved for a specific type and model airplane and included in the Airplane Flight Manual, no person may take off a turbojet airplane when the appropriate weather reports or forecasts, or any combination of them, indicate that the runways at the destination airport may be wet or slippery at the estimated time of arrival unless the effective runway length at the destination airport is at least 115 percent of the runway length required under paragraph (b) of this section. (e) A turbojet airplane that would be prohibited from being taken off because it could not meet paragraph (b)(2) of this section may be taken off if an alternate airport is selected that meets all of paragraph (b) of this section. (f) An eligible on-demand operator may take off a turbine engine powered large transport category airplane on an on-demand flight if all of the following conditions exist: (1) The operation is permitted by an approved Destination Airport Analysis in that person's operations manual.

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(2) The airplane's weight on arrival, allowing for normal consumption of fuel and oil in flight (in accordance with the landing distance in the Airplane Flight Manual for the elevation of the destination airport and the wind conditions expected there at the time of landing), would allow a full stop landing at the intended destination airport within 80 percent of the effective length of each runway described below from a point 50 feet above the intersection of the obstruction clearance plane and the runway. For the purpose of determining the allowable landing weight at the destination airport, the following is assumed: (i) The airplane is landed on the most favorable runway and in the most favorable direction, in still air. (ii) The airplane is landed on the most suitable runway considering the probable wind velocity and direction and the ground handling characteristics of the airplane, and considering other conditions such as landing aids and terrain. (3) The operation is authorized by operations specifications. [Docket 16097, 43 FR 46783, Oct. 10, 1978, as amended by Amdt. 135-91, 68 FR 54588, Sept. 17, 2003] § 135.387 Large transport category airplanes: Turbine engine powered: Landing limitations: Alternate airports. (a) Except as provided in paragraph (b) of this section, no person may select an airport as an alternate airport for a turbine engine powered large transport category airplane unless (based on the assumptions in § 135.385(b)) that airplane, at the weight expected at the time of arrival, can be brought to a full stop landing within 70 percent of the effective length of the runway for turbo-propeller-powered airplanes and 60 percent of the effective length of the runway for turbojet airplanes, from a point 50 feet above the intersection of the obstruction clearance plane and the runway. (b) Eligible on-demand operators may select an airport as an alternate airport for a turbine engine powered large transport category airplane if (based on the assumptions in § 135.385(f)) that airplane, at the weight expected at the time of arrival, can be brought to a full stop landing within 80 percent of the effective length of the runway from a point 50 feet above the intersection of the obstruction clearance plane and the runway. [Docket FAA-2001-10047, 68 FR 54588, Sept. 17, 2003] § 135.389 Large nontransport category airplanes: Takeoff limitations. (a) No person operating a large nontransport category airplane may take off that airplane at a weight greater than the weight that would allow the airplane to be brought to a safe stop within the effective length of the runway, from any point during the takeoff before reaching 105 percent of minimum control speed (the minimum speed at which an airplane can be safely controlled in flight after an engine becomes inoperative) or 115 percent of the power off stalling speed in the takeoff configuration, whichever is greater. (b) For the purposes of this section— (1) It may be assumed that takeoff power is used on all engines during the acceleration; (2) Not more than 50 percent of the reported headwind component, or not less than 150 percent of the reported tailwind component, may be taken into account; (3) The average runway gradient (the difference between the elevations of the endpoints of the runway divided by the total length) must be considered if it is more than one-half of one percent; (4) It is assumed that the airplane is operating in standard atmosphere; and (5) For takeoff, effective length of the runway means the distance from the end of the runway at which the takeoff is started to a point at which the obstruction clearance plane associated with the other end of the runway intersects the runway centerline. § 135.391 Large nontransport category airplanes: En route limitations: One engine inoperative. (a) Except as provided in paragraph (b) of this section, no person operating a large nontransport category airplane may take off that airplane at a weight that does not allow a rate of climb of at least 50 feet a minute, with the critical engine inoperative, at an altitude of at least 1,000 feet above the highest obstruction within five miles on each side of the intended track, or 5,000 feet, whichever is higher.

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(b) Without regard to paragraph (a) of this section, if the Administrator finds that safe operations are not impaired, a person may operate the airplane at an altitude that allows the airplane, in case of engine failure, to clear all obstructions within five miles on each side of the intended track by 1,000 feet. If this procedure is used, the rate of descent for the appropriate weight and altitude is assumed to be 50 feet a minute greater than the rate in the approved performance data. Before approving such a procedure, the Administrator considers the following for the route, route segement, or area concerned: (1) The reliability of wind and weather forecasting. (2) The location and kinds of navigation aids. (3) The prevailing weather conditions, particularly the frequency and amount of turbulence normally encountered. (4) Terrain features. (5) Air traffic problems. (6) Any other operational factors that affect the operations. (c) For the purposes of this section, it is assumed that— (1) The critical engine is inoperative; (2) The propeller of the inoperative engine is in the minimum drag position; (3) The wing flaps and landing gear are in the most favorable position; (4) The operating engines are operating at the maximum continuous power available; (5) The airplane is operating in standard atmosphere; and (6) The weight of the airplane is progressively reduced by the anticipated consumption of fuel and oil. § 135.393 Large nontransport category airplanes: Landing limitations: Destination airports. (a) No person operating a large nontransport category airplane may take off that airplane at a weight that— (1) Allowing for anticipated consumption of fuel and oil, is greater than the weight that would allow a full stop landing within 60 percent of the effective length of the most suitable runway at the destination airport; and (2) Is greater than the weight allowable if the landing is to be made on the runway— (i) With the greatest effective length in still air; and (ii) Required by the probable wind, taking into account not more than 50 percent of the headwind component or not less than 150 percent of the tailwind component. (b) For the purpose of this section, it is assumed that— (1) The airplane passes directly over the intersection of the obstruction clearance plane and the runway at a height of 50 feet in a steady gliding approach at a true indicated airspeed of at least 1.3 V so ; (2) The landing does not require exceptional pilot skill; and (3) The airplane is operating in standard atmosphere. § 135.395 Large nontransport category airplanes: Landing limitations: Alternate airports. No person may select an airport as an alternate airport for a large nontransport category airplane unless that airplane (at the weight anticipated at the time of arrival), based on the assumptions in § 135.393(b), can be brought to a full stop landing within 70 percent of the effective length of the runway. § 135.397 Small transport category airplane performance operating limitations. (a) No person may operate a reciprocating engine powered small transport category airplane unless that person complies with the weight limitations in § 135.365, the takeoff limitations in § 135.367 (except paragraph (a)(3)), and the landing limitations in §§ 135.375 and 135.377. (b) No person may operate a turbine engine powered small transport category airplane unless that person complies with the takeoff limitations in § 135.379 (except paragraphs (d) and (f)) and the landing limitations in §§ 135.385 and 135.387.

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§ 135.398 Commuter category airplanes performance operating limitations. (a) No person may operate a commuter category airplane unless that person complies with the takeoff weight limitations in the approved Airplane Flight Manual. (b) No person may take off an airplane type certificated in the commuter category at a weight greater than that listed in the Airplane Flight Manual that allows a net takeoff flight path that clears all obstacles either by a height of at least 35 feet vertically, or at least 200 feet horizontally within the airport boundaries and by at least 300 feet horizontally after passing the boundaries. (c) No person may operate a commuter category airplane unless that person complies with the landing limitations prescribed in §§ 135.385 and 135.387 of this part. For purposes of this paragraph, §§ 135.385 and 135.387 are applicable to all commuter category airplanes notwithstanding their stated applicability to turbine-engine-powered large transport category airplanes. (d) In determining maximum weights, minimum distances and flight paths under paragraphs (a) through (c) of this section, correction must be made for the runway to be used, the elevation of the airport, the effective runway gradient, and ambient temperature, and wind component at the time of takeoff. (e) For the purposes of this section, the assumption is that the airplane is not banked before reaching a height of 50 feet as shown by the net takeoff flight path data in the Airplane Flight Manual and thereafter the maximum bank is not more than 15 degrees. [Docket 23516, 52 FR 1836, Jan. 15, 1987] § 135.399 Small nontransport category airplane performance operating limitations. (a) No person may operate a reciprocating engine or turbopropeller-powered small airplane that is certificated under § 135.169(b) (2), (3), (4), (5), or (6) unless that person complies with the takeoff weight limitations in the approved Airplane Flight Manual or equivalent for operations under this part, and, if the airplane is certificated under § 135.169(b) (4) or (5) with the landing weight limitations in the Approved Airplane Flight Manual or equivalent for operations under this part. (b) No person may operate an airplane that is certificated under § 135.169(b)(6) unless that person complies with the landing limitations prescribed in §§ 135.385 and 135.387 of this part. For purposes of this paragraph, §§ 135.385 and 135.387 are applicable to reciprocating and turbopropeller-powered small airplanes notwithstanding their stated applicability to turbine engine powered large transport category airplanes. [44 FR 53731, Sept. 17, 1979] Subpart J—Maintenance, Preventive Maintenance, and Alterations § 135.411 Applicability. (a) This subpart prescribes rules in addition to those in other parts of this chapter for the maintenance, preventive maintenance, and alterations for each certificate holder as follows: (1) Aircraft that are type certificated for a passenger seating configuration, excluding any pilot seat, of nine seats or less, shall be maintained under parts 91 and 43 of this chapter and §§ 135.415, 135.417, 135.421 and 135.422. An approved aircraft inspection program may be used under § 135.419. (2) Aircraft that are type certificated for a passenger seating configuration, excluding any pilot seat, of ten seats or more, shall be maintained under a maintenance program in §§ 135.415, 135.417, 135.423 through 135.443. (b) A certificate holder who is not otherwise required, may elect to maintain its aircraft under paragraph (a)(2) of this section. (c) Single engine aircraft used in passenger-carrying IFR operations shall also be maintained in accordance with § 135.421 (c), (d), and (e). (d) A certificate holder who elects to operate in accordance with § 135.364 must maintain its aircraft under paragraph (a)(2) of this section and the additional requirements of Appendix G of this part.

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[Docket 16097, 43 FR 46783, Oct. 10, 1978, as amended by Amdt. 135-70, 62 FR 42374, Aug. 6, 1997; Amdt. 135-78, 65 FR 60556, Oct. 11, 2000; Amdt. 135-92, 68 FR 69308, Dec. 12, 2003; Amdt. 135-81, 70 FR 5533, Feb. 2, 2005; Amdt. 135-108, 72 FR 1885, Jan. 16, 2007; 72 FR 53114, Sept. 18, 2007] § 135.413 Responsibility for airworthiness. (a) Each certificate holder is primarily responsible for the airworthiness of its aircraft, including airframes, aircraft engines, propellers, rotors, appliances, and parts, and shall have its aircraft maintained under this chapter, and shall have defects repaired between required maintenance under part 43 of this chapter. (b) Each certificate holder who maintains its aircraft under § 135.411(a)(2) shall— (1) Perform the maintenance, preventive maintenance, and alteration of its aircraft, including airframe, aircraft engines, propellers, rotors, appliances, emergency equipment and parts, under its manual and this chapter; or (2) Make arrangements with another person for the performance of maintenance, preventive maintenance, or alteration. However, the certificate holder shall ensure that any maintenance, preventive maintenance, or alteration that is performed by another person is performed under the certificate holder's manual and this chapter. § 135.415 Service difficulty reports. (a) Each certificate holder shall report the occurrence or detection of each failure, malfunction, or defect in an aircraft concerning— (1) Fires during flight and whether the related fire-warning system functioned properly; (2) Fires during flight not protected by related fire-warning system; (3) False fire-warning during flight; (4) An exhaust system that causes damage during flight to the engine, adjacent structure, equipment, or components; (5) An aircraft component that causes accumulation or circulation of smoke, vapor, or toxic or noxious fumes in the crew compartment or passenger cabin during flight; (6) Engine shutdown during flight because of flameout; (7) Engine shutdown during flight when external damage to the engine or aircraft structure occurs; (8) Engine shutdown during flight due to foreign object ingestion or icing; (9) Shutdown of more than one engine during flight; (10) A propeller feathering system or ability of the system to control overspeed during flight; (11) A fuel or fuel-dumping system that affects fuel flow or causes hazardous leakage during flight; (12) An unwanted landing gear extension or retraction or opening or closing of landing gear doors during flight; (13) Brake system components that result in loss of brake actuating force when the aircraft is in motion on the ground; (14) Aircraft structure that requires major repair; (15) Cracks, permanent deformation, or corrosion of aircraft structures, if more than the maximum acceptable to the manufacturer or the FAA; and (16) Aircraft components or systems that result in taking emergency actions during flight (except action to shut-down an engine). (b) For the purpose of this section, during flight means the period from the moment the aircraft leaves the surface of the earth on takeoff until it touches down on landing. (c) In addition to the reports required by paragraph (a) of this section, each certificate holder shall report any other failure, malfunction, or defect in an aircraft that occurs or is detected at any time if, in its opinion, the failure, malfunction, or defect has endangered or may endanger the safe operation of the aircraft. (d) Each certificate holder shall submit each report required by this section, covering each 24-hour period beginning at 0900 local time of each day and ending at 0900 local time on the next day, to the FAA offices in Oklahoma City, Oklahoma. Each report of occurrences during a 24-hour period shall be submitted to the collection point within the next 96 hours. However, a report due on Saturday or Sunday may be submitted on the following Monday, and a report due on a holiday may be submitted on the next workday.

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(e) The certificate holder shall transmit the reports required by this section on a form and in a manner prescribed by the Administrator, and shall include as much of the following as is available: (1) The type and identification number of the aircraft. (2) The name of the operator. (3) The date. (4) The nature of the failure, malfunction, or defect. (5) Identification of the part and system involved, including available information pertaining to type designation of the major component and time since last overhaul, if known. (6) Apparent cause of the failure, malfunction or defect (e.g., wear, crack, design deficiency, or personnel error). (7) Other pertinent information necessary for more complete identification, determination of seriousness, or corrective action. (f) A certificate holder that is also the holder of a type certificate (including a supplemental type certificate), a Parts Manufacturer Approval, or a Technical Standard Order Authorization, or that is the licensee of a type certificate need not report a failure, malfunction, or defect under this section if the failure, malfunction, or defect has been reported by it under § 21.3 or § 37.17 of this chapter or under the accident reporting provisions of 49 CFR part 830 of the regulations of the National Transportation Safety Board. (g) No person may withhold a report required by this section even though all information required by this section is not available. (h) When the certificate holder gets additional information, including information from the manufacturer or other agency, concerning a report required by this section, it shall expeditiously submit it as a supplement to the first report and reference the date and place of submission of the first report. [Docket 16097, 43 FR 46783, Oct. 10, 1978, as amended by Amdt. 135-102, 70 FR 76979, Dec. 29, 2005; Docket FAA-2022-1355, Amdt. 135-143, 87 FR 75848, Dec. 9, 2022] § 135.417 Mechanical interruption summary report. Each certificate holder shall mail or deliver, before the end of the 10th day of the following month, a summary report of the following occurrences in multiengine aircraft for the preceding month to the responsible Flight Standards office: (a) Each interruption to a flight, unscheduled change of aircraft en route, or unscheduled stop or diversion from a route, caused by known or suspected mechanical difficulties or malfunctions that are not required to be reported under § 135.415. (b) The number of propeller featherings in flight, listed by type of propeller and engine and aircraft on which it was installed. Propeller featherings for training, demonstration, or flight check purposes need not be reported. [Docket 16097, 43 FR 46783, Oct. 10, 1978, as amended by Amdt. 135-60, 61 FR 2616, Jan. 26, 1996; Docket FAA-2018-0119, Amdt. 135-139, 83 FR 9175, Mar. 5, 2018] § 135.419 Approved aircraft inspection program. (a) Whenever the Administrator finds that the aircraft inspections required or allowed under part 91 of this chapter are not adequate to meet this part, or upon application by a certificate holder, the Administrator may amend the certificate holder's operations specifications under § 119.51, to require or allow an approved aircraft inspection program for any make and model aircraft of which the certificate holder has the exclusive use of at least one aircraft (as defined in § 135.25(b)). (b) A certificate holder who applies for an amendment of its operations specifications to allow an approved aircraft inspection program must submit that program with its application for approval by the Administrator. (c) Each certificate holder who is required by its operations specifications to have an approved aircraft inspection program shall submit a program for approval by the Administrator within 30 days of the amendment of its operations specifications or within any other period that the Administrator may prescribe in the operations specifications.

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(d) The aircraft inspection program submitted for approval by the Administrator must contain the following: (1) Instructions and procedures for the conduct of aircraft inspections (which must include necessary tests and checks), setting forth in detail the parts and areas of the airframe, engines, propellers, rotors, and appliances, including emergency equipment, that must be inspected. (2) A schedule for the performance of the aircraft inspections under paragraph (d)(1) of this section expressed in terms of the time in service, calendar time, number of system operations, or any combination of these. (3) Instructions and procedures for recording discrepancies found during inspections and correction or deferral of discrepancies including form and disposition of records. (e) After approval, the certificate holder shall include the approved aircraft inspection program in the manual required by § 135.21. (f) Whenever the Administrator finds that revisions to an approved aircraft inspection program are necessary for the continued adequacy of the program, the certificate holder shall, after notification by the Administrator, make any changes in the program found by the Administrator to be necessary. The certificate holder may petition the Administrator to reconsider the notice to make any changes in a program. The petition must be filed with the representatives of the Administrator assigned to it within 30 days after the certificate holder receives the notice. Except in the case of an emergency requiring immediate action in the interest of safety, the filing of the petition stays the notice pending a decision by the Administrator. (g) Each certificate holder who has an approved aircraft inspection program shall have each aircraft that is subject to the program inspected in accordance with the program. (h) The registration number of each aircraft that is subject to an approved aircraft inspection program must be included in the operations specifications of the certificate holder. [Docket 16097, 43 FR 46783, Oct. 10, 1978, as amended by Amdt. 135-104, 71 FR 536, Jan. 4, 2006] § 135.421 Additional maintenance requirements. (a) Each certificate holder who operates an aircraft type certificated for a passenger seating configuration, excluding any pilot seat, of nine seats or less, must comply with the manufacturer's recommended maintenance programs, or a program approved by the Administrator, for each aircraft engine, propeller, rotor, and each item of emergency equipment required by this chapter. (b) For the purpose of this section, a manufacturer's maintenance program is one which is contained in the maintenance manual or maintenance instructions set forth by the manufacturer as required by this chapter for the aircraft, aircraft engine, propeller, rotor or item of emergency equipment. (c) For each single engine aircraft to be used in passenger-carrying IFR operations, each certificate holder must incorporate into its maintenance program either: (1) The manufacturer's recommended engine trend monitoring program, which includes an oil analysis, if appropriate, or (2) An FAA approved engine trend monitoring program that includes an oil analysis at each 100 hour interval or at the manufacturer's suggested interval, whichever is more frequent. (d) For single engine aircraft to be used in passenger-carrying IFR operations, written maintenance instructions containing the methods, techniques, and practices necessary to maintain the equipment specified in §§ 135.105, and 135.163 (f) and (h) are required. (e) No certificate holder may operate a single engine aircraft under IFR, carrying passengers, unless the certificate holder records and maintains in the engine maintenance records the results of each test, observation, and inspection required by the applicable engine trend monitoring program specified in (c) (1) and (2) of this section.

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[Docket 16097, 43 FR 46783, Oct. 10, 1978, as amended by Amdt. 135-70, 62 FR 42374, Aug. 6, 1997] § 135.422 Aging airplane inspections and records reviews for multiengine airplanes certificated with nine or fewer passenger seats. (a) Applicability. This section applies to multiengine airplanes certificated with nine or fewer passenger seats, operated by a certificate holder in a scheduled operation under this part, except for those airplanes operated by a certificate holder in a scheduled operation between any point within the State of Alaska and any other point within the State of Alaska. (b) Operation after inspections and records review. After the dates specified in this paragraph, a certificate holder may not operate a multiengine airplane in a scheduled operation under this part unless the Administrator has notified the certificate holder that the Administrator has completed the aging airplane inspection and records review required by this section. During the inspection and records review, the certificate holder must demonstrate to the Administrator that the maintenance of age-sensitive parts and components of the airplane has been adequate and timely enough to ensure the highest degree of safety. (1) Airplanes exceeding 24 years in service on December 8, 2003; initial and repetitive inspections and records reviews. For an airplane that has exceeded 24 years in service on December 8, 2003, no later than December 5, 2007, and thereafter at intervals not to exceed 7 years. (2) Airplanes exceeding 14 years in service but not 24 years in service on December 8, 2003; initial and repetitive inspections and records reviews. For an airplane that has exceeded 14 years in service, but not 24 years in service, on December 8, 2003, no later than December 4, 2008, and thereafter at intervals not to exceed 7 years. (3) Airplanes not exceeding 14 years in service on December 8, 2003; initial and repetitive inspections and records reviews. For an airplane that has not exceeded 14 years in service on December 8, 2003, no later than 5 years after the start of the airplane's 15th year in service and thereafter at intervals not to exceed 7 years. (c) Unforeseen schedule conflict. In the event of an unforeseen scheduling conflict for a specific airplane, the Administrator may approve an extension of up to 90 days beyond an interval specified in paragraph (b) of this section. (d) Airplane and records availability. The certificate holder must make available to the Administrator each airplane for which an inspection and records review is required under this section, in a condition for inspection specified by the Administrator, together with the records containing the following information: (1) Total years in service of the airplane; (2) Total time in service of the airframe; (3) Date of the last inspection and records review required by this section; (4) Current status of life-limited parts of the airframe; (5) Time since the last overhaul of all structural components required to be overhauled on a specific time basis; (6) Current inspection status of the airplane, including the time since the last inspection required by the inspection program under which the airplane is maintained; (7) Current status of applicable airworthiness directives, including the date and methods of compliance, and, if the airworthiness directive involves recurring action, the time and date when the next action is required; (8) A list of major structural alterations; and (9) A report of major structural repairs and the current inspection status for these repairs. (e) Notification to the Administrator. Each certificate holder must notify the Administrator at least 60 days before the date on which the airplane and airplane records will be made available for the inspection and records review. [Docket FAA-1999-5401, 70 FR 5533, Feb. 2, 2005] § 135.423 Maintenance, preventive maintenance, and alteration organization. (a) Each certificate holder that performs any of its maintenance (other than required inspections), preventive maintenance, or alterations, and each person with whom it arranges for the performance of that work, must have an organization adequate to perform the work.

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(b) Each certificate holder that performs any inspections required by its manual under § 135.427(b) (2) or (3), (in this subpart referred to as required inspections ), and each person with whom it arranges for the performance of that work, must have an organization adequate to perform that work. (c) Each person performing required inspections in addition to other maintenance, preventive maintenance, or alterations, shall organize the performance of those functions so as to separate the required inspection functions from the other maintenance, preventive maintenance, and alteration functions. The separation shall be below the level of administrative control at which overall responsibility for the required inspection functions and other maintenance, preventive maintenance, and alteration functions is exercised. [Docket 16097, 43 FR 46783, Oct. 10, 1978. Redesignated by Amdt. 135-81, 67 FR 72765, Dec. 6, 2002. Redesignated by Amdt. 135-81, 70 FR 5533, Feb. 2, 2005] § 135.425 Maintenance, preventive maintenance, and alteration programs. Each certificate holder shall have an inspection program and a program covering other maintenance, preventive maintenance, and alterations, that ensures that— (a) Maintenance, preventive maintenance, and alterations performed by it, or by other persons, are performed under the certificate holder's manual; (b) Competent personnel and adequate facilities and equipment are provided for the proper performance of maintenance, preventive maintenance, and alterations; and (c) Each aircraft released to service is airworthy and has been properly maintained for operation under this part. § 135.426 Contract maintenance. (a) A certificate holder may arrange with another person for the performance of maintenance, preventive maintenance, and alterations as authorized in § 135.437(a) only if the certificate holder has met all the requirements in this section. For purposes of this section— (1) A maintenance provider is any person who performs maintenance, preventive maintenance, or an alteration for a certificate holder other than a person who is trained by and employed directly by that certificate holder. (2) Covered work means any of the following: (i) Essential maintenance that could result in a failure, malfunction, or defect endangering the safe operation of an aircraft if not performed properly or if improper parts or materials are used; (ii) Regularly scheduled maintenance; or (iii) A required inspection item on an aircraft. (3) Directly in charge means having responsibility for covered work performed by a maintenance provider. A representative of the certificate holder directly in charge of covered work does not need to physically observe and direct each maintenance provider constantly, but must be available for consultation on matters requiring instruction or decision. (b) Each certificate holder must be directly in charge of all covered work done for it by a maintenance provider. (c) Each maintenance provider must perform all covered work in accordance with the certificate holder's maintenance manual. (d) No maintenance provider may perform covered work unless that work is carried out under the supervision and control of the certificate holder. (e) Each certificate holder who contracts for maintenance, preventive maintenance, or alterations must develop and implement policies, procedures, methods, and instructions for the accomplishment of all contracted maintenance, preventive maintenance, and alterations. These policies, procedures, methods, and instructions must provide for the maintenance, preventive maintenance, and alterations to be performed in accordance with the certificate holder's maintenance program and maintenance manual. (f) Each certificate holder who contracts for maintenance, preventive maintenance, or alterations must ensure that its system for the continuing analysis and surveillance of the maintenance, preventive maintenance, and alterations carried out by a maintenance provider, as required by § 135.431(a), contains procedures for oversight of all contracted covered work.

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(g) The policies, procedures, methods, and instructions required by paragraphs (e) and (f) of this section must be acceptable to the FAA and included in the certificate holder's maintenance manual, as required by § 135.427(b)(10). (h) Each certificate holder who contracts for maintenance, preventive maintenance, or alterations must provide to its responsible Flight Standards office, in a format acceptable to the FAA, a list that includes the name and physical (street) address, or addresses, where the work is carried out for each maintenance provider that performs work for the certificate holder, and a description of the type of maintenance, preventive maintenance, or alteration that is to be performed at each location. The list must be updated with any changes, including additions or deletions, and the updated list provided to the FAA in a format acceptable to the FAA by the last day of each calendar month. [Docket FAA-2011-1136, Amdt. 135-132, 80 FR 11547, Mar. 4, 2015, as amended by Docket FAA-2018-0119, Amdt. 135-139, 83 FR 9175, Mar. 5, 2018] § 135.427 Manual requirements. (a) Each certificate holder shall put in its manual the chart or description of the certificate holder's organization required by § 135.423 and a list of persons with whom it has arranged for the performance of any of its required inspections, other maintenance, preventive maintenance, or alterations, including a general description of that work. (b) Each certificate holder shall put in its manual the programs required by § 135.425 that must be followed in performing maintenance, preventive maintenance, and alterations of that certificate holder's aircraft, including airframes, aircraft engines, propellers, rotors, appliances, emergency equipment, and parts, and must include at least the following: (1) The method of performing routine and nonroutine maintenance (other than required inspections), preventive maintenance, and alterations. (2) A designation of the items of maintenance and alteration that must be inspected (required inspections) including at least those that could result in a failure, malfunction, or defect endangering the safe operation of the aircraft, if not performed properly or if improper parts or materials are used. (3) The method of performing required inspections and a designation by occupational title of personnel authorized to perform each required inspection. (4) Procedures for the reinspection of work performed under previous required inspection findings ( buy-back procedures ). (5) Procedures, standards, and limits necessary for required inspections and acceptance or rejection of the items required to be inspected and for periodic inspection and calibration of precision tools, measuring devices, and test equipment. (6) Procedures to ensure that all required inspections are performed. (7) Instructions to prevent any person who performs any item of work from performing any required inspection of that work. (8) Instructions and procedures to prevent any decision of an inspector regarding any required inspection from being countermanded by persons other than supervisory personnel of the inspection unit, or a person at the level of administrative control that has overall responsibility for the management of both the required inspection functions and the other maintenance, preventive maintenance, and alterations functions. (9) Procedures to ensure that required inspections, other maintenance, preventive maintenance, and alterations that are not completed as a result of work interruptions are properly completed before the aircraft is released to service. (10) Policies, procedures, methods, and instructions for the accomplishment of all maintenance, preventive maintenance, and alterations carried out by a maintenance provider. These policies, procedures, methods, and instructions must be acceptable to the FAA and ensure that, when followed by the maintenance provider, the maintenance, preventive maintenance, and alterations are performed in accordance with the certificate holder's maintenance program and maintenance manual.

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(c) Each certificate holder shall put in its manual a suitable system (which may include a coded system) that provides for the retention of the following information— (1) A description (or reference to data acceptable to the Administrator) of the work performed; (2) The name of the person performing the work if the work is performed by a person outside the organization of the certificate holder; and (3) The name or other positive identification of the individual approving the work. (d) For the purposes of this part, the certificate holder must prepare that part of its manual containing maintenance information and instructions, in whole or in part, in printed form or other form, acceptable to the Administrator, that is retrievable in the English language. [Docket 16097, 43 FR 46783, Oct. 10, 1978, as amended by Amdt. 135-66, 62 FR 13257, Mar. 19, 1997; 69 FR 18472, Apr. 8, 2004; Amdt. 135-118, 74 FR 38522, Aug. 4, 2009; Docket FAA-2011-1136, Amdt. 135-132, 80 FR 11547, Mar. 4, 2015] § 135.429 Required inspection personnel. (a) No person may use any person to perform required inspections unless the person performing the inspection is appropriately certificated, properly trained, qualified, and authorized to do so. (b) No person may allow any person to perform a required inspection unless, at the time, the person performing that inspection is under the supervision and control of an inspection unit. (c) No person may perform a required inspection if that person performed the item of work required to be inspected. (d) In the case of rotorcraft that operate in remote areas or sites, the Administrator may approve procedures for the performance of required inspection items by a pilot when no other qualified person is available, provided— (1) The pilot is employed by the certificate holder; (2) It can be shown to the satisfaction of the Administrator that each pilot authorized to perform required inspections is properly trained and qualified; (3) The required inspection is a result of a mechanical interruption and is not a part of a certificate holder's continuous airworthiness maintenance program; (4) Each item is inspected after each flight until the item has been inspected by an appropriately certificated mechanic other than the one who originally performed the item of work; and (5) Each item of work that is a required inspection item that is part of the flight control system shall be flight tested and reinspected before the aircraft is approved for return to service. (e) Each certificate holder shall maintain, or shall determine that each person with whom it arranges to perform its required inspections maintains, a current listing of persons who have been trained, qualified, and authorized to conduct required inspections. The persons must be identified by name, occupational title and the inspections that they are authorized to perform. The certificate holder (or person with whom it arranges to perform its required inspections) shall give written information to each person so authorized, describing the extent of that person's responsibilities, authorities, and inspectional limitations. The list shall be made available for inspection by the Administrator upon request. [Docket 16097, 43 FR 46783, Oct. 10, 1978, as amended by Amdt. 135-20, 51 FR 40710, Nov. 7, 1986] § 135.431 Continuing analysis and surveillance. (a) Each certificate holder shall establish and maintain a system for the continuing analysis and surveillance of the performance and effectiveness of its inspection program and the program covering other maintenance, preventive maintenance, and alterations and for the correction of any deficiency in those programs, regardless of whether those programs are carried out by the certificate holder or by another person.

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(b) Whenever the Administrator finds that either or both of the programs described in paragraph (a) of this section does not contain adequate procedures and standards to meet this part, the certificate holder shall, after notification by the Administrator, make changes in those programs requested by the Administrator. (c) A certificate holder may petition the Administrator to reconsider the notice to make a change in a program. The petition must be filed with the responsible Flight Standards office within 30 days after the certificate holder receives the notice. Except in the case of an emergency requiring immediate action in the interest of safety, the filing of the petition stays the notice pending a decision by the Administrator. [Docket 16097, 43 FR 46783, Oct. 10, 1978, as amended by Amdt. 135-60, 61 FR 2617, Jan. 26, 1996; Docket FAA-2018-0119, Amdt. 135-139, 83 FR 9175, Mar. 5, 2018] § 135.433 Maintenance and preventive maintenance training program. Each certificate holder or a person performing maintenance or preventive maintenance functions for it shall have a training program to ensure that each person (including inspection personnel) who determines the adequacy of work done is fully informed about procedures and techniques and new equipment in use and is competent to perform that person's duties. § 135.435 Certificate requirements. (a) Except for maintenance, preventive maintenance, alterations, and required inspections performed by a certificated repair station that is located outside the United States, each person who is directly in charge of maintenance, preventive maintenance, or alterations, and each person performing required inspections must hold an appropriate airman certificate. (b) For the purpose of this section, a person directly in charge is each person assigned to a position in which that person is responsible for the work of a shop or station that performs maintenance, preventive maintenance, alterations, or other functions affecting airworthiness. A person who is directly in charge need not physically observe and direct each worker constantly but must be available for consultation and decision on matters requiring instruction or decision from higher authority than that of the person performing the work. [Docket 16097, 43 FR 46783, Oct. 10, 1978, as amended by Amdt. 135-82, 66 FR 41117, Aug. 6, 2001] § 135.437 Authority to perform and approve maintenance, preventive maintenance, and alterations. (a) A certificate holder may perform or make arrangements with other persons to perform maintenance, preventive maintenance, and alterations as provided in its maintenance manual. In addition, a certificate holder may perform these functions for another certificate holder as provided in the maintenance manual of the other certificate holder. (b) A certificate holder may approve any airframe, aircraft engine, propeller, rotor, or appliance for return to service after maintenance, preventive maintenance, or alterations that are performed under paragraph (a) of this section. However, in the case of a major repair or alteration, the work must have been done in accordance with technical data approved by the Administrator. § 135.439 Maintenance recording requirements. (a) Each certificate holder shall keep (using the system specified in the manual required in § 135.427) the following records for the periods specified in paragraph (b) of this section: (1) All the records necessary to show that all requirements for the issuance of an airworthiness release under § 135.443 have been met. (2) Records containing the following information: (i) The total time in service of the airframe, engine, propeller, and rotor. (ii) The current status of life-limited parts of each airframe, engine, propeller, rotor, and appliance.

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(iii) The time since last overhaul of each item installed on the aircraft which are required to be overhauled on a specified time basis. (iv) The identification of the current inspection status of the aircraft, including the time since the last inspections required by the inspection program under which the aircraft and its appliances are maintained. (v) The current status of applicable airworthiness directives, including the date and methods of compliance, and, if the airworthiness directive involves recurring action, the time and date when the next action is required. (vi) A list of current major alterations and repairs to each airframe, engine, propeller, rotor, and appliance. (b) Each certificate holder shall retain the records required to be kept by this section for the following periods: (1) Except for the records of the last complete overhaul of each airframe, engine, propeller, rotor, and appliance the records specified in paragraph (a)(1) of this section shall be retained until the work is repeated or superseded by other work or for one year after the work is performed. (2) The records of the last complete overhaul of each airframe, engine, propeller, rotor, and appliance shall be retained until the work is superseded by work of equivalent scope and detail. (3) The records specified in paragraph (a)(2) of this section shall be retained and transferred with the aircraft at the time the aircraft is sold. (c) The certificate holder shall make all maintenance records required to be kept by this section available for inspection by the Administrator or any representative of the National Transportation Safety Board. [Docket 16097, 43 FR 46783, Oct. 10, 1978; 43 FR 49975, Oct. 26, 1978] § 135.441 Transfer of maintenance records. Each certificate holder who sells a United States registered aircraft shall transfer to the purchaser, at the time of the sale, the following records of that aircraft, in plain language form or in coded form which provides for the preservation and retrieval of information in a manner acceptable to the Administrator: (a) The records specified in § 135.439(a)(2). (b) The records specified in § 135.439(a)(1) which are not included in the records covered by paragraph (a) of this section, except that the purchaser may allow the seller to keep physical custody of such records. However, custody of records by the seller does not relieve the purchaser of its responsibility under § 135.439(c) to make the records available for inspection by the Administrator or any representative of the National Transportation Safety Board. § 135.443 Airworthiness release or aircraft maintenance log entry. (a) No certificate holder may operate an aircraft after maintenance, preventive maintenance, or alterations are performed on the aircraft unless the certificate holder prepares, or causes the person with whom the certificate holder arranges for the performance of the maintenance, preventive maintenance, or alterations, to prepare— (1) An airworthiness release; or (2) An appropriate entry in the aircraft maintenance log. (b) The airworthiness release or log entry required by paragraph (a) of this section must— (1) Be prepared in accordance with the procedure in the certificate holder's manual; (2) Include a certification that— (i) The work was performed in accordance with the requirements of the certificate holder's manual; (ii) All items required to be inspected were inspected by an authorized person who determined that the work was satisfactorily completed; (iii) No known condition exists that would make the aircraft unairworthy; and (iv) So far as the work performed is concerned, the aircraft is in condition for safe operation; and (3) Be signed by an authorized certificated mechanic or repairman, except that a certificated repairman may sign the release or entry only for the work for which that person is employed and for which that person is certificated. (c) Notwithstanding paragraph (b)(3) of this section, after maintenance, preventive maintenance, or alterations performed by a repair station located outside the United States , the airworthiness release or log entry required by paragraph (a) of this section may be signed by a person authorized by that repair station.

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(d) Instead of restating each of the conditions of the certification required by paragraph (b) of this section, the certificate holder may state in its manual that the signature of an authorized certificated mechanic or repairman constitutes that certification. [Docket 16097, 43 FR 46783, Oct. 10, 1978, as amended by Amdt. 135-29, 53 FR 47375, Nov. 22, 1988; Amdt. 135-82, 66 FR 41117, Aug. 6, 2001] Subpart K—Hazardous Materials Training Program Source: Docket FAA-2003-15085, 70 FR 58829, Oct. 7, 2005, unless otherwise noted. § 135.501 Applicability and definitions. (a) This subpart prescribes the requirements applicable to each certificate holder for training each crewmember and person performing or directly supervising any of the following job functions involving any item for transport on board an aircraft: (1) Acceptance; (2) Rejection; (3) Handling; (4) Storage incidental to transport; (5) Packaging of company material; or (6) Loading. (b) Definitions. For purposes of this subpart, the following definitions apply: (1) Company material (COMAT) —Material owned or used by a certificate holder. (2) Initial hazardous materials training —The basic training required for each newly hired person, or each person changing job functions, who performs or directly supervises any of the job functions specified in paragraph (a) of this section. (3) Recurrent hazardous materials training —The training required every 24 months for each person who has satisfactorily completed the certificate holder's approved initial hazardous materials training program and performs or directly supervises any of the job functions specified in paragraph (a) of this section. § 135.503 Hazardous materials training: General. (a) Each certificate holder must establish and implement a hazardous materials training program that: (1) Satisfies the requirements of Appendix O of part 121 of this part; (2) Ensures that each person performing or directly supervising any of the job functions specified in § 135.501(a) is trained to comply with all applicable parts of 49 CFR parts 171 through 180 and the requirements of this subpart; and (3) Enables the trained person to recognize items that contain, or may contain, hazardous materials regulated by 49 CFR parts 171 through 180. (b) Each certificate holder must provide initial hazardous materials training and recurrent hazardous materials training to each crewmember and person performing or directly supervising any of the job functions specified in § 135.501(a). (c) Each certificate holder's hazardous materials training program must be approved by the FAA prior to implementation. § 135.505 Hazardous materials training required. (a) Training requirement. Except as provided in paragraphs (b), (c) and (f) of this section, no certificate holder may use any crewmember or person to perform any of the job functions or direct supervisory responsibilities, and no person may perform any of the job functions or direct supervisory responsibilities, specified in § 135.501(a) unless that person has satisfactorily completed the certificate holder's FAA-approved initial or recurrent hazardous materials training program within the past 24 months. (b) New hire or new job function. A person who is a new hire and has not yet satisfactorily completed the required initial hazardous materials training, or a person who is changing job functions and has not received initial or recurrent training for a job function involving storage incidental to transport, or loading of items for transport on an aircraft, may perform those job functions for not more than 30 days from the date of hire or a change in job function, if the person is under the direct visual supervision of a person who is authorized by the certificate holder to supervise that person and who has successfully completed the certificate holder's FAA-approved initial or recurrent training program within the past 24 months.

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(c) Persons who work for more than one certificate holder. A certificate holder that uses or assigns a person to perform or directly supervise a job function specified in § 135.501(a), when that person also performs or directly supervises the same job function for another certificate holder, need only train that person in its own policies and procedures regarding those job functions, if all of the following are met: (1) The certificate holder using this exception receives written verification from the person designated to hold the training records representing the other certificate holder that the person has satisfactorily completed hazardous materials training for the specific job function under the other certificate holder's FAA approved hazardous material training program under appendix O of part 121 of this chapter; and (2) The certificate holder who trained the person has the same operations specifications regarding the acceptance, handling, and transport of hazardous materials as the certificate holder using this exception. (d) Recurrent hazardous materials training—Completion date. A person who satisfactorily completes recurrent hazardous materials training in the calendar month before, or the calendar month after, the month in which the recurrent training is due, is considered to have taken that training during the month in which it is due. If the person completes this training earlier than the month before it is due, the month of the completion date becomes his or her new anniversary month. (e) Repair stations. A certificate holder must ensure that each repair station performing work for, or on the certificate holder's behalf is notified in writing of the certificate holder's policies and operations specification authorization permitting or prohibition against the acceptance, rejection, handling, storage incidental to transport, and transportation of hazardous materials, including company material. This notification requirement applies only to repair stations that are regulated by 49 CFR parts 171 through 180. (f) Certificate holders operating at foreign locations. This exception applies if a certificate holder operating at a foreign location where the country requires the certificate holder to use persons working in that country to load aircraft. In such a case, the certificate holder may use those persons even if they have not been trained in accordance with the certificate holder's FAA approved hazardous materials training program. Those persons, however, must be under the direct visual supervision of someone who has successfully completed the certificate holder's approved initial or recurrent hazardous materials training program in accordance with this part. This exception applies only to those persons who load aircraft. § 135.507 Hazardous materials training records. (a) General requirement. Each certificate holder must maintain a record of all training required by this part received within the preceding three years for each person who performs or directly supervises a job function specified in § 135.501(a). The record must be maintained during the time that the person performs or directly supervises any of those job functions, and for 90 days thereafter. These training records must be kept for direct employees of the certificate holder, as well as independent contractors, subcontractors, and any other person who performs or directly supervises these job functions for the certificate holder. (b) Location of records. The certificate holder must retain the training records required by paragraph (a) of this section for all initial and recurrent training received within the preceding 3 years for all persons performing or directly supervising the job functions listed in Appendix O of part 121 of this chapter at a designated location. The records must be available upon request at the location where the trained person performs or directly supervises the job function specified in § 135.501(a). Records may be maintained electronically and provided on location electronically. When the person ceases to perform or directly supervise a hazardous materials job function, the certificate holder must retain the hazardous materials training records for an additional 90 days and make them available upon request at the last location where the person worked.

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(c) Content of records. Each record must contain the following: (1) The individual's name; (2) The most recent training completion date; (3) A description, copy or reference to training materials used to meet the training requirement; (4) The name and address of the organization providing the training; and (5) A copy of the certification issued when the individual was trained, which shows that a test has been completed satisfactorily. (d) New hire or new job function. Each certificate holder using a person under the exception in § 135.505(b) must maintain a record for that person. The records must be available upon request at the location where the trained person performs or directly supervises the job function specified in § 135.501(a). Records may be maintained electronically and provided on location electronically. The record must include the following: (1) A signed statement from an authorized representative of the certificate holder authorizing the use of the person in accordance with the exception; (2) The date of hire or change in job function; (3) The person's name and assigned job function; (4) The name of the supervisor of the job function; and (5) The date the person is to complete hazardous materials training in accordance with Appendix O of part 121 of this chapter. Subpart L—Helicopter Air Ambulance Equipment, Operations, and Training Requirements Source: Docket FAA-2010-0982, 79 FR 9975, Feb. 21, 2014, unless otherwise noted. § 135.601 Applicability and definitions. (a) Applicability. This subpart prescribes the requirements applicable to each certificate holder conducting helicopter air ambulance operations. (b) Definitions. For purposes of this subpart, the following definitions apply: (1) Helicopter air ambulance operation means a flight, or sequence of flights, with a patient or medical personnel on board, for the purpose of medical transportation, by a part 135 certificate holder authorized by the Administrator to conduct helicopter air ambulance operations. A helicopter air ambulance operation includes, but is not limited to— (i) Flights conducted to position the helicopter at the site at which a patient or donor organ will be picked up. (ii) Flights conducted to reposition the helicopter after completing the patient, or donor organ transport. (iii) Flights initiated for the transport of a patient or donor organ that are terminated due to weather or other reasons. (2) Medical personnel means a person or persons with medical training, including but not limited to flight physicians, flight nurses, or flight paramedics, who are carried aboard a helicopter during helicopter air ambulance operations in order to provide medical care. (3) Mountainous means designated mountainous areas as listed in part 95 of this chapter. (4) Nonmountainous means areas other than mountainous areas as listed in part 95 of this chapter. § 135.603 Pilot-in-command instrument qualifications. After April 24, 2017, no certificate holder may use, nor may any person serve as, a pilot in command of a helicopter air ambulance operation unless that person meets the requirements of § 135.243 and holds a helicopter instrument rating or an airline transport pilot certificate with a category and class rating for that aircraft, that is not limited to VFR.

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§ 135.605 Helicopter terrain awareness and warning system (HTAWS). (a) After April 24, 2017, no person may operate a helicopter in helicopter air ambulance operations unless that helicopter is equipped with a helicopter terrain awareness and warning system (HTAWS) that meets the requirements in TSO-C194 and Section 2 of RTCA DO-309. (b) The certificate holder's Rotorcraft Flight Manual must contain appropriate procedures for— (1) The use of the HTAWS; and (2) Proper flight crew response to HTAWS audio and visual warnings. (c) Certificate holders with HTAWS required by this section with an approved deviation under § 21.618 of this chapter are in compliance with this section. (d) The standards required in this section are incorporated by reference into this section with the approval of the Director of the Federal Register under 5 U.S.C. 552(a) and 1 CFR part 51. To enforce any edition other than that specified in this section, the FAA must publish notice of change in the Federal Register and the material must be available to the public. All approved material is available for inspection at the FAA's Office of Rulemaking (ARM-1), 800 Independence Avenue SW., Washington, DC 20591 (telephone (202) 267-9677) and from the sources indicated below. It is also available for inspection at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call (202) 741-6030 or go to http://www.archives.gov/federal_register/code_of_federal_regulations/ibr_locations.html. (1) U.S. Department of Transportation, Subsequent Distribution Office, DOT Warehouse M30, Ardmore East Business Center, 3341 Q 75th Avenue, Landover, MD 20785; telephone (301) 322-5377. Copies are also available on the FAA's Web site. Use the following link and type the TSO number in the search box: http://rgl.faa.gov/Regulatory_and_Guidance_Library/rgTSO.nsf/Frameset?OpenPage. (i) TSO C-194, Helicopter Terrain Awareness and Warning System (HTAWS), Dec. 17, 2008. (ii) [Reserved] (2) RTCA, Inc., 1150 18th Street NW., Suite 910, Washington, DC 20036, telephone (202) 833-9339, and are also available on RTCA's Web site at http://www.rtca.org/onlinecart/index.cfm. (i) RTCA DO-309, Minimum Operational Performance Standards (MOPS) for Helicopter Terrain Awareness and Warning System (HTAWS) Airborne Equipment, Mar. 13, 2008. (ii) [Reserved] § 135.607 Flight Data Monitoring System. After April 23, 2018, no person may operate a helicopter in air ambulance operations unless it is equipped with an approved flight data monitoring system capable of recording flight performance data. This system must: (a) Receive electrical power from the bus that provides the maximum reliability for operation without jeopardizing service to essential or emergency loads, and (b) Be operated from the application of electrical power before takeoff until the removal of electrical power after termination of flight. § 135.609 VFR ceiling and visibility requirements for Class G airspace. (a) Unless otherwise specified in the certificate holder's operations specifications, when conducting VFR helicopter air ambulance operations in Class G airspace, the weather minimums in the following table apply:

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[Please see PDF for image: ER21FE14.021] (b) A certificate holder may designate local flying areas in a manner acceptable to the Administrator, that must— (1) Not exceed 50 nautical miles in any direction from each designated location; (2) Take into account obstacles and terrain features that are easily identifiable by the pilot in command and from which the pilot in command may visually determine a position; and (3) Take into account the operating environment and capabilities of the certificate holder's helicopters. (c) A pilot must demonstrate a level of familiarity with the local flying area by passing an examination given by the certificate holder within the 12 calendar months prior to using the local flying area. [Docket FAA-2010-0982, 79 FR 9975, Feb. 21, 2014; Amdt. 135-129A, 79 FR 41126, July 15, 2014] § 135.611 IFR operations at locations without weather reporting. (a) If a certificate holder is authorized to conduct helicopter IFR operations, the Administrator may authorize the certificate holder to conduct IFR helicopter air ambulance operations at airports with an instrument approach procedure and at which a weather report is not available from the U.S. National Weather Service (NWS), a source approved by the NWS, or a source approved by the FAA, subject to the following limitations: (1) The certificate holder must obtain a weather report from a weather reporting facility operated by the NWS, a source approved by the NWS, or a source approved by the FAA, that is located within 15 nautical miles of the airport. If a weather report is not available, the certificate holder may obtain weather reports, forecasts, or any combination of them from the NWS, a source approved by the NWS, or a source approved by the FAA, for information regarding the weather observed in the vicinity of the airport; (2) Flight planning for IFR flights conducted under this paragraph must include selection of an alternate airport that meets the requirements of §§ 135.221 and 135.223; (3) In Class G airspace, IFR departures with visual transitions are authorized only after the pilot in command determines that the weather conditions at the departure point are at or above takeoff minimums depicted in a published departure procedure or VFR minimum ceilings and visibilities in accordance with § 135.609. (4) All approaches must be conducted at Category A approach speeds as established in part 97 or those required for the type of approach being used.

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(b) Each helicopter air ambulance operated under this section must be equipped with functioning severe weather detection equipment, unless the pilot in command reasonably determines severe weather will not be encountered at the destination, the alternate destination, or along the route of flight. (c) Pilots conducting operations pursuant to this section may use the weather information obtained in paragraph (a) to satisfy the weather report and forecast requirements of § 135.213 and § 135.225(a). (d) After completing a landing at the airport at which a weather report is not available, the pilot in command is authorized to determine if the weather meets the takeoff requirements of part 97 of this chapter or the certificate holder's operations specification, as applicable. [Docket FAA-2010-0982, 79 FR 9975, Feb. 21, 2014, as amended by Amdt. 135-131, 79 FR 43622, July 28, 2014; Amdt. 135-141, 84 FR 35823, July 25, 2019] § 135.613 Approach/departure IFR transitions. (a) Approaches. When conducting an authorized instrument approach and transitioning from IFR to VFR flight, upon transitioning to VFR flight the following weather minimums apply— (1) For Point-in-Space (PinS) Copter Instrument approaches annotated with a “Proceed VFR” segment, if the distance from the missed approach point to the landing area is 1 NM or less, flight visibility must be at least 1 statute mile and the ceiling on the approach chart applies; (2) For all instrument approaches, including PinS when paragraph (a)(1) of this section does not apply, if the distance from the missed approach point to the landing area is 3 NM or less, the applicable VFR weather minimums are— (i) For Day Operations: No less than a 600-foot ceiling and 2 statute miles flight visibility; (ii) For Night Operations: No less than a 600-foot ceiling and 3 statute miles flight visibility; or (3) For all instrument approaches, including PinS, if the distance from the missed approach point to the landing area is greater than 3 NM, the VFR weather minimums required by the class of airspace. (b) Departures. For transitions from VFR to IFR upon departure— (1) The VFR weather minimums of paragraph (a) of this section apply if— (i) An FAA-approved obstacle departure procedure is followed; and (ii) An IFR clearance is obtained on or before reaching a predetermined location that is not more than 3 NM from the departure location. (2) If the departure does not meet the requirements of paragraph (b)(1) of this section, the VFR weather minimums required by the class of airspace apply. § 135.615 VFR flight planning. (a) Pre-flight. Prior to conducting VFR operations, the pilot in command must— (1) Determine the minimum safe cruise altitude by evaluating the terrain and obstacles along the planned route of flight; (2) Identify and document the highest obstacle along the planned route of flight; and (3) Using the minimum safe cruise altitudes in paragraphs (b)(1)-(2) of this section, determine the minimum required ceiling and visibility to conduct the planned flight by applying the weather minimums appropriate to the class of airspace for the planned flight. (b) Enroute. While conducting VFR operations, the pilot in command must ensure that all terrain and obstacles along the route of flight are cleared vertically by no less than the following: (1) 300 feet for day operations. (2) 500 feet for night operations. (c) Rerouting the planned flight path. A pilot in command may deviate from the planned flight path for reasons such as weather conditions or operational considerations. Such deviations do not relieve the pilot in command of the weather requirements or the requirements for terrain and obstacle clearance contained in this part and in part 91 of this chapter. Rerouting, change in destination, or other changes to the planned flight that occur while the helicopter is on the ground at an intermediate stop require evaluation of the new route in accordance with paragraph (a) of this section.

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(d) Operations manual. Each certificate holder must document its VFR flight planning procedures in its operations manual. § 135.617 Pre-flight risk analysis. (a) Each certificate holder conducting helicopter air ambulance operations must establish, and document in its operations manual, an FAA-approved preflight risk analysis that includes at least the following— (1) Flight considerations, to include obstacles and terrain along the planned route of flight, landing zone conditions, and fuel requirements; (2) Human factors, such as crew fatigue, life events, and other stressors; (3) Weather, including departure, en route, destination, and forecasted; (4) A procedure for determining whether another helicopter air ambulance operator has refused or rejected a flight request; and (5) Strategies and procedures for mitigating identified risks, including procedures for obtaining and documenting approval of the certificate holder's management personnel to release a flight when a risk exceeds a level predetermined by the certificate holder. (b) Each certificate holder must develop a preflight risk analysis worksheet to include, at a minimum, the items in paragraph (a) of this section. (c) Prior to the first leg of each helicopter air ambulance operation, the pilot in command must conduct a preflight risk analysis and complete the preflight risk analysis worksheet in accordance with the certificate holder's FAA-approved procedures. The pilot in command must sign the preflight risk analysis worksheet and specify the date and time it was completed. (d) The certificate holder must retain the original or a copy of each completed preflight risk analysis worksheet at a location specified in its operations manual for at least 90 days from the date of the operation. § 135.619 Operations control centers. (a) Operations control center. After April 22, 2016, certificate holders authorized to conduct helicopter air ambulance operations, with 10 or more helicopter air ambulances assigned to the certificate holder's operations specifications, must have an operations control center. The operations control center must be staffed by operations control specialists who, at a minimum— (1) Provide two-way communications with pilots; (2) Provide pilots with weather briefings, to include current and forecasted weather along the planned route of flight; (3) Monitor the progress of the flight; and (4) Participate in the preflight risk analysis required under § 135.617 to include the following: (i) Ensure the pilot has completed all required items on the preflight risk analysis worksheet; (ii) Confirm and verify all entries on the preflight risk analysis worksheet; (iii) Assist the pilot in mitigating any identified risk prior to takeoff; and (iv) Acknowledge in writing, specifying the date and time, that the preflight risk analysis worksheet has been accurately completed and that, according to their professional judgment, the flight can be conducted safely. (b) Operations control center staffing. Each certificate holder conducting helicopter air ambulance operations must provide enough operations control specialists at each operations control center to ensure the certificate holder maintains operational control of each flight. (c) Documentation of duties and responsibilities. Each certificate holder must describe in its operations manual the duties and responsibilities of operations control specialists, including preflight risk mitigation strategies and control measures, shift change checklist, and training and testing procedures to hold the position, including procedures for retesting. (d) Training requirements. No certificate holder may use, nor may any person perform the duties of, an operations control specialist unless the operations control specialist has satisfactorily completed the training requirements of this paragraph.

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(1) Initial training. Before performing the duties of an operations control specialist, each person must satisfactorily complete the certificate holder's FAA-approved operations control specialist initial training program and pass an FAA-approved knowledge and practical test given by the certificate holder. Initial training must include a minimum of 80 hours of training on the topics listed in paragraph (f) of this section. A certificate holder may reduce the number of hours of initial training to a minimum of 40 hours for persons who have obtained, at the time of beginning initial training, a total of at least 2 years of experience during the last 5 years in any one or in any combination of the following areas— (i) In military aircraft operations as a pilot, flight navigator, or meteorologist; (ii) In air carrier operations as a pilot, flight engineer, certified aircraft dispatcher, or meteorologist; or (iii) In aircraft operations as an air traffic controller or a flight service specialist. (2) Recurrent training. Every 12 months after satisfactory completion of the initial training, each operations control specialist must complete a minimum of 40 hours of recurrent training on the topics listed in paragraph (f) of this section and pass an FAA-approved knowledge and practical test given by the certificate holder on those topics. (e) Training records. The certificate holder must maintain a training record for each operations control specialist employed by the certificate holder for the duration of that individual's employment and for 90 days thereafter. The training record must include a chronological log for each training course, including the number of training hours and the examination dates and results. (f) Training topics. Each certificate holder must have an FAA-approved operations control specialist training program that covers at least the following topics— (1) Aviation weather, including: (i) General meteorology; (ii) Prevailing weather; (iii) Adverse and deteriorating weather; (iv) Windshear; (v) Icing conditions; (vi) Use of aviation weather products; (vii) Available sources of information; and (viii) Weather minimums; (2) Navigation, including: (i) Navigation aids; (ii) Instrument approach procedures; (iii) Navigational publications; and (iv) Navigation techniques; (3) Flight monitoring, including: (i) Available flight-monitoring procedures; and (ii) Alternate flight-monitoring procedures; (4) Air traffic control, including: (i) Airspace; (ii) Air traffic control procedures; (iii) Aeronautical charts; and (iv) Aeronautical data sources; (5) Aviation communication, including: (i) Available aircraft communications systems; (ii) Normal communication procedures; (iii) Abnormal communication procedures; and (iv) Emergency communication procedures; (6) Aircraft systems, including: (i) Communications systems; (ii) Navigation systems; (iii) Surveillance systems; (iv) Fueling systems; (v) Specialized systems; (vi) General maintenance requirements; and (vii) Minimum equipment lists; (7) Aircraft limitations and performance, including: (i) Aircraft operational limitations; (ii) Aircraft performance; (iii) Weight and balance procedures and limitations; and (iv) Landing zone and landing facility requirements; (8) Aviation policy and regulations, including: (i) 14 CFR Parts 1, 27, 29, 61, 71, 91, and 135; (ii) 49 CFR Part 830; (iii) Company operations specifications; (iv) Company general operations policies; (v) Enhanced operational control policies;

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(vi) Aeronautical decision making and risk management; (vii) Lost aircraft procedures; and (viii) Emergency and search and rescue procedures, including plotting coordinates in degrees, minutes, seconds format, and degrees, decimal minutes format; (9) Crew resource management, including: (i) Concepts and practical application; (ii) Risk management and risk mitigation; and (iii) Pre-flight risk analysis procedures required under § 135.617; (10) Local flying area orientation, including: (i) Terrain features; (ii) Obstructions; (iii) Weather phenomena for local area; (iv) Airspace and air traffic control facilities; (v) Heliports, airports, landing zones, and fuel facilities; (vi) Instrument approaches; (vii) Predominant air traffic flow; (viii) Landmarks and cultural features, including areas prone to flat-light, whiteout, and brownout conditions; and (ix) Local aviation and safety resources and contact information; and (11) Any other requirements as determined by the Administrator to ensure safe operations. (g) Operations control specialist duty time limitations. (1) Each certificate holder must establish the daily duty period for an operations control specialist so that it begins at a time that allows that person to become thoroughly familiar with operational considerations, including existing and anticipated weather conditions in the area of operations, helicopter operations in progress, and helicopter maintenance status, before performing duties associated with any helicopter air ambulance operation. The operations control specialist must remain on duty until relieved by another qualified operations control specialist or until each helicopter air ambulance monitored by that person has completed its flight or gone beyond that person's jurisdiction. (2) Except in cases where circumstances or emergency conditions beyond the control of the certificate holder require otherwise— (i) No certificate holder may schedule an operations control specialist for more than 10 consecutive hours of duty; (ii) If an operations control specialist is scheduled for more than 10 hours of duty in 24 consecutive hours, the certificate holder must provide that person a rest period of at least 8 hours at or before the end of 10 hours of duty; (iii) If an operations control specialist is on duty for more than 10 consecutive hours, the certificate holder must provide that person a rest period of at least 8 hours before that person's next duty period; (iv) Each operations control specialist must be relieved of all duty with the certificate holder for at least 24 consecutive hours during any 7 consecutive days. (h) Drug and alcohol testing. Operations control specialists must be tested for drugs and alcohol according to the certificate holder's Drug and Alcohol Testing Program administered under part 120 of this chapter. § 135.621 Briefing of medical personnel. (a) Except as provided in paragraph (b) of this section, prior to each helicopter air ambulance operation, each pilot in command, or other flight crewmember designated by the certificate holder, must ensure that all medical personnel have been briefed on the following— (1) Passenger briefing requirements in § 135.117(a) and (b); and (2) Physiological aspects of flight; (3) Patient loading and unloading; (4) Safety in and around the helicopter; (5) In-flight emergency procedures; (6) Emergency landing procedures; (7) Emergency evacuation procedures; (8) Efficient and safe communications with the pilot; and (9) Operational differences between day and night operations, if appropriate. (b) The briefing required in paragraphs (a)(2) through (9) of this section may be omitted if all medical personnel on board have satisfactorily completed the certificate holder's FAA-approved medical personnel training program within the preceding 24 calendar months. Each training program must include a minimum of 4 hours of ground training, and 4 hours of training in and around an air ambulance helicopter, on the topics set forth in paragraph (a)(2) through (9) of this section.

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(c) Each certificate holder must maintain a record for each person trained under this section that— (1) Contains the individual's name, the most recent training completion date, and a description, copy, or reference to training materials used to meet the training requirement. (2) Is maintained for 24 calendar months following the individual's completion of training. [Docket FAA-2010-0982, 79 FR 9975, Feb. 21, 2014; Amdt. 135-129A, 79 FR 41126, July 15, 2014]   Pt. 135, App. A Appendix A to Part 135—Additional Airworthiness Standards for 10 or More Passenger Airplanes Applicability 1. Applicability. This appendix prescribes the additional airworthiness standards required by § 135.169. 2. References. Unless otherwise provided, references in this appendix to specific sections of part 23 of the Federal Aviation Regulations (FAR part 23) are to those sections of part 23 in effect on March 30, 1967. Flight Requirements 3. General. Compliance must be shown with the applicable requirements of subpart B of FAR part 23, as supplemented or modified in §§ 4 through 10. Performance 4. General. (a) Unless otherwise prescribed in this appendix, compliance with each applicable performance requirement in sections 4 through 7 must be shown for ambient atmospheric conditions and still air. (b) The performance must correspond to the propulsive thrust available under the particular ambient atmospheric conditions and the particular flight condition. The available propulsive thrust must correspond to engine power or thrust, not exceeding the approved power or thrust less— (1) Installation losses; and (2) The power or equivalent thrust absorbed by the accessories and services appropriate to the particular ambient atmospheric conditions and the particular flight condition. (c) Unless otherwise prescribed in this appendix, the applicant must select the take-off, en route, and landing configurations for the airplane. (d) The airplane configuration may vary with weight, altitude, and temperature, to the extent they are compatible with the operating procedures required by paragraph (e) of this section. (e) Unless otherwise prescribed in this appendix, in determining the critical engine inoperative takeoff performance, the accelerate-stop distance, takeoff distance, changes in the airplane's configuration, speed, power, and thrust must be made under procedures established by the applicant for operation in service. (f) Procedures for the execution of balked landings must be established by the applicant and included in the Airplane Flight Manual. (g) The procedures established under paragraphs (e) and (f) of this section must— (1) Be able to be consistently executed in service by a crew of average skill; (2) Use methods or devices that are safe and reliable; and (3) Include allowance for any time delays, in the execution of the procedures, that may reasonably be expected in service. 5. Takeoff. (a) General. Takeoff speeds, the accelerate-stop distance, the takeoff distance, and the one-engine-inoperative takeoff flight path data (described in paragraphs (b), (c), (d), and (f) of this section), must be determined for— (1) Each weight, altitude, and ambient temperature within the operational limits selected by the applicant; (2) The selected configuration for takeoff; (3) The center of gravity in the most unfavorable position; (4) The operating engine within approved operating limitations; and (5) Takeoff data based on smooth, dry, hard-surface runway. (b) Takeoff speeds. (1) The decision speed V 1 is the calibrated airspeed on the ground at which, as a result of engine failure or other reasons, the pilot is assumed to have made a decision to continue or discontinue the takeoff. The speed V 1 must be selected by the applicant but may not be less than— (i) 1.10 V S 1 ; (ii) 1.10 V MC ; (iii) A speed that allows acceleration to V 1 and stop under paragraph (c) of this section; or (iv) A speed at which the airplane can be rotated for takeoff and shown to be adequate to safely continue the takeoff, using normal piloting skill, when the critical engine is suddenly made inoperative.

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(2) The initial climb out speed V 2 , in terms of calibrated airspeed, must be selected by the applicant so as to allow the gradient of climb required in section 6(b)(2), but it must not be less than V 1 or less than 1.2 V S 1 . (3) Other essential take off speeds necessary for safe operation of the airplane. (c) Accelerate-stop distance. (1) The accelerate-stop distance is the sum of the distances necessary to— (i) Accelerate the airplane from a standing start to V 1 ; and (ii) Come to a full stop from the point at which V 1 is reached assuming that in the case of engine failure, failure of the critical engine is recognized by the pilot at the speed V 1 . (2) Means other than wheel brakes may be used to determine the accelerate-stop distance if that means is available with the critical engine inoperative and— (i) Is safe and reliable; (ii) Is used so that consistent results can be expected under normal operating conditions; and (iii) Is such that exceptional skill is not required to control the airplane. (d) All engines operating takeoff distance. The all engine operating takeoff distance is the horizontal distance required to takeoff and climb to a height of 50 feet above the takeoff surface under the procedures in FAR 23.51(a). (e) One-engine-inoperative takeoff. Determine the weight for each altitude and temperature within the operational limits established for the airplane, at which the airplane has the capability, after failure of the critical engine at V 1 determined under paragraph (b) of this section, to take off and climb at not less than V 2 , to a height 1,000 feet above the takeoff surface and attain the speed and configuration at which compliance is shown with the en route one-engine-inoperative gradient of climb specified in section 6(c). (f) One-engine-inoperative takeoff flight path data. The one-engine-inoperative takeoff flight path data consist of takeoff flight paths extending from a standing start to a point in the takeoff at which the airplane reaches a height 1,000 feet above the takeoff surface under paragraph (e) of this section. 6. Climb. (a) Landing climb: All-engines-operating. The maximum weight must be determined with the airplane in the landing configuration, for each altitude, and ambient temperature within the operational limits established for the airplane, with the most unfavorable center of gravity, and out-of-ground effect in free air, at which the steady gradient of climb will not be less than 3.3 percent, with: (1) The engines at the power that is available 8 seconds after initiation of movement of the power or thrust controls from the minimum flight idle to the takeoff position. (2) A climb speed not greater than the approach speed established under section 7 and not less than the greater of 1.05 V MC or 1.10 V S 1 . (b) Takeoff climb: one-engine-inoperative. The maximum weight at which the airplane meets the minimum climb performance specified in paragraphs (1) and (2) of this paragraph must be determined for each altitude and ambient temperature within the operational limits established for the airplane, out of ground effect in free air, with the airplane in the takeoff configuration, with the most unfavorable center of gravity, the critical engine inoperative, the remaining engines at the maximum takeoff power or thrust, and the propeller of the inoperative engine windmilling with the propeller controls in the normal position except that, if an approved automatic feathering system is installed, the propellers may be in the feathered position: (1) Takeoff: landing gear extended. The minimum steady gradient of climb must be measurably positive at the speed V 1 . (2) Takeoff: landing gear retracted. The minimum steady gradient of climb may not be less than 2 percent at speed V 2 . For airplanes with fixed landing gear this requirement must be met with the landing gear extended. (c) En route climb: one-engine-inoperative. The maximum weight must be determined for each altitude and ambient temperature within the operational limits established for the airplane, at which the steady gradient of climb is not less 1.2 percent at an altitude 1,000 feet above the takeoff surface, with the airplane in the en route configuration, the critical engine inoperative, the remaining engine at the maximum continuous power or thrust, and the most unfavorable center of gravity. 7. Landing. (a) The landing field length described in paragraph (b) of this section must be determined for standard atmosphere at each weight and altitude within the operational limits established by the applicant. (b) The landing field length is equal to the landing distance determined under FAR 23.75(a) divided by a factor of 0.6 for the destination airport and 0.7 for the alternate airport. Instead of the gliding approach specified in FAR 23.75(a)(1), the landing may be preceded by a steady approach down to the 50-foot height at a gradient of descent not greater than 5.2 percent (3°) at a calibrated airspeed not less than 1.3 V S 1 . Trim 8. Trim. (a) Lateral and directional trim. The airplane must maintain lateral and directional trim in level flight at a speed of V H or V MO / M MO, whichever is lower, with landing gear and wing flaps retracted.

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(b) Longitudinal trim. The airplane must maintain longitudinal trim during the following conditions, except that it need not maintain trim at a speed greater than V MO / M MO : (1) In the approach conditions specified in FAR 23.161(c) (3) through (5), except that instead of the speeds specified in those paragraphs, trim must be maintained with a stick force of not more than 10 pounds down to a speed used in showing compliance with section 7 or 1.4 V S 1 whichever is lower. (2) In level flight at any speed from V H or V MO / M MO , whichever is lower, to either V x or 1.4 V S 1 , with the landing gear and wing flaps retracted. Stability 9. Static longitudinal stability. (a) In showing compliance with FAR 23.175(b) and with paragraph (b) of this section, the airspeed must return to within ±7 1/2 percent of the trim speed. (b) Cruise stability. The stick force curve must have a stable slope for a speed range of ±50 knots from the trim speed except that the speeds need not exceed V FC / M FC or be less than 1.4 V S 1 . This speed range will be considered to begin at the outer extremes of the friction band and the stick force may not exceed 50 pounds with— (1) Landing gear retracted; (2) Wing flaps retracted; (3) The maximum cruising power as selected by the applicant as an operating limitation for turbine engines or 75 percent of maximum continuous power for reciprocating engines except that the power need not exceed that required at V MO / M MO ; (4) Maximum takeoff weight; and (5) The airplane trimmed for level flight with the power specified in paragraph (3) of this paragraph. V FC / M FC may not be less than a speed midway between V MO / M MO and V DF / M DF, except that, for altitudes where Mach number is the limiting factor, M FC need not exceed the Mach number at which effective speed warning occurs. (c) Climb stability (turbopropeller powered airplanes only). In showing compliance with FAR 23.175(a), an applicant must, instead of the power specified in FAR 23.175(a)(4), use the maximum power or thrust selected by the applicant as an operating limitation for use during climb at the best rate of climb speed, except that the speed need not be less than 1.4 V S 1 . Stalls 10. Stall warning. If artificial stall warning is required to comply with FAR 23.207, the warning device must give clearly distinguishable indications under expected conditions of flight. The use of a visual warning device that requires the attention of the crew within the cockpit is not acceptable by itself. Control Systems 11. Electric trim tabs. The airplane must meet FAR 23.677 and in addition it must be shown that the airplane is safely controllable and that a pilot can perform all the maneuvers and operations necessary to effect a safe landing following any probable electric trim tab runaway which might be reasonably expected in service allowing for appropriate time delay after pilot recognition of the runaway. This demonstration must be conducted at the critical airplane weights and center of gravity positions. Instruments: Installation 12. Arrangement and visibility. Each instrument must meet FAR 23.1321 and in addition: (a) Each flight, navigation, and powerplant instrument for use by any pilot must be plainly visible to the pilot from the pilot's station with the minimum practicable deviation from the pilot's normal position and line of vision when the pilot is looking forward along the flight path. (b) The flight instruments required by FAR 23.1303 and by the applicable operating rules must be grouped on the instrument panel and centered as nearly as practicable about the vertical plane of each pilot's forward vision. In addition— (1) The instrument that most effectively indicates the attitude must be in the panel in the top center position; (2) The instrument that most effectively indicates the airspeed must be on the panel directly to the left of the instrument in the top center position; (3) The instrument that most effectively indicates altitude must be adjacent to and directly to the right of the instrument in the top center position; and (4) The instrument that most effectively indicates direction of flight must be adjacent to and directly below the instrument in the top center position. 13. Airspeed indicating system. Each airspeed indicating system must meet FAR 23.1323 and in addition: (a) Airspeed indicating instruments must be of an approved type and must be calibrated to indicate true airspeed at sea level in the standard atmosphere with a minimum practicable instrument calibration error when the corresponding pitot and static pressures are supplied to the instruments. (b) The airspeed indicating system must be calibrated to determine the system error, i.e., the relation between IAS and CAS, in flight and during the accelerate-takeoff ground run. The ground run calibration must be obtained between 0.8 of the minimum value of V 1 and 1.2 times the maximum value of V 1 , considering the approved ranges of altitude and weight. The ground run calibration is determined assuming an engine failure at the minimum value of V 1 .

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(c) The airspeed error of the installation excluding the instrument calibration error, must not exceed 3 percent or 5 knots whichever is greater, throughout the speed range from V MO to 1.3 V S 1 with flaps retracted and from 1.3 V SO to V FE with flaps in the landing position. (d) Information showing the relationship between IAS and CAS must be shown in the Airplane Flight manual. 14. Static air vent system. The static air vent system must meet FAR 23.1325. The altimeter system calibration must be determined and shown in the Airplane Flight Manual. Operating Limitations and Information 15. Maximum operating limit speed V MO / M MO. Instead of establishing operating limitations based on V NE and V NO, the applicant must establish a maximum operating limit speed V MO / M MO as follows: (a) The maximum operating limit speed must not exceed the design cruising speed V C and must be sufficiently below V D / M D or V DF / M DF to make it highly improbable that the latter speeds will be inadvertently exceeded in flight. (b) The speed V MO must not exceed 0.8 V D / M D or 0.8 V DF / M DF unless flight demonstrations involving upsets as specified by the Administrator indicates a lower speed margin will not result in speeds exceeding V D / M D or V DF. Atmospheric variations, horizontal gusts, system and equipment errors, and airframe production variations are taken into account. 16. Minimum flight crew. In addition to meeting FAR 23.1523, the applicant must establish the minimum number and type of qualified flight crew personnel sufficient for safe operation of the airplane considering— (a) Each kind of operation for which the applicant desires approval; (b) The workload on each crewmember considering the following: (1) Flight path control. (2) Collision avoidance. (3) Navigation. (4) Communications. (5) Operation and monitoring of all essential aircraft systems. (6) Command decisions; and (c) The accessibility and ease of operation of necessary controls by the appropriate crewmember during all normal and emergency operations when at the crewmember flight station. 17. Airspeed indicator. The airspeed indicator must meet FAR 23.1545 except that, the airspeed notations and markings in terms of V NO and V NH must be replaced by the V MO / M MO notations. The airspeed indicator markings must be easily read and understood by the pilot. A placard adjacent to the airspeed indicator is an acceptable means of showing compliance with FAR 23.1545(c). Airplane Flight Manual 18. General. The Airplane Flight Manual must be prepared under FARs 23.1583 and 23.1587, and in addition the operating limitations and performance information in sections 19 and 20 must be included. 19. Operating limitations. The Airplane Flight Manual must include the following limitations— (a) Airspeed limitations. (1) The maximum operating limit speed V MO / M MO and a statement that this speed limit may not be deliberately exceeded in any regime of flight (climb, cruise, or descent) unless a higher speed is authorized for flight test or pilot training; (2) If an airspeed limitation is based upon compressibility effects, a statement to this effect and information as to any symptoms, the probable behavior of the airplane, and the recommended recovery procedures; and (3) The airspeed limits, shown in terms of V MO /M MO instead of V NO and V NE. (b) Takeoff weight limitations. The maximum takeoff weight for each airport elevation ambient temperature and available takeoff runway length within the range selected by the applicant may not exceed the weight at which— (1) The all-engine-operating takeoff distance determined under section 5(b) or the accelerate-stop distance determined under section 5(c), whichever is greater, is equal to the available runway length; (2) The airplane complies with the one-engine-inoperative takeoff requirements specified in section 5(e); and (3) The airplane complies with the one-engine-inoperative takeoff and en route climb requirements specified in sections 6 (b) and (c). (c) Landing weight limitations. The maximum landing weight for each airport elevation (standard temperature) and available landing runway length, within the range selected by the applicant. This weight may not exceed the weight at which the landing field length determined under section 7(b) is equal to the available runway length. In showing compliance with this operating limitation, it is acceptable to assume that the landing weight at the destination will be equal to the takeoff weight reduced by the normal consumption of fuel and oil en route. 20. Performance information. The Airplane Flight Manual must contain the performance information determined under the performance requirements of this appendix. The information must include the following: (a) Sufficient information so that the takeoff weight limits specified in section 19(b) can be determined for all temperatures and altitudes within the operation limitations selected by the applicant.

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(b) The conditions under which the performance information was obtained, including the airspeed at the 50-foot height used to determine landing distances. (c) The performance information (determined by extrapolation and computed for the range of weights between the maximum landing and takeoff weights) for— (1) Climb in the landing configuration; and (2) Landing distance. (d) Procedure established under section 4 related to the limitations and information required by this section in the form of guidance material including any relevant limitations or information. (e) An explanation of significant or unusual flight or ground handling characteristics of the airplane. (f) Airspeeds, as indicated airspeeds, corresponding to those determined for takeoff under section 5(b). 21. Maximum operating altitudes. The maximum operating altitude to which operation is allowed, as limited by flight, structural, powerplant, functional, or equipment characteristics, must be specified in the Airplane Flight Manual. 22. Stowage provision for airplane flight manual. Provision must be made for stowing the Airplane Flight Manual in a suitable fixed container which is readily accessible to the pilot. 23. Operating procedures. Procedures for restarting turbine engines in flight (including the effects of altitude) must be set forth in the Airplane Flight Manual. Airframe Requirements Flight Loads 24. Engine torque. (a) Each turbopropeller engine mount and its supporting structure must be designed for the torque effects of: (1) The conditions in FAR 23.361(a). (2) The limit engine torque corresponding to takeoff power and propeller speed multiplied by a factor accounting for propeller control system malfunction, including quick feathering action, simultaneously with 1 g level flight loads. In the absence of a ration- al analysis, a factor of 1.6 must be used. (b) The limit torque is obtained by multiplying the mean torque by a factor of 1.25. 25. Turbine engine gyroscopic loads. Each turbopropeller engine mount and its supporting structure must be designed for the gyroscopic loads that result, with the engines at maximum continuous r.p.m., under either— (a) The conditions in FARs 23.351 and 23.423; or (b) All possible combinations of the following: (1) A yaw velocity of 2.5 radians per second. (2) A pitch velocity of 1.0 radians per second. (3) A normal load factor of 2.5. (4) Maximum continuous thrust. 26. Unsymmetrical loads due to engine failure. (a) Turbopropeller powered airplanes must be designed for the unsymmet- rical loads resulting from the failure of the critical engine including the following conditions in combination with a single malfunction of the propeller drag limiting system, considering the probable pilot corrective action on the flight controls: (1) At speeds between V mo and V D, the loads resulting from power failure because of fuel flow interruption are considered to be limit loads. (2) At speeds between V mo and V c, the loads resulting from the disconnection of the engine compressor from the turbine or from loss of the turbine blades are considered to be ultimate loads. (3) The time history of the thrust decay and drag buildup occurring as a result of the prescribed engine failures must be substantiated by test or other data applicable to the particular engine-propeller combination. (4) The timing and magnitude of the probable pilot corrective action must be conserv- atively estimated, considering the characteristics of the particular engine-propeller-airplane combination. (b) Pilot corrective action may be assumed to be initiated at the time maximum yawing velocity is reached, but not earlier than 2 seconds after the engine failure. The magnitude of the corrective action may be based on the control forces in FAR 23.397 except that lower forces may be assumed where it is shown by analysis or test that these forces can control the yaw and roll resulting from the prescribed engine failure conditions. Ground Loads 27. Dual wheel landing gear units. Each dual wheel landing gear unit and its supporting structure must be shown to comply with the following: (a) Pivoting. The airplane must be assumed to pivot about one side of the main gear with the brakes on that side locked. The limit vertical load factor must be 1.0 and the coefficient of friction 0.8. This condition need apply only to the main gear and its supporting structure. (b) Unequal tire inflation. A 60-40 percent distribution of the loads established under FAR 23.471 through FAR 23.483 must be applied to the dual wheels. (c) Flat tire. (1) Sixty percent of the loads in FAR 23.471 through FAR 23.483 must be applied to either wheel in a unit. (2) Sixty percent of the limit drag and side loads and 100 percent of the limit vertical load established under FARs 23.493 and 23.485 must be applied to either wheel in a unit except that the vertical load need not exceed the maximum vertical load in paragraph (c)(1) of this section.

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Fatigue Evaluation 28. Fatigue evaluation of wing and associated structure. Unless it is shown that the structure, operating stress levels, materials and expected use are comparable from a fatigue standpoint to a similar design which has had substantial satisfactory service experience, the strength, detail design, and the fabrication of those parts of the wing, wing carrythrough, and attaching structure whose failure would be catastrophic must be evaluated under either— (a) A fatigue strength investigation in which the structure is shown by analysis, tests, or both to be able to withstand the repeated loads of variable magnitude expected in service; or (b) A fail-safe strength investigation in which it is shown by analysis, tests, or both that catastrophic failure of the structure is not probable after fatigue, or obvious partial failure, of a principal structural element, and that the remaining structure is able to withstand a static ultimate load factor of 75 percent of the critical limit load factor at V C. These loads must be multiplied by a factor of 1.15 unless the dynamic effects of failure under static load are otherwise considered. Design and Construction 29. Flutter. For multiengine turbopropeller powered airplanes, a dynamic evaluation must be made and must include— (a) The significant elastic, inertia, and aerodynamic forces associated with the rotations and displacements of the plane of the propeller; and (b) Engine-propeller-nacelle stiffness and damping variations appropriate to the particular configuration. Landing Gear 30. Flap operated landing gear warning device. Airplanes having retractable landing gear and wing flaps must be equipped with a warning device that functions continuously when the wing flaps are extended to a flap position that activates the warning device to give adequate warning before landing, using normal landing procedures, if the landing gear is not fully extended and locked. There may not be a manual shut off for this warning device. The flap position sensing unit may be installed at any suitable location. The system for this device may use any part of the system (including the aural warning device) provided for other landing gear warning devices. Personnel and Cargo Accommodations 31. Cargo and baggage compartments. Cargo and baggage compartments must be designed to meet FAR 23.787 (a) and (b), and in addition means must be provided to protect passengers from injury by the contents of any cargo or baggage compartment when the ultimate forward inertia force is 9 g. 32. Doors and exits. The airplane must meet FAR 23.783 and FAR 23.807 (a)(3), (b), and (c), and in addition: (a) There must be a means to lock and safeguard each external door and exit against opening in flight either inadvertently by persons, or as a result of mechanical failure. Each external door must be operable from both the inside and the outside. (b) There must be means for direct visual inspection of the locking mechanism by crewmembers to determine whether external doors and exits, for which the initial opening movement is outward, are fully locked. In addition, there must be a visual means to signal to crewmembers when normally used external doors are closed and fully locked. (c) The passenger entrance door must qualify as a floor level emergency exit. Each additional required emergency exit except floor level exits must be located over the wing or must be provided with acceptable means to assist the occupants in descending to the ground. In addition to the passenger entrance door: (1) For a total seating capacity of 15 or less, an emergency exit as defined in FAR 23.807(b) is required on each side of the cabin. (2) For a total seating capacity of 16 through 23, three emergency exits as defined in FAR 23.807(b) are required with one on the same side as the door and two on the side opposite the door. (d) An evacuation demonstration must be conducted utilizing the maximum number of occupants for which certification is desired. It must be conducted under simulated night conditions utilizing only the emergency exits on the most critical side of the aircraft. The participants must be representative of average airline passengers with no previous practice or rehearsal for the demonstration. Evacuation must be completed within 90 seconds. (e) Each emergency exit must be marked with the word “Exit” by a sign which has white letters 1 inch high on a red background 2 inches high, be self-illuminated or independently internally electrically illuminated, and have a minimum luminescence (brightness) of at least 160 microlamberts. The colors may be reversed if the passenger compartment illumination is essentially the same. (f) Access to window type emergency exits must not be obstructed by seats or seat backs. (g) The width of the main passenger aisle at any point between seats must equal or exceed the values in the following table:

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Total seating capacity	Minimum main passenger aisle width
	Less than 25 inches from floor	25 inches and more from floor
10 through 23	9 inches	15 inches.

Miscellaneous 33. Lightning strike protection. Parts that are electrically insulated from the basic airframe must be connected to it through lightning arrestors unless a lightning strike on the insulated part— (a) Is improbable because of shielding by other parts; or (b) Is not hazardous. 34. Ice protection. If certification with ice protection provisions is desired, compliance with the following must be shown: (a) The recommended procedures for the use of the ice protection equipment must be set forth in the Airplane Flight Manual. (b) An analysis must be performed to establish, on the basis of the airplane's operational needs, the adequacy of the ice protection system for the various components of the airplane. In addition, tests of the ice protection system must be conducted to demonstrate that the airplane is capable of operating safely in continuous maximum and intermittent maximum icing conditions as described in appendix C of part 25 of this chapter. (c) Compliance with all or portions of this section may be accomplished by reference, where applicable because of similarity of the designs, to analysis and tests performed by the applicant for a type certificated model. 35. Maintenance information. The applicant must make available to the owner at the time of delivery of the airplane the information the applicant considers essential for the proper maintenance of the airplane. That information must include the following: (a) Description of systems, including electrical, hydraulic, and fuel controls. (b) Lubrication instructions setting forth the frequency and the lubricants and fluids which are to be used in the various systems. (c) Pressures and electrical loads applicable to the various systems. (d) Tolerances and adjustments necessary for proper functioning. (e) Methods of leveling, raising, and towing. (f) Methods of balancing control surfaces. (g) Identification of primary and secondary structures. (h) Frequency and extent of inspections necessary to the proper operation of the airplane. (i) Special repair methods applicable to the airplane. (j) Special inspection techniques, such as X-ray, ultrasonic, and magnetic particle inspection. (k) List of special tools. Propulsion General 36. Vibration characteristics. For turbopropeller powered airplanes, the engine installation must not result in vibration characteristics of the engine exceeding those established during the type certification of the engine. 37. In flight restarting of engine. If the engine on turbopropeller powered airplanes cannot be restarted at the maximum cruise altitude, a determination must be made of the altitude below which restarts can be consistently accomplished. Restart information must be provided in the Airplane Flight Manual. 38. Engines. (a) For turbopropeller powered airplanes. The engine installation must comply with the following: (1) Engine isolation. The powerplants must be arranged and isolated from each other to allow operation, in at least one configuration, so that the failure or malfunction of any engine, or of any system that can affect the engine, will not— (i) Prevent the continued safe operation of the remaining engines; or (ii) Require immediate action by any crewmember for continued safe operation. (2) Control of engine rotation. There must be a means to individually stop and restart the rotation of any engine in flight except that engine rotation need not be stopped if continued rotation could not jeopardize the safety of the airplane. Each component of the stopping and restarting system on the engine side of the firewall, and that might be exposed to fire, must be at least fire resistant. If hydraulic propeller feathering systems are used for this purpose, the feathering lines must be at least fire resistant under the operating conditions that may be expected to exist during feathering. (3) Engine speed and gas temperature control devices. The powerplant systems associated with engine control devices, systems, and instrumentation must provide reasonable assurance that those engine operating limitations that adversely affect turbine rotor structural integrity will not be exceeded in service. (b) For reciprocating engine powered airplanes. To provide engine isolation, the powerplants must be arranged and isolated from each other to allow operation, in at least one configuration, so that the failure or malfunction of any engine, or of any system that can affect that engine, will not— (1) Prevent the continued safe operation of the remaining engines; or (2) Require immediate action by any crewmember for continued safe operation. 39. Turbopropeller reversing systems. (a) Turbopropeller reversing systems intended for ground operation must be designed so that no single failure or malfunction of the system will result in unwanted reverse thrust under any expected operating condition. Failure of structural elements need not be considered if the probability of this kind of failure is extremely remote.

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(b) Turbopropeller reversing systems intended for in flight use must be designed so that no unsafe condition will result during normal operation of the system, or from any failure (or reasonably likely combination of failures) of the reversing system, under any anticipated condition of operation of the airplane. Failure of structural elements need not be considered if the probability of this kind of failure is extremely remote. (c) Compliance with this section may be shown by failure analysis, testing, or both for propeller systems that allow propeller blades to move from the flight low-pitch position to a position that is substantially less than that at the normal flight low-pitch stop position. The analysis may include or be supported by the analysis made to show compliance with the type certification of the propeller and associated installation components. Credit will be given for pertinent analysis and testing completed by the engine and propeller manufacturers. 40. Turbopropeller drag-limiting systems. Turbopropeller drag-limiting systems must be designed so that no single failure or malfunction of any of the systems during normal or emergency operation results in propeller drag in excess of that for which the airplane was designed. Failure of structural elements of the drag-limiting systems need not be considered if the probability of this kind of failure is extremely remote. 41. Turbine engine powerplant operating characteristics. For turbopropeller powered airplanes, the turbine engine powerplant operating characteristics must be investigated in flight to determine that no adverse characteristics (such as stall, surge, or flameout) are present to a hazardous degree, during normal and emergency operation within the range of operating limitations of the airplane and of the engine. 42. Fuel flow. (a) For turbopropeller powered airplanes— (1) The fuel system must provide for continuous supply of fuel to the engines for normal operation without interruption due to depletion of fuel in any tank other than the main tank; and (2) The fuel flow rate for turbopropeller engine fuel pump systems must not be less than 125 percent of the fuel flow required to develop the standard sea level atmospheric conditions takeoff power selected and included as an operating limitation in the Airplane Flight Manual. (b) For reciprocating engine powered airplanes, it is acceptable for the fuel flow rate for each pump system (main and reserve supply) to be 125 percent of the takeoff fuel consumption of the engine. Fuel System Components 43. Fuel pumps. For turbopropeller powered airplanes, a reliable and independent power source must be provided for each pump used with turbine engines which do not have provisions for mechanically driving the main pumps. It must be demonstrated that the pump installations provide a reliability and durability equivalent to that in FAR 23.991(a). 44. Fuel strainer or filter. For turbopropeller powered airplanes, the following apply: (a) There must be a fuel strainer or filter between the tank outlet and the fuel metering device of the engine. In addition, the fuel strainer or filter must be— (1) Between the tank outlet and the engine-driven positive displacement pump inlet, if there is an engine-driven positive displacement pump; (2) Accessible for drainage and cleaning and, for the strainer screen, easily removable; and (3) Mounted so that its weight is not supported by the connecting lines or by the inlet or outlet connections of the strainer or filter itself. (b) Unless there are means in the fuel system to prevent the accumulation of ice on the filter, there must be means to automatically maintain the fuel-flow if ice-clogging of the filter occurs; and (c) The fuel strainer or filter must be of adequate capacity (for operating limitations established to ensure proper service) and of appropriate mesh to insure proper engine operation, with the fuel contaminated to a degree (for particle size and density) that can be reasonably expected in service. The degree of fuel filtering may not be less than that established for the engine type certification. 45. Lightning strike protection. Protection must be provided against the ignition of flammable vapors in the fuel vent system due to lightning strikes. Cooling 46. Cooling test procedures for turbopropeller powered airplanes. (a) Turbopropeller powered airplanes must be shown to comply with FAR 23.1041 during takeoff, climb, en route, and landing stages of flight that correspond to the applicable performance requirements. The cooling tests must be conducted with the airplane in the configuration, and operating under the conditions that are critical relative to cooling during each stage of flight. For the cooling tests a temperature is “stabilized” when its rate of change is less than 2 °F. per minute. (b) Temperatures must be stabilized under the conditions from which entry is made into each stage of flight being investigated unless the entry condition is not one during which component and engine fluid temperatures would stabilize, in which case, operation through the full entry condition must be conducted before entry into the stage of flight being investigated to allow temperatures to reach their natural levels at the time of entry. The takeoff cooling test must be preceded by a period during which the powerplant component and engine fluid temperatures are stabilized with the engines at ground idle.

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(c) Cooling tests for each stage of flight must be continued until— (1) The component and engine fluid temperatures stabilize; (2) The stage of flight is completed; or (3) An operating limitation is reached. Induction System 47. Air induction. For turbopropeller powered airplanes— (a) There must be means to prevent hazardous quantities of fuel leakage or overflow from drains, vents, or other components of flammable fluid systems from entering the engine intake systems; and (b) The air inlet ducts must be located or protected so as to minimize the ingestion of foreign matter during takeoff, landing, and taxiing. 48. Induction system icing protection. For turbopropeller powered airplanes, each turbine engine must be able to operate throughout its flight power range without adverse effect on engine operation or serious loss of power or thrust, under the icing conditions specified in appendix C of part 25 of this chapter. In addition, there must be means to indicate to appropriate flight crewmembers the functioning of the powerplant ice protection system. 49. Turbine engine bleed air systems. Turbine engine bleed air systems of turbopropeller powered airplanes must be investigated to determine— (a) That no hazard to the airplane will result if a duct rupture occurs. This condition must consider that a failure of the duct can occur anywhere between the engine port and the airplane bleed service; and (b) That, if the bleed air system is used for direct cabin pressurization, it is not possible for hazardous contamination of the cabin air system to occur in event of lubrication system failure. Exhaust System 50. Exhaust system drains. Turbopropeller engine exhaust systems having low spots or pockets must incorporate drains at those locations. These drains must discharge clear of the airplane in normal and ground attitudes to prevent the accumulation of fuel after the failure of an attempted engine start. Powerplant Controls and Accessories 51. Engine controls. If throttles or power levers for turbopropeller powered airplanes are such that any position of these controls will reduce the fuel flow to the engine(s) below that necessary for satisfactory and safe idle operation of the engine while the airplane is in flight, a means must be provided to prevent inadvertent movement of the control into this position. The means provided must incorporate a positive lock or stop at this idle position and must require a separate and distinct operation by the crew to displace the control from the normal engine operating range. 52. Reverse thrust controls. For turbopropeller powered airplanes, the propeller reverse thrust controls must have a means to prevent their inadvertent operation. The means must have a positive lock or stop at the idle position and must require a separate and distinct operation by the crew to displace the control from the flight regime. 53. Engine ignition systems. Each turbopropeller airplane ignition system must be considered an essential electrical load. 54. Powerplant accessories. The powerplant accessories must meet FAR 23.1163, and if the continued rotation of any accessory remotely driven by the engine is hazardous when malfunctioning occurs, there must be means to prevent rotation without interfering with the continued operation of the engine. Powerplant Fire Protection 55. Fire detector system. For turbopropeller powered airplanes, the following apply: (a) There must be a means that ensures prompt detection of fire in the engine compartment. An overtemperature switch in each engine cooling air exit is an acceptable method of meeting this requirement. (b) Each fire detector must be constructed and installed to withstand the vibration, inertia, and other loads to which it may be subjected in operation. (c) No fire detector may be affected by any oil, water, other fluids, or fumes that might be present. (d) There must be means to allow the flight crew to check, in flight, the functioning of each fire detector electric circuit. (e) Wiring and other components of each fire detector system in a fire zone must be at least fire resistant. 56. Fire protection, cowling and nacelle skin. For reciprocating engine powered airplanes, the engine cowling must be designed and constructed so that no fire originating in the engine compartment can enter either through openings or by burn through, any other region where it would create additional hazards. 57. Flammable fluid fire protection. If flammable fluids or vapors might be liberated by the leakage of fluid systems in areas other than engine compartments, there must be means to—

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(a) Prevent the ignition of those fluids or vapors by any other equipment; or (b) Control any fire resulting from that ignition. Equipment 58. Powerplant instruments. (a) The following are required for turbopropeller airplanes: (1) The instruments required by FAR 23.1305 (a) (1) through (4), (b) (2) and (4). (2) A gas temperature indicator for each engine. (3) Free air temperature indicator. (4) A fuel flowmeter indicator for each engine. (5) Oil pressure warning means for each engine. (6) A torque indicator or adequate means for indicating power output for each engine. (7) Fire warning indicator for each engine. (8) A means to indicate when the propeller blade angle is below the low-pitch position corresponding to idle operation in flight. (9) A means to indicate the functioning of the ice protection system for each engine. (b) For turbopropeller powered airplanes, the turbopropeller blade position indicator must begin indicating when the blade has moved below the flight low-pitch position. (c) The following instruments are required for reciprocating engine powered airplanes: (1) The instruments required by FAR 23.1305. (2) A cylinder head temperature indicator for each engine. (3) A manifold pressure indicator for each engine. Systems and Equipments General 59. Function and installation. The systems and equipment of the airplane must meet FAR 23.1301, and the following: (a) Each item of additional installed equipment must— (1) Be of a kind and design appropriate to its intended function; (2) Be labeled as to its identification, function, or operating limitations, or any applicable combination of these factors, unless misuse or inadvertent actuation cannot create a hazard; (3) Be installed according to limitations specified for that equipment; and (4) Function properly when installed. (b) Systems and installations must be designed to safeguard against hazards to the aircraft in the event of their malfunction or failure. (c) Where an installation, the functioning of which is necessary in showing compliance with the applicable requirements, requires a power supply, that installation must be considered an essential load on the power supply, and the power sources and the distribution system must be capable of supplying the following power loads in probable operation combinations and for probable durations: (1) All essential loads after failure of any prime mover, power converter, or energy storage device. (2) All essential loads after failure of any one engine on two-engine airplanes. (3) In determining the probable operating combinations and durations of essential loads for the power failure conditions described in paragraphs (1) and (2) of this paragraph, it is permissible to assume that the power loads are reduced in accordance with a monitoring procedure which is consistent with safety in the types of operations authorized. 60. Ventilation. The ventilation system of the airplane must meet FAR 23.831, and in addition, for pressurized aircraft, the ventilating air in flight crew and passenger compartments must be free of harmful or hazardous concentrations of gases and vapors in normal operation and in the event of reasonably probable failures or malfunctioning of the ventilating, heating, pressurization, or other systems, and equipment. If accumulation of hazardous quantities of smoke in the cockpit area is reasonably probable, smoke evacuation must be readily accomplished. Electrical Systems and Equipment 61. General. The electrical systems and equipment of the airplane must meet FAR 23.1351, and the following: (a) Electrical system capacity. The required generating capacity, and number and kinds of power sources must— (1) Be determined by an electrical load analysis; and (2) Meet FAR 23.1301. (b) Generating system. The generating system includes electrical power sources, main power busses, transmission cables, and associated control, regulation and protective devices. It must be designed so that— (1) The system voltage and frequency (as applicable) at the terminals of all essential load equipment can be maintained within the limits for which the equipment is designed, during any probable operating conditions; (2) System transients due to switching, fault clearing, or other causes do not make essential loads inoperative, and do not cause a smoke or fire hazard; (3) There are means, accessible in flight to appropriate crewmembers, for the individual and collective disconnection of the electrical power sources from the system; and (4) There are means to indicate to appropriate crewmembers the generating system quantities essential for the safe operation of the system, including the voltage and current supplied by each generator.

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62. Electrical equipment and installation. Electrical equipment, controls, and wiring must be installed so that operation of any one unit or system of units will not adversely affect the simultaneous operation of any other electrical unit or system essential to the safe operation. 63. Distribution system. (a) For the purpose of complying with this section, the distribution system includes the distribution busses, their associated feeders, and each control and protective device. (b) Each system must be designed so that essential load circuits can be supplied in the event of reasonably probable faults or open circuits, including faults in heavy current carrying cables. (c) If two independent sources of electrical power for particular equipment or systems are required under this appendix, their electrical energy supply must be ensured by means such as duplicate electrical equipment, throwover switching, or multichannel or loop circuits separately routed. 64. Circuit protective devices. The circuit protective devices for the electrical circuits of the airplane must meet FAR 23.1357, and in addition circuits for loads which are essential to safe operation must have individual and exclusive circuit protection. Pt. 135, App. B Appendix B to Part 135—Airplane Flight Recorder Specifications

Parameters	Range	Installed system  1 minimum accuracy (to recovered data)	Sampling interval (per second)	Resolution  4 read out
Relative time (from recorded on prior to takeoff)	25 hr minimum	±0.125% per hour	1	1 sec.
Indicated airspeed	V so to V D (KIAS)	±5% or ±10 kts., whichever is greater. Resolution 2 kts. below 175 KIAS	1	1%  3 .
Altitude	−1,000 ft. to max cert. alt. of A/C	±100 to ±700 ft. (see Table 1, TSO C51-a)	1	25 to 150
Magnetic heading	360°	±5°	1	1°
Vertical acceleration	−3g to + 6g	±0.2g in addition to ±0.3g maximum datum	4 (or 1 per second where peaks, ref. to 1g are recorded)	0.03g.
Longitudinal acceleration	±1.0g	±1.5% max. range excluding datum error of ±5%	2	0.01g.
Pitch attitude	100% of usable	±2°	1	0.8°
Roll attitude	±60° or 100% of usable range, whichever is greater	±2°	1	0.8°
Stabilizer trim position	Full range	±3% unless higher uniquely required	1	1%  3 .
Or
Pitch control position	Full range	±3% unless higher uniquely required	1	1%  3 .
Engine Power, Each Engine
Fan or N 1 speed or EPR or cockpit indications used for aircraft certification	Maximum range	±5%	1	1%  3 .
Or
Prop. speed and torque (sample once/sec as close together as practicable)			1 (prop speed), 1 (torque)
Altitude rate  2 (need depends on altitude resolution)	±8,000 fpm	±10%. Resolution 250 fpm below 12,000 ft. indicated	1	250 fpm Below 12,000
Angle of attack  2 (need depends on altitude resolution)	−20° to 40° or of usable range	±2°	1	0.8%  3
Radio transmitter keying (discrete)	On/off		1
TE flaps (discrete or analog)	Each discrete position (U, D, T/O, AAP)		1
	Or
	Analog 0-100% range	±3°	1	1%  3
LE flaps (discrete or analog)	Each discrete position (U, D, T/O, AAP)		1
	Or
	Analog 0-100% range	±3°	1	1%  3 .
Thrust reverser, each engine (Discrete)	Stowed or full reverse		1
Spoiler/speedbrake (discrete)	Stowed or out		1
Autopilot engaged (discrete)	Engaged or disengaged		1
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1  When data sources are aircraft instruments (except altimeters) of acceptable quality to fly the aircraft the recording system excluding these sensors (but including all other characteristics of the recording system) shall contribute no more than half of the values in this column.
2  If data from the altitude encoding altimeter (100 ft. resolution) is used, then either one of these parameters should also be recorded. If however, altitude is recorded at a minimum resolution of 25 feet, then these two parameters can be omitted.
3  Per cent of full range.
4  This column applies to aircraft manufacturing after October 11, 1991.

[Docket 25530, 53 FR 26152, July 11, 1988; 53 FR 30906, Aug. 16, 1988, as amended by Amdt. 135-69, 62 FR 38397, July 17, 1997] Pt. 135, App. C Appendix C to Part 135—Helicopter Flight Recorder Specifications

Parameters	Range	Installed system  1 minimum accuracy (to recovered data)	Sampling interval (per second)	Resolution  3 read out
Relative time (from recorded on prior to takeoff)	25 hr minimum	±0.125% per hour	1	1 sec.
Indicated airspeed	V m in to V D (KIAS) (minimum airspeed signal attainable with installed pilot-static system)	±5% or ±10 kts., whichever is greater	1	1 kt.
Altitude	−1,000 ft. to 20,000 ft. pressure altitude	±100 to ±700 ft. (see Table 1, TSO C51-a)	1	25 to 150 ft.
Magnetic heading	360°	±5°	1	1°.
Vertical acceleration	−3g to + 6g	±0.2g in addition to ±0.3g maximum datum	4 (or 1 per second where peaks, ref. to 1g are recorded)	0.05g.
Longitudinal acceleration	±1.0g	±1.5% max. range excluding datum error of ±5%	2	0.03g.
Pitch attitude	100% of usable range	±2°	1	0.8°.
Roll attitude	±60° or 100% of usable range, whichever is greater	±2°	1	0.8°.
Altitude rate	±8,000 fpm	±10% Resolution 250 fpm below 12,000 ft. indicated	1	250 fpm below 12,000.
Engine Power, Each Engine
Main rotor speed	Maximum range	±5%	1	1%  2
Free or power turbine	Maximum range	+ 5%	1	1%  2
Engine torque	Maximum range	±5%	1	1%  2
Flight Control—Hydraulic Pressure
Primary (discrete)	High/low		1
Secondary—if applicable (discrete)	High/low		1
Radio transmitter keying (discrete)	On/off		1
Autopilot engaged (discrete)	Engaged or disengaged		1
SAS status—engaged (discrete)	Engaged/disengaged		1
SAS fault status (discrete)	Fault/OK		1
Flight Controls
Collective  4	Full range	±3%	2	1%  2
Pedal Position  4	Full range	±3%	2	1%  2
Lat. Cyclic  4	Full range	±3%	2	1%  2
Long. Cyclic  4	Full range	±3%	2	1%  2
Controllable Stabilator Position  4	Full range	±3%	2	1%  2
1  When data sources are aircraft instruments (except altimeters) of acceptable quality to fly the aircraft the recording system excluding these sensors (but including all other characteristics of the recording system) shall contribute no more than half of the values in this column.
2  Per cent of full range.
3  This column applies to aircraft manufactured after October 11, 1991.
4  For all aircraft manufactured on or after December 6, 2010, the sampling interval per second is 4.

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[Docket 25530, 53 FR 26152, July 11, 1988; 53 FR 30906, Aug. 16, 1988, as amended by Amdt. 135-69, 62 FR 38397, July 17, 1997; Amdt. 135-113, 73 FR 12570, Mar. 7, 2008; 73 FR 15281, Mar. 21, 2008; Amdt. 135-121, 75 FR 17047, Apr. 5, 2010] Pt. 135, App. D Appendix D to Part 135—Airplane Flight Recorder Specification

Parameters	Range	Accuracy sensor input to DFDR readout	Sampling interval (per second)	resolution  4 read out
Time (GMT or Frame Counter) (range 0 to 4095, sampled 1 per frame)	24 Hrs	±0.125% Per Hour	0.25 (1 per 4 seconds)	1 sec.
Altitude	−1,000 ft to max certificated altitude of aircraft	±100 to ±700 ft (See Table 1, TSO-C51a)	1	5′ to 35′  1 .
Airspeed	50 KIAS to V so , and V so to 1.2 V D	±5%, ±3%	1	1kt
Heading	360°	±2°	1	0.5°
Normal Acceleration (Vertical)	−3g to + 6g	±1% of max range excluding datum error of ±5%	8	0.01g
Pitch Attitude	±75°	±2°	1	0.5°
Roll Attitude	±180°	±2°	1	0.5°.
Radio Transmitter Keying	On-Off (Discrete)		1
Thrust/Power on Each Engine	Full range forward	±2%	1 (per engine)	0.2%  2 .
Trailing Edge Flap or Cockpit Control Selection	Full range or each discrete position	±3° or as pilot's indicator	0.5	0.5%  2 .
Leading Edge Flap on or Cockpit Control Selection	Full range or each discrete position	±3° or as pilot's indicator	0.5	0.5%  2 .
Thrust Reverser Position	Stowed, in transit, and reverse (discretion)		1 (per 4 seconds per engine)
Ground Spoiler Position/Speed Brake Selection	Full range or each discrete position	±2% unless higher accuracy uniquely required	1	0.22  2 .
Marker Beacon Passage	Discrete		1
Autopilot Engagement	Discrete		1
Longitudinal Acceleration	±1g	±1.5% max range excluding datum error of ±5%	4	0.01g.
Pilot Input And/or Surface Position-Primary Controls (Pitch, Roll, Yaw)  3	Full range	±2° unless higher accuracy uniquely required	1	0.2%  2 .
Lateral Acceleration	±1g	±1.5% max range excluding datum error of ±5%	4	0.01g.
Pitch Trim Position	Full range	±3% unless higher accuracy uniquely required	1	0.3%  2 .
Glideslope Deviation	±400 Microamps	±3%	1	0.3%  2 .
Localizer Deviation	±400 Microamps	±3%	1	0.3%  2 .
AFCS Mode And Engagement Status	Discrete		1
Radio Altitude	−20 ft to 2,500 ft	±2 Ft or ±3% whichever is greater below 500 ft and ±5% above 500 ft	1	1 ft + 5%  2 above 500′.
Master Warning	Discrete		1
Main Gear Squat Switch Status	Discrete		1
Angle of Attack (if recorded directly)	As installed	As installed	2	0.3%  2 .
Outside Air Temperature or Total Air Temperature	−50 °C to + 90 °C	±2° c	0.5	0.3° c
Hydraulics, Each System Low Pressure	Discrete		0.5	or 0.5%  2 .
Groundspeed	As installed	Most accurate systems installed (IMS equipped aircraft only)	1	0.2%  2 .
If additional recording capacity is available, recording of the following parameters is recommended. The parameters are listed in order of significance:
Drift Angle	When available. As installed	As installed	4
Wind Speed and Direction	When available. As installed	As installed	4
Latitude and Longitude	When available. As installed	As installed	4
Brake pressure/Brake pedal position	As installed	As installed	1
Additional engine parameters:
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EPR	As installed	As installed	1 (per engine)
N  1	As installed	As installed	1 (per engine)
N  2	As installed	As installed	1 (per engine)
EGT	As installed	As installed	1 (per engine)
Throttle Lever Position	As installed	As installed	1 (per engine)
Fuel Flow	As installed	As installed	1 (per engine)
TCAS:
TA	As installed	As installed	1
RA	As installed	As installed	1
Sensitivity level (as selected by crew)	As installed	As installed	2
GPWS (ground proximity warning system)	Discrete		1
Landing gear or gear selector position	Discrete		0.25 (1 per 4 seconds)
DME 1 and 2 Distance	0-200 NM;	As installed	0.25	1mi.
Nav 1 and 2 Frequency Selection	Full range	As installed	0.25
1  When altitude rate is recorded. Altitude rate must have sufficient resolution and sampling to permit the derivation of altitude to 5 feet.
2  Per cent of full range.
3  For airplanes that can demonstrate the capability of deriving either the control input on control movement (one from the other) for all modes of operation and flight regimes, the “or” applies. For airplanes with non-mechanical control systems (fly-by-wire) the “and” applies. In airplanes with split surfaces, suitable combination of inputs is acceptable in lieu of recording each surface separately.
4  This column applies to aircraft manufactured after October 11, 1991.

[Docket 25530, 53 FR 26153, July 11, 1988; 53 FR 30906, Aug. 16, 1988] Pt. 135, App. E Appendix E to Part 135—Helicopter Flight Recorder Specifications

Parameters	Range	Accuracy sensor input to DFDR readout	Sampling interval (per second)	Resolution  2 read out
Time (GMT)	24 Hrs	±0.125% Per Hour	0.25 (1 per 4 seconds)	1 sec
Altitude	−1,000 ft to max certificated altitude of aircraft	±100 to ±700 ft (See Table 1, TSO-C51a)	1	5′ to 30′.
Airspeed	As the installed measuring system	±3%	1	1 kt
Heading	360°	±2°	1	0.5°.
Normal Acceleration (Vertical)	−3g to + 6g	±1% of max range excluding datum error of ±5%	8	0.01g
Pitch Attitude	±75°	±2°	2	0.5°
Roll Attitude	±180°	±2°	2	0.5°.
Radio Transmitter Keying	On-Off (Discrete)		1	0.25 sec
Power in Each Engine: Free Power Turbine Speed and Engine Torque	0-130% (power Turbine Speed) Full range (Torque)	±2%	1 speed 1 torque (per engine)	0.2%  1 to 0.4%  1
Main Rotor Speed	0-130%	±2%	2	0.3%  1
Altitude Rate	±6,000 ft/min	As installed	2	0.2%  1
Pilot Input—Primary Controls (Collective, Longitudinal Cyclic, Lateral Cyclic, Pedal)  3	Full range	±3%	2	0.5%  1
Flight Control Hydraulic Pressure Low	Discrete, each circuit		1
Flight Control Hydraulic Pressure Selector Switch Position, 1st and 2nd stage	Discrete		1
AFCS Mode and Engagement Status	Discrete (5 bits necessary)		1
Stability Augmentation System Engage	Discrete		1
SAS Fault Status	Discrete		0.25
Main Gearbox Temperature Low	As installed	As installed	0.25	0.5%  1
Main Gearbox Temperature High	As installed	As installed	0.5	0.5%  1
Controllable Stabilator Position	Full Range	±3%	2	0.4%  1 .
Longitudinal Acceleration	±1g	±1.5% max range excluding datum error of ±5%	4	0.01g.
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Lateral Acceleration	±1g	±1.5% max range excluding datum of ±5%	4	0.01g.
Master Warning	Discrete		1
Nav 1 and 2 Frequency Selection	Full range	As installed	0.25
Outside Air Temperature	−50 °C to + 90 °C	±2° c	0.5	0.3° c
1  Per cent of full range.
2  This column applies to aircraft manufactured after October 11, 1991.
3  For all aircraft manufactured on or after December 6, 2010, the sampling interval per second is 4.

[Docket 25530, 53 FR 26154, July 11, 1988; 53 FR 30906, Aug. 16, 1988; Amdt. 135-113, 73 FR 12571, Mar. 7, 2008; 73 FR 15281, Mar. 21, 2008; Amdt. 135-121, 75 FR 17047, Apr. 5, 2010] Pt. 135, App. F Appendix F to Part 135—Airplane Flight Recorder Specification

The recorded values must meet the designated range, resolution and accuracy requirements during static and dynamic conditions. Dynamic condition means the parameter is experiencing change at the maximum rate attainable, including the maximum rate of reversal. All data recorded must be correlated in time to within one second.
Parameters	Range	Accuracy (sensor input)	Seconds per sampling interval	Resolution	Remarks
1. Time or Relative Time Counts  1	24 Hrs, 0 to 4095	±0.125% Per Hour	4	1 sec	UTC time preferred when available. Counter increments each 4 seconds of system operation.
2. Pressure Altitude	−1000 ft to max certificated altitude of aircraft. + 5000 ft	±100 to ±700 ft (see table, TSO C124a or TSO C51a)	1	5′ to 35″	Data should be obtained from the air data computer when practicable.
3. Indicated airspeed or Calibrated airspeed	50 KIAS or minimum value to Max V so≢ and V so to 1.2 V. D	±5% and ±3%	1	1 kt	Data should be obtained from the air data computer when practicable.
4. Heading (Primary flight crew reference)	0−360° and Discrete “true” or “mag”	±2°	1	0.5°	When true or magnetic heading can be selected as the primary heading reference, a discrete indicating selection must be recorded.
5. Normal Acceleration (Vertical)  9	−3g to + 6g	±1% of max range excluding datum error of ±5%	0.125	0.004g
6. Pitch Attitude	±75%	±2°	1 or 0.25 for airplanes operated under § 135.152(j)	0.5°	A sampling rate of 0.25 is recommended.
7. Roll Attitude  2	±180°	±2°	1 or 0.5 0.5 airplanes operated under § 135.152(j)	0.5°	A sampling rate of 0.5 is recommended.
8. Manual Radio Transmitter Keying or CVR/DFDR synchronization reference	On-Off (Discrete) None		1		Preferably each crew member but one discrete acceptable for all transmission provided the CVR/FDR system complies with TSO C124a CVR synchronization requirements (paragraph 4.2.1 ED-55).
9. Thrust/Power on each engine—primary flight crew reference	Full Range Forward	±2%	1 (per engine)	0.3% of full range	Sufficient parameters (e.g. EPR, N1 or Torque, NP) as appropriate to the particular engine being recorded to determine power in forward and reverse thrust, including potential overspeed condition.
10. Autopilot Engagement	Discrete “on” or “off”		1
11. Longitudinal Acceleration	±1g	±1.5% max. range excluding datum error of ±5%	0.25	0.004g.
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12a. Pitch control(s) position (nonfly-by-wire systems)  18	Full Range	±2° unless higher accuracy uniquely required	0.5 or 0.25 for airplanes operated under § 135.152(j)	0.5% of full range	For airplanes that have a flight control breakaway capability that allows either pilot to operate the controls independently, record both control inputs. The control inputs may be sampled alternately once per second to produce the sampling interval of 0.5 or 0.25, as applicable.
12b. Pitch control(s) position (fly-by-wire systems)  3 18	Full Range	±2° unless higher accuracy uniquely required	0.5 or 0.25 for airplanes operated under § 135.152(j)	0.2% of full range
13a. Lateral control position(s) (nonfly-by-wire)  18	Full Range	±2° unless higher accuracy uniquely required	0.5 or 0.25 for airplanes operated under § 135.152(j)	0.2% of full range	For airplanes that have a flight control breakaway capability that allows either pilot to operate the controls independently, record both control inputs. The control inputs may be sampled alternately once per second to produce the sampling interval of 0.5 or 0.25, as applicable.
13b. Lateral control position(s) (fly-by-wire)  4 18	Full Range	±2° unless higher accuracy uniquely required	0.5 or 0.25 for airplanes operated under § 135.152(j)	0.2% of full range
14a. Yaw control position(s) (nonfly-by-wire)  5 18	Full Range	±2° unless higher accuracy uniquely required	0.5	0.3% of full range	For airplanes that have a flight control breakaway capability that allows either pilot to operate the controls independently, record both control inputs. The control inputs may be sampled alternately once per second to produce the sampling of 0.5 or 0.25, as applicable.
14b. Yaw control position(s) (fly-by-wire)  18	Full Range	±2° unless higher accuracy uniquely required	0.5	0.2% of full range
15. Pitch control surface(s) position  6 18	Full Range	±2° unless higher accuracy uniquely required	0.5 or 0.25 for airplanes operated under § 135.152(j).	0.3% of full range	For airplanes fitted with multiple or split surfaces, a suitable combination of inputs is acceptable in lieu of recording each surface separately. The control surfaces may be sampled alternately to produce the sampling interval of 0.5 or 0.25, as applicable.
16. Lateral control surface(s) position  7 18	Full Range	±2° unless higher accuracy uniquely required	0.5 or 0.25 for airplanes operated under § 135.152(j)	0.2% of full range	A suitable combination of surface position sensors is acceptable in lieu of recording each surface separately. The control surfaces may be sampled alternately to produce the sampling interval of 0.5 or 0.25, as applicable.
17. Yaw control surface(s) position  8 18	Full Range	±2° unless higher accuracy uniquely required	0.5	0.2% of full range	For airplanes with multiple or split surfaces, a suitable combination of surface position sensors is acceptable in lieu of recording each surface separately. The control surfaces may be sampled alternately to produce the sampling interval of 0.5.
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18. Lateral Acceleration	±1g	±1.5% max. range excluding datum error of ±5%	0.25	0.004g
19. Pitch Trim Surface Position	Full Range	±3° Unless Higher Accuracy Uniquely Required	1	0.6% of full range
20. Trailing Edge Flap or Cockpit Control Selection  10	Full Range or Each Position (discrete)	±3° or as Pilot's Indicator	2	0.5% of full range	Flap position and cockpit control may each be sampled alternately at 4 second intervals, to give a data point every 2 seconds.
21. Leading Edge Flap or Cockpit Control Selection  11	Full Range or Each Discrete Position	±3° or as Pilot's Indicator and sufficient to determine each discrete position	2	0.5% of full range	Left and right sides, of flap position and cockpit control may each be sampled at 4 second intervals, so as to give a data point to every 2 seconds.
22. Each Thrust reverser Position (or equivalent for propeller airplane)	Stowed, In Transit, and reverse (Discrete)		1 (per engine		Turbo-jet—2 discretes enable the 3 states to be determined Turbo-prop—1 discrete
23. Ground Spoiler Position or Speed Brake Selection  12	Full Range or Each Position (discrete)	±2° Unless Higher Accuracy Uniquely Required	1 or 0.5 for airplanes operated under § 135.152(j)	0.5% of full range
24. Outside Air Temperature or Total Air Temperature  13	−50 °C to + 90 °C	±2 °C	2	0.3 °C
25. Autopilot/Autothrottle/AFCS Mode and Engagement Status	A suitable combination of discretes		1		Discretes should show which systems are engaged and which primary modes are controlling the flight path and speed of the aircraft.
26. Radio Altitude  14	−20 ft to 2,500 ft	±2 ft or ±3% Whichever is Greater Below 500 ft and ±5% Above 500 ft	1	1 ft + 5% above 500 ft	For autoland/category 3 operations. Each radio altimeter should be recorded, but arranged so that at least one is recorded each second.
27. Localizer Deviation, MLS Azimuth, or GPS Lateral Deviation	±400 Microamps or available sensor range as installed ±62°	As installed ±3% recommended.	1	0.3% of full range	For autoland/category 3 operations. Each system should be recorded but arranged so that at least one is recorded each second. It is not necessary to record ILS and MLS at the same time, only the approach aid in use need be recorded.
28. Glideslope Deviation, MLS Elevation, or GPS Vertical Deviation	±400 Microamps or available sensor range as installed 0.9 to + 30°	As installed ±3% recommended	1	0.3% of full range	For autoland/category 3 operations. Each system should be recorded but arranged so that at least one is recorded each second. It is not necessary to record ILS and MLS at the same time, only the approach aid in use need be recorded.
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29. Marker Beacon Passage	Discrete “on” or “off”		1		A single discrete is acceptable for all markers.
30. Master Warning	Discrete		1		Record the master warning and record each “red” warning that cannot be determined from other parameters or from the cockpit voice recorder.
31. Air/ground sensor (primary airplane system reference nose or main gear)	Discrete “air” or “ground”		1 (0.25 recommended.)
32. Angle of Attack (If measured directly)	As installed	As installed	2 or 0.5 for airplanes operated under § 135.152(j)	0.3% of full range	If left and right sensors are available, each may be recorded at 4 or 1 second intervals, as appropriate, so as to give a data point at 2 seconds or 0.5 second, as required.
33. Hydraulic Pressure Low, Each System	Discrete or available sensor range, “low” or “normal”	±5%	2	0.5% of full range.
34. Groundspeed	As installed	Most Accurate Systems Installed	1	0.2% of full range.
35. GPWS (ground proximity warning system)	Discrete “warning” or “off”		1		A suitable combination of discretes unless recorder capacity is limited in which case a single discrete for all modes is acceptable.
36. Landing Gear Position or Landing gear cockpit control selection	Discrete		4		A suitable combination of discretes should be recorded.
37. Drift Angle  15	As installed	As installed	4	0.1°
38. Wind Speed and Direction	As installed	As installed	4	1 knot, and 1.0°.
39. Latitude and Longitude	As installed	As installed	4	0.002°, or as installed	Provided by the Primary Navigation System Reference. Where capacity permits latitude/longitude resolution should be 0.0002°.
40. Stick shaker and pusher activation	Discrete(s) “on” or “off”		1		A suitable combination of discretes to determine activation.
41. Windshear Detection	Discrete “warning” or “off”		1.
42. Throttle/power lever position  16	Full Range	±2%	1 for each lever	2% of full range	For airplanes with non-mechanically linked cockpit engine controls.
43. Additional Engine Parameters	As installed	As installed	Each engine each second	2% of full range	Where capacity permits, the preferred priority is indicated vibration level, N2, EGT, Fuel Flow, Fuel Cut-off lever position and N3, unless engine manufacturer recommends otherwise.
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44. Traffic Alert and Collision Avoidance System (TCAS)	Discretes	As installed	1		A suitable combination of discretes should be recorded to determine the status of—Combined Control, Vertical Control, Up Advisory, and down advisory. (ref. ARINC Characteristic 735 Attachment 6E, TCAS VERTICAL RA DATA OUTPUT WORD.)
45. DME 1 and 2 Distance	0-200 NM;	As installed	4	1 NM	1 mile.
46. Nav 1 and 2 Selected Frequency	Full range	As installed	4		Sufficient to determine selected frequency.
47. Selected barometric setting	Full Range	±5%	(1 per 64 sec.)	0.2% of full range.
48. Selected altitude	Full Range	±5%	1	100 ft.
49. Selected speed	Full Range	±5%	1	1 knot.
50. Selected Mach	Full Range	±5%	1	.01.
51. Selected vertical speed	Full Range	±5%	1	100 ft./min.
52. Selected heading	Full Range	±5%	1	1°.
53. Selected flight path	Full Range	±5%	1	1°.
54. Selected decision height	Full Range	±5%	64	1 ft.
55. EFIS display format	Discrete(s)		4		Discretes should show the display system status (e.g., off, normal, fail, composite, sector, plan, nav aids, weather radar, range, copy.
56. Multi-function/Engine Alerts Display format	Discrete(s)		4		Discretes should show the display system status (e.g., off, normal, fail, and the identity of display pages for emergency procedures, need not be recorded.
57. Thrust comand  17	Full Range	±2%	2	2% of full range
58. Thrust target	Full Range	±2%	4	2% of full range.
59. Fuel quantity in CG trim tank	Full Range	±5%	(1 per 64 sec.)	1% of full range.
60. Primary Navigation System Reference	Discrete GPS, INS, VOR/DME, MLS, Localizer Glideslope		4		A suitable combination of discretes to determine the Primary Navigation System reference.
61. Ice Detection	Discrete “ice” or “no ice”		4.
62. Engine warning each engine vibration	Discrete		1.
63. Engine warning each engine over temp.	Discrete		1.
64. Engine warning each engine oil pressure low	Discrete		1.
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65. Engine warning each engine over speed	Discrete		1.
66. Yaw Trim Surface Position	Full Range	±3% Unless Higher Accuracy Uniquely Required	2	0.3% of full range.
67. Roll Trim Surface Position	Full Range	±3% Unless Higher Accuracy Uniquely Required	2	0.3% of full range.
68. Brake Pressure (left and right)	As installed	±5%	1		To determine braking effort applied by pilots or by autobrakes.
69. Brake Pedal Application (left and right)	Discrete or Analog “applied” or “off”	±5% (Analog)	1		To determine braking applied by pilots.
70. Yaw or sideslip angle	Full Range	±5%	1	0.5°.
71. Engine bleed valve position	Discrete “open” or “closed”		4.
72. De-icing or anti-icing system selection	Discrete “on” or “off”		4.
73. Computed center of gravity	Full Range	±5%	(1 per 64 sec.)	1% of full range.
74. AC electrical bus status	Discrete “power” or “off”		4		Each bus.
75. DC electrical bus status	Discrete “power” or “off”		4		Each bus.
76. APU bleed valve position	Discrete “open” or “closed”		4.
77. Hydraulic Pressure (each system)	Full range	±5%	2	100 psi.
78. Loss of cabin pressure	Discrete “loss” or “normal”		1.
79. Computer failure (critical flight and engine control systems)	Discrete “fail” or “normal”		4.
80. Heads-up display (when an information source is installed)	Discrete(s) “on” or “off”		4.
81. Para-visual display (when an information source is installed)	Discrete(s) “on” or “off”		1.
82. Cockpit trim control input position—pitch	Full Range	±5%	1	0.2% of full range	Where mechanical means for control inputs are not available, cockpit display trim positions should be recorded.
83. Cockpit trim control input position—roll	Full Range	±5%	1	0.7% of full range	Where mechanical means for control inputs are not available, cockpit display trim position should be recorded.
84. Cockpit trim control input position—yaw	Full Range	±5%	1	0.3% of full range	Where mechanical means for control input are not available, cockpit display trim positions should be recorded.
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85. Trailing edge flap and cockpit flap control position	Full Range	±5%	2	0.5% of full range	Trailing edge flaps and cockpit flap control position may each be sampled alternately at 4 second intervals to provide a sample each 0.5 second.
86. Leading edge flap and cockpit flap control position	Full Range or Discrete	±5%	1	0.5% of full range.
87. Ground spoiler position and speed brake selection	Full Range or Discrete	±5%	0.5	0.3% of full range
88. All cockpit flight control input forces (control wheel, control column, rudder pedal)  18	Full Range Control wheel ±70 lbs. Control column ±85 lbs. Rudder pedal ±165 lbs	±5°	1	0.3% of full range	For fly-by-wire flight control systems, where flight control surface position is a function of the displacement of the control input device only, it is not necessary to record this parameter. For airplanes that have a flight control breakaway capability that allows either pilot to operate the control independently, record both control force inputs. The control force inputs may be sampled alternately once per 2 seconds to produce the sampling interval of 1.
1  For A300 B2/B4 airplanes, resolution = 6 seconds.
2  For A330/A340 series airplanes, resolution = 0.703°.
3  For A318/A319/A320/A321 series airplanes, resolution = 0.275% (0.088°>0.064°). For A330/A340 series airplanes, resolution = 2.20% (0.703°>0.064°).
4  For A318/A319/A320/A321 series airplanes, resolution = 0.22% (0.088°>0.080°). For A330/A340 series airplanes, resolution = 1.76% (0.703°>0.080°).
5  For A330/A340 series airplanes, resolution = 1.18% (0.703°>0.120°).
6  For A330/A340 series airplanes, resolution = 0.783% (0.352°>0.090°).
7  For A330/A340 series airplanes, aileron resolution = 0.704% (0.352°>0.100°). For A330/A340 series airplanes, spoiler resolution = 1.406% (0.703°>0.100°).
8  For A330/A340 series airplanes, resolution = 0.30% (0.176°>0.12°). For A330/A340 series airplanes, seconds per sampling interval = 1.
9  For B-717 series airplanes, resolution = .005g. For Dassault F900C/F900EX airplanes, resolution = .007g.
10  For A330/A340 series airplanes, resolution = 1.05% (0.250°>0.120°).
11  For A330/A340 series airplanes, resolution = 1.05% (0.250°>0.120°). For A300 B2/B4 series airplanes, resolution = 0.92% (0.230°>0.125°).
12  For A330/A340 series airplanes, spoiler resolution = 1.406% (0.703°>0.100°).
13  For A330/A340 series airplanes, resolution = 0.5 °C.
14  For Dassault F900C/F900EX airplanes, Radio Altitude resolution = 1.25 ft.
15  For A330/A340 series airplanes, resolution = 0.352 degrees.
16  For A318/A319/A320/A321 series airplanes, resolution = 4.32%. For A330/A340 series airplanes, resolution is 3.27% of full range for throttle lever angle (TLA); for reverse thrust, reverse throttle lever angle (RLA) resolution is nonlinear over the active reverse thrust range, which is 51.54 degrees to 96.14 degrees. The resolved element is 2.8 degrees uniformly over the entire active reverse thrust range, or 2.9% of the full range value of 96.14 degrees.
17  For A318/A319/A320/A321 series airplanes, with IAE engines, resolution = 2.58%.
18  For all aircraft manufactured on or after December 6, 2010, the seconds per sampling interval is 0.125. Each input must be recorded at this rate. Alternately sampling inputs (interleaving) to meet this sampling interval is prohibited.

[Docket 28109, 62 FR 38398, July 17, 1997; 62 FR 48135, Sept. 12, 1997; Amdt. 135-85, 67 FR 54323, Aug. 21, 2002; Amdt. 135-89, 68 FR 42939, July 18, 2003; 68 FR 50069, Aug. 20, 2003; Amdt. 135-113, 73 FR 12570, Mar. 7, 2008; Amdt. 135-121, 75 FR 17047, Apr. 5, 2010; Amdt. 135-120, 75 FR 7357, Feb. 19, 2010; Docket FAA-2017-0733, Amdt. 135-137, 82 FR 34399, July 25, 2017]

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Pt. 135, App. G Appendix G to Part 135—Extended Operations (ETOPS) G135.1  Definitions.

G135.1.1  Adequate Airport means an airport that an airplane operator may list with approval from the FAA because that airport meets the landing limitations of § 135.385 or is a military airport that is active and operational. G135.1.2  ETOPS Alternate Airport means an adequate airport that is designated in a dispatch or flight release for use in the event of a diversion during ETOPS. This definition applies to flight planning and does not in any way limit the authority of the pilot in command during flight. G135.1.3  ETOPS Entry Point means the first point on the route of an ETOPS flight, determined using a one-engine inoperative cruise speed under standard conditions in still air, that is more than 180 minutes from an adequate airport. G135.1.4  ETOPS Qualified Person means a person, performing maintenance for the certificate holder, who has satisfactorily completed the certificate holder's ETOPS training program. G135.2  Requirements. G135.2.1  General. After August 13, 2008, no certificate holder may operate an airplane, other than an all-cargo airplane with more than two engines, outside the continental United States more than 180 minutes flying time (at the one-engine-inoperative cruise speed under standard conditions in still air) from an airport described in § 135.364 unless— (a) The certificate holder receives ETOPS approval from the FAA; (b) The operation is conducted in a multi-engine transport category turbine-powered airplane; (c) The operation is planned to be no more than 240 minutes flying time (at the one engine inoperative cruise speed under standard conditions in still air) from an airport described in § 135.364; and (d) The certificate holder meets the requirements of this appendix. G135.2.2 Required certificate holder experience prior to conducting ETOPS. Before applying for ETOPS approval, the certificate holder must have at least 12 months experience conducting international operations (excluding Canada and Mexico) with multi-engine transport category turbine-engine powered airplanes. The certificate holder may consider the following experience as international operations: (a) Operations to or from the State of Hawaii. (b) For certificate holders granted approval to operate under part 135 or part 121 before February 15, 2007, up to 6 months of domestic operating experience and operations in Canada and Mexico in multi-engine transport category turbojet-powered airplanes may be credited as part of the required 12 months of international experience required by paragraph G135.2.2(a) of this appendix. (c) ETOPS experience with other aircraft types to the extent authorized by the FAA. G135.2.3  Airplane requirements. No certificate holder may conduct ETOPS in an airplane that was manufactured after February 17, 2015 unless the airplane meets the standards of § 25.1535. G135.2.4  Crew information requirements. The certificate holder must ensure that flight crews have in-flight access to current weather and operational information needed to comply with § 135.83, § 135.225, and § 135.229. This includes information on all ETOPS Alternate Airports, all destination alternates, and the destination airport proposed for each ETOPS flight. G135.2.5  Operational Requirements. (a) No person may allow a flight to continue beyond its ETOPS Entry Point unless— (1) The weather conditions at each ETOPS Alternate Airport are forecast to be at or above the operating minima in the certificate holder's operations specifications for that airport when it might be used (from the earliest to the latest possible landing time), and (3) All ETOPS Alternate Airports within the authorized ETOPS maximum diversion time are reviewed for any changes in conditions that have occurred since dispatch. (b) In the event that an operator cannot comply with paragraph G135.2.5(a)(1) of this appendix for a specific airport, another ETOPS Alternate Airport must be substituted within the maximum ETOPS diversion time that could be authorized for that flight with weather conditions at or above operating minima. (c) Pilots must plan and conduct ETOPS under instrument flight rules. (d) Time-Limited Systems. (1) Except as provided in paragraph G135.2.5(d)(3) of this appendix, the time required to fly the distance to each ETOPS Alternate Airport (at the all-engines-operating cruise speed, corrected for wind and temperature) may not exceed the time specified in the Airplane Flight Manual for the airplane's most limiting fire suppression system time required by regulation for any cargo or baggage compartments (if installed), minus 15 minutes. (2) Except as provided in G135.2.5(d)(3) of this appendix, the time required to fly the distance to each ETOPS Alternate Airport (at the approved one-engine-inoperative cruise speed, corrected for wind and temperature) may not exceed the time specified in the Airplane Flight Manual for the airplane's most time limited system time (other than the airplane's most limiting fire suppression system time required by regulation for any cargo or baggage compartments), minus 15 minutes.

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(3) A certificate holder operating an airplane without the Airplane Flight Manual information needed to comply with paragraphs G135.2.5(d)(1) and (d)(2) of this appendix, may continue ETOPS with that airplane until February 17, 2015. G135.2.6  Communications Requirements. (a) No person may conduct an ETOPS flight unless the following communications equipment, appropriate to the route to be flown, is installed and operational: (1) Two independent communication transmitters, at least one of which allows voice communication. (2) Two independent communication receivers, at least one of which allows voice communication. (3) Two headsets, or one headset and one speaker. (b) In areas where voice communication facilities are not available, or are of such poor quality that voice communication is not possible, communication using an alternative system must be substituted. G135.2.7  Fuel Requirements. No person may dispatch or release for flight an ETOPS flight unless, considering wind and other weather conditions expected, it has the fuel otherwise required by this part and enough fuel to satisfy each of the following requirements: (a) Fuel to fly to an ETOPS Alternate Airport. (1) Fuel to account for rapid decompression and engine failure. The airplane must carry the greater of the following amounts of fuel: (i) Fuel sufficient to fly to an ETOPS Alternate Airport assuming a rapid decompression at the most critical point followed by descent to a safe altitude in compliance with the oxygen supply requirements of § 135.157; (ii) Fuel sufficient to fly to an ETOPS Alternate Airport (at the one-engine-inoperative cruise speed under standard conditions in still air) assuming a rapid decompression and a simultaneous engine failure at the most critical point followed by descent to a safe altitude in compliance with the oxygen requirements of § 135.157; or (iii) Fuel sufficient to fly to an ETOPS Alternate Airport (at the one-engine-inoperative cruise speed under standard conditions in still air) assuming an engine failure at the most critical point followed by descent to the one engine inoperative cruise altitude. (2) Fuel to account for errors in wind forecasting. In calculating the amount of fuel required by paragraph G135.2.7(a)(1) of this appendix, the certificate holder must increase the actual forecast wind speed by 5% (resulting in an increase in headwind or a decrease in tailwind) to account for any potential errors in wind forecasting. If a certificate holder is not using the actual forecast wind based on a wind model accepted by the FAA, the airplane must carry additional fuel equal to 5% of the fuel required by paragraph G135.2.7(a) of this appendix, as reserve fuel to allow for errors in wind data. (3) Fuel to account for icing. In calculating the amount of fuel required by paragraph G135.2.7(a)(1) of this appendix, (after completing the wind calculation in G135.2.7(a)(2) of this appendix), the certificate holder must ensure that the airplane carries the greater of the following amounts of fuel in anticipation of possible icing during the diversion: (i) Fuel that would be burned as a result of airframe icing during 10 percent of the time icing is forecast (including the fuel used by engine and wing anti-ice during this period). (ii) Fuel that would be used for engine anti-ice, and if appropriate wing anti-ice, for the entire time during which icing is forecast. (4) Fuel to account for engine deterioration. In calculating the amount of fuel required by paragraph G135.2.7(a)(1) of this appendix (after completing the wind calculation in paragraph G135.2.7(a)(2) of this appendix), the certificate holder must ensure the airplane also carries fuel equal to 5% of the fuel specified above, to account for deterioration in cruise fuel burn performance unless the certificate holder has a program to monitor airplane in-service deterioration to cruise fuel burn performance. (b) Fuel to account for holding, approach, and landing. In addition to the fuel required by paragraph G135.2.7 (a) of this appendix, the airplane must carry fuel sufficient to hold at 1500 feet above field elevation for 15 minutes upon reaching the ETOPS Alternate Airport and then conduct an instrument approach and land. (c) Fuel to account for APU use. If an APU is a required power source, the certificate holder must account for its fuel consumption during the appropriate phases of flight. G135.2.8 Maintenance Program Requirements. In order to conduct an ETOPS flight under § 135.364, each certificate holder must develop and comply with the ETOPS maintenance program as authorized in the certificate holder's operations specifications for each two-engine airplane-engine combination used in ETOPS. This provision does not apply to operations using an airplane with more than two engines. The certificate holder must develop this ETOPS maintenance program to supplement the maintenance program currently approved for the operator. This ETOPS maintenance program must include the following elements: (a) ETOPS maintenance document. The certificate holder must have an ETOPS maintenance document for use by each person involved in ETOPS. The document must— (1) List each ETOPS Significant System, (2) Refer to or include all of the ETOPS maintenance elements in this section,

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(3) Refer to or include all supportive programs and procedures, (4) Refer to or include all duties and responsibilities, and (5) Clearly state where referenced material is located in the certificate holder's document system. (b) ETOPS pre-departure service check. The certificate holder must develop a pre-departure check tailored to their specific operation. (1) The certificate holder must complete a pre-departure service check immediately before each ETOPS flight. (2) At a minimum, this check must: (i) Verify the condition of all ETOPS Significant Systems; (ii) Verify the overall status of the airplane by reviewing applicable maintenance records; and (iii) Include an interior and exterior inspection to include a determination of engine and APU oil levels and consumption rates. (3) An appropriately trained maintenance person, who is ETOPS qualified must accomplish and certify by signature ETOPS specific tasks. Before an ETOPS flight may commence, an ETOPS pre-departure service check (PDSC) Signatory Person, who has been authorized by the certificate holder, must certify by signature, that the ETOPS PDSC has been completed. (4) For the purposes of this paragraph (b) only, the following definitions apply: (i) ETOPS qualified person: A person is ETOPS qualified when that person satisfactorily completes the operator's ETOPS training program and is authorized by the certificate holder. (ii) ETOPS PDSC Signatory Person: A person is an ETOPS PDSC Signatory Person when that person is ETOPS Qualified and that person: (A) When certifying the completion of the ETOPS PDSC in the United States: ( 1 ) Works for an operator authorized to engage in part 135 or 121 operation or works for a part 145 repair station; and ( 2 ) Holds a U.S. Mechanic's Certificate with airframe and powerplant ratings. (B) When certifying the completion of the ETOPS PDSC outside of the U.S. holds a certificate in accordance with § 43.17(c)(1) of this chapter; or (C) When certifying the completion of the ETOPS PDSC outside the U.S. holds the certificates needed or has the requisite experience or training to return aircraft to service on behalf of an ETOPS maintenance entity. (iii) ETOPS maintenance entity: An entity authorized to perform ETOPS maintenance and complete ETOPS pre-departure service checks and that entity is: (A) Certificated to engage in part 135 or 121 operations; (B) Repair station certificated under part 145 of this title; or (C) Entity authorized pursuant to § 43.17(c)(2) of this chapter. (c) Limitations on dual maintenance. (1) Except as specified in paragraph G135.2.8(c)(2) of this appendix, the certificate holder may not perform scheduled or unscheduled dual maintenance during the same maintenance visit on the same or a substantially similar ETOPS Significant System listed in the ETOPS maintenance document, if the improper maintenance could result in the failure of an ETOPS Significant System. (2) In the event dual maintenance as defined in paragraph G135.2.8(c)(1) of this appendix cannot be avoided, the certificate holder may perform maintenance provided: (i) The maintenance action on each affected ETOPS Significant System is performed by a different technician, or (ii) The maintenance action on each affected ETOPS Significant System is performed by the same technician under the direct supervision of a second qualified individual; and (iii) For either paragraph G135.2.8(c)(2)(i) or (ii) of this appendix, a qualified individual conducts a ground verification test and any in-flight verification test required under the program developed pursuant to paragraph G135.2.8(d) of this appendix. (d) Verification program. The certificate holder must develop a program for the resolution of discrepancies that will ensure the effectiveness of maintenance actions taken on ETOPS Significant Systems. The verification program must identify potential problems and verify satisfactory corrective action. The verification program must include ground verification and in-flight verification policy and procedures. The certificate holder must establish procedures to clearly indicate who is going to initiate the verification action and what action is necessary. The verification action may be performed on an ETOPS revenue flight provided the verification action is documented as satisfactorily completed upon reaching the ETOPS entry point. (e) Task identification. The certificate holder must identify all ETOPS-specific tasks. An ETOPS qualified person must accomplish and certify by signature that the ETOPS-specific task has been completed. (f) Centralized maintenance control procedures. The certificate holder must develop procedures for centralized maintenance control for ETOPS. (g) ETOPS parts control program. The certificate holder must develop an ETOPS parts control program to ensure the proper identification of parts used to maintain the configuration of airplanes used in ETOPS.

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(h) Enhanced Continuing Analysis and Surveillance System (E-CASS) program. A certificate holder's existing CASS must be enhanced to include all elements of the ETOPS maintenance program. In addition to the reporting requirements of § 135.415 and § 135.417, the program includes reporting procedures, in the form specified in § 135.415(e), for the following significant events detrimental to ETOPS within 96 hours of the occurrence to the responsible Flight Standards office: (1) IFSDs, except planned IFSDs performed for flight training. (2) Diversions and turnbacks for failures, malfunctions, or defects associated with any airplane or engine system. (3) Uncommanded power or thrust changes or surges. (4) Inability to control the engine or obtain desired power or thrust. (5) Inadvertent fuel loss or unavailability, or uncorrectable fuel imbalance in flight. (6) Failures, malfunctions or defects associated with ETOPS Significant Systems. (7) Any event that would jeopardize the safe flight and landing of the airplane on an ETOPS flight. (i) Propulsion system monitoring. The certificate holder, in coordination with the responsible Flight Standards office, must— (1) Establish criteria as to what action is to be taken when adverse trends in propulsion system conditions are detected, and (2) Investigate common cause effects or systemic errors and submit the findings to the responsible Flight Standards office within 30 days. (j) Engine condition monitoring. (1) The certificate holder must establish an engine-condition monitoring program to detect deterioration at an early stage and to allow for corrective action before safe operation is affected. (2) This program must describe the parameters to be monitored, the method of data collection, the method of analyzing data, and the process for taking corrective action. (3) The program must ensure that engine limit margins are maintained so that a prolonged engine-inoperative diversion may be conducted at approved power levels and in all expected environmental conditions without exceeding approved engine limits. This includes approved limits for items such as rotor speeds and exhaust gas temperatures. (k) Oil consumption monitoring. The certificate holder must develop an engine oil consumption monitoring program to ensure that there is enough oil to complete each ETOPS flight. APU oil consumption must be included if an APU is required for ETOPS. The operator's consumption limit may not exceed the manufacturer's recommendation. Monitoring must be continuous and include oil added at each ETOPS departure point. The program must compare the amount of oil added at each ETOPS departure point with the running average consumption to identify sudden increases. (l) APU in-flight start program. If an APU is required for ETOPS, but is not required to run during the ETOPS portion of the flight, the certificate holder must have a program acceptable to the FAA for cold soak in-flight start and run reliability. (m) Maintenance training. For each airplane-engine combination, the certificate holder must develop a maintenance training program to ensure that it provides training adequate to support ETOPS. It must include ETOPS specific training for all persons involved in ETOPS maintenance that focuses on the special nature of ETOPS. This training must be in addition to the operator's maintenance training program used to qualify individuals for specific airplanes and engines. (n) Configuration, maintenance, and procedures (CMP) document. The certificate holder must use a system to ensure compliance with the minimum requirements set forth in the current version of the CMP document for each airplane-engine combination that has a CMP. (o) Reporting. The certificate holder must report quarterly to the responsible Flight Standards office and the airplane and engine manufacturer for each airplane authorized for ETOPS. The report must provide the operating hours and cycles for each airplane. G135.2.9  Delayed compliance date for all airplanes. A certificate holder need not comply with this appendix for any airplane until August 13, 2008. [Docket FAA-2002-6717, 72 FR 1885, Jan. 16, 2007, as amended by Amdt. 135-108, 72 FR 7348, Feb. 15, 2007; 72 FR 26542, May 10, 2007; Amdt. 135-112, 73 FR 8798, Feb. 15, 2008; Amdt. 135-115, 73 FR 33882, June 16, 2008; Docket FAA-2018-0119, Amdt. 135-139, 83 FR 9175, Mar. 5, 2018]

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SUBCHAPTER H—SCHOOLS AND OTHER CERTIFICATED AGENCIES Pt. 141 PART 141—PILOT SCHOOLS Special Federal Aviation Regulation No. 118-2 Subpart A—General Sec. 141.1 Applicability. 141.3 Certificate required. 141.5 Requirements for a pilot school certificate. 141.7 Provisional pilot school certificate. 141.9 Examining authority. 141.11 Pilot school ratings. 141.13 Application for issuance, amendment, or renewal. 141.17 Duration of certificate and examining authority. 141.18 Carriage of narcotic drugs, marijuana, and depressant or stimulant drugs or substances. 141.19 Display of certificate. 141.21 Inspections. 141.23 Advertising limitations. 141.25 Business office and operations base. 141.26 Training agreements. 141.27 Renewal of certificates and ratings. 141.29 [Reserved] Subpart B—Personnel, Aircraft, and Facilities Requirements 141.31 Applicability. 141.33 Personnel. 141.34 Employment of former FAA employees. 141.35 Chief instructor qualifications. 141.36 Assistant chief instructor qualifications. 141.37 Check instructor qualifications. 141.38 Airports. 141.39 Aircraft. 141.41 Full flight simulators, flight training devices, aviation training devices, and training aids. 141.43 Pilot briefing areas. 141.45 Ground training facilities. Subpart C—Training Course Outline and Curriculum 141.51 Applicability. 141.53 Approval procedures for a training course: General. 141.55 Training course: Contents. 141.57 Special curricula. Subpart D—Examining Authority 141.61 Applicability. 141.63 Examining authority qualification requirements. 141.65 Privileges. 141.67 Limitations and reports. Subpart E—Operating Rules 141.71 Applicability. 141.73 Privileges. 141.75 Aircraft requirements. 141.77 Limitations. 141.79 Flight training. 141.81 Ground training. 141.83 Quality of training. 141.85 Chief instructor responsibilities. 141.87 Change of chief instructor. 141.89 Maintenance of personnel, facilities, and equipment. 141.91 Satellite bases. 141.93 Enrollment. 141.95 Graduation certificate. Subpart F—Records 141.101 Training records. Appendix A to Part 141—Recreational Pilot Certification Course Appendix B to Part 141—Private Pilot Certification Course Appendix C to Part 141—Instrument Rating Course Appendix D to Part 141—Commercial Pilot Certification Course Appendix E to Part 141—Airline Transport Pilot Certification Course Appendix F to Part 141—Flight Instructor Certification Course Appendix G to Part 141—Flight Instructor Instrument (For an Airplane, Helicopter, or Powered-Lift Instrument Instructor Rating) Certification Course Appendix H to Part 141—Ground Instructor Certification Course Appendix I to Part 141—Additional Aircraft Category and/or Class Rating Course Appendix J to Part 141—Aircraft Type Rating Course, For Other Than an Airline Transport Pilot Certificate Appendix K to Part 141—Special Preparation Courses Appendix L to Part 141—Pilot Ground School Course Appendix M to Part 141—Combined Private Pilot Certification and Instrument Rating Course

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Authority: 49 U.S.C. 106(f), 40113, 44701-44703, 44707, 44709, 44711, 45102-45103, 45301-45302. Source: Docket 25910, 62 FR 16347, Apr. 4, 1997, unless otherwise noted. Subpart A—General § 141.1 Applicability. This part prescribes the requirements for issuing pilot school certificates, provisional pilot school certificates, and associated ratings, and the general operating rules applicable to a holder of a certificate or rating issued under this part. § 141.1, Nt. Effective Date Note: By Docket FAA-2023-1275, Amdt. 141-26, 89 FR 92488, Nov. 21, 2024, § 141.1 was revised, effective Jan. 21, 2025. For the convenience of the user, the revised text is set forth as follows: § 141.1 Applicability. This part prescribes the requirements for issuing pilot school certificates, provisional pilot school certificates, and associated ratings, and the general operating rules applicable to a holder of a certificate or rating issued under this part. Additional requirements for pilot schools seeking to provide training courses for powered-lift certification and ratings are set forth in part 194 of this chapter. § 141.3 Certificate required. No person may operate as a certificated pilot school without, or in violation of, a pilot school certificate or provisional pilot school certificate issued under this part. § 141.5 Requirements for a pilot school certificate. The FAA may issue a pilot school certificate with the appropriate ratings if, within the 24 calendar months before the date application is made, the applicant— (a) Completes the application for a pilot school certificate on the form and in the manner prescribed by the FAA; (b) Has held a provisional pilot school certificate; (c) Meets the applicable requirements under subparts A through C of this part for the school certificate and associated ratings sought; (d) Has established a pass rate of 80 percent or higher on the first attempt for all: (1) Knowledge tests leading to a certificate or rating; (2) Practical tests leading to a certificate or rating; (3) End-of-course tests for an approved training course specified in appendix K of this part; and (4) End-of-course tests for special curricula courses approved under § 141.57. (e) Has graduated at least 10 different people from the school's approved training courses. [Docket FAA-2006-26661, 74 FR 42563, Aug. 21, 2009, as amended by Amdt. 141-14, 75 FR 56858, Sept. 17, 2010; Docket FAA-2016-6142, Amdt. 141ndash;20, 83 FR 30283, June 27, 2018] § 141.7 Provisional pilot school certificate. An applicant that meets the applicable requirements of subparts A, B, and C of this part, but does not meet the recent training activity requirements of § 141.5(d) of this part, may be issued a provisional pilot school certificate with ratings. § 141.9 Examining authority. The FAA issues examining authority to a pilot school for a training course if the pilot school and its training course meet the requirements of subpart D of this part. [Docket FAA-2006-26661, 74 FR 42563, Aug. 21, 2009] § 141.11 Pilot school ratings. (a) The ratings listed in paragraph (b) of this section may be issued to an applicant for: (1) A pilot school certificate, provided the applicant meets the requirements of § 141.5 of this part; or (2) A provisional pilot school certificate, provided the applicant meets the requirements of § 141.7 of this part. (b) An applicant may be authorized to conduct the following courses: (1) Certification and rating courses. (Appendixes A through J). (i) Recreational pilot course. (ii) Private pilot course. (iii) Commercial pilot course. (iv) Instrument rating course. (v) Airline transport pilot course. (vi) Flight instructor course. (vii) Flight instructor instrument course.

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(viii) Ground instructor course. (ix) Additional aircraft category or class rating course. (x) Aircraft type rating course. (2) Special preparation courses. (Appendix K). (i) Pilot refresher course. (ii) Flight instructor refresher course. (iii) Ground instructor refresher course. (iv) Agricultural aircraft operations course. (v) Rotorcraft external-load operations course. (vi) Special operations course. (vii) Test pilot course. (viii) Airline transport pilot certification training program. (ix) Flight instructor enhanced qualification training program. (3) Pilot ground school course. (Appendix L). (4) Combined Private Pilot Certification and Instrument Rating Course. (Appendix M). [Docket 25910, 62 FR 16347, Apr. 4, 1997, as amended by Amdt. 141-17, 78 FR 42379, July 15, 2013; Amdt. 141-17A, 78 FR 53026, Aug. 28, 2013; Docket FAA-2023-0825, Amdt. 141-25, 89 FR 80054, Oct. 1, 2024] § 141.13 Application for issuance, amendment, or renewal. (a) Application for an original certificate and rating, an additional rating, or the renewal of a certificate under this part must be made on a form and in a manner prescribed by the Administrator. (b) Application for the issuance or amendment of a certificate or rating must be accompanied by two copies of each proposed training course curriculum for which approval is sought. § 141.17 Duration of certificate and examining authority. (a) Unless surrendered, suspended, or revoked, a pilot school's certificate or a provisional pilot school's certificate expires: (1) On the last day of the 24th calendar month from the month the certificate was issued; (2) Except as provided in paragraph (b) of this section, on the date that any change in ownership of the school occurs; (3) On the date of any change in the facilities upon which the school's certificate is based occurs; or (4) Upon notice by the Administrator that the school has failed for more than 60 days to maintain the facilities, aircraft, or personnel required for any one of the school's approved training courses. (b) A change in the ownership of a pilot school or provisional pilot school does not terminate that school's certificate if, within 30 days after the date that any change in ownership of the school occurs: (1) Application is made for an appropriate amendment to the certificate; and (2) No change in the facilities, personnel, or approved training courses is involved. (c) An examining authority issued to the holder of a pilot school certificate expires on the date that the pilot school certificate expires, or is surrendered, suspended, or revoked. § 141.18 Carriage of narcotic drugs, marijuana, and depressant or stimulant drugs or substances. If the holder of a certificate issued under this part permits any aircraft owned or leased by that holder to be engaged in any operation that the certificate holder knows to be in violation of § 91.19(a) of this chapter, that operation is a basis for suspending or revoking the certificate. § 141.19 Display of certificate. (a) Each holder of a pilot school certificate or a provisional pilot school certificate must display that certificate in a place in the school that is normally accessible to the public and is not obscured. (b) A certificate must be made available for inspection upon request by: (1) The Administrator; (2) An authorized representative of the National Transportation Safety Board; or (3) A Federal, State, or local law enforcement officer.

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§ 141.21 Inspections. Each holder of a certificate issued under this part must allow the Administrator to inspect its personnel, facilities, equipment, and records to determine the certificate holder's: (a) Eligibility to hold its certificate; (b) Compliance with 49 U.S.C. 40101 et seq., formerly the Federal Aviation Act of 1958, as amended; and (c) Compliance with the Federal Aviation Regulations. § 141.23 Advertising limitations. (a) The holder of a pilot school certificate or a provisional pilot school certificate may not make any statement relating to its certification and ratings that is false or designed to mislead any person contemplating enrollment in that school. (b) The holder of a pilot school certificate or a provisional pilot school certificate may not advertise that the school is certificated unless it clearly differentiates between courses that have been approved under part 141 of this chapter and those that have not been approved under part 141 of this chapter. (c) The holder of a pilot school certificate or a provisional pilot school certificate must promptly remove: (1) From vacated premises, all signs indicating that the school was certificated by the Administrator; or (2) All indications (including signs), wherever located, that the school is certificated by the Administrator when its certificate has expired or has been surrendered, suspended, or revoked. § 141.25 Business office and operations base. (a) Each holder of a pilot school or a provisional pilot school certificate must maintain a principal business office with a mailing address in the name shown on its certificate. (b) The facilities and equipment at the principal business office must be adequate to maintain the files and records required to operate the business of the school. (c) The principal business office may not be shared with, or used by, another pilot school. (d) Before changing the location of the principal business office or the operations base, each certificate holder must notify the responsible Flight Standards office for the area of the new location, and the notice must be: (1) Submitted in writing at least 30 days before the change of location; and (2) Accompanied by any amendments needed for the certificate holder's approved training course outline. (e) A certificate holder may conduct training at an operations base other than the one specified in its certificate, if: (1) The Administrator has inspected and approved the base for use by the certificate holder; and (2) The course of training and any needed amendments have been approved for use at that base. [Docket 25910, 62 FR 16347, Apr. 4, 1997, as amended by Docket FAA-2018-0119, Amdt. 141-19, 83 FR 9175, Mar. 5, 2018] § 141.26 Training agreements. (a) A training center certificated under part 142 of this chapter may provide the training, testing, and checking for pilot schools certificated under this part and is considered to meet the requirements of this part, provided— (1) There is a training agreement between the certificated training center and the pilot school; (2) The training, testing, and checking provided by the certificated training center is approved and conducted under part 142; (3) The pilot school certificated under this part obtains the Administrator's approval for a training course outline that includes the training, testing, and checking to be conducted under this part and the training, testing, and checking to be conducted under part 142; and (4) Upon completion of the training, testing, and checking conducted under part 142, a copy of each student's training record is forwarded to the part 141 school and becomes part of the student's permanent training record. (b) A pilot school that provides flight training for an institution of higher education that holds a letter of authorization under § 61.169 of this chapter must have a training agreement with that institution of higher education. [Docket FAA-2010-0100, 78 FR 42379, July 15, 2013]

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§ 141.27 Renewal of certificates and ratings. (a) Pilot school. (1) A pilot school may apply for renewal of its school certificate and ratings within 30 days preceding the month the pilot school's certificate expires, provided the school meets the requirements prescribed in paragraph (a)(2) of this section for renewal of its certificate and ratings. (2) A pilot school may have its school certificate and ratings renewed for an additional 24 calendar months if the Administrator determines the school's personnel, aircraft, facility and airport, approved training courses, training records, and recent training ability and quality meet the requirements of this part. (3) A pilot school that does not meet the renewal requirements in paragraph (a)(2) of this section, may apply for a provisional pilot school certificate if the school meets the requirements of § 141.7 of this part. (b) Provisional pilot school. (1) Except as provided in paragraph (b)(3) of this section, a provisional pilot school may not have its provisional pilot school certificate or the ratings on that certificate renewed. (2) A provisional pilot school may apply for a pilot school certificate and associated ratings provided that school meets the requirements of § 141.5 of this part. (3) A former provisional pilot school may apply for another provisional pilot school certificate, provided 180 days have elapsed since its last provisional pilot school certificate expired. § 141.29 [Reserved]
Subpart B—Personnel, Aircraft, and Facilities Requirements § 141.31 Applicability. (a) This subpart prescribes: (1) The personnel and aircraft requirements for a pilot school certificate or a provisional pilot school certificate; and (2) The facilities that a pilot school or provisional pilot school must have available on a continuous basis. (b) As used in this subpart, to have continuous use of a facility, including an airport, the school must have: (1) Ownership of the facility or airport for at least 6 calendar months after the date the application for initial certification and on the date of renewal of the school's certificate is made; or (2) A written lease agreement for the facility or airport for at least 6 calendar months after the date the application for initial certification and on the date of renewal of the school's certificate is made. [Docket 25910, 62 FR 16347, Apr. 4, 1997; Amdt. 141-9, 62 FR 40907, July 30, 1997] § 141.33 Personnel. (a) An applicant for a pilot school certificate or for a provisional pilot school certificate must meet the following personnel requirements: (1) Each applicant must have adequate personnel, including certificated flight instructors, certificated ground instructors, or holders of a commercial pilot certificate with a lighter-than-air rating, and a chief instructor for each approved course of training who is qualified and competent to perform the duties to which that instructor is assigned. (2) If the school employs dispatchers, aircraft handlers, and line and service personnel, then it must instruct those persons in the procedures and responsibilities of their employment. (3) Each instructor to be used for ground or flight training must hold a flight instructor certificate, ground instructor certificate, or commercial pilot certificate with a lighter-than-air rating, as appropriate, with ratings for the approved course of training and any aircraft used in that course. (4) In addition to meeting the requirements of paragraph (a)(3) of this section, each instructor used for the airline transport pilot certification training program in § 61.156 of this chapter must: (i) Hold an airline transport pilot certificate with an airplane category multiengine class rating; (ii) Have at least 2 years of experience as a pilot in command in operations conducted under § 91.1053(a)(2)(i) or § 135.243(a)(1) of this chapter, or as a pilot in command or second in command in any operation conducted under part 121 of this chapter; and

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(iii) If providing training in a flight simulation training device, have received training and evaluation within the preceding 12 months from the certificate holder on— (A) Proper operation of flight simulator and flight training device controls and systems; (B) Proper operation of environmental and fault panels, (C) Data and motion limitations of simulation; (D) Minimum equipment requirements for each curriculum; and (E) The maneuvers that will be demonstrated in the flight simulation training device. (b) An applicant for a pilot school certificate or for a provisional pilot school certificate must designate a chief instructor for each of the school's approved training courses, who must meet the requirements of § 141.35 of this part. (c) When necessary, an applicant for a pilot school certificate or for a provisional pilot school certificate may designate a person to be an assistant chief instructor for an approved training course, provided that person meets the requirements of § 141.36 of this part. (d) A pilot school and a provisional pilot school may designate a person to be a check instructor for conducting student stage checks, end-of-course tests, and instructor proficiency checks, provided: (1) That person meets the requirements of § 141.37 of this part; and (2) The school has an enrollment of at least 10 students at the time designation is sought. (e) A person, as listed in this section, may serve in more than one position for a school, provided that person is qualified for each position. [Docket 25910, 62 FR 16347, Apr. 4, 1997; Amdt. 141-9, 62 FR 40907, July 30, 1997; Amdt. 141-12, 74 FR 42563, Aug. 21, 2009; Amdt. 141-17, 78 FR 42379, July 15, 2013; Amdt. 141-17A, 78 FR 53026, Aug. 28, 2013] § 141.34 Employment of former FAA employees. (a) Except as specified in paragraph (c) of this section, no holder of a pilot school certificate or a provisional pilot school certificate may knowingly employ or make a contractual arrangement which permits an individual to act as an agent or representative of the certificate holder in any matter before the Federal Aviation Administration if the individual, in the preceding 2 years— (1) Served as, or was directly responsible for the oversight of, a Flight Standards Service aviation safety inspector; and (2) Had direct responsibility to inspect, or oversee the inspection of, the operations of the certificate holder. (b) For the purpose of this section, an individual shall be considered to be acting as an agent or representative of a certificate holder in a matter before the agency if the individual makes any written or oral communication on behalf of the certificate holder to the agency (or any of its officers or employees) in connection with a particular matter, whether or not involving a specific party and without regard to whether the individual has participated in, or had responsibility for, the particular matter while serving as a Flight Standards Service aviation safety inspector. (c) The provisions of this section do not prohibit a holder of a pilot school certificate or a provisional pilot school certificate from knowingly employing or making a contractual arrangement which permits an individual to act as an agent or representative of the certificate holder in any matter before the Federal Aviation Administration if the individual was employed by the certificate holder before October 21, 2011. [Docket FAA-2008-1154, 76 FR 52236, Aug. 22, 2011] § 141.35 Chief instructor qualifications. (a) To be eligible for designation as a chief instructor for a course of training, a person must meet the following requirements: (1) Hold a commercial pilot certificate or an airline transport pilot certificate, and, except for a chief instructor for a course of training solely for a lighter-than-air rating, a current flight instructor certificate. The certificates must contain the appropriate aircraft category and class ratings for the category and class of aircraft used in the course and an instrument rating, if an instrument rating is required for enrollment in the course of training;

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(2) Meet the pilot-in-command recent flight experience requirements of § 61.57 of this chapter; (3) Pass a knowledge test on— (i) Teaching methods; (ii) Applicable provisions of the “Aeronautical Information Manual”; (iii) Applicable provisions of parts 61, 91, and 141 of this chapter; and (iv) The objectives and approved course completion standards of the course for which the person seeks to obtain designation. (4) Pass a proficiency test on instructional skills and ability to train students on the flight procedures and maneuvers appropriate to the course; (5) Except for a course of training for gliders, balloons, or airships, the chief instructor must meet the applicable requirements in paragraphs (b), (c), and (d) of this section; and (6) A chief instructor for a course of training for gliders, balloons or airships is only required to have 40 percent of the hours required in paragraphs (b) and (d) of this section. (b) For a course of training leading to the issuance of a recreational or private pilot certificate or rating, a chief instructor must have: (1) At least 1,000 hours as pilot in command; and (2) Primary flight training experience, acquired as either a certificated flight instructor or an instructor in a military pilot flight training program, or a combination thereof, consisting of at least— (i) 2 years and a total of 500 flight hours; or (ii) 1,000 flight hours. (c) For a course of training leading to the issuance of an instrument rating or a rating with instrument privileges, a chief instructor must have: (1) At least 100 hours of flight time under actual or simulated instrument conditions; (2) At least 1,000 hours as pilot in command; and (3) Instrument flight instructor experience, acquired as either a certificated flight instructor-instrument or an instructor in a military pilot flight training program, or a combination thereof, consisting of at least— (i) 2 years and a total of 250 flight hours; or (ii) 400 flight hours. (d) For a course of training other than one leading to the issuance of a recreational or private pilot certificate or rating, or an instrument rating or a rating with instrument privileges, a chief instructor must have: (1) At least 2,000 hours as pilot in command; and (2) Flight training experience, acquired as either a certificated flight instructor or an instructor in a military pilot flight training program, or a combination thereof, consisting of at least— (i) 3 years and a total of 1,000 flight hours; or (ii) 1,500 flight hours. (e) To be eligible for designation as chief instructor for a ground school course, a person must have 1 year of experience as a ground school instructor at a certificated pilot school. [Docket 25910, 62 FR 16347, Apr. 4, 1997; Amdt. 141-9, 62 FR 40907, July 30, 1997, as amended by Amdt. 141-10, 63 FR 20289, Apr. 23, 1998] § 141.36 Assistant chief instructor qualifications. (a) To be eligible for designation as an assistant chief instructor for a course of training, a person must meet the following requirements: (1) Hold a commercial pilot or an airline transport pilot certificate and, except for the assistant chief instructor for a course of training solely for a lighter-than-air rating, a current flight instructor certificate. The certificates must contain the appropriate aircraft category, class, and instrument ratings if an instrument rating is required by the course of training for the category and class of aircraft used in the course; (2) Meet the pilot-in-command recent flight experience requirements of § 61.57 of this chapter; (3) Pass a knowledge test on— (i) Teaching methods; (ii) Applicable provisions of the “Aeronautical Information Manual”; (iii) Applicable provisions of parts 61, 91, and 141 of this chapter; and (iv) The objectives and approved course completion standards of the course for which the person seeks to obtain designation.

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(4) Pass a proficiency test on the flight procedures and maneuvers appropriate to that course; and (5) Meet the applicable requirements in paragraphs (b), (c), and (d) of this section. However, an assistant chief instructor for a course of training for gliders, balloons, or airships is only required to have 40 percent of the hours required in paragraphs (b) and (d) of this section. (b) For a course of training leading to the issuance of a recreational or private pilot certificate or rating, an assistant chief instructor must have: (1) At least 500 hours as pilot in command; and (2) Flight training experience, acquired as either a certificated flight instructor or an instructor in a military pilot flight training program, or a combination thereof, consisting of at least— (i) 1 year and a total of 250 flight hours; or (ii) 500 flight hours. (c) For a course of training leading to the issuance of an instrument rating or a rating with instrument privileges, an assistant chief flight instructor must have: (1) At least 50 hours of flight time under actual or simulated instrument conditions; (2) At least 500 hours as pilot in command; and (3) Instrument flight instructor experience, acquired as either a certificated flight instructor-instrument or an instructor in a military pilot flight training program, or a combination thereof, consisting of at least— (i) 1 year and a total of 125 flight hours; or (ii) 200 flight hours. (d) For a course of training other than one leading to the issuance of a recreational or private pilot certificate or rating, or an instrument rating or a rating with instrument privileges, an assistant chief instructor must have: (1) At least 1,000 hours as pilot in command; and (2) Flight training experience, acquired as either a certificated flight instructor or an instructor in a military pilot flight training program, or a combination thereof, consisting of at least— (i) 1 1/2 years and a total of 500 flight hours; or (ii) 750 flight hours. (e) To be eligible for designation as an assistant chief instructor for a ground school course, a person must have 6 months of experience as a ground school instructor at a certificated pilot school. [Docket 25910, 62 FR 16347, Apr. 4, 1997; Amdt. 141-9, 62 FR 40907, July 30, 1997, as amended by Amdt. 141-10, 63 FR 20289, Apr. 23, 1998] § 141.37 Check instructor qualifications. (a) To be designated as a check instructor for conducting student stage checks, end-of-course tests, and instructor proficiency checks under this part, a person must meet the eligibility requirements of this section: (1) For checks and tests that relate to either flight or ground training, the person must pass a test, given by the chief instructor, on— (i) Teaching methods; (ii) Applicable provisions of the “Aeronautical Information Manual”; (iii) Applicable provisions of parts 61, 91, and 141 of this chapter; and (iv) The objectives and course completion standards of the approved training course for the designation sought. (2) For checks and tests that relate to a flight training course, the person must— (i) Meet the requirements in paragraph (a)(1) of this section; (ii) Hold a commercial pilot certificate or an airline transport pilot certificate and, except for a check instructor for a course of training for a lighter-than-air rating, a current flight instructor certificate. The certificates must contain the appropriate aircraft category, class, and instrument ratings for the category and class of aircraft used in the course; (iii) Meet the pilot-in-command recent flight experience requirements of § 61.57 of this chapter; and (iv) Pass a proficiency test, given by the chief instructor or assistant chief instructor, on the flight procedures and maneuvers of the approved training course for the designation sought. (3) For checks and tests that relate to ground training, the person must—

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(i) Meet the requirements in paragraph (a)(1) of this section; (ii) Except for a course of training for a lighter-than-air rating, hold a current flight instructor certificate or ground instructor certificate with ratings appropriate to the category and class of aircraft used in the course; and (iii) For a course of training for a lighter-than-air rating, hold a commercial pilot certificate with a lighter-than-air category rating and the appropriate class rating. (b) A person who meets the eligibility requirements in paragraph (a) of this section must: (1) Be designated, in writing, by the chief instructor to conduct student stage checks, end-of-course tests, and instructor proficiency checks; and (2) Be approved by the responsible Flight Standards office for the school. (c) A check instructor may not conduct a stage check or an end-of-course test of any student for whom the check instructor has: (1) Served as the principal instructor; or (2) Recommended for a stage check or end-of-course test. [Docket 25910, 62 FR 16347, Apr. 4, 1997; Amdt. 141-9, 62 FR 40907, July 30, 1997, as amended by Docket FAA-2018-0119, Amdt. 141-19, 83 FR 9175, Mar. 5, 2018] § 141.37, Nt. Effective Date Note: By Docket FAA-2023-1275, Amdt. 141-26, 89 FR 92488, Nov. 21, 2024, § 141.37 was amended by revising paragraph (a)(3)(ii), effective Jan. 21, 2025. For the convenience of the user, the revised text is set forth as follows: § 141.37 Check instructor qualifications. (a) * * * (3) * * * (ii) Except for a course of training for a lighter-than-air rating, hold either a current flight instructor certificate with the appropriate category and class of aircraft, or ground instructor certificate with appropriate ratings, to be used in the course of training; and § 141.38 Airports. (a) An applicant for a pilot school certificate or a provisional pilot school certificate must show that he or she has continuous use of each airport at which training flights originate. (b) Each airport used for airplanes and gliders must have at least one runway or takeoff area that allows training aircraft to make a normal takeoff or landing under the following conditions at the aircraft's maximum certificated takeoff gross weight: (1) Under wind conditions of not more than 5 miles per hour; (2) At temperatures in the operating area equal to the mean high temperature for the hottest month of the year; (3) If applicable, with the powerplant operation, and landing gear and flap operation recommended by the manufacturer; and (4) In the case of a takeoff— (i) With smooth transition from liftoff to the best rate of climb speed without exceptional piloting skills or techniques; and (ii) Clearing all obstacles in the takeoff flight path by at least 50 feet. (c) Each airport must have a wind direction indicator that is visible from the end of each runway at ground level; (d) Each airport must have a traffic direction indicator when: (1) The airport does not have an operating control tower; and (2) UNICOM advisories are not available. (e) Except as provided in paragraph (f) of this section, each airport used for night training flights must have permanent runway lights; (f) An airport or seaplane base used for night training flights in seaplanes is permitted to use adequate nonpermanent lighting or shoreline lighting, if approved by the Administrator. [Docket 25910, 62 FR 16347, Apr. 4, 1997; Amdt. 141-9, 62 FR 40907, July 30, 1997] § 141.39 Aircraft. (a) When the school's training facility is located within the U.S., an applicant for a pilot school certificate or provisional pilot school certificate must show that each aircraft used by the school for flight training and solo flights: (1) Is a civil aircraft of the United States;

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(2) Is certificated with a standard airworthiness certificate, a primary airworthiness certificate, or a special airworthiness certificate in the light-sport category unless the FAA determines otherwise because of the nature of the approved course; (3) Is maintained and inspected in accordance with the requirements for aircraft operated for hire under part 91, subpart E, of this chapter; (4) Has two pilot stations with engine-power controls that can be easily reached and operated in a normal manner from both pilot stations (for flight training); and (5) Is equipped and maintained for IFR operations if used in a course involving IFR en route operations and instrument approaches. For training in the control and precision maneuvering of an aircraft by reference to instruments, the aircraft may be equipped as provided in the approved course of training. (b) When the school's training facility is located outside the U.S. and the training will be conducted outside the U.S., an applicant for a pilot school certificate or provisional pilot school certificate must show that each aircraft used by the school for flight training and solo flights: (1) Is either a civil aircraft of the United States or a civil aircraft of foreign registry; (2) Is certificated with a standard or primary airworthiness certificate or an equivalent certification from the foreign aviation authority; (3) Is maintained and inspected in accordance with the requirements for aircraft operated for hire under part 91, subpart E of this chapter, or in accordance with equivalent maintenance and inspection from the foreign aviation authority's requirements; (4) Has two pilot stations with engine-power controls that can be easily reached and operated in a normal manner from both pilot stations (for flight training); and (5) Is equipped and maintained for IFR operations if used in a course involving IFR en route operations and instrument approaches. For training in the control and precision maneuvering of an aircraft by reference to instruments, the aircraft may be equipped as provided in the approved course of training. [Docket FAA-2006-26661, 74 FR 42563, Aug. 21, 2009, as amended by Amdt. 141-13, 75 FR 5223, Feb. 1, 2010] § 141.41 Full flight simulators, flight training devices, aviation training devices, and training aids. An applicant for a pilot school certificate or a provisional pilot school certificate must show that its full flight simulators, flight training devices, aviation training devices, training aids, and equipment meet the following requirements: (a) Full flight simulators and flight training devices. Each full flight simulator and flight training device used to obtain flight training credit in an approved pilot training course curriculum must be: (1) Qualified under part 60 of this chapter, or a previously qualified device, as permitted in accordance with § 60.17 of this chapter; and (2) Approved by the Administrator for the tasks and maneuvers. (b) Aviation training devices. Each basic or advanced aviation training device used to obtain flight training credit in an approved pilot training course curriculum must be evaluated, qualified, and approved by the Administrator. (c) Training aids and equipment. Each training aid, including any audiovisual aid, projector, mockup, chart, or aircraft component listed in the approved training course outline, must be accurate and relevant to the course for which it is used. [Docket FAA-2015-1846, Amdt. 141-18, 81 FR 21460, Apr. 12, 2016] § 141.43 Pilot briefing areas. (a) An applicant for a pilot school certificate or provisional pilot school certificate must show that the applicant has continuous use of a briefing area located at each airport at which training flights originate that is: (1) Adequate to shelter students waiting to engage in their training flights; (2) Arranged and equipped for the conduct of pilot briefings; and (3) Except as provided in paragraph (c) of this section, for a school with an instrument rating or commercial pilot course, equipped with private landline or telephone communication to the nearest FAA Flight Service Station.

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(b) A briefing area required by paragraph (a) of this section may not be used by the applicant if it is available for use by any other pilot school during the period it is required for use by the applicant. (c) The communication equipment required by paragraph (a)(3) of this section is not required if the briefing area and the flight service station are located on the same airport, and are readily accessible to each other. § 141.45 Ground training facilities. An applicant for a pilot school or provisional pilot school certificate must show that: (a) Except as provided in paragraph (c) of this section, each room, training booth, or other space used for instructional purposes is heated, lighted, and ventilated to conform to local building, sanitation, and health codes. (b) Except as provided in paragraph (c) of this section, the training facility is so located that the students in that facility are not distracted by the training conducted in other rooms, or by flight and maintenance operations on the airport. (c) If a training course is conducted through an internet-based medium, the holder of a pilot school certificate or provisional pilot school certificate that provides such training need not comply with paragraphs (a) and (b) of this section but must maintain in current status a permanent business location and business telephone number. [Docket FAA-2008-0938, 76 FR 54107, Aug. 31, 2011] Subpart C—Training Course Outline and Curriculum § 141.51 Applicability. This subpart prescribes the curriculum and course outline requirements for the issuance of a pilot school certificate or provisional pilot school certificate and ratings. § 141.53 Approval procedures for a training course: General. (a) General. An applicant for a pilot school certificate or provisional pilot school certificate must obtain the Administrator's approval of the outline of each training course for which certification and rating is sought. (b) Application. (1) An application for the approval of an initial or amended training course must be submitted in duplicate to the responsible Flight Standards office for the area where the school is based. (2) An application for the approval of an initial or amended training course must be submitted at least 30 days before any training under that course, or any amendment thereto, is scheduled to begin. (3) An application for amending a training course must be accompanied by two copies of the amendment. (c) Training courses. An applicant for a pilot school certificate or provisional pilot school certificate may request approval for the training courses specified under § 141.11(b). (d) Additional rules for internet based training courses. An application for an initial or amended training course offered through an internet based medium must comply with the following: (1) All amendments must be identified numerically by page, date, and screen. Minor editorial and typographical changes do not require FAA approval, provided the school notifies the FAA within 30 days of their insertion. (2) For monitoring purposes, the school must provide the FAA an acceptable means to log-in and log-off from a remote location to review all elements of the course as viewed by attendees and to by-pass the normal attendee restrictions. (3) The school must incorporate adequate security measures into its internet-based courseware information system and into its operating and maintenance procedures to ensure the following fundamental areas of security and protection: (i) Integrity. (ii) Identification/Authentication. (iii) Confidentiality. (iv) Availability.

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(v) Access control. [Docket 25910, 62 FR 16347, Apr. 4, 1997; Amdt. 141-9, 62 FR 40908, July 30, 1997; Amdt. 141-12, 74 FR 42563, Aug. 21, 2009; Amdt. 141-15, 76 FR 54107, Aug. 31, 2011, as amended by Docket FAA-2018-0119, Amdt. 141-19, 83 FR 9175, Mar. 5, 2018] § 141.55 Training course: Contents. (a) Each training course for which approval is requested must meet the minimum curriculum requirements in accordance with the appropriate appendix of this part. (b) Except as provided in paragraphs (d) and (e) of this section, each training course for which approval is requested must meet the minimum ground and flight training time requirements in accordance with the appropriate appendix of this part. (c) Each training course for which approval is requested must contain: (1) A description of each room used for ground training, including the room's size and the maximum number of students that may be trained in the room at one time, unless the course is provided via an internet-based training medium; (2) A description of each type of audiovisual aid, projector, tape recorder, mockup, chart, aircraft component, and other special training aids used for ground training; (3) A description of each flight simulator or flight training device used for training; (4) A listing of the airports at which training flights originate and a description of the facilities, including pilot briefing areas that are available for use by the school's students and personnel at each of those airports; (5) A description of the type of aircraft including any special equipment used for each phase of training; (6) The minimum qualifications and ratings for each instructor assigned to ground or flight training; and (7) A training syllabus that includes the following information— (i) The prerequisites for enrolling in the ground and flight portion of the course that include the pilot certificate and rating (if required by this part), training, pilot experience, and pilot knowledge; (ii) A detailed description of each lesson, including the lesson's objectives, standards, and planned time for completion; (iii) A description of what the course is expected to accomplish with regard to student learning; (iv) The expected accomplishments and the standards for each stage of training; and (v) A description of the checks and tests to be used to measure a student's accomplishments for each stage of training. (d) A pilot school may request and receive initial approval for a period of not more than 24 calendar months for any training course under this part that does not meet the minimum ground and flight training time requirements, provided the following provisions are met: (1) The school holds a pilot school certificate issued under this part and has held that certificate for a period of at least 24 consecutive calendar months preceding the month of the request; (2) In addition to the information required by paragraph (c) of this section, the training course specifies planned ground and flight training time requirements for the course; (3) The school does not request the training course to be approved for examining authority, nor may that school hold examining authority for that course; and (4) The practical test or knowledge test for the course is to be given by— (i) An FAA inspector; or (ii) An examiner who is not an employee of the school. (e) A pilot school may request and receive final approval for any training course under this part that does not meet the minimum ground and flight training time requirements, provided the following conditions are met: (1) The school has held initial approval for that training course for at least 24 calendar months. (2) The school has— (i) Trained at least 10 students in that training course within the preceding 24 calendar months and recommended those students for a pilot, flight instructor, or ground instructor certificate or rating; and

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(ii) At least 80 percent of those students passed the practical or knowledge test, as appropriate, on the first attempt, and that test was given by— (A) An FAA inspector; or (B) An examiner who is not an employee of the school. (3) In addition to the information required by paragraph (c) of this section, the training course specifies planned ground and flight training time requirements for the course. (4) The school does not request that the training course be approved for examining authority nor may that school hold examining authority for that course. [Docket 25910, 62 FR 16347, Apr. 4, 1997, as amended by Amdt. 141-12, 74 FR 42563, Aug. 21, 2009; Amdt. 141-15, 76 FR 54107, Aug. 31, 2011] § 141.57 Special curricula. An applicant for a pilot school certificate or provisional pilot school certificate may apply for approval to conduct a special course of airman training for which a curriculum is not prescribed in the appendixes of this part, if the applicant shows that the training course contains features that could achieve a level of pilot proficiency equivalent to that achieved by a training course prescribed in the appendixes of this part or the requirements of part 61 of this chapter. Subpart D—Examining Authority § 141.61 Applicability. This subpart prescribes the requirements for the issuance of examining authority to the holder of a pilot school certificate, and the privileges and limitations of that examining authority. § 141.63 Examining authority qualification requirements. (a) A pilot school must meet the following prerequisites to receive initial approval for examining authority: (1) The school must complete the application for examining authority on a form and in a manner prescribed by the Administrator; (2) The school must hold a pilot school certificate and rating issued under this part; (3) The school must have held the rating in which examining authority is sought for at least 24 consecutive calendar months preceding the month of application for examining authority; (4) The training course for which examining authority is requested may not be a course that is approved without meeting the minimum ground and flight training time requirements of this part; and (5) Within 24 calendar months before the date of application for examining authority, that school must meet the following requirements— (i) The school must have trained at least 10 students in the training course for which examining authority is sought and recommended those students for a pilot, flight instructor, or ground instructor certificate or rating; and (ii) At least 90 percent of those students passed the required practical or knowledge test, or any combination thereof, for the pilot, flight instructor, or ground instructor certificate or rating on the first attempt, and that test was given by— (A) An FAA inspector; or (B) An examiner who is not an employee of the school. (b) A pilot school must meet the following requirements to retain approval of its examining authority: (1) The school must complete the application for renewal of its examining authority on a form and in a manner prescribed by the Administrator; (2) The school must hold a pilot school certificate and rating issued under this part; (3) The school must have held the rating for which continued examining authority is sought for at least 24 calendar months preceding the month of application for renewal of its examining authority; and (4) The training course for which continued examining authority is requested may not be a course that is approved without meeting the minimum ground and flight training time requirements of this part. [Docket 25910, 62 FR 16347, Apr. 4, 1997; Amdt. 141-9, 62 FR 40908, July 30, 1997]

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§ 141.65 Privileges. A pilot school that holds examining authority may recommend a person who graduated from its course for the appropriate pilot, flight instructor, or ground instructor certificate or rating without taking the FAA knowledge test or practical test in accordance with the provisions of this subpart. § 141.67 Limitations and reports. A pilot school that holds examining authority may only recommend the issuance of a pilot, flight instructor, or ground instructor certificate and rating to a person who does not take an FAA knowledge test or practical test, if the recommendation for the issuance of that certificate or rating is in accordance with the following requirements: (a) The person graduated from a training course for which the pilot school holds examining authority. (b) Except as provided in this paragraph, the person satisfactorily completed all the curriculum requirements of that pilot school's approved training course. A person who transfers from one part 141 approved pilot school to another part 141 approved pilot school may receive credit for that previous training, provided the following requirements are met: (1) The maximum credited training time does not exceed one-half of the receiving school's curriculum requirements; (2) The person completes a knowledge and proficiency test conducted by the receiving school for the purpose of determining the amount of pilot experience and knowledge to be credited; (3) The receiving school determines (based on the person's performance on the knowledge and proficiency test required by paragraph (b)(2) of this section) the amount of credit to be awarded, and records that credit in the person's training record; (4) The person who requests credit for previous pilot experience and knowledge obtained the experience and knowledge from another part 141 approved pilot school and training course; and (5) The receiving school retains a copy of the person's training record from the previous school. (c) Tests given by a pilot school that holds examining authority must be approved by the Administrator and be at least equal in scope, depth, and difficulty to the comparable knowledge and practical tests prescribed by the Administrator under part 61 of this chapter. (d) A pilot school that holds examining authority may not use its knowledge or practical tests if the school: (1) Knows, or has reason to believe, the test has been compromised; or (2) Is notified by the responsible Flight Standards office that there is reason to believe or it is known that the test has been compromised. (e) A pilot school that holds examining authority must maintain a record of all temporary airman certificates it issues, which consist of the following information: (1) A chronological listing that includes— (i) The date the temporary airman certificate was issued; (ii) The student to whom the temporary airman certificate was issued, and that student's permanent mailing address and telephone number; (iii) The training course from which the student graduated; (iv) The name of person who conducted the knowledge or practical test; (v) The type of temporary airman certificate or rating issued to the student; and (vi) The date the student's airman application file was sent to the FAA for processing for a permanent airman certificate. (2) A copy of the record containing each student's graduation certificate, airman application, temporary airman certificate, superseded airman certificate (if applicable), and knowledge test or practical test results; and (3) The records required by paragraph (e) of this section must be retained for 1 year and made available to the Administrator upon request. These records must be surrendered to the Administrator when the pilot school ceases to have examining authority. (f) Except for pilot schools that have an airman certification representative, when a student passes the knowledge test or practical test, the pilot school that holds examining authority must submit that student's airman application file and training record to the FAA for processing for the issuance of a permanent airman certificate.

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[Docket 25910, 62 FR 16347, Apr. 4, 1997; Amdt. 141-9, 62 FR 40908, July 30, 1997, as amended by Docket FAA-2018-0119, Amdt. 141-19, 83 FR 9176, Mar. 5, 2018] Subpart E—Operating Rules § 141.71 Applicability. This subpart prescribes the operating rules applicable to a pilot school or provisional pilot school certificated under the provisions of this part. § 141.73 Privileges. (a) The holder of a pilot school certificate or a provisional pilot school certificate may advertise and conduct approved pilot training courses in accordance with the certificate and any ratings that it holds. (b) A pilot school that holds examining authority for an approved training course may recommend a graduate of that course for the issuance of an appropriate pilot, flight instructor, or ground instructor certificate and rating, without taking an FAA knowledge test or practical test, provided the training course has been approved and meets the minimum ground and flight training time requirements of this part. § 141.75 Aircraft requirements. The following items must be carried on each aircraft used for flight training and solo flights: (a) A pretakeoff and prelanding checklist; and (b) The operator's handbook for the aircraft, if one is furnished by the manufacturer, or copies of the handbook if furnished to each student using the aircraft. [Docket 25910, 62 FR 40908, July 30, 1997] § 141.77 Limitations. (a) The holder of a pilot school certificate or a provisional pilot school certificate may not issue a graduation certificate to a student, or recommend a student for a pilot certificate or rating, unless the student has: (1) Completed the training specified in the pilot school's course of training; and (2) Passed the required final tests. (b) Except as provided in paragraph (c) of this section, the holder of a pilot school certificate or a provisional pilot school certificate may not graduate a student from a course of training unless the student has completed all of the curriculum requirements of that course; (c) A student may be given credit towards the curriculum requirements of a course for previous training under the following conditions: (1) If the student completed a proficiency test and knowledge test that was conducted by the receiving pilot school and the previous training was based on a part 141- or a part 142-approved flight training course, the credit is limited to not more than 50 percent of the flight training requirements of the curriculum. (2) If the student completed a knowledge test that was conducted by the receiving pilot school and the previous training was based on a part 141- or a part 142-approved aeronautical knowledge training course, the credit is limited to not more than 50 percent of the aeronautical knowledge training requirements of the curriculum. (3) If the student completed a proficiency test and knowledge test that was conducted by the receiving pilot school and the training was received from other than a part 141- or a part 142-approved flight training course, the credit is limited to not more than 25 percent of the flight training requirements of the curriculum. (4) If the student completed a knowledge test that was conducted by the receiving pilot school and the previous training was received from other than a part 141- or a part 142-approved aeronautical knowledge training course, the credit is limited to not more than 25 percent of the aeronautical knowledge training requirements of the curriculum. (5) Completion of previous training must be certified in the student's training record by the training provider or a management official within the training provider's organization, and must contain—

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(i) The kind and amount of training provided; and (ii) The result of each stage check and end-of-course test, if appropriate. [Docket 25910, 62 FR 16347, Apr. 4, 1997; Amdt. 141-9, 62 FR 40908, July 30, 1997; Amdt. 141-12, 74 FR 42564, Aug. 21, 2009] § 141.79 Flight training. (a) No person other than a certificated flight instructor or commercial pilot with a lighter-than-air rating who has the ratings and the minimum qualifications specified in the approved training course outline may give a student flight training under an approved course of training. (b) No student pilot may be authorized to start a solo practice flight from an airport until the flight has been approved by a certificated flight instructor or commercial pilot with a lighter-than-air rating who is present at that airport. (c) Each chief instructor and assistant chief instructor assigned to a training course must complete, at least once every 12 calendar months, an approved syllabus of training consisting of ground or flight training, or both, or an approved flight instructor refresher course. (d) Each certificated flight instructor or commercial pilot with a lighter-than-air rating who is assigned to a flight training course must satisfactorily complete the following tasks, which must be administered by the school's chief instructor, assistant chief instructor, or check instructor: (1) Prior to receiving authorization to train students in a flight training course, must— (i) Accomplish a review of and receive a briefing on the objectives and standards of that training course; and (ii) Accomplish an initial proficiency check in each make and model of aircraft used in that training course in which that person provides training; and (2) Every 12 calendar months after the month in which the person last complied with the requirements of paragraph (d)(1)(ii) of this section, accomplish a recurrent proficiency check in one of the aircraft in which the person trains students. [Docket 25910, 62 FR 16347, Apr. 4, 1997; Amdt. 141-9, 62 FR 40908, July 30, 1997] § 141.81 Ground training. (a) Except as provided in paragraph (b) of this section, each instructor who is assigned to a ground training course must hold a flight or ground instructor certificate, or a commercial pilot certificate with a lighter-than-air rating, with the appropriate rating for that course of training. (b) A person who does not meet the requirements of paragraph (a) of this section may be assigned ground training duties in a ground training course, if: (1) The chief instructor who is assigned to that ground training course finds the person qualified to give that training; and (2) The training is given while under the supervision of the chief instructor or the assistant chief instructor who is present at the facility when the training is given. (c) An instructor may not be used in a ground training course until that instructor has been briefed on the objectives and standards of that course by the chief instructor, assistant chief instructor, or check instructor. [Docket 25910, 62 FR 16347, Apr. 4, 1997; Amdt. 141-9, 62 FR 40908, July 30, 1997] § 141.83 Quality of training. (a) Each pilot school or provisional pilot school must meet the following requirements: (1) Comply with its approved training course; and (2) Provide training of such quality that meets the requirements of § 141.5(d) of this part. (b) The failure of a pilot school or provisional pilot school to maintain the quality of training specified in paragraph (a) of this section may be the basis for suspending or revoking that school's certificate. (c) When requested by the Administrator, a pilot school or provisional pilot school must allow the FAA to administer any knowledge test, practical test, stage check, or end-of-course test to its students.

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(d) When a stage check or end-of-course test is administered by the FAA under the provisions of paragraph (c) of this section, and the student has not completed the training course, then that test will be based on the standards prescribed in the school's approved training course. (e) When a practical test or knowledge test is administered by the FAA under the provisions of paragraph (c) of this section, to a student who has completed the school's training course, that test will be based upon the areas of operation approved by the Administrator. [Docket 25910, 62 FR 16347, Apr. 4, 1997; Amdt. 141-9, 62 FR 40908, July 30, 1997] § 141.85 Chief instructor responsibilities. (a) A chief instructor designated for a pilot school or provisional pilot school is responsible for: (1) Certifying each student's training record, graduation certificate, stage check and end-of-course test reports, and recommendation for course completion, unless the duties are delegated by the chief instructor to an assistant chief instructor or recommending instructor; (2) Ensuring that each certificated flight instructor, certificated ground instructor, or commercial pilot with a lighter-than-air rating passes an initial proficiency check prior to that instructor being assigned instructing duties in the school's approved training course, and thereafter that the instructor passes a recurrent proficiency check every 12 calendar months after the month in which the initial test was accomplished; (3) Ensuring that each student accomplishes the required stage checks and end-of-course tests in accordance with the school's approved training course; and (4) Maintaining training techniques, procedures, and standards for the school that are acceptable to the Administrator. (b) The chief instructor or an assistant chief instructor must be available at the pilot school or, if away from the pilot school, be available by telephone, radio, or other electronic means during the time that training is given for an approved training course. (c) The chief instructor may delegate authority for conducting stage checks, end-of-course tests, and flight instructor proficiency checks to the assistant chief instructor or a check instructor. [Docket 25910, 62 FR 16347, Apr. 4, 1997; Amdt. 141-9, 62 FR 40908, July 30, 1997; Amdt. 141-12, 74 FR 42564, Aug. 21, 2009] § 141.87 Change of chief instructor. Whenever a pilot school or provisional pilot school makes a change of designation of its chief instructor, that school: (a) Must immediately provide the FAA responsible Flight Standards office in which the school is located with written notification of the change; (b) May conduct training without a chief instructor for that training course for a period not to exceed 60 days while awaiting the designation and approval of another chief instructor; (c) May, for a period not to exceed 60 days, have the stage checks and end-of-course tests administered by: (1) The training course's assistant chief instructor, if one has been designated; (2) The training course's check instructor, if one has been designated; (3) An FAA inspector; or (4) An examiner. (d) Must, after 60 days without a chief instructor, cease operations and surrender its certificate to the Administrator; and (e) May have its certificate reinstated, upon: (1) Designating and approving another chief instructor; (2) Showing it meets the requirements of § 141.27(a)(2) of this part; and (3) Applying for reinstatement on a form and in a manner prescribed by the Administrator. [Docket 25910, 62 FR 16347, Apr. 4, 1997, as amended by Docket FAA-2018-0119, Amdt. 141-19, 83 FR 9176, Mar. 5, 2018]

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§ 141.89 Maintenance of personnel, facilities, and equipment. The holder of a pilot school certificate or provisional pilot school certificate may not provide training to a student who is enrolled in an approved course of training unless: (a) Each airport, aircraft, and facility necessary for that training meets the standards specified in the holder's approved training course outline and the appropriate requirements of this part; and (b) Except as provided in § 141.87 of this part, each chief instructor, assistant chief instructor, check instructor, or instructor meets the qualifications specified in the holder's approved course of training and the appropriate requirements of this part. § 141.91 Satellite bases. The holder of a pilot school certificate or provisional pilot school certificate may conduct ground training or flight training in an approved course of training at a base other than its main operations base if: (a) An assistant chief instructor is designated for each satellite base, and that assistant chief instructor is available at that base or, if away from the premises, by telephone, radio, or other electronic means during the time that training is provided for an approved training course; (b) The airport, facilities, and personnel used at the satellite base meet the appropriate requirements of subpart B of this part and its approved training course outline; (c) The instructors are under the direct supervision of the chief instructor or assistant chief instructor for the appropriate training course, who is readily available for consultation in accordance with § 141.85(b) of this part; and (d) The responsible Flight Standards office for the area in which the school is located is notified in writing if training is conducted at a base other than the school's main operations base for more than 7 consecutive days. [Docket 25910, 62 FR 16347, Apr. 4, 1997; Amdt. 141-9, 62 FR 40908, July 30, 1997, as amended by Docket FAA-2018-0119, Amdt. 141-19, 83 FR 9175, Mar. 5, 2018] § 141.93 Enrollment. (a) The holder of a pilot school certificate or a provisional pilot school certificate must, at the time a student is enrolled in an approved training course, furnish that student with a copy of the following: (1) A certificate of enrollment containing— (i) The name of the course in which the student is enrolled; and (ii) The date of that enrollment. (2) A copy of the student's training syllabus. (3) Except for a training course offered through an internet based medium, a copy of the safety procedures and practices developed by the school that describe the use of the school's facilities and the operation of its aircraft. Those procedures and practices shall include training on at least the following information— (i) The weather minimums required by the school for dual and solo flights; (ii) The procedures for starting and taxiing aircraft on the ramp; (iii) Fire precautions and procedures; (iv) Redispatch procedures after unprogrammed landings, on and off airports; (v) Aircraft discrepancies and approval for return-to-service determinations; (vi) Securing of aircraft when not in use; (vii) Fuel reserves necessary for local and cross-country flights; (viii) Avoidance of other aircraft in flight and on the ground; (ix) Minimum altitude limitations and simulated emergency landing instructions; and (x) A description of and instructions regarding the use of assigned practice areas. (b) The holder of a pilot school certificate or provisional pilot school certificate must maintain a monthly listing of persons enrolled in each training course offered by the school. [Docket 25910, 62 FR 16347, Apr. 4, 1997; Amdt. 141-9, 62 FR 40908, July 30, 1997; Amdt. 141-15, 76 FR 54107, Aug. 31, 2011]

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§ 141.95 Graduation certificate. (a) The holder of a pilot school certificate or provisional pilot school certificate must issue a graduation certificate to each student who completes its approved course of training. (b) The graduation certificate must be issued to the student upon completion of the course of training and contain at least the following information: (1) The name of the school and the certificate number of the school; (2) The name of the graduate to whom it was issued; (3) The course of training for which it was issued; (4) The date of graduation; (5) A statement that the student has satisfactorily completed each required stage of the approved course of training including the tests for those stages; (6) A certification of the information contained on the graduation certificate by the chief instructor for that course of training; and (7) A statement showing the cross-country training that the student received in the course of training. (8) Certificates issued upon graduating from a course based on internet media must be uniquely identified using an alphanumeric code that is specific to the student graduating from that course. [Docket 25910, 62 FR 16347, Apr. 4, 1997; Amdt. 141-9, 62 FR 40908, July 30, 1997, as amended by Amdt. 141-15, 76 FR 54108, Aug. 31, 2011] Subpart F—Records § 141.101 Training records. (a) Each holder of a pilot school certificate or provisional pilot school certificate must establish and maintain a current and accurate record of the participation of each student enrolled in an approved course of training conducted by the school that includes the following information: (1) The date the student was enrolled in the approved course; (2) A chronological log of the student's course attendance, subjects, and flight operations covered in the student's training, and the names and grades of any tests taken by the student; and (3) The date the student graduated, terminated training, or transferred to another school. In the case of graduation from a course based on internet media, the school must maintain the identifying graduation certificate code required by § 141.95(b)(8). (b) The records required to be maintained in a student's logbook will not suffice for the record required by paragraph (a) of this section. (c) Whenever a student graduates, terminates training, or transfers to another school, the student's record must be certified to that effect by the chief instructor. (d) The holder of a pilot school certificate or a provisional pilot school certificate must retain each student record required by this section for at least 1 year from the date that the student: (1) Graduates from the course to which the record pertains; (2) Terminates enrollment in the course to which the record pertains; or (3) Transfers to another school. (e) The holder of a pilot school certificate or a provisional pilot school certificate must make a copy of the student's training record available upon request by the student. [Docket 25910, 62 FR 16347, Apr. 4, 1997; Amdt. 141-9, 62 FR 40908, July 30, 1997, as amended by Amdt. 141-15, 76 FR 54108, Aug. 31, 2011]   Pt. 141, App. A Appendix A to Part 141—Recreational Pilot Certification Course 1. Applicability. This appendix prescribes the minimum curriculum required for a recreational pilot certification course under this part, for the following ratings:

(a) Airplane single-engine. (b) Rotorcraft helicopter. (c) Rotorcraft gyroplane. 2. Eligibility for enrollment. A person must hold a student pilot certificate prior to enrolling in the flight portion of the recreational pilot certification course. 3. Aeronautical knowledge training. Each approved course must include at least 20 hours of ground training on the following aeronautical knowledge areas, appropriate to the aircraft category and class for which the course applies: (a) Applicable Federal Aviation Regulations for recreational pilot privileges, limitations, and flight operations;

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(b) Accident reporting requirements of the National Transportation Safety Board; (c) Applicable subjects in the “Aeronautical Information Manual” and the appropriate FAA advisory circulars; (d) Use of aeronautical charts for VFR navigation using pilotage with the aid of a magnetic compass; (e) Recognition of critical weather situations from the ground and in flight, windshear avoidance, and the procurement and use of aeronautical weather reports and forecasts; (f) Safe and efficient operation of aircraft, including collision avoidance, and recognition and avoidance of wake turbulence; (g) Effects of density altitude on takeoff and climb performance; (h) Weight and balance computations; (i) Principles of aerodynamics, powerplants, and aircraft systems; (j) Stall awareness, spin entry, spins, and spin recovery techniques, if applying for an airplane single-engine rating; (k) Aeronautical decision making and judgment; and (l) Preflight action that includes— (1) How to obtain information on runway lengths at airports of intended use, data on takeoff and landing distances, weather reports and forecasts, and fuel requirements; and (2) How to plan for alternatives if the planned flight cannot be completed or delays are encountered. 4. Flight training. (a) Each approved course must include at least 30 hours of flight training (of which 15 hours must be with a certificated flight instructor and 3 hours must be solo flight training as provided in section No. 5 of this appendix) on the approved areas of operation listed in paragraph (c) of this section that are appropriate to the aircraft category and class rating for which the course applies, including: (1) Except as provided in § 61.100 of this chapter, 2 hours of dual flight training to and at an airport that is located more than 25 nautical miles from the airport where the applicant normally trains, with at least three takeoffs and three landings; and (2) 3 hours of dual flight training in an aircraft that is appropriate to the aircraft category and class for which the course applies, in preparation for the practical test within 60 days preceding the date of the test. (b) Each training flight must include a preflight briefing and a postflight critique of the student by the flight instructor assigned to that flight. (c) Flight training must include the following approved areas of operation appropriate to the aircraft category and class rating— (1) For an airplane single-engine course: (i) Preflight preparation; (ii) Preflight procedures; (iii) Airport operations; (iv) Takeoffs, landings, and go-arounds; (v) Performance maneuvers; (vi) Ground reference maneuvers; (vii) Navigation; (viii) Slow flight and stalls; (ix) Emergency operations; and (x) Postflight procedures. (2) For a rotorcraft helicopter course: (i) Preflight preparation; (ii) Preflight procedures; (iii) Airport and heliport operations; (iv) Hovering maneuvers; (v) Takeoffs, landings, and go-arounds; (vi) Performance maneuvers; (vii) Navigation; (viii) Emergency operations; and (ix) Postflight procedures. (3) For a rotorcraft gyroplane course: (i) Preflight preparation; (ii) Preflight procedures; (iii) Airport operations; (iv) Takeoffs, landings, and go-arounds; (v) Performance maneuvers; (vi) Ground reference maneuvers; (vii) Navigation; (viii) Flight at slow airspeeds; (ix) Emergency operations; and (x) Postflight procedures. 5. Solo flight training. Each approved course must include at least 3 hours of solo flight training on the approved areas of operation listed in paragraph (c) of section No. 4 of this appendix that are appropriate to the aircraft category and class rating for which the course applies. 6. Stage checks and end-of-course tests. (a) Each student enrolled in a recreational pilot course must satisfactorily accomplish the stage checks and end-of-course tests, in accordance with the school's approved training course, consisting of the approved areas of operation listed in paragraph (c) of section No. 4 of this appendix that are appropriate to the aircraft category and class rating for which the course applies. (b) Each student must demonstrate satisfactory proficiency prior to receiving an endorsement to operate an aircraft in solo flight. [Docket 25910, 62 FR 16347, Apr. 4, 1997; Amdt. 141-9, 62 FR 40908, July 30, 1997] Pt. 141, App. B Appendix B to Part 141—Private Pilot Certification Course 1. Applicability. This appendix prescribes the minimum curriculum for a private pilot certification course required under this part, for the following ratings:

(a) Airplane single-engine. (b) Airplane multiengine. (c) Rotorcraft helicopter. (d) Rotorcraft gyroplane. (e) Powered-lift. (f) Glider.

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(g) Lighter-than-air airship. (h) Lighter-than-air balloon. 2. Eligibility for enrollment. A person must hold either a recreational pilot certificate, sport pilot certificate, or student pilot certificate before enrolling in the solo flight phase of the private pilot certification course. 3. Aeronautical knowledge training. (a) Each approved course must include at least the following ground training on the aeronautical knowledge areas listed in paragraph (b) of this section, appropriate to the aircraft category and class rating: (1) 35 hours of training if the course is for an airplane, rotorcraft, or powered-lift category rating. (2) 15 hours of training if the course is for a glider category rating. (3) 10 hours of training if the course is for a lighter-than-air category with a balloon class rating. (4) 35 hours of training if the course is for a lighter-than-air category with an airship class rating. (b) Ground training must include the following aeronautical knowledge areas: (1) Applicable Federal Aviation Regulations for private pilot privileges, limitations, and flight operations; (2) Accident reporting requirements of the National Transportation Safety Board; (3) Applicable subjects of the “Aeronautical Information Manual” and the appropriate FAA advisory circulars; (4) Aeronautical charts for VFR navigation using pilotage, dead reckoning, and navigation systems; (5) Radio communication procedures; (6) Recognition of critical weather situations from the ground and in flight, windshear avoidance, and the procurement and use of aeronautical weather reports and forecasts; (7) Safe and efficient operation of aircraft, including collision avoidance, and recognition and avoidance of wake turbulence; (8) Effects of density altitude on takeoff and climb performance; (9) Weight and balance computations; (10) Principles of aerodynamics, powerplants, and aircraft systems; (11) If the course of training is for an airplane category or glider category rating, stall awareness, spin entry, spins, and spin recovery techniques; (12) Aeronautical decision making and judgment; and (13) Preflight action that includes— (i) How to obtain information on runway lengths at airports of intended use, data on takeoff and landing distances, weather reports and forecasts, and fuel requirements; and (ii) How to plan for alternatives if the planned flight cannot be completed or delays are encountered. 4. Flight training. (a) Each approved course must include at least the following flight training, as provided in this section and section No. 5 of this appendix, on the approved areas of operation listed in paragraph (d) of this section, appropriate to the aircraft category and class rating: (1) 35 hours of training if the course is for an airplane, rotorcraft, powered-lift, or airship rating. (2) 6 hours of training if the course is for a glider rating. (3) 8 hours of training if the course is for a balloon rating. (b) Each approved course must include at least the following flight training: (1) For an airplane single-engine course: 20 hours of flight training from a certificated flight instructor on the approved areas of operation in paragraph (d)(1) of this section that includes at least— (i) Except as provided in § 61.111 of this chapter, 3 hours of cross-country flight training in a single-engine airplane; (ii) 3 hours of night flight training in a single-engine airplane that includes— (A) One cross-country flight of more than 100-nautical-miles total distance; and (B) 10 takeoffs and 10 landings to a full stop (with each landing involving a flight in the traffic pattern) at an airport. (iii) Three hours of flight training in a single engine airplane on the control and maneuvering of a single engine airplane solely by reference to instruments, including straight and level flight, constant airspeed climbs and descents, turns to a heading, recovery from unusual flight attitudes, radio communications, and the use of navigation systems/facilities and radar services appropriate to instrument flight; and (iv) 3 hours of flight training in a single-engine airplane in preparation for the practical test within 60 days preceding the date of the test. (2) For an airplane multiengine course: 20 hours of flight training from a certificated flight instructor on the approved areas of operation in paragraph (d)(2) of this section that includes at least— (i) Except as provided in § 61.111 of this chapter, 3 hours of cross-country flight training in a multiengine airplane; (ii) 3 hours of night flight training in a multiengine airplane that includes— (A) One cross-country flight of more than 100-nautical-miles total distance; and (B) 10 takeoffs and 10 landings to a full stop (with each landing involving a flight in the traffic pattern) at an airport. (iii) Three hours of flight training in a multiengine airplane on the control and maneuvering of a multiengine airplane solely by reference to instruments, including straight and level flight, constant airspeed climbs and descents, turns to a heading, recovery from unusual flight attitudes, radio communications, and the use of navigation systems/facilities and radar services appropriate to instrument flight; and

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(iv) 3 hours of flight training in a multiengine airplane in preparation for the practical test within 60 days preceding the date of the test. (3) For a rotorcraft helicopter course: 20 hours of flight training from a certificated flight instructor on the approved areas of operation in paragraph (d)(3) of this section that includes at least— (i) Except as provided in § 61.111 of this chapter, 3 hours of cross-country flight training in a helicopter. (ii) 3 hours of night flight training in a helicopter that includes— (A) One cross-country flight of more than 50-nautical-miles total distance; and (B) 10 takeoffs and 10 landings to a full stop (with each landing involving a flight in the traffic pattern) at an airport. (iii) 3 hours of flight training in a helicopter in preparation for the practical test within 60 days preceding the date of the test. (4) For a rotorcraft gyroplane course: 20 hours of flight training from a certificated flight instructor on the approved areas of operation in paragraph (d)(4) of this section that includes at least— (i) Except as provided in § 61.111 of this chapter, 3 hours of cross-country flight training in a gyroplane. (ii) 3 hours of night flight training in a gyroplane that includes— (A) One cross-country flight over 50-nautical-miles total distance; and (B) 10 takeoffs and 10 landings to a full stop (with each landing involving a flight in the traffic pattern) at an airport. (iii) 3 hours of flight training in a gyroplane in preparation for the practical test within 60 days preceding the date of the test. (5) For a powered-lift course: 20 hours of flight training from a certificated flight instructor on the approved areas of operation in paragraph (d)(5) of this section that includes at least— (i) Except as provided in § 61.111 of this chapter, 3 hours of cross-country flight training in a powered-lift; (ii) 3 hours of night flight training in a powered-lift that includes— (A) One cross-country flight of more than 100-nautical-miles total distance; and (B) 10 takeoffs and 10 landings to a full stop (with each landing involving a flight in the traffic pattern) at an airport. (iii) Three hours of flight training in a powered-lift on the control and maneuvering of a powered-lift solely by reference to instruments, including straight and level flight, constant airspeed climbs and descents, turns to a heading, recovery from unusual flight attitudes, radio communications, and the use of navigation systems/facilities and radar services appropriate to instrument flight; and (iv) 3 hours of flight training in a powered-lift in preparation for the practical test, within 60 days preceding the date of the test. (6) For a glider course: 4 hours of flight training from a certificated flight instructor on the approved areas of operation in paragraph (d)(6) of this section that includes at least— (i) Five training flights in a glider with a certificated flight instructor on the launch/tow procedures approved for the course and on the appropriate approved areas of operation listed in paragraph (d)(6) of this section; and (ii) Three training flights in a glider with a certificated flight instructor in preparation for the practical test within 60 days preceding the date of the test. (7) For a lighter-than-air airship course: 20 hours of flight training from a commercial pilot with an airship rating on the approved areas of operation in paragraph (d)(7) of this section that includes at least— (i) Except as provided in § 61.111 of this chapter, 3 hours of cross-country flight training in an airship; (ii) 3 hours of night flight training in an airship that includes— (A) One cross-country flight over 25-nautical-miles total distance; and (B) Five takeoffs and five landings to a full stop (with each landing involving a flight in the traffic pattern) at an airport. (iii) 3 hours of instrument training in an airship; and (iv) 3 hours of flight training in an airship in preparation for the practical test within 60 days preceding the date of the test. (8) For a lighter-than-air balloon course: 8 hours of flight training, including at least five training flights, from a commercial pilot with a balloon rating on the approved areas of operation in paragraph (d)(8) of this section, that includes— (i) If the training is being performed in a gas balloon— (A) Two flights of 1 hour each; (B) One flight involving a controlled ascent to 3,000 feet above the launch site; and (C) Two flights in preparation for the practical test within 60 days preceding the date of the test. (ii) If the training is being performed in a balloon with an airborne heater— (A) Two flights of 30 minutes each; (B) One flight involving a controlled ascent to 2,000 feet above the launch site; and (C) Two flights in preparation for the practical test within 60 days preceding the date of the test. (c) For use of full flight simulators or flight training devices:

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(1) The course may include training in a full flight simulator or flight training device, provided it is representative of the aircraft for which the course is approved, meets the requirements of this paragraph, and the training is given by an authorized instructor. (2) Training in a full flight simulator that meets the requirements of § 141.41(a) may be credited for a maximum of 20 percent of the total flight training hour requirements of the approved course, or of this section, whichever is less. (3) Training in a flight training device that meets the requirements of § 141.41(a) may be credited for a maximum of 15 percent of the total flight training hour requirements of the approved course, or of this section, whichever is less. (4) Training in full flight simulators or flight training devices described in paragraphs (c)(2) and (3) of this section, if used in combination, may be credited for a maximum of 20 percent of the total flight training hour requirements of the approved course, or of this section, whichever is less. However, credit for training in a flight training device that meets the requirements of § 141.41(a) cannot exceed the limitation provided for in paragraph (c)(3) of this section. (d) Each approved course must include the flight training on the approved areas of operation listed in this paragraph that are appropriate to the aircraft category and class rating— (1) For a single-engine airplane course: (i) Preflight preparation; (ii) Preflight procedures; (iii) Airport and seaplane base operations; (iv) Takeoffs, landings, and go-arounds; (v) Performance maneuvers; (vi) Ground reference maneuvers; (vii) Navigation; (viii) Slow flight and stalls; (ix) Basic instrument maneuvers; (x) Emergency operations; (xi) Night operations, and (xii) Postflight procedures. (2) For a multiengine airplane course: (i) Preflight preparation; (ii) Preflight procedures; (iii) Airport and seaplane base operations; (iv) Takeoffs, landings, and go-arounds; (v) Performance maneuvers; (vi) Ground reference maneuvers; (vii) Navigation; (viii) Slow flight and stalls; (ix) Basic instrument maneuvers; (x) Emergency operations; (xi) Multiengine operations; (xii) Night operations; and (xiii) Postflight procedures. (3) For a rotorcraft helicopter course: (i) Preflight preparation; (ii) Preflight procedures; (iii) Airport and heliport operations; (iv) Hovering maneuvers; (v) Takeoffs, landings, and go-arounds; (vi) Performance maneuvers; (vii) Navigation; (viii) Emergency operations; (ix) Night operations; and (x) Postflight procedures. (4) For a rotorcraft gyroplane course: (i) Preflight preparation; (ii) Preflight procedures; (iii) Airport operations; (iv) Takeoffs, landings, and go-arounds; (v) Performance maneuvers; (vi) Ground reference maneuvers; (vii) Navigation; (viii) Flight at slow airspeeds; (ix) Emergency operations; (x) Night operations; and (xi) Postflight procedures. (5) For a powered-lift course: (i) Preflight preparation; (ii) Preflight procedures; (iii) Airport and heliport operations; (iv) Hovering maneuvers; (v) Takeoffs, landings, and go-arounds; (vi) Performance maneuvers; (vii) Ground reference maneuvers; (viii) Navigation; (ix) Slow flight and stalls; (x) Basic instrument maneuvers; (xi) Emergency operations; (xii) Night operations; and (xiii) Postflight procedures. (6) For a glider course: (i) Preflight preparation; (ii) Preflight procedures; (iii) Airport and gliderport operations; (iv) Launches/tows, as appropriate, and landings; (v) Performance speeds; (vi) Soaring techniques; (vii) Performance maneuvers; (viii) Navigation; (ix) Slow flight and stalls; (x) Emergency operations; and (xi) Postflight procedures. (7) For a lighter-than-air airship course: (i) Preflight preparation; (ii) Preflight procedures; (iii) Airport operations; (iv) Takeoffs, landings, and go-arounds; (v) Performance maneuvers; (vi) Ground reference maneuvers; (vii) Navigation; (viii) Emergency operations; and (ix) Postflight procedures. (8) For a lighter-than-air balloon course: (i) Preflight preparation; (ii) Preflight procedures; (iii) Airport operations; (iv) Launches and landings; (v) Performance maneuvers; (vi) Navigation; (vii) Emergency operations; and (viii) Postflight procedures. 5. Solo flight training. Each approved course must include at least the following solo flight training:

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(a) For an airplane single-engine course: 5 hours of solo flight training in a single-engine airplane on the approved areas of operation in paragraph (d)(1) of section No. 4 of this appendix that includes at least— (1) One solo 100 nautical miles cross country flight with landings at a minimum of three points and one segment of the flight consisting of a straight-line distance of more than 50 nautical miles between the takeoff and landing locations; and (2) Three takeoffs and three landings to a full stop (with each landing involving a flight in the traffic pattern) at an airport with an operating control tower. (b) For an airplane multiengine course: 5 hours of flight training in a multiengine airplane performing the duties of a pilot in command while under the supervision of a certificated flight instructor. The training must consist of the approved areas of operation in paragraph (d)(2) of section No. 4 of this appendix, and include at least— (1) One 100 nautical miles cross country flight with landings at a minimum of three points and one segment of the flight consisting of a straight-line distance of more than 50 nautical miles between the takeoff and landing locations; and (2) Three takeoffs and three landings to a full stop (with each landing involving a flight in the traffic pattern) at an airport with an operating control tower. (c) For a rotorcraft helicopter course: 5 hours of solo flight training in a helicopter on the approved areas of operation in paragraph (d)(3) of section No. 4 of this appendix that includes at least— (1) One solo 100 nautical miles cross country flight with landings at a minimum of three points and one segment of the flight consisting of a straight-line distance of more than 25 nautical miles between the takeoff and landing locations; and (2) Three takeoffs and three landings to a full stop (with each landing involving a flight in the traffic pattern) at an airport with an operating control tower. (d) For a rotorcraft gyroplane course: 5 hours of solo flight training in gyroplanes on the approved areas of operation in paragraph (d)(4) of section No. 4 of this appendix that includes at least— (1) One solo 100 nautical miles cross country flight with landings at a minimum of three points and one segment of the flight consisting of a straight-line distance of more than 25 nautical miles between the takeoff and landing locations; and (2) Three takeoffs and three landings to a full stop (with each landing involving a flight in the traffic pattern) at an airport with an operating control tower. (e) For a powered-lift course: 5 hours of solo flight training in a powered-lift on the approved areas of operation in paragraph (d)(5) of section No. 4 of this appendix that includes at least— (1) One solo 100 nautical miles cross country flight with landings at a minimum of three points and one segment of the flight consisting of a straight-line distance of more than 50 nautical miles between the takeoff and landing locations; and (2) Three takeoffs and three landings to a full stop (with each landing involving a flight in the traffic pattern) at an airport with an operating control tower. (f) For a glider course: Two solo flights in a glider on the approved areas of operation in paragraph (d)(6) of section No. 4 of this appendix, and the launch and tow procedures appropriate for the approved course. (g) For a lighter-than-air airship course: 5 hours of flight training in an airship performing the duties of pilot in command while under the supervision of a commercial pilot with an airship rating. The training must consist of the approved areas of operation in paragraph (d)(7) of section No. 4 of this appendix. (h) For a lighter-than-air balloon course: Two solo flights in a balloon with an airborne heater if the course involves a balloon with an airborne heater or, if the course involves a gas balloon, at least two flights in a gas balloon performing the duties of pilot in command while under the supervision of a commercial pilot with a balloon rating. The training must consist of the approved areas of operation in paragraph (d)(8) of section No. 4 of this appendix, in the kind of balloon for which the course applies. 6. Stage checks and end-of-course tests. (a) Each student enrolled in a private pilot course must satisfactorily accomplish the stage checks and end-of-course tests in accordance with the school's approved training course, consisting of the approved areas of operation listed in paragraph (d) of section No. 4 of this appendix that are appropriate to the aircraft category and class rating for which the course applies. (b) Each student must demonstrate satisfactory proficiency prior to receiving an endorsement to operate an aircraft in solo flight. [Docket 25910, 62 FR 16347, Apr. 4, 1997; Amdt. 141-9, 62 FR 40908, July 30, 1997, as amended by Amdt. 141-10, 63 FR 20289, Apr. 23, 1998; Amdt. 141-12, 74 FR 42564, Aug. 21, 2009; Docket FAA-2015-1846, Amdt. 141-18, 81 FR 21460, Apr. 12, 2016] Pt. 141, App. C Appendix C to Part 141—Instrument Rating Course 1. Applicability. This appendix prescribes the minimum curriculum for an instrument rating course and an additional instrument rating course, required under this part, for the following ratings:

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(a) Instrument—airplane. (b) Instrument—helicopter. (c) Instrument—powered-lift. 2. Eligibility for enrollment. A person must hold at least a private pilot certificate with an aircraft category and class rating appropriate to the instrument rating for which the course applies prior to enrolling in the flight portion of the instrument rating course. 3. Aeronautical knowledge training. (a) Each approved course must include at least the following ground training on the aeronautical knowledge areas listed in paragraph (b) of this section appropriate to the instrument rating for which the course applies: (1) 30 hours of training if the course is for an initial instrument rating. (2) 20 hours of training if the course is for an additional instrument rating. (b) Ground training must include the following aeronautical knowledge areas: (1) Applicable Federal Aviation Regulations for IFR flight operations; (2) Appropriate information in the “Aeronautical Information Manual”; (3) Air traffic control system and procedures for instrument flight operations; (4) IFR navigation and approaches by use of navigation systems; (5) Use of IFR en route and instrument approach procedure charts; (6) Procurement and use of aviation weather reports and forecasts, and the elements of forecasting weather trends on the basis of that information and personal observation of weather conditions; (7) Safe and efficient operation of aircraft under instrument flight rules and conditions; (8) Recognition of critical weather situations and windshear avoidance; (9) Aeronautical decision making and judgment; and (10) Crew resource management, to include crew communication and coordination. 4. Flight training. (a) Each approved course must include at least the following flight training on the approved areas of operation listed in paragraph (d) of this section, appropriate to the instrument-aircraft category and class rating for which the course applies: (1) 35 hours of instrument training if the course is for an initial instrument rating. (2) 15 hours of instrument training if the course is for an additional instrument rating. (b) For the use of full flight simulators, flight training devices, or aviation training devices— (1) The course may include training in a full flight simulator, flight training device, or aviation training device, provided it is representative of the aircraft for which the course is approved, meets the requirements of this paragraph, and the training is given by an authorized instructor. (2) Credit for training in a full flight simulator that meets the requirements of § 141.41(a) cannot exceed 50 percent of the total flight training hour requirements of the course or of this section, whichever is less. (3) Credit for training in a flight training device that meets the requirements of § 141.41(a), an advanced aviation training device that meets the requirements of § 141.41(b), or a combination of these devices cannot exceed 40 percent of the total flight training hour requirements of the course or of this section, whichever is less. Credit for training in a basic aviation training device that meets the requirements of § 141.41(b) cannot exceed 25 percent of the total training hour requirements permitted under this paragraph. (4) Credit for training in full flight simulators, flight training devices, and aviation training devices if used in combination, cannot exceed 50 percent of the total flight training hour requirements of the course or of this section, whichever is less. However, credit for training in a flight training device or aviation training device cannot exceed the limitation provided for in paragraph (b)(3) of this section. (c) Each approved course must include the following flight training— (1) For an instrument airplane course: Instrument training time from a certificated flight instructor with an instrument rating on the approved areas of operation in paragraph (d) of this section including at least one cross-country flight that— (i) Is in the category and class of airplane that the course is approved for, and is performed under IFR; (ii) Is a distance of at least 250 nautical miles along airways or ATC-directed routing with one segment of the flight consisting of at least a straight-line distance of 100 nautical miles between airports; (iii) Involves an instrument approach at each airport; and (iv) Involves three different kinds of approaches with the use of navigation systems. (2) For an instrument helicopter course: Instrument training time from a certificated flight instructor with an instrument rating on the approved areas of operation in paragraph (d) of this section including at least one cross-country flight that— (i) Is in a helicopter and is performed under IFR; (ii) Is a distance of at least 100 nautical miles along airways or ATC-directed routing with one segment of the flight consisting of at least a straight-line distance of 50 nautical miles between airports; (iii) Involves an instrument approach at each airport; and (iv) Involves three different kinds of approaches with the use of navigation systems. (3) For an instrument powered-lift course: Instrument training time from a certificated flight instructor with an instrument rating on the approved areas of operation in paragraph (d) of this section including at least one cross-country flight that—

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(i) Is in a powered-lift and is performed under IFR; (ii) Is a distance of at least 250 nautical miles along airways or ATC-directed routing with one segment of the flight consisting of at least a straight-line distance of 100 nautical miles between airports; (iii) Involves an instrument approach at each airport; and (iv) Involves three different kinds of approaches with the use of navigation systems. (d) Each course must include flight training on the areas of operation listed under this paragraph appropriate to the instrument aircraft category and class rating (if a class rating is appropriate) for which the course applies: (1) Preflight preparation; (2) Preflight procedures; (3) Air traffic control clearances and procedures; (4) Flight by reference to instruments; (5) Navigation systems; (6) Instrument approach procedures; (7) Emergency operations; and (8) Postflight procedures. 5. Stage checks and end-of-course tests. Each student enrolled in an instrument rating course must satisfactorily accomplish the stage checks and end-of-course tests, in accordance with the school's approved training course, consisting of the approved areas of operation listed in paragraph (d) of section No. 4 of this appendix that are appropriate to the aircraft category and class rating for which the course applies. [Docket 25910, 62 FR 16347, Apr. 4, 1997; Amdt. 141-9, 62 FR 40909, July 30, 1997; Amdt. 141-12, 74 FR 42564, Aug. 21, 2009; Docket FAA-2015-1846, Amdt. 141-18, 81 FR 21460, Apr. 12, 2016] Pt. 141, App. D Appendix D to Part 141—Commercial Pilot Certification Course 1. Applicability. This appendix prescribes the minimum curriculum for a commercial pilot certification course required under this part, for the following ratings:

(a) Airplane single-engine. (b) Airplane multiengine. (c) Rotorcraft helicopter. (d) Rotorcraft gyroplane. (e) Powered-lift. (f) Glider. (g) Lighter-than-air airship. (h) Lighter-than-air balloon. 2. Eligibility for enrollment. A person must hold the following prior to enrolling in the flight portion of the commercial pilot certification course: (a) At least a private pilot certificate; and (b) If the course is for a rating in an airplane or a powered-lift category, then the person must: (1) Hold an instrument rating in the aircraft that is appropriate to the aircraft category rating for which the course applies; or (2) Be concurrently enrolled in an instrument rating course that is appropriate to the aircraft category rating for which the course applies, and pass the required instrument rating practical test prior to completing the commercial pilot certification course. 3. Aeronautical knowledge training. (a) Each approved course must include at least the following ground training on the aeronautical knowledge areas listed in paragraph (b) of this section, appropriate to the aircraft category and class rating for which the course applies: (1) 35 hours of training if the course is for an airplane category rating or a powered-lift category rating. (2) 65 hours of training if the course is for a lighter-than-air category with an airship class rating. (3) 30 hours of training if the course is for a rotocraft category rating. (4) 20 hours of training if the course is for a glider category rating. (5) 20 hours of training if the course is for lighter-than-air category with a balloon class rating. (b) Ground training must include the following aeronautical knowledge areas: (1) Federal Aviation Regulations that apply to commercial pilot privileges, limitations, and flight operations; (2) Accident reporting requirements of the National Transportation Safety Board; (3) Basic aerodynamics and the principles of flight; (4) Meteorology, to include recognition of critical weather situations, windshear recognition and avoidance, and the use of aeronautical weather reports and forecasts; (5) Safe and efficient operation of aircraft; (6) Weight and balance computations; (7) Use of performance charts; (8) Significance and effects of exceeding aircraft performance limitations; (9) Use of aeronautical charts and a magnetic compass for pilotage and dead reckoning; (10) Use of air navigation facilities; (11) Aeronautical decision making and judgment; (12) Principles and functions of aircraft systems; (13) Maneuvers, procedures, and emergency operations appropriate to the aircraft; (14) Night and high-altitude operations; (15) Descriptions of and procedures for operating within the National Airspace System; and (16) Procedures for flight and ground training for lighter-than-air ratings. 4. Flight training. (a) Each approved course must include at least the following flight training, as provided in this section and section No. 5 of this appendix, on the approved areas of operation listed in paragraph (d) of this section that are appropriate to the aircraft category and class rating for which the course applies:

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(1) 120 hours of training if the course is for an airplane or powered-lift rating. (2) 155 hours of training if the course is for an airship rating. (3) 115 hours of training if the course is for a rotocraft rating. (4) 6 hours of training if the course is for a glider rating. (5) 10 hours of training and 8 training flights if the course is for a balloon rating. (b) Each approved course must include at least the following flight training: (1) For an airplane single-engine course: 55 hours of flight training from a certificated flight instructor on the approved areas of operation listed in paragraph (d)(1) of this section that includes at least— (i) Ten hours of instrument training using a view-limiting device including attitude instrument flying, partial panel skills, recovery from unusual flight attitudes, and intercepting and tracking navigational systems. Five hours of the 10 hours required on instrument training must be in a single engine airplane; (ii) Ten hours of training in a complex airplane, a turbine-powered airplane, or a technically advanced airplane that meets the requirements of § 61.129(j) of this chapter, or any combination thereof. The airplane must be appropriate to land or sea for the rating sought; (iii) One 2-hour cross country flight in daytime conditions in a single engine airplane that consists of a total straight-line distance of more than 100 nautical miles from the original point of departure; (iv) One 2-hour cross country flight in nighttime conditions in a single engine airplane that consists of a total straight-line distance of more than 100 nautical miles from the original point of departure; and (v) 3 hours in a single-engine airplane in preparation for the practical test within 60 days preceding the date of the test. (2) For an airplane multiengine course: 55 hours of flight training from a certificated flight instructor on the approved areas of operation listed in paragraph (d)(2) of this section that includes at least— (i) Ten hours of instrument training using a view-limiting device including attitude instrument flying, partial panel skills, recovery from unusual flight attitudes, and intercepting and tracking navigational systems. Five hours of the 10 hours required on instrument training must be in a multiengine airplane; (ii) 10 hours of training in a multiengine complex or turbine-powered airplane, or any combination thereof; (iii) One 2-hour cross country flight in daytime conditions in a multiengine airplane that consists of a total straight-line distance of more than 100 nautical miles from the original point of departure; (iv) One 2-hour cross country flight in nighttime conditions in a multiengine airplane that consists of a total straight-line distance of more than 100 nautical miles from the original point of departure; and (v) 3 hours in a multiengine airplane in preparation for the practical test within 60 days preceding the date of the test. (3) For a rotorcraft helicopter course: 30 hours of flight training from a certificated flight instructor on the approved areas of operation listed in paragraph (d)(3) of this section that includes at least— (i) Five hours on the control and maneuvering of a helicopter solely by reference to instruments, including using a view-limiting device for attitude instrument flying, partial panel skills, recovery from unusual flight attitudes, and intercepting and tracking navigational systems. This aeronautical experience may be performed in an aircraft, full flight simulator, flight training device, or an aviation training device; (ii) One 2-hour cross country flight in daytime conditions in a helicopter that consists of a total straight-line distance of more than 50 nautical miles from the original point of departure; (iii) One 2-hour cross country flight in nighttime conditions in a helicopter that consists of a total straight-line distance of more than 50 nautical miles from the original point of departure; and (iv) 3 hours in a helicopter in preparation for the practical test within 60 days preceding the date of the test. (4) For a rotorcraft gyroplane course: 30 hours of flight training from a certificated flight instructor on the approved areas of operation listed in paragraph (d)(4) of this section that includes at least— (i) 2.5 hours on the control and maneuvering of a gyroplane solely by reference to instruments, including using a view-limiting device for attitude instrument flying, partial panel skills, recovery from unusual flight attitudes, and intercepting and tracking navigational systems. This aeronautical experience may be performed in an aircraft, full flight simulator, flight training device, or an aviation training device; (ii) One 2-hour cross country flight in daytime conditions in a gyroplane that consists of a total straight-line distance of more than 50 nautical miles from the original point of departure; (iii) Two hours of flight training in nighttime conditions in a gyroplane at an airport, that includes 10 takeoffs and 10 landings to a full stop (with each landing involving a flight in the traffic pattern); and (iv) 3 hours in a gyroplane in preparation for the practical test within 60 days preceding the date of the test.

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(5) For a powered-lift course: 55 hours of flight training from a certificated flight instructor on the approved areas of operation listed in paragraph (d)(5) of this section that includes at least— (i) Ten hours of instrument training using a view-limiting device including attitude instrument flying, partial panel skills, recovery from unusual flight attitudes, and intercepting and tracking navigational systems. Five hours of the 10 hours required on instrument training must be in a powered-lift; (ii) One 2-hour cross country flight in daytime conditions in a powered-lift that consists of a total straight-line distance of more than 100 nautical miles from the original point of departure; (iii) One 2-hour cross country flight in nighttime conditions in a powered-lift that consists of a total straight-line distance of more than 100 nautical miles from the original point of departure; and (iv) 3 hours in a powered-lift in preparation for the practical test within 60 days preceding the date of the test. (6) For a glider course: 4 hours of flight training from a certificated flight instructor on the approved areas of operation in paragraph (d)(6) of this section, that includes at least— (i) Five training flights in a glider with a certificated flight instructor on the launch/tow procedures approved for the course and on the appropriate approved areas of operation listed in paragraph (d)(6) of this section; and (ii) Three training flights in a glider with a certificated flight instructor in preparation for the practical test within 60 days preceding the date of the test. (7) For a lighter-than-air airship course: 55 hours of flight training in airships from a commercial pilot with an airship rating on the approved areas of operation in paragraph (d)(7) of this section that includes at least— (i) Three hours of instrument training in an airship, including using a view-limiting device for attitude instrument flying, partial panel skills, recovery from unusual flight attitudes, and intercepting and tracking navigational systems; (ii) One hour cross country flight in daytime conditions in an airship that consists of a total straight-line distance of more than 25 nautical miles from the original point of departure; (iii) One hour cross country flight in nighttime conditions in an airship that consists of a total straight-line distance of more than 25 nautical miles from the original point of departure; and (iv) 3 hours in an airship, in preparation for the practical test within 60 days preceding the date of the test. (8) For a lighter-than-air balloon course: Flight training from a commercial pilot with a balloon rating on the approved areas of operation in paragraph (d)(8) of this section that includes at least— (i) If the course involves training in a gas balloon: (A) Two flights of 1 hour each; (B) One flight involving a controlled ascent to at least 5,000 feet above the launch site; and (C) Two flights in preparation for the practical test within 60 days preceding the date of the test. (ii) If the course involves training in a balloon with an airborne heater: (A) Two flights of 30 minutes each; (B) One flight involving a controlled ascent to at least 3,000 feet above the launch site; and (C) Two flights in preparation for the practical test within 60 days preceding the date of the test. (c) For the use of full flight simulators or flight training devices: (1) The course may include training in a full flight simulator or flight training device, provided it is representative of the aircraft for which the course is approved, meets the requirements of this paragraph, and is given by an authorized instructor. (2) Training in a full flight simulator that meets the requirements of § 141.41(a) may be credited for a maximum of 30 percent of the total flight training hour requirements of the approved course, or of this section, whichever is less. (3) Training in a flight training device that meets the requirements of § 141.41(a) may be credited for a maximum of 20 percent of the total flight training hour requirements of the approved course, or of this section, whichever is less. (4) Training in the flight training devices described in paragraphs (c)(2) and (3) of this section, if used in combination, may be credited for a maximum of 30 percent of the total flight training hour requirements of the approved course, or of this section, whichever is less. However, credit for training in a flight training device that meets the requirements of § 141.41(a) cannot exceed the limitation provided for in paragraph (c)(3) of this section. (d) Each approved course must include the flight training on the approved areas of operation listed in this paragraph that are appropriate to the aircraft category and class rating— (1) For an airplane single-engine course: (i) Preflight preparation; (ii) Preflight procedures; (iii) Airport and seaplane base operations; (iv) Takeoffs, landings, and go-arounds; (v) Performance maneuvers; (vi) Navigation; (vii) Slow flight and stalls; (viii) Emergency operations; (ix) High-altitude operations; and (x) Postflight procedures.

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(2) For an airplane multiengine course: (i) Preflight preparation; (ii) Preflight procedures; (iii) Airport and seaplane base operations; (iv) Takeoffs, landings, and go-arounds; (v) Performance maneuvers; (vi) Navigation; (vii) Slow flight and stalls; (viii) Emergency operations; (ix) Multiengine operations; (x) High-altitude operations; and (xi) Postflight procedures. (3) For a rotorcraft helicopter course: (i) Preflight preparation; (ii) Preflight procedures; (iii) Airport and heliport operations; (iv) Hovering maneuvers; (v) Takeoffs, landings, and go-arounds; (vi) Performance maneuvers; (vii) Navigation; (viii) Emergency operations; (ix) Special operations; and (x) Postflight procedures. (4) For a rotorcraft gyroplane course: (i) Preflight preparation; (ii) Preflight procedures; (iii) Airport operations; (iv) Takeoffs, landings, and go-arounds; (v) Performance maneuvers; (vi) Ground reference maneuvers; (vii) Navigation; (viii) Flight at slow airspeeds; (ix) Emergency operations; and (x) Postflight procedures. (5) For a powered-lift course: (i) Preflight preparation; (ii) Preflight procedures; (iii) Airport and heliport operations; (iv) Hovering maneuvers; (v) Takeoffs, landings, and go-arounds; (vi) Performance maneuvers; (vii) Navigation; (viii) Slow flight and stalls; (ix) Emergency operations; (x) High altitude operations; (xi) Special operations; and (xii) Postflight procedures. (6) For a glider course: (i) Preflight preparation; (ii) Preflight procedures; (iii) Airport and gliderport operations; (iv) Launches/tows, as appropriate, and landings; (v) Performance speeds; (vi) Soaring techniques; (vii) Performance maneuvers; (viii) Navigation; (ix) Slow flight and stalls; (x) Emergency operations; and (xi) Postflight procedures. (7) For a lighter-than-air airship course: (i) Fundamentals of instructing; (ii) Technical subjects; (iii) Preflight preparation; (iv) Preflight lessons on a maneuver to be performed in flight; (v) Preflight procedures; (vi) Airport operations; (vii) Takeoffs, landings, and go-arounds; (viii) Performance maneuvers; (ix) Navigation; (x) Emergency operations; and (xi) Postflight procedures. (8) For a lighter-than-air balloon course: (i) Fundamentals of instructing; (ii) Technical subjects; (iii) Preflight preparation; (iv) Preflight lesson on a maneuver to be performed in flight; (v) Preflight procedures; (vi) Airport operations; (vii) Launches and landings; (viii) Performance maneuvers; (ix) Navigation; (x) Emergency operations; and (xi) Postflight procedures. 5. Solo training. Each approved course must include at least the following solo flight training: (a) For an airplane single engine course. Ten hours of solo flight time in a single engine airplane, or 10 hours of flight time while performing the duties of pilot in command in a single engine airplane with an authorized instructor on board. The training must consist of the approved areas of operation under paragraph (d)(1) of section 4 of this appendix, and include— (1) One cross-country flight, if the training is being performed in the State of Hawaii, with landings at a minimum of three points, and one of the segments consisting of a straight-line distance of at least 150 nautical miles; (2) One cross-country flight, if the training is being performed in a State other than Hawaii, with landings at a minimum of three points, and one segment of the flight consisting of a straight-line distance of at least 250 nautical miles; and (3) 5 hours in night VFR conditions with 10 takeoffs and 10 landings (with each landing involving a flight with a traffic pattern) at an airport with an operating control tower. (b) For an airplane multiengine course. Ten hours of solo flight time in a multiengine airplane, or 10 hours of flight time while performing the duties of pilot in command in a multiengine airplane with an authorized instructor on board. The training must consist of the approved areas of operation under paragraph (d)(2) of section 4 of this appendix, and include— (1) One cross-country flight, if the training is being performed in the State of Hawaii, with landings at a minimum of three points, and one of the segments consisting of a straight-line distance of at least 150 nautical miles; (2) One cross-country flight, if the training is being performed in a State other than Hawaii, with landings at a minimum of three points and one segment of the flight consisting of straight-line distance of at least 250 nautical miles; and

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(3) 5 hours in night VFR conditions with 10 takeoffs and 10 landings (with each landing involving a flight with a traffic pattern) at an airport with an operating control tower. (c) For a rotorcraft helicopter course. Ten hours of solo flight time in a helicopter, or 10 hours of flight time while performing the duties of pilot in command in a helicopter with an authorized instructor on board. The training must consist of the approved areas of operation under paragraph (d)(3) of section 4 of this appendix, and include— (1) One cross-country flight with landings at a minimum of three points and one segment of the flight consisting of a straight-line distance of at least 50 nautical miles from the original point of departure; and (2) 5 hours in night VFR conditions with 10 takeoffs and 10 landings (with each landing involving a flight with a traffic pattern) at an airport with an operating control tower. (d) For a rotorcraft-gyroplane course. Ten hours of solo flight time in a gyroplane, or 10 hours of flight time while performing the duties of pilot in command in a gyroplane with an authorized instructor on board. The training must consist of the approved areas of operation under paragraph (d)(4) of section 4 of this appendix, and include— (1) One cross-country flight with landings at a minimum of three points, and one segment of the flight consisting of a straight-line distance of at least 50 nautical miles from the original point of departure; and (2) 5 hours in night VFR conditions with 10 takeoffs and 10 landings (with each landing involving a flight with a traffic pattern) at an airport with an operating control tower. (e) For a powered-lift course. Ten hours of solo flight time in a powered-lift, or 10 hours of flight time while performing the duties of pilot in command in a powered-lift with an authorized instructor on board. The training must consist of the approved areas of operation under paragraph (d)(5) of section No. 4 of this appendix, and include— (1) One cross-country flight, if the training is being performed in the State of Hawaii, with landings at a minimum of three points, and one segment of the flight consisting of a straight-line distance of at least 150 nautical miles; (2) One cross-country flight, if the training is being performed in a State other than Hawaii, with landings at a minimum of three points, and one segment of the flight consisting of a straight-line distance of at least 250 nautical miles; and (3) 5 hours in night VFR conditions with 10 takeoffs and 10 landings (with each landing involving a flight with a traffic pattern) at an airport with an operating control tower. (f) For a glider course: 5 solo flights in a glider on the approved areas of operation in paragraph (d)(6) of section No. 4 of this appendix. (g) For a lighter-than-air airship course: 10 hours of flight training in an airship performing the duties of pilot in command while under the supervision of a commercial pilot with an airship rating. The training must consist of the approved areas of operation in paragraph (d)(7) of section No. 4 of this appendix and include at least— (1) One cross-country flight with landings at a minimum of three points, and one segment of the flight consisting of a straight-line distance of at least 25 nautical miles from the original point of departure; and (2) 5 hours in night VFR conditions with 10 takeoffs and 10 landings (with each landing involving a flight with a traffic pattern). (h) For a lighter-than-air balloon course: Two solo flights if the course is for a hot air balloon rating, or, if the course is for a gas balloon rating, at least two flights in a gas balloon, while performing the duties of pilot in command under the supervision of a commercial pilot with a balloon rating. The training shall consist of the approved areas of operation in paragraph (d)(8) of section No. 4 of this appendix, in the kind of balloon for which the course applies. 6. Stage checks and end-of-course tests. (a) Each student enrolled in a commercial pilot course must satisfactorily accomplish the stage checks and end-of-course tests, in accordance with the school's approved training course, consisting of the approved areas of operation listed in paragraph (d) of section No. 4 of this appendix that are appropriate to aircraft category and class rating for which the course applies. (b) Each student must demonstrate satisfactory proficiency prior to receiving an endorsement to operate an aircraft in solo flight. [Docket 25910, 62 FR 16347, Apr. 4, 1997; Amdt. 141-9, 62 FR 40909, July 30, 1997, as amended by Amdt. 141-10, 63 FR 20290, Apr. 23, 1998; Amdt. 141-12, 74 FR 42565, Aug. 21, 2009; Docket FAA-2015-1846, Amdt. 141-18, 81 FR 21461, Apr. 12, 2016; 83 FR 30283, June 27, 2018] Pt. 141, App. E Appendix E to Part 141—Airline Transport Pilot Certification Course 1. Applicability. This appendix prescribes the minimum curriculum for an airline transport pilot certification course under this part, for the following ratings:

(a) Airplane single-engine. (b) Airplane multiengine. (c) Rotorcraft helicopter. (d) Powered-lift. 2. Eligibility for enrollment. Before completing the flight portion of the airline transport pilot certification course, a person must meet the aeronautical experience requirements for an airline transport pilot certificate under part 61, subpart G of this chapter that is appropriate to the aircraft category and class rating for which the course applies, and:

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(a) Hold a commercial pilot certificate and an instrument rating, or an airline transport pilot certificate with instrument privileges; (b) Meet the military experience requirements under § 61.73 of this chapter to qualify for a commercial pilot certificate and an instrument rating, if the person is a rated military pilot or former rated military pilot of an Armed Force of the United States; or (c) Hold either a foreign airline transport pilot license or foreign commercial pilot license and an instrument rating, if the person holds a pilot license issued by a contracting State to the Convention on International Civil Aviation. 3. Aeronautical knowledge areas. (a) Each approved course must include at least 40 hours of ground training on the aeronautical knowledge areas listed in paragraph (b) of this section, appropriate to the aircraft category and class rating for which the course applies. (b) Ground training must include the following aeronautical knowledge areas: (1) Applicable Federal Aviation Regulations of this chapter that relate to airline transport pilot privileges, limitations, and flight operations; (2) Meteorology, including knowledge of and effects of fronts, frontal characteristics, cloud formations, icing, and upper-air data; (3) General system of weather and NOTAM collection, dissemination, interpretation, and use; (4) Interpretation and use of weather charts, maps, forecasts, sequence reports, abbreviations, and symbols; (5) National Weather Service functions as they pertain to operations in the National Airspace System; (6) Windshear and microburst awareness, identification, and avoidance; (7) Principles of air navigation under instrument meteorological conditions in the National Airspace System; (8) Air traffic control procedures and pilot responsibilities as they relate to en route operations, terminal area and radar operations, and instrument departure and approach procedures; (9) Aircraft loading; weight and balance; use of charts, graphs, tables, formulas, and computations; and the effects on aircraft performance; (10) Aerodynamics relating to an aircraft's flight characteristics and performance in normal and abnormal flight regimes; (11) Human factors; (12) Aeronautical decision making and judgment; and (13) Crew resource management to include crew communication and coordination. 4. Flight training. (a) Each approved course must include at least 25 hours of flight training on the approved areas of operation listed in paragraph (c) of this section appropriate to the aircraft category and class rating for which the course applies. At least 15 hours of this flight training must be instrument flight training. (b) For the use of full flight simulators or flight training devices— (1) The course may include training in a full flight simulator or flight training device, provided it is representative of the aircraft for which the course is approved, meets the requirements of this paragraph, and the training is given by an authorized instructor. (2) Training in a full flight simulator that meets the requirements of § 141.41(a) may be credited for a maximum of 50 percent of the total flight training hour requirements of the approved course, or of this section, whichever is less. (3) Training in a flight training device that meets the requirements of § 141.41(a) may be credited for a maximum of 25 percent of the total flight training hour requirements of the approved course, or of this section, whichever is less. (4) Training in full flight simulators or flight training devices described in paragraphs (b)(2) and (3) of this section, if used in combination, may be credited for a maximum of 50 percent of the total flight training hour requirements of the approved course, or of this section, whichever is less. However, credit for training in a flight training device that meets the requirements of § 141.41(a) cannot exceed the limitation provided for in paragraph (b)(3) of this section. (c) Each approved course must include flight training on the approved areas of operation listed in this paragraph appropriate to the aircraft category and class rating for which the course applies: (1) Preflight preparation; (2) Preflight procedures; (3) Takeoff and departure phase; (4) In-flight maneuvers; (5) Instrument procedures; (6) Landings and approaches to landings; (7) Normal and abnormal procedures; (8) Emergency procedures; and (9) Postflight procedures. 5. Stage checks and end-of-course tests. (a) Each student enrolled in an airline transport pilot course must satisfactorily accomplish the stage checks and end-of-course tests, in accordance with the school's approved training course, consisting of the approved areas of operation listed in paragraph (c) of section No. 4 of this appendix that are appropriate to the aircraft category and class rating for which the course applies.

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(b) Each student must demonstrate satisfactory proficiency prior to receiving an endorsement to operate an aircraft in solo flight. [Docket 25910, 62 FR 16347, Apr. 4, 1997; Amdt. 141-9, 62 FR 40909, July 30, 1997; Amdt. 141-12, 74 FR 42565, Aug. 21, 2009; Docket FAA-2015-1846, Amdt. 141-18, 81 FR 21461, Apr. 12, 2016] Pt. 141, App. F Appendix F to Part 141—Flight Instructor Certification Course 1. Applicability. This appendix prescribes the minimum curriculum for a flight instructor certification course and an additional flight instructor rating course required under this part, for the following ratings:

(a) Airplane single-engine. (b) Airplane multiengine. (c) Rotorcraft helicopter. (d) Rotorcraft gyroplane. (e) Powered-lift. (f) Glider category. 2. Eligibility for enrollment. A person must hold the following prior to enrolling in the flight portion of the flight instructor or additional flight instructor rating course: (a) A commercial pilot certificate or an airline transport pilot certificate, with an aircraft category and class rating appropriate to the flight instructor rating for which the course applies; and (b) An instrument rating or privilege in an aircraft that is appropriate to the aircraft category and class rating for which the course applies, if the course is for a flight instructor airplane or powered-lift instrument rating. 3. Aeronautical knowledge training. (a) Each approved course must include at least the following ground training in the aeronautical knowledge areas listed in paragraph (b) of this section: (1) 40 hours of training if the course is for an initial issuance of a flight instructor certificate; or (2) 20 hours of training if the course is for an additional flight instructor rating. (b) Ground training must include the following aeronautical knowledge areas: (1) The fundamentals of instructing including— (i) The learning process; (ii) Elements of effective teaching; (iii) Student evaluation and testing; (iv) Course development; (v) Lesson planning; and (vi) Classroom training techniques. (2) The aeronautical knowledge areas in which training is required for— (i) A recreational, private, and commercial pilot certificate that is appropriate to the aircraft category and class rating for which the course applies; and (ii) An instrument rating that is appropriate to the aircraft category and class rating for which the course applies, if the course is for an airplane or powered-lift aircraft rating. (c) A student who satisfactorily completes 2 years of study on the principles of education at a college or university may be credited with no more than 20 hours of the training required in paragraph (a)(1) of this section. 4. Flight training. (a) Each approved course must include at least the following flight training on the approved areas of operation of paragraph (c) of this section appropriate to the flight instructor rating for which the course applies: (1) 25 hours, if the course is for an airplane, rotorcraft, or powered-lift rating; and (2) 10 hours, which must include 10 flights, if the course is for a glider category rating. (b) For the use of flight simulators or flight training devices: (1) The course may include training in a full flight simulator or flight training device, provided it is representative of the aircraft for which the course is approved, meets the requirements of this paragraph, and the training is given by an authorized instructor. (2) Training in a full flight simulator that meets the requirements of § 141.41(a), may be credited for a maximum of 10 percent of the total flight training hour requirements of the approved course, or of this section, whichever is less. (3) Training in a flight training device that meets the requirements of § 141.41(a), may be credited for a maximum of 5 percent of the total flight training hour requirements of the approved course, or of this section, whichever is less. (4) Training in full flight simulators or flight training devices described in paragraphs (b)(2) and (3) of this section, if used in combination, may be credited for a maximum of 10 percent of the total flight training hour requirements of the approved course, or of this section, whichever is less. However, credit for training in a flight training device that meets the requirements of § 141.41(a) cannot exceed the limitation provided for in paragraph (b)(3) of this section. (c) Each approved course must include flight training on the approved areas of operation listed in this paragraph that are appropriate to the aircraft category and class rating for which the course applies— (1) For an airplane—single-engine course: (i) Fundamentals of instructing; (ii) Technical subject areas; (iii) Preflight preparation; (iv) Preflight lesson on a maneuver to be performed in flight; (v) Preflight procedures; (vi) Airport and seaplane base operations; (vii) Takeoffs, landings, and go-arounds; (viii) Fundamentals of flight; (ix) Performance maneuvers;

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(x) Ground reference maneuvers; (xi) Slow flight, stalls, and spins; (xii) Basic instrument maneuvers; (xiii) Emergency operations; and (xiv) Postflight procedures. (2) For an airplane—multiengine course: (i) Fundamentals of instructing; (ii) Technical subject areas; (iii) Preflight preparation; (iv) Preflight lesson on a maneuver to be performed in flight; (v) Preflight procedures; (vi) Airport and seaplane base operations; (vii) Takeoffs, landings, and go-arounds; (viii) Fundamentals of flight; (ix) Performance maneuvers; (x) Ground reference maneuvers; (xi) Slow flight and stalls; (xii) Basic instrument maneuvers; (xiii) Emergency operations; (xiv) Multiengine operations; and (xv) Postflight procedures. (3) For a rotorcraft—helicopter course: (i) Fundamentals of instructing; (ii) Technical subject areas; (iii) Preflight preparation; (iv) Preflight lesson on a maneuver to be performed in flight; (v) Preflight procedures; (vi) Airport and heliport operations; (vii) Hovering maneuvers; (viii) Takeoffs, landings, and go-arounds; (ix) Fundamentals of flight; (x) Performance maneuvers; (xi) Emergency operations; (xii) Special operations; and (xiii) Postflight procedures. (4) For a rotorcraft—gyroplane course: (i) Fundamentals of instructing; (ii) Technical subject areas; (iii) Preflight preparation; (iv) Preflight lesson on a maneuver to be performed in flight; (v) Preflight procedures; (vi) Airport operations; (vii) Takeoffs, landings, and go-arounds; (viii) Fundamentals of flight; (ix) Performance maneuvers; (x) Flight at slow airspeeds; (xi) Ground reference maneuvers; (xii) Emergency operations; and (xiii) Postflight procedures. (5) For a powered-lift course: (i) Fundamentals of instructing; (ii) Technical subject areas; (iii) Preflight preparation; (iv) Preflight lesson on a maneuver to be performed in flight; (v) Preflight procedures; (vi) Airport and heliport operations; (vii) Hovering maneuvers; (viii) Takeoffs, landings, and go-arounds; (ix) Fundamentals of flight; (x) Performance maneuvers; (xi) Ground reference maneuvers; (xii) Slow flight and stalls; (xiii) Basic instrument maneuvers; (xiv) Emergency operations; (xv) Special operations; and (xvi) Postflight procedures. (6) For a glider course: (i) Fundamentals of instructing; (ii) Technical subject areas; (iii) Preflight preparation; (iv) Preflight lesson on a maneuver to be performed in flight; (v) Preflight procedures; (vi) Airport and gliderport operations; (vii) Tows or launches, landings, and go-arounds, if applicable; (viii) Fundamentals of flight; (ix) Performance speeds; (x) Soaring techniques; (xi) Performance maneuvers; (xii) Slow flight, stalls, and spins; (xiii) Emergency operations; and (xiv) Postflight procedures. 5. Stage checks and end-of-course tests. (a) Each student enrolled in a flight instructor course must satisfactorily accomplish the stage checks and end-of-course tests, in accordance with the school's approved training course, consisting of the appropriate approved areas of operation listed in paragraph (c) of section No. 4 of this appendix appropriate to the flight instructor rating for which the course applies. (b) In the case of a student who is enrolled in a flight instructor-airplane rating or flight instructor-glider rating course, that student must have: (1) Received a logbook endorsement from a certificated flight instructor certifying the student received ground and flight training on stall awareness, spin entry, spins, and spin recovery procedures in an aircraft that is certificated for spins and is appropriate to the rating sought; and (2) Demonstrated instructional proficiency in stall awareness, spin entry, spins, and spin recovery procedures. [Docket 25910, 62 FR 16347, Apr. 4, 1997; Amdt. 141-9, 62 FR 40909, July 30, 1997, as amended by Docket FAA-2015-1846, Amdt. 141-18, 81 FR 21461, Apr. 12, 2016] Pt. 141, App. G Appendix G to Part 141—Flight Instructor Instrument (For an Airplane, Helicopter, or Powered-Lift Instrument Instructor Rating, as Appropriate) Certification Course 1. Applicability. This appendix prescribes the minimum curriculum for a flight instructor instrument certification course required under this part, for the following ratings:

(a) Flight Instructor Instrument—Airplane. (b) Flight Instructor Instrument—Helicopter.

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(c) Flight Instructor Instrument—Powered-lift aircraft. 2. Eligibility for enrollment. A person must hold the following prior to enrolling in the flight portion of the flight instructor instrument course: (a) A commercial pilot certificate or airline transport pilot certificate with an aircraft category and class rating appropriate to the flight instructor category and class rating for which the course applies; and (b) An instrument rating or privilege on that flight instructor applicant's pilot certificate that is appropriate to the flight instructor instrument rating (for an airplane-, helicopter-, or powered-lift-instrument rating, as appropriate) for which the course applies. 3. Aeronautical knowledge training. (a) Each approved course must include at least 15 hours of ground training on the aeronautical knowledge areas listed in paragraph (b) of this section, appropriate to the flight instructor instrument rating (for an airplane-, helicopter-, or powered-lift-instrument rating, as appropriate) for which the course applies: (b) Ground training must include the following aeronautical knowledge areas: (1) The fundamentals of instructing including: (i) The learning process; (ii) Elements of effective teaching; (iii) Student evaluation and testing; (iv) Course development; (v) Lesson planning; and (vi) Classroom training techniques. (2) The aeronautical knowledge areas in which training is required for an instrument rating that is appropriate to the aircraft category and class rating for the course which applies. 4. Flight training. (a) Each approved course must include at least 15 hours of flight training in the approved areas of operation of paragraph (c) of this section appropriate to the flight instructor rating for which the course applies. (b) For the use of full flight simulators or flight training devices: (1) The course may include training in a full flight simulator or flight training device, provided it is representative of the aircraft for which the course is approved for, meets requirements of this paragraph, and the training is given by an instructor. (2) Training in a full flight simulator that meets the requirements of § 141.41(a), may be credited for a maximum of 10 percent of the total flight training hour requirements of the approved course, or of this section, whichever is less. (3) Training in a flight training device that meets the requirements of § 141.41(a), may be credited for a maximum of 5 percent of the total flight training hour requirements of the approved course, or of this section, whichever is less. (4) Training in full flight simulators or flight training devices described in paragraphs (b)(2) and (3) of this section, if used in combination, may be credited for a maximum of 10 percent of the total flight training hour requirements of the approved course, or of this section, whichever is less. However, credit for training in a flight training device that meets the requirements of § 141.41(b) cannot exceed the limitation provided for in paragraph (b)(3) of this section. (c) An approved course for the flight instructor-instrument rating must include flight training on the following approved areas of operation that are appropriate to the instrument-aircraft category and class rating for which the course applies: (1) Fundamentals of instructing; (2) Technical subject areas; (3) Preflight preparation; (4) Preflight lesson on a maneuver to be performed in flight; (5) Air traffic control clearances and procedures; (6) Flight by reference to instruments; (7) Navigation systems; (8) Instrument approach procedures; (9) Emergency operations; and (10) Postflight procedures. 5. Stage checks and end-of-course tests. Each student enrolled in a flight instructor instrument course must satisfactorily accomplish the stage checks and end-of-course tests, in accordance with the school's approved training course, consisting of the approved areas of operation listed in paragraph (c) of section No. 4 of this appendix that are appropriate to the flight instructor instrument rating (for an airplane-, helicopter-, or powered-lift-instrument rating, as appropriate) for which the course applies. [Docket 25910, 62 FR 16347, Apr. 4, 1997; Amdt. 141-9, 62 FR 40909, July 30, 1997, as amended by Docket FAA-2015-1846, Amdt. 141-18, 81 FR 21461, Apr. 12, 2016] Pt. 141, App. H Appendix H to Part 141—Ground Instructor Certification Course 1. Applicability. This appendix prescribes the minimum curriculum for a ground instructor certification course and an additional ground instructor rating course, required under this part, for the following ratings:

(a) Ground Instructor—Basic. (b) Ground Instructor—Advanced. (c) Ground Instructor—Instrument. 2. Aeronautical knowledge training. (a) Each approved course must include at least the following ground training on the knowledge areas listed in paragraphs (b), (c), (d), and (e) of this section, appropriate to the ground instructor rating for which the course applies:

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(1) 20 hours of training if the course is for an initial issuance of a ground instructor certificate; or (2) 10 hours of training if the course is for an additional ground instructor rating. (b) Ground training must include the following aeronautical knowledge areas: (1) Learning process; (2) Elements of effective teaching; (3) Student evaluation and testing; (4) Course development; (5) Lesson planning; and (6) Classroom training techniques. (c) Ground training for a basic ground instructor certificate must include the aeronautical knowledge areas applicable to a recreational and private pilot. (d) Ground training for an advanced ground instructor rating must include the aeronautical knowledge areas applicable to a recreational, private, commercial, and airline transport pilot. (e) Ground training for an instrument ground instructor rating must include the aeronautical knowledge areas applicable to an instrument rating. (f) A student who satisfactorily completed 2 years of study on the principles of education at a college or university may be credited with 10 hours of the training required in paragraph (a)(1) of this section. 3. Stage checks and end-of-course tests. Each student enrolled in a ground instructor course must satisfactorily accomplish the stage checks and end-of-course tests, in accordance with the school's approved training course, consisting of the approved knowledge areas in paragraph (b), (c), (d), and (e) of section No. 2 of this appendix appropriate to the ground instructor rating for which the course applies. Pt. 141, App. I Appendix I to Part 141—Additional Aircraft Category and/or Class Rating Course 1. Applicability. This appendix prescribes the minimum curriculum for an additional aircraft category rating course or an additional aircraft class rating course required under this part, for the following ratings:

(a) Airplane single-engine. (b) Airplane multiengine. (c) Rotorcraft helicopter. (d) Rotorcraft gyroplane. (e) Powered-lift. (f) Glider. (g) Lighter-than-air airship. (h) Lighter-than-air balloon. 2. Eligibility for enrollment. A person must hold the level of pilot certificate for the additional aircraft category and class rating for which the course applies prior to enrolling in the flight portion of an additional aircraft category or additional aircraft class rating course. 3. Aeronautical knowledge training. (a) For a recreational pilot certificate, the following aeronautical knowledge areas must be included in a 10-hour ground training course for an additional aircraft category and/or class rating: (1) Applicable regulations issued by the Federal Aviation Administration for recreational pilot privileges, limitations, and flight operations; (2) Safe and efficient operation of aircraft, including collision avoidance, and recognition and avoidance of wake turbulence; (3) Effects of density altitude on takeoff and climb performance; (4) Weight and balance computations; (5) Principles of aerodynamics, powerplants, and aircraft systems; (6) Stall awareness, spin entry, spins, and spin recovery techniques if applying for an airplane single engine rating; and (7) Preflight action that includes how to obtain information on runway lengths at airports of intended use, data on takeoff and landing distances, weather reports and forecasts, and fuel requirements. (b) For a private pilot certificate, the following aeronautical knowledge areas must be included in a 10-hour ground training course for an additional class rating or a 15-hour ground training course for an additional aircraft category and class rating: (1) Applicable regulations issued by the Federal Aviation Administration for private pilot privileges, limitations, and flight operations; (2) Safe and efficient operation of aircraft, including collision avoidance, and recognition and avoidance of wake turbulence; (3) Effects of density altitude on takeoff and climb performance; (4) Weight and balance computations; (5) Principles of aerodynamics, powerplants, and aircraft systems; (6) Stall awareness, spin entry, spins, and spin recovery techniques if applying for an airplane single engine rating; and (7) Preflight action that includes how to obtain information on runway lengths at airports of intended use, data on takeoff and landing distances, weather reports and forecasts, and fuel requirements. (c) For a commercial pilot certificate, the following aeronautical knowledge areas must be included in a 15-hour ground training course for an additional class rating or a 20-hour ground training course for an additional aircraft category and class rating: (1) Applicable regulations issued by the Federal Aviation Administration for commercial pilot privileges, limitations, and flight operations; (2) Basic aerodynamics and the principles of flight; (3) Safe and efficient operation of aircraft; (4) Weight and balance computations; (5) Use of performance charts;

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(6) Significance and effects of exceeding aircraft performance limitations; (7) Principles and functions of aircraft systems; (8) Maneuvers, procedures, and emergency operations appropriate to the aircraft; (9) Nighttime and high-altitude operations; and (10) Procedures for flight and ground training for lighter-than-air ratings. (d) For an airline transport pilot certificate, the following aeronautical knowledge areas must be included in a 25-hour ground training course for an additional aircraft category and/or class rating: (1) Applicable regulations issued by the Federal Aviation Administration for airline transport pilot privileges, limitations, and flight operations; (2) Meteorology, including knowledge and effects of fronts, frontal characteristics, cloud formations, icing, and upper-air data; (3) General system of weather and NOTAM collection, dissemination, interpretation, and use; (4) Interpretation and use of weather charts, maps, forecasts, sequence reports, abbreviations, and symbols; (5) National Weather Service functions as they pertain to operations in the National Airspace System; (6) Windshear and microburst awareness, identification, and avoidance; (7) Principles of air navigation under instrument meteorological conditions in the National Airspace System; (8) Air traffic control procedures and pilot responsibilities as they relate to en route operations, terminal area and radar operations, and instrument departure and approach procedures; (9) Aircraft loading; weight and balance; use of charts, graphs, tables, formulas, and computations; and the effects on aircraft performance; (10) Aerodynamics relating to an aircraft's flight characteristics and performance in normal and abnormal flight regimes; (11) Human factors; (12) Aeronautical decision making and judgment; and (13) Crew resource management to include crew communication and coordination. 4. Flight training. (a) Course for an additional airplane category and single engine class rating. (1) For the recreational pilot certificate, the course must include 15 hours of flight training on the areas of operations under part 141, appendix A, paragraph 4(c)(1) that include— (i) Two hours of flight training to an airport and at an airport that is located more than 25 nautical miles from the airport where the applicant normally trains, with three takeoffs and three landings, except as provided under § 61.100 of this chapter; and (ii) Three hours of flight training in an aircraft with the airplane category and single engine class within 2 calendar months before the date of the practical test. (2) For the private pilot certificate, the course must include 20 hours of flight training on the areas of operations under part 141, appendix B, paragraph 4(d)(1). A flight simulator and flight training device cannot be used to meet more than 4 hours of the training requirements, and the use of the flight training device is limited to 3 hours of the 4 hours permitted. The course must include— (i) Three hours of cross country training in a single engine airplane, except as provided under § 61.111 of this chapter; (ii) Three hours of nighttime flight training in a single engine airplane that includes one cross country flight of more than 100 nautical miles total distance, and 10 takeoffs and 10 landings to a full stop (with each landing involving a flight in the traffic pattern) at an airport; (iii) Three hours of flight training in a single engine airplane on the control and maneuvering of the airplane solely by reference to instruments, including straight and level flight, constant airspeed climbs and descents, turns to a heading, recovery from unusual flight attitudes, radio communications, and the use of navigation systems/facilities and radar services appropriate to instrument flight; and (iv) Three hours of flight training in a single engine airplane within 2 calendar months before the date of the practical test. (3) For the commercial pilot certificate, the course must include 55 hours of flight training on the areas of operations under part 141, appendix D, paragraph 4(d)(1). A flight simulator and flight training device cannot be used to meet more than 16.5 hours of the training requirements, and the use of the flight training device is limited to 11 hours of the 16.5 hours permitted. The course must include— (i) Five hours of instrument training in a single engine airplane that includes training using a view-limiting device on attitude instrument flying, partial panel skills, recovery from unusual flight attitudes, and intercepting and tracking navigational systems; (ii) Ten hours of training in a complex airplane, a turbine-powered airplane, or a technically advanced airplane that meets the requirements of § 61.129(j), or any combination thereof. The airplane must be appropriate to land or sea for the rating sought; (iii) One 2-hour cross country flight during daytime conditions in a single engine airplane, a total straight-line distance of more than 100 nautical miles from the original point of departure; (iv) One 2-hour cross country flight during nighttime conditions in a single engine airplane, a total straight-line distance of more than 100 nautical miles from the original point of departure; and

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(v) Three hours in a single engine airplane within 2 calendar months before the date of the practical test. (4) For the airline transport pilot certificate, the course must include 25 hours flight training, including 15 hours of instrument training, in a single engine airplane on the areas of operation under part 141, appendix E, paragraph 4.(c). A flight simulator and flight training device cannot be used to meet more than 12.5 hours of the training requirements; and the use of the flight training device is limited to 6.25 hours of the 12.5 hours permitted. (b) Course for an additional airplane category and multiengine class rating. (1) For the private pilot certificate, the course requires 20 hours flight training on the areas of operations under part 141, appendix B, paragraph 4.(d)(2). A flight simulator and flight training device cannot be used more than 4 hours to meet the training requirements, and use of the flight training device is limited to 3 hours of the 4 hours permitted. The course must include— (i) Three hours of cross country training in a multiengine airplane, except as provided under § 61.111 of this chapter; (ii) Three hours of nighttime flight training in a multiengine airplane that includes one cross country flight of more than 100 nautical miles total distance, and 10 takeoffs and 10 landings to a full stop (with each landing involving a flight in the traffic pattern) at an airport; (iii) Three hours of flight training in a multiengine airplane on the control and maneuvering of a multiengine airplane solely by reference to instruments, including straight and level flight, constant airspeed climbs and descents, turns to a heading, recovery from unusual flight attitudes, radio communications, and the use of navigation systems/facilities and radar services appropriate to instrument flight; and (iv) Three hours of flight training in a multiengine airplane in preparation for the practical test within 2 calendar months before the date of the test. (2) For the commercial pilot certificate, the course requires 55 hours flight training on the areas of operations under part 141, appendix D, paragraph 4.(d)(2). A flight simulator and flight training device cannot be used more than 16.5 hours to meet the training requirements, and use of the flight training device is limited to 11 hours of the 16.5 hours permitted. The course must include— (i) Five hours of instrument training in a multiengine airplane including training using a view-limiting device for attitude instrument flying, partial panel skills, recovery from unusual flight attitudes, and intercepting and tracking navigational systems; (ii) Ten hours of training in a multiengine airplane that has retractable landing gear, flaps, and a controllable pitch propeller, or is turbine-powered; (iii) One 2-hour cross country flight during daytime conditions in a multiengine airplane, and a total straight-line distance of more than 100 nautical miles from the original point of departure; (iv) One 2-hour cross country flight during nighttime conditions in a multiengine airplane, and a total straight-line distance of more than 100 nautical miles from the original point of departure; and (v) Three hours in a multiengine airplane within 2 calendar months before the date of the practical test. (3) For the airline transport pilot certificate, the course requires 25 hours of flight training in a multiengine airplane on the areas of operation under part 141, appendix E, paragraph 4.(c) that includes 15 hours of instrument training. A flight simulator and flight training device cannot be used more than 12.5 hours to meet the training requirements, and use of the flight training device is limited to 6.25 hours of the 12.5 hours permitted. (c) Course for an additional rotorcraft category and helicopter class rating. (1) For the recreational pilot certificate, the course requires 15 hours of flight training on the areas of operations under part 141, appendix A, paragraph 4.(c)(2) that includes— (i) Two hours of flight training to and at an airport that is located more than 25 nautical miles from the airport where the applicant normally trains, with three takeoffs and three landings, except as provided under § 61.100 of this chapter; and (ii) Three hours of flight training in a rotorcraft category and a helicopter class aircraft within 2 calendar months before the date of the practical test. (2) For the private pilot certificate, the course requires 20 hours flight training on the areas of operations under part 141, appendix B, paragraph 4.(d)(3). A flight simulator and flight training device cannot be used more than 4 hours to meet the training requirements, and use of the flight training device is limited to 3 hours of the 4 hours permitted. The course must include— (i) Except as provided under § 61.111 of this chapter, 3 hours of cross country flight training in a helicopter; (ii) Three hours of nighttime flight training in a helicopter that includes one cross country flight of more than 50 nautical miles total distance, and 10 takeoffs and 10 landings to a full stop (with each landing involving a flight in the traffic pattern) at an airport; and (iii) Three hours of flight training in a helicopter within 2 calendar months before the date of the practical test.

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(3) The commercial pilot certificate level requires 30 hours flight training on the areas of operations under appendix D of part 141, paragraph 4.(d)(3). A flight simulator and flight training device cannot be used more than 9 hours to meet the training requirements, and use of the flight training device is limited to 6 hours of the 9 hours permitted. The course must include— (i) Five hours on the control and maneuvering of a helicopter solely by reference to instruments, and must include training using a view-limiting device for attitude instrument flying, partial panel skills, recovery from unusual flight attitudes, and intercepting and tracking navigational systems. This aeronautical experience may be performed in an aircraft, flight simulator, flight training device, or an aviation training device; (ii) One 2-hour cross country flight during daytime conditions in a helicopter, a total straight-line distance of more than 50 nautical miles from the original point of departure; (iii) One 2-hour cross country flight during nighttime conditions in a helicopter, a total straight-line distance of more than 50 nautical miles from the original point of departure; and (iv) Three hours in a helicopter within 2 calendar months before the date of the practical test. (4) For the airline transport pilot certificate, the course requires 25 hours of flight training, including 15 hours of instrument training, in a helicopter on the areas of operation under part 141, appendix E, paragraph 4.(c). A flight simulator and flight training device cannot be used more than 12.5 hours to meet the training requirements, and use of the flight training device is limited to 6.25 hours of the 12.5 hours permitted. (d) Course for an additional rotorcraft category and a gyroplane class rating. (1) For the recreational pilot certificate, the course requires 15 hours flight training on the areas of operations under part 141, appendix A, paragraph 4.(c)(3) that includes— (i) Two hours of flight training to and at an airport that is located more than 25 nautical miles from the airport where the applicant normally trains, with three takeoffs and three landings, except as provided under § 61.100 of this chapter; and (ii) Three hours of flight training in a gyroplane class within 2 calendar months before the date of the practical test. (2) For the private pilot certificate, the course requires 20 hours flight training on the areas of operations under part 141, appendix B, paragraph 4.(d)(4). A flight simulator and flight training device cannot be used more than 4 hours to meet the training requirements, and use of the flight training device is limited to 3 hours of the 4 hours permitted. The course must include— (i) Three hours of cross country flight training in a gyroplane, except as provided under § 61.111 of this chapter; (ii) Three hours of nighttime flight training in a gyroplane that includes one cross country flight of more than 50 nautical miles total distance, and 10 takeoffs and 10 landings to a full stop (with each landing involving a flight in the traffic pattern) at an airport; and (iii) Three hours of flight training in a gyroplane within 2 calendar months before the date of the practical test. (3) For the commercial pilot certificate, the course requires 30 hours flight training on the areas of operations of appendix D to part 141, paragraph 4.(d)(4). A flight simulator and flight training device cannot be used more than 6 hours to meet the training requirements, and use of the flight training device is limited to 6 hours of the 9 hours permitted. The course must include— (i) 2.5 hours on the control and maneuvering of a gyroplane solely by reference to instruments, and must include training using a view-limiting device for attitude instrument flying, partial panel skills, recovery from unusual flight attitudes, and intercepting and tracking navigational systems. This aeronautical experience may be performed in an aircraft, flight simulator, flight training device, or an aviation training device. (ii) One 2-hour cross country flight during daytime conditions in a gyroplane, a total straight-line distance of more than 50 nautical miles from the original point of departure; (iii) Two hours of flight training during nighttime conditions in a gyroplane at an airport, that includes 10 takeoffs and 10 landings to a full stop (with each landing involving a flight in the traffic pattern); and (iv) Three hours in a gyroplane within 2 calendar months before the date of the practical test. (e) Course for an additional lighter-than-air category and airship class rating. (1) For the private pilot certificate, the course requires 20 hours of flight training on the areas of operation under part 141, appendix B, paragraph 4.(d)(7). A flight simulator and flight training device cannot be used more than 4 hours to meet the training requirements, and use of the flight training device is limited to 3 hours of the 4 hours permitted. The course must include— (i) Three hours of cross country flight training in an airship, except as provided under § 61.111 of this chapter; (ii) Three hours of nighttime flight training in an airship that includes one cross country flight of more than 25 nautical miles total distance and 5 takeoffs and 5 landings to a full stop (with each landing involving a flight in the traffic pattern) at an airport;

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(iii) Three hours of flight training in an airship on the control and maneuvering of an airship solely by reference to instruments, including straight and level flight, constant airspeed climbs and descents, turns to a heading, recovery from unusual flight attitudes, radio communications, and the use of navigation systems/facilities and radar services appropriate to instrument flight; and (iv) Three hours of flight training in an airship within 2 calendar months before the date of the practical test. (2) For the commercial pilot certificate, the course requires 55 hours of flight training on the areas of operation under part 141, appendix D, paragraph 4.(d)(7). A flight simulator and flight training device cannot be used more than 16.5 hours to meet the training requirements, and use of the flight training device is limited to 11 hours of the 16.5 hours permitted. The course must include— (i) Three hours of instrument training in an airship that must include training using a view-limiting device for attitude instrument flying, partial panel skills, recovery from unusual flight attitudes, and intercepting and tracking navigational systems; (ii) One hour cross country flight during daytime conditions in an airship that consists of, a total straight-line distance of more than 25 nautical miles from the original point of departure; (iii) One hour cross country flight during nighttime conditions in an airship that consists of a total straight-line distance of more than 25 nautical miles from the original point of departure; and (iv) Three hours of flight training in an airship within 2 calendar months before the date of the practical test. (f) Course for an additional lighter-than-air category and a gas balloon class rating. (1) For the private pilot certificate, the course requires eight hours of flight training that includes 5 training flights on the areas of operations under part 141, appendix B, paragraph 4(d)(8). A flight simulator and flight training device cannot be used more than 1.6 hours to meet the training requirements, and use of the flight training device is limited to 1.2 hours of the 1.6 hours permitted. The course must include— (i) Two flights of 1 hour each; (ii) One flight involving a controlled ascent to 3,000 feet above the launch site; and (iii) Two flights within 2 calendar months before the date of the practical test. (2) For the commercial pilot certificate, the course requires 10 hours of flight training that includes eight training flights on the areas of operations under part 141, appendix D, paragraph 4(d)(8). A flight simulator and flight training device cannot be used more than 3 hours to meet the training requirements, and use of the flight training device is limited to 2 hours of the 3 hours permitted. The course must include— (i) Two flights of 1 hour each; (ii) One flight involving a controlled ascent to 5,000 feet above the launch site; and (iii) Two flights within 2 calendar months before the date of the practical test. (g) Course for an additional lighter-than-air category and a hot air balloon class rating. (1) For the private pilot certificate, the course requires eight hours of flight training that includes 5 training flights on the areas of operations under part 141, appendix B, paragraph 4(d)(8). A flight simulator and flight training device cannot be used more than 1.6 hours to meet the training requirements, and use of the flight training device is limited to 1.2 hours of the 1.6 hours permitted. The course must include— (i) Two flights of 30 minutes each; (ii) One flight involving a controlled ascent to 2,000 feet above the launch site; and (iii) Two flights within 2 calendar months before the date of the practical test. (2) For the commercial pilot certificate, the course requires 10 hours of flight training that includes eight training flights on the areas of operation under part 141, appendix D, paragraph 4(d)(8). A flight simulator and flight training device cannot be used more than 3 hours to meet the training requirements, and use of the flight training device is limited to 2 hours of the 3 hours permitted. The course must include— (i) Two flights of 30 minutes each; (ii) One flight involving a controlled ascent to 3,000 feet above the launch site; and (iii) Two flights within 2 calendar months before the date of the practical test. (h) Course for an additional powered-lift category rating. (1) For the private pilot certificate, the course requires 20 hours flight training on the areas of operations under part 141, appendix B, paragraph 4(d)(5). A flight simulator and flight training device cannot be used more than 4 hours to meet the training requirements, and use of the flight training device is limited to 3 hours of the 4 hours permitted. The course must include— (i) Three hours of cross country flight training in a powered-lift except as provided under § 61.111 of this chapter; (ii) Three hours of nighttime flight training in a powered-lift that includes one cross-country flight of more than 100 nautical miles total distance, and 10 takeoffs and 10 landings to a full stop (with each landing involving a flight in the traffic pattern) at an airport; (iii) Three hours of flight training in a powered-lift on the control and maneuvering of a powered-lift solely by reference to instruments, including straight and level flight, constant airspeed climbs and descents, turns to a heading, recovery from unusual flight attitudes, radio communications, and the use of navigation systems/facilities and radar services appropriate to instrument flight;

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(iv) Three hours of flight training in a powered-lift within 2 calendar months before the date of the practical test. (2) For the commercial pilot certificate, the course requires 55 hours flight training on the areas of operations under part 141, appendix D, paragraph 4(d)(5). A flight simulator and flight training device cannot be used more than 16.5 hours to meet the training requirements, and use of the flight training device is limited to 11 hours of the 16.5 hours permitted. The course includes— (i) Five hours of instrument training in a powered-lift that must include training using a view-limiting device for attitude instrument flying, partial panel skills, recovery from unusual flight attitudes, and intercepting and tracking navigational systems; (ii) One 2-hour cross country flight during daytime conditions in a powered-lift, a total straight-line distance of more than 100 nautical miles from the original point of departure; (iii) One 2-hour cross country flight during nighttime conditions in a powered-lift, a total straight-line distance of more than 100 nautical miles from the original point of departure; and (iv) Three hours of flight training in a powered-lift within 2 calendar months before the date of the practical test. (3) For the airline transport pilot certificate, the course requires 25 hours flight training in a powered-lift on the areas of operation under part 141, appendix E, paragraph 4(c) that includes 15 hours of instrument training. A flight simulator and flight training device cannot be used more than 12.5 hours to meet the training requirements, and use of the flight training device is limited to 6.25 hours of the 12.5 hours permitted. (i) Course for an additional glider category rating. (1) For the private pilot certificate, the course requires 4 hours of flight training in a glider on the areas of operations under part 141, appendix B, paragraph 4(d)(6). A flight simulator and flight training device cannot be used more than 0.8 hours to meet the training requirements, and use of the flight training device is limited to 0.6 hours of the 0.8 hours permitted. The course must include— (i) Five training flights in a glider with a certificated flight instructor on the launch/tow procedures approved for the course and on the appropriate approved areas of operation listed under appendix B, paragraph 4(d)(6) of this part; and (ii) Three training flights in a glider with a certificated flight instructor within 2 calendar months before the date of the practical test. (2) The commercial pilot certificate level requires 4 hours of flight training in a glider on the areas of operation under part 141, appendix D, paragraph 4.(d)(6). A flight simulator and flight training device cannot be used more than 0.8 hours to meet the training requirements, and use of the flight training device is limited to 0.6 hours of the 0.8 hours permitted. The course must include— (i) Five training flights in a glider with a certificated flight instructor on the launch/tow procedures approved for the course and on the appropriate approved areas of operation listed in appendix D of part 141, paragraph 4.(d)(6); and (ii) Three training flights in a glider with a certificated flight instructor in preparation for the practical test within 2 calendar months preceding the date of the test. (j) Course for an airplane additional single engine class rating. (1) For the private pilot certificate, the course requires 3 hours of flight training in the areas of operations under part 141, appendix B, paragraph 4.(d)(1). A flight simulator and flight training device cannot be used more than 0.6 hours to meet the training requirements, and use of the flight training device is limited to 0.4 hours of the 0.6 hours permitted. The course must include— (i) Three hours of cross country training in a single engine airplane, except as provided under § 61.111 of this chapter; (ii) Three hours of nighttime flight training in a single engine airplane that includes one cross country flight of more than 100 nautical miles total distance in a single engine airplane and 10 takeoffs and 10 landings to a full stop (with each landing involving a flight in the traffic pattern) at an airport; (iii) Three hours of flight training in a single engine airplane on the control and maneuvering of a single engine airplane solely by reference to instruments, including straight and level flight, constant airspeed climbs and descents, turns to a heading, recovery from unusual flight attitudes, radio communications, and the use of navigation systems/facilities and radar services appropriate to instrument flight; and (iv) Three hours of flight training in a single engine airplane within 2 calendar months before the date of the practical test. (2) For the commercial pilot certificate, the course requires 10 hours of flight training on the areas of operations under part 141, appendix D, paragraph 4.(d)(1). (i) Five hours of instrument training in a single engine airplane that must include training using a view-limiting device for attitude instrument flying, partial panel skills, recovery from unusual flight attitudes, and intercepting and tracking navigational systems.

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(ii) Ten hours of flight training in an airplane that has retractable landing gear, flaps, and a controllable pitch propeller, or is turbine-powered. (iii) One 2-hour cross country flight during daytime conditions in a single engine airplane and a total straight-line distance of more than 100 nautical miles from the original point of departure; (iv) One 2-hour cross country flight during nighttime conditions in a single engine airplane and a total straight-line distance of more than 100 nautical miles from the original point of departure; and (v) Three hours of flight training in a single engine airplane within 2 calendar months before the date of the practical test. (3) For the airline transport pilot certificate, the course requires 25 hours flight training in a single engine airplane on the areas of operation under appendix E to part 141, paragraph 4.(c), that includes 15 hours of instrument training. A flight simulator and flight training device cannot be used more than 12.5 hours to meet the training requirements, and use of the flight training device is limited to 6.25 hours of the 12.5 hours permitted. (k) Course for an airplane additional multiengine class rating. (1) For the private pilot certificate, the course requires 3 hours of flight training on the areas of operations of appendix B to part 141, paragraph 4(d)(2). A flight simulator and flight training device cannot be used more than 0.6 hours to meet the training requirements, and use of the flight training device is limited to 0.4 hours of the 0.6 hours permitted. The course must include— (i) Three hours of cross country training in a multiengine airplane, except as provided under § 61.111 of this chapter; (ii) Three hours of nighttime flight training in a multiengine airplane that includes one cross country flight of more than 100 nautical miles total distance in a multiengine airplane, and 10 takeoffs and 10 landings to a full stop (with each landing involving a flight in the traffic pattern) at an airport; (iii) Three hours of flight training in a multiengine airplane on the control and maneuvering of a multiengine airplane solely by reference to instruments, including straight and level flight, constant airspeed climbs and descents, turns to a heading, recovery from unusual flight attitudes, radio communications, and the use of navigation systems/facilities and radar services appropriate to instrument flight; and (iv) Three hours of flight training in a multiengine airplane within 2 calendar months before the date of the practical test. (2) For the commercial pilot certificate, the course requires 10 hours of training on the areas of operations under appendix D of part 141, paragraph 4(d)(2). A flight simulator and flight training device cannot be used more than 3 hours to meet the training requirements, and use of the flight training device is limited to 2 hours of the 3 hours permitted. The course must include— (i) Five hours of instrument training in a multiengine airplane that must include training using a view-limiting device on for attitude instrument flying, partial panel skills, recovery from unusual flight attitudes, and intercepting and tracking navigational systems; (ii) Ten hours of training in a multiengine airplane that has retractable landing gear, flaps, and a controllable pitch propeller, or is turbine-powered; (iii) One 2-hour cross country flight during daytime conditions in a multiengine airplane and, a total straight-line distance of more than 100 nautical miles from the original point of departure; (iv) One 2-hour cross country flight during nighttime conditions in a multiengine airplane and, a total straight-line distance of more than 100 nautical miles from the original point of departure; and (v) Three hours of flight training in a multiengine airplane within 2 calendar months before the date of the practical test. (3) For the airline transport pilot certificate, the course requires 25 hours of training in a multiengine airplane on the areas of operation of appendix E to part 141, paragraph 4.(c) that includes 15 hours of instrument training. A flight simulator and flight training device cannot be used more than 12.5 hours to meet the training requirements, and use of the flight training device is limited to 6.25 hours of the 12.5 hours permitted. (l) Course for a rotorcraft additional helicopter class rating. (1) For the recreational pilot certificate, the course requires 3 hours of flight training on the areas of operations under appendix A of part 141, paragraph 4.(c)(2) that includes— (i) Two hours of flight training to and at an airport that is located more than 25 nautical miles from the airport where the applicant normally trains, with three takeoffs and three landings, except as provided under § 61.100 of this chapter; and (ii) Three hours of flight training in a helicopter within 2 calendar months before the date of the practical test. (2) For the private pilot certificate, the course requires 3 hours flight training on the areas of operations under appendix B of part 141, paragraph 4.(d)(3). A flight simulator and flight training device cannot be used more than 0.6 hours to meet the training requirements, and use of the flight training device is limited to 0.4 hours of the 0.6 hours permitted. The course must include— (i) Three hours of cross country training in a helicopter, except as provided under § 61.111 of this chapter; (ii) Three hours of nighttime flight training in a helicopter that includes one cross country flight of more than 50 nautical miles total distance, and 10 takeoffs and 10 landings to a full stop (with each landing involving a flight in the traffic pattern) at an airport; and

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(iii) Three hours of flight training in a helicopter within 2 calendar months before the date of the practical test. (3) For the commercial pilot certificate, the course requires 5 hours flight training on the areas of operations under appendix D of part 141, paragraph 4.(d)(3). Use of a flight simulator and flight training device in the approved training course cannot exceed 1 hour; however, use of the flight training device cannot exceed 0.7 of the one hour. The course must include— (i) Five hours on the control and maneuvering of a helicopter solely by reference to instruments, and must include training using a view-limiting device for attitude instrument flying, partial panel skills, recovery from unusual flight attitudes, and intercepting and tracking navigational systems. This aeronautical experience may be performed in an aircraft, flight simulator, flight training device, or an aviation training device; (ii) One 2-hour cross country flight during daytime conditions in a helicopter and, a total straight-line distance of more than 50 nautical miles from the original point of departure; (iii) One 2-hour cross country flight during nighttime conditions in a helicopter and a total straight-line distance of more than 50 nautical miles from the original point of departure; and (iv) Three hours of flight training in a helicopter within 2 calendar months before the date of the practical test. (4) For the airline transport pilot certificate, the course requires 25 hours of flight training in a helicopter on the areas of operation under appendix E of part 141, paragraph 4.(c) that includes 15 hours of instrument training. A flight simulator and flight training device cannot be used more than 12.5 hours to meet the training requirements, and use of the flight training device is limited to 6.25 hours of the 12.5 hours permitted. (m) Course for a rotorcraft additional gyroplane class rating. (1) For the recreational pilot certificate, the course requires 3 hours flight training on the areas of operations of appendix A to part 141, paragraph 4.(c)(3) that includes— (i) Except as provided under § 61.100 of this chapter, 2 hours of flight training to and at an airport that is located more than 25 nautical miles from the airport where the applicant normally trains, with three takeoffs and three landings; and (ii) Within 2 calendar months before the date of the practical test, 3 hours of flight training in a gyroplane. (2) For the private pilot certificate, the course requires 3 hours flight training on the areas of operations of appendix B to part 141, paragraph 4.(d)(4). A flight simulator and flight training device cannot be used more than 0.6 hours to meet the training requirements, and use of the flight training device is limited to 0.4 hours of the 0.6 hours permitted. The course must include— (i) Three hours of cross country training in a gyroplane; (ii) Three hours of nighttime flight training in a gyroplane that includes one cross country flight of more than 50 nautical miles total distance, and 10 takeoffs and 10 landings to a full stop (with each landing involving a flight in the traffic pattern) at an airport; and (iii) Three hours of flight training in a gyroplane within 2 calendar months before the date of the practical test. (3) For the commercial pilot certificate, the course requires 5 hours flight training on the areas of operations of appendix D to part 141, paragraph 4.(d)(4). A flight simulator and flight training device cannot be used more than 1 hour to meet the training requirements, and use of the flight training device is limited to 0.7 hours of the 1 hour permitted. The course must include— (i) 2.5 hours on the control and maneuvering of a gyroplane solely by reference to instruments, and must include training using a view-limiting device for attitude instrument flying, partial panel skills, recovery from unusual flight attitudes, and intercepting and tracking navigational systems. This aeronautical experience may be performed in an aircraft, flight simulator, flight training device, or an aviation training device. (ii) Three hours of cross country flight training in a gyroplane, except as provided under § 61.111 of this chapter; (iii) Two hours of flight training during nighttime conditions in a gyroplane at an airport that includes 10 takeoffs and 10 landings to a full stop (with each landing involving a flight in the traffic pattern); and (iv) Three hours of flight training in a gyroplane within 2 calendar months before the date of the practical test. (n) Course for a lighter-than-air additional airship class rating. (1) For the private pilot certificate, the course requires 20 hours of flight training on the areas of operation under appendix B of part 141, paragraph 4.(d)(7). A flight simulator and flight training device cannot be used more than 4 hours to meet the training requirements, and use of the flight training device is limited to 3 hours of the 4 hours permitted. The course must include— (i) Three hours of cross country training in an airship, except as provided under § 61.111 of this chapter;

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(ii) Three hours of nighttime flight training in an airship that includes one cross country flight of more than 25 nautical miles total distance, and 5 takeoffs and 5 landings to a full stop (with each landing involving a flight in the traffic pattern) at an airport; (iii) Three hours of flight training in an airship on the control and maneuvering of an airship solely by reference to instruments, including straight and level flight, constant airspeed climbs and descents, turns to a heading, recovery from unusual flight attitudes, radio communications, and the use of navigation systems/facilities and radar services appropriate to instrument flight; and (iv) Three hours of flight training in an airship within 2 calendar months before the date of the practical test. (2) For the commercial pilot certificate, the course requires 55 hours of flight training on the areas of operation under appendix D of part 141, paragraph 4.(d)(7). A flight simulator and flight training device cannot be used more than 16.5 hours to meet the training requirements, and use of the flight training device is limited to 11 hours of the 16.5 hours permitted. The course must include— (i) Three hours of instrument training in an airship that must include training using a view-limiting device for attitude instrument flying, partial panel skills, recovery from unusual flight attitudes, and intercepting and tracking navigational systems; (ii) One hour cross country flight during daytime conditions in an airship that consists of a total straight-line distance of more than 25 nautical miles from the original point of departure; (iii) One hour cross country flight during nighttime conditions in an airship that consists of a total straight-line distance of more than 25 nautical miles from the original point of departure; and (iv) Three hours of flight training in an airship within 2 calendar months before the date of the practical test. (o) Course for a lighter-than-air additional gas balloon class rating. (1) For the private pilot certificate, the course requires eight hours of flight training that includes 5 training flights on the areas of operations under appendix B of part 141, paragraph 4.(d)(8). A flight simulator and flight training device cannot be used more than 1.6 hours to meet the training requirements, and use of the flight training device is limited to 1.2 hours of the 1.6 hours permitted. The course must include— (i) Two flights of 1 hour each; (ii) One flight involving a controlled ascent to 3,000 feet above the launch site; and (iii) Two flights within 2 calendar months before the date of the practical test. (2) For the commercial pilot certificate, the course requires 10 hours of flight training that includes eight training flights on the areas of operations of appendix D to part 141, paragraph 4.(d)(8). A flight simulator and flight training device cannot be used more than 3 hours to meet the training requirements, and use of the flight training device is limited to 2 hours of the 3 hours permitted. The course must include— (i) Two flights of 1 hour each; (ii) One flight involving a controlled ascent to 5,000 feet above the launch site; and (iii) Two flights within 2 calendar months before the date of the practical test. (p) Course for a lighter-than-air additional hot air balloon class rating. (1) For the private pilot certificate, the course requires 8 hours of flight training that includes 5 training flights on the areas of operations of appendix B to part 141, paragraph 4.(d)(8). A flight simulator and flight training device cannot be used more than 1.6 hours to meet the training requirements, and use of the flight training device is limited to 1.2 hours of the 1.6 hours permitted. The course must include— (i) Two flights of 30 minutes each; (ii) One flight involving a controlled ascent to 2,000 feet above the launch site; and (iii) Two flights within 2 calendar months before the date of the practical test. (2) For the commercial pilot certificate, the course requires 10 hours of flight training that includes eight training flight on the areas of operation of appendix D to part 141, paragraph 4.(d)(8). A flight simulator and flight training device cannot be used more than 3 hours to meet the training requirements, and use of the flight training device is limited to 2 hours of the 3 hours permitted. The course must include— (i) Two flights of 30 minutes each. (ii) One flight involving a controlled ascent to 3,000 feet above the launch site; and (iii) Two flights within 2 calendar months before the date of the practical test. 5. Stage checks and end-of-course tests. (a) Each student enrolled in an additional aircraft category rating course or an additional aircraft class rating course must satisfactorily accomplish the stage checks and end-of-course tests, in accordance with the school's approved training course, consisting of the approved areas of operation in section No. 4 of this appendix that are appropriate to the aircraft category and class rating for which the course applies at the appropriate pilot certificate level. (b) Each student must demonstrate satisfactory proficiency prior to receiving an endorsement to operate an aircraft in solo flight. [Docket 25910, 62 FR 16347, Apr. 4, 1997; Amdt. 141-9, 62 FR 40909, July 30, 1997; Amdt. 141-12, 74 FR 42566, Aug. 21, 2009; Docket FAA-2016-6142, Amdt. 141-20, 83 FR 30284, June 27, 2018; Docket FAA-2022-1355, Amdt. 141-24, 87 FR 75848, Dec. 9, 2022]

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Pt. 141, App. J Appendix J to Part 141—Aircraft Type Rating Course, For Other Than an Airline Transport Pilot Certificate 1. Applicability. This appendix prescribes the minimum curriculum for an aircraft type rating course other than an airline transport pilot certificate, for:

(a) A type rating in an airplane category—single-engine class. (b) A type rating in an airplane category—multiengine class. (c) A type rating in a rotorcraft category—helicopter class. (d) A type rating in a powered-lift category. (e) Other aircraft type ratings specified by the Administrator through the aircraft type certificate procedures. 2. Eligibility for enrollment. Prior to enrolling in the flight portion of an aircraft type rating course, a person must hold at least a private pilot certificate and: (a) An instrument rating in the category and class of aircraft that is appropriate to the aircraft type rating for which the course applies, provided the aircraft's type certificate does not have a VFR limitation; or (b) Be concurrently enrolled in an instrument rating course in the category and class of aircraft that is appropriate to the aircraft type rating for which the course applies, and pass the required instrument rating practical test concurrently with the aircraft type rating practical test. 3. Aeronautical knowledge training. (a) Each approved course must include at least 10 hours of ground training on the aeronautical knowledge areas listed in paragraph (b) of this section, appropriate to the aircraft type rating for which the course applies. (b) Ground training must include the following aeronautical areas: (1) Proper control of airspeed, configuration, direction, altitude, and attitude in accordance with procedures and limitations contained in the aircraft's flight manual, checklists, or other approved material appropriate to the aircraft type; (2) Compliance with approved en route, instrument approach, missed approach, ATC, or other applicable procedures that apply to the aircraft type; (3) Subjects requiring a practical knowledge of the aircraft type and its powerplant, systems, components, operational, and performance factors; (4) The aircraft's normal, abnormal, and emergency procedures, and the operations and limitations relating thereto; (5) Appropriate provisions of the approved aircraft's flight manual; (6) Location of and purpose for inspecting each item on the aircraft's checklist that relates to the exterior and interior preflight; and (7) Use of the aircraft's prestart checklist, appropriate control system checks, starting procedures, radio and electronic equipment checks, and the selection of proper navigation and communication radio facilities and frequencies. 4. Flight training. (a) Each approved course must include at least: (1) Flight training on the approved areas of operation of paragraph (c) of this section in the aircraft type for which the course applies; and (2) 10 hours of training of which at least 5 hours must be instrument training in the aircraft for which the course applies. (b) For the use of full flight simulators or flight training devices: (1) The course may include training in a full flight simulator or flight training device, provided it is representative of the aircraft for which the course is approved, meets requirements of this paragraph, and the training is given by an authorized instructor. (2) Training in a full flight simulator that meets the requirements of § 141.41(a), may be credited for a maximum of 50 percent of the total flight training hour requirements of the approved course, or of this section, whichever is less. (3) Training in a flight training device that meets the requirements of § 141.41(a), may be credited for a maximum of 25 percent of the total flight training hour requirements of the approved course, or of this section, whichever is less. (4) Training in the full flight simulators or flight training devices described in paragraphs (b)(2) and (3) of this section, if used in combination, may be credited for a maximum of 50 percent of the total flight training hour requirements of the approved course, or of this section, whichever is less. However, credit training in a flight training device that meets the requirements of § 141.41(a) cannot exceed the limitation provided for in paragraph (b)(3) of this section. (c) Each approved course must include the flight training on the areas of operation listed in this paragraph, that are appropriate to the aircraft category and class rating for which the course applies: (1) A type rating for an airplane—single-engine course: (i) Preflight preparation; (ii) Preflight procedures; (iii) Takeoff and departure phase; (iv) In-flight maneuvers; (v) Instrument procedures; (vi) Landings and approaches to landings; (vii) Normal and abnormal procedures; (viii) Emergency procedures; and (ix) Postflight procedures. (2) A type rating for an airplane—multiengine course: (i) Preflight preparation; (ii) Preflight procedures; (iii) Takeoff and departure phase; (iv) In-flight maneuvers;

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(v) Instrument procedures; (vi) Landings and approaches to landings; (vii) Normal and abnormal procedures; (viii) Emergency procedures; and (ix) Postflight procedures. (3) A type rating for a powered-lift course: (i) Preflight preparation; (ii) Preflight procedures; (iii) Takeoff and departure phase; (iv) In-flight maneuvers; (v) Instrument procedures; (vi) Landings and approaches to landings; (vii) Normal and abnormal procedures; (viii) Emergency procedures; and (ix) Postflight procedures. (4) A type rating for a rotorcraft—helicopter course: (i) Preflight preparation; (ii) Preflight procedures; (iii) Takeoff and departure phase; (iv) In-flight maneuvers; (v) Instrument procedures; (vi) Landings and approaches to landings; (vii) Normal and abnormal procedures; (viii) Emergency procedures; and (ix) Postflight procedures. (5) Other aircraft type ratings specified by the Administrator through aircraft type certificate procedures: (i) Preflight preparation; (ii) Preflight procedures; (iii) Takeoff and departure phase; (iv) In-flight maneuvers; (v) Instrument procedures; (vi) Landings and approaches to landings; (vii) Normal and abnormal procedures; (viii) Emergency procedures; and (ix) Postflight procedures. 5. Stage checks and end-of-course tests. (a) Each student enrolled in an aircraft type rating course must satisfactorily accomplish the stage checks and end-of-course tests, in accordance with the school's approved training course, consisting of the approved areas of operation that are appropriate to the aircraft type rating for which the course applies at the airline transport pilot certificate level; and (b) Each student must demonstrate satisfactory proficiency prior to receiving an endorsement to operate an aircraft in solo flight. [Docket 25910, 62 FR 16347, Apr. 4, 1997; Amdt. 141-9, 62 FR 40910, July 30, 1997, as amended by Docket FAA-2015-1846, Amdt. 141-18, 81 FR 21461, Apr. 12, 2016] Pt. 141, App. K Appendix K to Part 141—Special Preparation Courses 1. Applicability. This appendix prescribes the minimum curriculum for the special preparation courses that are listed in § 141.11 of this part.

2. Eligibility for enrollment. Prior to enrolling in the flight portion of a special preparation course, a person must hold a pilot certificate, flight instructor certificate, or ground instructor certificate that is appropriate for the exercise of the operating privileges or authorizations sought. 3. General requirements. (a) To be approved, a special preparation course must: (1) Meet the appropriate requirements of this appendix; and (2) Prepare the graduate with the necessary skills, competency, and proficiency to exercise safely the privileges of the certificate, rating, or authorization for which the course is established. (b) An approved special preparation course must include ground and flight training on the operating privileges or authorization sought, for developing competency, proficiency, resourcefulness, self-confidence, and self-reliance in the student. 4. Use of full flight simulators, flight training devices, or aviation training devices. (a) The approved special preparation course may include training in a full flight simulator or flight training device, provided it is representative of the aircraft for which the course is approved, meets requirements of this paragraph, and the training is given by an authorized instructor. A flight instructor enhanced qualification training program may include training in an advanced aviation training device in accordance with paragraph 14 of this appendix and § 61.195(h)(3)(v) of this chapter. (b) Except for the airline transport pilot certification program in paragraph 13 of this appendix and the flight instructor enhanced qualification training program in paragraph 14 of this appendix, training in a full flight simulator that meets the requirements of § 141.41(a) may be credited for a maximum of 10 percent of the total flight training hour requirements of the approved course, or of this section, whichever is less. (c) Except for the airline transport pilot certification program in paragraph 13 of this appendix and the flight instructor enhanced qualification training program in paragraph 14 of this appendix, training in a flight training device that meets the requirements of § 141.41(a), may be credited for a maximum of 5 percent of the total flight training hour requirements of the approved course, or of this section, whichever is less. (d) Training in the full flight simulators or flight training devices described in paragraphs (b) and (c) of this section, if used in combination, may be credited for a maximum of 10 percent of the total flight training hour requirements of the approved course, or of this section, whichever is less. However, credit for training in a flight training device that meets the requirements of § 141.41(a) cannot exceed the limitation provided for in paragraph (c) of this section. 5. Stage check and end-of-course tests. Each person enrolled in a special preparation course must satisfactorily accomplish the stage checks and end-of-course tests, in accordance with the school's approved training course, consisting of the approved areas of operation that are appropriate to the operating privileges or authorization sought, and for which the course applies.

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6. Agricultural aircraft operations course. An approved special preparation course for pilots in agricultural aircraft operations must include at least the following— (a) 25 hours of training on: (1) Agricultural aircraft operations; (2) Safe piloting and operating practices and procedures for handling, dispensing, and disposing agricultural and industrial chemicals, including operating in and around congested areas; and (3) Applicable provisions of part 137 of this chapter. (b) 15 hours of flight training on agricultural aircraft operations. 7. Rotorcraft external-load operations course. An approved special preparation course for pilots of external-load operations must include at least the following— (a) 10 hours of training on: (1) Rotorcraft external-load operations; (2) Safe piloting and operating practices and procedures for external-load operations, including operating in and around congested areas; and (3) Applicable provisions of part 133 of this chapter. (b) 15 hours of flight training on external-load operations. 8. Test pilot course. An approved special preparation course for pilots in test pilot duties must include at least the following— (a) Aeronautical knowledge training on: (1) Performing aircraft maintenance, quality assurance, and certification test flight operations; (2) Safe piloting and operating practices and procedures for performing aircraft maintenance, quality assurance, and certification test flight operations; (3) Applicable parts of this chapter that pertain to aircraft maintenance, quality assurance, and certification tests; and (4) Test pilot duties and responsibilities. (b) 15 hours of flight training on test pilot duties and responsibilities. 9. Special operations course. An approved special preparation course for pilots in special operations that are mission-specific for certain aircraft must include at least the following— (a) Aeronautical knowledge training on: (1) Performing that special flight operation; (2) Safe piloting operating practices and procedures for performing that special flight operation; (3) Applicable parts of this chapter that pertain to that special flight operation; and (4) Pilot in command duties and responsibilities for performing that special flight operation. (b) Flight training: (1) On that special flight operation; and (2) To develop skills, competency, proficiency, resourcefulness, self-confidence, and self-reliance in the student for performing that special flight operation in a safe manner. 10. Pilot refresher course. An approved special preparation pilot refresher course for a pilot certificate, aircraft category and class rating, or an instrument rating must include at least the following— (a) 4 hours of aeronautical knowledge training on: (1) The aeronautical knowledge areas that are applicable to the level of pilot certificate, aircraft category and class rating, or instrument rating, as appropriate, that pertain to that course; (2) Safe piloting operating practices and procedures; and (3) Applicable provisions of parts 61 and 91 of this chapter for pilots. (b) 6 hours of flight training on the approved areas of operation that are applicable to the level of pilot certificate, aircraft category and class rating, or instrument rating, as appropriate, for performing pilot-in-command duties and responsibilities. 11. Flight instructor refresher course. An approved special preparation flight instructor refresher course must include at least a combined total of 16 hours of aeronautical knowledge training, flight training, or any combination of ground and flight training on the following— (a) Aeronautical knowledge training on: (1) The aeronautical knowledge areas of part 61 of this chapter that apply to student, recreational, private, and commercial pilot certificates and instrument ratings; (2) The aeronautical knowledge areas of part 61 of this chapter that apply to flight instructor certificates; (3) Safe piloting operating practices and procedures, including airport operations and operating in the National Airspace System; and (4) Applicable provisions of parts 61 and 91 of this chapter that apply to pilots and flight instructors. (b) Flight training to review: (1) The approved areas of operations applicable to student, recreational, private, and commercial pilot certificates and instrument ratings; and (2) The skills, competency, and proficiency for performing flight instructor duties and responsibilities. 12. Ground instructor refresher course. An approved special preparation ground instructor refresher course must include at least 16 hours of aeronautical knowledge training on:

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(a) The aeronautical knowledge areas of part 61 of this chapter that apply to student, recreational, private, and commercial pilots and instrument rated pilots; (b) The aeronautical knowledge areas of part 61 of this chapter that apply to ground instructors; (c) Safe piloting operating practices and procedures, including airport operations and operating in the National Airspace System; and (d) Applicable provisions of parts 61 and 91 of this chapter that apply to pilots and ground instructors. 13. Airline transport pilot certification training program. An approved airline transport pilot certification training program must include the academic and FSTD training set forth in § 61.156 of this chapter. The FAA will not approve a course with fewer hours than those prescribed in § 61.156 of this chapter. 14. Flight instructor enhanced qualification training program. An approved flight instructor enhanced qualification training program must include the ground and flight training specified in § 61.195(h)(3) of this chapter. The FAA will not approve a course with fewer hours than those prescribed in § 61.195(h)(3) of this chapter. [Docket 25910, 62 FR 16347, Apr. 4, 1997; Amdt. 141-9, 62 FR 40910, July 30, 1997, as amended by Amdt. 141-17, 78 FR 42380, July 15, 2013; Amdt. 141-17A, 78 FR 53026, Aug. 28, 2013; Docket FAA-2015-1846, Amdt. 141-18, 81 FR 21462, Apr. 12, 2016; Docket FAA-2023-0825, Amdt. 141-25, 89 FR 80054, Oct. 1, 2024] Pt. 141, App. L Appendix L to Part 141—Pilot Ground School Course 1. Applicability. This appendix prescribes the minimum curriculum for a pilot ground school course required under this part.

2. General requirements. An approved course of training for a pilot ground school must include training on the aeronautical knowledge areas that are: (a) Needed to safely exercise the privileges of the certificate, rating, or authority for which the course is established; and (b) Conducted to develop competency, proficiency, resourcefulness, self-confidence, and self-reliance in each student. 3. Aeronautical knowledge training requirements. Each approved pilot ground school course must include: (a) The aeronautical knowledge training that is appropriate to the aircraft rating and pilot certificate level for which the course applies; and (b) An adequate number of total aeronautical knowledge training hours appropriate to the aircraft rating and pilot certificate level for which the course applies. 4. Stage checks and end-of-course tests. Each person enrolled in a pilot ground school course must satisfactorily accomplish the stage checks and end-of-course tests, in accordance with the school's approved training course, consisting of the approved areas of operation that are appropriate to the operating privileges or authorization that graduation from the course will permit and for which the course applies. Pt. 141, App. M Appendix M to Part 141—Combined Private Pilot Certification and Instrument Rating Course 1. Applicability. This appendix prescribes the minimum curriculum for a combined private pilot certification and instrument rating course required under this part, for the following ratings:

(a) Airplane. (1) Airplane single-engine. (2) Airplane multiengine. (b) Rotorcraft helicopter. (c) Powered-lift. 2. Eligibility for enrollment. A person must hold a sport pilot, recreational, or student pilot certificate prior to enrolling in the flight portion of a combined private pilot certification and instrument rating course. 3. Aeronautical knowledge training. (a) Each approved course must include at least 65 hours of ground training on the aeronautical knowledge areas listed in paragraph (b) of this section that are appropriate to the aircraft category and class rating of the course: (b) Ground training must include the following aeronautical knowledge areas: (1) Applicable Federal Aviation Regulations for private pilot privileges, limitations, flight operations, and instrument flight rules (IFR) flight operations. (2) Accident reporting requirements of the National Transportation Safety Board. (3) Applicable subjects of the “Aeronautical Information Manual” and the appropriate FAA advisory circulars. (4) Aeronautical charts for visual flight rules (VFR) navigation using pilotage, dead reckoning, and navigation systems. (5) Radio communication procedures. (6) Recognition of critical weather situations from the ground and in flight, windshear avoidance, and the procurement and use of aeronautical weather reports and forecasts. (7) Safe and efficient operation of aircraft under instrument flight rules and conditions. (8) Collision avoidance and recognition and avoidance of wake turbulence. (9) Effects of density altitude on takeoff and climb performance. (10) Weight and balance computations. (11) Principles of aerodynamics, powerplants, and aircraft systems.

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(12) If the course of training is for an airplane category, stall awareness, spin entry, spins, and spin recovery techniques. (13) Air traffic control system and procedures for instrument flight operations. (14) IFR navigation and approaches by use of navigation systems. (15) Use of IFR en route and instrument approach procedure charts. (16) Aeronautical decision making and judgment. (17) Preflight action that includes— (i) How to obtain information on runway lengths at airports of intended use, data on takeoff and landing distances, weather reports and forecasts, and fuel requirements. (ii) How to plan for alternatives if the planned flight cannot be completed or delays are encountered. (iii) Procurement and use of aviation weather reports and forecasts, and the elements of forecasting weather trends on the basis of that information and personal observation of weather conditions. 4. Flight training. (a) Each approved course must include at least 70 hours of training, as described in section 4 and section 5 of this appendix, on the approved areas of operation listed in paragraph (d) of section 4 of this appendix that are appropriate to the aircraft category and class rating of the course: (b) Each approved course must include at least the following flight training: (1) For an airplane single engine course: 70 hours of flight training from an authorized instructor on the approved areas of operation in paragraph (d)(1) of this section that includes at least— (i) Except as provided in § 61.111 of this chapter, 3 hours of cross-country flight training in a single engine airplane. (ii) 3 hours of night flight training in a single-engine airplane that includes— (A) One cross-country flight of more than 100 nautical miles total distance. (B) 10 takeoffs and 10 landings to a full stop (with each landing involving a flight in the traffic pattern) at an airport. (iii) 35 hours of instrument flight training in a single-engine airplane that includes at least one cross-country flight that is performed under IFR and— (A) Is a distance of at least 250 nautical miles along airways or air traffic control-directed (ATC-directed) routing with one segment of the flight consisting of at least a straight-line distance of 100 nautical miles between airports. (B) Involves an instrument approach at each airport. (C) Involves three different kinds of approaches with the use of navigation systems. (iv) 3 hours of flight training in a single-engine airplane in preparation for the practical test within 60 days preceding the date of the test. (2) For an airplane multiengine course: 70 hours of training from an authorized instructor on the approved areas of operation in paragraph (d)(2) of this section that includes at least— (i) Except as provided in § 61.111 of this chapter, 3 hours of cross-country flight training in a multiengine airplane. (ii) 3 hours of night flight training in a multiengine airplane that includes— (A) One cross-country flight of more than 100 nautical miles total distance. (B) 10 takeoffs and 10 landings to a full stop (with each landing involving a flight in the traffic pattern) at an airport. (iii) 35 hours of instrument flight training in a multiengine airplane that includes at least one cross-country flight that is performed under IFR and— (A) Is a distance of at least 250 nautical miles along airways or ATC-directed routing with one segment of the flight consisting of at least a straight-line distance of 100 nautical miles between airports. (B) Involves an instrument approach at each airport. (C) Involves three different kinds of approaches with the use of navigation systems. (iv) 3 hours of flight training in a multiengine airplane in preparation for the practical test within 60 days preceding the date of the test. (3) For a rotorcraft helicopter course: 70 hours of training from an authorized instructor on the approved areas of operation in paragraph (d)(3) of this section that includes at least— (i) Except as provided in § 61.111 of this chapter, 3 hours of cross-country flight training in a helicopter. (ii) 3 hours of night flight training in a helicopter that includes— (A) One cross-country flight of more than 50 nautical miles total distance. (B) 10 takeoffs and 10 landings to a full stop (with each landing involving a flight in the traffic pattern) at an airport. (iii) 35 hours of instrument flight training in a helicopter that includes at least one cross-country flight that is performed under IFR and— (A) Is a distance of at least 100 nautical miles along airways or ATC-directed routing with one segment of the flight consisting of at least a straight-line distance of 50 nautical miles between airports. (B) Involves an instrument approach at each airport. (C) Involves three different kinds of approaches with the use of navigation systems. (iv) 3 hours of flight training in a helicopter in preparation for the practical test within 60 days preceding the date of the test. (4) For a powered-lift course: 70 hours of training from an authorized instructor on the approved areas of operation in paragraph (d)(4) of this section that includes at least—

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(i) Except as provided in § 61.111 of this chapter, 3 hours of cross-country flight training in a powered-lift. (ii) 3 hours of night flight training in a powered-lift that includes— (A) One cross-country flight of more than 100 nautical miles total distance. (B) 10 takeoffs and 10 landings to a full stop (with each landing involving a flight in the traffic pattern) at an airport. (iii) 35 hours of instrument flight training in a powered-lift that includes at least one cross-country flight that is performed under IFR and— (A) Is a distance of at least 250 nautical miles along airways or ATC-directed routing with one segment of the flight consisting of at least a straight-line distance of 100 nautical miles between airports. (B) Involves an instrument approach at each airport. (C) Involves three different kinds of approaches with the use of navigation systems. (iv) 3 hours of flight training in a powered-lift in preparation for the practical test, within 60 days preceding the date of the test. (c) For use of full flight simulators or flight training devices: (1) The course may include training in a combination of full flight simulators, flight training devices, and aviation training devices, provided it is representative of the aircraft for which the course is approved, meets the requirements of this section, and the training is given by an authorized instructor. (2) Training in a full flight simulator that meets the requirements of § 141.41(a) may be credited for a maximum of 35 percent of the total flight training hour requirements of the approved course, or of this section, whichever is less. (3) Training in a flight training device that meets the requirements of § 141.41(a) or an aviation training device that meets the requirements of § 141.41(b) may be credited for a maximum of 25 percent of the total flight training hour requirements of the approved course, or of this section, whichever is less. (4) Training in a combination of flight simulators, flight training devices, or aviation training devices, described in paragraphs (c)(2) and (3) of this section, may be credited for a maximum of 35 percent of the total flight training hour requirements of the approved course, or of this section, whichever is less. However, credit for training in a flight training device and aviation training device, that meets the requirements of § 141.41(b), cannot exceed the limitation provided for in paragraph (c)(3) of this section. (d) Each approved course must include the flight training on the approved areas of operation listed in this section that are appropriate to the aircraft category and class rating course— (1) For a combined private pilot certification and instrument rating course involving a single-engine airplane: (i) Preflight preparation. (ii) Preflight procedures. (iii) Airport and seaplane base operations. (iv) Takeoffs, landings, and go-arounds. (v) Performance maneuvers. (vi) Ground reference maneuvers. (vii) Navigation and navigation systems. (viii) Slow flight and stalls. (ix) Basic instrument maneuvers and flight by reference to instruments. (x) Instrument approach procedures. (xi) Air traffic control clearances and procedures. (xii) Emergency operations. (xiii) Night operations. (xiv) Postflight procedures. (2) For a combined private pilot certification and instrument rating course involving a multiengine airplane: (i) Preflight preparation. (ii) Preflight procedures. (iii) Airport and seaplane base operations. (iv) Takeoffs, landings, and go-arounds. (v) Performance maneuvers. (vi) Ground reference maneuvers. (vii) Navigation and navigation systems. (viii) Slow flight and stalls. (ix) Basic instrument maneuvers and flight by reference to instruments. (x) Instrument approach procedures. (xi) Air traffic control clearances and procedures. (xii) Emergency operations. (xiii) Multiengine operations. (xiv) Night operations. (xv) Postflight procedures. (3) For a combined private pilot certification and instrument rating course involving a rotorcraft helicopter: (i) Preflight preparation. (ii) Preflight procedures. (iii) Airport and heliport operations. (iv) Hovering maneuvers. (v) Takeoffs, landings, and go-arounds. (vi) Performance maneuvers. (vii) Navigation and navigation systems. (viii) Basic instrument maneuvers and flight by reference to instruments. (ix) Instrument approach procedures. (x) Air traffic control clearances and procedures. (xi) Emergency operations. (xii) Night operations. (xiii) Postflight procedures. (4) For a combined private pilot certification and instrument rating course involving a powered-lift: (i) Preflight preparation. (ii) Preflight procedures. (iii) Airport and heliport operations. (iv) Hovering maneuvers. (v) Takeoffs, landings, and go-arounds. (vi) Performance maneuvers. (vii) Ground reference maneuvers.

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(viii) Navigation and navigation systems. (ix) Slow flight and stalls. (x) Basic instrument maneuvers and flight by reference to instruments. (xi) Instrument approach procedures. (xii) Air traffic control clearances and procedures. (xiii) Emergency operations. (xiv) Night operations. (xv) Postflight procedures. 5. Solo flight training. Each approved course must include at least the following solo flight training: (a) For a combined private pilot certification and instrument rating course involving an airplane single engine: Five hours of flying solo in a single-engine airplane on the appropriate areas of operation in paragraph (d)(1) of section 4 of this appendix that includes at least— (1) One solo cross-country flight of at least 100 nautical miles with landings at a minimum of three points, and one segment of the flight consisting of a straight-line distance of at least 50 nautical miles between the takeoff and landing locations. (2) Three takeoffs and three landings to a full stop (with each landing involving a flight in the traffic pattern) at an airport with an operating control tower. (b) For a combined private pilot certification and instrument rating course involving an airplane multiengine: Five hours of flying solo in a multiengine airplane or 5 hours of performing the duties of a pilot in command while under the supervision of an authorized instructor. The training must consist of the appropriate areas of operation in paragraph (d)(2) of section 4 of this appendix, and include at least— (1) One cross-country flight of at least 100 nautical miles with landings at a minimum of three points, and one segment of the flight consisting of a straight-line distance of at least 50 nautical miles between the takeoff and landing locations. (2) Three takeoffs and three landings to a full stop (with each landing involving a flight in the traffic pattern) at an airport with an operating control tower. (c) For a combined private pilot certification and instrument rating course involving a helicopter: Five hours of flying solo in a helicopter on the appropriate areas of operation in paragraph (d)(3) of section 4 of this appendix that includes at least— (1) One solo cross-country flight of more than 50 nautical miles with landings at a minimum of three points, and one segment of the flight consisting of a straight-line distance of at least 25 nautical miles between the takeoff and landing locations. (2) Three takeoffs and three landings to a full stop (with each landing involving a flight in the traffic pattern) at an airport with an operating control tower. (d) For a combined private pilot certification and instrument rating course involving a powered-lift: Five hours of flying solo in a powered-lift on the appropriate areas of operation in paragraph (d)(4) of section 4 of this appendix that includes at least— (1) One solo cross-country flight of at least 100 nautical miles with landings at a minimum of three points, and one segment of the flight consisting of a straight-line distance of at least 50 nautical miles between the takeoff and landing locations. (2) Three takeoffs and three landings to a full stop (with each landing involving a flight in the traffic pattern) at an airport with an operating control tower. 6. Stage checks and end-of-course tests. (a) Each student enrolled in a private pilot course must satisfactorily accomplish the stage checks and end-of-course tests in accordance with the school's approved training course that consists of the approved areas of operation listed in paragraph (d) of section 4 of this appendix that are appropriate to the aircraft category and class rating for which the course applies. (b) Each student must demonstrate satisfactory proficiency prior to receiving an endorsement to operate an aircraft in solo flight. [Docket FAA-2008-0938, 76 FR 54108, Aug. 31, 2011, as amended by Docket FAA-2015-1846, Amdt. 141-18, 81 FR 21462, Apr. 12, 2016]